Part A (38*1=38)

1. Which is the following about investigation to decide whether a prospective

project is worth or not
feasibility study
Planning
Project execution
Requirements analysis

2. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

Specification delays
Product competition
Testing
Staff turnover

3.A 66.6% risk is considered as

very low
low
moderate
high

4.Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when
computing the costs of a software development project?
travel and training costs
hardware and software costs
effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
all of the mentioned

5.Which is not a categorization of software projects

Information
embedded
Design
product
6.----------- is a management process with the help of methods aimed at helping
the organization to acquire information and sort out projects according to a set of
criteria.
Software Project Management
Project Management
Project Porfolio Management
software configuration management

7.Are software projects really different from other projects?

a.True
b.false

8.Find the keyword which is not relevant to COST-BENEFIT EVALUATION

TECHNOLOGY
Net profit
Payback period
Elicitation
Return on investment

9. Arrange the following steps to form a basic/general Engineering Process Model.

1. Test
2. Design
3. Install
4. Specification
5. Manufacture
6. Maintain
2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3
4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6
2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6
4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3

10. Which is the difference between the present value of cash inflows and
the present value of cash outflows over a period of time
ROI
Payback period
NPV
None of the above

11.Simulataneous projects are controlled by

Programme managers
Project manager
Testing engineer
Designer

12.Who will have impersonal relationship with resources’

Programme managers
Project manager
Testing engineer
Designer

13.What is ROI for average annual benefit 10000 and total investment 100000?
10%
1%
0%
100%

14. Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a

Client
Investor
Production team
Project manager

15. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when
you learn more about the risk?
Risk monitoring
Risk planning
Risk analysis
Risk identification

16. Objectives should be

SMART
SRMAT
SMTAR
STMAR
17. A group of projects that are managed in a co-ordinated way to gain benefits
that would not be possible were the projects to be managed independently
SPM
Programme Management
SCM
Portfolio Managaement

18. Identify and allocate resources ,2 Revise plan and estimates to take account of
resource constraints under which step of STEPWISE PROJECT PLANNING
Analyze project characteristics
Estimate effort for each activity
Identify activity risks
Allocate resources

19.RAD stands for

Relative Application Development
Rapid Application Development
Rapid Application Document
None of the mentioned

20. Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any
change?
Build & Fix Model
Prototyping Model
RAD Model
Waterfall Model

21. Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping Model?

Quick Design
Coding
Prototype Refinement
Engineer Product

22 SDLC stands for

Software Development Life Cycle
System Development Life cycle
Software Design Life Cycle
System Design Life Cycle
23.Which is not one of the types of prototype of Prototyping Model?
a) Horizontal Prototype
b) Vertical Prototype
c) Diagonal Prototype
d) Domain Prototype

24. RAD Model has

a) 2 phases
b) 3 phase
c) 5 phases
d) 6 phases

25. Agile Software Development is based on

a) Incremental Development
b) Iterative Development
c) Linear Development
d) Both Incremental and Iterative Development

26.Agile methods seem to work best when team members have a relatively high
skill level.
a) True
b) False

27.Expansion of XP
a) Extreme Programming
b)External Project
c)External Programming
d)None

28. The COCOMO model takes into account different approaches to software
development, reuse, etc.
a) True
b) False

29.Which model is used during early stages of the system design after the
requirements have been established?
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model

30.COCOMO stands for

a) Constructive cost model
b) Comprehensive cost model
c) Constructive cost estimation model
d) Complete cost estimation model

31.COCOMO was developed initially by

a) B.Beizer
b) Rajiv Gupta
c) B.W.Bohem
d) Gregg Rothermal

32.LOC stands for

a)Line of Code
b)Line of count
c)Length of code
d)Length of count

33.FP stands for

a) Function programs
b) Function point
c) Function part
d) Functional programmer

34. Which four framework activities are found in the Extreme Programming(XP) ?
a) analysis, design, coding, testing
b) planning, analysis, design, coding
c) planning, design, coding, testing
d) planning, analysis, coding, testing
35.Which model is used to compute the effort required to integrate reusable
components or program code that is automatically generated by design or program
translation tools?
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model

36.Calculate staff –month required for organic mode of COCOMO when KLOC is
200
a)626
b)1133
c) 2077
d)None

37. Which is an acronym of Common Software Measurement International

Consortium?
a)CSMIC
b)COSMIC
c)COSMI
d)COMSIC

38.DSDM
a) Dynamic Software Design Method
b) Dynamic Software Development Method
c)Dynamic System Design Method
d) Dynamic System Development Method

Part – B(6*2=12)
1. Write short notes on Management Principles.
2. List various categorization of software Projects
3. Why Net Present Value is required?
4. Brief about two ways of setting objectives.
5. What is Software Project Planning?
6. What are the three modes of COCOMO-I?
7. Write short notes on SCRUM.
8. Mention the drawbacks of Waterfall Model.
9. Write the advantages of V-Model.
10.Write any three differences between agile model and Non-Agile models.
 SPM Final Question Paper
1. In which approach brainstorming involves
The activity based approach
The product based approach
The hybrid approach
Work breakdown structure approach

2. What is Activity on arrow approach?

Activities are represented as nodes.
The link between the nodes represent the precedence
Activities are drawn as arrows joining circles
Does not represent the possible start and possible end activities

3. The formula for calculating risk exposure is

Potential damage x probability of risk
Potential damage x probability of occurrence
Potential damage x probability of money
Potential damage x probability of estimated cost

4. Arrange the risk planning according to their priorities.

Risk avoidance, risk reduction and mitigation, risk transfer, risk acceptance
Risk reduction and mitigation, risk transfer, risk acceptance, risk avoidance
Risk transfer, risk acceptance, risk avoidance, risk reduction and mitigation,
Risk acceptance, risk avoidance, risk reduction and mitigation, risk
transfer

5.An easy to use approach that is well adapted to evaluating the risk in certain
situation is known as
Integerate Simulation
Monte Corlo Simulation
Modulated Simulation
Vague Simulation

6. Expansion of PERT
Project Evaluation Review Techniques
Program Estimation Review Techniques
Program Evaluation Resource Techniques
 Program Evaluation Review Techniques
7. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?
Configuration item identification
Risk management
Release management
Branch management

8. What is pessimistic time

Task to do under Normal circumstances
The shortest time in which the activity may be completed
The worst possible time
The best time

9. What are the different categories in resources

Human, schedule, resources
Natural resources, human resource, waste resources
Money, Time, cost, space
Labour, resource schedule, resource requirement

10.According to the time estimates made by the PERT planners, the maximum
time that would be needed to complete an activity is called as __________
The most likely time estimate
Optimistic time estimate
Pessimistic time estimate
Expected time estimate

11. ------------are used to measure effectiveness of the project.

Check point
Function point
Review point
None of the above

12. What is BCWP?

Budgeted cost of work Preference
Budgeted cost of work Planning
Budgeted cost of work performed
None of the above

13. Assess constituent elements on the scale ”RED” represents,

not on target and recoverable only with difficulty
 not on target but recoverable’
‘on target’
All of the above

14, What are the two factors used to progress of project?

Size and Degree of the Risk
Size and Accuracy
Size and Time
None of the above

15. What is/are the ways used to reporting?

Oral and Written
Formal and Informal
Regular and Adhoc
All of the above

16. The ______has overall the responsibility for setting, monitoring and modifying
objectives of the project.
Project steering committee
Team manager
Team member
Project manager

17. A _____ is likely to have very high priority for close monitoring.
Critical path activity
Activity
Activity with free float
Activity with float

18. In a project team, the ________is a good team player who is willing to
undertake less attractive tasks if they were needed for team success.
Company Worker
Monitor-evaluator
Team worker
Complete finisher

19. This activity is undertaken once the development activities start?

Project Planning
Project Monitoring and Control
Project size estimation
 Project cost estimation
2
20. Gantt charts, Slip chars and Ball charts are under ___________ process.
Monitoring
Verification
Control
Visualization

21. Theproject specification with estimated activity durations and precedence

requirements are given below
Activity Duration Precedents
A Hardware selection 8 ----
B System confirmation 6 ----
C Install hardware 5 A
D Data migration 9 B
E Draft office procedures 5 B
F Recruit staff 12 ----
G User training 5 E,F
H Install and test system 4 C,D
From the above Table in calculate the forward pass and identify the value for
earliest finish and latest finish for activity E.
11, 14
7,10
12, 14,
8,10

22 From the above Table in Q no (21) calculate in the backward pass and identify
the value for earliest start and latest start for activity G.
15,15
11, 14
13, 15
12, 14
23. From the above Table in Q no (21) find the total float for the activity C
1
2
3
0
24.A project depended on a data centric vulnerable with flood. It might be
estimated that if a floor occurred a new computer configuration could be
established for Rs. 2,00,000 . It might also be estimated that ehere the computer is
located there is 1 in 100 chance of flood actually happening. Find the resk
explosure?
200
2000
20000
200000
25. Calculate expected time if a=2 ,b=2 and m=2
3
2
3.5
2.5
26. Calculate SPI for EV(₹ 17,50,000) and PV (₹ 17,10,000)
1.0233918
0.0233918
2.0233918
3.0233918
27. Find the risk reduction leverage if the risk evaluation before is 1% of the total
cost Rs, 2,00,000 and risk evaluation after is 0.5% of the total cost if fire accident
happens. And the total cost to fit the fire alarm is Rs. 1000.
1
2
4
8
28. The PERT activity time estimates is given below

Activity Predecessor pessimistic time Optimistic time Most likely

time

A ---- 9 7 8

B ---- 8 4 3
C A 7 3 2

D B 6 4 5

E B 5 3 4

F --- 10 8 15

G E,F 5 3 4

H C,D 4 2 3

Calculate the Standard deviation for activity E and H

1/3 , 2/3
1/3, 4/3
1/3, 1/3
2/3, 2/3
29 From question number 28, Find the critical path .
A,C,H
B,D,H
F,G
B,E,G
30. When can be consider the project under budget or the work is completed
better than planned?
CV or CPI < 1.00
CV or CPI > 1.00
CV or CPI = 1.00
None of the above
31. Which is provided an efficient way of storing versions that
Minimize the amount of occupied disk space?
Configuration Management Process
Change Control Board
Open source configuration tool
None of the above
32. Supplier will increase price to meet contingencies is a disadvantages of ---------
-------------- contracts
Time and Material
Fixed Price
Fixed Price Per Delivered unit
None of the above
33. _______ is the method of recording and displaying the way in which targets
have changed throughout the duration of the project.
Gantt chart
Bar chart
Timeline
Schedule
34. The priorities we might apply in deciding levels in monitoring is called as
______.
Hierarchical monitoring
Prioritized monitoring
Tracking
Tracing
35.What involves preparing software for external release and Keeping track of the
system versions that have been released for customer use?
Software Configuration Audit
Software Configuration management
Base Line
None of the Above
 Part a
1. Different activity of a project management is

a) project planning b) project monitoring c) project control d)All of the above

2. Which of the following activity is not the part of project planning?

a) project estimation b) project scheduling c) project monitoring d) risk management

3. PERT analysis is based on

A. Optimistic time
B. Pessimistic time
C. Most likely time
D. All the above.
4. The particular task performance in CPM is known
A. Dummy
B. Event
C. Activity
D. Contract.
5. The critical path
A) Is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node
B) Is a mixture of all paths.
C) Is the longest path
D) Is the shortest path
6.An easy to use approach that is well adapted to evaluating the risk in certain situation is known as
a)Integerate simulation b)monte corlo simulation c)modulated simulation d)vague simulation
7.Expansion of CPM
A)COST PATH METHOD B)CRITICAL PATH METHOD C)CRITICAL PROJECT METHOD
D)NONE OF THE ABOVE

8.Expansion of PERT

A) Project Evaluation Review Techniques

B) Program Estimation Review Techniques

C) Program Evaluation Resource Techniques
D) Program Evaluation Review Techniques
 9.The ------------ is carried out to calculate the earliest dates on which each activity may
be started and completed. Where an actual start date is known, the calculations may be carried
out using actual dates.
a) forward pass b) backword pass c)CPM d)PERT

10.Expansion of RRL

a) risk reduction leverage b) return reduction leverage c) risk rejection

leverage d) risk reduction level
11. Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways.
These include
a) A single software configuration management team for the whole organization
b) A separate configuration management team for each project
c) Software Configuration Management distributed among the project members
d) All of the mentioned
12. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?
a) Configuration item identification
b) Risk management
c) Release management
d) Branch management

13.Expansion EVA

A) Earned Verify Analysis B) Estimated Value Analysis C) Earned Value Analysis D) Efficient Value
Analysis

14. The following costs are not part of the total effort cost______
A. Costs of lunch time food
B. Costs of providing heating
C. Costs of networking
D. Costs of support

15. _________ standards should be in place to ensure that changes to requirements are
implemented in a safe and orderly way.
A. Change control and configuration management
B. Time control and configuration management
C. Access control and configuration management
D. Quality control and configuration management
16. The relationship between program design and program specification can be portrayed in
_________.
A. Data Flow Diagram
B. Product Flow Diagram
C. Network Diagram
D. Data Flow Diagram
17. _________ is the amount of work that needs to be done for every activity.
A. Strength.
B. Energy.
C. Capacity.
D. Effort.
18. _______ is an activity bar chart indicating scheduled activity dates and durations frequently
augmented with activity floats.
A. Bar chart.
B. Ball chart.
C. Slip Chart.
D. Gantt chart.
19. _______ is the method of recording and displaying the way in which targets have changed
throughout the duration of the project.
A. Gantt chart.
B. Bar chart.
C. Timeline.
D. Schedule.
20. The total value credited to a project at any point is known as _______ value.
A. earned.
B. ROI Value
C. money.
D. recurred.

Part b(15*2=30)
1.________ = risk likelihood X risk impact.
A. Risk estimate.
B. Risk expenditure.
C. Risk identification
D. Risk exposure
2.Calculate SPI for EV(₹ 17,50,000) and PV (₹ 17,10,000)
a) 1.0233918 b) 0.0233918 c) 2.0233918 d) 3.0233918

3. calculate expected time if a=2 ,b=2 and m=2

a) 3 b)2 c)3.5 d)2.5

4. List three approaches to identifying the activities or tasks that make up a project
a)Activity-based approach,The product-based approach and Hybrid approach
b) Actual-based approach,The product-based approach and Hybrid approach
c) a)Activity-based approach,The project-based approach and Hybrid approach
d) a)Activity-based approach,The product-based approach and Hierarchical approach

5. __Essentially an activity bar chart indicating the scheduled activity dates and duration with
activity floats,___ Provides a more striking visual induction of the activities and ________A
method of recording and displaying the way in which targets have changed throughout the
duration of the project

a) Gantt chart , slip chart and Timeline

b) Slip chart , Gantt chart and Timeline

b) Timeline ,Slip chart and Gantt chart

d) None of the above

6. The earliest start time rule

A) Compares the activities starting time for an activity successor.
B) Compares the activities end time for an activity predecessor.
C) Directs when a project can start.
D) Regulates when a project must begin.

7. Activities A, B, and C are the immediate predecessors for Y activity. If the earliest finish times for the three
activities are 12, 15, and 10, then the earliest start time for Y will be
A) 10
B) 15
C) 12
D) Cannot be determined
8. Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to
control change without seriously impeding justifiable change?
a) Baselines
b) Source code
c) Data model
d) None of the mentioned

9. What complements the formal technical review by assessing a configuration

object for characteristics that are generally not considered during review?
a) Software configuration audit
b) Software configuration management
c) Baseline
d) None of the mentioned

10.According to the time estimates made by the PERT planners, the maximum
time that would be needed to complete an activity is called as __________
a) The most likely time estimate
b) Optimistic time estimate
c) Pessimistic time estimate
d) Expected time estimate

11. a)The difference between the maximum time available and the actual time
needed to perform an activity is known as _________and , b)In a network, a critical
path is the time-wise shortest path.
a) Free float,false
b) Independent float,false
c) Total float,false
d) Half float,false

12. If Late Finish is 30 days and duration is 10 days, calculate LS

a)300 days b)100 days c)20 months d)20 days

13. Two organizations may enter into a contractual agreement involving an

exchange of services and payments. A contract is a legally enforceable
agreement between two or more parties with mutual obligations.
a)Contract Management b)Configuration Mangement c) Contract &
Configuration Management d)None of the above
14. The time by which an activity may be delayed without affecting any subsequent activity is called
_________.
A. action float.
B. terminal float.
C. free float
D. null float
15. The objective of ________ is to avoid or minimize the adverse effects of unforeseen events.
A. risk management.
B. risk maintenance.
C. risk taking.
D. risky job.
 SPM MODEL FINAL QUESTION PAPER
PART A (40X1=40)

1.________ is a planned activity.

Project
Activity
Program
Task

2. Which of the following type of project interfaces with the organization.

Information System
Embedded System
Process Control System
Objective Driven System

3. In product-driven projects, the objectives of the project are defined in terms of ___________.
Functional Requirements Only.
Resource And Non-Functional Requirements.
Functional And Quality Requirements.
Resource Requirements Only.

4. __________ is record of how much the organization is willing to spend on the system.
Resource Requirements
Functional Requirements
Security Requirements
Non Functional Requirements

5. Projects are __________ by definition and therefore more uncertain than normal undertakings.
Routine
Non-Routine
Specific
Controllable

6. _________ time is the time between start and end of a task.

Turnaround.
Elapsed.
Throughput.
Pessimistic time.

7. _________ is the amount of work that needs to be done for every activity.
Strength.
Energy.
Capacity.
Effort.

8. Project planning is an _________ process.

Continuous.
Iterative.
Time Consuming.
Conventional.

9. An Elaboration of Waterfall which stresses the necessity for validation activities is known as
__________.
Extended Waterfall.
Iterative Model.
V-Process Model.
Spiral Model.

10. _______ is a working model of one or more aspects of the projected system.
Evolutionary model.
V-process model.
Spiral model.
Software Prototyping.

11. Which are the two levels of development suggested by Booch ?

Micro and Macro processes.
Inter and Intra processes.
Internal and External processes.
Small and Large processes.

12. 'Work expands to fill the time available" is _________ law.

Brooks.
Peters.
Parkinson's.
Weinbergs

13. KLOC indicates ___________.

Hundred lines of code.
Source lines of code.
Thousand lines of code.
Million lines of code.
14. UFP indicates ________.
Unused Function Points.
Unstructured Function Points.
Uniform Function Points.
Unadjusted Function Points.

15. Size/effort = _________.

Process Rate.
Productivity Rate.
Project Rate.
Property Rate.

16. Different activity of a project management is

Project Planning
Project Monitoring
Project Control
All Of The Above

17. Which of the following activity is not the part of project planning?
Project Estimation
Project Scheduling
Project Monitoring
Risk Management

18. PERT analysis is based on

Optimistic time
Pessimistic time
Most likely time
All the above.

19. The particular task performance in CPM is known

Dummy
Event
Activity
Contract.

20. The critical path

Is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node
Is a mixture of all paths.
Is the longest path
Is the shortest path
21.An easy to use approach that is well adapted to evaluating the risk in certain situation is
known as
Integerate Simulation
Monte Corlo Simulation
Modulated Simulation
Vague Simulation

22.Expansion of CPM
Cost Path Method
Critical Path Method
Critical Project Method
None Of The Above

23.Expansion of PERT
Project Evaluation Review Techniques
Program Estimation Review Techniques
Program Evaluation Resource Techniques
Program Evaluation Review Techniques

24.The ------------ is carried out to calculate the earliest dates on which each activity may be
started and completed. Where an actual start date is known, the calculations may be carried out
using actual dates.
Forward Pass
Backword Pass
CPM
PERT

25.Expansion of RRL
Risk Reduction Leverage
Return Reduction Leverage
Risk Rejection Leverage
Risk Reduction Level

26. Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways. These include
A single software configuration management team for the whole organization
A separate configuration management team for each project
Software Configuration Management distributed among the project members
All of the mentioned

27. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

Configuration item identification
Risk management
Release management
Branch management

28.Expansion EVA
Earned Verify Analysis
Estimated Value Analysis
Earned Value Analysis
Efficient Value Analysis

29. The following costs are not part of the total effort cost______
Costs of lunch time food
Costs of providing heating
Costs of networking
Costs of support

30. _________ standards should be in place to ensure that changes to requirements are
implemented in a safe and orderly way.
Change control and configuration management
Time control and configuration management
Access control and configuration management
Quality control and configuration management

31. The relationship between program design and program specification can be portrayed in
_________.
Data Flow Diagram
Product Flow Diagram
Network Diagram
Data Flow Diagram

32. _________ is the amount of work that needs to be done for every activity.
Strength.
Energy.
Capacity.
Effort.

