Daftar isi:

- Listening (Part A, B)
- Vocabulary (Part A, B)
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(Part A,2021
B, C)soal listening acept, soal vocabulary
acept, soal grammar acept, soal reading
- Reading comprehension,
Comprehension (Textsoal composing
1, 2, 3, 4, 5) skill cara penilaian nilai
atau skor acept penerimaan dan kelulusan mahasiswa pasca sarjana
- Composing Skills (Part A, B, C, D, E) s2 s3 ugm universitas gadjah
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ugm, tes acep ugm, kursus acept 1x lulus pelatihan acept dijamin lulus 085729001945 pelatihan t

PREDIKSI SOAL ACEPT

LISTENING – VOCABULARY – GRAMMAR –
READING – COMPOSING

Part I Listening Comprehension

A. Numbers 1 – 10 test your ability to under-stand short statements in English. Each statement will be spoken just
once. The statements you hear will not be written out for you. Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or
write in your booklet.

1. A. I think Emily and Joe are studying medicine.

B. Isn't Emily a better student than Joe?
C. Emily doesn't know Joe is a medical student.
D. Aren't Emily and Joe both your students?

2. A. The actors could not get any sympathy.

B. The orchestra's conductor was excellent.
C. The conductor got caught in traffic.
D. The doctor is attending a concert.

3. A. Ned was asked to got to the party.

B. Ned incited them to the party.
C. The party was at Ned's house.
D. No one asked Ned to the party.

4. A. I had stored the packages in my house.

B. The packages were delivered to the wrong place.
C. The store sent the packages to my house.
D. I once delivered packages for the store.

5. A. Swimming's my favorite sport.

B. I prefer any sport to swimming.
C. I don't like any sport, least of all swimming.
D. There's one sport I like better than swimming.

6. A. The list of numbers isn't in her book.

B. Put her number in your book.
C. Her number is in the directory.
D. She didn't give us her number.

7. A. You should have reserved a room.

B. That hotel doesn't have very good beds.
 C. Tell us if you want dinner served now.
D. You shouldn't have made two reservations.

8. A. The editors finished their work early.

B. The editors were late in finishing.
C. The editors thanked the workers.
D. The editors showed them around.

9. A. The laundry service was closed last week, wasn't it?

B. The sheets in the laundry basket are clean, aren't they?
C. Hasn't the dormitory run out of clean sheets for next week?
D. Aren't clean sheets provided in the dormitory weekly?

10. A. Since I forgot to look in the mailbox, I missed your note.

B. I don't remember seeing anything when I went to check the mailbox.
C. Your check was the only thing I found in the mailbox.
D. When I went to the mailbox, I found your note.

B. In this part you will hear five short talks. After each talk, two questions will be asked based on the information
given. Answer the questions following the talk, by choosing A, B, C, or D which best answers the questions.
Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test book.

11. A. His travels.

B. His short stories.
C. His finances.
D. His family.

12. A. Florida.
B. California.
C. Nevada.
D. Hannibal.

33. A. Typesetter.
B. River pilot.
C. Soldier.
D. Prospector.

14. A. He wanted to be a journalist.

B. He liked the climate there.
C. He wanted to get away from the army.
D. He was sent there by his father.

15. A. His stories were inspired by his travels.

B. His travels prevented him from writing.
C. He traveled in order to relax from the pressures of writing.
D. He traveled around to publicize his writings.

16. A. An announcement.
B. A theater show.

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 C. A television program.
D. A biology class.

17. A. The reproductive cycle of barnacles.

B. A new source of protein.
C. Types of sea animals.
D. The adhesive quality of barnacles.

18. A. They eat protein.

B. They never move from one location.
C. They cause erosion of rocks.
D. They will never be useful to people.

19. A. The location of certain ocean rocks.

B. The effect of water pollution on barnacles.
C. The medical value of some synthetic products.
D. The composition of the barnacle's glue.

20. A. Nutrition.
B. Ecology.
C. Medicine.
D. Geology.

Part II. Vocabulary

A. For questions 1 – 15, choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, or D which best completes each blank space in the
text.

A coincidence is a surprising thing that happen to us. For example, two friends go
shopping alone on the same day. When they meet up afterwards, they discover
that they've each bought an identical T-shirt. Many people (1) ........ coincidences as
significant or mysterious. But the simple (2) .. ... ... could be that friends tend to have
similar taste in clothes.
In reality, life is (3) ........ of coincidences, but normally we don't notice them. For
example, in almost fifty percent of all football matches, two players share the same
birthday. This seems surprising, (4) ........ that there are 365 possible birthdays in
the year. But most of these matches will be played without anybody being (5) .. ......
that the coincidence exists. (6) ........ your birthday is today or tomorrow, you don't
generally go around telling people when it is. What's more, without realising it, you
probably (7) ........ into contact with lots of people born on the same day as you. But
when a coincidence is (8) ...... .. to your attention. it still seems amazing.

