BELONIO

AGRICULTURAL
ENGINEERING
COMPREHENSIVE BOARD
EXAM REVIEWER

COMPREHENSIVE BOARD EXAM

AGRICULTURAL ENGINEERING
Volume II
Agricultural Processing, Structures,

REVIEWER Volume II
and Allied Subjects
Alexis T. Belonio

Department of Agricultural Engineering and

UNIVERSITY PRESS Environmental Management
Central Philippine University College of Agriculture
Iloilo City, Philippines
Central Philippine University
Iloilo City, Philippines
CPU
2004
Press
AGRICULTURAL
ENGINEERING
COMPREHENSIVE BOARD
EXAM REVIEWER
Volume II
Agricultural Processing, Structures,
and Allied Subjects

Alexis T. Belonio

Department of Agricultural Engineering

and Environmental Management
College of Agriculture
Central Philippine University
Iloilo City, Philippines
2004
The Author:
Alexis T. Belonio is a Professional Agricultural Engineer. Presently, he is an Associate
Professor and Chairman of the Department of Agricultural Engineering and Environmental
Management, College of Agriculture, Central Philippine University, Iloilo City. He
finished his Bachelor of Science in Agricultural Engineering and Master of Science degrees
from Central Luzon State University, Muñoz, Nueva Ecija. He has been deeply involved
in teaching, research, project development, and entrepreneurial activity on various
agricultural engineering projects since 1983.

He was awarded by the Philippine Society of Agricultural Engineers (PSAE) as Most

Outstanding Agricultural Engineer in the field of Farm Power and Machinery and by the
Professional Regulation Commission (PRC) as Outstanding Professional in the field of
Agricultural Engineering in 1993. In 1997, he was awarded by the TOYM Foundation and
the Jerry Roxas Foundation as the Outstanding Young Filipinos (TOYF) in the field of
Agricultural Engineering. He is presently a PSAE Fellow Member.

As a dedicated professional, he serves as technical consultant to various agricultural

machinery manufacturers in Region VI. He also serves as a Reviewer of the TGIM
Foundation Review Center on the field of Agricultural Power, Machinery and Allied
Subjects, and Agricultural Processing, Structures and Allied Subjects since 1998. He has
written and published several research and technical papers .

Acknowledgement:
The author is very much thankful to the Lord God Almighty who inspired him to prepare
this material for the graduates of agricultural engineering who will take the Professional
Agricultural Engineering Licensure Examination.

He also wishes to acknowledge Dr. N. Orcullo for the encouragement to serve as a

reviewer for the aspiring agricultural engineers at the TGIM Review Center , Manila.

To Salve and their children: Mike, Happy, Humble, Jireh, Justly, Tenderly, and Wisdom
for their prayer and support.
Trial Edition PREFACE

This book, Agricultural Engineering Comprehensive Board Exam Reviewer

Volume II was prepared primarily for the agricultural engineering students
and graduates who are preparing for the licensure examination for the
professional agricultural engineers.

The contents of the book are series of questions and problems to make the
students recall the fundamental theories and concepts in agricultural
engineering. Most questions are tricky and practical in nature to test whether
the students has digested the principles in each of the different subject matter
in agricultural engineering. At the end of the book, the answer key for each
question and problem are provided.

This is the second of the three volumes of the Reviewer. The content deals
with the various processes involved in agriculture and food processing
operation, agricultural building and infrastructure, farm electrification,
refrigeration and cold storage of food, environmental engineering and
management, and agricultural waste utilization

This book is still in draft form and is produced in limited copies. Additional
items will be included in the future to make this material more
comprehensive. Comments and suggestions are welcome for the
improvement of this manuscript.

God bless and may this book become useful to you at the moment!

ALEXIS T. BELONIO

Copyright  2004 by Alexis T. Belonio

No part of this book is allowed to be photocopied or reproduced in any form

without any written permission from the author.
1. A dryer in which the material being dried moves through the drying 5. It is the ratio of the total heat utilized to vaporize moisture in the
chamber is substantially in continuous stream without being material being dried to the amount of heat added to the drying air.
recirculated. a. Dryer efficiency
a. Recirculating-type dryer b. Thermal efficiency
b. Continuous-flow type dryer c. Heat of vaporization efficiency
c. Concurrent flow dryer d. All of the above
d. None of the above
6. A fraction of grain with its length equal to or greater than three-forth
2. A continuous-flow dryer in which the product being dried moves in of the average.
the same direction as the drying air. a. Large broken grain
a. Cross-flow type dryer b. Small broken grains
b. Counter-flow type dryer c. Head grain
c. Concurrent-flow type dryer d. None of the above
d. All of the above
7. An air moving device to force heated air through the mass of grain at
3. A continuous-flow type dryer in which the drying bin is a columnar a desired air-flow rate and pressure.
type with louvers causing mixing to occur as the grain flows through a. Blower
the system. b. Aspirator
a. Mixing type c. Fanning mill
b. Non-mixing type d. None of the above
c. Recirculating type
d. None of the above 8. A mechanical grain dryer wherein grain is passed intermittently in
cycles or stages through a drying chamber either by mechanical means
4. A dryer in which the product of combustion comes into contact with or by gravity with subsequent cooling and tempering until the grain
the product being dried. reaches the desired moisture content.
a. Indirect fired dryer a. Batch-in-bin dryer
b. Direct fired dryer b. Flat-bed dryer
c. Combustion fired dryer c. Multipass dryer
d. All of the above d. All of the above

1 2
9. A chamber wherein air pressure forms uniform distribution of heated 14. It is the ratio of the heat released by the fuel to the theoretical heat
air through the grain mass. available from the fuel.
a. Plenum a. Burner efficiency
b. Bin b. Thermal efficiency
c. Duct c. Combustion efficiency
d. All of the above d. None of the above

10. The minimum requirement for drying efficiency based on the standard 15. It is the percentage of grain free from foreign matter.
performance criteria for a mechanical dryer. a. Percentage foreign matter
a. 90% b. Percentage Cleanliness
b. 75% c. Purity
c. 50% d. None of the above
d. None of the above
16. Pressure build up in the plenum chamber to maintain uniform
11. The minimum requirement for heating efficiency of direct-fired distribution of air flow through the grain mass.
biomass-fueled grain dryer. a. Velocity pressure
a. 75% b. Static pressure
b. 65% c. Dynamic pressure
c. 50% d. Two of the above
d. None of the above
17. It is the temporary holding of grains between drying passes to allow
12. The minimum requirement for heat utilization efficiency based on the the moisture in the center of the grain equalize with that on its
standard performance criteria of direct-fired petroleum-based fuel for surface.
mechanical dryers. a. Tempering
a. 90% b. Static drying
b. 80% c. Dryaeration
c. 70% d. None of the above
d. None of the above
18. It is the amount of moisture in the grain expressed as percentage of the
13. Warranty period requirement for mechanical grain dryers. total weight of the samples.
a. 6 months a. Moisture content dry basis
b. 12 months b. Moisture content wet basis
c. One year c. Moisture content
d. Two of the above d. All of the above
3 4
19. It is the amount of moisture in the grain expressed as percentage of the 24. The blending of ingredients or materials in agricultural processing
weight of dry matter. operation.
a. Moisture content dry basis a. Sorting
b. Moisture content wet basis b. Molding
c. Moisture content c. Mixing
d. None of the above d. All of the above

20. Screen cleaners that employ an air blast to assist in cleaning. 25. It is a burr or plate mill.
a. Screen separator a. Micro mill
b. Fanning mill b. Attrition mill
c. Blower c. Roller mill
d. None of the above d. All of the above

21. It is a part of a belt conveyor that is used to discharge materials over 26. A process of reducing the size of materials by applying force to the
the end of the belt by a diagonal scraper. product in excess of its strength.
a. Scraper a. Shearing
b. Tripper b. Crushing
c. Head pulley c. Milling
d. None of the above d. None of the above

22. A moisture meter that determines the moisture content of the product 27. A process of reducing the size of materials by pushing or forcing a thin
based on the ability of current to pass through the material. sharp knife into it.
a. Capacitance type moisture meter a. Shearing
b. Resistance type meter b. Crushing
c. Infrared moisture meter c. Cutting
d. All of the above d. All of the above

23. Moisture that can be found at the surface of the material. 28. It indicates the uniformity of grind in the resultant product.
a. Unbound water a. Uniformity sex
b. Bound water b. Particle size
c. Free moisture c. Fineness modulus
d. All of the above d. All of the above

5 6
29. A process of reducing materials by a combination of cutting and 34. What is the percentage moisture content of paddy above when
crushing actions. expressed in dry basis?
a. Milling a. 22%
b. Grinding b. 30%
c. Shearing c. 12%
d. None of the above d. None of the above

30. If the amount of water in a product is determined based on its dry 35. What is the amount of moisture to be removed from a material whose
matter content, the moisture content is expressed in ________. moisture content is 14.5% with dry matter weight of 76 kg?
a. wet basis a. 12.9kg
b. dry basis b. 24.1kg
c. semi wet basis c. 14.5kg
d. None of the above d. None of the above

31. A method of measuring the moisture content of the product by direct 36. If a product has a percentage moisture content of 12% wet basis, the
extraction of water. equivalent percentage moisture content in dry basis is ______.
a. Primary method a. 13.6%
b. Secondary method b. 16.3%
c. Tertiary method c. 13.4%
d. None of the above d. None of the above

32. The process of detaching or separating rice grains from the panicle by 37. A product expressed in dry basis has a percentage moisture content of
combing action. 25%, what is the percentage moisture content of the product in wet
a. Stripping basis?
b. Reaping a. 20%
a. Harvesting b. 22%
b. All of the above c. 26%
d. None of the above
33. If 20 kg of water is to be removed from 110kg of paddy, what is the
percentage moisture content of paddy in wet basis?
a. 1.8%
b. 18%
c. 22%
d. None of the above
7 8
38. If 9 ton of a product is to be dried from 24% to 14%, the final weight 43. Manufacturers’ prescribed peripheral velocity of a disk huller is
of the product would be _________. ___________.
a. 7,953.4 kg a. 10m/s
b. 8,837.3 kg b. 14m/s
c. 9,741.4 kg c. 18m/s
d. None of the above d. None of the above

39. What is the moisture loss of the product in item above? 44. Manufacturers’ recommendation for the speed of cone in a vertical
a. 1046.5 kg abrasive whitening cone should not exceed ________.
b. 2285.6 kg. a. 13m/s
c. 2634.4 kg b. 14m/s
d. None of the above c. 15m/s
d. None of the above
40. It is the measure of the power output of fan in relation to its power
input. 45. Manufacturers’ recommendation for the speed of a horizontal abrasive
a. Fan thermal efficiency whitener.
b. Fan performance index a. 800 rpm
c. Fan efficiency b. 1000rpm
d. All of the above c. 1200 rpm
d. All of the above
41. The recommended depth of grain in a shallow bed dryer is:
a. up to 12 inches 46. The process in which air moves through stored grains at a low rate to
b. up to 18 inches maintain its quality.
c. up to 24 inches a. Cooling
d. All of the above b. Aeration
e. Fanning
42. Recommended clearance for disk huller to achieve higher brown rice f. None of the above
recovery with less breakage.
a. ¼ of the length of paddy grain 47. Maximum allowable safe height of sack pile in bag storage.
b. ½ of the thickness of paddy grain a. 12-16 sacks
c. ¾ of the length of paddy grain b. 18-25 sacks
d. None of the above c. 28-30 sacks
d. None of the above

9 10
48. Recommended stacking density per cubic meter of space for paddy. 53. A storage method wherein the gas concentration in storage
a. 5 bags atmosphere is changed.
b. 10 bags a. Sealed storage
c. 15 bags b. Modified atmosphere
d. None of the above c. Controlled atmosphere
d. All of the above
49. Recommended stacking density per cubic meter of space for corn.
a. 12 bags 54. A process of separating lower density materials from grains.
b. 14 bags a. Aspiration
c. 16 bags b. Cleaning
d. None of the above c. Fanning
d. All of the above
50. Recommended stacking density per cubic meter of space for milled
rice. 55. A primary cleaner which separates larger particles or performs rough
a. 10 bags cleaning of grains.
b. 15 bags a. Rotary sieve
c. 20 bags b. Scalper
d. None of the above g. Vibrating screen
h. All of the above
51. If a pile of rice is 8-m long, 6-m wide, and 3.6-m high, how many
bags of rice are safe to be piled? 56. Recommended size of scalper for paddy is _______.
a. 2592 bags a. 0.2-0.25 m2 per ton
b. 2952 bags b. 0.3-0.35 m2 per ton
c. 2295 bags c. 0.4-0.45 m2 per ton
d. None of the above d. None of the above

52. If 5000 bags of paddy is to be piled 20-bag high, how many square 57. What is the theoretical rpm of a bucket elevator whose head pulley
meters of floor space is required? diameter is 0.2 m and the bucket projection is 0.1m.?
a. 111sq.m. a. 77 rpm
b. 121sq.m. b. 120 rpm
c. 211sq.m. c. 160 rpm
d. None of the above d. None of the above

11 12
58. If the operational efficiency of the bucket elevator above is 85% of the 63. The amount of foreign materials in a sample of grains.
theoretical speed, what is the operation speed of the elevator? a. Impurities
a. 65 rpm b. Chalky grain
b. 102 rpm c. Dockage
c. 136 rpm d. None of the above
d. None of the above
64. A storage practice in which grains are stored in loose form in a large
59. What is the theoretical horsepower requirement of a bucket elevator container.
whose capacity is 545kg/min and lift of 10.7m. The elevator is loaded a. Bag storage
down side. b. Bunker storage
a. 2.19 hp c. Bulk storage
b. 1.92 hp d. All of the above
c. 2.91 hp
d. None of the above 65. A small metal probe for taking samples of paddy.
a. Sampling tube
60. A hydrothermal treatment of paddy before milling. b. Trier
a. Parboiling c. Sampler
b. Drying d. None of the above
c. Water treatment
d. None of the above 66. Wooden frame used in staking bags of rice.
a. Dunnage
61. In a disk huller, the stationary disk is located at the _________. b. Loading platform
a. top of the huller c. Bag holder
b. bottom of the huller d. All of the above
c. side of the huller
d. None of the above 67. A warehouse used for storing paddy or rice either in bulk or in bags.
a. Silo
62. The capacity of a compartment type separator is ________. b. Godown
a. 20-30kg. brown rice per hour c. Farmstead
b. 40-60kg. brown rice per hour d. None of the above
c. 70-80kg. brown rice per hour
d. None of the above

14
13
68. Rough cleaning of paddy to remove most foreign materials prior to 73. What is the amount of rice hull produced during milling in item
drying and storage. above?
a. Aspiration a. 1000 kg
b. Scalping b. 1050 kg
c. Sieving c. 1100 kg
d. All of the above d. None of the above

69. A drying temperature of 45 C is equal to __________. 74. The optimum relative humidity for storing fruits and vegetables is
a. 113 F a. 60-70%
b. 131 F b. 80-90%
c. 121 F c. 90-100%
d. None of the above d. All of the above

70. Five tons of paddy milled in 6 hours produces 3950 kg brown rice and 75. A two-ton mechanical dryer dries paddy from 24% to 14% in 8 hours.
3250kg. of milled rice, what is the milling recovery? What is the final weight of the product after drying?
a. 60% a. 1767.4 kg
b. 65% b. 1677.4 kg
c. 70% c. 1776.4 kg
d. None of the above d. None of the above

71. What is the hulling coefficient of the huller in item above? 76. What is the drying capacity of the dryer in the item above?
a. 0.79 a. 200 kg/hr
b. 0.89 b. 250 kg/hr
c. 0.99 c. 125 kg/hr
d. None of the above d. None of the above