33. Organization Behaviour is a part of ________ science.

Organizational.
Electrical.
Managerial.
Human Resource

34. The poor quality of selection will mean extra cost on _______ and supervision.
Training
Recruitment
Work quality
None of the above

35. Which of these is the most important external factor governing recruitments?
Sons of soil
Labor market
Unemployment rate
Supply and demand

36. Which of the following act deals with recruitment and selection?
Child labor act
The apprentices act
Mines act
All of the above

37.Rearrange the following steps of recruitment.

I. Searching
II. Evaluation and control
III. Planning
IV. Screening
V. Strategy development

III, II, I, V, IV
III, V, I, IV, II
IV, V, III, I, II
II, I, IV, V, III

38. ___________ express the relationship of applicant inputs to outputs at various decision
points.
Number of contacts
Yield Ratios
Type of contacts
Technological sophistication

39. Which of the following are the decisions to be made while devising the strategies to hire?
Geographic distribution of labour markets comprising job seekers
Make or buy employees
Sequencing the activities in the recruitment process
All of the above

40. What is the natural perception of people on the process of recruitment and selection?
Positive
Negative
Both positive and negative
None of the above

PART B (30X2=60)
1.The activities involved in the management which is suggested by the Open University
Software Project Management module are__________.
.Planning.
Representing.
Monitoring.
A, B, And C.

2. The problems experienced in the survey of managers published by Thayer, Pyster and Wood
include_________.
Poor Estimates And Plans.
Poor Role Definition.
Poor Quality Control.
Both A And B.

3. ________ is needed to ensure that the project remains under control and that it continues to
meet its business justification.
Yellow tape.
White tape.
Red tape.
Black tape.

4. Which form of software development model is most suited to a system where all the
requirements are known at the start of a project and remain stable throughout the project?
Waterfall model.
Incremental model.
Evolutionary model.
Spiral model.

5. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A good design methodology should provide a clear division of design from implementation.
A good design methodology should not promote a top-down decomposition strategy.
A good design methodology should encourage phased development of the software.
A good design methodology should help to minimize future maintenance.

6.Which type of risk factor is most likely to cause problems for a software project developing
commercial software?
Inadequate user documentation.
Litigation expense.
Low productivity.
Cancellation of project.
7. _______ is a collection of projects that all contribute to the same overall organizational goals.
Software.
Task
Programme.
Activity

8. ________ is refined by Barry Boehm and his co-workers.

COCOMO III.
COCOMO IV.
COCOMO II.
COCOMO I.

9.Effort = __________.
System Size X Productivity Rate.
System Size X KLOC.
Person In Months / SLOC.
Person In Months X Productivity Rate.

10. The statement "If a system does not have to reliable, it can meet any other objective" is from
__________.
Brooks Law.
Peters Law.
Parkinson's first Law.
Weinberg's Zeroth Law.

11. What is SLOC?

Secret Lines of Code.
Source Lines of Code.
Selected Lines of Code.
Suppressed Lines of Code.

12. The spiral model is originated by __________.

B.W.Boehm.
B.W.Williams.
B.W.Britto.
B.W.Hackman.

13. The calculation of __________ is a project evaluation technique that takes into account the
profitability of a project and the timing of cash flows that are produced.
NPV.
TPV.
SPV.
LPV.

14. The costs that include the salaries and other employment costs of the staff involved in the
project development and all associated costs are called____________.
Operational Cost.
Development Cost.
Setup Cost.
Direct Cost.

15. One of your team members has asked for some time on the meeting agenda to seek the help
and cooperation of other team members on his/her assignment. During the ensuring team
discussion, you feel that:
Every team member is hiding their real motives and feelings
The majority of the team members are hiding their needs, expectations, and goals
Some team members are posturing to advance their hidden agendas
All team members are open about their real motives and feelings; we communicate
honestly

16. The team leader has just made an impassioned plea to improve the level of cooperation that
exists within the group. As the discussion develops you note:
All team members really seem concerned with helping each other, and working as a team
The majority of the team members are in favor of improving teamwork
The team members are split-half are in favor of improving teamwork; half would rather operate
independently
The majority of the team members want to continue to operate independently

17.Which of the following statements best describes the level of risk taking, innovation,
imagination, and initiative by members of the group:
Beware, we shoot the messenger
Nothing ventured, nothing gained-go for it
Don’t rock the boat, if it’s not broke don’t fix it
Some team members seem more comfortable with risk-taking and change than others

18. Describe the level of communication between team members:

In this team, people are afraid to speak up and we do not listen to each other
Everybody speaks up, but not all team members listen
Everybody accurately states their view and others listen and understand what is being
said-we talk together
Quite a few of the team members withhold their thoughts and don’t listen to others

19.________ = risk likelihood X risk impact.

Risk estimate.
Risk expenditure.
Risk identification
Risk exposure

20.Calculate SPI for EV(₹ 17,50,000) and PV (₹ 17,10,000)

1.0233918
 0.0233918
2.0233918
3.0233918
21. Calculate expected time if a=2 ,b=2 and m=2
3
2
3.5
2.5

22. List three approaches to identifying the activities or tasks that make up a project
Activity-based approach,The product-based approach and Hybrid approach
Actual-based approach,The product-based approach and Hybrid approach
Activity-based approach,The project-based approach and Hybrid approach
Activity-based approach,The product-based approach and Hierarchical approach

23. __Essentially an activity bar chart indicating the scheduled activity dates and duration with
activity floats,___ Provides a more striking visual induction of the activities and ________A
method of recording and displaying the way in which targets have changed throughout the
duration of the project
Gantt chart , slip chart and Timeline
Slip chart , Gantt chart and Timeline
Timeline ,Slip chart and Gantt chart
None of the above

24. The earliest start time rule

Compares the activities starting time for an activity successor.
Compares the activities end time for an activity predecessor.
Directs when a project can start.
Regulates when a project must begin.

25. Activities A, B, and C are the immediate predecessors for Y activity. If the earliest finish
times for the three activities are 12, 15, and 10, then the earliest start time for Y will be
10
15
12
Cannot be determined

26. Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to control change
without seriously impeding justifiable change?
Baselines
Source code
Data model
None of the mentioned
27. What complements the formal technical review by assessing a configuration object for
characteristics that are generally not considered during review?
Software configuration audit
Software configuration management
Baseline
None of the mentioned

28.According to the time estimates made by the PERT planners, the maximum time that would
be needed to complete an activity is called as __________
The most likely time estimate
Optimistic time estimate
Pessimistic time estimate
Expected time estimate

29. a)The difference between the maximum time available and the actual time needed to perform
an activity is known as _________and , b)In a network, a critical path is the time-wise shortest
path.
Free float,false
Independent float,false
Total float,false
Half float,false

30. If Late Finish is 30 days and duration is 10 days, calculate LS

300 days
100 days
20 months
20 days
1.The activities involved in the management which is suggested by the Open University
Software
Project Management module are__________.
A. planning.
B. representing.
C. monitoring.
D. a, b, and c.

2. The problems experienced in the survey of managers published by Thayer, Pyster and Wood
include_________.
A. poor estimates and plans.
B. poor role definition.
C. poor quality control.
D. both a and b.

3. ________ is needed to ensure that the project remains under control and that it continues to
meet its business justification.
A. Yellow tape.
B. White tape.
C. Red tape.
D. Black tape.

4. Which form of software development model is most suited to a system where all the
requirements are known at the start of a project and remain stable throughout the project?
A. Waterfall model.
B. Incremental model.
C. Evolutionary model.
D. Spiral model.

5. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A. A good design methodology should provide a clear division of design from implementation.
B. A good design methodology should not promote a top-down decomposition strategy.
C. A good design methodology should encourage phased development of the software.
D. A good design methodology should help to minimize future maintenance.

6.Which type of risk factor is most likely to cause problems for a software project developing
commercial software?
A. Inadequate user documentation.
B. Litigation expense.
C. Low productivity.
D. Cancellation of project.

7. ________ = risk likelihood X risk impact.

A. Risk estimate.
B. Risk expenditure.
C. Risk identification
D. Risk exposure.

8. ________ is refined by Barry Boehm and his co-workers.

A. COCOMO III.
B. COCOMO IV.
C. COCOMO II.
D. COCOMO I.

9.Effort = __________.
A. system size X productivity rate.
B. system size X KLOC.
C. person in months / SLOC.
D. person in months X productivity rate.

10. The statement "If a system does not have to reliable, it can meet any other objective" is from
__________.
A. Brooks Law.
B. Peters Law.
C. Parkinson's first Law.
D. Weinberg's Zeroth Law.

11. What is SLOC?

A. Secret Lines of Code.
B. Source Lines of Code.
C. Selected Lines of Code.
D. Suppressed Lines of Code.

12. The spiral model is originated by __________.

A. B.W.Boehm.
B. B.W.Williams.
C. B.W.Britto.
D. B.W.Hackman.

13. The calculation of __________ is a project evaluation technique that takes into account the
profitability of a project and the timing of cash flows that are produced.
A. NPV.
B. TPV.
C. SPV.
D. LPV.

14. The costs that include the salaries and other employment costs of the staff involved in the
project development and all associated costs are called____________.
A. operational cost.
B. development cost.
C. setup cost.
D. direct cost.
15. One of your team members has asked for some time on the meeting agenda to seek the
help and cooperation of other team members on his/her assignment. During the ensuring
team discussion, you feel that:
A. Every team member is hiding their real motives and feelings
B. The majority of the team members are hiding their needs, expectations, and goals
C. Some team members are posturing to advance their hidden agendas
D. All team members are open about their real motives and feelings; we communicate
honestly

16. The team leader has just made an impassioned plea to improve the level of cooperation
that exists within the group. As the discussion develops you note:
A. All team members really seem concerned with helping each other, and working as a
team
B. The majority of the team members are in favor of improving teamwork
C. The team members are split-half are in favor of improving teamwork; half would rather
operate independently
D. The majority of the team members want to continue to operate independently

17.Which of the following statements best describes the level of risk taking, innovation,
imagination, and initiative by members of the group:
A. Beware, we shoot the messenger
B. Nothing ventured, nothing gained-go for it
C. Don’t rock the boat, if it’s not broke don’t fix it
D. Some team members seem more comfortable with risk-taking and change than others

18. Describe the level of communication between team members:

A. In this team, people are afraid to speak up and we do not listen to each other
B. Everybody speaks up, but not all team members listen
C. Everybody accurately states their view and others listen and understand what is being
said-we talk together
D. Quite a few of the team members withhold their thoughts and don’t listen to others

19.________ = risk likelihood X risk impact.

A. Risk estimate.
B. Risk expenditure.
C. Risk identification
D. Risk exposure

20.Calculate SPI for EV(₹ 17,50,000) and PV (₹ 17,10,000)

a) 1.0233918
b) 0.0233918
c) 2.0233918
d) 3.0233918
21. Calculate expected time if a=2 ,b=2 and m=2
a) 3
b)2
c)3.5
d)2.5

22. List three approaches to identifying the activities or tasks that make up a project
a)Activity-based approach,The product-based approach and Hybrid approach
b) Actual-based approach,The product-based approach and Hybrid approach
c) a)Activity-based approach,The project-based approach and Hybrid approach
d) a)Activity-based approach,The product-based approach and Hierarchical approach

23. __Essentially an activity bar chart indicating the scheduled activity dates and duration with
activity floats,___ Provides a more striking visual induction of the activities and ________A
method of recording and displaying the way in which targets have changed throughout the
duration of the project
a) Gantt chart , slip chart and Timeline
b) Slip chart , Gantt chart and Timeline
b) Timeline ,Slip chart and Gantt chart
d) None of the above

24. The earliest start time rule

A) Compares the activities starting time for an activity successor.
B) Compares the activities end time for an activity predecessor.
C) Directs when a project can start.
D) Regulates when a project must begin.

25. Activities A, B, and C are the immediate predecessors for Y activity. If the earliest finish
times for the three activities are 12, 15, and 10, then the earliest start time for Y will be
A) 10
B) 15
C) 12
D) Cannot be determined

26. Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to control change
without seriously impeding justifiable change?
a) Baselines
b) Source code
c) Data model
d) None of the mentioned

27. What complements the formal technical review by assessing a configuration object for
characteristics that are generally not considered during review?
a) Software configuration audit
b) Software configuration management
c) Baseline
d) None of the mentioned

28.According to the time estimates made by the PERT planners, the maximum time that would
be needed to complete an activity is called as __________
a) The most likely time estimate
b) Optimistic time estimate
c) Pessimistic time estimate
d) Expected time estimate

29. a)The difference between the maximum time available and the actual time needed to perform
an activity is known as _________and , b)In a network, a critical path is the time-wise shortest
path.
a) Free float,false
b) Independent float,false
c) Total float,false
d) Half float,false

30. If Late Finish is 30 days and duration is 10 days, calculate LS

a)300 days
b)100 days
c)20 months
d)20 days
 PANIMALAR INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY
DEPARTMENT OF INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY
IV YEAR
SOFTWARE PROJECT MANAGEMENT
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS
UNIT-1
1.Before requirements can be analyzed, modeled, or specified they must be gathered through a/an_______
(a)Elicitation process
(b)Interviewing
(c)Meeting
(d)None of given
Answer: a

2. Which of the following is not project management goal?

(a) Keeping overall costs within budget
(b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
(c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
(d) Avoiding customer complaints
Answer: d

3.The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
(a) Project Management
(b) Manager life cycle
(c) Project Management Life Cycle
(d) All of the mentioned
 Answer: c

4. The overall role of Software in a larger system is identified during

(a) Requirements engineering
(b) Process engineering
(c) System engineering
(d) All of given
Answer: c

5.The objective of _______________________ is to determine a specific value based on a predetermined discount rate.
(a)PERT
(b)ROI
(c) cost benefit analysis
(d) net present value
Answer: d
6. A unique, planned, scheduled activity with one or more objectives referred as
(a) Project
(b) Job
(c) Process
(d) Task
Answer: a

7. The Stepwise Project Planning has 0- steps

(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 8
(d) 11
ANSWE
R:B

8. Software systems are likely to be subject to a high degree of .

(a) performance
(b) change
(c) time
(d) strength
ANSWE
R:B
 9. In type of system, system interfaces with the machine.
(a) embedded
(b) stock control
(c) process control
(d)i
n
f
o
r
m
a
t
i
o
n
A
N
S
W
E
R
:
A

10. Projects may be distinguished by whether their aim is to produce a or meet certain
.
(a) product, objective
(b) product, tasks
(c) tasks, objective
(d)t
a
s
k
s
A
N
S
W
E
R
:
A

UNIT-2
1. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of
a software development project?
(a) travel and training costs
(b) hardware and software costs
(c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
(d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d

2. Many software projects digress from the original scope because of the nature of the software
product or technology used, it’s happened in ________
(a) Product scope changed toward the end of the project life cycle
(b) Research-oriented software development
(c) Defined scope
(d) Fuzzy users
Answer: b

3.When you build a product or system, it’s important to go through a series of predictable steps , the
process which you follow to develop it is known as________
(a)Software design
(b)Software process
(c)Software schedule
(d)Framework
Answer: b

4.Project has uncertainties on some functionalities at the beginning which will improve over time.
Which software development model is suitable?
(a) Waterfall
(b) Iterative
(c) Incremental
(d) None of the above
Answer: b

5.Object point method suited for

(a)Designing
(b)Coding
(c) Testing
(d) Estimation
Answer: d

6. Which one of the following is NOT an agile method?

A. SCRUM
B. Extreme Programming (XP)
C. DSDM
D. W
a
t
e
r
f
a
l
l
A
N
S
W
E
R
:
D

7.The first phase of waterfall model is .

a. analysis.
b. feasibility Study.
c. coding.
d. U
s
e
r
r
e
q
u
i
r
e
m
e
n
t
s
.
A
N
S
W
E
R
:
B

8. prototypes are used and discarded when the true development of the operational
system is commenced.
a.Evolutionary.
b.Throw away.
c.Operational.
d
.
R
e
a
l
.
A
N
S
W
E
R
:
B

9.Which are the two levels of development suggested by Booch?

a.Micro and Macro processes.
b.Inter and Intra processes.
c.Internal and External processes.
d
.
S
m
a
l
l
a
n
d
L
a
r
g
e
p
r
o
c
 e
s
s
e
s
.
A
N
S
W
E
R
:
A
10. is refined by Barry Boehm and his co-workers.
a.COCOMO III
b.COCOMO IV.
c.COCOMO II.
d
.
C
O
C
O
M
O
A
N
S
W
E
R
:
C

UNIT-3
1.What should be done by the project manager to ensure that all work in the project is included?
(a) Create a contingency plan
(b) Create a risk management plan
(c) Create a WBS
(d) Create a scope statement
Answer: c

2. What should a project manager do or follow to ensure clear boundaries for project completion?
(a) Scope verification
(b) Completing a scope statement
(c) scope definition
(d) Risk management plan
Answer: b
3.An organization is certified to a stringent environmental standard and uses that as the key
differentiator with its competitors. Alternative method is available but involves lot of risk. What
should the project team do?
(a) Drop the alternative approach
(b) Work out a mitigation plan
(c) Procure an insurance against the risk
(d) Plan all precautions to avoid the risk
Answer: a

4. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

(a) Specification delays
(b) Product competition
(c) Testing
(d) Staff turnover
Answer: c

5.Which of the following is the requirement management activity?

(a)construction and test
(b)Design
(c) Investigation
(d) All the above mentioned
Answer: d

6.A WBS numbering system allows project staff to

A. Systematically estimate costs of WBS elements
B. Provide project justification
C. Identify the level at which individual items are found
D. Use it in project management software
7.A project schedule is the of when things will happen in a project.
A. Specification B. Order
C. Group D. Activity
8.If the activity or task is represented on the node(boxes) it is known as
E. Activity on node Diagram B. Activity on Arrow Diagram
C. Task Diagram D. none of them
9.The provides a road map for a software project manager.
F. Project Cost B. Project Resources
C. Project Schedule D. Project Distribution

10.A task network, also called an activity network, is a of the

task flow for a project.
G. Slide Presentation B. Video
C. graphic representation D. Drawing

UNIT-4
1.Version control combines ______ to manage different versions of configuration objects that are
created during software product development.
(a) Procedure
(b) Tools
(c) Procedure and Tools
(d) None of given
Answer: c

2. Most software project manager’s practice a lot of management techniques that are of
doubtful authenticity are called
(a)Project management tools
(b)Project management myths
(c)Project management thumb rules
(d) Project management fundamentals
Answer: b

3.Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software
system?
(a)System Management
(b)Internship Management
(c ) Version Management
(d)Change Management
Answer:b
 4.What is the common metrics for correctness of software?
(a)Error
(b)Good documentation
(c) Defect
(d) LOC
Answer: c

5. ---------------------------------- is a sequence of processing steps that completely handles one

business transaction or customer request.
(a)Model
(b)WorkFlow
(c ) Prototype
(d)Mock up
Answer: b

6.To define all project tasks, build a network that depicts their
A. Interdependencies B. Arrangement
C. Position D. Work

7.Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways. These include

a) A single software configuration management team for the whole organization

b) A separate configuration management team for each project

c) Software Configuration Management distributed among the project members

d) All of the mentioned

Answer:A

8.What complements the formal technical review by assessing a configuration object for characteristics that
are generally not considered during review?

a) Software configuration audit

b) Software configuration management

c) Baseline

d) None of the mentioned

Answer:A
 9.Which of the following is the process of assembling program components, data, and libraries, and
then compiling and linking these to create an executable system?

a) System building

b) Release management

c) Change management

d) Version management

Answer:A

10.Which of the following option is not tracked by configuration management tools?

a) Tracking of change proposals

b) Storing versions of system components

c) Tracking the releases of system versions to customers

d) None of the mentioned

Answer:D

UNIT-5
1.Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same analogy application domain have
been completed?
(a) Algorithmic cost modelling
(b) Parkinson’s Law
(c ) Estimation by analogy
(d)Expert Judgement
Answer: c

2.Which of the following is the people intensive activity?

