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1. The sudden unexpected occurrence of a disease in a given population:

a. Outbreak b. Zoonotic c. Endemic d. Sporadic
2. A causative agent of peptic ulcer
a. Escherichia coli b. Bordetella pertusis c. Shigella dysenteriae d. Helicobacter pylori
3. The “four o’clock habit” promoted by the Department of health is designed to prevent the spread of:
a. Dengue fever b. Tuberculosis c. Malnutrition d.malaria
4. The first drug available for HIV:
a. ZDU b. RMP c. TMP d. CMC
5. An immediate hypersensitivity reaction following exposure of a sensitized individual to the appropriate
antigen:
a. Hay fever b. Anaphylaxis c. Asthma d. Desensitation
6. A thin proteinaceous appendage necessary for bacterial conjugation:
a. Cilium b. Trichome c. Flagellum d. Pilus
7. The use of nitrite as preservative for food is discouraged because:
a. It can discolour the meat b. It can react with amines to form carcinogenic nitrosamines
c. It decomposed to nitric acid which can react with heme pigments d. It is not readily
available
8. The disinfectant of choice for municipal water supply:
a. Lysol b. Chlorine c. Ozone d. Reverse osmosis
9. An object that is able to harbour and transmit microorganisms:
a. Mite b. Fomite c. Arthropod d. Vector
10. Administration of a toxoid cenfers:
a. Naturally acquired active immunity b. Naturally acquired passive immunity c. Artificially
acquired active immunity d. Artificially acquired passive immunity
11. An index that measures the number of individuals who have become ill because of a specific disease
within a susceptible to population during a specific period:
a. Morbidity rate b. Prevalence rate c. Mortality ate d. AOTA
12. The effectiveness of a disinfectant is influenced by:
a. Population size b. Duration of exposure c. Concentration of all the disinfectant d.AOTA
13. Lesions in the oral cavity caused by measles virus are known as:
a. Koplik spot b. Peyer’s patches c. Rose spots d. Rashes
14. Anaerobic bacteria that drive energy by converting formats, acetates and other compounds to
methane:
a. Microaerophilic b. Metanochromi c. Methanogenic d. Cyanobacteria
15. Artificially acquired passive immunity is developed after vaccination with:
a. Attenuated microorganisms b. Immunoglobulin preparations c. Toxoids
d. Cyanobacteria
16. Nosocomial infections are:
a. Infections developed while the patient is in the hospital b. Infections of the nasal area
c. Infections where pathogens enters the body through the nose d. Infections
among animals
17. The capacity of an organism to produce a toxin is known as:
a. Pathogenicity b. Virulence c. Toxigenicity d. Toxicity
18. The Boracay water was declared unsafe due to:
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a. Industrial wastes b. Fecal coliforms c. Red tide d. Oil spills

19. The male ascaris is distinguished from the female because its tail is:
a. Straight b. Slim c. Blunt d. Curved
20. It refers to water suitable for drinking:
a. Potable b. Edible c. bacteria-free d. Odor-free
21. Microbial decomposition of proteins with the production of H2S and amines is known as:
a. Fermentation b. Putrefaction c. Dentrification d. Transpeptidation
22. Rod-shape bacteria curved from commas are known as:
a. Bacilli b. Cocci c. Spiral d. Vibrios
23. This statement is true about viral infection:
a. Viral infection are self limiting b. Viral infection confer lifetime immunity c. viral
infections are treated by antibiotics d. All the statements are correct
24. The heat stable lipopolysaccharide in the outer membrane of gram-negative cell wall that is toxic to
the host is known as:
a. Tetanospasmin b. Aflatoxin c. Enterotoxin d. endotoxin
25. To ability of a microorganism to enter a host, grow, reproduce and spread throughout its body is
known as:
a. Invasiveness b. Pathogenicity c. Toxigenicity d. Virulence
26. The intimate living together of members of two different species is known as:
a. Mutualism b. Commensalism c. Symbiosis d. AOTA
27. Plastics that can be decomposed by microorganism are said to be:
a. Recyclable b. Biodegradable c. Earth-friendly d. Reversible
28. Dengue virus vector:
a. Plasmodium falciparum b. Aedes agypti c. Anopheles mosquito d.NOT A
29. It causes ringworm infection with whitish patches on human skin:
a. Tinea capitis b. Tines corporis c. Trichophyton rubrum d. Malaserria furfur
30. The causative agent of pneumonia acquired by inhalation from air-conditioners
a. Chlamydia b. Salmonella typi c. Pneumocystis carinii d. Legionell pneumophila
31. The following are communicable diseases, except:
a. Measles b. Tetanus c. Pneumonia d. hepatitis
32. The following are zoonotic disease, except:
a. Mumps b. Leptospirosis c. Anthrax d. Brucellosis
33. Hansen’s disease is caused by:
a. Mycobacterium leprae b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis c. Myoplasma leprae d.NOTA
34. The following are true about moist heat sterilization, except:
a. Makes use of an autoclave b. Causes oxidation of cell components c. Makes use of
steam under pressure d. Can kill both vegetative cells and spores
35. A cellular structure equated for drug resistance is the:
a. Endospore b. Exospores c. Trasposon d. Capsule
36. Bacterial genes responsible for drug resistance are known as:
a. F plasmids b. R plasmids c. Tansposons d. Both B and C
37. Group of microorganisms that can be transmitted to humans by animal vectors like insects:
a. Protozoa b. Rickettias c. Chlamydias d. Myoplasmas
38. The first chemotherapeutic agent significally discovered and evaluated:
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a. Sulfonmide b. Penicillin c. Salvarsan d. NOTA

39. Thioglycollate agar is an example of:
a. Enriched media b. Selective media c. Anaerobic media d. Differential media
40. A chemical agent that kills the vegetative forms of pathogenic microorganisms but not necessarily the
spores is known as:
a. Antiseptic b. Disinfectant c. Sanitizer d. Germicide
41. An example of ionizing radiation:
a. X-ray b. UV c. Sunlight d. AOTA
42. The primary site of electron transport system in eukaryotes:
a. Ribosomes b. Nucleus c. Cytoplasm d. Mitochondria
43. The organism with atypical cell wall:
a. Mycoplasms b. Rickettias c. Chlamydias d. Viruses
44. Koch’s postulates include the following, except:
a. The suspected organism should be present in health individuals
b. b. The organism must be isolated and grown as pure culture in the laboratory
c. c. The organism must initiate the symptoms of the disease in healthy animals
d. d. The organism must be re-isolated from the animal and be cultured
45. The following are contributions of Louis Pasteur in microbiology, except:
a. Terms “aerobic” and “anaerobic” b. Fractional sterilization c. Pasteur flask d.
Fermentation
46. A phenomenon wherein an organism exhibits plasticity:
a. Dimorphism b. Polymorphism c. Pleomorphism d. Fleximorphism
47. The following can be sterilized in an autoclave, except:
a. Olive oil b. Culture media c. Water d. Glassware
48. A biological sterilization indicator used to test autoclave efficiency:
a. Virus b. Bacillus thuringiensis c. Bacillus stearothermophillus
d. Clostridium botulinum
49. Phase in the bacterial growth curve wherein the culture is in the period of balanced growth:
a. Log phase b. Lag phase c. Stationary phase d. Death phase
50. A process by which bacterial endospore return to its vegetative state:
a. Polymorphism b. Mutagenicity c. Germination d. Sporulation
51. Ribosomes of candida albicans are reffered to as:
a. 70s b. 80s c. 90s d. 100s
52. Organisms that can grow at body temperature:
a. Thermophiles b. Psychrophies c. Acidophies d. Mesophiles
53. Specific process of reproduction among prokaryotes:
a. Sporulation b. Transverse binary fission c. Germination d. NOTA
54. A process of gene transfer where the carrier of DNA is a virus:
a. Transduction b. Conjugation c. Transformation d. Both A and C
55. A structurally mature infections viral particle:
a. Virion b. Capsid c. Capsule d. spore
56. An algae group responsible for red tide poisoning:
a. Dinoflagellate b. Diatom c. Euglenoid d. NOTA
57. A theory that states that life originates from none life:
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a. Theory of spontaneous generation b. Koch’s Postulates c. Germ