1 A regard B think C consider D believe

2 A explanation B definition C motivation D resolution
3 A heavy B rich C full D crowded
4 A given B except C even D instead
5 A noticed B known C aware D intelligent
6 A Therefore B Whereas C Meanwhile D Unless
7 A make B come C have D go
8 A taken B carried C brought D shown

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The Karakamia reserve is located not far from Perth in Western Australia.
Suburban is not usually a word that you (9) . . . . . . .. with a wildlife paradise,
but Karakamia is actually part of the township of Chidlow. The land was purchased
by the Australian government in 1991 with the (10) ........ of protecting threatened
species of indigenous wildlife. That's why there is a nine-kilometre fence around it,
designed to (11) ........ out species introduced by European settlers, (12) ........ foxes,
cats and rabbits.
The sanctuary (13) ........ its name from the Aboriginal word meaning 'home of the redtailed
black cockatoos', and at dusk the air is (14) .. ...... with the calls of these birds. This
is when the sanctuary is at its most magical. A guided walk by spotlight is the perfect
way to experience it. Many of the animals are quite tame, which means you can
(15) ........ them at close quarters and get an idea of what Australia was like prior
to European colonisation.

9 A refer B accompany c regard D associate

10 A proposal B aim c target D plan
11 A catch B send c keep D hold
12 A including B intending c involving D indicating
13 A bears B finds c gains D takes
14 A crowded B filled c completed D packed
15 A observe B notice c realise D glance

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B. Choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, or D that best collocates (combines) with each of the underlined words or
phrases in the following sentences.

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 Part III. Grammar and Structure

A. Sentence Completion
For questions 1 – 15, choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, or D which best completes each of the following
sentences.

1. ______a bicameral, or two-chamber parliament.

A. Canada has
B. Having Canada
C. Because Canada has
D. That Canada is having

2. ______time and labor, cartoonists generally draw the hands of their characters with only three fingers and a
thumb.
A. Saved
B. Saves
C. To save
D. The saving

3. The recent discovery of a novel by Harriet Wilson, published in 1859, ____a landmark in Black American
literature.
A. has brought to light
B. light to brought has
C. brought to light has
D. has light to brought

4. _________telescopes of the 1600's magnified objects thirty-three times their original size.
A. That the
B. The
C. This is the
D. Being where the

5. Thyme, ______ yields a medicinal oil containing thymol.

A. a fragrant garden herb
B. garden herb which is fragrant
C. fragrant garden herb
D. is an herb in a fragrant garden

6. Until the ninth century, written words were not actually separated, ________in some literary writing, dots or
points were used to indicate divisions.
A. in spite of
B. contrary
C. contrast to
D. but

7. Nutritionists _______goat milk to be rich, nourishing, and readily digested.

A. consider
B. is considered
C. are considered
D. considering

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8. _________conventional black ink costs newspapers about thirty cents a pound, most rub-resistant inks add at
least ten cents more per pound to the bill.
A. Furthermore
B. Meanwhile
C. Moreover
D. While

9. John Lone's physical grace and _____age, sex, and culture make him an extraordinary performer.
A. his ability to transcend
B. is able to transcend the
C. the transcending ability
D. with his ability transcending

10. Before ______of synthetic dyes, yarns were often colored by dyes obtained from natural vegetable and mineral
matter.
A. introducing
B. introduction
C. the introduction
D. introducing that

11. Ducks have been domesticated for many centuries ______commercially for their meat and eggs.
A. raised
B. and are raised
C. raised as
D. are raised

12. Maggie Lena Walker, an insurance and banking executive, ______and spent her entire life in Richmond,
Virginia.
A. and was brought up
B. brought up with
C. who was brought up
D. was brought up

13. The activities of the international marketing researcher are frequently much broader than _______
A. the domestic marketer has
B. the domestic marketer does
C. those of the domestic marketer
D. that which has the domestic marketer

14. Mercury differs from other industrial metals ______it is a liquid.

A. whereas
B. in that
C. because of
D. consequently

15. In black verse _______of ten syllables, five of which are accented.
A. line consists of each
B. consists of each line
C. each line consists
D. it consists of each line

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B. Cloze Test
For questions 16 – 25, choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, or D which best completes each blank space in the
text.

Smoking is a hard habit to break because tobacco contains nicotine, which is highly
addictive. Like heroin and other addictive drugs, the body and mind quickly ___16___
so used to the nicotine in cigarettes that a person needs to have it just to feel normal.
People start ___17___ for a variety of different reasons. Some people think it looks
cool. Others start because ___18___ family members or friends smoke. ___19___ show
that about 9 out of 10 tobacco users start smoking before they turn 18 years old. Most
adults who started smoking ___20___ their teens never expected to become addicted.

16. A. become 20. A. in

B. became B. on
C. becomes C. of
D. becoming D. at

17. A. smoke
B. smokes
C. smoked
D. smoking

18. A. its
B. his
C. her
D. their

19. A. Data
B. Numbers
C. Statistics
D. Information

Nowadays, the reading habit ___21___ in our society. However, this is the only way to
ensure that our children have a good foundation in English.
Parents should ___22___ reading to their children at a young age to instil ___23___
them a love of books. Parents should also show ___24___ good example by at least
reading the papers. If they ___25___ their children to the library at a young age, the
children will get accustomed to the habit of sitting down with a book. Children today
are glued to the television or the computer the whole day. They get addicted to
computer games.