(a)Project Management
(b)Organization
(c) Motivation
(d)Problem solving
Answer: a

3.Who delivers the technical skills that are necessary to engineer a product or an application?
(a) practitioners
 (b) senior managers
(c ) project managers
(d) None
Answer: a

4.Project Manager is not responsible for

(a) Project delivery
(b) Integrator and coordinator
(c ) Project planning and controlling
(d)Business case approval
Answer: d

5.Requirements are refined and analysed to assess the clarity , completeness and --------------
(a)concurrency
(b)consistency
(c ) correctness
(d)None of the above
Answer: b
6.Algorithmic cost estimation in different organisations may be different for the same
application development, because

a) Different organisations consider complexity factors differently

b) Different organisations may use different programming languages

c) Developers’ skills may vary

d) Techniques for the measurement of productivity may vary

e) All of the above may be true.

Answer:E

7.Work that continues throughout the project and does not relate to any specific phase of software
development is termed a(n)

a) Milestone

b) Project function
 c) Activity

d) Task

e) Baseline.

Answer:B

8.In the classical chief programmer team approach, the team member responsible for maintaining the
detailed design and coding is

a) The chief programmer

b) The programming secretary

 c) A specialized function that exists outside ‘the team’

d) The individual coder (i.e. programmer)

e) The back-up programmer.

Answer:D

9. The organization as part of its monitoring and control policy may have a programme in place which dictates that certain statistics have to be collected at
various stages of a project.
a.measurement.
b.system.
c.software.
d.testing.
ANSWER:A

10. If the measurement taken by the two people are same refers to the terms as
E. Reliability
F. Validity
G. Calibration
 H. Ease of use and simplicity
ANSWER: A
 Dr.G.R.Damodaran College of Science
(Autonomous, affiliated to the Bharathiar University, recognized by the UGC)Re-accredited at the 'A' Grade Level by the NAAC and ISO
9001:2008 Certified
CRISL rated 'A' (TN) for MBA and MIB Programmes

II MCA (2018-2021 BATCH)

SEMESTER IV
CORE:SOFTWARE PROJECT MANAGEMENT-454A
Multiple Choice Questions.

1. A unique, planned, scheduled activity with one or more objectives referred as___
A. Project
B. Job
C. Process
D. Task
ANSWER: A

2. __________ formalizes acceptance and bnngs project to an orderly end.

A. planning.
B. closing process.
C. control process.
D. executing process.
ANSWER: B

3. The Stepwise Project Planning has 0-____ steps

A. 9
B. 10
C. 8
D. 11
ANSWER: B

4. Software systems are likely to be subject to a high degree of ________.

A. performance
B. change
C. time
D. strength
ANSWER: B
5. In ________ type of system, system interfaces with the machine.
A. embedded
B. stock control
C. process control
D. information
ANSWER: A

6. Projects may be distinguished by whether their aim is to produce a ________ or meet certain _______.
A. product, objective
B. product, tasks
C. tasks, objective
D. tasks and null objects
ANSWER: A

7. The first stage of the software project is a ________which results in a recommended course of action.
A. system driven project
B. software driven project
C. hardware driven project
D. objectives driven project
ANSWER: D

8. The second stage of software project is _________.

A. to create software product
B. to meet the objective
C. to make up resources
D. to close the project
ANSWER: C

9. In case of product-driven projects, the objectives of the project are defined in terms of ___________.
A. functional requirements only
B. resource and non-functional requirements
C. functional and quality requirements
D. resource requirements only
ANSWER: C

10. ________ defines what the end product of the project is to do.
A. product perspective.
B. Non-functional requirements.
C. Quality requirements.
D. Functional requirements.
ANSWER: D
11. ________ is a system analysis and design method designed primarily to provide functional requirements.
A. SSTD.
B. SADT.
C. SGTH.
D. STDH.
ANSWER: B

12. Quality requirements in requirement specification include__________.

A. response time.
B. ease of using the system.
C. reliability.
D. a, b and c.
ANSWER: D

13. _______ is record of how much the organization is willing to spend to the system
A. Resource requirements.
B. Functional requirements.
C. Security requirements.
D. Non-functional requirements.
ANSWER: A

14. Projects are by definition __________ and therefore more uncertain than normal undertakings.
A. routine
B. non-routine
C. specific
D. controllable
ANSWER: B

15. _________is tabular representation of the expected risks in a project

A. Risk Table
B. Assessment Table
C. Time Table
D. Round Table
ANSWER: A

16. CCTA stands for___________.

A. central commission of telecommunication agency.
B. central computing and telecommunication agency.
C. central computing and telecom agency.
D. an NGO.
ANSWER: B
17. __________ standards are needed so that various systems can communicate with each other.
A. Hardware.
B. Hardware and software.
C. Software.
D. Shareware
ANSWER: B

18. The organization as part of its monitoring and control policy may have a ________ programme in place which dictates that certain statistics have to be collected at
various stages of a project.
A. measurement.
B. system.
C. software.
D. testing.
ANSWER: A

19. The products handed over to the clients at the end of projects are called as __________.
A. software
B. application program
C. deliverables
D. intermediate products
ANSWER: C

20. __________ is the result of an activity.

A. Software.
B. System.
C. Control.
D. Product.
ANSWER: D

21. Product description contains___________.

A. name of the product
B. form of the product
C. quantity of the product
D. both a and b
ANSWER: D

22. The relationship between program design and program specification can be portrayed in _________.
A. PFD.
B. DFD.
C. PDF.
D. DDF.
ANSWER: A
23. Which one of the following is NOT an agile method?
A. SCRUM
B. Extreme Programming (XP)
C. DSDM
D. Waterfall
ANSWER: D

24. Same generic fragment relates to more than _________ instance of the particular type of the product.
A. one.
B. two.
C. three
D. four
ANSWER: A

25. _________ is the amount of work that needs to be done.

A. Effort.
B. Energy.
C. Capacity.
D. Strength.
ANSWER: A

26. Project planning is an _________ process.

A. continuous.
B. iterative.
C. time consuming.
D. conventional
ANSWER: B

27. In order to carry out a successful strategic assessment of a potential project there should be strategic plan clearly defining the organization's _________.
A. objectives.
B. rules.
C. conditions.
D. ideas.
ANSWER: A

28. The standard way of evaluating the economic benefits of any projects is to carry out a ________ analysis.
A. price-benefit.
B. cost-benefit.
C. cash flow.
D. fund flow.
ANSWER: B
29. The costs that include the salaries and other employment costs of the staff involved in the development project and all associated costs are____________.
A. operational cost.
B. development cost.
C. setup cost
D. direct cost.
ANSWER: B

30. Long term or benefits that are considered very difficult to quantify is called _______.
A. direct benefits.
B. assessable benefits.
C. indirect benefits.
D. intangible benefits.
ANSWER: D

31. _________ will indicate when expenditure and income will take place.
A. Cash flow forecast.
B. Cost analysis.
C. Fund flow.
D. Technical forecast.
ANSWER: A

32. _________ is the time taken to break even or pay back the initial investment.
A. Back period.
B. Payback period.
C. Cash back period.
D. Rate of Return.
ANSWER: B

33. Uncertainties are associated with ________.

A. products, processes and resources.
B. products, properties and resources
C. products, prosperities and resources.
D. products, processes and recoveries.
ANSWER: A

34. The availability of staff and experience will be under ___________.

A. process uncertainty.
B. product uncertainty.
C. resource uncertainty.
D. profit uncertainty.
ANSWER: C
35. Number of interrelated activities can be organized in different ways are called ______.
A. activity model.
B. network model.
C. hierarchical model.
D. process model.
ANSWER: D

36. RAD is _______.

A. Resource Application Development.
B. Resource Allocation Development.
C. Rapid Application Development.
D. Rapid Action Development.
ANSWER: C

37. JAD is _________.

A. J2EE Application Development.
B. J2ME Allocation Development.
C. J2SE Application Development.
D. Joint Action Development.
ANSWER: D

38. The alternate name for Waterfall model is _________.

A. two-shot.
B. phase shot.
C. three-phase.
D. one-shot.
ANSWER: D

39. The first phase of waterfall model is ____________.

A. analysis.
B. feasibility Study.
C. coding.
D. user requirements.
ANSWER: B

40. The spiral model is originated by __________.

A. B.W.Boehm.
B. B.W.Williams.
C. B.W.Britto.
D. B.W.Hackman.
ANSWER: A
41. An Elaboration of Waterfall which stresses the necessity for validation activities is known as __________.
A. extended Waterfall.
B. iterative Model.
C. V-Process model.
D. spiral Model.
ANSWER: C

42. ________prototypes are used and discarded when the true development of the operational system is commenced.
A. Evolutionary.
B. Throw away.
C. Operational.
D. Real.
ANSWER: B

43. ______ is as when copies of input screens are shown to the users on a workstation, but the screens cannot actually be used.
A. Simulation.
B. Annealing.
C. Mock-ups.
D. RAD system.
ANSWER: C

44. Partial working model is classified as __________.

A. vertical and horizontal.
B. vertical and straight.
C. bended and horizontal.
D. elevated and horizontal.
ANSWER: A

45. The scope of the deliverables for an increment is rigidly constrained by an agreed deadline called as ____________.
A. sand boxing.
B. time boxing.
C. time delaying.
D. local delaying.
ANSWER: B

46. ______ would mean the change can be implemented without software development.
A. One cost.
B. Total cost.
C. Zero cost.
D. No cost.
ANSWER: C
47. SSADM means ___________.
A. Straight Systems Analysis Design Method.
B. Structured Systems Analysis Design Method.
C. Software Systems Analysis Design Method.
D. Solutions Systems Analysis Design Method.
ANSWER: B

48. Frequent redesigns of the code is often called as ________.

A. refactoring.
B. redesigning.
C. recoding.
D. rearranging.
ANSWER: A

49. Which are the two levels of development suggested by Booch?

A. Micro and Macro processes.
B. Inter and Intra processes.
C. Internal and External processes.
D. Small and Large processes.
ANSWER: A

50. What is SLOC?

A. Secret Lines of Code.
B. Source Lines of Code.
C. Selected Lines of Code.
D. Suppressed Lines of Code.
ANSWER: B

51. Homogeneity refers to ______.

A. not similar.
B. similarity.
C. singleness.
D. house full.
ANSWER: B

52. "Work expands to fill the time available"is _________.

A. Brooks Law.
B. Peters Law.
C. Parkinson's Law.
D. Brokers Law.
ANSWER: C
53. The statement "Putting more people on a late job makes it later" is from _________.
A. Brooks Law.
B. Peters Law.
C. Parkinson's Law.
D. Brokers Law.
ANSWER: A

54. The statement "If a system does not have to reliable, it can meet any other objective" is from __________.
A. Brooks Law.
B. Peters Law.
C. Parkinson's first Law.
D. Weinberg's Zeroth Law.
ANSWER: D

55. KLOC indicates ___________.

A. hundred lines of code.
B. source lines of code.
C. thousand lines of code.
D. million lines of code.
ANSWER: C

56. Engineering practice to derive estimates of software development is called as ______.

A. algorithmic model.
B. software effort estimation technique.
C. software extra estimation technique.
D. Markov models.
ANSWER: B

57. The top-down approach is normally associated with _______ models.

A. process.
B. product.
C. effort.
D. parametric.
ANSWER: D

58. Effort = __________.

A. system size x productivity rate.
B. system size x KLOC.
C. person in months / SLOC.
D. person in months x productivity rate.
ANSWER: A
59. The estimator seeks out projects that have been completed and that have similar characteristics to the new project is called ____________.
A. code based reasoning.
B. case based reasoning.
C. case based analysis.
D. code based analysis.
ANSWER: B

60. UFP indicates ________.

A. unused function points.
B. unstructured function points.
C. uniform function points.
D. unadjusted function points.
ANSWER: D

61. Effort = c x sizek refers to.

A. parametric Design.
B. COCOMO model.
C. organic mode.
D. embedded Mode.
ANSWER: B

62. ________ is refined by Barry Boehm and his co-workers.

A. COCOMO III
B. COCOMO IV.
C. COCOMO II.
D. COCOMO I.
ANSWER: C

63. ________ the degree to which there is a large dispersed team as opposed to there being a small tightly knit team.
A. Small cohesion.
B. Team cohesion.
C. Process maturity.
D. Team maturity.
ANSWER: B

64. ______ is one of the objectives of activity planning.

A. Designing.
B. Detailed costing.
C. Cooperation.
D. Team work.
ANSWER: B
65. In _________the resources are not a constraint for each activity is.
A. resource planning.
B. schedule production.
C. ideal activity plan.
D. technical Plan
ANSWER: C

66. What is PFD?

A. Process Flow Diagram.
B. Product Flow Diagram.
C. Project Flow Diagram.
D. Procurement Flow Diagram.
ANSWER: B

67. PERT is _________.

A. Process Evaluation and Review Technique.
B. Product Evaluation and Review Technique.
C. Program Evaluation and Review Technique.
D. Project Evaluation and Review Technique.
ANSWER: C

68. CPM is an acronym for _______.

A. Control Path Method.
B. Critical Path Method.
C. Cohesion Path Method.
D. Control Path Model.
ANSWER: B

69. The activities have zero duration but are assumed to start at the same time as the first and the end at the same time as the last one is called__________.
A. hijacked activity.
B. heuristic activity.
C. hammocked activity.
D. hole activity.
ANSWER: C

70. ____ is carried out to calculate the earliest dates on which each activity may be started and completed.
A. Backward pass.
B. Forward pass.
C. No pass.
D. Increasing pass.
ANSWER: B
71. The time by which an activity may be delayed without affecting any subsequent activity is called _________.
A. action float.
B. terminal float.
C. free float
D. null float
ANSWER: C

72. The objective of ________ is to avoid or minimize the adverse effects of unforeseen events is called
A. risk management.
B. risk maintenance.
C. risk taking.
D. risky job.
ANSWER: A

73. A _________ is an event that might occur and if it occurs, create a problem for the successful completion of the project.
A. planning.
B. hazard.
C. safety.
D. start.
ANSWER: B

74. ________ = risk likelihood x risk impact.

A. Risk estimate.
B. Risk expenditure.
C. Risk identification
D. Risk exposure.
ANSWER: D

75. RRL is ________.

A. risk reduction leverage.
B. risk relax leverage.
C. risk reading letter.
D. risk resource letter.
ANSWER: A

76. WBS is known as

A. Wealth Breaking Scheme
B. Wealth Brokerage Scheme
C. Work Breakdown Structure
D. Work Breakup Structure
ANSWER: C
77. The impact of some risks can be transferred away from the project by _______.
A. risk analysis.
B. risk control.
C. risk transfer.
D. risk evaluation.
ANSWER: C

78. The shortest time in which we could expect to complete the activity, barring outright miracles called ________.
A. Optimistic Time
B. Pessimistic Time
C. Most Likely Time
D. Shortest Time
ANSWER: A

79. PERT combines three estimates of time and obtains a single expected duration is ____________.
A. te
B. tp
C. tm
D. ts
ANSWER: A

80. _________ is proportional to the difference between the optimistic and pessimistic estimates.
A. Activity Regression
B. Activity mean
C. Activity Standard Deviation
D. Activity Variance
ANSWER: C

81. The________ value in PERT is calculated for each node that has a target date.
A. x value.
B. y value.
C. t value.
D. z value.
ANSWER: D

82. _________ simulation is an alternate to PERT.

A. Morris mano.
B. Monte Carlo.
C. Markov.
D. Hidden Markov.
ANSWER: B
83. ___________ talks about how to match the activity plan to the available resources.
A. Risk management.
B. Allocation management.
C. Activity management.
D. Resource management
ANSWER: D

84. A ________ is any item or person required for the execution of the project.
A. risk.
B. allocation.
C. activity.
D. resource.
ANSWER: D

85. According to Bob Hughes and Mike Cotterell, resources fall into _______ categories.
A. five.
B. four.
C. seven.
D. two.
ANSWER: C

86. _______ is a secondary resource. .

A. Money.
B. Time.
C. Materials.
D. Labour
ANSWER: A

87. "Each activity has been scheduled to start at its earliest start date" is called as_________.
A. likelihood.
B. activity schedule.
C. probability.
D. planning.
ANSWER: A

88. In _________ activities are allocated resources in ascending order of total float.
A. total free priority.
B. total float priority.
C. technical float priority.
D. top float priority
ANSWER: B
89. ______ is the selection of individuals in which the final shape of the project team is taken into account
A. Independent building.
B. Construction building.
C. Team building.
D. Recruitment.
ANSWER: B

90. To know whether a particular individual is available when required is known as _____.
A. reliability.
B. consistency.
C. availability.
D. portability.
ANSWER: C

91. Activity plans can be illustrated using _______.

A. activity bar charts
B. activity pie charts.
C. activity ball charts
D. activity flow charts
ANSWER: A

92. _________ represents expenditure that an organization incurs, which cannot be directly related.
A. Under head
B. Over head.
C. Top head.
D. Miscellaneous expenses
ANSWER: B

93. Cost schedule of an activity plan is represented by _________.

A. ascending steps.
B. descending steps.
C. sequence of steps.
D. reverse steps
ANSWER: C

94. ________ is the group to ensure the satisfactory progress of a project.

A. Product board.
B. Purpose board.
C. Project board.
D. Perfect board.
ANSWER: C
95. Check points of a project plan must be _____.
A. regular.
B. irregular.
C. random
D. fixed.
ANSWER: A

96. _______ is an activity bar chart indicating scheduled activity dates and durations frequently augmented with activity floats. .
A. Bar chart.
B. Ball chart.
C. Slip Chart.
D. Gantt chart
ANSWER: D

97. Gantt charts, Slip chars and Ball charts are under ___________ process.
A. monitoring.
B. verification.
C. control.
D. visualization.
ANSWER: D

98. _______ is the method of recording and displaying the way in which targets have changed throughout the duration of the project.
A. Gantt chart.
B. Bar chart.
C. Timeline.
D. Schedule.
ANSWER: C

99. The total value credited to a project at any point is known as _______.
A. earned value.
B. moral value.
C. money value.
D. recurred value
ANSWER: A

100. The priorities we might apply in deciding levels in monitoring is called as ______.
A. deciding monitoring.
B. monitoring.
C. tracking.
D. prioritized monitoring.
ANSWER: D
101. Risk management will occur in the step ____________ of step wise planning.
A. 7
B. 8
C. 6
D. 4
ANSWER: C

102. __________ relates to the physical resources used when the software is executed.
A. Functionality.
B. Maintainability.
C. Reliability.
D. Efficiency.
ANSWER: D

103. Deployment diagrams illustrate the ________ view of the system.

A. static.
B. dynamic.
C. behavioural.
D. activities.
ANSWER: A

104. A _________ is a container-like element for organizing other elements into groups.
A. classes.
B. adornments.
C. packages.
D. activities.
ANSWER: C

105. ________ are denoted by a hollow-diamond adornment on the association.

A. Associations.
B. Constants.
C. Messages.
D. Aggregations.
ANSWER: D

106. _________ indicates the range of items in association relationships.

A. Multiplicity.
B. Adornments.
C. Roles.
D. Instructors.
ANSWER: A
107. Generalization/Specialization is implemented in Object Oriented Programming as ______.
A. polymorphism.
B. inheritance.
C. overloading.
D. abstract.
ANSWER: B

108. ___________ are building a software product.