Theory d. NOTA
58. Lymphocytes that have a high affinity for HIV:
a. T-helper lymphocytes b. B-lymphocytes c. Phagocytes d. T-cytotoxic lymphocytes
59. A priority program of DOH, which aims at promoting availability of quality services in health centers
and hospitals:
a. Health Sector Reform Agenda b. National Health Objectives c. Sentrong
sigla d. Health Passport Initiative e. NOTA
60. Another priority program of DOH, which emphasizes partnership and shared responsibility for health
among various sectors:
a. Health Sector Reform Agenda b. National Health Objectives c. Sentrong
sigla d. Health Passport Initiative e. NOTA
61. Its function is mainly to serve as an advisory body to the local executive or local legislative on health
related matters:
a. DOH b. WHO c. QUERT d. Sentrong Sigla e. NOTA
62. Backyard gardening community project and putting of herbal plants are among the major activities
under this program:
a. Araw ng Sangkap Pinoy b. Nutrition Program c. National Drug Policy Program d.
Herbal and Philippine Traditional Medicine e. NOTA
63. Its main objective is attained by all people of the highest possible level of health:
a. PhilHealth b. DOH Hospitals c. UNICEF d. WHO e. NOTA
64. National Center for Disease Prevention and Control belongs to what function cluster:
a. Internal Management b. Health regulation c. External Affairs d. Health
Regulation Development e. NOTA
65. An employee liability law that provides financial support for workers unemployed because of work
related injuries:
a. OSH Act b. Workers compensation law c. Civilian rehabilitation
d. Coal Mine health and Safety Act e. NOTA
66. A lung disease caused by cotton-mill dust:
a. Mesothelioma b. Chemical Hazards c. Physical Hazards d. Ergonomic
hazards e. NOTA
67. A type of industrial hazard, which includes ambient heat, burn, noise and vibration:
a. Biological b. Chemical c. Physical d. Ergonomic e. NOTA
68. Air contaminants causing death by asphyxiation in high concentration:
a. Sulfur dioxide b. CO c. CO2 d. Lead` e. NOTA
69. The following are the functions of Amiotic fluid, except:
a. Allows the movement of fetus d. Allows the fetus to float
b. Protects against mechanical injury e. NOTA
c. Provides stable temperature
70. Food processing technique that protects food from oxidative deterioration and growth of aerobic
microorganism:
a. Canning b. Pasteurization c. Irradiation d. Drying e. NOTA
71. A vitamin that serves as intracellular antioxidant
a. Vit. A b. Vit. D c. Vit. E d. Vit. K e. NOTA
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72. The irreversible stage of alcohol damage characterized by liver enlargement:

a. Cirrhosis b. Alcoholic hepatitis c. Fatty liver d. AOTA e. NOTA
73. The following are attributed to fetal alcohol syndrome, except:
a. Smaller size b. Deformities of limb c. Heart defects d. Poor
coordination e. NOTA
74. Stage of alcoholism wherein the person experiences blackouts:
a. Initial stage b. Middle stage c. Third stage d. Final stage e. NOTA
75. Compounds that combine with atmospheric moisture to produce highly acidic rain, snow, air or fog
a. CO2b. Sulfur dioxide c. Nitrogen oxide d. A and B e. B and C
76. It is an aging process in the life cycle of lake, pond or slow moving river stream brought about by the
accumulation of nutrients needed to sustain aquatic plants and animals accompanied by an increase in
the number of organisms:
a. Acidification` b. Alkalinification c. Nitrification d. Eutrophication e.NOTA
77. A drug treatment of alcoholism, which acts to diminish the pleasurable effects of alcohol
a. Naltrexone b. Antabuse c. Tranquilizers d. AOTA e.NOTA
78. This is a period between conception through complete delivery of the product of conception:
a. Pregnancy b. Fertilization c. Implantation d. Cleavage e.NOTA
79. A trace mineral necessary for heme synthesis, electron transport and wound healing:
a. Copper b. Manganese c. Chromium d. Zinc e.NOTA
80. It describes the amount of energy, protein, minerals and vitamins needed by normal healthy individual:
a. RDA b. REA c. RAD d. RAE e. NOTA
81. A type of malnutrition associated with inadequate mastication, digestion, absorption, transport and
excretion of nutrients:
a. Primary malnutrition b. Secondary malnutrition c. Undernutrition d.
Overnutrition e. NOTA
82. Deficiency of thiamine leads to:
a. Beri-beri b. Pellagra c. Stomatitis d. A and B e. B and C
83. A short-term expression of alcohol toxicity:
a. Cirrhosis b. Alcoholism c. Hang-over d. A and B e. B and C
84. Vit. B deficiency caused by alcoholism produces a neurological disorder called:
a. Steven johnson’s syndrome b. Down syndrome c. Wernicke-korakoff syndrome
d. A and B e. NOTA
85. Regarding the nature of medicinally important viruses, which one of the following statements is least
accurate?
a. Polio virus is a non-enveloped virus with RNA as its genome
b. Epstein-Barr virus is a non-enveloped virus with RNA as its genome
c. Hepatitis B is an enveloped virus with RNA as its genome
d. Influenza virus is an enveloped virus with RNA as its genome
86. The following statements regarding the capsules of bacteria ar4e correct, except:
a. Most bacterial capsules are polysaccharides and serve to protect the bacteria by inhibiting
phagocytosis
b. Bacterial capsules can vary antigenically, and as a result some bacteria have many serologis types
c. Bacterial capsules can be purified and used in vaccines against certain bacteria, example the
Pneumococcus.
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d. Most gram-positive bacteria have capsules, whereas gram-negative bacteria rarely do.
87. The following statements regarding coccidiodes immitis are correct, except:
a. It is dimorphic fungus that grows as a mold in the soil and as spherules in the body
b. Infection usually results from the inhalation of asexual spores (anthroconida), hence the primary
site of infection is the lungs
c. When cultured in the laboratory, the organism forms budding yeasts
d. The most important host defense against this organism is cell-mediated immunity.
88. The following statements regarding bacterial exotoxins are correct, except:
a. They are integral parts of the cell wall
b. They are produced by both Staphylococcus aureus and Escherichia coli
c. They are polypeptides consisting of two functional regions, the one that binds to cell receptors and
one that has the toxic acrtivity
d. Treatment of some exotoxins with formaldehyde yields a toxoid, which is used as the immunogen
in certain vaccines
89. The following statements regarding the C3 component of the complement cascade are correct, except:
a. It is involved in both the classic and the alternative pathways
b. Its C3a fragment can cause anaphylaxis by releasing histamines from mast cells
c. Its C3b fragment binds to both IgG and surface receptors on neutrophils
d. Its C3b fragment is part of the complex that causes lysis of gram-negative bacteria such as Neiserria
90. Regarding the prevention of bacterial diseases by vaccines, which one of the following is least
accurate?
a. Tetanus toxoid is produced by treating tetanus toxin with formalin, which inactivates its ability to
cause disease
b. But leaves antigenicity intact.
c. Diphtheria vaccine contains diphtheria toxoid and produces few side effects when given to
children.
d. Both pertussis vaccine and Haemophilus influenza vaccine contain inactivated whole bacteria and
produce significant side effects in children
e. The pneumococcal vaccine contains capsular polysaccharide of many serotypes and is
recommended primarily for older people.
91. Several viruses infect the intestinal tract as their initial site of infection. Which of the following is least
likely to do this?
a. Hepatitis A virus b. Polio virus c. Rotavirus d. Mumps virus
92. Penicillin is very effective antibacterial drug but their use is limited by allergic reations. In these
allergies, Penicillin acts as a hapten. Which of the following is the most accurate:
a. Penicillin a T-dependent antigens, which bind to receptors on B cells and stimulate an antibody
response
b. Penicillin interacts with T cell receptors on CD4-positive T cells and activates them
c. Penicillin binds to carrier proteins, then interacts with the B cell receptor and carrier proteins. The
carrier protein epitope is presented to the helper T-cell
d. Penicillin interacts with the early comnplements (C1, C4, C2 and C3) to release inflammatory
mediators
93. The causative agent of suppurative disease like pharyngitis and cellulites and nonsuppurative disease
like rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis
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a. Staphylococcus aureus d. Staphylococcus epidermidis

