Chemistry Reviewer 1.0 (1-197)

1. Which of the following is NOT an indicator of water quality?
A. turbidity
B. biological oxygen demand
C. chemical oxygen demand
D. pH
E. None of the above
2. Positive Tollen's test
A. ketones
B. aldehydes
C. alcohol
D. alkene
3. Which of the following concepts is not related to this set? Extra point: Explain why.
A. pH = 3
B. pH = 9
C. [H3 O+] = 3.16 x 10-3
D. pOH = 11.5
E. All are related.
4. Water content
A. Winkler method
B. Benedict’s test
C. Tollens’ test
D. Karl Fischer titration
5. Dissolved oxygen
A. Winkler method
B. Benedict’s test
C. Tollens’ test
D. Karl Fischer titration
6. Which of the following is not related to this set? Extra point: Explain why.
A. 20°C
B. 68°F
C. 293.15 K
D. 25°C
E. All are related.
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A. bronze
B. brass
C. iron
D. nichrome
E. All are related.
8. chromate ion
A. Mohr
B. Volhard
C. Fajans
D. Karl Fischer
9. Ferric ion
A. Mohr
B. Volhard
C. Fajans
D. Karl Fischer
10. fluorescein
A. Mohr
B. Volhard
C. Fajans
D. Karl Fischer
11. Sulfuric acid is _______.
A. flammable
B. combustible
C. corrosive
D. explosive
E. All of the above
12. A sample was found to have a pOH = 3.57. Which of the following is the pH the sample?
A. 3.47
B. 7.00
C. 10.43
D. 10.57

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13. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate method to test the presence of reducing sugars
in a sample?
A. Tollen's test
B. Flame test
C. Benedict's test
D. Sakaguchi test
14. Which of the following is/are the product/s of the complete combustion of octane?
A. water
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon
D. methane
E. All of the above
15. In the laboratory, carbon dioxide is mostly prepared by _______.
A. reacting an acid with a base

B. reacting an acid with a carbonate
C. reacting a base with a carbonate
D. electrolysis of water
E. B and D
16. constant volume
A. isochoric
B. isobaric
C. adiabatic
D. isothermal
A. nitric acid
B. hydrochloric acid
C. sulfuric acid
D. nitrous acid
E. All are related.

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18. visible region
A. Pfund
B. Balmer
C. Lyman
D. Paschen
19. Ultraviolet
A. Pfund
B. Balmer
C. Lyman
D. Paschen
20. infrared
A. Pfund
B. Balmer
C. Lyman
D. Paschen
A. water
B. sodium hydroxide
C. ammonia
D. sodium bicarbonate
E. All are related.
22. allowed principal quantum number
A. 1/2
B. 0
C. 1
D. -1
23. allowed spin quantum number
A. -1
B. 0
C. 1/2
D. 1

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A. graduated cylinder
B. beaker
C. pipette
D. volumetric flask
E. All are related.
25. a DNA base pair
A. alanine
B. adenine
C. arginine
D. aspartic acid
A. trigonal planar
B. square planar
C. octahedral
D. square pyramidal
E. All are related.
27. strongest bond
A. ionic
B. covalent
C. hydrogen
D. triple bond
A. electron capture
B. gamma decay
C. alpha decay
D. positron emission
E. All are related.
29. non-aliphatic compound
A. benzene
B. nonane
C. pentyne
D. methane

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A. density
B. boiling point
C. refractive index
D. volume
E. All are related.
31. s-block
A. thorium
B. copper
C. uranium
D. radium
32. most electronegative
A. calcium
B. titanium
C. cesium
D. iron
33. Which of the following concepts is not related to this set?
A. meter
B. candela
C. kilogram
D. gram
E. All are related.
A. adenine
B. guanine
C. cytosine
D. glycine
E. All are related.
A. Tollens
B. Volhard
C. Fajans
D. Mohr
E. All are related.
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36. Not a product of incomplete combustion of hydrocarbons
A. carbon dioxide
B. water
C. carbon monoxide
D. carbon
37. A product of complete combustion of hydrocarbons
A. carbon dioxide
B. hydrogen
C. carbon monoxide
D. carbon
A. fusion
B. vaporization
C. sublimation
D. condensation
A. deposition
B. freezing
C. condensation
D. fusion
A. Boiling
B. Burning
C. Freezing
D. Cutting
41. Oxygen is produced from water
A. neutralization
B. electrolysis
C. hydrolysis
D. combustion