A. Acquirere.
B. Developers.
C. Independent evaluators.
D. All the above.
ANSWER: B

109. An ______ is a named property of a class that describes the object being modeled.
A. method.
B. constant.
C. message.
D. attribute.
ANSWER: B

110. A Class symbol in UML has ___ chambers.

A. 4.
B. 2.
C. 5.
D. 3.
ANSWER: D

111. _______ is a description of a set of objects that share the same attributes,operations, relationships, and semantics.
A. Object.
B. Class.
C. Process.
D. Instance
ANSWER: B

112. _______ will divide the domain of the task hierarchy in activity diagrams.
A. Swim lane.
B. Activity.
C. Interface.
D. Split.
ANSWER: A
113. _______ is the task/process which describes the way in which the actor interact the system.
A. Class.
B. Flow.
C. Object.
D. Use case.
ANSWER: D

114. Informing to the developer which bug to be fix first is called as

A. Severity
B. Priority
C. Fix ability
D. Traceability
ANSWER: B

115. A metric used to measure the characteristic of documentation and code called as
A. Process metric
B. Product Metric
C. Test metrics
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B

116. What are the Types of Integration Testing?

A. Big Bang Testing
B. Bottom Up Testing
C. Top Down Testing
D. All the above
ANSWER: D

117. Component Level is implemented using ________ software tools.

A. client.
B. server.
C. middleware.
D. peer.
ANSWER: C

118. Software testing which is done without planning and Documentation is known as
A. adHoc Testing
B. Unit Testing
C. Regression testing
D. Functional testing.
ANSWER: A
119. This type of testing method attempts to find incorrect or missing functions, errors in data structures or external database access, interface errors, Performance errors
and initialization and Termination errors. It is called as
A. White Box Testing
B. Grey Box Testing
C. Black Box Testing
D. Open Box Testing
ANSWER: C

120. Retesting of a single program or component after a change has been made?
A. Full Regression Testing
B. Unit Regression
C. Regional Regression
D. Retesting
ANSWER: B

121. Defects are less costly if detected in which of the following phases
A. Coding
B. Design
C. Requirements Gathering
D. Implementation
ANSWER: C

122. User Acceptance testing is

A. White box testing
B. Black box testing
C. Gray box testing
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B

123. Error guessing is a

A. Test verification techniques
B. Test execution techniques
C. Test control management techniques
D. Test data management technique
ANSWER: D

124. Histogram refers to

A. Bar chart
B. Run chart
C. Pareto diagram
D. Correlation diagram
 ANSWER: A

125. Pareto principle advocates

A. 20-80 rule
B. 80-20 rule
C. 40-60 rule
D. 60-40 rule
ANSWER: B

126. Which one is not Structural Testing?

A. Regression
B. Parallel
C. Acceptance
D. Stress
ANSWER: C

127. Testing comes under which category of cost of quality?

A. Preventive.
B. Appraisal
C. Failure.
D. None of the above.
ANSWER: B

128. Which of the following is not true about Incremental testing?

A. Top-Down approach can be used
B. Use of stubs or drivers are required
C. All modules need to be completed prior to testing
D. Bottom up approach is also possible
ANSWER: C

129. Which of the following is not a part of test plan?

A. Scope
B. Mission
C. Objective
D. Risk
ANSWER: B

130. Which one is not Statistical Tool?

A. Cause and effect Graphing
B. Stratification
C. Run Chart
D. Regression Analysis
 ANSWER: A

131. The 'V' represent the following term:

A. Verification and validation
B. Static testing and Dynamic testing
C. Black box testing and white box testing
D. Software development process and software testing process
ANSWER: D

132. Function point is a measure of

A. Effort
B. Complexity
C. Usability
D. Size
ANSWER: D

133. You are told to prepare a report on the most commonly occurring product defects. You review the software defect reports, which categories the defects of coding
errors, requirement errors, documentation errors, etc. The best tool to report this information is
A. A histogram
B. A pareto diagram
C. A cause and effect diagram
D. A scatter plot
ANSWER: A

134. A statistical technique to assess, monitor and maintain the stability of a process is
A. Pareto chart
B. Control chart
C. Run chart
D. Histogram
ANSWER: B

135. The following are incremental testing approaches_____.

A. Top-down approach
B. Bottom-up approach
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
ANSWER: C

136. If the measurement taken by the two people are same refers to the terms as
A. Reliability
B. Validity
C. Calibration
 D. Ease of use and simplicity
ANSWER: A

137. Test Readiness review is conducted by the

A. Project manager
B. Test manager
C. Quality assurance personnel
D. User/Customer
ANSWER: B

138. To which phase will training cost fall?

A. Failure
B. Prevention
C. Build
D. Appraisal
ANSWER: B

139. You are performing a test to see that it complies with the user requirement that a certain field be populated by using a drop down box containing a list of values.
What kind of testing are you doing?
A. White box testing
B. Black box testing
C. Load testing
D. Regression testing
ANSWER: B

140. Which is the reputed testing standard?

A. M Bridge awards
B. QAI
C. ISO
D. Microsoft
ANSWER: C

141. The approach/document used to make sure all the requirements are covered when writing test cases
A. Test Matrix
B. Checklist
C. Test bed
D. Traceablity Matrix
ANSWER: D

142. Executing the same test case by giving the number of inputs on same build called as
A. Regression Testing
B. ReTesting
 C. Ad hoc Testing
D. Sanity Testing
ANSWER: B

143. To check whether we are developing the right product according to the customer requirements are not. It is a static process
A. Validation
B. Verification
C. Quality Assurance
D. Quality Control
ANSWER: B

144. To check whether we have developed the product according to the customer requirements r not. It is a Dynamic process.
A. Validation
B. Verification
C. Quality Assurance
D. Quality Control
ANSWER: A

145. It is a set of levels that defines a testing maturity hieraechy

A. TIM (Testing Improving Model)
B. TMM (Testing Maturity Model)
C. TQM(Total Quality Management)
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B

146. A Non-Functional Software testing done to check if the user interface is easy to use and understand
A. Usability Testing
B. Security Testing
C. Unit testing
D. Block Box Testing
ANSWER: A

147. It measures the quality of processes used to create a quality product. It is a system of management activities, It is a preventive process, It applies for entire life cycle
& Deals with Process.
A. Validation
B. Verification
C. Quality Assurance
D. Quality Control
ANSWER: C

148. Variance from product specifications is called?

A. Report
 B. Requirement
C. Defect
D. None of the above
ANSWER: C

149. White box testing is not called as___________

A. Glass box testing
B. Closed box testing
C. Open box testing
D. Clear box testing
ANSWER: B

150. Name the events that will be analyzed, Count the named incidents, Rank the count by frequency using a bar chart & Validate reasonableness of the analysis is called
as
A. Pareto Analysis
B. Cause and Effect Diagram
C. SWOT Analysis
D. Pie Charts
ANSWER: A

Staff Name
Sujatha S .
MG6088 Software Project Management Department of IT/CSE 2019- 2020

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is not project management goal?

a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints

2. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True
b) False

3. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

a) Specification delays
b) Product competition
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover

4. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned

5. A 66.6% risk is considered as

a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high

6. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the
costs of a software development project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) all of the above

7. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

a) team
b) project

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology 1

MG6088 Software Project Management Department of IT/CSE 2019- 2020

c) customers
d) project manager
8. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a
software system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management

9. Identify the sub-process of process improvement

a) Process introduction
b) Process analysis
c) De-processification
d) Process distribution

10. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be measured and
the external quality attribute.
a) True
b) False

11. In designing a system it is found that the cost of the system was Rs 1,50,000 and the
benefit is Rs 10,000 per month. The interest is 1% per month; the payback period using
the present value method is
a) 14 months
b) 17 months
c) 15 months
d) 20 months

12. Pick the indirect cost from the following

a) cost of new forms
b) cost of training analysts and users
c) cost of software to be brought
d) cost of fact gathering

13. A cost benefit analysis consists of

(i) finding the direct and indirect cost of developing, implementing and running
the system
(ii) finding out the tangible and intangible benefit of the system
(iii)finding the investment to be made in the system
(iv)finding the profit which will accrue from the system
a) iii and iv

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology 2

MG6088 Software Project Management Department of IT/CSE 2019- 2020

b) i and iv
c) ii and iii
d) i and ii

14. Goals should be agreeable to

a) top management
b) project leader
c) all concerned, both management and operational staff
d) programmers

15. A unique, planned, scheduled activity with one or more objectives referred as
a) Project
b) Job
c) Process
d) Task

16. The first stage of the software project is a which results in a recommended
course of action.
a) system driven project
b) software driven project
c) hardware driven project
d) objectives driven project

17. Which one is the result of an activity.

a) Software.
b) System.
c) Control.
d) Product

18. Project planning is an process.

a) continuous.
b) iterative.
c) time consuming.
d) Conventional

19. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where
the software is being developed?
a) People risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology 3

MG6088 Software Project Management Department of IT/CSE 2019- 2020

20. Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced?
a) Avoidance strategies
b) Minimization strategies
c) Contingency plans
d) All of the mentioned

21. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: ―There will be a change
of organizational management with different priorities.‖?
a) Staff turnover
b) Technology change
c) Management change
d) Product competition

22. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn
more about the risk?
a) Risk monitoring
b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis
d) Risk identification

23. In what order do managers typically perform the managerial functions?

a) organising, planning, controlling, leading
b) organising, leading, planning, controlling
c) planning, organising, leading, controlling
d) planning, organising, controlling, leading

24. Management exists at the level of the organization.

a) Lower
b) Middle
c) Top
d) All of the above

25. Positive motivation makes people willing to do their work in the best way they can and
improve their.
a) Productivity
b) Personality
c) Performance
d) All of the above
26. Return on investment(ROI) is calculated by
a) (Average Annual Profit*total investment)/100
b) (Average annual profit*100)/total investment

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology 4

MG6088 Software Project Management Department of IT/CSE 2019- 2020

c) (100*Total investment)/Average annual profit

d) (1000*Total investment)/Average annual profit

27. In the abbrevation of SMART what does the letter M stands for
a) Marketing
b) Measurable
c) Milestone
d) Management

28. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager

29. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned

30. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a
software system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management

31. The rapid application development model is

a) Another name for component-based development.
b) A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly.
c) A high speed adaption of the linear sequential model.
d) All of the above.

32. The waterfall model of software development is

a) A good approach when a working program is required quickly.
b) The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
c) An old fashioned model that is rarely used any more.

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology 5

MG6088 Software Project Management Department of IT/CSE 2019- 2020

d) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.

33. The incremental model of software development is

a) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.
b) A good approach when a working core product is required quickly.
c) The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
d) A revolutionary model that is not used for commercial products.

34. Evolutionary software process models

a) Are iterative in nature.
b) Can easily accommodate product requirements change
c) Do not generally produce throwaway systems.
d) All of the above.

35. Which of the following traits need to exist among the members of an agile software team?
a) Competence
b) Decision-making ability
c) Mutual trust and respect
d) All of the above

36. The prototyping model of software development is

a) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.
b) A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly.
c) The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
d) A risky model that rarely produces a meaningful product.

37. The spiral model of software development

a) Ends with the delivery of the software product.
b) Is more chaotic than the incremental model.
c) Includes project risks evaluation during each iteration.
d) All of the above

38. The formal methods model of software development makes use of mathematical methods
to
a) Define the specification for computer-based systems.
b) Develop defect free computer-based systems.
c) Verify the correctness of computer-based systems.
d) All of the above.

39. The component-based development model is

a) Only appropriate for computer hardware design
b) Not able to support the development of reusable components.
c) Dependent on object technologies for support.

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology 6

MG6088 Software Project Management Department of IT/CSE 2019- 2020

d) Not cost effective by known quantifiable software metrics

40. Agile modeling (AM) provides guidance to practitioner during which of these software
tasks?
a) Analysis and Design
b) Design and Coding
c) Coding and Testing
d) Testing and Maintenance

41. Which of the following is not necessary to apply agility to a software process?
a) Eliminate the use of project planning and testing
b) Only essential work products are produced
c) Process allows team to streamline tasks
d) Uses incremental product delivery strategy

42. What are the four framework activities found in the Extremen Programming (XP) process
model?
a) Analysis, design, coding, testing
b) Planning, analysis, design, coding
c) Planning, analysis, coding, testing
d) Planning, design, coding, testing

43. Which is not one of the key questions that is answered by each member at each daily
Scrum meeting?
a) What did you do since the last meeting?
b) What obstacles are you creating?
c) What is the cause of the problem you are encountering?
d) What do you plan to accomplish be the next team meeting?

44. Which of the following is delivered at the end of the Sprint?

a) A document containing test cases for the current sprint
b) An architectural design of the solution
c) An increment of Done software
d) Wireframes designed for User interface

45. When is a Sprint Retrospective ceremony performed?

a) At the end of each sprint
b) Whenever needed
c) Whenever the Scrum master suggests
d) Whenever the team suggests

46. When can a Sprint be cancelled?

a) Sprint can never be cancelled

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology 7

MG6088 Software Project Management Department of IT/CSE 2019- 2020

b) Whenever the product owner says

c) When development is unable to complete the work
d) The sprint items are no longer needed

47. What is a sprint review?

a) Activity to Introspect and Adapt
b) Activity to improve Scrum process
c) Activity to seek approval for the work done
d) Activity to plan for the release

48. The objective of software project planning is to

a) Convince the customer that a project is feasible
b) Make use of historical project data
c) Enable a manager to make reasonable estimates of cost and schedule.
d) Determine the profitable profit margin prior to bidding on a project.

49. Software feasibility is based on which of the following

a) Business and marketing concerns
b) Scope, constraints, market
c) Technology, finance, time, resources
d) Technical prowess of the developers

50. Problem based estimation is based on problem decomposition which focuses on

a) Process activities
b) Information domain values and software functions
c) Project schedule
d) Software functions

51. LOC-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on

a) Information domain values
b) Project schedule
c) Software functions
d) Process activities

52. FP-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on

a) Information domain values
b) Project schedule
c) Software functions
d) Process activities

53. Process-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on

a) Information domain values
b) Project schedule

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology 8

MG6088 Software Project Management Department of IT/CSE 2019- 2020

c) Software functions
d) Software functions and process activities

54. In which estimation software size should be known?

a) Time estimation
b) Effort estimation
c) Cost estimation
d) Software size estimation

55. Empirical estimation models are typically based on

a) Expert judgement based on past project experiences
b) Refinement of expected value estimation
c) Regression models derived from historical project data.
d) Trial and error determination of the parameters and coefficients

56. Which of the following is/ are main parameters that you should use when computing the
costs of a software development project?
a) Travel and training costs
b) Hardware and software costs
c) Effort costs
d) All of the above

57. COCOMO stands for

a) Constructive cost model
b) Comprehensive cost model
c) Constructive cost estimation model
d) Complete cost estimation model

58. COCOMO was developed initially by

a) B.Beizer
b) Rajiv Gupta
c) B.W.Bohem
d) Gregg Rothermal

59. COCOMO II is an example of a suite of modern empirical estimation models that

require sizing information expressed as
a) Function points
b) Lines of code
c) Object points
d) Any of the above

60. Which one is not a stage of COCOMO II?

a) Early design estimation model

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology 9

MG6088 Software Project Management Department of IT/CSE 2019- 2020

b) Application composition estimation model

c) Comprehensive cost estimation model
d) Post architecture estimation model

61. Resources refers to

a) Manpower
b) Machinery
c) Materials
d) All of the above

62. Which of the following is not an approach to identify the activities that make up a project
a) The activity-based approach,
b) The product-based approach
c) The non- hybrid approach.
d) The process-based approach

63. PERT analysis is based on

a) optimistic time
b) pessimistic time
c) most likely time
d) all the above.

64. Which of the option is not a notable challenge while scheduling a project?
a) Deadlines exist.
b) Independent activities.
c) Too many workers may be required.
d) Costly delay

65. The particular task performance in CPM is known

a) Dummy
b) Event
c) Activity
d) Contract.

66. The earliest start time rule

a) Compares the activities starting time for an activity successor.
b) Compares the activities end time for an activity predecessor.
c) Directs when a project can start.
d) Regulates when a project must begin.

67. The critical path

a) Is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node
b) Is a mixture of all paths.
c) Is the longest path

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology 10

MG6088 Software Project Management Department of IT/CSE 2019- 2020

d) Is the shortest path

68. Activities A, B, and C are the immediate predecessors for Y activity. If the earliest finish
times for the three activities are 12, 15, and 10, then the earliest start time for Y will be
a) 10
b) 15
c) 12
d) Cannot be determined

69. Activities P, Q and R instantly follow activity M, and their current start times are 12, 19,
and 10. Therefore, the latest finish time for activity M is
a) 11
b) 10
c) 18
d) Cannot be determined

70. Completion of a CPM network diagram activity is commonly known

a) Connector
b) Event
c) Node
d) All the above.

71. While scheduling a project by C.P.M.

a) A project is divided into various activities
b) Required time for each activity is established
c) A sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
d) All the above.

72. A process of specifying the time for when each activity should take place
a) Scheduling
b) Sequencing
c) Activity Plan
d) Project Plan

73. .The event of the project becoming completed refers

a) Sink node
b) Source node
c) Intermediate node
d) Main mode

74. The activities and inter relationship as a graph represents

a) Network Model
b) Bar Chart

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology 11

MG6088 Software Project Management Department of IT/CSE 2019- 2020

c) Activity Model
d) Pie Chart

75. The difference between total float and free float is

a) Independent Float
b) Interfering Float
c) Network Float
d) Activity Float

76. The difference between the earliest date and latest date for an event is
a) Free Float
b) Total Float
c) Slack
d) Float

77. Activity-on-Arrow Networks are also called

a) Arrow Diagramming Method
b) Critical Path Method
c) Precedence Diagramming Method
d) Activity-on-node

78. Two types of networks diagrams are

a) AOA and AON
b) Arrow Diagramming Method and AoA
c) Precedence Diagramming Method and AoN
d) CPM and PERT

79. An event that might occur and will create a problem for the successful completion of the
project, if it does occur.
a) Risks
b) Project Failure
c) Hazards
d) Threat

80. WBS Stands for

a) Wide Breakdown System
b) Work Breakdown Structure
c) World Breakdown Structure
d) Work Breakdown System

81. Free float is a term in

a) Stock Loading
b) Stock Trading

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology 12

MG6088 Software Project Management Department of IT/CSE 2019- 2020

c) Stock Holding
d) Stock Maintenance

82. PERT stands for

a) Process Elimination reforce Technique
b) Program Elimination Review Technique
c) Program Evaluation Review Technique
d) Program Estimation and Reporting Technique

83. The three different approaches to identifying the activities are

a) Activity,Product,Hybrid
b) Affair,Process,Hybrid
c) Task,Product,Hybrid
d) Project,Process,Hybrid

84. Five levels of WBS

a) Project,Deliverables,Components,Work,Tasks
b) Process,Plan,Compound,Project,Tasks
c) Process,Delay,Components,Stock,Work
d) Project,Deliverables,Stock,Work,Planning

85. To calculate the earliest dates

a) Forward Pass
b) Backward Pass
c) Start Method
d) Read Method

86. Risk Assessment formula

a) Potential Damage*Probablility of Occurrence
b) Probability*loss
c) Probability*gain
d) Damage*gain Probability

87. .Free Float

a) Total float-Free Float
b) Total Float-Head Event Slack
c) Total Float-Stack
d) Slack-Float

88. .Dangle Activity is

a) Tight Activity
b) Loose Activity
c) Open Activity

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology 13

MG6088 Software Project Management Department of IT/CSE 2019- 2020

d) Close Activity

89. Using feasibility analysis it is necessary to examine several alternative solutions because
(i) a comparison of alternatives will lead to a cost-effective solution
(ii) a pre-conceived single solution may turn out to be unimplementable
(iii)it is always good to examine alternatives
(iv) management normally looks at alternatives
a) i and iii
b) i and iv
c) i and ii
d) ii and iv

90. To crash a schedule you should:

a) Increase the time allowed on those tasks that have float.
b) Try to increase expenditures of time only those tasks that are behind schedule.
c) Replace those worker that are not performing up to par with the busy.
d) Increase work efforts on those tasks that are on the critical path.

