Multiple Choices Questions For ENT Residents

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Multiple choices questions for ENT residents 1

1- Regarding Haller Cell ONE of the following statements is correct?

A - It is considered as a supra-orbital ethmoid cell.


B - This is a sphenoid air-cell positioned posterior and medial to the ethmoid bulla.
C - It is closely related to sphenoid sinus ostium.
D - It is an ethmoid air-cell positioned anterior and medial to the ethmoid bulla.
E - It is an ethmoid air cell extended posteriorly into the sphenoid sinus.

2- The following structures demarcate the posterior nasal aperture (Posterior


Choanae) EXEPT?

A - Nasal floor.
B - Nasal septum.
C - Lateral Pterigoid plate.
D - Medial Pterigoid plate.
E - Sphenoid sinus.

3-The Sphenopalatine foramen is formed by the following structures EXEPT?

A - Ethmoid process of the palatine bone.


B - Inferior turbinate bone.
C - Sphenoid process of palatine bone.
D - Sphenoid bone.
E - Palatine bone.

4-All the following anatomical relationships of the posterior ethmoid cells are
correct EXEPT?

A - The basal lamella separates the posterior ethmoid from their anterior counterpart.
B - The fovea ethmoidalis separates the posterior ethmoids from the anterior cranial
fossa.
C - The cribriform plate forms the roof of the posterior ethmoid cells.
D - Lamina papyracea separates the posterior ethmoids from the orbit.
E - Superior meatus and superior turbinate lies medial to the posterior ethmoid cells.

5-ONE of the following statements is correct?

A - Lateral lamella is considered part of the frontal bone.


B - Lateral lamella thickness is about 0.02 mm in average.
C - Lateral lamella is considered part of the ethmoid bone.
D - Fovea ethmoidalis is considered part of the frontal bone.
E - The roof of the posterior ethmoids has a stepladder like appearance.
6-All the following regarding the anterior ethmoid artery are correct EXEPT?

A - It is an orbital branch of the ophthalmic artery.


B - It exits the orbit trough the anterior ethmoid foramen.
C - It passes through the lateral lamella of the cribriform plate.
D - It is closely related to the lamina papyracea.
E - It passes into orbito-cranial canal in the roof of the ethmoid.

7-All the following are considered absorbable suture materials EXEPT?

A - Vicryl.
B - Monocryl.
C - Prolene.
D - Catgut
E - Dexon.

8-All the following structures are derived from the 2nd branchial arch EXEPT?

A - Malleus.
B - Stapes.
C - Styloid process of temporal bone.
D - Stylohyoid ligament.
E - Lesser horn of hyoid bone.

9-All the following are true EXEPT.

A - The external auditory meatus drevies from the 1st branchial groove.
B - Glossopharyngeal nerve derives from 3rd branchial arch.
C - Inferior parathyroid gland derives from 2nd branchial pouch.
D - Stylopharyngeus muscle derives from 3rd branchial arch.
E - Stapes is derived from 2nd branchial arch.

10-The content of the carotid sheath include all the following EXEPT?

A - Sympathetic shain.
B - Vagus nerve.
C - Common carotid artery.
D - Internal jugular vein.
E - External carotid artery.
11-Infection in the region drained by the angular vein may result in venous
thrombosis of the cavernous sinus via the ?

A - Anterior superior alveolar vein.


B - Infra-orbital vein.
C - Internal maxillary vein.
D - Sphenopalatine vein.
E - Superior ophthalmic vein.

12-Regarding the congenital deformities of the ear, one of the following is true?

A - Due to their common origin, the external, middle, inner ear structures are all affected.
B - Congenital conductive deafness, with a normal meatus and eardrum, is easily
corrected by middle ear microsurgery.
C - The Treacher-Collins syndrome (mandibulofacial dysostosis) is an autosomal
recessive condition associated with major malformations of the outer and middle ear.
D - In unilateral deformities, middle ear reconstructive surgery is the treatment of choice.
E - Wildervanck syndrome is a conductive deafness associated with periauricular sinuses
and appendages and auricular malformations.