b. Streptococcus pyogenes e. Streptococcus agalactiae
c. Streptococcus pneumonia
94. The causative agent for food poisoning, TSS and skin boils
a. Staphylococcus aureus d. Staphylococcus epidermidis
b. Streptococcus pyogenes e. Streptococcus agalactiae
c. Streptococcus pneumonia
95. Normal flora of the skin but may cause “stitch abscess” and sepsis
a. Staphylococcus aureus d. Staphylococcus epidermidis
b. Streptococcus pyogenes e. Streptococcus agalactiae
c. Streptococcus pneumonia
96. A group of streptococcus that causes neonatal meningitis and sepsis
a. Staphylococcus aureus d. Staphylococcus epidermidis
b. Streptococcus pyogenes e. Streptococcus agalactiae
c. Streptococcus pneumonia
97. The causative agent of pneumonia and meningitis in adults, and otitis media and sinusitis in children
a. Staphylococcus aureus d. Staphylococcus epidermidis
b. Streptococcus pyogenes e. Streptococcus agalactiae
c. Streptococcus pneumonia
98. A gram-negative, kidney bean shaped diplococcic causing gonorrhoea
a. Meningococcus d. Clostridium tetani
b. Gonococcus e. Listeria monocytogenes
c. Bacillus antracis
99. A gram-negative, kidney shaped diplococcic, oxidase positive with large polysaccharide capsule
referred to as glycocalyx
a. Meningococcus d. Clostridium tetani
b. Gonococcus e. Listeria monocytogenes
c. Bacillus antracis
100. Anaerobic, gram-positive with terminal spore affecting neutrotransmitters leading to excitatory
neurons that are unopposed and extreme muscle spasm
a. Meningococcus d. Clostridium tetani
b. Gonococcus e. Listeria monocytogenes
c. Bacillus antracis

101. Aerobic, non- spore forming organism that exhibits tumbling motility and capable of causing meningitis
and sepsis in newborn and immunocompromised patients.
A. Meningococcus C. Bacillus antracis E. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Gonococcus D. Clostridium tetani
102. Large, spore- forming rod, whose capsule is composed of poly- D- glutamate and may cause Wool
Sorter’s disease.
A. Meningococcus C. Bacillus antracis E. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Gonococcus D. Clostridium tetani
103. Characterized physiologically by a “sardonic smile”.
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A. Clostridium perfringens C. Clostridium botulinum E. Clostridium dificile