72. If the head rice recovery of paddy in item above is equal to 85%, what 77. What is the moisture reduction per hour in the item above?
is the amount of broken grains? a. 29.07 kg/hr
a. 487.50 kg b. 27.09 kg/hr
b. 478.50 kg c. 20.97 kg/hr
c. 475.85 kg d. None of the above
d. None of the above

15 16
78. The coefficient of friction of rice to a steel material is 0.41. What is 82. The angle whose tangent equals the coefficient of friction between
the minimum angle of hopper required for the system? surfaces of the stored materials.
a. 22 deg a. Angle of contact
b. 30 deg b. Angle of friction
c. 50 deg c. Angle of repose
d. None of the above d. All for the above

79. The divisional layer between the dried and the undried products in a 83. Expression of moisture content commonly used in commercial scale.
drying system. a. Moisture wet basis
a. Drying layer b. Moisture content dry basis
b. Drying zone c. Moisture content
c. Drying front d. All of the above
d. All of the above
84. A solar dryers is used to reduce the moisture content of four tons of
80. Amount of heat required to raise one gram of water one degree paddy from 25% to 15% wet basis. The amount of moisture removed
centigrade. is about ___________.
a. One BTU a. 471 kilos
b. One Calorie b. 417 kilos
c. One Joule c. 714 kilos
d. All of the above d. None of the above

81. What is the peak storage capacity of a 5-m diameter grain storage bin 85. A device that remove excess moisture generally by forced ventilation
with an average height and a minimum angle of fill of 6 m and 28 deg, with or without addition of heat.
respectively? a. Fryer
a. 126.5m³ b. Dehydrator
b. 162.5m³ c. Dryer
c. 156.2m³ d. None of the above
d. None of the above

17 18
86. A batch-type dryer with vertical holding bin and is used for shallow- 91. An example of rice husker.
bed drying. a. Rubber roll huller
a. Recirculating dryer b. Disk huller
b. Vertical bin dryer c. Steel-huller
c. Batch-type dryer d. All of the above
d. None of the above
92. One ton of coconut will produce approximately ______ of oil.
87. A batch-type dryer equipped to circulate or mix grain during drying a. 400 kg
operation. b. 500 kg
a. Vertical-bin dryer c. 600 kg
b. Recirculating dryer d. None of the above
c. Flat-bed dryer
d. None of the above 93. A machine used to remove bran .
a. Polisher
88. A batch dryer with horizontal grain holding bin is passed continuously b. Husker
through a drying chamber utilizing agitator until the grain reaches the c. Whitener
specified moisture content reduction per pass. d. All of the above
a. Batch dryer
b. Continuous flow dryer 94. It is a part of a belt conveyor that is used to discharge materials over
c. Recirculating dryer the end of the belt by a diagonal scraper.
d. None of the above a. Idler pulley
b. Tripper
89. An air chamber maintained under pressure usually connected to one c. Head pulley
or more distribution duct in a drying system. d. None of the above
a. Drying bin
b. Plenum chamber 95. It is the ratio of the quantity of light on the working place to the
c. Air duct quantity of light output from the source.
d. None of the above a. Room index
b. Coefficient of utilization
90. A machine that converts paddy to milled rice. c. Light intensity
a. Paddy husker d. None of the above
b. Rice whitener
c. Rice mill
d. All of the above
19 20
96. A log has a smallest diameter of 24 inches and a length of 18 inches. 101. A vertical-axis hammer mill is more advantageous than the horizontal-
What is the net total number of board foot that can be obtained from axis hammer mill for the reason that __________.
the log? a. it is more effective in grinding grains with higher moisture
a. 450 bd ft content of up to 25%.
b. 500 bd ft b. the power requirement of the vertical-axis hammer mill is much
c. 550 bd ft lower than the horizontal-axis hammer mill
d. None of the above c. less broken grains can be derived from vertical-axis hammer mill
d. None of the above
97. A dryer component that converts velocity pressure of the fan to static
pressure. 102. A grain milling machine consisting of two cast iron disk plate with
a. Drying bin teeth or serration on one or both faces.
b. Plenum chamber a. Hammer mill
c. Manometer b. Attrition mill
d. None of the above c. Roller mill
d. All of the above
98. The percentage speed difference between rubber rollers.
a. 15 % 103. A grain milling machine suitable for grinding grains with moisture
b. 20 % content of up to 30%.
c. 25 % a. Hammer mill
d. None of the above b. Attrition mill
c. Roller mill
99. The maximum percentage of milling recovery that can obtained from d. All of the above
a rice mill is ______.
a. 69 % 104. A type of mill used for crushing grains by allowing it to pass through
b. 75 % a two rotating cylinder steel one of which is smaller than the other.
c. 80 % a. Hammer mill
d. None of the above b. Roller mill
c. Plate mill
100. Recommended clearance of disk huller to achieve higher brown rice d. All of the above
recovery with less breakage.
a. ¼ of the thickness of paddy grain
b. ½ of the thickness of paddy grain
c. ¾ of the thickness of paddy grain
d. None of the above
21 22
105. The density of pig and poultry feed is approximately _______. 110. A type of a conveyor feeder used for feeding birds in cages on a
a. 250 kg/m3 poultry farm.
b. 450 kg/m3 a. Flat chain feeder
c. 650 kg/m3 b. Auger feeders
d. None of the above c. Round chain feeders
d. All of the above
106. The auger that is centrally located at the vertical feed mixer usually
rotates at a speed of _______. 111. An electrically-operated device commonly used for automatic bagging
a. 100-250 rpm of grains or feeds.
b. 250-400 rpm a. Solinoid switch
c. 400-650 rpm b. Transducer
d. None of the above c. Load cell
d. None of the above
107. Horizontal feed mixer is not advantageous for feed mixing as
compared with vertical feed mixer for the reason that _________. 112. Manufacturers’ prescribed peripheral velocity of disc for disc-type
a. horizontal feed mixer has lower capacity huller.
b. horizontal feed mixer has high power requirement a. 10 m/s
c. horizontal feed mixer has lesser life span b. 14 m/s
d. None of the above c. 18 m/s
d. None of the above
108. A type of bearing used for tightening bucket elevator belts.
a. Pillow block bearing 113. Recommended peripheral speed of rubber roller for hulling operation.
b. Flange bearing a. 10 m/s
c. Take-up units b. 14 m/s
d. None of the above c. 18 m/s
d. none of the above
109. When a bucket elevator is to be fed at the downside section instead of
the upside section of the elevator booth, its power requirement will 114. Manufacturers’ recommendation for maximum speed cone on a
_________. vertical abrasive whitening machine.
a. decrease a. 13 m/s
b. increase b. 14 m/s
c. the same c. 18 m/s
d. None of the above d. none of the above

23 24
115. An element used primarily to support axial compressive load and with a 120. What is the theoretical horsepower requirement of a bucket elevator
height of at least three times its least lateral dimension. with a capacity of 545 kg/min and lift of 10.7 m and the elevator is
a. Pier loaded down side.
b. Column a. 2.19 hp
c. Beams b. 1.92 hp
d. None of the above c. 2.91 hp
d. None of the above
116. A primary cleaner which separates larger particles or rough cleaning
of rough rice. 121. A rice mill huller which produces high milling recovery.
a. Rotary sieve a. Steel huller
b. Scalper b. Rubber huller
c. Vibrating screen c. Stone disk
d. All of the above d. All of the above

117. Recommended size of scalper for paddy cleaning. 122. On the disk huller, the stationary disk is located on ________.
a. 0.2-0.25m2/ton a. top of the huller
b. 0.3-0.35m2/ton b. bottom of the huller
c. 0.4-0.45m2/ton c. outside of the huller
d. None of the above d. none of the above

118. What is the theoretical rpm of a bucket elevator whose head pulley 123. An air moving device which produces high airflow but low head.
diameter is 0.2 m and the bucket projection is 0.1 m. a. Fans
a. 77 rpm b. Blower
b. 120 rpm c. Compressor
c. 160 rpm d. All of the above
d. None of the above
124. A device that is used to move oil.
119. If the operational speed of the bucket elevator in item above is 85 % a. Blower
of the theoretical speed, what is the operational speed of the elevator? b. Pump
a. 65 rpm c. Compressor
b. 102 rpm d. All of the above
c. 136 rpm
d. None of the above
25
26
125. If mixing is needed to carryout during conveying, the suitable 130. A machine which separates paddy from brown rice.
conveyor is _________. a. Screen sifter
a. Bucket b. Paddy separator
b. Screw c. Paddy husker
c. Belt d. None of the above
d. All of the above
131. A machine that smoothen milled rice.
126. The horsepower requirement of belt conveyors includes power a. Whitener
______. b. Polisher
a. to drive empty c. Sifter
b. to drive at horizontal d. All of the above
c. to drive vertical
d. All of the above 132. Recommended for conveying product with less damage.
a. Bucket elevator
127. A conveyor with high power requirement per unit capacity. b. Screw conveyor
a. Bucket c. Belt conveyor
b. Belt d. All of the above
c. Pneumatic
d. All of the above 133. An air moving device commonly used for drying which produces high
pressure but low airflow.
128. An air moving device suitable for grain cleaning. a. Blower
a. Axial fan b. Fan
b. Propeller fan c. Compressor
c. Cross flow fan d. None of the above
d. All of the above
134. Recommended to remove metallic element during conveying.
129. If the diameter of a blower is increased, the pressure will ______. a. Screen separator
a. increase b. Magnetic separator
b. decrease c. Pneumatic separator
c. the same d. None of the above
d. None of the above

27 28
135. A machine that separates brown rice from paddy. 140. A type of whitener consisting of a fluted roller rotating inside the
a. Scalper hexagonal chamber with slot-type perforations.
b. Paddy separator a. Abrasive-type whitener
c. Rice whitener b. Frictional-type whitener
d. Paddy husker c. All of the above
e. None of the above d. None of the above

136. The speed of fixed rubber roll from the adjustable roller on a rubber 141. Commonly used material handling equipment.
roll huller is slower by ________. a. Bucket elevator
a. 20 % b. Screw conveyor
b. 25 % c. Belt conveyor
c. 30 % d. All of the above
d. none of the above
142. A conveyor which is essentially made of an endless belt operating
137. A machine that is used to remove the bran from the brown rice. between two or more pulleys with its load supported by idlers.
a. Polisher a. Bucket elevator
b. Grader b. Screw conveyor
c. Whitener c. Pneumatic conveyor
d. None of the above d. None of the above

138. A machine that is used to make milled rice shiny after removing the 143. A conveyor used for fine materials and is made of a helical plate
bran layer. which rotates on a trough and moves the product by dragging.
a. Polisher a. Chain conveyor
b. Grader b. Pneumatic conveyor
c. Whitener c. Screw conveyor
d. None of the above d. None of the above

139. A machine that is used to segregate various fractions/sizes of milled 144. A material handling equipment which consists of cups attached to a
rice. chain or belt that revolves around a bottom-and-top pulley where the
a. Whitener cups are discharged.
b. Grader a. Chain conveyor
c. Whitener b. Belt conveyor
d. None of the above c. Bucket elevator
d. None of the above
29 30
145. A conveyor which utilizes high terminal velocity air to move the 150. It is the ability of the machine to remove hulls from the grains.
product. a. Coefficient of hulling
a. Vibratory conveyor b. Hulling percentage
b. Screw conveyor c. Husking efficiency
c. Pneumatic conveyor d. All of the above
d. None of the above
151. Outer layer of brown rice consisting of aleurone cells covering the
146. It is the method of determining grain moisture by directly extracting endosperm of the rice grain.
the moisture from the product. a. Hull
a. Primary method b. Embryo
b. Secondary method c. Bran
c. Tertiary method d. All of the above
d. None of the above
152. The ASAE standard agricultural pallet bin for square shape bin.
147. An example of moisture determination using primary method. a. 100 cm x 100 cm
a. Resistance type meter b. 120 cm x 120 cm
b. Capacitance type meter c. 150 cm x 150 cm
c. Oven d. None of the above
d. All of the above
153. The ASAE standard agricultural pallet bin for rectangular shape bin.
148. It is a method of determining moisture from the product which is a. 120 cm x 100 cm
based on the electrical properties of the product. b. 150 cm x 120 cm
a. Primary method c. 150 cm x 100 cm
b. Secondary method d. None of the above
c. Tertiary method
d. None of the above 154. Overall height of agricultural pallet bin as recommended by ASAE.
a. 72 or 133 cm
149. A device used in oven-drying to prevent dehydrated samples to re- b. 62 or 122 cm
adsorb moisture while undergoing cooling process. c. 52 or 112 cm
a. Distilling flask d. None of the above
b. Glass jar
c. Dessicator
d. All of the above

31 32
155. An auger capable of discharging materials to one or more locations. 160. The husking ratio of rubber roll huller is about ________.
a. Feeding auger a. 60-70 %
b. Portable auger b. 80-90 %
c. Distributing auger c. 95-98 %
d. None of the above d. None of the above

156. An auger which releases conveyed materials essentially uniformly 161. A rice thresher that is fed at one end and discharges threshed product
along a substantial portion of its length. at the other end is ________.
a. Feeding auger a. radial-type thresher
b. Portable auger b. hold on type thresher
c. Distributing auger c. axial-flow thresher
d. None of the above d. None of the above

157. An auger whose accessories include a suitable support system which 162. Commonly used threshing units for throw-in type thresher.
provides mobility. a. Peg-tooth
a. Feeding auger b. Wire loop
b. Portable auger c. Rasp bar
c. Distributing auger d. None of the above
d. None of the above
163. Part of rice thresher that causes the movement of panicles from one
158. Auger size refers to _________. end to the other end of the threshing cylinder.
a. the diameter of the auger. a. Louvers
b. the inside diameter of the auger tube. b. Concave
c. the outside diameter of the auger tube. c. Pegs
d. None of the above d. None of the above

159. Hammer mills are designed purposely to ________. 164. The recommended rpm of rice thresher cylinder.
a. chop forage materials. a. 400-600 rpm
b. reduce the sizes of granular products. b. 800-1200 rpm
c. compact powered product. b. 2000-3000 rpm
d. None of the above c. None of the above

33 34
165. It is a dehulled paddy but the bran layer remains intact. 170. It is an unhulled grain of Oryza sativa.
a. Rough rice a. Palay
b. Milled rice b. Paddy
c. Brown rice c. Rough rice
d. All of the above d. All of the above

166. Measures the ability of the machine to remove hulls with minimum 171. An auxillary device of a rice mil which receives the remaining small
breakage. bran particles of milled rice and gives a glossy appearance to the
a. Coefficient of hulling product.
b. Coefficient of breakage a. Whitener
c. Coefficient of wholeness b. Grader
d. All of the above c. Polisher
d. All of the above
167. It is the extent by which the bran layer of brown rice is removed as a
result of whitening. 172. An example of rice huller.
a. Milling degree a. Steel-fluted
b. Degree of whitening b. Rubber roll
c. Milling recovery c. Disk
d. All of the above d. Centrifugal
e. All of the above
168. A multi-pass rice mill is determined by ___________.
a. having two or three separate hullers in the system 173. A process of reducing the corn kernel into pieces of grits, germ, and
b. having a series of two or three whitening machines pericarp with or without conditioning.
c. paddy is loaded several times in the rice mill a. Dry milling
d. None of the above b. Hammer milling
c. Attrition milling
169. It is the ratio of the weight of milled rice to the weight of paddy d. None of the above
multiplied by one hundred.
a. Percentage head rice recovery 174. A machine used to remove the germ and pericarp from the corn
b. Percentage milling recovery kernel.
c. Percentage milling capacity a. Conditioner
d. None of the above b. De-germinator
c. Corn mill
d. None of the above
35 36
175. A major component of a corn mill used to reduce corn kernel into 179. It is the process of rewetting of dried corn kernels to about 18 to 22%
grits. moisture content and tempered to make the pericarp and the germ
a. Roller mill more pliable and easier to remove during de-germination process.
b. Ball mill a. Tempering
c. Attrition mill b. Conditioning
d. All of the above c. Drying
d. None of the
176. A kind of cleaner that uses air to separate lower density material from
corn kernel/corn grits such as floured corn, germ, and bran. 180. A storage system for holding buffer stocks usually located at shipping
a. Aspirator receiving terminals.
b. Oscillating screen a. Village level storage system
c. Cleaner b. Commercial level storage system
d. Cyclone separator c. Centralized storage system
e. All of the above d. All of the above