21. A. lack 25. A. take

B. lacks B. keep
C. is lacked C. force
D. is lacking D. deliver

22. A. learn
B. start
C. advise
D. recommend

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23. A. on
B. in
C. for
D. with

24. A. a
B. an
C. the
D. --

C. Error Identification
For questions 26 – 40, choose the word or phrase A, B, C, or D which is wrong.

26. A thorough study of mythology requires familiarity for the properties of properties of plants
A B
and trees, and the habits of wild birds and beasts.
C D

27. Quartz may be transparency, translucent, or opaque, and it may be colorless or colored.
A B C D

28. In an adult human, the skin weighs about seven pounds and covers it about thirty-six square feet.
A B C D

29. A leading Canadian feminist and author, Nellie McClung, struggled relentlessly in the early
A
twentieth century to win politically and legal rights for Canadian women.
B C D

30. Metabolism consists of a complicated series of chemicals reactions carried out by living cells.
A B C D

31. Duke Ellington was the first person to compose extended jazz works and gives regular jazz concerts.
A B C D

32. Seismology has not reached yet the stage where earthquakes can be foretold with a great deal
A B C
of accuracy.
D

33. The design of the University of Virginia came at the end of Thomas Jefferson's long career as
A B C
theoretician, statesman, and architecture.
D

34. At night the desert floor radiates heat back into the atmosphere and the temperature may be
A B C
drop to near freezing.
D

35. Although they are in different countries, Windsor, Ontario and Detroit, Michigan are close
A B
neighbors and cooperate on numerous matters of mutually interest.
C D

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36. First incorporated in 1871, Dallas, Texas, had become the seventh largest cities in the United
A B C D
States by 1976.

37. Will Rogers was widely recognized for his daily newspaper column, in which he humorously
A B C
criticized and commented in the politics of his time.
D

38. The free silver movement, promoting unlimited silver coinage, gained prominent, in the late 1800's.
A B C D

39. The continental divide refers to an imaginary line in the North American Rockies that divides
A
the waters flowing into the Atlantic Ocean from it flowing into the Pacific.
B C D

40. The Petrified Forest of eastern Arizona are made up of tree trunks that were buried in mud,
A B
sand, or volcanic ash ages ago and have turned to stone.
C D

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 Part IV. Reading Comprehension

Choose the best answer to each question based on the information which is stated or implied in the text.

Text 1

Forces other than damaging winds are also at work inside tornadoes. Sometimes, as the writhing,
twisting funnel passes over a house, the walls and ceiling burst apart as if a bomb had gone off inside. This
explosion is caused by the low air pressure at the center of a tornado.
The pressure at the center of a tornado is usually 13 pounds per square inch. However, inside the house
the air pressure is normal, about 15 pounds per square inch. The difference of 2 pounds per square inch
between the inside and outside pressure may not seem like much. But suppose a tornado funnel passes over a
small building that measures 20 by 10 by 10 feet. On each square inch of the building, there is 2 pounds of
pressure from the inside that is not balanced by air pressure outside the building. On the ceiling, that adds up
to an unbalanced pressure of 57, 600 pounds. The pressure on the four walls adds up to 172,800 pounds.
If windows are open in the building, some of the inside air will rush out through them. This will balance
the pressure inside and outside the building. But if the windows are shut tightly, the enormous inside
pressure may cause the building to burst.
Unfortunately, heavy rain and hail often occur in thunderstorms that later produce tornadoes. So
people frequently shut all windows to protect their property. This may cause far worse damage later. For the
same reason, tornado cellars must have an air vent. Otherwise, the cellar door might be blown out when a
tornado passes over it.

1.Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?

A. How tornadoes can be prevented
B. When tornadoes usually occur
C. Where tornadoes are formed
D. Why tornadoes cause so much damage

2.In line 2, the word "funnel" refers to which of the following?

A. A bomb
B. A house
C. A tornado
D. An explosion

3.According to the passage, tornadoes can destroy buildings because the

A. force of a tornado increases the air pressure in a building
B. air pressure at the center of a tornado is over 172,000 pounds
C. weight of a tornado can crush a building's roof when it passes overhead
D. air pressure inside a tornado is less than the air pressure inside a building

4. According to the passage, what is the difference per square inch between the air pressure inside a building
and the air pressure inside a tornado?
A. 2 pounds
B. 10 pounds
C. 13 pounds
D. 15 pounds

5. According to the passage, the pressure on a building during a tornado can be relieved by
A. closing the cellar
B. opening the windows
C. using a fan for ventilation
D. strengthening the roof and walls

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6. According to the passage, people close their windows to prevent damage caused by
A. tornadoes
B. thunderstorms
C. uprooted trees
D. bursting structures

7. In line 17, the word "it" refers to

A. wind
B. hail
C. cellar door
D. air vent

Text 2

Grandma Moses is among the most celebrated twentieth-century painters of the United States, yet she
had barely started painting before she was in her late seventies. As she once said of herself: "I would never sit
back in a rocking chair, waiting for someone to help me.” No one could have had a more productive old
age.
She was born Anna Mary Robertson on a farm in New York State, one of five boys and five girls. ("we
came in bunches, like radishes."). At twelve she left home and was in domestic service until at twenty-seven,
she married Thomas Moses, the hired hand of one of her employers. They farmed most of their lives, first in
Virginia and then in New York State, at Eagle Bridge. She had ten children, of whom five survived; her
husband died in 1927.
Grandma Moses painted a little as a child and made embroidery pictures as a hobby, but only switched
to oils in old age because her hands had become too stiff to sew and she wanted to keep busy and pass the
time. Her pictures were first sold at the local drugstore and at a fair, and were soon spotted by a dealer who
bought everything she painted. Three of the pictures were exhibited in the Museum of Modern Art, and in
1940 she had her first exhibition in New York. Between the 1930' and her death she produced some 2,000
pictures; detailed and lively portrayals of the rural life she had known for so long, with a marvelous sense of
color and form. 'I think real hard till think of something real pretty, and then I paint it.' she said.

8. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
A. Grandma Moses: A Biographical Sketch
B. The Children of Grandma Moses
C. Grandma Moses: Her Best Exhibition
D. Grandma Moses and Other Older Artists

9. According to the passage, Grandma Moses began to paint because she wanted to
A. decorate her home
B. keep active
C. improve her salary
D. gain an international reputation

10. From Grandma Moses' description of herself in the first paragraph, it can be inferred that she was
A. independent
B. pretty
C. wealthy
D. timid

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11.Grandma Moses spent most of her life
A. nursing
B. painting
C. embroidering
D. farming

12. In line 13, the word "spotted" could best be replaced by

A. speckled
B. featured
C. noticed
D. damaged

Text 3

There were two widely divergent influences on the early development of statistical methods. Statistics
had a mother who was dedicated to keeping orderly records of governmental units (state and statistics come
from the same Latin root, status) and a gentlemanly gambling father who relied on mathematics to increase
his skill at playing the odds in games of chance. The influence of the mother on the offspring, statistics, is
represented by counting, measuring, describing, tabulating, ordering, and the taking of censuses-all of which
led to modern descriptive statistics. From the influence of the father came modern inferential statistics,
which is based squarely on theories of probability.
Descriptive statistics involves tabulating, depicting, and describing collections of data. These data may be
either quantitative, such as measures of height, intelligence, or grade level-159 variables that are
characterized by an underlying continuum-or the data may represent qualitative variables, such as sex,
college major, or personality type. Large masses of data must generally undergo a process of summarization
or reduction before they are comprehensible. Descriptive statistics is a tool for describing or summarizing or
reducing to comprehensible form the properties of an otherwise unwieldy mass of data.
Inferential statistics is a formalized body of methods for solving another class of problems that present
great difficulties for the unaided human mind. This general class of problems characteristically involves
attempts to make predictions using a sample of observations. For example a school superintendent wishes to
determine the proportion of children in a large school system who come to scho6l without breakfast have
been vaccinated for flu, or whatever. Having a little knowledge of statistics, the superintendent would know
that it is unnecessary and inefficient to question each child; the proportion for the entire district could be
estimated fairly accurately from a sample of as few as 100 children. Thus, the purpose of inferential statistics
is to predict or estimate characteristics of a population from a knowledge of the characteristics of only a
sample of the population.

13.With what is the passage mainly concerned?

A. The drawbacks of descriptive and inferential statistics
B. Applications of inferential statistics
C. The development and use of statistics
D. How to use descriptive statistics

14.According to the first paragraph, counting and describing are associated with
A. inferential statistics
B. descriptive statistics
C. unknown variables
D. quantative changes

15.Why does the author mention the "mother" and "father" in the first paragraph?
A. To point out that parents can teach their children statistics
B. To introduce inferential statistics

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C. To explain that there are different kinds of variables
D. To present the background of statistics in a humorous and understandable way

16.The word "squarely" in line 8 could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. solidly
B. geometrically
C. rectangularly
D. haphazardly

17. Which of the following is NOT given as an example of a qualitative variable?

A. Gender
B. Height
C. College major
D. Type personality

18. Which of the following statements about descriptive statistics is best supported by the passage?
A. It simplifies unwieldy masses of data.
B. It leads to increased variability
C. It solves all numerical problems.
D. It changes qualitative variables to quantitative variables.

19. According to the passage, what is the purpose of examining a sample of a population?
A. To compare different groups
B. To predict characteristics of the entire population
C. To consider all the quantiative variabes
D. To tabulate collections of data

Text 4

The beaver is North America’s largest rodent. As such, it is a close relative of two creatures that are not
held in particularly high regard by most connoisseurs of wildlife, the porcupine and the rat. Even so, the
beaver has several qualities that endear it to people: it is monogamous and lives in a family unit; it is gentle
and clean; it is absolutely industrious.
The beaver's legendary capacity for hard work has produced some astonishing
results. In British Columbia, for example, one ambitious creature felled a cottonwood tree that was 110
feet tall and more than five feet thick. In New Hampshire, beavers constructed a dam that was three fourths
of a mile long and the body of water it created contained no fewer than 40 lodges In Colorado, beavers were
responsible for the appearance of a canal that was a yard deep and ran for 7511 feet. Each adult beaver in
Massachusetts, according to one researcher’s calculations, cuts down more than a ton of wood every year.
Beavers appear to lead exemplary lives. But the beaver's penchant for building dams, lodges, and canals
has got it into a lot of hot water lately. People who fish in the Midwest and New England are complaining
about beaver dams that spoil streams for trout and, in the Southeast, loggers object whenever the animals
flood out valuable stands of commercial timber. But some beaver experts champion a more charitable view.
Historically, they say, this creature's impact on the environment has been tremendously significant, and its
potential as a practical conservation resource is receiving more and more attention.

20. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Characteristics and habits of the beaver
B. Forest animals as conservation resources
C. Rodents of North America
D. The beavers role in building canals

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21.In the first paragraph, the author implies that the porcupine and the rat are
A. gentle and clean
B. not found in North America
C. disliked by connoisseurs of wildlife
D. monogamous and live in a family unit .