B. Closrtidium tetani D. Corynebacterium diphtheria
104. The causative agent of gas gangrene.
A. Clostridium perfringens C. Clostridium botulinum E. Clostridium dificile
B. Closrtidium tetani D. Corynebacterium diphtheria
105. In stained smear, it is usually seen in Chinese letter arrangement having metachromatic granules and may
infect the respiratory system.
A. Clostridium perfringens C. Clostridium botulinum E. Clostridium dificile
B. Closrtidium tetani D. Corynebacterium diphtheria
106. Anaerobic, gram- positive, spore- forming rods, which is a normal flora of the intestine. It has enterotoxin
that causes watery diarrhea and may lead to pseudomembranous colitis.
A. Clostridium perfringens C. Clostridium botulinum E. Clostridium dificile
B. Closrtidium tetani D. Corynebacterium diphtheria
107. The causative agent of food poisoning from canned good foods.
A. Clostridium perfringens C. Clostridium botulinum E. Clostridium dificile
B. Closrtidium tetani D. Corynebacterium diphtheria
108. A halophilic coma shaped, gram negative bacteria.
A. Escherichia coli C. Shigella dysenteriae E. Camphylobacter jejuni
B. Salmonella typhi D. Vibrio cholerae
109. A gram negative, coma shaped microaerophilic rod that causes enterocolitis and can be cultured in
Skirrow’s agar.
A. Escherichia coli C. Shigella dysenteriae E. Camphylobacter jejuni
B. Salmonella typhi D. Vibrio cholerae
110. Facultative gram negative rods, non- lactose fermenting and may cause enterocolitis (dysentery).
A. Escherichia coli C. Shigella dysenteriae E. Camphylobacter jejuni
B. Salmonella typhi D. Vibrio cholerae
111. Urinary tract infection (UTI), sepsis neonatal meningitis and “travellers diarrhea” are the most common
disease caused by this gram negative, non- lactose fermenting bacilli.
A. Escherichia coli C. Shigella dysenteriae E. Camphylobacter jejuni
B. Salmonella typhi D. Vibrio cholerae
112. Ceftriaxone is the most effective drug used to treat this facultative, non- lactose fermenting, gram
negative rod which is capable of producing H2S.
A. Escherichia coli C. Shigella dysenteriae E. Camphylobacter jejuni
B. Salmonella typhi D. Vibrio cholerae
113. Penicillin is effective for this spirochete organism causing syphilis.
A. Mycobacterium leprae C. Borrelia burgdorferi E. Leptospira interrogans
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Treponema pallidum
114. Spirochete, which is the causative agent of leptospirosis.
A. Mycobacterium leprae C. Borrelia burgdorferi E. Leptospira interrogans
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Treponema pallidum
115. Spirochete, which is causative agent of lyme disease and can be treated by Doxycycline for early stage
and Pen G for late stages.
A. Mycobacterium leprae C. Borrelia burgdorferi E. Leptospira interrogans
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Treponema pallidum
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116. An acid- fast bacillus that have mycolic acid in its cell wall, which can be seen in a palisade arrangement.
A. Mycobacterium leprae C. Borrelia burgdorferi E. Leptospira interrogans
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Treponema pallidum
117. An acid- fast, catalase negative bacillus that can be grown in Lowenstein- Jensen medium and is capable
of producing Niacin. It can be treated wth Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide and INH.
A. Mycobacterium leprae C. Borrelia burgdorferi E. Leptospira interrogans
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Treponema pallidum
118. Gancyclovir is beneficial in treating pneumonia and retinitis, while Acyclovir is ineffective.
A. Herpes Simplex virus Type C. Herpes simplex virus type 2 E. Epstein- Barr virus
B. Varicella- Zoster virus D. Cytomegalovirus
119. The causative agent of infectious Mononucleosis (IM) and is associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma in East
African children. No drug is effective to treat the disease.
A. Herpes Simplex virus Type C. Herpes simplex virus type 2 E. Epstein- Barr virus
B. Varicella- Zoster virus D. Cytomegalovirus
120. The causative agent of herpes genitalis, which can be treated with Acylovir.
A. Herpes Simplex virus Type C. Herpes simplex virus type 2 E. Epstein- Barr virus
B. Varicella- Zoster virus D. Cytomegalovirus
121. The causative agent of herpes labialis (fever blisters or cold sores), keratitis and encephalitis.
A. Herpes Simplex virus Type C. Herpes simplex virus type 2 E. Epstein- Barr virus
B. Varicella- Zoster virus D. Cytomegalovirus
122. The causative agent of Varicella (chicken pox) in children and Zoster (shingles) in adults.
A. Herpes Simplex virus Type C. Herpes simplex virus type 2 E. Epstein- Barr virus
B. Varicella- Zoster virus D. Cytomegalovirus
123. Which one of the following statements is the most accurate comparison of human, bacterial and fungal
cells?
A. Human cells undergoes mitosis, but not C. Human and bacterial cells have plasmid,
bacteria or fungi whereas fungal cells do not have.
B. Human and fungal cells have similar cell wall, D. Human and fungal cells have similar
In contrast to bacteria whose cell wall contains ribosomes, whereas bacterial
Peptidoglycan. ribosomes are different.
124. The following statements concerning endotoxins are correct, except:
A. They are less potent (ie., less acteive C. They bind to specific cell receptors,
on weight basis) than exotoxins. whereas exotoxins do not.
B. They are more heat stable than exotoxins. D. They are part of the bacterial cell wall,
whereas exotoxins are not.
125. The main host defense against bacterial exotoxins is:
A. Activated macrophages secreting proteases C. Helper- T cells
B. IgG and IgM antibodies D. Modulation of host cell receptors in
response to the toxin
126. The following events involve recombination of DNA, except:
A. Transduction of a chromosomal gene C. Integration of a temperate bacteriophage
B. Transposition of a mobile genetic element D. Conjugation, such as the transfer of a
R (resistance) factor
127. The following statements about the normal flora are correct, except:
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A. The most common organism found on the skin C. Colon is the major site where
is Staphylococcus epidermis. bacteroides fragilis can be found.
B. Escherichia coli is a normal flora D. Nose is one of the most common
of the throat. site Staphylococcus aureus can be found.
128. Which of the following statements is the most important fubction of antibody in host defense against
bacteria?
A. Activation of the lysozymes that degrades C. Facilitation of phagocytosis
the cell wall D. Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis
B. Acceleration of proteolysis of exotoxins
129. Which of the following best describes the mode of action of endotoxin?
A. Degrades lecithin in cell membranes C. Blocks release of acetylcholine
B. Inactivates elongation factor- 2 D. Causes the release of necrosis factor

130. The identification of bacteria by serologic test is based on the presence of specific antigens. Which of the
following bacterial components is least likely to contain useful antigens?
A. Capsule C. Cell wall
B. Flagella D. Ribosomes
131. Causes paralysis by blocking release of acetylcholine
A. Diphtheria toxin C. Botolinum toxin E. Cholera toxin
B. Tetanus toxin D. Toxic shock syndrome toxin
132. Inhibits protein synthesis by blocking elongation factor- 2
A. Diphtheria toxin C. Botolinum toxin E. Cholera toxin
B. Tetanus toxin D. Toxic shock syndrome toxin
133. Stimulates T- cells to produce cytokines
A. Diphtheria toxin C. Botolinum toxin E. Cholera toxin
B. Tetanus toxin D. Toxic shock syndrome toxin
134. Stimulates the production of cyclic AMP by adding ADP- ribosome to a G protein
A. Diphtheria toxin C. Botolinum toxin E. Cholera toxin
B. Tetanus toxin D. Toxic shock syndrome toxin
135. Inhibits the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters causing muscle spasms
A. Diphtheria toxin C. Botolinum toxin E. Cholera toxin
B. Tetanus toxin D. Toxic shock syndrome toxin
136. An outbreak of sepsis causes by Staphylococcus aureus has occurred in the newborn nursery. You are
called investigate. According to your knowledge of the normal flora, what is the most likely source of the
bacteria?
A. Colon C. Throat
B. Nose D. Vagina
137. The following organisms are recognized causes of diarrhea, except:
A. Clostridium perfringens C. Escherichia coli
B. Streptococcus fecalis D. Vibrio cholera
138. A patient has subacute bacterial endocarditis, which is caused by a member of the viridians group of
Streptococcus. Which of the following sites is most likely to be source of the organism?
A. Skin C. Oropharynx
B. Colon D. Urethra
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139. The coagulase test, wherein the bacteria causes plasma to clot is used to distinguish:
A. Streptococcus pyogenes from C. Staphylococcus aureus from
Streptococcus faecalis staphylococcus epidermidis
B. Streptococcus pyogenes from D. Staphylococcus epidermidis from
Streptococcus aureus Neisseria meningitidis
140. Five hours after eating friend rice at a restaurant,you and your friends developed nausea, vomiting and
diarrhea. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the causative agent?
A. Clostridium perfringens C. Bacillus cereus
B. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli D. Salmonella typhi
141. Which of the following zoonotic diseases has no arthropod vector?
A. Plague C. Lyme disease
B. Lyme disease D. Epidermic typhus
142. Which of the following organisms principally infects vascular endothelial cells?
A. Salmonella typhi C. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Rickettsia typhi D. Coxiella burnetii
143. The following statements concerning Chlamydia are correct, except:
A. Chlamydia is a strict intracellular parasite C. Chlamydia trachomatis has multiple
because it cannot synthesize suffient ATP. serotypes, whereas C. Psittaci has only
B. Chlamydia possesses both DNA and RNA one serotypes
and is bounded by a cell wall D. Most Chlamydia are transmitted by
arthropods.
144. A 55- year old man develops dysuria and hematuria. A gram stain of urine sample shows gram- negative
rods. Culture of the urine on EMB agar reveals non- lactose fermenting colonies without evidence of swarming
motility. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be causative agent of his urinary tract infection?
A. Streptococcus faecalis C. Protues vulgaris
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Escherichia coli
145. Acute glomerulonephritis is a nonsuppurative complication that follows infection by which of the
following organisms?
A. Streptococcus faecalis B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Proteus vulgaris D. Escherichia coli
146. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the cause of pneumonia in an immunocompetent
patient.
A. Nocardia asteroides C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B. Serratia marcescenes D. Streptococcus agalactiae
147. Which of the following forms of immunity to viruses would be least likely to be lifelong?
A. Passive immunity C. Active immunity
B. Passive- active immunity D. Cell-mediated immunity
148. The following statements concerning interferon are correct, except:

A. Interferon inhibits the growth of both C. Viruses must degrade host cell DNA
DNA and RNA viruses in order to obtain nucleotides
B. Interferon is induced by double- stranded DNA. D. Enveloped viruses require host cell
membranes to obtain their envelopes.
149. Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites. The following statements concerning this fact are correct,
except:
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A. Viruses cannot generate energy outside the cell C. Viruses must degrade host cell DNA
B. Viruses cannot synthesize proteins outside in order to obtain nucleotides.
the cell D. Enveloped viruses require host cell
membranes to obtain their envelopes.
150. The following statements about lysogensy are correct, except:
A. Viruses replicate independently of C. Viruses DNA is integrated into bacterial DNA.
bacterial genes.
B. Viral genes responsible for lysis are D. Some lysogenic bactriophage encode toxins that
repressed. that cause human disease.
151. The following viruses posses an outer envelope of lipoprotein, except:
A. Varicella- zoster virus B. Papillomavirus C. Influenza virus D. HIV virus
152. The following viruses posses RNA polymerase in the virion, except:
A. Hepatitis A virus B. Smallpox virus C. Mumps virus D. Rotavirus
153. The following viruses posses double- stranded DNA as its genome, except:
A. Coxsackie virus B. Herpes simplex virus C. Rotavirus D. Adenovirus
154. Which of the following statements best describe a viriod?
A. It is a defective virus that is missing C. It causes tumor in experimental animals.
the DNA coding for the matrix protein. D. It requires RNA polymerase in the particle
B. It consists of RNA without a protein or for replication to occur.
lipoprotein outer coat.
155. The following statements about measles virus and rubella virus are correct, except:
A. They are enveloped RNA viruses. C. They each have a single antigenic type.
B. Their virions contain RNA polymerase. D. They are transmitted by respiratory aerosol.
156. The following statements about influenza virus and rabies virus are correct, except:
A. They are enveloped RNA viruses. C. Vaccines containing killed organisms are
B. Their virions contain RNA polymerase. available for both viruses.
D. They each have a single antigenic type.
157. The following statements about poliovirus and rhinovirus are correct, except:
A. They are non- enveloped RNA viruses. C. Their virions contain RNA polymerase.
B. They each have multiple antigenic types. D. They do not integrate their genome into
the DNA of the host cell.
158. Herpes simplex virus
A. DNA enveloped virus C. RNA enveloped virus E. Viriod
B. DNA non- enveloped virus D. RNA non- enveloped virus
159. Human T- cell leukemia virus
A. DNA enveloped virus C. RNA enveloped virus E. Viriod
B. DNA non- enveloped virus D. RNA non- enveloped virus
160. Human papillomavirus
A. DNA enveloped virus C. RNA enveloped virus E. Viriod
B. DNA non- enveloped virus D. RNA non- enveloped virus
161. Rotavirus
A. DNA enveloped virus C. RNA enveloped virus E. Viriod
B. DNA non- enveloped virus D. RNA non- enveloped virus
162. The following pathogens are likely to establish chronic or latent infections, except:
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A. Cytomegalovirus B. Hepatitis A virus C. Hepatitis B virus D. Herpes simples virus

163. Which of the following strategies is most likely to induce lasting intestinal mucosal immunity to
poliovirus?
A. Parenteral (intramuscular) administration C. Parenteral administration of live vaccine
of inactivated vaccine D. Oral administration of live vaccine
B. Oral administration of poliovirus immunoglobulin
164. The following clinical syndrome are associated with infection by picornavirus, except:
A. Myocarditis/Pericarditis B. Hepatitis C. Mononucleosis D. Meningitis
165. The following statements concerning human rabies vaccine are correct, except:
A. The vaccine caontains live, attenuated C. When the vaccine is used for post-
rabies virus. exposure prophylaxis, rabies immune
B. If the patient was bitten by a wild animal such as globulin must also be given.
Skunk, the rabies vaccine must be given. D. The virus in the vaccine is grown in
human cell cultures thus decreasing
the risk of allergic encephalomyelitis.
166. The following statements about Hepatitis A are correct, except:
A. The initial site of viral replication is the C. Isolating the virus in a cell culture usually
gastrointestinal tract. makes diagnosis of hepatitis A.
B. Hepatitis A virus commonly causes D. Gamma globulin is used to prevent the
asymptomatic infection in children. disease in exposed persons.
167. It is implicated as the cause of carcinoma of the cervix.
A. Hepatitis C virus C. Human papilloma virus E. St. Louis encephalitis virus
B. Cytomegalovirus D. Dengue virus
168. Wild birds are important reservoirs of this virus.
A. Hepatitis C virus C. Human papilloma virus E. St. Louis encephalitis virus
B. Cytomegalovirus D. Dengue virus
169. It is important cause of pneumonia in immunocompromised patients.
A. Hepatitis C virus C. Human papilloma virus E. St. Louis encephalitis virus
B. Cytomegalovirus D. Dengue virus
170. Donated blood containing antibody to this RNA virus should not be used for transfusion.
A. Hepatitis C virus C. Human papilloma virus E. St. Louis encephalitis virus
B. Cytomegalovirus D. Dengue virus
171. It causes hemorrhagic fever that can be life threatening.
A. Hepatitis C virus C. Human papilloma virus E. St. Louis encephalitis virus
B. Cytomegalovirus D. Dengue virus
172. Virus lack all of the following organelles, except:
A. Mitochondria B. Nucleus C. Mitotic apparatus D. DNA E. Nuclear membrane
173. The following are true about prokaryotes, except:
A. They are relatively small. C. They lack autonomous organelles.
B. Their genes are dedicated to essential D. Their genetic materials are enclosed in a
functions only. nuclear membrane.
174. Unicellular prokaryotic organism that divides by binary fission:
A. Bacteria B. Fungi C. Protozoa D. Helminths
175. Phylogenetic prokaryotic are based on:
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A. Shared morphologic attributes C. Shape