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42. salt and water are produced
A. neutralization
B. electrolysis
C. hydrolysis
D. combustion
43. oxygen and ozone
A. allotrope
B. isomer
C. isotope
D. isotone
44. ethyl methyl ether and propan-1-ol
A. allotrope
B. isomer
C. isotope
D. isotone
45. same number of protons, Bonus: Can the answer be C. isobar?
A. isotope
B. isotone
C. isobar
D. All of the above.
46. same number of neutrons, Bonus: Can the answer be C. isobar?
A. isotope
B. isotone
C. isobar
47. same mass number, Bonus: Can the answer be A. isotope or B. isotone?
A. isotope
B. isotone
C. isobar

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A. 32 °F
B. 0 K
C. 1 bar
D. 100 kPa
E. All are related.
A. increase the concentration of one of the products

B. decrease the concentration of one of the reactants
C. increase the temperature of an endothermic reaction
D. increase the temperature of an exothermic reaction
50. Consider 2A + X ⇔ J + D (exothermic)

Which of the following is not related to this set? Extra point: Explain why.
A. increase the pressure of the system

B. decrease the pressure of the system
C. increase the volume of the container
D. increase the temperature
A. malleable
B. ductile
C. high electronegativity
D. low electronegativity
A. intrinsic semiconductor

B. extrinsic semiconductor
C. N-type
D. P-type
53. Consider silicon doping

A. N-type
B. P-type
C. boron
D. gallium

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54. Consider germanium doping

A. N-type
B. P-type
C. arsenic
D. phosphorus
A. tetraaquadichlorochromium(III) ion
B. cuprate(II)tetrachloro ion
C. tetrahydroxochromate(III) ion
D. amminesulfatochromium(II)
A. ionization energy
B. electronegativity
C. atomic radius
D. nonmetallic character
E. All are related.
A. -1.86 °C/m
B. 1.86 °C/m
C. -0.5121 °C/m
D. 0.5121 °C/M
58. Presence of arsenic
A. Karl Fischer titration

B. Marsh test
C. Kjeldahl method
D. Benedic’s Test
59. Presence of nitrogen
A. Karl Fischer titration

B. Marsh test
C. Kjeldahl method
D. Benedict’s Test

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60. coagulated colloid returns to its original dispersed state
A. coprecipitation
B. peptization
C. particle growth
D. nucleation
61. strontium ion from strontium sulfate replaces barium in barium sulfate
A. coprecipitation
B. mixed crystal formation
C. particle growth
D. nucleation
62. crystals growing together trap a portion of the solution in a tiny pocket
A. coprecipitation
B. mechanical entrapment
C. particle growth
D. nucleation
63. foreign ions in the counter-ion layer are trapped during precipitate formation
A. coprecipitation
B. occlusion
C. particle growth
D. nucleation
64. Magnetic state of an atom with one or more unpaired electrons
A. right hand rule

B. electromagnetism
C. paramagnetism
D. diamagnetism
65. magnetic state of an atom with paired electrons
A. right hand rule

B. electromagnetism
C. paramagnetism
D. diamagnetism

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66. Compounds or atoms that are attracted to magnetic fields
A. paramagnetic
B. diamagnetic
C. electromagnetic
D. magnetic
67. Compounds or atoms that are not attracted to magnetic fields
A. paramagnetic
B. diamagnetic
C. electromagnetic
D. magnetic
67. Compounds or atoms that can retain their magnetic properties after removing the magnetic field
A. paramagnetic
B. ferromagnetic
C. diamagnetic
D. semiconductors
68. Compounds or atoms than can only exhibit magnetic properties in the presence of a magnetic
field
A. paramagnetic
B. ferromagnetic
C. diamagnetic
D. semiconductors
69. The molecule that contains both ionic and covalent bond
A. sodium bicarbonate
B. lithium chloride
C. ethanol
D. ammonium bromide
70. valence electrons of nitrogen
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