91. Resource requirement in project becomes constant while the project is in its
progress stage.
a) 40 to 55%
b) 55 to 70%
c) 70 to 80%
d) 80 to 95%

92. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True
b) False

93. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the
costs of a software development project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) All of the mentioned

94. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a
software system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management

95. Identify the sub-process of process improvement

a) Process introduction
b) Process analysis

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology 14

MG6088 Software Project Management Department of IT/CSE 2019- 2020

c) De-processification
d) Process distribution

96. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be measured and
the external quality attribute.
a) True
b) False

97. Cost Variance is which of the following equations?

a) CV=BCWP-BCWS
b) CV=BCWP-ACWP
c) CV=SV/BCWS
d) A and C

98. Which of the following is a direct project cost?

a) Lighting and heating for the corporate office
b) Workers Compensation insurance
c) Piping for an irrigation Project
d) A and B

99. The BCWS=$250,the ACWP=$350,and the BCWP=$200.Calculate the cost variance.

a) -$150
b) $150
c) -$50
d) $50

100. One of the types of cost estimation is order of Magnitude.This estimate:

a) is performed when detailed information is available
b) is used in the beginning of the project conceptualization.
c) Uses mostly information from past projects
d) is used in the ending of the project.

101. Internal costs include

a) Developers salaries
b) Managers and support personnel salaries
c) The cost of overheads such as utilities, rent and senior managers
d)Materials (such as manuals) and services such as travel
e) All of the above.

102. If a control switch is passed as an argument this is an example of coupling.

a) Content
b) Common
c) Control
d) Stamp
e) Data.

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology 15

MG6088 Software Project Management Department of IT/CSE 2019- 2020

103. Which of these are valid software configuration items?

a) Case tools
b) Documentation
c) Executable programs
d) test data
e) All the Above

104. Which of the following is not considered one of the four important elements that should
exist when a configuration management system is developed?
a) Component elements
b) human elements
c) process elements
d) Validation elements

105. Which configuration objects would not typically be found in the project database?
a) design specification
b) marketing data
c) Organizational structure Description
d) test plans
e) b and c

106. A data repository meta model is used to determine how

a) information is stored in the respository
b) well data integrity can be maintained
c) easily the existing model can be extended
d) all the above

107. Which of the following task is not part of software configuration management?
a) Change control
b) reporting
c) Statistical quality control
d) Version control

108. Change management for web and mobile Apps is best handled in agile manner.
a) True
b) False

109. Content management establishes a process which web content is rendered on the user’s
display screen
a) True
b) False

110. The primary purpose of configuration status reporting is to

a) allow revision of project schedule and cost estimates by project managers
b) make sure that change information is communicated to all affected parties
c) Both A and B
d) None of the Above

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology 16

MG6088 Software Project Management Department of IT/CSE 2019- 2020

111. When software configuration management is a formal activity the software

configuration audit is conducted by the
a) Development team
b) Senior managers
c) testing Specialists
d) Quality assurance group

112. Change control is not necessary if a development group is making use of an automated
project database tool
a) True
b) False

113. The following costs are not part of the total effort cost
a) Costs of lunch time food
b) Costs of providing heating
c) Costs of networking
d) Costs of support

114. A is developed using historical cost information that relates some software
metric to the project cost.
a) Estimation by analogy
b) Parkinson’s Law
c) Algorithmic cost modeling
d) Expert judgement

115. Which of the following is a requirement management activity?

a) Construction and test
b) Design
c) Investigation
d) All of the mentioned

116. An estimation technique measure the size of the functionality to be

developed.
a) A.Analogy
b) B.Function point
c) C.WBS
d) D.Floating Point

117. If Task A to complete,it takes 10 days of human effort.It started 5 days earlier to the
scheduled date and completed on 35th day.Then,the float value
a) A.20
b) B.25
c) C.10
d) D.15

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology 17

MG6088 Software Project Management Department of IT/CSE 2019- 2020

118. Earned value Formula

a) percentage Pending*Total cost
b) Percentage Completed*Budget
c) Percentage Completed*Initial investment
d) Percentage Pending*Initial investment

119. Contract management is made with

a) Customer
b) Vendors
c) Partners
d) Employees
e) All the above

120. A unit of measurement to express the amount of business funactionality an information

system provides to a user
a) Functional Point
b) Control Point
c) Checkpoint
d) Cost trade

121. What are the concerns in Managing People in Software Environments?

a) Staff Selection
b) Staff Development
c) Staff Motivation
d) Well-being Staff during course of project
e) All the above

122. Which of the following is not included in Hackman and Oldham’s job characteristics model
of work motivation?
a) Variety of skill
b) Significance of the task
c) Quality of job life
d) Autonomy

123. Organisational behavior is

a) A science
b) An art
c) A science as well as an art
d) None of the above

124. The field of organisational behaviour examines such questions as the nature of leadership,
effective team development, and
a) Interpersonal conflict resolution; motivation of individuals
b) Organisational control; conflict management
c) Motivation of individuals; planning
d) Planning; development

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology 18

MG6088 Software Project Management Department of IT/CSE 2019- 2020

125. The field of organisational behavior is primarily concerned with

a) The behaviour of individual and groups.
b) How resources are effectively managed.
c) Control processes and interactions between organizations, external context.
d) Both a and c.

126. The study of organisation behaviour has certain basic assumptions. They are
a) An industrial enterprise is an organization of people.
b) These people must be motivated to work effectively.
c) The goals of the employee and the employer may not necessarily coincide.
d) All of the above.

127. Which of the following represents correct sequencing of historical developments of

Organizational Behaviour?
a) Industrial revolution —> Scientific management –> Human relations
movement –> OB
b) Industrial revolution —> Human relations movement —> Scientific management
–> OB
c) Scientific management —> Human relations movement –> Industrial revolution
–> OB
d) None of these.

128. Which of the following is not correct for the organisational behaviour?
a) Organisational behaviour is an integral part of management
b) Organisational behaviour is a disciplinary approach
c) Organisational behaviour helps in analysis of behavior
d) Organisational behaviour is goal-oriented

129. The is based on the environment. Though like thinking,

expectations and perception do exist, and they are not needed to manage or predict
behaviour.
a) Behaviouristic approach, Cognitive processes,
b) cognitive processes, behaviouristic approach
c) Social cognitive, behaviouristic approach
d) Cognitive processes, social cognitive

130. Now a days a lot of stress is being put on the of the employee in the
organization
a) Character
b) improvement
c) Behaviour
d) Rewards

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology 19

MG6088 Software Project Management Department of IT/CSE 2019- 2020

131. The purpose of job enrichment is to

a) expand the number of tasks an individual can do
b) increase job efficiency
c) increase job effectiveness
d) increase job satisfaction of middle management

132. Which of the following is not an example of Content Theory?

a) Maslow Theory
b) Herzberg’s Theory
c) Expectancy theory
d) Alderfer’s ERG theory

133. theory emphasis that, Unsatisfied need can influence the behaviour
satisfied one will not act as a motivator.
a) Maslow Theory
b) Herzberg’s Theory
c) Expectancy theory
d) Alderfer’s ERG theory

134. Among the following which is not a problem in changing the attitude of the employee
a) Insufficient Information
b) Resistant by employee
c) Cognitive Dissonance
d) Cognitive Dissonance

135. Motivation includes

a) job enrichment
b) Job rotation
c) Job enlargement
d) all of the above

136. The statement ―I don’t feel comfortable in crowd‖ is an example of

component of attitude.
a) Behavioral
b) Cognitive
c) Affective
d) Positive

137. The statement ―I am going to apologies for my mistake‖ is an example of

component of attitude.
a) Behavioral
b) Cognitive
c) Affective
d) Positive

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology 20

MG6088 Software Project Management Department of IT/CSE 2019- 2020

138. In which stage of the team development process does hostility and infighting occur?
a) storming
b) forming
c) norming
d) performing

139. What is the final stage of the team development process?

a) forming
b) storming
c) adjourning
d) performing

140. Which of the following best defines the type of rewards that are distributed toindividuals
for their unique contribution to the team?
a) functional team rewards
b) competitive team rewards
c) cooperative team rewards
d) non-competitive team rewards

141. Which of the following is not a type of team?

a) teams that recommend things
b) teams that organize things
c) teams that make or do things
d) teams that run things

142. What is the ideal size of a team in order for it to be productive and successful?
a) 2 to 4
b) 9 to 12
c) 5 to 8
d) 8 to 11

143. Which of the following best defines an organization where decision making authority is at
the top of the organization and employees have little freedom to make their own decisions?
a) decentralized organization
b) centralized organization
c) virtual organization
d) functional organization

144. Which type of structure is also referred to as a team structure?

a) virtual structure
b) matrix structure
c) horizontal structure
d) staff structure

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology 21

MG6088 Software Project Management Department of IT/CSE 2019- 2020

145. Which of the following best describes functions that are advisory and supportive in nature;
designed to contribute to the efficiency and maintenance of theorganization?
a) line functions
b) organizational functions
c) matrix functions
d) staff functions

146. Organizations put maximum effort in measuring performance of organizational people

because;
a) It makes procedures cost effective
b) It helps in detecting the problems
c) It leads to product innovation
d) It assists in implementing new technology

147. The S in the acronym for SMART goals stands for

a) specific
b) straightforward
c) strategic
d) source

148. A problem(s) with management by objectives is (are) that it can:

a) Be time consuming.
b) Result in immeasurable objectives.
c) 1 and 2
d) None of the above.

149. On her work team Michelle develops detailed tasks lists and work flow charts to help her
team members understand the steps involved in each project. She also maintains the project
calendar and receives periodic updates from each team member to ensure that projects are
progressing on schedule. Which role does Michelle most likely fill on her team?
a) assessor
b) organizer
c) maintainer
d) creator

150. Coasting on the group effort is termed .

a) inconsistency
b) incompetence
c) social loafing
d) dysfunction

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology 22

MG6088 Software Project Management

MG6088 SOFTWARE PROJECT MANAGEMENT

Topic

Unit I MCQ Questions with Answers

Unit II MCQ Questions with Answers

Unit III MCQ Questions with Answers

Unit IV MCQ Questions with Answers

Unit V MCQ Questions with Answers

Additional All Unit MCQ Questions with Answers

1
MG6088 Software Project Management
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

UNIT 1

1. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True
b) False

2. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

a) Specification delays
b) Product competition
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover

3. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned

4. A 66.6% risk is considered as

a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high

5. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing
the costs of a software development project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) all of the above

6. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

a) team
b) project

2
MG6088 Software Project
Management
c) customers
d) project manager
7. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of
a software system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management

8. Identify the sub-process of process improvement

a) Process introduction
b) Process analysis
c) De-processification
d) Process distribution

9. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be measured
and the external quality attribute.
a) True
b) False

10. In designing a system it is found that the cost of the system was Rs 1,50,000 and the
benefit is Rs 10,000 per month. The interest is 1% per month; the payback period
using the present value method is
a) 14 months
b) 17 months
c) 15 months
d) 20 months

11. Pick the indirect cost from the following

a) cost of new forms
b) cost of training analysts and users
c) cost of software to be brought
d) cost of fact gathering

12. A cost benefit analysis consists of

(i) finding the direct and indirect cost of developing, implementing and
running the system
(ii) finding out the tangible and intangible benefit of the
system (iii)finding the investment to be made in the system
(iv)finding the profit which will accrue from the system

3
MG6088 Software Project
Management

a) iii and iv
b) i and iv
c) ii and iii
d) i and ii

13. Goals should be agreeable to

a) top management
b) project leader
c) all concerned, both management and operational staff
d) programmers

14. A unique, planned, scheduled activity with one or more objectives referred as
a) Project
b) Job
c) Process
d) Task

15. The first stage of the software project is a which results in a

recommended course of action.
a) system driven project
b) software driven project
c) hardware driven project
d) objectives driven project

16. Which one is the result of an activity.

a) Software.
b) System.
c) Control.
d) Product

17. Project planning is an process.

a) continuous.
b) iterative.
c) time consuming.
d) Conventional

18. A project is a Endeavor.

A. Temporary B. Good
C. Bad D. None of them
19. Project creates Product or services.
A. Reusable B. Unique
4
MG6088 Software Project
Management C. Common D. None of them
20. Which one is not a example of project?
a) Launching new Product
b) Developing a new product or service
c) marketing campaign for a new product
d) watching a movie
21. Effective software project management focuses on four P's which are
a) people, performance, payoff, product
b) people, product, performance, process
c) people, product, process, project
d) People ,process ,Payoff, Product
22. A project is considered successful when:
a) The product of the project has been manufactured.
b) The project sponsor announces the completion of the project.
c) The product of the project is turned over to the operations area to handle the
ongoing aspects of the project.
d) The project meets or exceeds the expectations of the stakeholders.
23. Which of these software characteristics are used to determine the scope of a
software project?
a) context, lines of code, function
b) context, function, communication requirements
c) information objectives, function, performance
d) communications requirements, performance, information objectives
24. Which of the following brings together a set of tools and techniques used to describe,
organize, and monitor the work of project activities?
a) Project managers B. Guide to the PMBOK
C. Project management D. Stakeholders

25. What are the triple constraints?

a) Time, schedules, and quality B. Time, availability, and quality
C. Time, money, and schedules D. Time, money, and quality

26. Projects have predetermined

a) Time Span B. Budget
C. none of them D. Both A and B
27. Feasibility is carried out in
a) Initiation phase B. Definition Phase
C. Design phase D. Development phase
28. Which of the following principles of project management defines and controls the
functions that are to be included in the system?
a) Project Quality Management B. Project Cost management
C. Project time Management D. Project Scope Management

5
MG6088 Software Project
Management
29. Which of the following are Project Management processes?
a) Planning and develop processes
b) Analyzing and evaluate processes
c) Planning and executing processes
d) None of them
30. Your project statement tells you what must be done, how it must be
done.
a) assumption B. resource
C. scope D. constraint and objectives or specifications to be met

UNIT II
1) ___________ is a method of splitting of software development work into distinct phases (or
stages) containing activities with the intent of better planning and management.
a) software development methodology
b) artifacts
c) process
d) phase
2) The software development methodology may include the predefinition of _____ and ____ that
are created.
a)model, process
b)deliverables,artifacts
c)planning,management
3) ______, ______ and ______ are the three basic approaches applied to software development
methodology frameworks.
a) Framework, process,planning
b) Prototyping,waterfall,spiral
c) Methodology, framework,management
4) Each of the methodology frameworks are best suited to specific kinds of projects, based on
technical, organizational, project and team considerations.
a) Process,cost,benefit
b) Selecting,implementing,monitoring
c) Technical,organizational,project
5) Software development organizations implement --------- to ease the process of development.
a) Cost-benefit analysis
b) Process methodologies
c) Framework planning
6) The international standard for describing the method of selecting, implementing and monitoring
the life cycle for software is ---------------.
a) ISO/IEC 12207
b) ISO/IEC 12307
c) ISO/IEC 12107

6
MG6088 Software Project
Management
7) Large numbers of software projects do not meet their expectations in terms of ------, -------, or -----
-- schedule.
a) functionality, cost, delivery
b) cost,benefit,planning
c) framework, management, methodology
8) Organizations may create a _________, which is the focal point for process improvement.
a) Software Engineering Process Group (SEPG)
b) Plan
c) Model
9) A major part of the _________ will be the choosing of the development methods to be used and
the slotting of these into an overall process model.
a) Planning
b) Framework
c) Model
10) --------------- is a general term used to refer to alternatives to the conventional waterfall model of
software development.
a) Rapid application development (RAD)
b) Waterfall model
c) Framework model
11) RAD approaches to software development put less emphasis on ………… and more emphasis on
…………..
a) Planning, process.
b) Process,planning
c) Framework,model
12) RAD approaches emphasize ________ in response to knowledge gained as the project progresses.
a) adaptability
b) scalability
c) reliability
13) Graphical user interface builders are often called __________ tools.
a) rapid application development
b) process development
c) framework development

14) The James Martin approach to RAD divides the process into four distinct phases such as _____,
_____,_____ and _____
a) Requirements planning, User design, Construction, Cutover
b) Process,planning,framework,model
c) Cost,benefit,planning,analysis
15) _______ phasecombines elements of the system planning and systems analysis phases of the
Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC).
a) Requirements planning
b) User design
c) Construction
d) Cutover

7
MG6088 Software Project
Management
16) The RAD groups or subgroups typically use a combination of _____ techniques and ______ to
translate user needs into working models.
a) Joint Application Development, CASE tools
b) Cost,benefit
c) Process,model
d) Framework,process
17) ________ is a continuous interactive process that allows users to understand, modify, and
eventually approve a working model of the system that meets their needs.
a) User Design
b) Adaptability
c) Feasibility
d) Scalability
18) ________ phase focuses on program and application development task similar to the SDLC.
a) Construction
b) User Design
c) Requirement
d) Analysis
19) ______ is an advantage of RAD model
a) Risk control
b) Adaptability
c) Scalability
d) Feasibility
20) The _______ model emphasizes on the fact that entire team should be a tightly integrated unit.
a) Agile
b) Process
c) Project
d) Framework
21) Deliveries are short-term and these are usually a delivery cycle ranges from one week to four
weeks. These are commonly known as _____
a) Sprints
b) Frameworks
c) Processes
d) Models
22) Agile Project Management does not _____
a) Enhance the tool and practices used in the development process
b) Facilitate and encourage effective and open communication within the team.
c) hold agile meetings that discusses the short-term plans and plans to overcome obstacles.
d) involve in technical decision making or deriving the product strategy.
23) _____________is a software development methodology which is intended to improve software
quality and responsiveness to changing customer requirements.
a) Extreme programming (XP)
b) Waterfall model
c) Spiral model

8
MG6088 Software Project
Management
24) _________ are the elements of extreme programming
a) extensive code review
b) unit testing of all code
c) flat management structure
d) all of these
25) _____ is the process of finding an estimate, or approximation, which is a value that can be used
for some purpose even if input data may be incomplete, uncertain, or unstable.
a) Estimation
b) Planning
c) Framework
d) Programming
26) Estimation is based on
a) Past Data/Past Experience
b) Available Documents/Knowledge
c) Assumptions
d) All of these
27) The Project Estimation Approach that is widely used is_________
a) Decomposition Technique
b) Waterfall model
c) Spiral model
28) Important factors that affect the accuracy of estimates are_________
a) input data
b) estimate calculation
c) predictability
d) all of these
29) Guidelines in estimating a project include _________
a) Include management time in any estimate.
b) Always build in contingency for problem solving
c) Allow enough time to do a proper project estimate.
d) All of these
30) _________, __________ and ____________ are the three function point counts.
a) Development, Application, Enhancement
b) Waterfall,spiral,process
c) Framework,planning,cost
31) _________ and ______ are the types of data function
a) Internal Logical File, External Interface File
b) Process, Data
c) Framework, Model
32) ______________ is an Elementary Process that sends data or control information outside the
application’s boundary.
a) External Output (EO)
b) Dataflow
c) Process Framework

9
MG6088 Software Project
Management
33) The ___________ method is an internationally standardized software sizing method.
a) COSMIC
b) Waterfall
c) Spiral
34) ______, _________ and __________ are performed in a stepwise manner by breaking down a
Project into major Functions or related Software Engineering Activities.
a) Size, Effort ,Cost estimation
b) Framework, process,planning
c) Cost,benefit,process analysis
35) _________ can provide a historical perspective and valuable input for generation of quantitative
estimates.
a) Analysis
b) Requirement
c) Project metrics

UNIT III
1. A combination of interrelated activities and events depicted with arcs and nodes is known as
a) Listing
b) Node sorting
c) Team management
d) Network
2. Networks usually indicate activity precedence constructed from
a) Left to right
b) Right to left
c) Bottom to up
d) Up to bottom

3. PMIS stands for

a) Project Management Information System
b) Project Management Integrated System
c) Project Management Inline System
d) Project Management Input System
4. An activity that can be conducted at a normal pace or at an expedited pace, known as
a) Delinking
b) Coupling
c) Crashing
d) Event

5. The amount of resources of each kind that are to be assigned to a specific activity in a certain time
period is
a) Resource leveling
b) Resource prioritizing
c) Resource loading
d) Resource generation
10
MG6088 Software Project
Management
6. Deciding how to approach and plan the risk management activities for a project is known as
a) Risk identification
b) Risk analysis
c) Risk management planning
d) Risk response

7. Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a

a) Client
b) Investor
c) Production team
d) Project manager

8. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected?
a) Product risk
b) Project risk
c) Business risk
d) Programming risk

9. Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced?
a) Avoidance strategies
b) Minimization strategies
c) Contingency plans
d) All of the mentioned