B. Evolutionary relationships characteristics D. Helminths
176. The peptidoglycan of gram- negative bacteria probably is:
A. 20 layers thick B. 40 layers thick C. 10 layers thick D. 80 layers thick E. 1 layer thick
177. Porins are:
A. Cytoplasmic membrane proteins C. Outer membrane proteins
B.Periplasmic proteins D. Inclusion bodies
178. Gram- negative bacteria cell wall contains the following components, except:
A. Lipoproteins B. Lipotechoic acid C. Lipopolysaccharide D. Phospholipid
179. This is a saclike invagination of the cytoplasmic membrane that is associated with the DNA of bacterial
cells. It functions as the origin of the transverse septum that divides the cell and the binding site of the DNA.
A. Nucleoid B. Plasmids C. Mesosomes D. Transposons
180. The bacterial organelle that is used for motility:
A. Flagella B. Pili C. Cilia D. Pseudopods
181. An intracytoplasmic granule may contain:
A. Nucleic acids B. Glycogen C. Steroids D. Spindle fibers
182. The substance responsible for the heat resistance of endospores:
A. Polymerized d- glutamic acid B. Flagellin C. Dipicolinic acid D. Techoic acid
183. This mediates the attachment of bacteria to specific receptors on human cell surfaces, which is the
necessary step in the initiation of infection for some organisms:
A. Flagella B. Fimbriae C. Capsule D. Endospores
184. This mediates the firm adherence of bacteria to various structures such as skin, heart valves, teeth and
even catheters:
A. Capsule B. Slime layer C. Pili D. Flagella
185. The following are true for endospores, except:
A. Highly resistant to disinfectants C. Produced under condition of nutritional
B. Can survive for many tears, especially in soil deprivative
D. Killed by heating at 100 C
186. A rid- like bacterium that grows optimally at mammalian body temperature and killed by the presence of
oxygen is best described as:
A. Mesophilic, obligate anaerobic bacilli C. Psychrophilic, facultative anaerobic stretobacillus
B. Mesophilic, obligate aerobic bacili D. Psychrophilic, obligate anaerobic bacilli
187. Bacteria that derive their energy from oxidation of organic molecules are known as:
A. Heterotrophs B. Autotrophs C. Chemoautotrophs D. Photoautotrophs
188. The stage in the growth cycle of bacteria that reflects the period during which vigorous metabolic activity
occurs but cells do not divide is the:
A. Stationary phase B. Log phase C. Lag phase D. Death phase
189. The time required for a cell to divide or a population to double is known as:
A. Thermal death time B. Growth rate constant C. Generation time D. Thermal death point
190. Which of the following organism is a predatory bacterium?
A. Salmonella thypinurium C. Bdellovibrio bacteriovirus
B. Pseudomonas seruginosa D. Corynebacterium diphtheria
191. Specific nutrients transverse the cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria by:
A. Activated transport C. Carrier- mediated transport
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B. Faciliated diffusion D. Any of the above

192. Bacteria that ferment substrates to single end products are called:
A. Heterofermenters C. Glyoxalate hunt fermenters
B. Homofermenters D. Oxidative fermenters
193. The primary natural nutrients of bacteria are:
A. Carbohydrates/Nucleic acid/Steriods C. Carbohydrates/Amino acids/Lipids
B. Nucleic acid/Chitin/Peptidoglycan D. Lipids/Polysaccharides/Lactoferrin
194. Which of the following statements is true about drug resistant plasmids?
A. Found only in gram- negative bacteria C. May be divided into two distinct genetic
B. Usually confer resistance to a single antibiotic components:the RTF and r determinant
D. Two of the above
195. Which of the following statements is true about bacterial conjugation?
A. It requires the F factor C. It is mediated by a bacterial virus
B. It is controlled by F plasmid and sex pili D. It is found only in gram- negative bacteria
196. It is the relationship between the host and normal microbiota:
A. Disease B. Infection C. Symbiosis D. Parasitism
197. It refers to the invasion or colonization of the body by pathogenic bacteria:
A. Disease B. Infestation C. Infection D. Syndromes
198. Influenza develops rapidly and lasts only for a short time. This is described as:
A. Acute B. Subacute C. Chronic D. Latent
199. This period is characterized by mild aches, malaise and it follows the period of incubation of the disease:
A. Decline phase B. Prodormal stage C. Illness stage D. Convalescence stage
200. The number of cases of Filipino with AIDS has increased tremendously over the past few years. This is
described as:
A. Endemic B. Epidemic C. Pandemic D. Acute

201. It is indication of the ability of a bacterium to produce pathologic changes or disease in the host:
A. Virulence B. Pathogenicity C. Attenuation D. In-vitro growth rates
202. The two major components of virulence include:
A. Invasiveness and toxigenicity
B. Adherence factors and antiphagocycotic mechanisms
C. Intracellular and extracellular survival
D. Capsules and spreading factor
203. The bacterial toxin that attaches to the presynaptic terminals of cholinergic nerves, where it blocks the
release of acetycholine, is produced by:
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Clostridium tetani
D. Corynebacterium diphtheria
204. The bacterial toxin that causes cessation of mammalian proteinsynthesis by inactivating EF-2 of
eukaryotic cells is produced by:
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Clostridium tetani
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D. Corynebacterium diphtheria
205. The bacterium that produces a toxin that activates adenylate cyclise, resulting in accumulation of cyclic
AMP in the epithelial cells of the mucosal lining is:
A. Escherichia coli
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Staphylococcus aureus
206. The following statements are true about endotoxins, except:
A. they are also known as lipopolysaccharides.
B. They are integral part of the cell walls of gram-negative bacteria.
C. They are normally not as toxic as bacterial exotoxins.
D. Their toxicity can be destroyed by autoclaving.
207. The following structures normally contain indigenous microbial flora, except:
A. Teeth B. Urethra C. Bronchi D. Skin
208. The region of the body that contains the largest population of microbial flora:
A. Skin B. Colon C. Vagina D. Mouth
209. Vancomycin is produced naturally from:
A. Srep. Nodosus B. Strep. Orientalis C. Strep. griseus D. Ster. Orchidaceous
210. Polymixin is produced from:
A. Bacillus subtilis
B. Bacillus cereus
C. Bacillus polymyxa
D. Bacillus anthracis
211. The following antibiotics interfere with the synthesis of proteins in microorganisms, except:
A. Aminoglycosides B. Tetracyclines C. LincomycinsD. Cephalosporins
212. Certain bacterial strains are resistant to the bactericidal activity of the Penicillins and the Cephalosporins,
although the growth of the organism is inhibited. This phenomenon (tolerance) is related to a defect or
adeficiency of:
A. Plasmid that codes the penicillinase
B. Autolytic enzymes
C. Cellular growth rates
D. Certain cytochromes
213. Nystatin is produced naturally from:
A. Strep. Nodosus B. Strep. Noursei C. Strep. Griseus D. Strep. Natalensis
214. This antibiotic has been found to be toxic, so its use has been limited only for the treatment of TB:
A. Penicillin B. Bacitracin C. VancomycinD. Cycloserine
215. Aplastic anemia is a rare but usually fatal side effect associated with the use of this antibiotic:
A. Gentamicin B. Chloramphenicol C. Bacitracin D. Polymixin
216. It refers to the killing of many, but not all microorganisms:
A. Sterilization B. Disinfection C. Antisepsis D. Asepsis
217. It is the most effective skin antiseptic used in medical practice:
A. Chlorine B. Merthiolate C. Hydrogen Peroxide D. Iodine
218. This chemical agent is used extensively in hospitals for the sterilization of heat sensitive materials. It kills
by alkylating both proteins and nucleic acids:
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A. Ethylene oxide B. Formaldehyde C. Acids and alkalis D. Hydrogen peroxide