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71. Chloro groups of trans-1,4-dichlorocyclohexane occupy what positions for the greatest stability
A. equatorial, equatorial
B. axial, axial
C. axial, equatorial
D. equatorial, axial
72. bromo groups of trans-1,4-dibromocyclohexane occupy what positions for the least stability
B. axial, axial
73. bromo groups of trans-1,4-dibromocyclohexane occupy what positions for the greatest energy
B. axial, axial
A. carbonyl
B. carbanion
C. carbyne
D. carbene
E. All are related.
75. Not a stereoselective reagent
A. Br2
B. osmium tetroxide
C. H2
D. hydrochloric acid
A. meso compounds
B. enantiomers
C. constitutional isomers
D. isotopes
E. All are related.

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76. Polar aprotic solvent
A. DMSO
B. water
C. formic acid
D. ethanol
77. Polar protic solvent
A. DMSO
B. ethanol
C. acetone
D. THF
78. Pancreas releases this when blood glucose is abnormally high
A. insulin
B. epinephrine
C. testosterone
D. cortisol
79. Pancreas releases this when blood glucose is abnormally low
A. glucagon
B. epinephrine
C. estrogen
D. cortisol
80. _________ stimulates the synthesis of fatty acids and triacylglycerols in the liver
A. elevated insulin level in the blood

B. decreased insulin level in the blood
C. elevated cortisol level in the blood
D. decreased cortisol level in the blood
81. Largest energy stores of a well-nourished human can be found in
A. adipose tissues
B. liver tissues
C. muscle tissues
D. blood

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82. Most of the oxygen a human being breathes is converted into
A. water
B. acetyl-CoA
C. carbon dioxide
D. insulin
83. The synthesis of urea for mammals primarily takes place in the
A. kidney
B. liver
C. large intestine
D. pancreas
84. Which of the following is an unsaturated compound?
A. hexane
B. pentanol
C. octene
D. 1-Chloropentane
85. Which of the following is a saturated compound?
A. ethene
B. 2-Bromooctane
C. benzene
D. 1-Pentyne
86. Which of the following pair is not part of a homologous series?
A. methanoic acid and butanoic acid

B. ethane and ethene
C. propane and octane
D. 1-Octyne and 1-Pentyne
87. A triple bond consists of
A. 3 sigma bonds
B. 3 pi bonds
C. 1 sigma and 2 pi bonds
D. 2 sigma and 1 pi bonds

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88. Which of the following is not true about nucleophiles?
A. high electron density

B. unshared pair of electrons
C. electron acceptors
D. All of the above
89. Which of the following is true about electrophiles?
A. electron deficient sites

B. electron donors
C. high electron density
D. All of the above
90. Which of the following is not true if the bonds in the products are stronger than the bonds in the
reactants of a chemical reaction?
A. energy is released
B. ΔH is negative
C. the reaction is exothermic
D. the reaction is endothermic
91. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. the strongest acids have the weakest conjugate bases

B. the stronger an acid, the larger its ionization constant, Ka
C. the stronger an acid, the larger its pKa value
D. the strongest bases have the the weakest conjugate acids
92. The separation of a racemic mixture into its individual enantiomers
A. racemization
B. resolution
C. mutarotation
D. specific rotation
93. Peptide bonds are also
A. amide bonds
B. amine bonds
C. sulfur bonds
D. azo bond