22. According to the passage, a beaver in British Columbia was responsible for
A. cutting down a ton of wood
B. constructing a 750- foot canal
C. building a dam almost a mile long
D. felling a 110- foot cottonwood tree

23. In line 9, to what does the word "it" refer?

A. A dam
B. New Hampshire
C. A cottonwood tree
D. Colorado

24. According to the passage, beavers have been the subject of complaints because they
A. contribute to soil erosion by cutting down so many trees
B. build dams that ruin popular fishing areas
C. attack people who trespass on beaver territory
D. destroy log cabins by gnawing on the wood

25.The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses

A. examples of destructive forest-dwelling rodents
B. favorite trout streams in New England
C. reasons for the beaver's popularity among loggers
D. ways in which the beaver acts as a conservation resource

Text 5

To produce the upheaval in the United States that changed and modernized the domain of higher
education from the mid 1860's to the mid 1880's, three primary causes interacted The emergence of a half
dozen leaders in education provided the personal force that was needed. Moreover, an outcry for a fresher,
more practical, and more advanced kind of instruction arose among the alumni and friends of nearly all of
the old colleges and grew into a movement that overrode all conservative opposition. The aggressive Young
Yale movement appeared, demanding partial alumni control, a more liberal spirit, and a broader course of
study. The graduates of Harvard College simultaneously rallied to relieve the college’s poverty and demand
new enterprise. Education was pushing toward higher standards in the East by throwing off church leadership
everywhere, and in the West by finding a wider range of studies and a new sense of public duty.
The old-style classical education received its most crushing blow in the citadel of Harvard College,
where Dr. Charles Eliot, a young captain of thirty-five, son of a former treasurer of Harvard, led the
progressive forces, Five revolutionary advances were made during the first years of Dr. Eliot's administration.
They were the elevation and amplification of entrance requirements, the enlargement of the curriculum and
the development of the elective system, the recognition of graduate study in the liberal arts, the raising of
professional training in law, medicine, and engineering to a postgraduate level, and the fostering of greater
maturity in student life. Standards of admission were sharply advanced in 1872-1873 and 1876-1877. By the
appointment of a dean to take charge of student affairs, and a wise handling of discipline, the undergraduates
were led to regard themselves more as young gentlemen and less as young animals. One new course of study

15
 after another was opened up-science, music, the history of the fine arts, advanced Spanish, political
economy, physics, classical philology, and international law.

26.Which of the following is the author’s main purpose in the passage?

A. To explain the history of Harvard College
B. To criticize the conditions of United States universities in the nineteenth century
C. To describe innovations in United States higher education in the latter 1800's
D. To compare Harvard with Yale before the turn of the century

27.According to the passage, the changes in higher education during the latter 1800' s were the result of
A. plans developed by conservatives and church leaders.
B. efforts of interested individuals to redefine the educational system
C. the demands of social organizations seeking financial relie
D. rallies held by westerners wanting to compete with eastern schools

28. According to the passage, Harvard College was in need of more

A. students
B. money
C. land
D. clergy

29. According to the passage, which of the following can be inferred about Harvard College before progressive
changes occurred?
A. Admission standards were lower.
B. Students were younger.
C. Classes ended earlier.
D. Courses were more practical.

30. From the passage it can be concluded that which of the following was a characteristic of the
classical course of study?
A. Most students majored in education
B. Students were limited in their choice of courses
C. Students had to pass five levels of study
D. Courses were so difficult that most students failed

Text 6

The ocean bottom – a region nearly 2.5 times greater than the total land area of the Earth – is a vast
frontier that even today is largely unexplored and uncharted. Until about a century ago, the deep – ocean
floor was completely inaccessible, hidden beneath waters averaging over 3,6000 meters deep. Totally
without light and subjected to intense pressures hundreds of times greater than at the Earth's surface, the
deep – ocean bottom is a hostile environment to humans, in some ways as forbidding and remote as the
void of outer space.
Although researchers have taken samples of deep – ocean rocks and sediments for over a century, the
first detailed global investigation of the ocean bottom did not actually start until 1968, with the beginning
of the National Science Foundation's Deep Sea Drilling Project (DSDP). Using techniques first developed for
the offshore oil and gas industry, the DSDP's drill ship, the Glomar Challenger, was able to maintain a steady
position on the ocean's surface and drill in very deep waters, extracting samples of sediments and rock from
the ocean floor.
The Glomar Challenger completed 96 voyages in a 15 – year research program that ended in November
1983. During this time, the vessel logged 600,000 kilometers and took almost 20,000 core samples of

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 seabed sediments and rocks at 624 drilling sites around the world. The Glomar Challenger's core samples
have allowed geologists to reconstruct what the planet looked like hundreds of millions of years ago and to
calculate what it will probably look like millions of years in the future. Today, largely on the strength of
evidence gathered during the Glomar Challenger's voyages, nearly all earth scientists agree on the theories of
plate tectonics and continental drift that explain many of the geological processes that shape the Earth.
The cores of sediment drilled by the Glomar Challenger have also yielded information critical to
understanding the world's past climates. Deep – ocean sediments provide a climatic record stretching back
hundreds of millions of years, because they are largely isolated from the mechanical erosion and the intense
chemical and biological activity that rapidly destroy much land – based evidence of past climates. This record
has already provided insights into the patterns and causes of past climatic change – information that may be
used to predict future climates.