10. Risk management is now recognized as one of the most important project management tasks.
a) True
b) False

11. Which of the following is not one of the guiding principles of software project scheduling
a) Compartmentalization
b) Market assessment
c) Time allocation
d) Effort validation
12. The software equation can be used to show that by extending the project deadline slightly
a) Fewer people are required
b) You are guaranteed to meet the deadline
c) More lines of code can be produced
d) None of the above
13. The 40-20-40 rule suggests that the least of amount of development effort be spent on
a) Estimation and planning
b) Analysis and design
c) Coding
d) Testing

11
MG6088 Software Project
Management
14. A task is a collection of
a) Engineering work tasks,milestones,deliverables
b) Task assignments,cost estimates, metrics
c) Milestones, deliverables, metrics
d) Responsibilities , milestones ,documents
15. Tasks that lie on the critical path in a task network may be completed in any order as long as the
project is on the schedule
a) True
b) False
16. Two tools for computing critical path and project completion times from activity networks are
a) CPM,DRE
b) CPM,PERT
c) CPM,FP
d) FP,PERT

17. Which of the following is the reason that software is delivered late?
a) Changing customer requirements that are not reflected in schedule changes
b) Technical difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance
c) Human difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance
d) All of the mentioned

18. Which of the following is an activity that distributes estimated effort across the planned project
duration by allocating the effort to specific software engineering tasks?
a) Software Macroscopic schedule
b) Software Project scheduling
c) Software Detailed schedule
d) None of the mentioned

19. What is a collection of software engineering work tasks, milestones, and deliverables that must be
accomplished to complete a particular project?
a) Task set
b) Degree of milestone
c) Adaptation criteria
d) All of the mentioned

20. Ensuring that no more than the allocated number of people are allocated at any given time in
Software Scheduling is known as
a) Time Allocation
b) Effort Validation
c) Defined Milestone
d) Effort Distribution

21. What is used to determine the recommended degree of rigor with which the software process should
be applied on a project?
a) Degree of Rigor
b) Adaptation criteria

12
MG6088 Software Project
Management
c) Task Set
d) Both degree of Rigor and adaptation criteria

22. What evaluates the risk associated with the technology to be implemented as part of project scope?
a) Concept scoping
b) Preliminary concept planning
c) Technology risk assessment
d) Customer reaction to the concept

23. Which of the following is a project scheduling method that can be applied to software development?
a) PERT
b) CPM
c) CMM
d) Both PERT and CPM

24. What is the recommended distribution of effort for a project?

a) 40-20-40
b) 50-20-30
c) 30-40-30
d) 50-30-20

25. A project usually has a timeline chart which was developed by

a) Henry Gantt
b) Barry Boehm
c) Ivar Jacabson
d) None of the mentioned

26. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about
the risk?
a) Risk monitoring
b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis
d) Risk identification

27. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software is
being developed?
a) People risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks

28. Which of the option is not a notable challenge while scheduling a project?
A) Deadlines exist.
B) Independent activities.
C) Too many workers may be required.
D) Costly delay
13
MG6088 Software Project
Management

29. PERT analysis is based on

A. Optimistic time
B. Pessimistic time
C. Most likely time
D. All the above.

30. The particular task performance in CPM is known

A. Dummy
B. Event
C. Activity
D. Contract.
31. The earliest start time rule
A) Compares the activities starting time for an activity successor.
B) Compares the activities end time for an activity predecessor.
C) Directs when a project can start.
D) Regulates when a project must begin.

32. The critical path

A) Is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node
B) Is a mixture of all paths.
C) Is the longest path
D) Is the shortest path

33. While scheduling a project by CPM

A. A project is divided into various activities
B. Required time for each activity is established
C. A sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
D. All the above.

34. The project manager meets with the project team to review lessons learned from previous projects. In
what activity is the team involved?
A) Performance management
B) Scope identification
C) Risk identification
D) Project team status meeting

35. All of the following are ALWAYS inputs to the risk management process EXCEPT:
14
MG6088 Software Project
Management
A) Historical information
B) Lessons learned
C)Work breakdown structure
D)Project status reports

36. Risk tolerance is determined in order to help:

a) The team ranks the project risks.

b) The project manager estimates the project.
c) The team schedules the project.
d) Management knows how other managers will act on the project.

37. During which risk management process is a determination to transfer a risk made?

a) Identify Risks
b) Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
c) Plan Risk Response
d) Monitor and Control Risks
38. If a risk has a 20 percent chance of happening in a given month, and the project is expected to last five
months, what is the probability that the risk event will occur during the fourth month of the project?

a) Less than 1 percent

b) 20 percent
c) 60 percent
d) 80 percent
39.A 66.6% risk is considered as
a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high

40. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of a
software development project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) All of the mentioned

15
MG6088 Software Project
Management
UNIT IV
1.Which of the following is example of multi-variable cost estimation model?
A.COCOMO
B.intermediate COCOMO
C.both
D.None

2.Which of the following technique overcomes the drawbacks of expert judgement technique?
A.Heuristic technique
B.Delphi cost esttimation
C.Basis COCOMO
D.only a & b

3.Resource allocation is done using

A.PERT chart
B.Gantt chart
C.UML
D.pi-chart

4.Which chart representation is suitable for project monitoring and control?

A.PERT chart
B.Gantt chart
C.THETA chart
D.All of the above

5.This technique decompose a given task set recursively into small activities?
A.Sotware Configuration Management
B.Configuration indentification
C.Work breakdown Structure
D.both a & c

6. The ways in Which a software development organisation can be structured.

A.functional formation
B.project format
C.both
D.None

7. Which of the following activity is undertaken immediately after feasibility study and before the
requirement analysis and specification phase?
A.Project Planning
B.Project Monitoring
C.Project Control
D.Project Scheduling

8.In the project planning, which of the following is considered as the most basic parameter based
on which all other estimates are made?
A.project size
B.project effort
16
MG6088 Software Project
Management
C.project duration
D.project schedule

9. To define all project tasks, build a network that depicts their ________________
A. Interdependencies B. Arrangement
C. Position D. Work

10. Software project scheduling is an activity that distributes ________________ across the
planned project duration.
A. Resource B. Time
C. Estimated effort D. Money

11. UCP means __________________

A. You case points
B. use case preference
C. use case perfect
D. Use Case Points

12. A task network, also called an activity network, is a _________________ of the task flow for a
project.
A. Slide Presentation B. Video
C. graphic representation D. Drawing

13. Full form of WBS is

A. With both system
B. work breakdown structure
C. Without break structure
D. Work bound system

14. Road map for a software project manager.

A. Project Cost
B. Project Resources
C. Project Schedule
D. Project Distribution

15.Which of the following serves as metrics for project size estimation?

A.Lines of codes
B.function point
C.Number of persons
D.Only A & B

16. ________ combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process.
a. Configuration status reporting.
b. Change control
c. Version control
d. None of the above

17. What is the main aim of Software Configuration Management (SCM)?

17
MG6088 Software Project
Management
a. Identify change
b. Control change
c. Ensure that change is being properly implemented
d. All of the above

18. What is the name of process which will ensure that different versions of system and its
components are recorded and maintained?
a. workspace
b. code control
c. versions
d. Configuration Control

19. Which of the following tasks is not part of Software Configuration Management (SCM)?
a. Change control
b. Version control
c. Configuration status reporting
d. None of the above

20. To pass an Exam, a candidate has to score minimum of 50 marks in order to clear the exam.
The maximum that he can score is 100 marks. Identify the Valid Equivalence values if the student
passes the exam.
a. 50, 58, 75
b. 49, 50, 51
c. 52, 60, 99
d. 0, 15, 50

21. Which of the following values for age are in the same Equivalence Partition?
- If you are less than 18, you are too young to be registered for program.
- Between 18 and 50 inclusive, you will receive a 20% discount.
- Anyone over 50 is not eligible for a discount.

a. 17, 18, 19
b. 51, 52, 53
c. 18, 49, 50
d. 17, 49, 51

22. Which of the following is / are the output of the Software Process?
a. Computer programs
b. Documents that describe the computer programs.
c. Data (contained within the program or external to it).
d. All of the above

23. Which of the following is / are Software Configuration items?

a. Software Requirements
b. Design Specification
c. Source Code
18
MG6088 Software Project
Management
d. All of the above

24. Which of the following is / are types of Software Maintenance?

a. Corrective
b. Adaptive
c. Perfective
d. All of the above

25. As the reliability increases, failure intensity _____.

a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. No effect
d. None of the above

26. _______ combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process.

a. Configuration status reporting.

b. Change control
c. Version control
d. None of the above

27. _______ is a Software Configuration Management concept that helps us to control

change.

a. Baseline
b. Procedure
c. Audit
d. None of the above

28. What is the name of process which will ensure that different versions of system and its
components are recorded and maintained?

a. workspace
b. code control
c. versions
d. Configuration Control

29. Which of the following tasks is not part of Software Configuration Management (SCM)?
a. Change control
b. Version control
c. Configuration status reporting
d. None of the above

19
MG6088 Software Project
Management
30. If the Earned Value is equal to Actual Cost, it means

a. Schedule Variance Index is 1

b.There is no schedule variance
c.There is no cost variance
d. Project is on budget and on schedule

31. Identify the sub-process of process improvement

a. Process distribution
b. De-processification
c. Process introduction
d. Process analysis

32. Which of the following types of Organizational Charts can be BEST used to track project
costs:
a. Hierarchical type Organizational Chart
b. Organizational Breakdown Structure
c. Resource Breakdown Structure
d. Responsibility Assignment Matrix

33. What kind of quality cost is incurred when an error is detected in a product prior to shipment?
a. Internal Failure
b. Prevention
c. Appraisal
d. External Failure

34. Ensuring that no more than the allocated number of people are allocated at any given time in
Software Scheduling is known as
a. Time Allocation
b. Defined Milestone
c. Effort Validation
d. Effort Distribution

35. Which of the following is not an effective software project management focus?
a. popularity
b. process
c. product
d. people

36. Which of the following is not Software project management goal?

a. Avoiding customer complaints
b. Keeping overall costs within budget
c. Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
d. Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time

20
MG6088 Software Project
Management
37. David’s project metrics says that his project has SPI of .83 and CPI of 1.3. How can David’s
Project status BEST described?
a. Project is behind schedule and over budget
b. Project is behind schedule and under budget
c. Project is ahead of schedule and over budget
d. Project is ahead of schedule and under budget

38. A new project manager in your company is asked to make a report for a project where the
work is performed at the budgeted rate. He asks for your help and provide these values to you
BAC = $ 35,000, Earned value (EV) = $25,000, planned value (PV) = $24,000 and actual cost
(AC) = $ 28,000. What is the value of Estimate At Completion (EAC) ?
a. $ 38,000
b. $ 24,000
c. $ 37,000
d. $ 36,000

39. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management?
a. Version management
b. Change management
c. Internship management
d. System management

40. If the budget at completion is £19,000 and CPI is 1.86 what is Estimate at Completion EAC
a. £13500
b. £12,400
c. £13000
d. £10,215

UNIT V
3 intrinsic motivation refers to
(a)interest or enjoyment in the task itself
(b)Create a jobholderprofile
(c)ExamineCVsInterviews
(d)Valence Expectancy

4. What are the two factors about a job?

(a)Skill variety
(b)Task Significance
(c)Motivators Hygiene
(d)Task Identity

5 What are the three variables introduced by Vroom?

(a)Set specific goals Provide
(b)feedback
(c) Consider job design
(d)Valence Expectancy

21
MG6088 Software Project
Management
6 What are the factors that made the job meaningful?
(a) Intrinsic motivation
(b) Extrinsic motivation
(c) Skill Variety and Task Identity
(d)hygiene

7 Define Stress.
(a)psychological demands on a person such that an unusual
(b) out-of-the-ordinary response occurs.
(c) The circumstance – the stressor- can be a final exam, a financial problem, or a difficult
boss.
(d) all of the above

8.What are the two measures used to enhance job design?

a)Set specific
(b)Jobenlargement and job enrichment
(c)feedback
(d)Consider job design

9.What are stages to become a team?

(a)Forming Storming Norming Performing Adjourning
(b)Set specific goals
(c) Provide feedback
(d)Consider job design

10.Define risky shift.

(a)People in groups often make decisions
(b)People in groups often not make decisions
(c) People make decisions
(d)People not make decisions

11.Define leadership.
(a)Leadership is the ability to influence others
(b)Leadership is the ability not to influence other
(c )Leadership is the ability to order other
(d)Leadership is the ability not to order other

12.What is masslow’s hierarchy needs?

(a) used for achieving organization objectives
(b used for achieving their own objectives
(c) used for achieving management objectives
(d) used for achieving worker objectives

13.what is the other name for organizational stress.

(a)white-collar stressors

22
MG6088 Software Project
Management
(b)worker’s collar stressors.
(c )blue-collar stressors
(d)black-collar stressors

14.Role conflict-occurs when role demands areinconflict

(a)Intra sender conflict
(b)Intra senderconflict,IntersenderConflict,Inter role conflict
(c) Inter role conflict
(d)Intrasender conflict and inter role conflict

15.The most common organizational stressors are failure.

(a)in role sending

(b)in role sending
(c) in role-sending and role-taking
(d)sending and taking

16.What are the factors to be considered in the Oldham-Hackman job characteristic

model?
(a)skill variety and Task Variety
(b)Task Variety
( c) skill variety
(d)work variety

17.what is Skill variety

(a)2 (or) 3 of the offerings available
(b)1 (or) 3 of the offerings available
(c)1 (or) 2 of the offerings available
(d)1 (or) more of the offerings available

18. What is start-to-start relationship (SS)?

(a)It means that two activity can start if and only another activity starts
(b)It means that three activity can start if and only another activity starts
(c) It means that one activity can start if and only another activity starts
(d)It means that four activity can start if and only another activity starts

19.what are the uses of Nominal group techniques?

(a)Creative decision making
(b)Ideas generating situation
(c) Problem solving
(d)All the above

20.Define Acceptance.
(a)to demonstrate that the expected quality has not achieved.
(b)to demonstrate that the expected quality has not been achieved.
23
MG6088 Software Project
Management
( c)to demonstrate that the expected quantity has been achieved.
( d)to demonstrate that the expected quantity has been not achieved.

21.Write down four selection criteria for SCM tools.

(a)Multi user support ,Scalability,Easyto setup ,Processmanagement
(b)Creative, decision making,Problem solving ,Scalability
(c) decision making,Problem solving ,Scalability,Creative
(d) Intra sender conflict ,Intra senderconflict,Interroleconflict,Intra role
conflict.

22.What is Herzberg’s two factor theory.

(a)customers and suppliers
(b)Hygiene or maintenance factors ,Motivators
(c) satisfaction and quality
(d)reliability and scalability

23.Write the basic objectives of organizational structure .

(a)Functional
(b),Projected,
(c) Matrix
(d)All of the above

24.What do you understand by virtual team?

(a) group of individuals work across time and space.
(b)group of team work
(c )group of individuals work
(d)group of team and individuals work

25.Mention the important causes of stress encountered in projects.

(a)Unrealistic timeline
(b)Lack of resources – human and/orequipment
(c) Proliferation of virtual teams and cross culturalinfluences
(d)All of the above

26.Motivation is the word derived from the

(a)word ’motive’
(b)word ‘needs’,
(c) word ‘desires’,
(d)All of the above

27.In the work goal context the psychological factors stimulating the people’s behaviour can be
-
(a)desire formoney
(b)success
24
MG6088 Software Project
Management
(c) recognition
(d)All of the above

28.Risk mitigation strategies

(a) risk avoidance

(b) risk factor
(c) risk level
(d) risk strategie

29.Mention the methods of improving motivation.

(a)Set specific tasks, provide feedback,don’t consider job design
(b)Set specific tasks, provide feedback, and consider job design
(c) Set specific tasks,don’t provide feedback, and consider job design
(e) provide feedback, and consider job design

30.Mention some mental obstacles to good decision making.

(a)behavior, 
b sunk cost, risk propensity,
(c )behavior, sunk cost, risk propensity, risk perception,
d)behavior, sunk cost, risk propensity

31.what are the measures to reduce the disadvantage of group Decision making?
(a)The cooperation of a number of experts
(b) The problem is presented to the experts.
(c) The experts record their recommendations.
(d)All of the above

32.What are the functions of leader?

(a)Goal-setter
b)team leader
(c )team coordinator
(d)team head

33.Which is not leadership styles?

(a)Directive autocrat
(b)directive democrat
(c) Management Styles Permissive Democrat
(d)team leader

34.List out the five process of Project Management Institute

(a)Initiating Scheduling Executing Controlling Closing
(b)Initiating Planning Executing Composing Closing
(c)Initiating Planning Executing Controlling Closing
25
MG6088 Software Project
Management
(d))Initiating Planning Executing Controlling Catching

35.Where is bespoke system is used.

(a)United Kingdom
(b)United nation
(c )United States of America
(d)United world

36.In the U.S., bespokesoftware

(a) is often called Supplier custom-designed software.
(b)is often called customer custom-designed software.
(c) is often called customer designed software.
(d)is often called customer custom-delivered software.

37.List out the categories of decisions.

(a)Planning Control Maintenance
b)Planning Control Mitigate
cPlanning Cancel Maintenance
dPushing Control Maintenance

Select the five basic stages of development.
(a)Defining the product Documenting plan
(b)Defining the product Documenting plan Estimating cost Estimating effort
(c)Defining the product Estimating effort
(d)Defining the product

39.Which is not the stages of team formation model.

(a)Forming-
(b) Asset Management
(c) performing
(d) maintaining

40.List out the methods for improving motivation.

(a)Set specific tasks
(b)provide feedback
(C)Consider job design
(d)all of the above


26
MG6088 Software Project
Management

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

31. Which of the following is not project management goal?
a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints

32. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment
where the software is being developed?
a) People risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks

33. Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced?
a) Avoidance strategies
b) Minimization strategies
c) Contingency plans
d) All of the mentioned

34. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: ―There will be a
change of organizational management with different priorities.‖?
a) Staff turnover
b) Technology change
c) Management change
d) Product competition

35. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you
learn more about the risk?
a) Risk monitoring
b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis
d) Risk identification

36. In what order do managers typically perform the managerial functions?

a) organising, planning, controlling, leading

27
MG6088 Software Project
Management
b) organising, leading, planning, controlling
c) planning, organising, leading, controlling
d) planning, organising, controlling, leading

37. Management exists at the level of the organization.

a) Lower
b) Middle
c) Top
d) All of the above

38. Positive motivation makes people willing to do their work in the best way they can
and improve their.
a) Productivity
b) Personality
c) Performance
d) All of the above
39. Return on investment(ROI) is calculated by
a) (Average Annual Profit*total investment)/100
b) (Average annual profit*100)/total investment
c) (100*Total investment)/Average annual profit
d) (1000*Total investment)/Average annual profit

40. In the abbrevation of SMART what does the letter M stands for
a) Marketing
b) Measurable
c) Milestone
d) Management

41. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager

42. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned

28
MG6088 Software Project
Management

43. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of
a software system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management

44. The rapid application development model is

a) Another name for component-based development.
b) A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly.
c) A high speed adaption of the linear sequential model.
d) All of the above.

45. The waterfall model of software development is

a) A good approach when a working program is required quickly.
b) The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
c) An old fashioned model that is rarely used any more.
d) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.

46. The incremental model of software development is

a) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.
b) A good approach when a working core product is required quickly.
c) The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
d) A revolutionary model that is not used for commercial products.

47. Evolutionary software process models

a) Are iterative in nature.
b) Can easily accommodate product requirements change
c) Do not generally produce throwaway systems.
d) All of the above.

48. Which of the following traits need to exist among the members of an agile software team?
a) Competence
b) Decision-making ability
c) Mutual trust and respect
d) All of the above

49. The prototyping model of software development is

a) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.
b) A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly.
c) The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
d) A risky model that rarely produces a meaningful product.
29
MG6088 Software Project
Management

50. The spiral model of software development

a) Ends with the delivery of the software product.
b) Is more chaotic than the incremental model.
c) Includes project risks evaluation during each iteration.
d) All of the above

51. The formal methods model of software development makes use of mathematical
methods to
a) Define the specification for computer-based systems.
b) Develop defect free computer-based systems.
c) Verify the correctness of computer-based systems.
d) All of the above.