177. A kind of rice mill that employs only one whitening machine. 181. It is a storage structure made of pre-fabricated reinforcement concrete
a. “Kiskisan” rice mill of pre-fabricated metal siding, which is either a hopper bottom or a
b. Single pass rice mill flat bottom.
c. Rubber roll rice mill a. Warehouse
d. None of the above b. Silo
c. Bulk container
178. Minimum hulling efficiency requirement for rice mill based on the d. All of the above
standard performance criterion.
a. 90% 182. Size of wire mesh used in storage to protect stored product from
b. 80% insects and rodents.
c. 70% a. ¼ inch mesh
d. None of the above b. ½ inch mesh
c. ¾ inch mesh
d. All of the above

37 38
183. GPEP stands for __________. 188. The uneven expansion and contraction of the inner and outer layers of
a. Grain Productivity Enhancement Project the grains that cause fissuring is a factor of __________.
b. Grain Productivity enhancement Program a. mechanical stress
c. Grain Production Enhancement Program b. thermal stress
d. All of the above c. physical stress
d. All of the above
184. Areas of concern of Philippine Postharvest Industry. e. None of the above
a. Research and development
b. Training, extension, and commercialization 189. Broken rice is a quality deterioration index during ________.
c. Postharvest facility assistance a. drying
d. Government support to the private sector b. threshing
e. All of the above c. milling
f. None of the above d. None of the above

185. It is the fibrous layer of paddy when hull is removed and is frequently 190. Changes in texture, odor, flavor, and nutritive value of grains during
known as the silver skin of brown rice. prolonged storage, even in the absence of insects and microorganisms,
a. Lemma and Palea are due to _______.
b. Pericarp a. moisture and temperature
c. Bran layer b. vapor pressure and temperature
d. None of the above c. vapor pressure and moisture
d. All of the above
186. The free space between the husk of rough rice and the brown rice e. None of the above
kernel greatly affects milling in the sense that ________.
a. the larger the free space increases the amount of broken grains 191. It is recommended that paddy should be harvested when 80% of the
b. the smaller the free space the lesser its abrasive effect to the rubber panicle are fully ripe for the reason that __________.
roll huller a. harvesting paddy below 80% will produce more broken grains
c. the larger the free space, the smaller the breakage and losses b. harvesting paddy above 80% will produce more empty grains
d. All of the above c. harvesting paddy above 80% will produce more shattered and
broken grains
187. Slender type paddy has a length to width ratio of _________. d. All of the above
a. less than 2.0
b. between 2 to 3
c. more than 3.0
d. None of the above
39 40
192. It is the manual method of harvesting paddy using “yatab”. 195. It is the process of diffusion from region of high concentration to
a. Sickle harvesting region of low concentration.
b. Panicle harvesting a. Energy transfer
c. Stripper harvesting b. Mass transfer
d. All of the above c. Heat transfer
d. None of the above
193. Shelled corn initially at 24% is to be dried to 14%. If the initial
weight of corn is 1000 kilos, what is its final weight? 196. In grain drying theory, drying will occur if ___________.
a. 782 kg a. the vapor pressure of grains is higher than the vapor pressure of air
b. 827 kg b. the vapor pressure of grains is lower than the vapor pressure of air
c. 872 kg c. the vapor pressure of grains is equal with the vapor pressure of air
d. None of the above d. None of the above

192. What is the moisture loss of corn grains above? 197. The usual depth of grain in deep bed batch dryer is __________.
a. 128 kg a. 18 inches
b. 173 kg b. 2 to 8 ft
c. 218 kg c. 8 to 10 ft
d. None of the above d. None of the above

193. It is a plot representing the equilibrium moisture content of grains at 198. What is the relative humidity of air if the psychrometer measures 40 C
different relative humidity but with constant temperature. for both dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures?
a. Isothermal graph a. 40%
b. Sorption isotherms b. 80%
c. Isothermal humidity c. 100%
d. None of the above d. All of the above

194. Factors that cause migration of moisture during storage.

a. Variation of ambient temperature within the grain mass
b. Moisture gradient within the grain mass
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

41 42
199. If the point is moved horizontally to the left of the psychrometric 203. Maximum speed requirement of vertical abrasive whitening cone
chart, the process is __________. machine.
a. heating a. 13 m/s
b. cooling b. 14 m/s
c. drying c. 15 m/s
d. None of the above d. All of the above

200. If the end-product in milling is brown rice, the grain has just passed 204. Normal setting speed of horizontal abrasive whitener.
through a ________. a. 800 rpm
a. paddy cleaner b. 1000 rpm
b. rubber roll huller c. 1200 rpm
c. whitener d. None of the above
d. sifter
e. None of the above 205. Recommended clearance setting between stones of a disk huller.
a. ¼ of the length of paddy
201. What machine is usually used before brown rice will undergo b. ½ of the length of paddy
whitening process? c. ¾ of the length of paddy
a. Husker d. All of the above
b. Aspirator
c. Paddy separator 206. If the rubber roll huller becomes worn-out, the peripheral speed of the
d. Rice polisher roller will _________.
e. None of the above a. decrease
b. increase
202. Adjustment clearance for rubber brakes in vertical abrasive whitening c. be the same
cone. d. None of the above
a. 1 to 2 mm from cone coating
b. 2 to 3 mm from cone coating 207. It is the process of compressing mash feeds with the aid of live steam
c. 3 to 4 mm from cone coating to produce small chunks or cylinders of feed.
d. None of the above a. Mixing
b. Crumbling
c. Pelleting
d. All of the above

43 44
208. It is the process of grinding pellets into coarse granular form. 213. It is the assembling and measuring out of the required qualities of
a. Coarse pelleting solid raw feed materials into a batch of the desired composition.
b. Crumbling a. Mixing
c. Milling b. Blending
d. None of the above c. Pelleting
d. All of the above
209. A feed mixer which have an auger that elevates the feed on top of the
mixing bin and spread evenly in the bin by gravity for another mixing 214. Feed materials are mixed purposely to _______
cycle. a. obtain homogenous feed to ensure that animals are given the same
a. Horizontal mixer proportions of nutrient
b. Vertical mixer b. reduce the density of the feed material so that it can be easily
c. Inclined mixer transported.
d. All of the above c. improve the digestability of feeds.
d. None of the above
210. A mixer which consist of a U shaped bin which contains a central
mixing blade or ribbon mounted on a rotating shaft. 215. Grinding feeds basically will ____
a. Horizontal mixers a. make the feed attractive to the animals.
b. Inclined mixer b. improve digestability of feeds materials.
c. Vertical mixer c. improved storage period of the feeds.
d. All of the above d. None of the above

211. Feed mixers that is characterized by high capacity, short mixing time, 216. Average velocity of hammer tip of a hammer mill.
and high power requirement. a. 50 m/s
a. Horizontal mixer b. 100 m/s
b. Inclined mixer c. 150 m/s
c. Vertical mixer d. None of the above
d. All of the above

212. Feed mixer that is characterized by low capacity. longer mixing time,
and low power requirement.
a. Horizontal mixer
b. Inclined mixer
c. Vertical mixer
d. All of the above
45 46
217. It is used to control the flow of materials in a feed milling plant to 222. By-product in corm milling refers to _____.
ensure that it will enters in the full width of the mill chamber and at a. corn grit # 20 and # 24
the same time optimum capacity is obtained while the motor is b. corn grit # 16 and #18
overloaded. c. corn grit # 12 and #14
a. Discharge chute d. All of the above
b. Feeder
c. Auger 223. It is a milled corn kernel with particle size between 1.5 mm to 1.7 mm.
d. None of the above a. Corn grit # 12
b. Corn grit # 14
218. Optimum mixing time of vertical-type feed mixer. c. Corn grit # 16
a. 5 minutes d. Corn grit # 18
b. 10 minutes e. All of the above
c. 15 minutes
d. None of the above 224. It is a milled corn kernel with particle size between 1.10mm to 1.19
mm.
219. Approximate speed of horizontal type feed mixer. a. Corn grit # 12
a. 10 rpm b. Corn grit # 14
b. 15 rpm c. Corn grit # 16
c. 25 rpm d. Corn grit # 18
d. None of the above e. All of the above

220. Required mixing time for horizontal feed mixer. 225. It is a by-product after pressing copra when oil having light color and very
a. 5 minutes low fatty acids has been removed.
b. 10 minutes a. Copra meal
c. 15 minutes b. Copra meat
d. None of the above c. Copra cake
d. None of the above
221. It is a coarse powder from outer covering of the corn kernel removed
during milling process.
a. Corn cob
b. Grit
c. Bran
d. Pericarp
e. None of the above 48
47
226. It is the process of rewetting of dried corn kernels to about 18 to 22% 230. It is the major component of a corn mill that reduce corn kernel into
moisture content and tempered to make the pericarp and the germ grits.
more pliable and easier to remove during degermination process. a. Burr mill
a. Wet milling b. Hammer mill
b. Degermination process c. Steel roller mill
c. Conditioning d. All of the above
d. None of the above
231. It is the minimum main product recovery required in the performance
227. The main product of corn milling. criteria for corn mill.
a. Corn grit # 10 a. 44%
b. Corn grit # 12 b. 54%
c. Corn grit # 14 c. 64 %
d. Corn grit # 16 d. None of the above
e. All of the above
232. Shelled corn kernels where the germ and pericarp have been removed.
228. It is the milled corn kernel where the outer covering and germs have a. Milled corn kernel
been removed and with particle size of not less than 0.86 mm.. b. Degerminated corn kernel
a. Broken corn kernel c. Polished corn kernel
b. Cracked corn kernel d. None of the above
c. Corn grits
d. None of the above 233. It is the ratio of the weight of corn kernel input to the total operating
time.
229. It is the ratio of the weight of corn grits to the total weight of corn a. Input capacity
kernel input expressed in percent. b. Output capacity
a. % input capacity c. Milling capacity
b. % main product recovery d. All of the above
c. % milling recovery
d. All of the above 234. It is the minimum by-product recovery required in the performance
criteria for corn mill.
a. 21 %
b. 31%
c. 41%
d. None of the above
50
49
235. A rice processing plant operates at 5 tons per hour. The milling and 239. It is the process of subjecting food product to a temperature of about
head rice recoveries of the rice mill are 69% and 95%, respectively. 65 C for 30 min which causes the death of many but not all of the
What is the input capacity of the rice mill? organism present.
a. 7.24 tons per hour a. Dehydration
b. 3.45 tons per hour b. Sterilization
c. 4.75 tons per hour c. Pasteurization
d. None of the above d. None of the above

236. What is the throughput rate of the rice mill in kg broken grains per 240. It is the termination of entire organism in the product using heat at a
hour? temperature of about 50 to 100 C.
a. 0.172 ton per hour a. Pasteurization
b. 0.250 ton per hour b. Heat sterilization
c. 0.350 ton per hour c. Dehydration
e. None of the above d. None of the above

237. If the machine rice huller has a hulling coefficient of 0.90 and 241. It is the process of removing solid particles from liquid such as wine,
wholeness coefficient of 0.80, what is the output in kg of brown rice fruit juices, vinegar, and vegetable oil.
per hour of the rice huller in problem above? a. Screening
a. 6.52 tons per hour b. Filtration
b. 4.50 tons per hour c. Leaching
c. 4.00 tons per hour d. None of the above
d. None of the above
242. A process of segregating alcohol, sugar, and some soluble materials
238. It is the process of preserving food materials in hermetically-sealed with the use of water.
container which has been sterilized with the use of heat. a. Leaching
a. Drying b. Hydrolysis
b. Canning c. Water adsorption
c. Steaming d. None of the above
d. None of the above

51 52
243. A process of separating volatile compound from less volatile 247. A process which is used to clean fruits and vegetables to soften the
materials. dirt and other foreign materials adhering to the skin thus making the
a. Distilling washing by spray more efficient.
b. Leaching a. Water soaking
c. Diffusing b. Water agitation
c. None of the above c. Scalding
d. None of the above
244. One ton nuts is equivalent to _______.
a. 4000 pieces of nuts 248. A term given to the process of heating fruits and vegetables in live
b. 5000 pieces of nuts steam or in water before canning to clean, to reduce volume, to
c. 6000 pieces of nuts eliminate undesirable flavor or odor, and to remove slime forming-
d. None of the above materials.
a. Scalding
245. The process of separating coarse from fine materials. b. Blanching
a. Sifting c. Sterilizing
b. Cleaning d. None of the above
c. Sorting
d. None of the above 249. It is an instrument that is used to determine the salt content of brine.
a. Hydrometer
246. It is a device that separates materials such as oil from water, and b. pH meter
crystals from mother liquor by means of whirling action. c. Manometer
a. Liquid separator d. None of the above
b. Centrifuge
c. Crystalizer 250. It is the weight of animal minus 3 percent of its total weight to account
d. None of the above for the content of the digestive tract.
a. Slaughter weight
b. Live weight
c. Dead weight
d. None of the above

54
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251. It is the weight of carcass or meat and bones together with the fat and 255. Drying temperature of copra is _______.
first-and second-class by-product of an animal. a. less than 50 C
a. Slaughter weight b. between 50 to 95 C
b. Dead weight c. above 95 C
c. Live weight d. None of the above
d. None of the above
256. A spiral kind of positive displacement pump used in food industry
252. It is a facility where the primary processing of animal yielding meat wherein the product comes into contact with a flexible kind of
carcasses, raw fat, internal organ, and hides are carried out. materials instead of steel and in which air is utilized as a displacing
a. Slaughter house medium.
b. Dressing Plant a. Peristaltic pump
c. Animal Butchering Plant b. Jet pump
d. All of the above c. Diaphragm pump
d. All of the above
253. Pump commonly used in food processing industry.
a. Piston displacement pump 257. An equipment used in food industry for feeding solid/liquid mixture
b. Rotary displacement pump into a screw press or wringers in the form of sheets, rods, or other
c. Centrifugal pump shapes.
d. None of the above a. Extruder
b. Screw press
254. A type of pump used in food industry that is characterized by c. Screw feeder
pulsating or periodic output. d. All of the above
a. Piston displacement pump
b. Rotary displacement pump 258. A process of combining different materials until a certain degree of
c. Centrifugal pump homogeneity is achieved.
d. All of the above a. Milling
b. Mixing
c. Feeding
d. None of the above

55 56
259. Basically, the purpose of mixing is ________. 264. An example of Non-Newtonian fluid with high viscosity.
a. To promote the transfer of heat between hot or cold product a. Juices
b. To obtain good contact between materials being mixed b. Drinks
c. To promote reactions between reactants c. Mashed vegetables
d. All of the above d. All of the above
e. Two of the above
265. It is the prevention or the protection of products against spoilage.
260. A type of mixer suitable for free flowing or non-free flowing a. Preservation
materials. b. Drying
a. Rotating mixer without stirrers c. Dehydration
b. Rotating mixer with stirrers d. None of the above
c. All of the above
d. Two of the above 266. A process of preservation by means of heating the product at a
temperature below 100 C to kill pathogenic bacteria.
261. A machine used for mixing solids and liquids in such a ratio that very a. Drying
viscous mixture is formed such as paste and doughs. b. Dehydration
a. Kneader c. Pasteurization
b. Roller d. All of the above
c. Mixer
d. None of the above 267. A type of dryer commonly used in food industry where dried materials
are injected in the dryer in automized form to produce powdered
262. An equipment used for heating and cooling of flowing products. product.
a. Condenser a. Spray dryer
b. Evaporator b. Drum dryer
c. Heat exchanger c. Pneumatic dryer
d. All of the above d. All of the above