31. The author refers to the ocean bottom as a "frontier" in line 2 because it
A. is not a popular area for scientific research
B. contains a wide variety of life forms
C. attracts courageous explorers
D. is an unknown territory

32. The word "inaccessible" in line 3 is closest in meaning to

A. unrecognizable
B. unreachable
C. unusable
D. unsafe

33. The author mentions outer space in line 7 because

A. the Earth's climate millions of years ago was similar to conditions in outer space
B. it is similar to the ocean floor in being alien to the human environment
C. rock formations in outer space are similar to those found on the ocean floor
D. techniques used by scientists to explore outer space were similar to those used in ocean exploration

34. Which of the following is true of the Glomar Challenger?

A. It is a type of submarine.
B. It is an ongoing project.
C. It has gone on over 100 voyages.
D. It made its first DSDP voyage in 1968.

35. The word "extracting" in line 13 is closest in meaning to

A. breaking
B. locating
C. removing
D. analyzing

36. The Deep Sea Drilling Project was significant because it was
A. an attempt to find new sources of oil and gas
B. the first extensive exploration of the ocean bottom
C. composed of geologists from all over the world
D. funded entirely by the gas and oil industry

37. The word "strength" in line 21 is closest in meaning to

A. basis
B. purpose
C. discovery
D. endurance

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38. The word "they" in line 26 refers to
A. years
B. climates
C. sediments
D. cores

39. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as being a result of the Deep Sea Drilling Project?
A. Geologists were able to determine the Earth's appearance hundreds of millions of years ago.
B. Two geological theories became more widely accepted by scientists.
C. Information was revealed about the Earth's past climatic changes.
D. Geologists observed forms of marine life never before seen.

40. The word “predict” in the last line can be replaced by ……

A. foresee
B. anticipate
C. warn
D. avoid

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 Part V Composing Skills

In this section of the test, you are required to demonstrate your ability to paraphrase sentences and to recognize
language that is not appropriate for standard written English. There are five parts to this section, with special
direction for each part.

A. Numbers 1 – 10 contain complete and correct sentences. For each number, you are required to choose the most
appropriate paraphrased sentence closest in meaning to the original one.

1. She didn't eat anything but small pieces of bread and butter.
A. She ate small pieces of bread and butter but didn't like them.
B. She only ate some small pieces of bread and butter.
C. She didn't eat anything, not even the bread and butter.
D. She didn't touch the bread and butter, but she ate other things.

2. I can't stand his talking foolishly when everybody talks about something in a serious way.
A. I can't understand him when he talks foolishly.
B. Everybody talks seriously when he talks foolishly.
C. I hate him talking foolishly when people talk seriously.
D. Everybody hates him talking foolishly.

3. Please arrive early because we want to be able to start out meeting early.
A. Please arrive early so that we can start our meeting early.
B. Please arrive early so that we are able to start our meeting early.
C. Please arrive early so that we would be able to start our meeting early.
D. Please arrive early for us to be able to start our meeting early.

4. There was no need for you to have left the house in such weather.
A. You needn’t leave the house in such weather.
B. You needn’t have left the house in such weather.
C. You didn’t have to leave the house in such weather.
D. You didn’t need to leave the house in such weather.

5. The concert went like a bomb.

A. The concert was a disaster.
B. There was a bomb in the concert.
C. The concert was very violent.
D. The concert was extremely successful.

6. My cousin is extremely tight-fisted.

A. He is very strong.
B. He doesn’t want to spend his money.
C. He is very thin.
D. He likes wearing tight clothes.

7. Could you help me to post these letters for me?

A. Would you be kind to post these letters for me?
B. Would you be so kind as to post these letters for me?
C. Do you mind to post these letters for me?
D. Would you mind posting me these letters?

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 8. My mother never allows me to go out alone at night.
A. I was not allowed to go out at night with my friends.
B. My mother never goes out with me at night.
C. My mother never lets me go out alone at night.
D. According to my mother, going out alone at night is what I should do.

9. Nancy isn't used to walking so far.

A. Nancy isn't accustomed to walking so far.
B. Nancy doesn’t like walking so far.
C. Nancy used to walk further.
D. Nancy often walks such a long way.

10. Although Chris was the stronger of the two, his opponent soon overpowered him.
A. Despite his superior strength, Chris was soon overpowered by his opponent.
B. Chis was not as strong as his opponent but he soon overpowered the other.
C. Chris lost because he had no power.
D. Because Chris was strong, he soon overpowered his opponent.

B. Numbers 11 – 20 contain incorrect sentences. The incorrect part of the sentence has been identified for you. You are
required to find the correct option to replace the underlined part.