219. It is the method of choice in sterilizing heat sensitive soluyions:
A. Autoclave B. Filtration C. Radiation D. Pateurization
220. This disinfectant is useful in preventing gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum among infants whose
patients have Gonorrhea:
A. Merthiolate B. Mercurochrome C. Silver sulfadiazine D. Silver nitrite
221. The following are milk-borne pathogens, except:
A. Mycobacterium bovis
B. Salmonella
C. Streptococcus
D. Clostridium
222. Which is the best method to sterilize Penicillin solution?
A. Autoclaving B. Dry heat(oven) C. Ethylene oxide D. Filtration
223. The DTP vaccine is composed of which of the following:
A. Diptheria toxin, tetanus toxin, heat-killed Bordetella pertusis
B. Diptheria toxoid, tetanus toxoid, heat-killed Pseudomonas aerginosa
C. Diptheria toxoid, tetanus toxoid, heat-killed Bordetella pertusis
D. Diptheria toxin, tetanus toxin, heat-killed Pseudomonas aerginosa
224. The capsule of Bacillus anthracis is composed of:
A. L-glutamic acidB. D-glutamic acid C. Polysaccharide D. Nucleic acid
225. Bacillus anthracis possesses all of the following characteristic, except:
A. It is a large, gram-positive rod
B. It is a spore former
C. It produces a potent exotoxin composed of three antigenically distinct thermolabile proteins.
D. It can live inside phagocytic cells.
226. Listeria monocytogenes has all of the following characteristics, except:
A. It is a spore former.
B. It is a short, gram-positive rod
C. It can live inside phagocytic cells.
D. It is actively motile.
227. the most important anti-phagocytic structure of the Group A streptococci:
A. M protein B. Group A carbohydrate C. Hyaluronic acid capsule D. Protein A
228. The single differentiation test between Staphylococcus epidermidis and Staphylococcus aureus:
A. Gram staining B. Catalase test C. Coagulase test D. Hemolysis test
229. An example of a streptococcal disease sequel:
A. Scarlet fever B. Pharyngitis C. Puerperal sepsis D. Rheumatic fever
230. The group A streptococci serotype most commonly associated with acute glomerulonephritis:
A. 2 B. 7 C. 12 D. 19
231. The Streptococcus most commonly associated with subacute bacterial endocarditis:
A. Sterptococcus pyogenes
B. Sterptococcus agalactiae
C. Viridans streptococci
D. Sterptococcus pneumonia
232. Which of the following does not influence the virulence of Neisseria gonorrhoea?
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A. Polysaccharide capsule
B. Lipopolysaccharide endotoxin
C. Genus-specific protein
D. Production of IgA protease
233. Neisseria are all:
A. Gram positive
B. Anaerobes
C. Coagulase positive
D. Oxidase positive
234. In the laboratory, Neisseria meningitides may be distinguished from Neisseria gonorrhoea by:
A. Its characteristic morphology and gram stain
B. Its unique requirement for CO2 and ability to grow in Thayer-Martin medium
C. The presence of pili
D. Its ability to ferment particular carbohydrate
235. The most important mechanism of transmission of Pasteurella multicoda from animals to humans:
A. Blood-sucking arthropods
B. Contact with contaminated feces
C. Animal bites and scratches
D. Contact with contaminated urine
E. Handling of infected tissues
236. Which of the following statements is true about whooping cough?
A. Infants under the age of 3 months are not susceptible
B. The causative organism adheres to ciliated epithelial cells of the upper respiratory tract
C. Immunity is conferred by killer T cells that recognize cell wall M antigen.
D. All of the above
237. Tularemia may occur in:
A. Ulderoglandular form
B. Oculoglandular form
C. Pulmonary form
D. All of the above
238. the intestinal tract is the only natural habitat of this lactose fermenting, falcutative anaerobic, nosocomial
pathogen:
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Proteus vulgaris
C. Kleibsiella pneuminiae
D. Escherichia coli
239. A gram negative, non-motile rod that produces a large mucoid colony on agar medium was isolated from
a chronically ill patient who died of pneumonia. This organism probably belongs to the genus:
A. Klebsiella B. Pseudomonas C. Proteus D. Serratia
240. A gram-negative rod was isolated from the urine of a patient suspected of having a UTI. The organism is
lactose negative, urease positive and motile. It most likely belongs to the genus:
A. proteus B. Escherichia C. Serratia D. Klebsiella
241. Leprosy may manifest itself as:
A. Lepromatous leprosy B. Tuberculoid leprosy C. A and B D. B and C
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242. Secondary syphilis is characterized by all of the following, except:

A. Cutaneous lesions
B. Mucous membrane lesions
C. Onset is 4 weeks or more after chancre
D. Absence of spirochetes in the lesions
243. The diagnosis of early syphilis is best made by:
A. Inoculating guinea pigs with lesion material and examining blood smears 3 days later
B. Culture on chocolate agar and incubated with 10% carbon dioxide
C. The VDRL test
D. Dark-field microscopy of lesion scrapings if a chancre is present
244. The smallest known free-living microorganism is:
A) Viruses B) Mycoplasma species C) Rickettsia D) Chlamydiae
245. The growing stage of a protozoan parasite is:
A) Sporozoite B) Trophozoite C) Merozoite D) Cysts
246. A class in which only parasitic forms occur:
A) Sarcodina B) Mastigophora C) Ciliata D) Sporozoa
247. In which of the following the eggs of parasitic worms can be found:
A) Stool B) Urine C) Sputum D) All of the above E) None of the above
248. Which of the following techniques is used in quantitative estimations of infections with parasitic worms?
A) Formalin-ether B) Kato thick smear C) Stool dilution D) A and B E) B and C
249. Blastocyctis hominis is a:
A) Zooparasite B) Yeast resembling a protozoan cyst C) New name for Enatamoeba coli D)
Bacteria
250. The findings of ingested red blood cells in a trophozoite practically identifies:
A) Entamoeba coli
B) Endolimax nana
C) Entamoeba histolytica
D) Iodamoeba butschlii
E) Dientamoeba fragilis
251. Actively motile trophozoite with directional motility and contains ingested red blood cells:
A) Entamoeba coli
B) Endolimax nana
C) Entamoeba histolytica
D) Iodamoeba butschlii
E) Dientamoeba fragilis
252. Trophozoite with nucleus seen without difficulty in fresh, unstained preparation:
A) Entamoeba coli
B) Endolimax nana
C) Entamoeba histolytica
D) Iodamoeba butschlii
E) Dientamoeba fragilis
253. Cysts of this organism contains 1-4 nuclei:
A) Entamoeba coli
B) Endolimax nana
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C) Entamoeba histolytica
D) Iodamoeba butschlii
E) Dientamoeba fragilis
254. The chromatoid bodies of this organism appear as cigar-shaped or sausage-shaped:
A) Entamoeba coli
B) Endolimax nana
C) Entamoeba histolytica
D) Iodamoeba butschlii
E) Dientamoeba fragilis
255. Cysts of this organism are usually without glycogen vacuoles (Iodine cysts):
A) Entamoeba coli
B) Endolimax nana
C) Entamoeba histolytica
D) Iodamoeba butschlii
E) Dientamoeba fragilis
256. In clinical cases of malaria, the most favorable time to find parasites in the blood is:
A) The period just before a paroxysm
B) At the beginning of a paroxysm
C) During the late paroxysmal stage
D) The period just following a paroxysm