263. An example of Newtonian fluids of low viscosity. 268. A drying technology which has the ability to maintain the original
a. Soup appearance of the product with no shrinkage, retain shape and
b. Chocolate structure.
c. Juices a. Heated air drying
d. All of the above b. Conduction drying
c. Freeze drying
d. All of the above
57 58
269. It is the complete destruction of all forms of life in the product being 273. A process of pumping product against a steel plate through a very
processed. small opening of 0.0001 diameter at a pressure of about 3500 psi to
a. Cooking reduce the size of fat globule such as those in milk, mayonnaise, and
b. Sterilization others to a point that fats have no tendency to rise.
c. Pasteurization a. Homogenizing
d. None of the above b. Conching
c. Pressing
270. It is the process of heating the product nearly at boiling point to render d. None of the above
it stable against spoilage by microorganism.
a. Cooking 274. It is the process often used in heating of can and its content under
b. Sterilization vacuum condition to remove air and other entrapped gases before
c. Pasteurization sealing.
d. None of the above a. Exhausting
b. Sterilizing
271. It is the indicator of the quality of food which determines whether or c. Heating
not it is acceptable to the consumers. d. All of the above
a. Taste
b. Flavor 275. A process used for many food products by giving deaeration treatment
c. Palatability to improve the color, flavor, aroma retention, or reduce the volume of
d. None of the above the product.
a. Degassing
272. It is the process applied in the manufacture of chocolate and similar b. Blending
products to produce a very marked effect on appearance and flavor c. Exhausting
through the elimination of moisture, harshness, and acidity. d. All of the above
a. Conching
b. Roasting 276. A process usually applied to nuts and beans of various sorts in order to
c. Frying bring about a desired flavor rather than to effect on sterilization.
d. None of the above a. Drying
b. Blanching
c. Roasting
d. Pasteurization
e. None of the above

59 60
277. A processing used in canning in which there is rigid regulation of the 281. Roasting temperature for pumpkin seeds, sunflower seeds, and
cooking temperature in such a manner that packages are not peanuts.
misshapen or broken by too rapid cooling a. 200-250 F
a. Tempering b. 250-300 F
b. Freezing c. 300-350 F
c. Refrigeration d. None of the above
d. None of the above
282. Pre-drying temperature requirement for mushroom.
278. Brown spots on dried vegetables is caused by ______. a. 80-90 F
a. too high drying temperature used b. 120-125 F
b. low drying temperature used c. 250-300 F
c. optimum drying temperature used d. None of the above
d. None of the above e. All of the above
279. A pretreatment method used for vegetables to destroy enzymes that 283. A “case” formed like a leathery material over the outside of very high
can cause undesirable changes in color and flavor during drying and sugar food such as fruit which doesn’t allow water to pass through
storage. during drying is a factor of _________.
a. Cleaning a. slow drying
b. Blanching b. rapid drying
c. Drying c. normal drying
d. None of the above d. None of the above
280. A pretreatment method for fruits and vegetables to retard spoilage and 284. Pretreatment of fruits and vegetables are recommended to _______.
darkening of fruits. a. stop enzymatic activity which results in color, flavor, and nutrient
a. Blanching losses or changes
b. Sulfuring b. stop ripening and spoilage
c. Sterilizing c. hasten drying rate and improve storageability of the product
d. All of the above d. None of the above

62
61
285. Another term used for citric acid. 290. Recommended temperature for drying vegetables.
a. Table salt a. 125 F
b. Lemon salt b. 150 F
c. Acid salt c. 175 F
d. All of the above e. 200 F
f. All of the above
286. Requirements for a good dehydrator.
a. Some form of temperature control 291. Which of the following statement is true?
b. A fan to circulate air and remove moisture a. Different foods requiring similar drying times and temperature can
c. Easily removable and washable trays be dried together
d. All of the above b. Vegetables with strong odors or flavor should be dried separately
c. Don’t dry strong-smelling vegetables outside in an electric
287. Rotating trays or exchanging trays on a dehydrator when drying fruits dehydrator because dehydrators are not screened and insect may
and vegetables is recommended for the purpose of ______. invade the food
a. reducing drying time d. All of the above
b. increasing the efficiency of the dryer e. None of the above
c. promoting even drying of product
d. None of the above 292. Sulfur treatment on fruits and vegetables can be replaced by _____.
a. aulfite dips
288. Conditioning dried fruits after drying basically is done to _______. b. ateam blanching
a. allow moisture to equalize through all the food so that there will c. water blanching
no damp spots where mold will grow d. All of the above
b. increase the quality of dried fruit prior to packaging e. None of the above
c. improve the color and taste of fruit
d. None of the above 293. An example of chemicals used as sulfite dips.
a. Sodium bisulfite
289. Sulfured food are recommended for storage using _______. b. Sodium sulfite
a. metal can container c. Sodium metabisulfite
b. plastic container d. None of the above
c. bottle with can cover container e. All of the above
d. All of the above

64
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294. Pasteurizing is recommended for foods that had been contaminated or 298. Drying time requirement for solid yellow or slightly brown-flecked
used as second treatment for vegetables held in storage if the bananas in a dehydrator.
vegetables do not have any mold on them ___________. a. 4-8 hours
a. before drying b. 8-10 hours
b. before and during storage c. 10- 16 hours
c. after storage d. All of the above
d. All of the above
e. None of the above 299. It is the process of decomposition of carbohydrates by microorganism
or enzyme.
295. Commonly methods used for pasteurizing foods. a. Fermentation
a. Freezing and oven drying b. Spoilage
b. Steaming and Blanching c. Preservation
c. Boiling and drying d. None of the above
d. All of the above
e. None of the above 300. It is the preservation of food in brine or vinegar with or without
bacterial fermentation.
296. Recommended storage time for dried food. a. Pickling
a. 2 – 4 months b. Salting
b. 4 – 12 months c. Blanching
c. 12 – 24 months d. None of the above
d. All of the above
301. A pre-treatment procedure to keep the color and quality of vegetable
297. Fruits rolls that is characterized by tasty chewy dried fruit made by before drying.
pouring pursed fruit into a flat surface for drying. a. Trimming
a. Fruit rolls b. Blanching
b. Dried fruit c. Salting
c. Fruit leathers d. None of the above
d. All of the above

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302. It is the process of boiling whole fruits or pieces of fruit pulp with 306. Substances used to prevent food by retarding deterioration, rancidity,
sugar to a moderate thick consistency, without retaining the shape of or discoloration due to oxidation.
the fruit. a. Additives
a. Jams b. Antioxidants
b. Jellies c. Emulsifiers
c. Marmalades d. None of the above
d. All of the above
307. Substances that modify surface tension in the component phase of an
303. It is a product prepared by extracting the juice from boiled fruits, and emulsion to establish a uniform dispersion.
then boiled with sugar and cooked to such consistency that a. Additives
gelatinization takes place when cooled. b. Antioxidants
a. Jams c. Emulsifiers
b. Jellies d. None of the above
c. Marmalades
d. All of the above 308. Any substance including a food additive used as a component in the
manufacture or preparation of a food and present in the final product.
304. It is a clear jelly which contains evenly suspended slices of fruits or a. Nutrients
peel. b. Microelement
a. Jam c. Ingredients
b. Jellies d. None of the above
c. Marmalades
d. All of the above 309. Any tag, brand, mark, pictorial, or other descriptive matter, written,
printed, marked, embossed or impressed on, or attached to a container
305. It is the aseptic practice in the preparation, processing, and packaging of food.
of food products. a. Nutrition facts
a. Cleaning b. Label
b. Sanitation c. Trademark
c. Housekeeping d. None of the above
d. None of the above

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310. Canning temperature for fruits, tomatoes, and pickles in water bath 315. It is the intensity of the molecular movement of matter.
canner. a. Energy
a. 115 deg C b. Heat
b. 100 deg C c. Work
c. 74 deg C d. All of the above
d. None of the above
316. A substance is cold if _________.
311. Canning temperature for low-acid vegetables, meat and poultry in a. heat is present
pressure canner. b. heat is absent
a. 115 deg C c. heat is higher
b. 100 deg C d. All of the above
c. 74 deg C
d. None of the above 317. The quantity of heat in the substance is described in terms of _____.
a. BTU
312. Cooking temperature that destroys most bacteria in foods. b. Calories
a. 115 deg C c. Pascal
b. 100 deg C d. All of the above
c. 74 deg C
d. None of the above 318. Ten BTU is equivalent to _______.
a. 2520 calories
313. It is the process of removing heat from a substance or a space at a b. 2250 calories
lower temperature. c. 2045 calories
a. Sublimation d. None of the above
b. Heat of fusion
c. Refrigeration 319. One-hundred calories is equivalent to __________.
d. All of the above a. 418.7 Joules
b. 481.7 Joules
314. Heat moves from a substance naturally to another substance _____. c. 471.8 Joules
a. at a higher temperature to lower temperature d. None of the above
b. at lower temperature to higher temperature
c. at either temperature
d. None of the above

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320. An instrument used to measure heat is ________. 325. It is the amount of heat added or removed from a substance with the change
a. thermometer in temperature.
b. Watt meter a. Sensible heat
c. Calorimeter b Latent heat
d. None of the above c. Specific heat
d. All of the above
321. It is the measurement of the heat level of a substance.
a. Thermometer 326. It is the heat added or removed from a substance causing a change in
b. Temperature its state without changing its temperature.
c. Calorimeter a. Sensible heat
d. All of the above b. Latent heat
c. Specific heat
322. Which of the following statement is true? d. All of the above
a. The freezing point of water is 0 F
b. The boiling point of water is 212 C 327. It is the quantity of heat required to change a unit mass of a liquid into
c. That 32 F and 0 C is the same temperature level gaseous state without change in temperature.
d. None of the above a. Latent heat of vaporization
b. Latent heat of fusion
323. It is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a c. Latent heat condensation
substance one degree scale. d. None of the above
a. Sensible heat
b. Specific heat 328. It is the quantity of heat required to change a unit mass of solid to
c. Latent heat liquid state without change in temperature.
d. None of the above a. Latent heat of vaporization
b. Latent heat of fusion
324. The specific heat of water is _________. c. Latent heat of sublimation
a. 1 BTU/lb-F d. All of the above
b. 1 kcal/kg-C
c. 1 cal/g-C 329. It is the quantity of heat required to change a unit mass of gas to liquid
d. All of the above state without change in temperature.
a. Latent heat of vaporization
b. Latent heat of condensation
c. Latent heat of fusion
d. All of the above
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330. It is the quantity of heat required to change a unit mass of solid to gas 335. The basic uses of insulating materials for refrigeration system are:
without change in temperature. a. To retard heat flow
a. Latent heat of fusion b. To prevent surface condensation
b. Latent heat of vaporization c. To control noise and vibration
c. Latent heat of sublimation d. All of the above
d. None of the above
336. Which of the following insulating materials for refrigeration system is
331. The latent heat of fusion of water is ________. efficient and least expensive?
a. 336 kJ/kg a. Asbestos
b. 144 BTU/lb b. Styrofoam
c. All of the above c. Aluminum foil
d. None of the above d. All of the above

332. At a higher elevation, ________. 337. It is the amount or quantity of current flowing in a circuit
a. water will boil at 100 C a. Voltage
b. water will boil above 100 C b. Amperage
c. water will boil below 100 C c. Ohms
c. Water will not boil d. None of the above
d. None of the above
338. It is the electrical pressure of a circuit
333. The amount of heat transmitted to a wall is a factor of ______. a. Voltage
a. wall thickness b. Amperage
b. temperature difference c. Ohms
c. resistance of heat flow of the wall materials d. None of the above
d. All of the above
339. It is the cooling coil of a refrigeration system
334. A material with high emissivity _________. a. Condenser
a. will collect more heat b. Evaporator
b. will not collect heat c. Compressor
c. will transmit heat d. None of the above
d. None of the above

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340. It is the basic part of a refrigeration system which is characterized by a 345. One ton refrigeration is equal to _______.
high pressure side. a. 288,000 BTU/day
a. Condenser b. 12,000 BTU/hr
b. Evaporator c. 200 BTU/min
c. Expansion valve d. All of the above
d. All of the above
346. An example of refrigerant.
341. It is the part of a refrigeration system that causes the circulation of a a. Ammonia
refrigerant. b. Carbon monoxide
a. Condenser c. Methyl bromide
b. Expansion valve d. All of the above
c. Compressor
d. None of the above 347. Commonly used refrigerant in ice plants.
a. Ammonia
342. A part of a refrigeration system that causes the reduction of pressure b. Carbon dioxide
of the refrigerant. c. Methyl chloride
a. Evaporator d. None of the above
b. Compressor
c. Expansion valve 348. A refrigeration appliance that operates at a higher temperature.
d. All of the above a. No-frost refrigerator
b. Air-conditioner
343. It is a fluid that easily boils at a lower temperature. c. Domestic freezer
a. Water d. All of the above
b. Oil
c. Refrigerant 349. The introduction of fresh ambient air to an air-conditioned or
d. All of the above refrigerated space.
a. Cooling
344. One ton refrigeration is the amount of heat required to melt one ton of b. Air changes
ice in ________. c. Air filtration
a. 12 hours d. None of the above
b. 24 minutes
c. one day
d. None of the above

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350. It is the removal of accumulated ice from the surfaces of cooling coils 354. The temperature at which a liquid is converted to solid state upon the
which operate below freezing point. removal of its latent heat of fusion.
a. Dehumidification a. Cooling point
b. Defrosting b. Solid point
c. Ice melting c. Freezing point
d. None of the above d. None of the above

351. A refrigeration system which can be used either to cool or to heat a 355. To reduce the relative humidity of air, it is recommended to use a
given space, normally by exchanging the functions of the evaporator _______.
and the condenser. a a. humidifier
a. Heat pump b. dehumidifier
b. Humidifier c. psychrometer
c. Dehumidifier d. None of the above
d. None of the above
356. In a domestic refrigerator, the condenser can be found _______.
352. Air that is flowing into a space through gaps around doors, windows, a. inside the refrigerator cabinet
and others. b. outside the refrigerator cabinet
a. Air intake c. beneath the freezer
b. Air changes d. None of the above
c. Infiltration
d. None of the above 357. Freezers in refrigerator compartment are normally found at the upper
section of the cabinet for the reason that _______.
353. The difference between dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures a. it is easy to load product to the freezer
a. Wet bulb depression b. it is easy to install the freezer in the cabinet
b. Relative humidity c. heat will efficiently be distributed to the refrigerator compartment
c. Dew point temperature e. None of the above
d. None of the above
358. Chilling injury of banana will occur at a temperature
a. Below 27 C
b. Below 14 C
c. Below 5 C
d. All of the above

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359. Lowest temperature that is safe for storage of banana is ________. 364. It is the process of exposing freshly-harvested product and carefully-
a. below 14 C prepared food to subzero temperatures and holding them at 32 C
b. below 5 C during storage period to maintain the quality of the products.
c. below 0 C a. Cold storage
d. All of the above b. Quick freezing
c. Sharp freezing
360. When a product is termed as frozen storage, it is ________. d. All of the above
a. chilled and stored above freezing point
b. the product is stored between -10 F to 10 F 365. If vegetables are stored at a temperature between 0 C to 30 C, the
c. the product is stored at 10 F to 50 F product is under _________.
d. All of the above a. frozen storage
b. refrigerated storage
361. Another important factors in cold storage of perishable products are c. All of the above
________. d. None of the above
a. energy and power requirement inside the storage room
b. temperature and heat loss in the storage room 366. Important factor that contributes in proper refrigeration of perishable
c. humidity and air motion inside the storage room crops is ______.
d. None of the above a. constant temperature
b. free air circulation
362. The use of plastic polyethylene sheet as packaging material for cold c. control of relative humidity
storage is ________. d. All of the above
a. to provide heat insulating effect on the product
b. to make the product attractive to the customer 367. It is the process of heating vegetables in steam or in boiling water to
c. to prevent moisture loss in the product inactivate enzymes and reduce microbial population thereby
d. None of the above prolonging storage at subfreezing temperature.
a. Dehydration
363. The purpose of refrigeration in storing perishable product is _____. b. Blanching
a. to improve the quality of the product c. Drying
b. to arrest or retard the natural process of deterioration d. None of the above
c. to hasten ripening or maturity of product such as fruits and
vegetables
d. All of the above