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94. Titration error is
A. the difference between the end point and the equivalence point
B. the difference between the amount of titrant consumed and the volume of the sample solution
during the titration
C. the difference between the amount of titrant consumed and the volume of indicator used during
the titration
D. All of the above
95. Kjeldahl analysis is used to determine _______ in protein, milk, cereal, and flour.
A. arsenic
B. mercury
D. nitrogen
E. sulfur
96. What is the formal charge of oxygen in the hydronium ion?
A. -2
B. -1
C. 0
D. 1
97. Qualitative analysis reveals the ___________ of the species in the sample while quantitative
analysis deals with the relative _________ of the species in the sample.
A. identity, amount
B. aggregate, character
C. amount, aggregate
D. character, identity
98. Which of the following are the components of the sample being determined by an analytical
chemist?
A. interferent
B. assay
C. analyte
D.aliquot
99. Mary, a Chemist 1 for a research laboratory was informed by her supervisor that her experiment
results do not conform with their standards and was requested to recheck it. Fortunately, Lisa wrote
down detailed notes of her experiments. Examining her journal, which of the following entries is the
probable cause of her error?

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A. I read the volume of the titrant remaining in the burette at eye level of the meniscus. The volume
is 22mL.
B. I diluted 10mL of 11.65M hydrochloric acid by adding it to 20mL of water to produce 30mL of
5.83M hydrochloric acid.
C. I filtered the precipitate and placed it in a 250.0mL beaker. I then weighed the beaker containing
the precipitate in an analytical balance. The mass of the precipitate is 61.2g.
D. I prepared 1M sodium hydroxide solution by weighing 39.99g of sodium hydroxide and dissolving
it in 1L of water.
100. A blank contain/s the
A. solvent
B. solvent and the analyte
C. analyte
D. None of the above
101. Semimicro analysis is performed on samples with masses ranging
A. >0.1g
B. 0.01 to 0.01g
C. 0.0001 to 0.01g
D. <10^-4g
102. Joshua, a laboratory analyst for a mining company determined that copper is 0.51% of the ore
that he is analyzing. Based on these results, copper in that ore is a/n _________.
A. major constituent
B. minor constituent
C. trace constituent
D. ultratrace constituent
103. Mary Grace has a 1000mg pollen sample. She can perform a/n ________.
A. macro analysis
B. semimicro analysis
C. microanalysis
D. ultratrace analysis
104. Amphiprotic species
A. has both acidic and basic properties

B. has both a positive and negative charge
C. is a buffer solution

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105. All of the following are characteristics of an ideal precipitating reagent EXCEPT
A. easily filtered and washed free of contaminants

B. of sufficiently low solubility that no significant loss of the analyte occurs during filtration and
washing
C. reactive with constituents of the atmosphere
D. of known chemical composition after it is dried
106. Substance is held on the surface of the solid
A. adsorption
B. absorption
C. nucleation
D. None of the above.
107. A reducing agent is a/n
A. electron donor
B. electron acceptor
C. proton donor
108. In a galvanic cell, oxidation occurs at the _______.
A. cathode
B. anode
C. salt bridge
D. Both A and B.
109. In an electrolytic cell, reduction occurs at the ______.
A. cathode
B. anode
C. salt bridge
D. Both A and B.
110. A car battery is an example of all of the following EXCEPT for _______.
A. galvanic cell
B. electrolytic cell
C. electrochemical cell
D. voltaic cell

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111. A reference electrode in potentiometry has
A. known and constant electrode potential

B. unknown and constant electrode potential
C. varying electrode potential depending on the analyte
112. A calomel reference electrode is composed of
A. mercury in contact with a solution that is saturated with mercury(I) chloride

B. platinum metal
C. any metal immersed in hydrogen gas
D. silver metal
113. An electrode of the first kind is
A. an indicator metal electrode that responds to both its own cations and anions
B. a pure metal electrode in direct equilibrium with its cation in the solution
C. an inert metal electrode such as platinum, gold, and carbon used to monitor redox reactions
114. In voltammetry, this is the current plateau that is observed at the top of the voltammetric wave.
A. half-wave potential
B. limiting current
C. linear scan
D. differential pulse
115. In voltammetry, this is the process in which dissolved gases are swept out of a solvent by
bubbling an inert gas.
A. reabsorption
B. sparging
C. streaming
116. In polarography, this is the small current observed in the absence of an electroactive species.
A. limiting current
B. half current
C. residual current
D. diffusion current