257. Definitive host of human malarial parasites:

A) Any domestic animal B) Anopheles mosquito C) Man D) B and C
258. The sexual cycle is the:
A) Sporogony B) Schizogony C) Either B or C D) Neither B nor C
259. Eosinophilic stippling of erythrocytes (Schauffer.s dots) is often seen in infections with:
A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale
260. As a rule, only rings and crescent-shaped gametocytes are observed in peripheral blood, which includes:
A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale
261. The malarial parasite that enlarges red blood cells:
A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale
262. Man may acquire Toxoplasma from:
A) Mice B) Cats C) Dogs D) Pigs
263. Toxoplasmosis can be diagnosed by:
A) Stool examination B) Thin blood film C) Flourescent antibody tests D) Intradermal test
264. Toxoplasma is probably transmitted to man by:
A) Bite of the vector insect
B) Ingestion of a resistant oocyst
C) In the body of the parasitic nematode
D) Ingestion of infected food
265. The posterior part of this parasite has a twisted appearance:
A) Chilomastix mesnili B) Giardia lamblia C) Trichomonas hominis D) Retortamonas
266. An axostyle is present in this organism:
A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale
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267. Trophozoite that resembles “old man’s eyeglasses”:

A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale
268. This organism has lemon-shaped cysts:
A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale
269. This causes visceral leishmaniasis:
A) Leishmania donovani
B) Leishmania tropica
C) Leishmania braziliensis
D) Trypanosoma cruzi
270. The reservoir host of Balantidium coli infection:
A) Dog B) Cat C) Pig D) Cattle
271. A viviparous organism:
A) Ascaris lumbricoides B) Trichenella spiralis C) Hookworm D) Pinworm
272. Which of the following neither lay eggs nor deposits larvae in the intestinal canal?
A) Hookworm B) Pinworm C) Trichinella spiralis D) Trichuris trichiura
273. “Old world” hookworm:
A) Necator americanus B) Ancylostoma duodenale C) Ancylostoma caninum D) Toxocara canis
274. This organism causes tropical elephantiasis:
A) Loa loa B) Onchocerca volvulus C) Wucheria bancrofti D) Dracunculus medinensis
275. The presence of mammillated eggs or the large adult worm in the stool identifies this organism:
A) Trichuris trichiura B) Enterobius vermicularis C) Ascaris lumbricoides D) Strongyloides
stercoralis
276. The adult form of this organism has a whip-like anterior portion:
A) Enterobius vermicularis B) Trichuris trichiura C) Ascaris lumbricoides D) Trichinella spiralis
277. The eggs of this organism are most likely to be found through anal swabs or cellophane tape:
A) Enterobius vermicularis B) Trichuris trichiura C) Ascaris lumbricoides D) Trichinella spiralis
278. Visceral larva migrans is acquired by ingesting eggs of a nematode parasite of:
A) Pig B) Monkey C) Dog D) Cat
279. Filariform larva that can penetrate through the skin:
A) Enterobius vermicularis B) Strongyloides stercoralis C) Hookworm D) A and B E) B and C
280. Finding the rhabditiform larva in the stool identifies this organism:
A) Hookworm B) Whipworm C) Pinworm D) Ascaris lumbricoides E) Strongyloides stercoralis
281. Eggs in the 2-8 cell stage of development often appear in the stool in infections with
A) Whipworm B) Hookworm C) Pinworm D) Large intestinal roundworm
282. The dog tapeworm that can be accidentally transmitted to humans:
A) Hymenolepsis nana B) Hymenolepsis diminuta C) Dipylidium caninum D) Taenia solium
283. The fish tapeworm that can be acquired by eating insufficiently cooked, infected fish:
A) Taenia solium
B) Taenia saginata
C) Dipyllobotrium latum
D) Dipylidium caninum
E) Echinococcus granulosus
284. The adult form of this tapeworm has only four segments:
A) Taenia solium
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B) Taenia saginata
C) Dipyllobotrium latum
D) Dipylidium caninum
E) Echinococcus granulosus
285. The eggs of this worm are operculated:
A) Taenia solium B) Taenia saginata C) Dipyllobotrium latum D) Dipylidium caninum
286. Man is often infected by peeling water chestnuts with his teeth, which contain this organism:
A) Fasciola hepatica B) Fasciolopsis buski C) Paragonimus weatermani D) Chlonorchis sinensis
287. This causes Egyptian hematuria:
A) Schistosoma hematobium C) Schistosoma japonicum B) Schistosoma mansoni D) Fasciola
hepatica
288. The eggs of this organism has a rudimentary lateral spine:
A) Schistosoma hematobium C) Schistosoma japonicum B) Schistosoma mansoni D) Fasciola
hepatica
289. This organism is acquired by eating infected raw fish:
A) Fasciola hepatica B) Fasciolopsis buski C) Paragonimus weatermani D) Chlonorchis sinensis
290. This is also known as the Oriental ling fluke:
A) Fasciola hepatica B) Fasciolopsis buski C) Paragonimus weatermani D) Chlonorchis sinensis
291. The presence of cryoglobulins in the serum of a patient may indicate that the patient has:
A) Anemia B) Circulating immune complexes C) Hashimotos’s thyroiditis D) Pernicious
anemia
292. The Coomb’s test is the most important laboratory method in the diagnosis of:
A) Myasthenia gravis
B) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
C) Waldenstrom’s macroglubilemia
D) Rheumatoid arthritis
293. The most important antibody that plays a role in the pathogenesis of systemic lupus erythematosus is:
A) Antibody thyroglobuin
B) Antibody to DNA
C) Antibody to mitochondria
D) Antibody to smooth muscle
294. In the syndrome of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis:
A) Streptococcal nucleases and streptolysin accumulate in the glomerular basement membrane.
B) Streptococcal capsular antigen (hyaluronic acid) and glucoronic acid subunits precipitate with
antibody and are deposited in the glomeruli in lumpy patterns.
C) Immunoglobulin and complement localize in the glomerular basement membrane.
D) Hematuria is due to the action of streptolysin O.
295. In group A beta hemolytic streptococci, the types are determined by the antigenic specificity of:
A) Capsule
B) Mucopeptide layer
C) M and/or T proteins
D) Extracellular products such as streptolysin O, which is produced only by group A streptococci
296. Congenital rubella can be diagnosed in a week-old infant by:
A) Demonstration of maternal IgM antibodies against rubella virus
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B) Testing for HI antibodies specific for the virus in the infant’s serum
C) Demonstration of circulating IgG antibodies against rubella virus
D) Demonstration of rubella IgM antibodies in the infant
297. Caesarian section has been found to eliminate neonatal complications due to which of the following
viruses?
A) Varicella-zoster B) Cytomegalovirus C) Poliovirus D) Herpes simplex virus
298. Dermatophytes that infect special keratinized areas of the body, skin and nails only are likely to belong to
genus:
A)Epidermophyton B) Trichophyton C) Microsporum D) Trichosporum
299. A hapten is a substance that:
A) Induces cellular immune response but not antibody production
B) Does not induce any immune response when given alone but does elicit an immune response
when coupled to a larger molecule
C) Induces tolerance when given alone
D) When coupled to a larger molecule can be recognized by B lymphocytes but not T lymphocytes
300. Which of the following is a characteristic of the “positive strand” RNA virus?
A) The polymeranse contained in the virion is necessary in the replication.
B) The virion RNA can act as its own messenger RNA.
C) The virion RNA cannot be extracted in an infectious form.
D) Viral messenger RNA is complementary to the virion RNA.