52. The component-based development model is

a) Only appropriate for computer hardware design
b) Not able to support the development of reusable components.
c) Dependent on object technologies for support.
d) Not cost effective by known quantifiable software metrics

53. Agile modeling (AM) provides guidance to practitioner during which of these
software tasks?
a) Analysis and Design
b) Design and Coding
c) Coding and Testing
d) Testing and Maintenance

54. Which of the following is not necessary to apply agility to a software process?
a) Eliminate the use of project planning and testing
b) Only essential work products are produced
c) Process allows team to streamline tasks
d) Uses incremental product delivery strategy

55. What are the four framework activities found in the Extremen Programming (XP)
process model?
a) Analysis, design, coding, testing
b) Planning, analysis, design, coding
c) Planning, analysis, coding, testing
d) Planning, design, coding, testing

56. Which is not one of the key questions that is answered by each member at each
daily Scrum meeting?
a) What did you do since the last meeting?
b) What obstacles are you creating?
30
MG6088 Software Project
Management
c) What is the cause of the problem you are encountering?
d) What do you plan to accomplish be the next team meeting?

57. Which of the following is delivered at the end of the Sprint?

a) A document containing test cases for the current sprint
b) An architectural design of the solution
c) An increment of Done software
d) Wireframes designed for User interface

58. When is a Sprint Retrospective ceremony performed?

a) At the end of each sprint
b) Whenever needed
c) Whenever the Scrum master suggests
d) Whenever the team suggests

59. When can a Sprint be cancelled?

a) Sprint can never be cancelled
b) Whenever the product owner says
c) When development is unable to complete the work
d) The sprint items are no longer needed

60. What is a sprint review?

a) Activity to Introspect and Adapt
b) Activity to improve Scrum process
c) Activity to seek approval for the work done
d) Activity to plan for the release

61. The objective of software project planning is to

a) Convince the customer that a project is feasible
b) Make use of historical project data
c) Enable a manager to make reasonable estimates of cost and schedule.
d) Determine the profitable profit margin prior to bidding on a project.

62. Software feasibility is based on which of the following

a) Business and marketing concerns
b) Scope, constraints, market
c) Technology, finance, time, resources
d) Technical prowess of the developers

63. Problem based estimation is based on problem decomposition which focuses on

a) Process activities
b) Information domain values and software functions
c) Project schedule
d) Software functions
31
MG6088 Software Project
Management

64. LOC-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on

a) Information domain values
b) Project schedule
c) Software functions
d) Process activities

65. FP-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on

a) Information domain values
b) Project schedule
c) Software functions
d) Process activities

66. Process-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on

a) Information domain values
b) Project schedule
c) Software functions
d) Software functions and process activities

67. In which estimation software size should be known?

a) Time estimation
b) Effort estimation
c) Cost estimation
d) Software size estimation

68. Empirical estimation models are typically based on

a) Expert judgement based on past project experiences
b) Refinement of expected value estimation
c) Regression models derived from historical project data.
d) Trial and error determination of the parameters and coefficients

69. Which of the following is/ are main parameters that you should use when computing
the costs of a software development project?
a) Travel and training costs
b) Hardware and software costs
c) Effort costs
d) All of the above

70. COCOMO stands for

a) Constructive cost model
b) Comprehensive cost model
c) Constructive cost estimation model
d) Complete cost estimation model

32
MG6088 Software Project
Management
71. COCOMO was developed initially by
a) B.Beizer
b) Rajiv Gupta
c) B.W.Bohem
d) Gregg Rothermal

72. COCOMO II is an example of a suite of modern empirical estimation models that

require sizing information expressed as
a) Function points
b) Lines of code
c) Object points
d) Any of the above

73. Which one is not a stage of COCOMO II?

a) Early design estimation model
b) Application composition estimation model
c) Comprehensive cost estimation model
d) Post architecture estimation model

74. Resources refers to

a) Manpower
b) Machinery
c) Materials
d) All of the above

75. Which of the following is not an approach to identify the activities that make up a project
a) The activity-based approach,
b) The product-based approach
c) The non- hybrid approach.
d) The process-based approach

76. PERT analysis is based on

a) optimistic time
b) pessimistic time
c) most likely time
d) all the above.

77. Which of the option is not a notable challenge while scheduling a project?
a) Deadlines exist.
b) Independent activities.
c) Too many workers may be required.
d) Costly delay

78. The particular task performance in CPM is known

a) Dummy

33
MG6088 Software Project
Management
b) Event
c) Activity
d) Contract.

79. The earliest start time rule

a) Compares the activities starting time for an activity successor.
b) Compares the activities end time for an activity predecessor.
c) Directs when a project can start.
d) Regulates when a project must begin.

80. The critical path

a) Is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node
b) Is a mixture of all paths.
c) Is the longest path
d) Is the shortest path

81. Activities A, B, and C are the immediate predecessors for Y activity. If the earliest finish
times for the three activities are 12, 15, and 10, then the earliest start time for Y will be
a) 10
b) 15
c) 12
d) Cannot be determined

82. Activities P, Q and R instantly follow activity M, and their current start times are 12, 19,
and 10. Therefore, the latest finish time for activity M is
a) 11
b) 10
c) 18
d) Cannot be determined

83. Completion of a CPM network diagram activity is commonly known

a) Connector
b) Event
c) Node
d) All the above.

84. While scheduling a project by C.P.M.

a) A project is divided into various activities
b) Required time for each activity is established
c) A sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
d) All the above.

85. A process of specifying the time for when each activity should take place
a) Scheduling
34
MG6088 Software Project
Management
b) Sequencing
c) Activity Plan
d) Project Plan

86. .The event of the project becoming completed refers

a) Sink node
b) Source node
c) Intermediate node
d) Main mode

87. The activities and inter relationship as a graph represents

a) Network Model
b) Bar Chart
c) Activity Model
d) Pie Chart

88. The difference between total float and free float is

a) Independent Float
b) Interfering Float
c) Network Float
d) Activity Float

89. The difference between the earliest date and latest date for an event is
a) Free Float
b) Total Float
c) Slack
d) Float

90. Activity-on-Arrow Networks are also called

a) Arrow Diagramming Method
b) Critical Path Method
c) Precedence Diagramming Method
d) Activity-on-node

91. Two types of networks diagrams are

a) AOA and AON
b) Arrow Diagramming Method and AoA
c) Precedence Diagramming Method and AoN
d) CPM and PERT

92. An event that might occur and will create a problem for the successful completion of
the project, if it does occur.
a) Risks
b) Project Failure
35
MG6088 Software Project
Management c) Hazards
d) Threat

93. WBS Stands for

a) Wide Breakdown System
b) Work Breakdown Structure
c) World Breakdown Structure
d) Work Breakdown System

94. Free float is a term in

a) Stock Loading
b) Stock Trading
c) Stock Holding
d) Stock Maintenance

95. PERT stands for

a) Process Elimination reforce Technique
b) Program Elimination Review Technique
c) Program Evaluation Review Technique
d) Program Estimation and Reporting Technique

96. The three different approaches to identifying the activities are

a) Activity,Product,Hybrid
b) Affair,Process,Hybrid
c) Task,Product,Hybrid
d) Project,Process,Hybrid

97. Five levels of WBS

a) Project,Deliverables,Components,Work,Tasks
b) Process,Plan,Compound,Project,Tasks
c) Process,Delay,Components,Stock,Work
d) Project,Deliverables,Stock,Work,Planning

98. To calculate the earliest dates

a) Forward Pass
b) Backward Pass
c) Start Method
d) Read Method

99. Risk Assessment formula

a) Potential Damage*Probablility of Occurrence
b) Probability*loss
c) Probability*gain
d) Damage*gain Probability
36
MG6088 Software Project
Management

100. .Free Float

a) Total float-Free Float
b) Total Float-Head Event Slack
c) Total Float-Stack
d) Slack-Float

101. .Dangle Activity is

a) Tight Activity
b) Loose Activity
c) Open Activity
d) Close Activity

102. Using feasibility analysis it is necessary to examine several alternative solutions because
(i) a comparison of alternatives will lead to a cost-effective solution
(ii) a pre-conceived single solution may turn out to be unimplementable
(iii)it is always good to examine alternatives
(iv) management normally looks at alternatives
a) i and iii
b) i and iv
c) i and ii
d) ii and iv

103. To crash a schedule you should:

a) Increase the time allowed on those tasks that have float.
b) Try to increase expenditures of time only those tasks that are behind schedule.
c) Replace those worker that are not performing up to par with the busy.
d) Increase work efforts on those tasks that are on the critical path.

104. Resource requirement in project becomes constant while the project is in

its progress stage.
a) 40 to 55%
b) 55 to 70%
c) 70 to 80%
d) 80 to 95%

105. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True
b) False

106. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when
computing the costs of a software development project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) All of the mentioned
37
MG6088 Software Project
Management
107. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration
management of a software system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management

108. Identify the sub-process of process improvement

a) Process introduction
b) Process analysis
c) De-processification
d) Process distribution

109. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be
measured and the external quality attribute.
a) True
b) False

110. Cost Variance is which of the following equations?

a) CV=BCWP-BCWS
b) CV=BCWP-ACWP
c) CV=SV/BCWS
d) A and C

111. Which of the following is a direct project cost?

a) Lighting and heating for the corporate office
b) Workers Compensation insurance
c) Piping for an irrigation Project
d) A and B

112. The BCWS=$250,the ACWP=$350,and the BCWP=$200.Calculate the cost variance.

a) -$150
b) $150
c) -$50
d) $50

113. One of the types of cost estimation is order of Magnitude.This estimate:

a) is performed when detailed information is available
b) is used in the beginning of the project conceptualization.
c) Uses mostly information from past projects
d) is used in the ending of the project.

114. Internal costs include

a) Developers salaries
b) Managers and support personnel salaries
c) The cost of overheads such as utilities, rent and senior
38
MG6088 Software Project
Management
managers d)Materials (such as manuals) and services such as
travel
e) All of the above.

115. If a control switch is passed as an argument this is an example of coupling.

a) Content
b) Common
c) Control
d) Stamp
e) Data.
116. Which of these are valid software configuration items?
a) Case tools
b) Documentation
c) Executable programs
d) test data
e) All the Above

117. Which of the following is not considered one of the four important elements that
should exist when a configuration management system is developed?
a) Component elements
b) human elements
c) process elements
d) Validation elements

118. Which configuration objects would not typically be found in the project database?
a) design specification
b) marketing data
c) Organizational structure Description
d) test plans
e) b and c

119. A data repository meta model is used to determine how

a) information is stored in the respository
b) well data integrity can be maintained
c) easily the existing model can be extended
d) all the above

120. Which of the following task is not part of software configuration management?
a) Change control
b) reporting
c) Statistical quality control
d) Version control

121. Change management for web and mobile Apps is best handled in agile manner.
a) True
b) False

39
MG6088 Software Project
Management
122. Content management establishes a process which web content is rendered on the
user’s display screen
a) True
b) False

123. The primary purpose of configuration status reporting is to

a) allow revision of project schedule and cost estimates by project managers
b) make sure that change information is communicated to all affected parties
c) Both A and B
d) None of the Above
124. When software configuration management is a formal activity the
software configuration audit is conducted by the
a) Development team
b) Senior managers
c) testing Specialists
d) Quality assurance group

125. Change control is not necessary if a development group is making use of an

automated project database tool
a) True
b) False

126. The following costs are not part of the total effort cost
a) Costs of lunch time food
b) Costs of providing heating
c) Costs of networking
d) Costs of support

127. A is developed using historical cost information that relates some

software metric to the project cost.
a) Estimation by analogy
b) Parkinson’s Law
c) Algorithmic cost modeling
d) Expert judgement

128. Which of the following is a requirement management activity?

a) Construction and test
b) Design
c) Investigation
d) All of the mentioned

129. An estimation technique measure the size of the functionality to

be developed.
a) A.Analogy
b) B.Function point
c) C.WBS

40
MG6088 Software Project
Management
d) D.Floating Point

130. If Task A to complete,it takes 10 days of human effort.It started 5 days earlier to
the scheduled date and completed on 35th day.Then,the float value
a) A.20
b) B.25
c) C.10
d) D.15
131. Earned value Formula
a) percentage Pending*Total cost
b) Percentage Completed*Budget
c) Percentage Completed*Initial investment
d) Percentage Pending*Initial investment

132. Contract management is made with

a) Customer
b) Vendors
c) Partners
d) Employees
e) All the above

133. A unit of measurement to express the amount of business funactionality an

information system provides to a user
a) Functional Point
b) Control Point
c) Checkpoint
d) Cost trade

134. What are the concerns in Managing People in Software Environments?

a) Staff Selection
b) Staff Development
c) Staff Motivation
d) Well-being Staff during course of project
e) All the above

135. Which of the following is not included in Hackman and Oldham’s job characteristics model
of work motivation?
a) Variety of skill
b) Significance of the task
c) Quality of job life
d) Autonomy

136. Organisational behavior is

a) A science
b) An art
c) A science as well as an art
d) None of the above
41
MG6088 Software Project
Management
137. The field of organisational behaviour examines such questions as the nature of
leadership, effective team development, and
a) Interpersonal conflict resolution; motivation of individuals
b) Organisational control; conflict management
c) Motivation of individuals; planning
d) Planning; development
138. The field of organisational behavior is primarily concerned with
a) The behaviour of individual and groups.
b) How resources are effectively managed.
c) Control processes and interactions between organizations, external context.
d) Both a and c.

139. The study of organisation behaviour has certain basic assumptions. They are
a) An industrial enterprise is an organization of people.
b) These people must be motivated to work effectively.
c) The goals of the employee and the employer may not necessarily coincide.
d) All of the above.

140. Which of the following represents correct sequencing of historical developments

of Organizational Behaviour?
a) Industrial revolution —> Scientific management –> Human relations
movement –> OB
b) Industrial revolution —> Human relations movement —> Scientific management
–> OB
c) Scientific management —> Human relations movement –> Industrial revolution
–> OB
d) None of these.

141. Which of the following is not correct for the organisational behaviour?
a) Organisational behaviour is an integral part of management
b) Organisational behaviour is a disciplinary approach
c) Organisational behaviour helps in analysis of behavior
d) Organisational behaviour is goal-oriented

142. The is based on the environment. Though like thinking,

expectations and perception do exist, and they are not needed to manage or predict
behaviour.
a) Behaviouristic approach, Cognitive processes,
b) cognitive processes, behaviouristic approach
c) Social cognitive, behaviouristic approach
d) Cognitive processes, social cognitive

42
MG6088 Software Project
Management
143. Now a days a lot of stress is being put on the of the employee in
the organization
a) Character
b) improvement
c) Behaviour
d) Rewards
144. The purpose of job enrichment is to
a) expand the number of tasks an individual can do
b) increase job efficiency
c) increase job effectiveness
d) increase job satisfaction of middle management

145. Which of the following is not an example of Content Theory?

a) Maslow Theory
b) Herzberg’s Theory
c) Expectancy theory
d) Alderfer’s ERG theory

146. theory emphasis that, Unsatisfied need can influence the

behaviour satisfied one will not act as a motivator.
a) Maslow Theory
b) Herzberg’s Theory
c) Expectancy theory
d) Alderfer’s ERG theory

147. Among the following which is not a problem in changing the attitude of the employee
a) Insufficient Information
b) Resistant by employee
c) Cognitive Dissonance
d) Cognitive Dissonance

148. Motivation includes

a) job enrichment
b) Job rotation
c) Job enlargement
d) all of the above

149. The statement ―I don’t feel comfortable in crowd‖ is an example of

component of attitude.
a) Behavioral
b) Cognitive
c) Affective
d) Positive

150. The statement ―I am going to apologies for my mistake‖ is an example of

component of attitude.
43
MG6088 Software Project
Management a) Behavioral
b) Cognitive
c) Affective
d) Positive
151. In which stage of the team development process does hostility and infighting occur?
a) storming
b) forming
c) norming
d) performing

152. What is the final stage of the team development process?

a) forming
b) storming
c) adjourning
d) performing

153. Which of the following best defines the type of rewards that are distributed
toindividuals for their unique contribution to the team?
a) functional team rewards
b) competitive team rewards
c) cooperative team rewards
d) non-competitive team rewards

154. Which of the following is not a type of team?

a) teams that recommend things
b) teams that organize things
c) teams that make or do things
d) teams that run things

155. What is the ideal size of a team in order for it to be productive and successful?
a) 2 to 4
b) 9 to 12
c) 5 to 8
d) 8 to 11

156. Which of the following best defines an organization where decision making authority is
at the top of the organization and employees have little freedom to make their own
decisions?
a) decentralized organization
b) centralized organization
c) virtual organization
d) functional organization

157. Which type of structure is also referred to as a team structure?

a) virtual structure
b) matrix structure
c) horizontal structure
d) staff structure
44
MG6088 Software Project
Management
158. Which of the following best describes functions that are advisory and supportive in
nature; designed to contribute to the efficiency and maintenance of
theorganization?
a) line functions
b) organizational functions
c) matrix functions
d) staff functions

159. Organizations put maximum effort in measuring performance of organizational

people because;
a) It makes procedures cost effective
b) It helps in detecting the problems
c) It leads to product innovation
d) It assists in implementing new technology

160. The S in the acronym for SMART goals stands for

a) specific
b) straightforward
c) strategic
d) source

161. A problem(s) with management by objectives is (are) that it can:

a) Be time consuming.
b) Result in immeasurable objectives.
c) 1 and 2
d) None of the above.

162. On her work team Michelle develops detailed tasks lists and work flow charts to help
her team members understand the steps involved in each project. She also maintains
the project calendar and receives periodic updates from each team member to ensure
that projects are progressing on schedule. Which role does Michelle most likely fill on
her team?
a) assessor
b) organizer
c) maintainer
d) creator

163. Coasting on the group effort is termed .

a) inconsistency
b) incompetence
c) social loafing
d) dysfunction

45
 www.rejinpaul.com

Velammal College of Engineering and Technology

Department of Computer Science and Engineering
Principles of Management
Multiple Choice Questions

UNIT – I

1. How are principles of management are formed?

(A) By rule of thumb
(B) By observation and experimentation
(C) By experiences of customers
(D) By Experiments in science laboratory

2. --------------- focuses on improving decision making via the application of management

(A) Classical
(B) behavioral
(C) modern
(D) Quantitative

3. Management is a creative and ________ process.

(A) Continuous
(B) Technical
(C) Democratic
(D) None of the above

4. Which type of strategies do professional managers help organizations in chalking out?

(A) Multi-disciplinary
(B) Corporate
(C) Managerial
(D) All of the above

5. The summary of important trends in retailing are

(A) market concentration
(B) global players vs. local players
(C) non store retailing
(D) all of the above

6. Fedrick Winslow Taylor’s Mechanism of Scientific Management includes

(A) Scientific task setting
(B) planning the task
(C) standardization of tools and equipment
(D) All of the above

7. The heart of administration is the ___ function.

(A) Directing
(B) Organizing
(C) Controlling
(D) Cooperating

8. The old control technique(s) which was (were) used through years is (are)
(A) unity of policies
(B) break-even analysis
(C) budgetary control
(D) All of the above

Download Rejinpaul App from Playstore

 www.rejinpaul.com

9. Management exists at the ___ level of the organization.

(A) Lower
(B) Middle
(C) Top
(D) All of the above

10. Management is said to be the combination of

(A) arts, science and profession
(B) arts, science and engineering
(C) arts, commerce and science
(D) arts, commerce and engineering

11. Costliness of the ________ is the overriding factor determining the extent of decentralization.
(A) Decision
(B) Staffing
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

12. The objective(s) in corporate governance is (are)

(A) shareholders value maximization
(B) growth
(C) stability
(D) all of the above

13. What articulates the long-term goals of an enterprise?

(A) Policies
(B) Vision statement
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

14. _____________ Management is the source of authority

(A) Top
(B) Middle
(C) Lower
(D) All the Above

15. Derivation of principles of management is a matter of I)--------- and their application is a matter of -----
-----------ii)

(A) i)art ii) Science

(B) i) science ii) art
(C) i)art ii)discipline
(D) i)discipline ii) science

16. Which of the following technique of scientific management has the objective to determine the number
of employed. Frame suitable incentive schemes and determine labour cost.
(A) Fatigue study
(B) Time Study
(C) Functional foremanship
(D) Simplification of work

17. --------------- involve a series of steps to be taken to accomplish desired goals. Principles are
guidelines to take decisions of actions while practicing

(A) Values
(B) Techniques
(C) Programmes
(D) Actions

Download Rejinpaul App from Playstore

 www.rejinpaul.com

18. Limitations of control is are

(A) external factors
(B) fixing of responsibility
(C) variation and its causes
(D) All of the above

19. ___ is supposed to be immutable, unchanging and eternal.