11. Susie was running so late that barely did she have the time to eat lunch before going to the meeting.
A. that barely did she have the time to eat lunch before
B. that she barely had enough time to eat lunch before
C. she barely had enough time to eat lunch and then
D. she had barely time enough eating lunch before

12. The reporter knew that the actress was very busy, but he wanted to know if he could ask her a few questions.
A. wanted to know if he could ask
B. would like to know if it’s ok asking
C. requested if he can ask
D. requested to know if he could maybe ask

13. The chef’s soufflé was much so a mess he had to throw it away and start over.
A. was so much a mess he had to throw it away
B. was so a mess that he threw it away
C. was such a mess that he had to throw it away
D. was so much messy that he needed to begin again

14. Jessie is looking for you and wants to know if you will like to go to her birthday party next weekend.
A. wants to know if you will like to go
B. would like knowing if you can go
C. is wanting to know if you like going
D. wants to know if you would like to go

15. Bigfoot, also knowing as Sasquatch, is supposedly an ape-like creature that inhabits forests, mainly in the forests of
the Pacific Northwest of North America.
A. also knowing as Sasquatch
B. being known too as Sasquatch
C. Sasquatch which it too is known as
D. that is also is known as

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16. The citizen didn’t have no hesitation about apprehending the thief that stole the old lady’s purse.
A. The citizen didn’t have no hesitation about
B. There was no hesitation of the citizen for
C. No hesitation was of the citizen about
D. The citizen didn’t hesitate when

17. Just before the test began, Alexander asked his classmate if he might be borrowing an extra sheet of paper.
A. if he might be borrowing an extra sheet of paper
B. if he would be borrowing an extra sheet of paper
C. if he might be able to borrow an extra sheet of paper
D. if an extra sheet of paper might be borrowed

18. My brother was fired from his job at the aerospace company because he don’t pass the random drug test.
A. he don’t pass the random drug test
B. the random drug test wasn’t passed by him
C. he wasn’t passing the random drug test
D. he didn’t pass the random drug test

19. Gary’s brother told him that he would attend the graduation ceremony if it would be possible.
A. would attend the graduation ceremony if it would be possible
B. will attend the graduation ceremony if it is possible
C. might be able to attend the graduation ceremony if it could be a possibility
D. should be able to attend the graduation ceremony if it might be a possibility

20. Due to the generous invitation by the host, Jeremy, along with five of his best friends, is attending the grand
opening of the new night club.
A. Jeremy, along with five of his best friends, is attending
B. Jeremy and five of his best friends is attending
C. Jeremy himself, along with five of his best friends, is attending
D. Jeremy, along with a group of his best friends, are attending

C. Numbers 21 – 30, Choose the most appropriate and correct sentence.

21. A. Never show me your friend and I’ll tell you who you are.
B. I’ll show you my friend, if you tell me who you are.
C. You always show me your friend and I’ll tell who you are.
D. I show you my friend and you tell me who you are.

22. A. Try to have a diary and apply it.

B. Try to have a daily plan and to apply it.
C. Work and have a daily plan and apply it.
D. Try to have a daily plan and apply it.

21
23. A. How wonderfully Helen is dances!
B. What wonderfully Helen dances!
C. How wonderfully Helen dances!
D. What wonderfully Helen is dancing!

24. A. It was impossible for him to live lonely.

B. It was impossible to live alone for him.
C. It was impossible for him to live alone.
D. It was impossible for him living alone.

25. A. There were a lot of students in the room.

B. There was a lot of students in the room.
C. There were a lot of student in the room.
D. There are a lot of students in the room.

26. A. The murderer had been punished by death.

B. The murderer was been punished by death.
C. The murderer was punish by death.
D. The murderer has been punished by death.

27. A. The first modern Olympic games held in Greece in 1896.

B. The modern Olympic games had first been held in Greece in 1896.
C. In 1896 Greece held the first modern Olympic games.
D. The modern Olympic games were first held in Greece in 1896.

28. A. Why didn’t you tell anybody anything about it?

B. Why didn’t you tell anybody nothing about it?
C. Why you didn’t tell anybody anything about it?
D. Didn’t you tell somebody anything about it?

29. A. This is so easy as though a child can understand it.

B. It is such easy that a child culd understand it.
C. It is so easy that even a child can understand it.
D. That is such easy which a child can understand it.

30. A. What are you seeing in this picture?

B. What do you see in this picture?
C. What you see in this picture?
D. Do you see this picture?

22
D. Numbers 31 – 36 contain jumbled sentences. One of the sentences has been underlined. You are required to
choose the next sentence which logically follows the underlined one.

31. (1). Karl Marx is arguably the most of the most famous political philosopher of all time, but he was also one of the
great foreign correspondents of the 10-century.
(2). Welfare has a special political meaning to the United States it refers to how the poor receives financial aid.
(3). Historically, the low level of political autonomy of the cities in China is partly a result of the early development
of the state bureaucracy, The bureaucrats played a major role in the growth of urbanization, but were also able
to control its subsequent development and they never completely gave up this control.
(4). In this landmark account, first published over twenty years ago, the author argues that the ignorance and
lethargy of the poor are the direct result of the whole situation of economic, social and political domination,
by being kept in a situation in which critical awareness and response are practically impossible the
disadvantaged are kept ‘submerged’.
(5). In comparison, welfare services are regarded as a universal right in other regions like Europe, Where it is
believed that all citizens should be able to obtain a minimal level of social support and well-being.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

32. (1). They must establish a meaningful corporate culture that encourages a sense of entrepreneurship.
(2). Employees need to follow a meaningful set of guidelines designed to minimize risks while encouraging
creativity.
(3). They have to find ways of encouraging mass experiments while limiting possible threats to the company's
existence
(4). They need to make sure the workers they hire have the skills necessary to drive the company forward.
(5). If all goes well, natural leaders will 'emerge' to move the organization forward.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

33. (1). More organisations today seek a transformation in their businesses, yet most of them think of and talk about
managing change
(2). Most of us live in the domain of change both as individuals and as organisations
(3). The characteristics of transformation are positive and actually creative.
(4). The implications of this conflict will not be fully appreciated until we learn to distinguish between change
and transformation
(5). Clearly, we all aspire to live in the domain of transformation even if we presently are in the domain of change.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