13-Regarding cysts of dental origin all the following are true EXEPT?

A - Primordial cysts are malignant.


B - A cyst of eruption arises over a tooth that has not erupted.
C - A tooth is usually inside a dentigerous (follicular) cyst.
D - Dental (radicular) cyst implies previous or current root infection.
E - A dental cyst may persist after root extraction.

14- Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Auricle, all the following are true EXCEPT;

A - Prolonged exposure to the sun is a risk factor for the development of skin
malignancy.
B - Malignancy of the auricle is common in fair-skinned whites and rare in blacks.
C - Squamous cell carcinoma represents about 55% of all malignant tumors of the
auricle.
D - Squamous cell carcinomas present as ulcerated lesions with an area of surrounding
erythema and induration.
E - The treatment of choice is radiotherapy.
15-Regarding relapsing polychondritis all the following are incorrect EXCEPT;

A - Type I collagen antibodies have been found in these patients.


B - Auricular cartilages are the less frequently involved.
C - It is an autoimmune disease manifested by intermittent episodes of inflammation of
cartilage throughout the body.
D - Laryngeal cartilages are most frequently involved .The main treatment in this case is.
E - Fluoroquinolone antibiotics, such as ciprofloxacin and ofloxacin, are the better
choice in such cases

16-Cerumen is a combination of the secretions produced by sebaceous (lipid


producing) and apocrine (ceruminous) glands admixed with desquamated epithelial
debris. All the following regarding cerumen are true EXCEPT ?

A - It forms an acidic coat that aids in the prevention of EAC infection.


B - The pH of the cerumen is lower in diabetic patients compared with 6.5 to 6.8 in the
normal EAC.
C - There are genetically and racially determined differences in the physical
characteristics of cerumen that vary its appearance and consistency.
D - Accumulation of cerumen represents the most common and routine otologic problem.
E - It may cause hearing loss.

17-Excessive sound stimulation of the ear; All the following are true EXEPT?

A - It may cause transitory residual masking.


B - A long lasting temporary threshold shift recovers within 6 hours.
C - It can produce an acoustic notch at 3000 and 6000 Hz.
D - A short, intense single noise exposure may lead to permanent sensorineural deafness.
E - It can evoke the Tullio phenomenon only with an intact and mobile middle ear
mechanism.

18- Regarding adjuvant chemotherapy in head and neck cancer one of the following
is true?

A - Impaired renal function precludes the use of methotrexate.


B - A combination of class 3 anti-tumor drugs can be given in normal doses.
C - Pulmonary fibrosis develops in 10% of patients on bleomycin.
D - Cisplatin has a cumulative toxic side effect.
E - The term no ‘response’ indicates a reduction of between 50-70% in the product of the
two largest perpendicular diameters of measurable tumor.
19-Regarding Carbon dioxide laser ALL the following are true EXEPT?

A - Light is absorbed by water.


B - This can seal blood vessels up to 0.5 mm in diameter.
C - Nerve endings are sealed.
D - Skin incisions heal with greater rapidity than conventional scalpel wounds.
E - It can not be transmitted by flexible fibers.

20- Regarding the efficacy of radiotherapy ALL the following are true EXEPT?

A - Lymphoid origin tumors are more responsive than squamous cell tumors.
B - Sarcomata of bony origin have a very poor response rate.
C - The efficacy of radiotherapy is enhanced by hyperthermia.
D - Photons damage cells more than neutrons.
E - Hypoxia protects tumour cells

ANSWRES KEYS 1

1-B
2-C
3-E
4-C
5-C
6-D
7-C
8-A
9-C
10-A
11-E
12-E
13-A
14-E
15-C
16-B
17-B
18-D
19-D
20-D

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