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117. In polarography, this is the limiting current observed in polarography when the current is limited
only by the rate of diffusion to the dropping mercury electrode surface.
A. faradaic current
B. half current
C. residual current
D. diffusion current
117. In an electrochemical cell, this is the current that results from an oxidation/reduction process.
A. nonfaradaic current
B. faradaic current
C. residual current
D. limiting current
118. A stripping method in which the analyte is electrolyzed into a small volume of mercury by
oxidation and then stripped by reduction.
A. anodic stripping method

B. cathodic stripping method
C. Both A and B
119. In an electromagnetic wave, this is the number of oscillations that occur in one second.
A. period
B. amplitude
C. frequency
D. wavelength
120. Which of the following is the chemical systems that exchange energy but not matter?
A. isolated system
B. closed system
C. open system
121. This states that molar volumes of different gases at the same temperature and pressure have
the same values.
A. Boyle’s Law
B. Charles’ Law
C. Gay Lussac’s Law
D. Avogadro’s Law

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122. This states that at constant pressure and constant amount of substance, the volume
of a system is proportional to its absolute temperature.
A. Boyle’s Law
B. Charles’ Law
C. Gay Lussac’s Law
D. Avogadro’s Law
123. When two systems are in thermal equilibrium, no heat flows from one system to the other
during their thermal contact, then both systems have the same temperature.
A. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics

B. First Law of Thermodynamics
C. Second Law of Thermodynamics
D. Third Law of Thermodynamics
124. A closed chemical system was supplied with 2000 J of heat while performing 800 J of work.
Which of the following is the total change in internal energy of the system (ΔU)?
Formula: ΔU = q + w
where
ΔU is the total change in internal energy of the system

q is the heat exchanged between the system and its surroundings
w is the work done by or on the system.
A. -1.2 kJ
B. +1.2 kJ
C. +2.8 kJ
D. -2.8 kJ

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125. A closed chemical system released 1 kJ of heat while 0.5 kJ of work was done onto the system.
Which of the following is the total change in internal energy of the system (ΔU)?
Formula: ΔU = q + w
where
ΔU is the total change in internal energy of the system

q is the heat exchanged between the system and its surroundings
w is the work done by or on the system.
A. -0.5 kJ
B. +0.5 kJ
C. +1.5 kJ
D. -1.5 kJ
126. The entropy of a pure substance in its most stable crystalline form is equivalent to zero in what
temperature?
A. 0 °C
B. -459.67 °F
C. +273.15 K
D. 0 °F
127. A system containing 10 moles of an ideal gas was heated from temperature T1 = 150 K to
temperature T2 = 200 K. The internal energy of the gas increased by ΔU = 400 J. Which of the
following is the change in enthalpy (ΔH) of the system?
Formula: ΔH = ΔU + Δ(pV)
where
ΔH is the change in enthalpy of the system

ΔU = change in internal energy of the system
Δ(pV) = p2V2 - p1V1. For an ideal gas PV = nRT
A. -4.557 kJ
B. +4557 kJ
C. -441 J
D. +441 J

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128. This is the temperature at which a liquid of a given composition is in phase equilibrium with its
solid phase at a chosen pressure.
A. boiling temperature
B. melting temperature
C. freezing temperature
D. triple point
129. This is the temperature at which a liquid of a given composition is in phase equilibrium with its
vapour at a chosen pressure.
A. boiling temperature
B. melting temperature
C. freezing temperature
D. triple point
130. The molecularity of a reaction occuring due to the decomposition of a molecule.
A. unimolecular
B. bimolecular
C. trimolecular
131. During a chain reaction, this is the part where reactive intermediates are formed.
A. Propagation
B. Initiation
C. Termination
132. This is a type of heat transfer that involved no transfer of mass.
A. conduction
B. convection
C. diffusion
134. This is the measure of internal friction between molecules in a flowing liquid.
A. diffusion
B. viscosity
C. conductivity

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135. This illustrates how diffusion causes the concentration of a substance to change with respect to
time.
A. Fick’s first law of diffusion