23
34. (1). In my view, a priority sector should be an area of market failure
(2). Priority sectors include agriculture, small scale industries, housing, exports, etc
(3). Economics say that a market has failed when the market does not provide efficient outcomes for society
(4). The government of India directs substantial bank credit to what it deems are 'priority sectors' for the Indian
economy
(5). It is not clear how sectors get identified for the priority tag, as there is no clearly articulated logic

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

35. (1). Since Independence the policy of the government of India towards private foreign investment and collaboration
has moved from cautious encouragement through a brief spell of near 'open door' in the fifties, a long phase of
rigorous selectivity from 1968 to 1991 onto current post-1991 policy of open encouragement of direct
investment.
(2). Based on the exposure of a series of misdeeds perpetrated on some third countries by some of the
multinational like International Telephone and Telegraph corp. (ITT), United Fruit, Union Miniere and
Lockheed, criticism welled up against the MNCs in the Indian parliament and outside.
(3). On the other hand, there was also a realisation that all foreign enterprises operating in India should not be
tarred with the same brush and that there were some amongst them who were performing a useful role in the
economy by their import-substitution or export-oriented operation, or by making valuable contribution to
the technological skill and capability of our country.
(4). During the seventies and eighties, official view has been inevitably influenced by the controversy the world
over on the role of multinational corporations in relation to third world countries
(5). While the overwhelming thrust has all along been towards the goal of a self-sufficient economy and of freeing
national economic and industrial policy from the dictates and manipulates of foreign capital, the compulsions
of an economy of scarcity and chronic foreign exchange deficiency also had an effect in shaping official policy
towards foreign investment and foreign collaboration.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

36. (1). Of course, sitting out in the country I possessed less information than anyone else at headquarters about was
going on, but they called me anyway
(2). But as soon I arrived at my country house, the telephone began ringing
(3). And it kept right on ringing with questions from people back at the office about the most mundane matters
(4). In the summer of 1992, the first year I became president of XYZ
(5). I decided to take a two-week vacation.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

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E. Numbers 37 – 40 contain jumbled sentences. You are required to identify the correct order to form a good
paragraph.

37. A. Using observations gathered by NASA’s Kepler Mission, the team found five planets orbiting a Sun-like star
called Kepler-62.
B. These new super-Earths have radii of 1.3, 1.4, 1.6, and 1.9 times that of Earth.
C. A team of scientists has discovered two Earth-like planets in the habitable orbit of a Sun-like star.
D. In addition, one of the five was roughly Mars-sized planet, half the size of Earth.
E. Four of these planets are so-called super-Earths, larger than our own planet, but smaller than even the smallest
ice giant planet in our Solar System.

A. 2-3-5-4-1
B. 2-4-5-1-3
C. 4-3-5-1-2
D. 4-1-5-3-2

38. A. International Date Line, imaginary line on the earth's surface, generally following the 180° meridian of
longitude, where, by international agreement, travellers change dates.
B. The same problem would arise if two travellers journeyed in opposite directions to a point on the opposite side
of the earth, 180° of longitude distant.
C. The apparent paradox is resolved by requiring that the traveller crossing the date line change his date, thus
bringing the travellers into agreement when they meet.
D. The date line is necessary to avoid a confusion that would otherwise result.
E. For example, if an airplane were to travel westward with the sun, 24 hr would elapse as it circled the globe, but
it would still be the same day for those in the airplane while it would be one day later for those on the ground
below them.

A. 2-3-5-4-1
B. 2-4-5-1-3
C. 5-3-4-1-2
D. 5-1-3-4-2

39. A. Over the past year, a series of privacy gaffes and government attempts to gain access to the internet user's
online histories have, along with consolidation among online search and advertising groups, thrust the issue of
internet privacy into the spotlight.
B. This presents a challenge to internet search companies, which have built a multibillion dollar industry out of
targeted advertising based on the information users reveal about them online.
C. In the lobby of an internet search engine company's headquarters in California, computer screens displays lists
of words being entered into the company's search engine.
D. Although it’s says that the system is designed to filter out any scandalous or potentially compromising queries,
the fact that even a fraction of searcher can be seen by visitors to the world's biggest search company is likely to
come as a shock to internet users who think of web browsing as a private affair.
E. People generally believe that using a search engine is the equivalent of talking to a priest or a rabbi, “says
Larry Ponemon, head of the Ponemon Institute, a privacy think-tank. “The public in general doesn’t seem to
fully understand how their privacy may be at risk.

A. 5-3-5-2-1
B. 5-4-1-3-2

25
 C. 4-3-5-1-2
D. 4-1-5-3-2

40. A. “This way, I will have access to the best scientists in the world without having to produce them myself,” says Mr
Maria.
B. Innovation in India is as much due to entrepreneurialism as it is to IT skills, says Arun Maria, chairman of
Boston Consulting Group in India.
C. Indian businessmen have used IT to create new business models that enable them to provide services in a more
cost-effective way.
D. He suggests the country’s computer services industry can simply outsource research to foreign universities if
the capability is not available locally.
E. This is not something that necessarily requires expensive technical research.

A. 2-3-5-4-1
B. 2-4-5-1-3
C. 4-3-5-1-2
D. 4-1-5-3-2

26