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368. Most favorable cold storage temperature for eggs. 373. A freezer used for fish product wherein the products are placed in
a. 29 – 30 C shelves or in aluminum pans or plates covered by pipe coils or
b. 29 – 30 F evaporators at a temperature of –20 to - 29 C.
c. 28 F a. Sharp freezer
d. None of the above b. Air-blast freezer
c. Contact plate freezer
369. Freezing temperature for eggs. d. All of the above
a. 29 – 30 C
b. 29 – 30 F 374. Freezing point of milk.
c. 28 F a. - 0.545 C
d. None of the above b. - 0.545 F
c. 0. 545 C
370. Factors that change during cold storage of fish due to oxidation of fish d. None of the above
oils and pigments particularly in more fatty species of fish.
a. Color and flavor 375. A frozen product made of a pasturized mixture of sugar, solid milk,
b. Color and texture stabilizer, food acid, and flavorings such as fruits, fruit juices or
c. Flavor and texture extract, and water.
d. All of the above a. Ice cream
b. Sherbet
371. A process of retarding moisture and oxidation loss from the product c. Frozen milk
during cold storage by providing a continuous film or coating that d. All of the above
will adhere to the surface of the product.
a. Blaching 376. Which of the following are used for packaging frozen poultry
b. Thawing products?
c. Glazing a. Plastic
d. None of the above b. Edible coating
c. Aluminum foil
372. A freezer that operates at an air temperature of -30 F and below and a d. Waxed cardboard
velocity of 500 to 100 fpm. e. All of the above
a. Sharp freezer
b. Air-blast freezer
c. Contact plate freezer
d. All of the above
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377. A 3 hp engine is to be replace with electric motor. Recommend for 382. Changes in the flavor of meat, fish, or poultry during freezing is due to
the size of the motor for the drive. the ______.
a. 1 hp a. change in temperature of the product
b. 2 hp b. microorganisms that were killed during storage
c. 5 hp c. oxidation of fats
d. None of the above d. None of the above

78. Frozen poultry product gave only good for a period of ________. 383. It is a method of freezing the surface of poultry meat using mist of
a. 1 to 6 months liquid prior to storage in an air blast freezer or cold storage room.
b. 6 to 12 months a. Liquid immersion freezing
c. 1 to 2 years b. Liquid spray freezing
d. All of the above c. Conveyor tunnel freezing
d. All of the above
379. Term used for the internal organs of poultry suitable for cold storage.
a. Carcass 384. If a poultry product is stored at a temperature of 35-40 F, the product
b. Giblets quality can be maintained within ______.
c. Gills a. 1 to 2 months
d. None of the above b. 1 to 2 days
c. 1 to 2 hours
380. In order to minimize darkening of carcass of poultry meat, it is d. None of the above
recommended that before cold storage poultry meat should be
______. 385. It is a flesh obtained from domesticated animals.
a. slowly be frozen and undergo scalding process a. Carcass
b. frozen rapidly b. Meat
c. undergo scalding process c. Giblets
d. None of the above d. None of the above

381. Tenderness of poultry meat can be maintained during cold storage by 386. It is the meat obtained from hogs.
__________. a. Beef
a. storing it in aluminum foil b. Pork
b. storing it in plastic net c. Veal
c. storing it unpacked d. All of the above
d. All of the above
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387. It is the meat of sheep that is less than one year old. 392. Which of the following is true?
a. Lamb a. When beef is stored at lower temperature it will have longer
b. Muttons storage life than when cold stored at higher temperature
c. Chevon b. Storing beef at lower temperature will reduce its storage life
d. None of the above c. Storing beef at higher temperature will increase its storage life
d. All of the above
388. It is the meat from rabbit.
a. Lapan 393. Myoglobin content in meat is responsible for _______.
b. Venison a. odor of meat after cold storage
c. Chevon b. appearance of meat
d. None of the above c. color of meat
d. All of the above
389. It is the meat from goat. e. Two of the above
a. Chevon f. None of the above
b. Venison
c. Mutton 394. It is the process of allowing meat to hang at temperature of 0 to 3 C
d. All of the above to create tenderizing effect before freezing.
a. Aging
390. It is the method used in preserving meat. b. Freezing
a. Smoking process c. Tempering
b. Refrigeration d. None of the above
c. Freeze drying
d. Irradiation 395. Which of the following is true in cold storage of meat?
e. None of the above a. Extreme temperature fluctuation during defrosting contributes to
f. All of the above short storage life of the meat.
b. Freezing meat and its subsequent frozen storage improves the
391. It is a meat of less than one-year old cattle. quality of meat products.
a. Beef c. Proper handling of meat prior to freezing reduces the quality of
b. Veal frozen products.
c. Carabeef d. None of the above
d. All of the above

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396. Freezer burn in meat product is a result of ______. 401. ASHRAE is the acronym for __________.
a. storing meat product in a freezer with plastic sheet to prevent a. Association of Heat, Refrigeration, and Air Conditioning
moisture loss Engineers
b. storing meat product without plastic sheet at high relative humidity b. American Society of Heating, Refrigerating, and Air Conditioning
c. storing meat product without plastic sheet at low relative humidity Engineers
d. None of the above c. Association of Sensible Heating, Refrigeration, and Air Cooling
Engineers
397. The recommended time for storing beef cuts at – 18 C is ___. d. None of the above
a. 6 to 12 months
b. 3 to 4 months 402. An equipment that is used to clean, cool, heat, humidify, or
c. 1 to 2 months dehumidify air.
d. None of the above a. Air heat exchanger
b. Air conditioner
398. Ground beef can be stored at –18 C within a period of ________. c. Air-cooled condenser
a. 6 to 12 months d. All of the above
b. 3 to 4 months
c. 1 to 2 months 403. The process of removing moisture from air.
d. None of the above a. Dehydration
b. Air suction
399. It is a method of freezing shrimp into an agitated cold brine solution c. Dehumidify
of a fixed concentration and temperature. d. All of the above
a. Blast freezing
b. Immersion freezing 404. It is the most popular refrigerant used for refrigeration system.
c. Tunnel freezing a. R-12 (Dichlordifluoromethane)
d. None of the above b. R- 22 (Monochlorodiflouromethane)
c. R-502
400. At – 18 C scallop meat have a frozen storage life of ________. d. All of the above
a. 1- 2 months
b. 3 - 6 months 405. It is the most popular refrigerant for air-conditioning.
c. 7 - 12 months a. R-12 (Dichlordifluoromethane)
d. None of the above b. R-22 (Monochlorodiflouromethane)
c. R-502 (mixture of R-22 and R115)
d. All of the above

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406. A popular refrigerant for low temperature refrigeration systems. 411. Operating temperature of evaporator in an air-conditioning system.
a. R-12 (Dichlordifluoromethane) a. 20 F
b. R-22 (Monochlorodiflouromethane) b. 40 F
c. R-502 (mixture of R-22 and R115) c. 60 F
d. All of the above d. All of the above

407. It is the process by which air is cooled, cleaned, and circulated. 412. Refrigerated-air conditioning is used in ________.
a. Air conditioner a. hot temperature with high humidity
b. Air conditioning b. hot temperature with low humidity
c. Air cooling and cleaning c. hot temperature with high or low humidity
d. All of the above d. None of the above

408. Air conditioning system wherein the condenser is located separately 413. A refrigerated system that cleans, dehydrates, and cools a
from the evaporator and uses an interconnecting refrigerant lines. compartment.
a. Split-system air conditioning system a. No frost refrigerator
b. Package equipment air conditioning system b. Chiller
c. All of the above c. Freezer
d. None of the above d. Air conditioner
e. None of the above
409. It is the cooling equipment of air conditioner.
a. Condenser 414. Which of the following statement is true:
b. Evaporator a. The motor and compressor of a refrigeration system is separately
c. Compressor installed.
d. Expansion valve b. The motor and compressor of a refrigeration system is housed in
the same compartment.
410. Condenser efficiency of an air conditioner can be increased by _____. c. The compressor and the motor of a refrigeration system is non-
a. reducing the condenser surface area hermetic type?
b. increasing the condenser surface area d. None of the above.
c. increasing the amount of refrigerant flowing in the condenser
d. None of the above

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415. The highest pressure in the refrigeration system can be found at ____. 420. State of refrigerant at the condenser side immediately after leaving the
a. the capillary tube compressor.
b. the entrance of the evaporator coil a. Superheated gas
c. the entrance of the condenser tube b. Lukewarm liquid
d. the evaporator coil immediately before the compressor c. Saturated gas
e. None of the above d. None of the above

416. A refrigeration system component after the condenser. 421. Sate of refrigerant at the evaporator side immediately before the
a. Capillary tube compressor.
b. Filter a. Superheated gas
c. Compressor b. Lukewarm liquid
d. None of the above c. Saturated gas
d. None of the above
417. A refrigeration system component after the capillary tube.
a. Evaporator 422. A newly discovered refrigerant that is not harmful for ozone layer or
b. Compressor referred to as “ozone friendly gas.”
c. Condenser a. R12
d. None of the above b. Ammonia
c. Suva Mp 52 (R-134a)
418. A refrigeration system component before the condenser. d. All of the above
a. Filter
b. Evaporator 423. It is a term used for the overcharging of refrigerant.
c. Capillary tube a. Back frost
d. Compressor b. Sweating
e. None of the above c. Supercharging
d. None of the above
419. Lowest temperature zone in refrigeration system.
a. Condenser 424. It is a mixture of ½ vapor and ½ liquid.
b. Capillary tube a. Saturated gas
c. Evaporator b. Saturated liquid
d. None of the above c. Superheated gas
d. None of the above

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425. It is a mixture of ½ liquid and ½ gas. 430. A device used mostly in larger cooling units to cool the water that
a. Saturated gas absorbs the heat from the condenser.
b. Saturated liquid a. Cold storage room
c. Superheated gas b. Cooling Tower
d. None of the above c. Heat Exchanger
d. None of the above
426. Charging pressure for refrigerator and freezer using R-12 refrigerant.
a. 19 psi 431. When a condenser of a refrigeration system is cooling, what is the
b. 65 psi common trouble?
c. 75 psi a. Too much refrigerant
d. None of the above b. Lacks refrigerant
c. No refrigerant
427. Larger floor area for the same height of wall use light _____ . d. None of the above
a. more efficiently than rooms with smaller floor area
b. more inefficiently than rooms with smaller floor area 432. It is the passage of from the outside of a leaky room caused by cracks
c. the same with smaller rooms in windows, doors, and other possible sources.
d. None of the above a. Heat loss
b. Air infiltration
428. Charging pressure for air conditioning unit using R-12 refrigerant. c. Air gap
a. 19 - 45 psi d. None of the above
b. 65 - 75 psi
c. 80 - 90 psi 433. Known as Dichlorodifluoromethane used as primary refrigerant for
d. None of the above refrigerator.
a. R-11
429. A dry ice is _____. b. R-12
a.. Solid H2O c. R-22
c. Solid CO2 d. None of the above
d. Solid O2
e. None of the above 434. Known as Monochlorodifluoromethane used a primary refrigerant for
aircon systems.
a. R-11
b. R-12
c. R-22
93 d. None of the above
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435. The transfer of heat from one part of a solid body to the other under the 440. The amount of heat required to raise one pound of water one degree
influence of temperature gradient. farenheight.
a. Convection a. Thermal capacity
b. Conduction b. Specific heat
c. Radiation c. British Thermal Unit
d. All of the above d. None of the above

436. The transfer of heat by mixing one parcel of fluid with another. 441. It is a proportionality factor that represents the property of material
a. Convection through heat conduction.
b. Conduction a. Thermal resistivity
c. Radiation b. Thermal conductivity
d. All of the above c. Thermal coefficient
d. None of the above
437. Shape factor for heat by conduction is expressed as ________.
a. A/dx 442. Cooling meat, fruits and vegetables are examples of heat transmission
b. K A/dx by _________.
c. dt/dx a. unsteady state conduction
d. None of the above b. steady state conduction
c. free convection
438. It is the amount of heat transferred per unit temperature per unit d. None of the above
length.
a. Emmissivity 443. Factors influencing thermal conductivity.
b. Thermal conductivity a. Chemical composition of materials
c. Heat transfer coefficient b. Temperature of materials
d. None of the above c. Surrounding pressure
d. All of the above
439. When heat is transmitted through molecular waves, it is transmitted by
_______. 444. If the temperature surrounding the material is decreased, the thermal
a. convection conductivity also __________.
b. conduction a. changes in decreasing manner
c. radiation b. changes in increasing manner
d. None of the above c. does not change
d. None of the above
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445. Fluids with low molecular weight have ________. 450. If a boiling water is pumped from a boiler to a heat exchanger, heat is
a. high thermal conductivity transmitted by ________.
b. low thermal conductivity a. natural convection
c. no thermal conductivity b. forced convection
d. None of the above c. radiation
d. None of the above
446. Heat basically transfers from ________.
a. lower temperature to high temperature 451. Heat transfer coefficient is lower for _______.
b. high temperature to lower temperature a. liquids
c. lower pressure to high pressure b. gases
d. None of the above c. boiling water
d. condensing vapors
447. If more heat is to be transmitted from one side to the other side of a e. None of the above
solid body, what would you recommend as an Engineer?
a. Increase the thickness of material 452. An example of heat conductor.
b. Decrease the thickness of material a. silica brick
c. Maintain the thickness of material b. refractory cement
d. None of the above c. asbestos fiber
d. None of the above
448. The shape factor for conduction heating on a cylindrical wall is
______. 453. In a vacuum condition, heat transfer by conduction moves ____.
a. 6.3 L/ln r2/r1 a. faster
b. 3.14 L/ln r2/r1 b. slower
c. 3.14 kL/ln2/r1 c. at constant rate
d. None of the above d. None of the above

449. The amount of heat transmitted per unit time and temperature for a 454. In sundrying, heat is released from a body by _____.
given surface area by a fluid . a. radiation
a. Heat coefficient b. force convection
b. Specific heat c. natural convection
c. Heat transfer coefficient d. None of the above
d. None of the above

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455. The amount of heat required to raise a kilogram of water one degree 460. Temperature of surrounding air.
centigrade. a. Dry bulb temperature
a. Kilo calories b. Wet bulb temperature
b. Joules c. Ambient temperature
c. Watts d. All of the above
d. None of the above
461. It is the form of energy that provides difference in temperature of
456. Dimensionless numbers used in determining heat transfer coefficient molecular materials.
by natural convection. a. Heat
a. Nusselt/Grashof/Prantdl b. Temperature
b. Nusselt/Reynolds/Prantdl c. Thermal resistance
c. Prantdl/Reynolds/Grashof d. None of the above
d. None of the above
462. Nusselt number is a function of _______.
457. The unit of energy in SI system is ________. a. convection coefficient, pipe diameter, and thermal conductivity
a. Newton-meter b. thermal conductivity, viscosity, and diameter of pipe
b. Joules c. convection coefficient, velocity of fluid, diameter of pipe
c. W-sec. d. None of the above
d. All of the above
463. A thick wall tube of stainless steel (k = 19w/m-C) with 2 cm. ID and
458. It is the insulating ability of a material or the resistance of material to 4 cm. OD) is covered with 3 cm. layer of asbestos insulation (k = 0.2
the flow of heat. w/m-C). If the inside wall temperature of the pipe is maintained at
a. Thermal resistance 600 C and the outside of the insulation at 100 C, what is the heat loss
b. Thermal conductivity per foot length of the tube?
c. Thermal insulator a. 600 w/m
d. All of the above b. 680 w/m
c. 720 w/m
459. The ability of a body to give up or to receive heat. d. None of the above
a. Heat
b. Temperature
c. Energy
d. All of the above