B. Fick’s second law of diffusion
C. thermal diffusion
136. In kinetic theory, this is the average distance a molecule travels between two collisions.
A. collision frequency
B. mean free path
C. collision diameter
D. collision density
137. Which of the following is the energy of one photon of red light of the wavelength 699 nm?
Formula: E = hv, c = vλ
A. 2.84 x 10^-19 J
B. 5.68 x 10^-19 J
C. 1.42 x 10^-19 J
138. Which of the following has the longest wavelength?
A. gamma rays
B. UV
C. IR
D. microwaves
139. Which of the following has the highest frequency?
A. X-rays
B. radio waves
C. visible light
D. UV
140. In Raman spectra, if the photon loses part of its energy during the collision, and its frequency
after the collision is lower, this is called ____________.
A. Stokes radiation
B. anti-Stokes radiation
C. polarizability
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141. This expresses the dependence of the adsorbed amount of the gas component on its partial
pressure at constant temperature.
A. adsorption isotherm
B. adsorption isobar
C. adsorption isostere
142. A very strong, almost chemical bond exists between the adsorbent and adsorbate atoms.
A. physical adsorption
B. chemisorption
C. capillary condensation
143. Adsorption of gases which are under critical temperature and which wet the adsorbent surface
may occur in narrow pores of the adsorbent.
A. physical adsorption
B. chemisorption
C. capillary condensation
144. The amino acid sequence in a polypeptide chain is called _______ structure of a protein.
A. primary
B. secondary
C. tertiary
D. quaternary
145. α helix and the β pleated sheet are examples of ________ structure of a protein.
A. primary
B. secondary
C. tertiary
D. quaternary
146. This refers to the overall three dimensional structure of a polypeptide.
A. primary structure of a protein

B. secondary structure of a protein
C. tertiary structure of a protein
D. quaternary structure of a protein

26
147. When multiple subunits (multiple polypeptide chains) come together, they form the _______
structure of the protein.
A. primary
B. secondary
C. tertiary
D. quaternary
148. When two sugars differ in configuration at only one chiral center.
A. enantiomers
B. diastereomers
C. epimers
149. Hemiacetals are formed when
A. alcohols react with ketones

B. alcohols react with aldehydes
C. alcohols react with carboxylic acids
150. Hemiketals are formed when
A. ketones react with alcohols

B. aldehydes react with alcohols
C. carboxylic acids react with alcohols
151. An _______ molecule has both hydrophobic and hydrophilic parts.
A. amphiprotic
B. amphipatic
C. amphoteric
152. When a tetrahedral carbon can be converted to a chiral center by changing only one of the
attached groups, it is referred to as ________.
A. prochiral
B. anomeric
C. enantiomeric

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153. Terpenes are made up of _______ molecules.
A. neoprene
B. isoprene
C. isopentane
154. A sesquiterpene consists of _______ isoprene units.
A. two
B. three
C. four
155. In this step, the sequence of bases in DNA is recorded as a sequence of complementary bases
in a single stranded mRNA molecule.
A. Replication
B. Transcription
C. Translation
D. Recording
156. When a base is linked to a sugar, _________ are formed.
A. nucleosides
B. nucleotides
C. carbohydrates
157. Nucleic acids are composed of linear polymers of nucleotides linked by _________.
A. 3’ to 5’ phosphodiester bridges
B. peptide bonds
C. 5’ to 3’ phosphodiester bridges
D. amide bonds
158. Which of the following is the enzyme that hydrolyze nucleic acids?
A. cellulases
B. nucleases
C. lipases
D. proteases

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159. ______ is an inactive enzyme that requires binding with a cofactor to make it catalytically
active.
A. coenzyme
B. apoenzyme
C. holoenzyme
160. _______ is produced when an inactive enzyme binds with a cofactor making it catalytically
active.
A. coenzyme
B. apoenzyme
C. holoenzyme
161. Which of the following is the end product of glycolysis?
A. fructose-1,6-biphosphate
B. pyruvate
C. glycogen
D. glucose
162. ________ is the metabolic pathway that involved converting glucose into pyruvate.
A. gluconeogenesis
B. glycogenesis
C. glycolysis
D. glycogenolysis
163. During glycolysis, one molecule of glucose produces ______ molecule/s of pyruvate.
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
164. During the first phase of glycolysis, glucose is converted into ________.
A. pyruvate
B. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
C. 3-phosphoglycerate

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165. The net ATP produced in glycolysis for every molecule of glucose.
A. 1 molecule of ATP
B. 2 molecules of ATP
C. 3 molecules of ATP
D. 4 molecules of ATP
166. The citric acid cycle produces ____ molecule/s of ATP for every molecule of acetyl CoA.
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
167. The Krebs cycle produces ____ molecule/s of FADH2 for every molecule of glucose.
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
168. The tricarboxylic acid cycle produces ___ molecule/s of NADH for every molecule of acetyl
CoA.
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
169. The Krebs cycle produces ____ molecules of NADH for every molecule of glucose.
A. one
B. three
C. six
D. two
170. Which of the following metabolic pathways produces the most ATP?
A. glycolysis
B. tricarboxylic acid cycle
C. electron transport chain

30
171. Gluconeogenesis mainly takes place in the _______.
A. liver
B. kidney
C. cell membrane
172. In the complete combustion of methanol in air, how many water molecules are produced?
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five
173. Which of the following is the percentage by mass of carbon in sucrose (C12H22O11)?
A. 6.4%
B. 42.1%
C. 51.5%
174. Which of the following is the number of hydrogen atoms in 0.350 mol of glucose (C6H12O6)?
A. 2.53 x 10^24 H atoms

B. 5.06 x 10^24 H atoms
C. 1.27 x 10^12 H atoms
175. A sample contains 40.92% C, 4.58% H, and 54.50% O by mass. Which of the following is the
empirical formula of this sample?
A. C3H4O3
B. CHO
C. C2H3O2

31
176. How many moles of ammonia is produced from 3.0 moles of nitrogen gas and 6.0 moles of
hydrogen gas?
N2(g) + H2(g) ⇒ NH3
A. 4.0 moles
B. 6.0 moles
C. 9.0 moles
177. Which of the following compounds is insoluble in water?
A. sodium carbonate
B. lead(II) sulfate
C. barium nitrate
D. ammonium phosphate
178. Which of the following compounds is soluble in water?
A. sodium carbonate
B. lead(II) sulfate
C. cobalt(II) hydroxide
D. silver iodide
179. Which of the following is the oxidation number of sulfur in sulfur dichloride?
A. 0
B. +1
C. +2
D. -1

32
180. Carbon's allotrope graphite has an enthalpy of combustion of -393.5 kJ/mol while its other
allotrope diamond has a ΔH of -394 kJ/mol.
C⁽ᵍʳᵃᵖʰ ᵗᵉ⁾ + O₂₍𝓰₎ → CO₂₍𝓰₎ ΔH = -393.5 kJ

C⁽ᵈ ᵃᵐᵒⁿᵈ⁾ + O₂₍𝓰₎ → CO₂₍𝓰₎ ΔH = -395.4 kJ
Which of the following is the ΔH for the conversion of graphite to diamond?
C⁽ᵍʳᵃᵖʰ ᵗᵉ⁾ → C⁽ᵈ ᵃᵐᵒⁿᵈ⁾ ΔH = ?
A. -1.9 kJ
B. +1.9 kJ
C. -393.5 kJ
D. +395.4 kJ
181. Which of the following is the molar mass of a gas with density of 3.706 g/L measured at 759.7
mmHg and 33 °C?
Formula: PV = nRT
Molar mass = dRT / P
A. 46.01 g/mol
B. 65.44 g/mol
C. 93.14 g/mol
D. 0.013 g/mol
182. Which of the following is the density of a gas at 25 °C, 755 mmHg and with molar mass of
43.02 g/mol?
Formula: PV = nRT
d = (P x MW) / RT
A. 1.75 g/L
B. 3.49 g/L
C. 15,832.36 g/L
183. For an electron with principal quantum number of 3, which of the following is not an allowed
value for its magnetic quantum number?
A. 1
B. 0
C. 2
D. 3