99 100
464. Which of the following has the highest heat transfer coefficient? 469. What is the heat transfer loss per foot of 2 inches nominal pipe
a. Gases (OD=2.37 in.) covered with 1-in. thick of an insulating material
b. Liquids having an average thermal conductivity of 0.037 BTU/hr-ft-F. The
c. Boiling water inner and outer temperatures of the insulation are 380 and 80 F,
d. All of the above respectively.
a. 161 BTU/hr-ft
465. The heat transfer coefficient of liquid in kcal/m²-hr-C is at the ranged b. 111 BTU/hr-ft
of ________. c. 125 BTU/hr-ft
a. 3 to 20 d. None of the above
b. 100 to 600
c. 1000 to 2000 470. The Prantdl number is a function of ________.
d. None of the above a. viscosity, specific heat, and thermal conductivity
b. specific heat, heat transfer coefficient, and thermal conductivity
466. Which of the following is true? c. viscosity, diameter of pipe, thermal conductivity
a. The thermal conductivity of aluminum is higher than silver. d. None of the above
b. Silver is faster to transmit heat than aluminum.
c. Aluminum and silver transfer heat at the same rate. 471. If the flow of fluid is on streamline characteristics, the fluid is at
d. All of the above _________.
a. turbulent condition
467. What is the total board foot of 5 pieces of 2 in x 6 in. x 14 feet b. laminar condition
wood? c. eddies
a. 50 bd ft d. All of the above
b. 60 bd ft
c. 70 bd ft 472. Heat transfer coefficient by force convection is determined by what
d. None of the above dimensionless numbers?
a. Nusselt, Prantdl, Reynolds
468. What is the heat loss per ft² of a brick kiln wall 9-inches thick is made b. Nusselt, Prantdl, Grashof
of a material with thermal conductivity of 0.18 BTU/hr-ft-F? The c. Reynolds, Grashof, Prantdl
outside and inside temperature is 1500 F and 400 F, respectively. d. None of the above
a. 224 BTU/hr-ft²
b. 264 BTU/hr-ft²
c. 246 BTU/hr-ft²
d. None of the above
101
102
473. One British thermal unit is equal to _______. 478. A good insulator for kiln dryer.
a. 1055 J a. Rice husk
b. 1505 J b. Brick
c. 1550 J c. Concrete
d. None of the above d. None of the above

474. If the heated pipe is changed with to a higher pipe schedule, the heat 479. A material which is poor conductor of heat or has low thermal
transfer will ________. conductivity.
a. increase a. Conductor
b. decrease b. Insulator
c. remains the same c. Resistor
d. All of the above d. All of the above

475. Basically, the thermal conductivity of a material will increase if the 480. An example of a good insulating material at high temperature.
__________. a. Iron
a. thickness is increased b. Wood
b. temperature is increased c. Asbestos
c. temperature is decreased d. All of the above
d. All of the above
481. Which of the following has low thermal conductivity?
476. Which of the following statement is true? a. Building brick
a. Heat transfer rate is higher on edges of boxes. b. Asbestos
b. Heat transfer rate is higher on corners of boxes. c. Firebrick
c. Heat transfer rate is lower on the walls of boxes. d. Concrete
d. None of the above e. None of the above

477. Which of the following statement is true? 482. Insulators used for steam lines are classified into _______.
a. Layers produce more manure per day than broilers. a. low temperature range insulator
b. Broiler produces more manure per day than layers. b. medium temperature range insulator
c. Both produce the same amount of manure per day. c. high temperature range insulator
d. None of the above d. None of the above

103 104
483. A good example of a dual temperature insulator. 488. One thousand nuts at 800 grams per nut will produce _______ kg of
a. Expanded silica copra.
b. Cellular glass a. 220 kg
c. Vermiculite b. 320 kg
d. All of the above c. 420 kg
d. None of the above
484. Form of insulants used in industrial insulation practice.
a. Flexible strips 489. It is an extruded foam used for low temperature systems such as
b. Foil refrigeration, building, and sub-zero insulation.
c. Flexible pipe section and mattresses a. Polystyrene foam
d. All of the above b. PVC foam
c. Plastic foam
485. Which of the following statement is true? d. All of the above
a. In insulation, heat gain is more costly than heat loss.
b. The cost of extracting heat from refrigerated space is the same 490. It is essentially a ceramic material designed to be resist amount to
with the cost of heat losses from a high temperature system high temperature of 1000 to 1800 C.
c. The cost of insulating high temperature system is the same with a. Refractory
that of low temperature system b. Asbestos
d. All of the above c. Fiber glass
d. None of the above
486. Moisture in low-temperature insulation material may cause _______.
a. reduction in the insulating value of the material 491. Factor that need to be considered in selecting insulants _______.
b. improvement in the insulating value of the materials a. operating temperature
c. to decrease the cost of the insulating materials b. maintenance cost
d. All of the above c. ability to resist mechanical and heat damage
d. All of the above
487. A process of heating copra to facilitate the removal of oil during
pressing. 492. To protect insulant from mechanical damage, the insulant must be
a. Drying provided with __________.
b. Steaming a. metal sheet cladding
c. Conditioning b. nets and asbestos cement
d. None of the above c. wire net and bituminous compound
d. All of the above
105
106
493. The Stefan – Boltzmann constant is equal to __________. 498. When two fluids in a heat exchanger move in opposite direction, the
a. 0.147 x 10-8 BTU/hr-ft2-F4 device is classified as.
b. 0.174 x 10-8 BTU/hr-ft2-F4 a. Parallel flow HE
c. 0.174 x 10-8 BTU/hr-ft2-F3 b. Cross flow HE
d. None of the above c. Constant flow HE
d. None of the above
494. The equation for heat transfer by radiation for gray bodies is ______.
a. Qr = λAT4 499. Configuration factor for parallel planes in calculating the heat radiated
b. Qr = ελAT4 is.
c. Qr = ε AT4 a. higher than perpendicular planes
d. None of the above b. lower for perpendicular planes
c. equal to perpendicular planes
495. It is a device used for transferring heat. d. None of the above
a. Insulator
b. Heat absorber 500. It is a mixture of cement, gravel, sand and water to harden in forms of
c. Heat exchanger the shape and dimension of the desired structure.
d. All of the above a. Bricks
b. Masonry
496. The overall heat transfer coefficient includes _______. c. Concrete
a. thermal conductivity and heat transfer coefficient of the materials d. All of the above
b. heat transfer coefficient and emmissivity of the materials
c. thermal conductivity and emmessivity of the materials 501. It is a project study of determining the quality, quantity, and cost of
d. None of the above every materials used in a work of in every finished work.
a. Feasibility study
497. Which of the following statement is true? b. Project planning
a. When radiant energy falls on a body, part may be reflected, c. Estimate
absorbed and the remainder transmitted. d. None of the above
b. When radiant energy fall on a body, part may be reflected and
absorbed. 502. It is a slow hardening kind of concrete.
c. When radiant fall on a body, all of the energy are absorbed. a. Portland blast furnace concrete
d. None of the above b. Low heat portland concrete
c. Portland pozzoland concrete
d. All of the above

107 108
503. Which of the following materials has the highest percentage 508. Recommended mixing proportion for floor slabs 4 in. thick.
composition in cement. a. 1 : 2 : 4
a. Lime b. 1 : 3 : 6
b. Silica c. 1 : 2 : 3
c. Alumina d. None of the above
d. None of the above
509. A structure made by laying bricks, stones blocks, and other stone like
504. It is considered as refractory material. materials.
a. Lime a. Masonry
b. Alumina b. Mortar
c. Silica c. Concrete
d. All of the above d. All of the above

505. Class AA concrete has a mixing proportion of ________. 510. Approximate numbers of concrete hallow blocks that can be produced
a. 1 : 2 : 4 per bag of cement.
b. 1 : 2.5 : 5 a. 55 to 60 pieces
c. 1 : 3 : 6 b. 30 to 35 pieces
d. None of the above c. 25 to 30 pieces
d. None of the above
506. Mixing proportion for class A concrete.
a. 1 : 2 : 4 511. Two bags of cement is equal to.
b. 1 : 2.5 : 5 a. 2 cubic feet in volume
c. 1 : 3 : 6 b. 2 cubic meters in volume
d. None of the above c. 200 kilos in weight
d. None of the above
507. Recommended mixing proportion for machine foundation.
a. 1 : 2 : 4 512. Although it is a non-homogenous natural product requiring judgment
b 1:3:6 and critical appraisal, it continues to be the primary structural
c. 1 : 2 : 3 materials for farm building.
d. None of the above a. Concrete
b. Wood
c. Masonry
d. Metals

109 110
513. By classification, they come from broad leaf deciduous trees. 517. A farm structure used to store and protect the animal fodder so that it
a. Manufactured wood is preserved in an ideal condition for the farm animals.
b. Plywood a. Silo
c. Softwood b. Warehouse
d. Hardwood c. Farm shop
e. None of the above d. Motor pool
e. None of the above
514. A class of softwood lumber used for farm building construction, with
sub-classes, entitled finish, common boards and common dimensions. 518. A barrel of cement consist of ______.
a. Yard lumber a. 3 bags
b. Structural lumber b. 2 bags
c. Factory lumber c. 5 bags
d. Lumber grade d. 4 bags
e. Manufactured lumber e. None of the above
f. None of the above
519. One half the horizontal distance of the truss.
515. A mixture of cement and water only, mixed to the consistency of very a. Run
thick cream used for coating surfaces of concrete to improve their b. Rise
appearance. c. Span
a. Grout d. Rafter
b. Mortar e. None of the above
c. Plastic
d. Solution 520. Volume of cement that can be contained in 4 in. x 8 in. x 16 in.
e. Cement concrete hallow block.
a. 0.001 m3
516. The term generally applied to stonework of the simpliest kind when b. 0.003 m3
little or no tool work is done on the stones other than to break them c. 0.004 m3
with hammer and roughly dress them. f. None of the above
a. Flagg
b. Mortar
c. Plastic
d. Rubble
e. None of the above
111 112
521. Mixing proportion of cement/sand for class a mortar. 526. A dressed lumber having four sides are smoothen.
a. 1 : 1 a. S4S
b. 1 : 2 b. 4SS
c. 1 : 3 c. SS4
d. 1 : 4 d. All of the above
e. None of the above
527. It is an undressed lumber.
522. A planed lumber having at least one side smooth. a. Surface lumber
a. Dressed lumber b. Rough lumber
b. Rough lumber c. Planed Lumber
c. Lumber yard d. None of the above
d. All of the above
528. Approximate number of pieces per kilo of GI roofing nails.
523. A piece of lumber having a minimum smallest dimension of 5 inches a. 100 pieces
or 13 cm. b. 120 pieces
a. Timber c. 150 pieces
b. Plank d. 200 pieces
c. Board e. All of the above
d. All of the above
529. It is the height of a flight of stairs from landing to landing or the
524. A piece of lumber less than 4 cm thick with at least 10 cm wide. height between successive treads or stairs.
a. Timber a. Run
b. Plank b. Rise
c. Board c. Pitch
d. All of the above d. None of the above

525. A wide piece of lumber from 4 to 13 cm thick. 530. One gallon of paint in first coating can cover an area of _____.
a. Timber a. 15 sq. m.
b. Plank b. 20 sq. m.
c. Board c. 25 sq. m.
d. None of the above d. All of the above

113 114
531. The rough estimate for the number of kilos of need needed per 1000 536. It is the capacity of material to resist fracture under impact load.
bd.ft. of lumber. a. Hardness
a. 15 kg b. Toughness
b. 20 kg c. Elasticity
c. 25 kg d. All of the above
d. None of the above
537. A wood which comes from needle-leaved cone bearing trees.
532. The rough estimate number of bags of cement required per cubic a. Hardwood
meter of concrete. b. Soft wood
a. 10 bags c. Medium-hard wood
b. 15 bags d. All of the above
c. 20 bags
d. All of the above 538. Lumber used for mill work such as window casing and sash, and
cabinets.
533. Dwelling place for workers in the farm. a. Factory lumber
a. Farmstead b. Yard lumber
b. Farm house c. Structural timber
c. Granaries d. All of the above
d. None of the above
539. Material less than 5 in. thick and is used for general building purposes.
534. It is the characteristics of materials that retain their strength and other a. Factory lumber
properties over a considerable period of time. b. Yard lumber
a. Reliability c. Structural timber
b. Hardness d. None of the above
c. Durability
d. All of the above 540. It includes joist and plank, beams and stringers, and post.
a. Factory lumber
535. Most widely used preservative treatment for wood. b. Yard lumber
a. Asphalt c. Structural timber
b. Black enamel paint d. None of the above
c. Creosote
d. All of the above

115 116
541. A lumber that comes from a saw, unfinished and full dimension. 546. Nails are bought in the hardware in terms of ______.
a. Planed lumber a. pieces
b. Rough lumber b. kilo
c. Factory lumber c. volume
d. All of the above d. None of the above

542. A lumber finished smooth on two edges designated and one side and 547. A screw used commonly in roof construction.
full dimension. a. Cap screw
a. S2E1S b. Tex screw
b. SE2S1 c. Self-tapping screw
c. S2ES1 d. None of the above
d. All of the above
548. The saw recommended for cutting plywood is ___________.
543. A jointed frame that is used to support load over a relatively large a. cross cut saw
span. b. rip saw
a. Beam c. coping saw
b. Post d. None of the above
c. Truss
d. All of the above 549. Sizes of saw are given in number of teeth, the more the saw teeth
number, _____.
544. The standard dimension of plywood is ______. a. the courser the cut
a. 4’ x 8’ b. the finer the cut
b. 4’ x 6’ c. smaller the cut
c. 4’ x 12’ d. None of the above
d. None of the above
550. One board foot is equivalent to ________.
545. The largest area in a piece of wood is the _______. a. l in x l in x 1 ft/144
a. edge b. l in x l in x l in/144
b. face c. l in x l in x l in/12
c. end d. None of the above
d. None of the above

117 118
551. It is the method of reducing the moisture of timber using artificial heat 556. A saw for making small round openings on plywood.
on a heated chamber. a. Coping saw
a. Air drying b. Hole saw
b. Kiln drying c. Circular saw
c. Wood dehydration d. All of the above
d. None of the above
557. Lattice molding are bought in terms of ________.
552. Sawing is the process of cutting wood and is classified as _______. a. board foot
a. Shearing method b. linear footage
b. Chip-forming method c. square footage
c. Chemical method d. All of the above
d. None of the above
558. If a wood is specified as S4S this mean that _______.
553. A fastener used to properly fixed materials to a concrete. a. 4 edges of wood are smooth
a. Tex screw b. all surfaces are smooth
b. Tox c. four sides of wood are smooth
c. Adhesives d. All of the above
d. None of the above
559. A saw used for cutting across a piece of wood.
554. Nail used for making furniture or for flooring purposes. a. Band saw
a. Common nail b. Rip saw
b. Box nail c. Cross-cut saw
c. Finishing nail d. All of the above
d. None of the above
560. Materials used in supporting concrete structure.
555. It is a tool used to make the surface of wood level and smooth. a. Round bar
a. Hammer b. Square bar
b. Drill c. Corrugated round bar
c. Jack plane d. None of the above
d. All of the above

119 120
561. Paint recommended for wood. 566. Ten lumen distributed to an area of 10 square foot is equal to
a. Latex paint _______ .
b. Enamel paint a. 1 foot-candle
c. Acrylic paint b. 10 foot-candle
d. None of the above c. 100 foot-candle
d. None of the above
562. Wood is applied with paint for ________.
a. surface protection 567. A class A concrete has a mixing proportion of ______.
b. decoration a. 1:2:3
c. moisture protection b. 1:2:4
d. All of the above c. 1:3:6
d. None of the above
563. Which of the following does not composed of cement?
a. Lime 568. Mixing proportion for machinery foundation.
b. Silica a. 1: 2:3
c. Alummina b. 1:2:4
d. None of the above c. 1:3:6
d. None of the above
564. Which of the following is a refractory material?
a. Lime 569. Mixing proportions for walls and footings.
b. Silica a. 1:2:4
c. Alummina b. 1:2.5:5
d. None of the above c. 1:3:6
d. None of the above
565. Cement mixture used for beams, slabs, and for all members subjected
to bending stress. 570. Approximate time limit before the removal of forms and support for
a. 1:2:3 walls.
b. 1:2:4 a. 14 to 21 days
c. 1:3:6 b. 3 to 10 days
d. None of the above c. 7 to 14 days
d. None of the above

121 122
571. One barrel is equal to ______ of 96 lbs Portland cement. 576. An area in which a sow is confined during farrowing and lactation
a. 2 bags period and are freely to turn around.
b. 3 bags a. Farrowing stall
c. 4 bags b. Farrowing pen
d. None of the above c. Factating stall
d. All of the above
572. One bag of cement is equal to ______.
a. One cubic foot 577. It is the act of separating the pigs and the sow.
b. Two cubic foot a. Farrowing
c. Three cubic foot b. Gestating
d. All of the above c. Weaning
d. None of the above
573. There are _______ concrete hollow blocks per square meter of wall
area. 578. An unbred female pig at least 8 months old.
a. 10 CHB a. Boar
b. 13 CHB b. Gilt
c. 15 CHB c. Sow
d. All of the above d. None of the above

574. The volume of cement for concrete hollow blocks with dimension of 4 579. A device in which a sow is confined during farrowing and lactation
in. x 8 in. x 16 in. is _________ cubic meter. periods and which prevents sow from turning around.
a. 0.001 a. Farrowing pen
b. 0.003 b. Farrowing stall
c. 0.004 c. Farrowing house
d. None of the above d. All of the above

575. A male breeding pig which is at least 8 months old. 580. Period of time between conception and farrowing.
a. Gilt a. Gestation
b. Boar b. Lactation
c. Sow c. Farrowing
d. None of the above d. None of the above

123 124
581. The process of milk secretion. 586. Minimum slope for pig housing floor.
a. Gestation a. 2 to 4 %
b. Lactation b. 5 to 7 %
c. Weaning c. 8 to 10 %
d. None of the above d. None of the above

582. It is the production of a litter of one or more live or dead pigs on or 587. Floor thickness for pig housing.
after 110 day of pregnancy. a. 40 to 50 mm thick
a. Gestation b. 70 to 80 mm thick
b. Lactation c. 90 to 100 mm thick
c. Farrowing d. None of the above
d. None of the above
588. Recommended concrete mixture for pig housing floor.
583. Recommended orientation of swine house. a. 1:2:3
a. North-south direction b. 1:2.25: 3
b. East-west direction c. 1:2.5:3
c. North west direction d. All of the above
d. South east direction
e. All of the above 589. Materials used as floor slats in swine housing.
a. Wood slats
584. Minimum recommended space requirement for boar pens. b. Concrete slats
a. 0.85 sq.m. per animal c. Steel slats
b. 2.50 sq.m. per animal d. Plastic slats
c. 7.5 sq.m. per animal e. All of the above
d. None of the above
590. Recommended door dimension for pig pens.
585. Minimum recommended space requirement for adult pigs in group. a. 40 cm wide x 50 cm high
a. 1.0 sq.m. per animal b. 60 cm wide x 100 cm high
b. 2.5 sq.m. per animal c. 80 cm wide x 120 cm high
c. 7.5 sq.m. per animal d. None of the above
d. None of the above

125 126
591. Recommended ceiling height for pig housing. 596. Floor space requirement for broilers in cages more than 4 weeks old.
a. 2 to 2.5 m a. 22 birds per m2
b. 2.5 to 3 m b. 43 birds per m2
c. 3 m to 3.5 m c. 54 birds per m2
d. All of the above d. All of the above

592. Minimum ventilation rate for farrowing unit and breeding and 597. Recommended floor height for poultry house.
gestating units. a. 1.0 m above ground
a. 2.8 CFM b. 1.4 m above ground
b. 4.2 CFM c. 1.8 m above ground
c. 9.8 CFM d. None of the above
d. None of the above
598. Recommended dimension for entrance door for poultry building.
593. Daily water requirement of boar and sow at normal ambient a. 90 cm wide x 150 cm high
temperature. b. 90 cm wide x 200 cm high
a. 1-5 liters per day-animal c. 90 cm wide x 250 cm high
b. 5-10 liters per day-animal d. All of the above
c. 10-30 liters per day-animal
d. None of the above 599. Minimum height for ceiling in poultry building.
a. 2.0 m
594. Recommended orientation of poultry building to obtain proper b. 2.2 m
sunlight, wind flow and temperature. c. 2.4 m
a. North-east direction d. none of the above
b. East-west direction
c. North-south direction 600. Recommended brooding temperature for 7 day old chick.
d. None of the above a. 27-29 deg C
b. 29-32 deg C
595. Floor space requirement for 4-week old broilers in cages. c. 32-35 deg C
a. 22 birds per m2 d. All of the above
b. 43 birds per m2
c. 54 birds per m2
d. All of the above

128
127
601. Fourteen day old chicks requires _______ brooding temperature than 606. Number of pieces of 305 mm diameter round feeder for chicks above
7 day old chicks. 4 weeks old.
a. higher a. 2 pieces
b. lower b. 5 pieces
c. the same c. 8 pieces
d. None of the above d. None of the above

602. The recommended distance of air inlets from fans in poultry building 607. Minimum height of hover required during brooding operation.
should not be within ________. a. 50-80 mm above the back of the birds
a. 1.0 m and below b. 80-120 mm above the back of the birds
b. 2.5 m and below c. 120-160 mm above the back of the birds
c. 3.5 m and below d. None of the above
d. None of the above
608. Waterer space requirement for linear-type waterer for chicks below 4
603. Artificial light requirement of chicks during the first 48 hours at 2.4 m weeks old.
above the floor. a. 2.5 cm per bird
a. 15 watts per m2 b. 5.0 cm per bird
b. 25 watts per m2 c. 7.5 cm per bird
c. 35 watts per m2 d. All of the above
d. all of the above
609. Number of bird required per unit round waterer for chicks above 4
604. Artificial light requirement of chicks after the first 48 hours at floor weeks of age.
level. a. 50 birds
a. 10 watts per m2 b. 75 birds
b. 20 watts per m2 c. 100 birds
c. 30 watts per m2 d. None of the above
d. All of the above
610. A wooden frame used on concrete floors for stacking bags to prevent
605. Linear feeder space requirement for broiler 4 weeks and below. direct contact between the grains and the floor.
a. 4 cm per bird a. Dunnage
a. 8 cm per bird b. Pallet
b. 12 cm per bird c. “Tarima”
c. None of the above d. All of the above
e. None of the above
129 130
610. A building used for storing paddy or rice in bulk or in bag form. 615. The minimum height of the interior between the beams and the floor
a. Warehouse for normal temperature warehouse.
b. Silo a. 4 meters
c. Grain Complex b. 5 meters
d. None of the above c. 6 meters
d. All of the above
611. The recommended dimension for warehouse with 10,000 cavans
capacity. 616. The recommended size of entrance for normal temperature warehouse.
a. 10 m x 30m a. 6 meters wide x 4 meters high
b. 10 m x 40 m b. 4 meters wide x 6 meters high
c. 10 m x 60 m c. 5 meters wide x 5 meters high
d. All of the above d. None of the above

612. The recommended dimension for warehouse with 500,000 cavans 617. The minimum requirement for illumination of a warehouse.
capacity. a. 3 watts per square meter
a. 75 m x 142 m b. 4 watts per square meter
b. 75 m x 152 m c. 5 watts per square meter
c. 75 m x 162 m d. None of the above
d. None of the above
618. Recommended thickness of hallow blocks used for walls of
613. Recommended dimension for warehouse with 50,000 cavans capacity. warehouse.
a. 20 m x 48 m a. 100 mm
b. 20 m x 58 m b. 125 mm
c. 20 m x 68 m c. 150 mm
d. None of the above d. All of the above

614. Recommended dimension for warehouse with 100,000 cavans 619. Recommended size of reinforcing bars for warehouse walls.
capacity. a. 8 mm  RSB
a. 25 m x 78 m b. 10 mm  RSB
b. 25 m x 88 m c. 12 mm  RSB
c. 25 m x 98 m d. None of the above
d. None of the above

131 132
620. Recommended thickness of concrete slabs for warehouse permitted 625. Maximum height of stacks for warehouse when using woven
for loading and unloading with trucks. polypropylene bags.
a. 100 mm a. 3 meters
b. 120 mm b. 6 meters
c. 150 mm c. 9 meters
d. None of the above d. None of the above

621. Recommended width of concrete strips to be laid around warehouse to 626. Dimension for maximum piling of stacks to conform with the
prevent rain from eroding the base of the walls below the damp fumigating sheets in situations where warehouses cannot be made
course. airtight.
a. 0.75 m a. 7.3 m x 21.9 m x 4.5 m
b. 1.00 m b. 6.3 m x 20.9 m x 4.5 m
c. 1.50 m c. 5.3 m x 19.8 m x 4.5 m
d. None of the above d. None of the above

622. Minimum dimension of roof truss span for warehouse. 627. Recommended stack height for warehouse should not exceed the
a. 14.5 meters height of the walls and a space of at least ______ between the tops of
b. 15.5 meters the stacks and the roof frame.
c. 16.5 meters a. 1 meter
d. None of the above b. 1.5 meters
c. 2.0 meters
623. Recommended spacing between the stacks and wall of warehouse. d. None of the above
a. 0.5 meter wide
b. 1.0 meter wide 628. It is the system of piling grains that provides ventilation space
c. 1.5 meter wide between bags and allows circulation of convective air current that
d. None of the above provides a medium for heat dissipation.
a. Chinese Method
624. Maximum height of stacks for warehouse using jute sacks. b. Japanese Method
a. 3 meters c. Philippine Method
b. 6 meters d. None of the above
c. 9 meters
d. None of the above

133 134
629. Any building or place used for killing of animals where the flesh is 634. Water requirement of a slaughter house for small animals.
intended for human consumption. a. 227 liters per day per animal
a. Butcher house b. 114 liters per day per animal
b. Slaughter house c. 57 liters per day per animal
c. Large animal pen d. None of the above
d. None of the above
635. Water requirement of a slaughter house for swine.
630. A slaughter hose with required facilities and operational procedures to a. 227 liters per day per animal
serve any market. b. 114 liters per day per animal
a. “A” slaughter house c. 57 liters per day per animal
b. “AA” slaughter house d. None of the above
c. “AAA” slaughter house
d. None of the above 636. Minimum distance required of slaughter house when they are to be
located near river, streams, or lakes.
631. A slaughter hose with required facilities and operational procedures to a. 10 meters from the bank
serve local market within the country. b. 20 meters from the bank
a. “A” slaughter house c. 30 meters from the bank
b. “AA” slaughter house d. None of the above
c. “AAA” slaughter house
d. None of the above 637. Minimum distance required for slaughter house from buildings used
for human habitation, factory, public road and places.
632. A type of electrical load distribution center where the meter and the a. 50 meters
disconnect switch are located at the electric-load center of the farmstead. b. 100 meters
a. Indoor-type c. 150 meters
b. Outdoor-type d. None of the above
c. Pole-type
d. None of the above 638. Minimum pipeline pressure for water supply system in slaughter
houses.
633. Water requirement of a slaughter house for large animals. a. 20 psi
a. 227 liters per day per animal b. 30 psi
b. 114 liters per day per animal c. 40 psi
c. 57 liters per day per animal d. None of the above
d. None of the above

135 136
639. Meat which is unfit for human consumption as declared by a 644. It renders the animal insensible before it is killed.
veterinary inspector after veterinary examination. a. Stunning
a. Spoiled meat b. Pithing
b. Detained meat c. Sticking
c. Condemned meat d. None of the above
d. None of the above
645. It is the insertion of a rod or coiled wire through the hole in the skull
640. Meat requiring further examination as declared by a veterinary of cattle made by captive blot to destroy the brain and spinal cord to
inspector after veterinary examination. prevent reflex muscular action and possible injury to operatives.
a. Spoiled meat a. Stunning
b. Detained meat b. Pithing
c. Condemned meat c. Sticking
d. None of the above d. None of the above

641. Lowering of animal into a steam to prepare skin for dehairing. 646. It is the severance of the major blood vessels in the neck or
a. Flaying immediately anterior to the heart by means of a knife.
b. Scalding a. Stunning
c. Gambrelling b. Pithing
d. None of the above c. Sticking
d. None of the above
642. It is the removal of hide of the carcass.
a. Flaying 647. Site for slaughter houses should be elevated ______ above the
b. Scalding adjacent ground.
c. Gambrelling a. 400 mm
d. None of the above b. 500 mm
c. 600 mm
643. It is the process or suspending the carcass for particular operation. d. None of the above
a. Flaying
b. Scalding
c. Gambrelling
d. None of the above

138
137
648. Recommended dimension for slaughter house for large animal with 653. Minimum width of doorways for slaughter houses.
throughput rate of 30 animals per day is ____. a. 1.0 meter wide
a. 6 m x 5.8 m b. 1.2 meters wide
b. 2.5 m x 6.4 m c. 1.5 meters wide
c. 23.3 m x 15 m d. None of the above
d. None of the above
654. Numbers of drain inlets provided in slaughter houses pr 40 m2 space.
649. Recommended slopes for wall tops of slaughter houses. a. 1 inlet
a. 30 deg b. 2 inlets
b. 45 deg c. 3 inlets
c. 60 deg d. None of the above
d. None of the above
655. Two hundred twenty (220) volt line with current flowing at 10 ampere
650. Recommended thickness of concrete slabs for slaughter houses. is equal to ________.
a. 100 mm a. 2.2 kw
b. 120 mm b. 2.2 volt-ampere
c. 150 mm c. 2200 watts
d. None of the above d. None of the above

651. Size of reinforcement bar for concrete slabs in slaughter houses. 656. A 10 ampere ventilation fan with a power factor of 0.85 was
a. 8 mm  RSB connected to a 220 volt convenience outlet. What is the current and
b. 10 mm  RSB power in the circuit?
c. 12 mm  RSB a. 1,870 watts
d. None of the above b. 1,870 volt-ampere
c. 2,200 watts
652. Recommended height of windows for slaughter houses. d. None of the above
a. 1 meters above the floor e. All of the above
b. 1.2 meters above the floor
c. 1.5 meters above the floor
d. None of the above