33
184. Which of the following atoms and ions is the smallest in terms of ionic radius?
A. Mg^2+
B. Ca^2+
C. Ca
D. All have the same ionic radius.
185. Which of the following atoms and ions is the largest in terms of ionic radius?
A. S^2-
B. S
C. O^2-
D. All have the same ionic radius.
186. Which of the following ions is the smallest in terms of ionic radius?
A. K^+
B. Cl^-
C. Ca^2+
D. S^2-
187. Which of the following molecules does not possess a trigonal planar molecular geometry?
A. boron hydride
B. formaldehyde
C. selenium dichloride
D. carbonate ion
188. Which of the following is the bond order of the H2^- ion?
Formula: bond order = 1/2 (# bonding e- - # antibonding e-)
A. 0.5
B. 1
C. 2
D. 0
189. Which of the following is the mass percentage of potassium chloride in a solution containing 3.0
g of KCl in 100.0 mL of water? Density of water = 1 g/cm^3
A. 2.91%
B. 0.97%
C. 3.88%
D. 7.76%

34
190. Which of the following is the [H+] of an okra juice with pOH of 9.35?
A. 1.71 x 10^-4 M
B. 2.23 x 10^-5 M
C. 4.47 x 10^-5 M
191. A 0.040 M solution of nicotinic acid has a pH of 2.36. Which of the following is the percent
ionization of the nicotinic acid?
A. 5.45%
B. 10.91%
C. 12.67%


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1. Which of the following is NOT an indicator of water quality?

2. Positive Tollen's test

Philippine Chemistry Professionals Board Exam Reviewer

11. Sulfuric acid is _______.

Philippine Chemistry Professionals Board Exam Reviewer

15. In the laboratory, carbon dioxide is mostly prepared by _______.

A. reacting an acid with a base

16. constant volume

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18. visible region

22. allowed principal quantum number

23. allowed spin quantum number

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25. a DNA base pair

27. strongest bond

29. non-aliphatic compound

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32. most electronegative

33. Which of the following concepts is not related to this set?

36. Not a product of incomplete combustion of hydrocarbons

37. A product of complete combustion of hydrocarbons

41. Oxygen is produced from water

Philippine Chemistry Professionals Board Exam Reviewer

42. salt and water are produced

43. oxygen and ozone

44. ethyl methyl ether and propan-1-ol

45. same number of protons, ​Bonus: Can the answer be C. isobar?

46. same number of neutrons, ​Bonus: Can the answer be C. isobar?

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A. increase the concentration of one of the products

50. Consider 2A + X ⇔ J + D (exothermic)

A. increase the pressure of the system

A.​ intrinsic semiconductor

53. Consider silicon doping

Philippine Chemistry Professionals Board Exam Reviewer

54. Consider germanium doping

58. Presence of arsenic

A. Karl Fischer titration

59. Presence of nitrogen

A. Karl Fischer titration

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60. coagulated colloid returns to its original dispersed state

64. Magnetic state of an atom with one or more unpaired electrons

A. right hand rule

65. magnetic state of an atom with paired electrons

A. right hand rule

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66. Compounds or atoms that are attracted to magnetic fields

67. Compounds or atoms that are not attracted to magnetic fields

70. valence electrons of nitrogen

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75. Not a stereoselective reagent

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76. Polar aprotic solvent

77. Polar protic solvent

78. Pancreas releases this when blood glucose is abnormally high

79. Pancreas releases this when blood glucose is abnormally low

A. elevated insulin level in the blood

81. Largest energy stores of a well-nourished human can be found in

Philippine Chemistry Professionals Board Exam Reviewer

45. same number of protons, Bonus: Can the answer be C. isobar?

46. same number of neutrons, Bonus: Can the answer be C. isobar?

A. intrinsic semiconductor

84. Which of the following is an unsaturated compound?

94. Titration error is