140
139
657. An electric motor has an rated horsepower of 2 hp, a rated voltage of 662. Advantage of 240 volt over to 120 volt.
240 volts, and a current of 15 amperes. What is the horsepower rating a. Economical
of the motor in watts? Assume a motor efficiency of 85%. b. Lower power loss
a. 1492 watts c. Smaller power drop
b. 1942 watts d. All of the above
c. 1249 watts
d. None of the above 663. Ampere capacity of AWG no. 12 wire.
a. 15 amperes
658. What is the input power of the motor above? b. 20 amperes
a. 1557 watts c. 30 amperes
b. 1755 watts d. None of the above
c. 1575 watts
d. None of the above 664. When AWG # 12 wire is replace with AWG no. 14, the ampere
capacity of the will ______.
659. What is the power factor of the motor above? a. increase
a. 0.4875 b. decrease
b. 0.4785 c. remains the same
c. 0.4587 d. None of the above
d. None of the above
665. Electrical conductors which are 8 mm2 (AWG#8) or smaller in size.
660. The power output of DC line in wattage is equal to ______. a. Wire
a. volts x ampere b. Cables
b. volts x ampere x power factor c. Cord
c. volt x ampere x efficiency d. All of the above
d. None of the above
666. Electrical conductors larger than 8 mm2.
661. The power output of AC line in wattage is equal to ______. a. Wire
a. volts x ampere b. Cables
b. volts x ampere x power factor c. Cord
c. volt x ampere x efficiency d. All of the above
d. None of the above

141 142
667. Consist of a group of wires twisted to form a metallic string. 671. It is a fabricated assembly of insulated conductors enclosed flexible
a. Stranded wire metal sheet primarily used for both exposed and concealed work.
b. Cord a. Metal clad cable
c. Co-axial wire b. Armored cable
d. All of the above c. Mineral Insulated cable
d. None of the above
668. A water heater draws 10 amperes at 240 volt current supply. What is
the heat resistance delivered by heater? 672. It is a factory assembly of one or more conductors each individually
a. 2.4 ohms insulated and enclosed in a metallic sheet of interlocking tape of a
b. 24 ohms smooth or corrugated tube and are usually used for service feeders,
c. 2400 ohms branch circuits and for indoor or outdoor work.
d. None of the above a. Metal clad cable
b. Armored cable
669. Determine the monthly consumption of a farm residence having the c. Mineral insulated cable
following loads: one-1200 watts electric iron in 2 hours, one-1000 d. None of the above
watt water heater in 3 hours, and one-1300 watt toaster in 30 minutes.
a. 4.05 kw-hour 673. It is a wiring accessories or channels designed for holding wires,
b. 5.05 kw-hour cables, or busbars which are either made of metal, plastic, or any
c. 6.05 kw-hour insulating materials.
d. None of the above a. Wire shield
b. Armor pipe
670. What is the size in circular mill of a cable with rating 250 MCM? c. Raceways
a. 250 circular mill d. None of the above
b. 25, 000 circular mill
c. 250,000 circular mill 674. It is a device which by insertion establishes connection between the
d. All of the above conductor of the flexible cord and the conductors connected
permanently to the receptacle.
a. Convenience outlet
b. Junction box
c. Receptacles
d. None of the above

143 144
675. A contact device installed at the outlet for the connection of a single 679. It is the ability of the wire or conductor to carry the current without
attachment plug. overheating.
a. Convenience outlet a. Voltage drop
b. Junction box b. Power loss
c. Receptacles c. Ampacity
d. None of the above d. None of the above

676. These are free standing assembly of switches, fuses, and circuit 680. National Electrification Code provides that the ampacity of the
breakers which provides switching and feeder protection to a number connected load shall not exceed _____ of the amperage capacity of the
of circuits connected to a main source. conductor and the fuse.
a. Panel board a. 60%
b. Switchboard b. 70%
c. Circuit breaker c. 80%
d. All of the above d. All of the above

677. Electrical system that is adopted in buildings where the load exceeds 681. Allowable space between the tops of the stocks and the roof truss of
50 KVA or where it is required for bigger load such as motors and warehouse.
machineries. a. 1.0 meter
a. Single phase system b. 1.5 meters
b. Dual phase system c. 2.0 meters
c. Three phase system d. None of the above
d. All of the above
682. Optimum recommended stock height for paddy stored in the
678. The maximum load in watts for each household lighting outlet based warehouse.
on the National Electrification Code. a. 16 layers
a. 50 watts b. 18 layers
b. 100 watts c. 20 layers
c. 150 watts d. All of the above
d. All of the above

145 146
683. Optimum recommended stock height for maize stored in the 687. Allowable space between piles of bags in warehouse.
warehouse. a. 0.6 m
a. 16 layers b. 1.0 m
b. 18 layers c. 1.2 m
c. 20 layers d. None of the above
d. All of the above
688. Minimum side space requirement between the edge of the pile and the
684. In storing paddy, which of the following statement is true? wall of the warehouse.
a. More paddy can be stored in a warehouse when placed in jute a. 0.5 m
sacks. b. 1.0 m
b. More paddy can be stored in a warehouse when placed in woven c. 1.5 m
polypropylene bags. d. None of the above
c. The same volume of paddy can be stored in a warehouse whether
they are stored in jute sacks or woven polypropylene bags. 689. Minimum recommended height of the interior between the beam and
d. None of the above the floor of warehouse.
a. 15 feet
685. Maximum stock height for grains stored in jute bags. b. 20 feet
a. ½ the wall height c. 25 feet
b. ¾ the wall height d. All of the above
c. Wall height
d. All of the above 690. Preferred lighting fixtures for warehouse building.
a. Incandescent lamp
686. Maximum stock height for grains stored in woven polypropylene b. Fluorescent lamp
bags. c. Ultraviolet lamp
a. ½ the wall height d. None of the above
c. ¾ the wall height
c. Wall height 691. Minimum requirement for illumination of warehouse.
d. All of the above a. 3 watts per square meter
b. 6 watts per square meter
c. 9 watts per square meter
d. None of the above

147 148
692. Recommended size of concrete hallow blocks for warehouse wall. 697. Recommended height of floor if trucks are permitted to load and
a. 4 in. x 8 in. x 16 in. unload inside the warehouse.
b. 6 in. x 8 in. x 16 in. a. 0.30 m above the ground
c. 8 in. x 8 in. x 16 in. b. 0.40 m above the ground
d. None of the above c. 0.50 m above the ground
d. None of the above
693. Recommended size of reinforcement bar for warehouse.
a. 10 mm diameter 698. Which of the following facilities are required for warehouse?
b. 12 mm diameter a. Quality control laboratories
c. 14 mm diameter b. Toilet and washing facilities
d. None of the above c. Poisonous chemical store
d. All of the above
694. Recommended spacing of reinforcement bar for warehouse wall. e. None of the above
a. 500 mm vertical and horizontal
b. 600 mm vertical and 500 horizontal 699. Construction of canopy for warehouse should be done ______ to
c. 600 mm vertical and horizontal allow continuous loading and unloading even when raining.
d. None of the above a. in all walls
b. in every entry door
695. To prevent rain from eroding the warehouse wall, it is recommended c. in one edge of the outside wall
that ______ d. None of the above
a one meter concrete strips should be provided around the
warehouse. 700. Locations of vents for warehouse.
b. one meter metal strips should be provided on the outside wall of a. Near the floor level
the warehouse. b. Top of the wall near grid line
c. suitable drainage system should be provided around the c. Top of the roof and the ridge
warehouse. d. All of the above
d. None of the above
701. Factors that contribute to the increasing amount of waste.
696. Recommended height of floor for warehouse to permit easy loading a. Over population
and unloading by trucks at the sides of the warehouse. b. Utilization of chemicals in Agriculture
a. 0.5 meter above the ground c. Natural catastrophes and droughts
b. 1.0 meter above the ground d. All of the above
c. 1.5 meters above the ground
d. None of the above
149 150
702. A treatment process which reduces the amount of substances that 707. In flocculation process, it is necessary that the water being treated
cause unpleasant odor and discoloration of water. must be ___________.
a. Filtration a. agitated
b. Aeration b. stagnant
c. Disinfection c. heated
d. None of the above d. All of the above

703. In an open aerator, the addition of air in water is achieved by 708. A water treatment process aimed to destroy microorganisms that cause
a. Placing the water in an open tank infectious disease .
b. Providing opening to a water container a. Ozonation
c. Spraying the water b. Disinfection
d. None of the above c. Irradiation
d. None of the above
704. In sedimentation, processed water is allowed to pass through a settling
chamber at __________. 709. Lesser amount of chorine is needed for water being treated if the
a. low velocity turbidity of water is ________ .
b. high velocity a. high
c. zero velocity b. low
d. None of the above c. zero
d. None of the above
705. In coagulation and flocculation processes, water is mixed with
coagulants to _______. 710. It is the commonly practiced method of disinfecting water by
a. disperse colloidal particles households.
b. allow the formation of settable particles a. chlorination
c. mechanically screen colloidal matters b. ozonation
d. None of the above c. boiling
d. None of the above
706. Sources of coagulants include ______.
a. earth from termite hills 711. A good material used for water filter.
b. aluminum and iron salts a. Chlorine
c. potato starch b. Activated carbon
d. All of the above c. Filter paper
d. None of the above

151 152
712. A mixture in air of irregular shape mineral particles in the size ranged 716. When a material goes with air, the velocity of air that will cause it to
from 1 to 200 micrometer formed by crushing, chipping, grinding or pick-up the materials is _______.
by natural disintegration of solid substances. a. terminal velocity
a. Fumes b. superfluous velocity
b. Sulfurous smog c. laminar velocity
c. Dusts d. None of the above
d. All of the above
717. The efficiency of cyclone increases for ________.
713. If air is mixed with one or more constituents not normally present in a. small particle
the atmosphere it is considered as _______. b. medium particle
a. polluted air c. large particle
b. turbid air d. None of the above
c. air pollution
d. None of the above 718. Cyclone efficiency decreases with a _________.
a. decrease in the amount of dust
714. It is the simplest method of separating solid particles from air by b. reduction in length of cyclone body
allowing air to pass through a large chamber to cause the solid c. decrease in the number of gas rotation inside the cyclone
material to fall due to its weight. d. All of the above
a. Momentum separation
b. Gravity separation 719. A gas filter that is suitable for high temperature condition.
c. Settling chamber a. Wool
d. None of the above b. Asbestos
c. Filter glass
715. Much efficient method of separating particles from air. d. All of the above
a. Cyclone separator
b. Gravity separator 720. A method of separating fine dust by allowing it to pass through a mist
c. Momentum separator of water.
d. None of the above a. Water purifier
b. Water scrubber
c. Water spraying
d. All of the above

153 154
721. A partially lined or unlined underground pit into which raw animal or 725. It is a biological waste water treatment process in which the mixture
household waste water is discharged. of waste water and biological solids is agitated and aerated.
a. Cistern a. Activated sludge process
b. Cesspool b. Agitation process
c. Septic tank c. Anaerobic digestion process
d. None of the above d. None of the above

722. It is the breakdown of organic matter in a water solution or suspension 726. Waste water flowing into a reservoir or treatment plant.
into a simpler or more biologically-stable compounds. a. Slurry
a. Digestion b. Influent
b. Ammonification c. Intake
c. Adsorption d. None of the above
d. None of the above
727. It is the ordinary killing of all living microorganisms with the use of
723. Wastewater, which is treated or untreated, that is being discharged heat and pressure or with the use of some chemicals.
from reservoir, basin, or treatment plant. a. Disinfection
a. Effluent b. Sterilization
b. Influent c. Fumigation
c. Turbid water d. None of the above
d. None of the above
728. It is the biological decomposition of nitrogenous organic matter with
724. A dark carbonaceous residue resulting from aerobic decomposition of the production of foul-smelling products associated with anaerobic
organic matter. degradation of proteins.
a. Night soil a. Anaerobic digestion
b. Slurry b. Putrefaction
c. Humus c. Liquefaction
d. None of the above d. None of the above

155 156
729. A portion of the total solids driven off by a combustible gases at 500- 734. A film produced during slow filtration responsible for the
600 C for at least one hour. bacteriological- purification effect on water.
a. Total solids a. Filter skin
b. Volatile solids b. Scum
c. Suspended solids c. Bacteriological film
d. None of the above d. None of the above

730. It is an earthen facility for biological treatment of wastewater. 735. It is the method of cleaning on a rapid filter by reversing the direction
a. Lagoon of flow of water.
b. Detention pond a. Back splashing
c. Cesspool b. Back washing
d. None of the above c. Reverse cleaning
d. None of the above
731. Biological degradation of organic solids under aerobic conditions to a
relatively stable humus-like material. 736. Chemical reaction of disinfectant is speed up by using _____.
a. Digestion a. cold water
b. Composting b. raw water
c. Manure production c. hot water
d. None of the above d. All of the above

732. Particles that ultimately settle after the wastewater losses velocity. 737. Sedimentation and filtration are performed preceding chlorination to
a. Sediments _________.
b. Colloids a. enhance disinfection effect
c. Flocs b. reduce chlorination time
d. None of the above c. reduce treatment time
d. All of the above
733. The precipitate or settled solids from treatment, coagulation, or
sedimentation of wastewater. 738. The water-carried waste from households or industry.
a. Sludge a. turbid water
b. Colloids b. sewage
c. Sediments c. slurry
d. None of the above d. None of the above

157 158
739. The average time wherein waste is subjected to stabilization process 744. Which of the following is not a greenhouse?
or held in storage. a. Glasshouse
a. Detention time b. Plastic house
b. Retention time c. Screen house
c. Digestion time d. None of the above
d. None of the above
745. Recommended orientation for the installation of greenhouse.
740. The rapid oxidation of solids in a specially-designed combustion a. North to South
chamber. b. West to East
a. Solid burning c. North-West to South East
b. Incineration d. None of the above
c. Thermal activation
d. None of the above 746. Maximum recommended length for greenhouse.
a. 50 meters
741. A type of biogas plant where the digester is separated from the gas b. 100 meters
chamber. c. 150 meters
a. Integrated plant d. None of the above
b. Multi-digester plant
c. Split-type plant 747. Maximum recommended width for gutter connected greenhouse.
d. All of the above a. 50 meters
b. 100 meters
742. Maximum ventilation rate requirement for greenhouse. c. 150 meters
a. 0.10 to 0.75 air change per minute d. None of the above
b. 0.75 to 1.00 air change per minute
c. 1.00 to 1.75 air change per minute 748. C/N ratio requirement of organic materials for proper biogas
digestion.
743. A structure that provide a reliable enclosure within which an a. 1:10 to 1:20
environment favorable to plant growth can be attained. b. 1:20 to 1:30
a. Farm building c. 1:30 to 1:40
b. Warehouse d. None of the above
c. Greenhouse
d. None of the above

159 160
749. One pound per square inch is equal to ________. 753. It is the amount of stress that produce failure by increasing the unit
a. 27.6 inches of water stress until breakage or rupture occurs.
b. 26.7 inches of water a. Ultimate strength
c. 76. 2 inches of water b. Unit stress
d. None of the above c. Shearing stress
d. None of the above
750. A process of gradually supplying moisture and maintaining proper
temperature so as to have favorable conditions for hydration of the 754. It is the internal resistance per unit area that results from external
cement particularly during the early hardening period. force.
a. Re-wetting a. Ultimate strength
b. Tempering b. Unit stress
c. Curing c. Shearing stress
d. None of the above d. None of the above

751. A unit of deformation as a result of change in the form produced by 755. Stresses tending to cause two contiguous parts of a body to slide,
stress. relative to each other in a direction parallel to the plane of contact.
a. Fatigue strength a. Ultimate strength
b. Shear force b. Unit stress
c. Strain c. Shearing stress
d. None of the above d. None of the above

752. An algebraic sum of all the external forces acting parallel to cross- 756. Cutting metal sheet using a tin snip is a good example of material
section of one side of the section tending to cause failure by sliding subject to________ .
movement. a. tensile stress
a. Fatigue strength b. compressive stress
b. Deflection c. shear stress
c. Shear force d. All of the above
d. None of the above
757. Ratio of the ultimate strength to the working stress.
a. Allowable stress
b. Elastic limit
c. Factor of safety
d. None of the above

161 162
ANSWER KEY