(A) Policy
(B) Vision
(C) Mission
(D) All of the above

20. Direction is a ________ function performed by all the managers at all levels of the organization.
(A) Managerial
(B) Organizational
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

21. ___ is a tool for corporate governance.

(A) Training
(B) Recruitment
(C) Communication
(D) Consulting

22. The internal environment factor(s) that influence management is (are)

(A) Labor
(B) Machines
(C) Place
(D) All of the above

23. which of the following technique of scientific management is violation of unity of command.
(A) Motion study
(B) fatigue study
(C) functional foremanship
(D) Simplification of work

24. Fayol’s principle of division of work can be applied to following kind of work
(A) Technical
(B) Managerial
(C) Both
(D) None of these

25. The contribution of Fayol and Taylor are---------------- to each other

(A) Competitive
(B) Cooperative
(C) Complimentary
(D) Coordinated

26. Horizontal co-ordination takes place ___ .

(A) upwards
(B) downwards
(C) sideways
(D) any of the above

Download Rejinpaul App from Playstore

 www.rejinpaul.com

27. Retailing category(ies) based on ownership arrangement would be

(A) Super Markets
(B) Consumer Durables Stores
(C) Departmental Stores
(D) All of the above

28. Which Management spent more time on organizational and directional functions

(A) Top
(B) Middle
(C) Lower
(D) All the Above

29. Henry Fayol and F.W.Taylor belongs to which of the following school of management
(A) Classical
(B) Modern
(C) Early perspective
(D) None of the Above

30. ---------------- among the following was the first to identify four functions of management.

(A) Henry Fayol

(B) W.Taylor
(C) Max Weber
(D) Harold Koontz

31. Authority is undermined, discipline is in jeopardy, order disturbed, and stability threatened?
(A) Unity of direction
(B) Discipline
(C) Unity of Command
(D) Stability of Personnel

32. General theory of administration is the expression of

(A) W.Taylor
(B) Henry Fayol
(C) Max Weber
(D) F.L. Brech

33. Positive motivation makes people willing to do their work in the best way they can and improve their
________.
(A) Productivity
(B) Personality
(C) Performance
(D) All of the above

34.---------means every one should get order from superior only

(A) Unity of command
(B)Unity of direction
(C) Order
(D) Centralisation

35.Concentration of authority at one level is called

(A) Delegation
(B) Decentralisation
(C) Accountability
(D) Centralisation

Download Rejinpaul App from Playstore

 www.rejinpaul.com

36.Which of the following is not a principle by Henry Fayol.

(A) Division of work
(B) Unity of command
(C) Discipline
(D) Harmony not discord

37.Management should find the best way to perform one task. Which technique of management is suitable
---------- to perform the task.
(A) Method Study
(B) Time Study
(C) Motion Study
(D) Fatigue study

38.Principle of management is significant because of

(A) Initiative
(B) Increase in Efficiency
(C)Optimum utilization of resources
(D) Adapting to changing Technology

39.Same battery can be used different mobile phones of a particular brand. This is an example of which of
the following techniques of Scientific Management?
(A) Standardisation
(B) simplification
(C) Method study
(D) Functional foremanship

40. Which of the following is an example of time study?

(A) To determine the number of workers to be employed
(B) To formulate suitable incentive schemes
(C) To calculate the labour costs
(D) All the above

41.Principle of division of work is applicable to a government office where there is a diary/dispatch clerk
whose job is to receive and send mail, a data entry operator whose task is to input data on the computer.
Division of work is also applicable to limited company where there are separate departments like
productions, finance , research and development etc

Which quality of Pom is highlighted above?

1. General Guidelines
2. Universal applicability
3. Flexible
4. Contigent

42. Employees deserve fair and just remuneration but what is just, and fair is determined by multiple factor.
They include contribution of the employee, paying capacity of the employer and prevailing wage rate for
the occupation under consideration.

Which quality of Pom is highlighted above?

1. General Guidelines
2. Universal applicability
3. Flexible
4. Contigent

Download Rejinpaul App from Playstore

 www.rejinpaul.com

43. Management principles increase managerial efficiency as manager leave routine decision making to
his subordinates and deal with exceptional situations which require his expertise by following the principle
of delegation

1. adherence to these principles add to knowledge and understanding of managerial situations.

2. principles emphasis logic rather than blind faith
3.principles of management are at the core of the management theory
4. principles are guidelines that can be modified as per the changing environment

44. Even a small production activity like loading pigs of iron into boxcars can be scientifically planned and
managed.This can result in tremendous saving of human energy as well as wastage of time and materials

Which of the following pom emphasize on above situation?

1. harmony does not discord

2. science not rule of thumb
3. Initiative
4. Development of each person to his or her greatest efficiency and prosperity

45. Principles of management do not provide readymade solution to any problem but in dealing with a
situation of conflict between two department, a manager may emphasize the primacy of the organization
goal.
Which quality of Pom is highlighted above?

1. General Guidelines
2. Universal applicability
3. Flexible
4. Contigent

Download Rejinpaul App from Playstore

 www.rejinpaul.com

UNIT – II

1.Planning involves............
(a) review of past performance
(b) setting objectives and determining course of action for achieving them
(c) analysis of policies
(d) All of these

2.Purpose of planning is ………..

(a) To manage by Objective
(b) To offset uncertainty and change
(c) To secure economy in operation
(d)All the above

3.Which of the planning is based on organization’s mission and is often carried out by top
management?
(a) Strategic planning
(b) Operational planning
(c) Tactical planning
(d) None of the above

4.Tactical planning involves

(a) Long time frame
(b) Activating a strategy & making it to work
(c) Involves single use or standing plans
(d) Not concerned about lower level units

5. Which plan is made once and retain their value over a period of years while undergoing periodic
revisions and updates?
(a) Operational plans
(b) Strategic plans
(c) Standing plans
(d) Single-use plans

6.According to knootz, which term is used to indicate end point of management programme?
(a) planning
(b) Strategy
(c) Policies
(d) Objective

7.MBO stands for

(a) Monitoring By Objective
(b) Management By Objective
(c) Monitoring By Organisation
(d) Management By Organization

8. Which is not a feature of MBO?

(a) Individual goal setting
(b) Makes way to attain maximum result
(c) Superior subordination participation
(d) Joint goal setting

9. Which serves as a guide for decision making in an organization?

(a) Strategy
(b) Objective
(c) Agreement
(d) Policies

Download Rejinpaul App from Playstore

 www.rejinpaul.com

10.Purchase policy belongs to

(a) Functional policies
(b) Departmental Policies
(c) Middle management policies
(d) top management policy

11.Which policy applies to routine activities( work related matter)?

(a) Functional policies
(b) Departmental Policies
(c) Implied policies
(d) verbal policies

12.A policy should be ………..

(a) Cover all reasonable anticipatable conditions
(b) definite, positive & clear
(c) Conform to economic principles & regulations.
(d) All the above.

13. ............... are goals established to guide the efforts of the company and each of its components
(a) objectives
(b) strategy
(c) policies
(d) procedure

14. Policy is an expression of intentions of

(a) lower level management
(b) top level management
(c) middle level management
(d) Individuals

15. Planning premises are made by taking into consideration ……………….

(a) past events
(b) future events
(c) present events
(d) both past and expected events

16. Which planning premises cannot be measured in factors?

(a) variable premises
(b) Intangible premises
(c) external premises
(d) non controllable premises

17…………….is a set of decision making rules for guidance of organizational behavior

(a) policies
(b) strategy
(c) procedure
(d) objectives

18.Which strategy helps in identifying the internal and external factors for achieving the objective?
(a) BCG Matrix
(b) Porter’s Five force model
(c) Gap Analysis
(d) SWOT analysis

19.Products under which quadrant of BCG matrix return more ROI?

(a) Star
(b) dog
(c) Cashcow
(d) Question mark

Download Rejinpaul App from Playstore

 www.rejinpaul.com

20.Which strategy is frequently used to identify an industry's structure to determine corporate strategy?
(a) Gap Analysis
(b) Porter’s Five force model
(c) Balance score card
(d) BCG Matrix

21.Among the porter’s five forces ,which one is involved in how much of profit the competitors are earning?
(a) Power of suppliers
(b) Power of customers
(c) Threat of substitute products
(d) Potential of new entrants into the industry

22.Improvement gap ,performance gap and diversification gap comes under

(a) Performance gap
(b) Product or market gap
(c) Profit gap
(d) Manpower gap

23.SWOT Analysis is a strategic planning method used to evaluate

(a) Strength,Weakness,Oppurtunities,Threats
(b) Strength,Work,Oppurtunities,Threats
(c) Simple,Weakness,Oppurtunities,Threats
(d) Strength,Weakness,Oppurtunities,Testing
24. BCG matrix is also known as
(a) Marketing matrix
(b) Sales matrix
(c) Relative matrix
(d) Growth/Share matrix

25.Which of the following is a planning techniques used for strategic management ………..
(a) Poster,s 5 Forces Competitive model
(b) Gap Analysis
(c) Balanced Score Card
(d) All the above

26. …………………. Is a process of identifying oppurtunities

(a) Planning
(b) Strategy
(c) Decision Making
(d) All the above

Download Rejinpaul App from Playstore

 www.rejinpaul.com

UNIT-III

1. Organizing refers to:

(a) planning,
(b) delegation of authority,
(c) training,
(d) selection

2. Organizing aims to serve:

(a) common purpose,
(b) corruption,
(c) authority structure,
(d) All of the above.

3. Organizing destroys:
(a) individual relationships,
(b) plans,
(c) simplicity in the organization,
(d) environment.

4. The principle of objective states:

(a) delegation of authority,
(b) existence for a purpose,
(c) formal organization,
(d) none of the above.
[Hint: An organization must exist for a purpose is the principle of objective.]

5. For effective organizing, an organization required:

(a) principle of balance,
(b) span of management,
(c) organization process,
(d) planning and forecasting.

6. The structure of organization includes:

(a) identification and classification of required activities,
(b) informal organization,
(c) establishing enterprise objectives,
(d) authority relationships.

7. The degree to which an organization relies on rules and procedures to direct the behaviour of
employees is:
(a) complexity,
(b) formalization,
(c) centralization,
(d) motivation.

8. In a formal organization, “power” is associated with:

(a) an individual,
(b) position,
(c) relationship,
(d) control

Download Rejinpaul App from Playstore

 www.rejinpaul.com

9. Delegation is:
(a) a continuous process,
(b) unfolding talents,
(c) granting the right to command.
[Hint: Delegation is the act of granting of conferring something and the term authority means right to command.]

10. Unity of command means:

(a) parity of authority and responsibility,
(b) flow of command from subordinate to superior,
(c) flow of command from superior to subordinate,
(d) parity in controlling.

11. Defective delegation:

(a) hampers coordination
(b) size of the organization,
(c) establish proper controls,
(d) establish sources of powers.

12. Indicate which of the following is NOT among the six main types of organization structure–
(a) Line organization
(b) Functional structure
(c) Committees
(d) Department

13. Organisattion structure is primarily concerned with and of tasks and authority.
(a) Allocation and Delegation
(b) Allocation and apportionment
(c) Reporting and delegating
(d) Setting standards and delegation

14. Line organization is also known as organization.

(a) Scalar
(b) Chain
(c) Matrix
(d) Project

15. An advantage of the matrix structure is said to be –

(a) Because product lines can be identified as cost centres,it facilitates financial control
(b) Top management has more time to devote to long term strategic issues
(c) It is easily understood by the people involved
(d) Improved lateral communications.

16. Organizational structure is made up of key elements. Which of the following is not one of these
elements?
(a) Centralisation
(b) Coordination
(c) Decentralisation
(d) Span of control
17. Staffing refers to:
(a) measuring performance,
(b) managing the positions,
(c) management in action,
(d) making strategic plans.
[Hint: Staffing refers to appointing the right person for the right job.]

18. Non-financial incentives have many things to do with:

(a) Directing,
(b) Motivation,
(c) Planning,
(d) organising.

Download Rejinpaul App from Playstore

 www.rejinpaul.com

19. Staffing needs:

(a) man power planning,
(b) authority,
(c) communication,
(d) coordination.
[Hint: Staffing needs estimates of present and future needs of managerial man power and therefore it needs some pre-
thinking.]

20. HRD refers to:

(a) remuneration,
(b) development,
(c) controlling,
(d) planning

21. Recruitment covers:

(a) selection,
(b) job analysis,
(c) time,
(d) none of the above.
[Hint: Recruitment covers job analysis, job design and job descriptions.]

22. Training is the process of:

(a) motivation
(b) increasing knowledge and skill
(c) testing.
(d) employee recommendations.

23. Vestibule training provides the worker with:

(a) on the job training,
(b) off the job training,
(c) real life presentations off the job
(d) demonstration
[Hint: The worker is provided with a real life presentation but not on the job directly.]

24. What is the meaning of the acronym HRM?

(a) Humane Resource Management.
(b) Humanistic Resource Management.
(c) Human Resource Management.
(d) Human Relations Management.

25. Which of the following is not a function normally performed by the HR department?
(a) Recruitment and selection.
(b) Accounting.
(c) Training and development.
(d) Pay and reward.

26. Recruitment and selection must be effective to ensure it:

(a) Offsets high labour turnover
(b) Delivers the highest calibre of individuals at optimum most
(c) To have a surplus in case of sickness and absence
(d) Encourages new blood into the organization.

27. Which of the following is not a selection technique?

(a) Performance appraisal
(b) Ability test
(c) Psychometric testing
(d) Interviews

Download Rejinpaul App from Playstore

 www.rejinpaul.com

28. The primary aim of recruitment and selection process is to

(a) Meet the high labour turnover
(b) Hire the best individuals at optimum cost
(c) Ensure the availability of surplus in case of sickness and absence
(d) None of the above.

29. Job evaluation is conducted to develop

(a) Compensation package
(b) Training modules
(c) Organisational grapevine
(d) Rules and policies.

30. Which of the following defines the process of recruitment?

(a) Forecasting the demand of human resources
(b) Forecasting the supply of human resources
(c) Discovering potential job candidates for a particular position
(d) Making a hire or no hire decision.

31. Which of the following is not a type of remuneration system under Time Rate System?
(a) High wage plan
(b) Measured day work
(c) Taylor System
(d) Differential time rate.

32. Which of the following functions or activities requires recruiting and placing qualified
personnel needed for the organization so that it may achieve its objectives and goals?
(a) Planning
(b) Staffing
(c) Organizing
(d) Controlling.

33. What sort of groups is defined by the organization’s structure?

(a) informal
(b) task
(c) friendship
(d) formal

34. When do informal groups appear?

(a) in response to the need for social contact
(b) in reaction to formal groups
(c) as a result of social needs
(d) most frequently in bureaucracies

35. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) All task groups are also command groups
(b) All command groups are also task groups
(c) All task groups are also friendship groups
(d) All command groups are also informal groups

36. As per Cartwright which of the following characteristics of a group is a means for overcoming
resistance to change
(a) Incentives
(b) Coercion
(c) Education
(d) Strong sense of belonging.

Download Rejinpaul App from Playstore

 www.rejinpaul.com

37. Organization structure deliberately created by the management for achieving the objectives
of the enterprise is called
(a) Product organization
(b) Functional organization
(c) Formal organization
(d) Informal organization

38. Grapevine is another term used to describe

(a) Formal organization
(b) Informal organization
(c) Product organization
(d) Project organization

39. The unofficial and social pattern of human interactions is observed in

(a) Formal organization
(b) Informal organization
(c) Product organization
(d) None of these
40. When departmentation is done based on production, sales, financing and personnel, it is
termed as
(a) Functional departmentation
(b) Product departmentation
(c) Composite departmentation
(d) Customer departmentation
(e)

Download Rejinpaul App from Playstore

 www.rejinpaul.com

UNIT – IV

1. Direction refers to:

(a) planning,
(b) organizing,
(c) driving,
(d) staffing

2. Marry Follett pointed that reform was possible provided the following consideration were taken into
account:
(a) building up new attitudes,
(b) planning
(c) negative attitudes,
(d) None of the above.

3. The characteristics of direction include:

(a) guiding,
(b) motivating,
(c) planning,
(d) performance appraisal

4. Direction is a:
(a) discrete process,
(b) continuous process,
(c) circular process,
(d) supervisory process

5. The principles of direction do not include:

(a) to have a thorough knowledge about the terms to bind the employees and the organization,
(b) to remove the inefficient employees,
(c) labour turnover,
(d) to have an effective communication superior and his subordinates.

6. The techniques of direction excludes:

(a) an alternative device of communication,
(b) supervisory techniques,
(c) coordination,
(d) standard practices and procedures.
Hint: Coordination refers to the link between the different functions of management.

7. Communication is a:
(a) two-way process,
(b) one-way process,
(c) discrete process,
(d) circular process
[Hint: Communication is a transfer of information from one person to another and getting the feedback to check the
efficiency of the message communicated.]

8. What comprises the decoding stage of the communication model?

(a) Perception; retention.
(b) Attention; perception; retention
(c) Receiving; processing and storing information
(d) Short term memory; decoding; long term memory.

9. What is the first step to take during communications planning?

(a) Decide on means of communication
(b) Identify communication constraints
(c) Conduct a stakeholder analysis
(d) Develop a communications management plan

Download Rejinpaul App from Playstore

 www.rejinpaul.com

10. Feedback is a listener's

(a) verbal critique of your message.
(b) verbal or nonverbal responses to a message.
(c) acceptance of a message.
(d) aversion to a message.

11. To decode a message is to

a) translate ideas into code.
b) reject a message.
c) evaluate a message.
d) interpret a message.
12. In the communication process, to encode means to
(a) translate ideas into a code.
(b) block a pathway between the sender and receiver of a message.
(c) speak to large groups of people.
(d) interpret a code.

13. A message is a signal that serves as

(a) noise reduction.
(b) stimuli for a speaker.
(c) stimuli for a mass audience.
(d) stimuli for a receiver.

14. Feedback can come in the form of

(a) nonverbal communication only.
(b) verbal communication only.
(c) environmental noise.
(d) verbal and nonverbal listener responses.

15. In the communication process, a receiver is

(a) message interference.
(b) the person who decodes a message.
(c) a message pathway.
(d) the person who encodes an idea.

16. Noise does the following:

(a) causes listeners to listen to messages more carefully.
(b) focuses wandering thoughts.
(c) distorts or interferes with a message.
(d) enhances a message.

17. An example of a communication channel is

(a) face-to-face conversation.
(b) noise.
(c) feedback.
(d) context.

18. Which of the three components are part of the human communication process?
(a) Message, noise, feedback
(b) Feedback, message, critiquing
(c) Noise, feedback, jargon
(d) Message, recording, feedback

19. Which of the following is an example of a nonverbal message?

(a) Eye contact
(b) Yelling
(c) Mumbling
(d) Jargon

Download Rejinpaul App from Playstore

 www.rejinpaul.com

20. The ability to communicate effectively

(a) depends on the education level of those around you.
(b) can be learned.
(c) is a natural talent that cannot be learned.
(d) depends on not using technology to send messages.
21. A message can only be deemed effective when it is
(a) communicated face-to-face.
(b) understood by others and produces the intended results.
(c) repeated back as proof of understanding.
(d) delivered with confidence.

22. Encoding is important because it

(a) guarantees that one's message will be decoded.
(b) encourages listener feedback.
(c) eliminates noise.
(d) Produces messages.

23. When a subordinate or a lower level manager passes information or offers suggestions to the
higher level management, they are using which level of communication?
(a) Upward communication
(b) Downward communication
(c) Lateral communication
(d) Diagonal communication.

24. Maslow in his hierarchy has not considered:

(a) psychological needs,
(b) security needs,
(c) wealthy needs,
(d) existence needs.

25. The features of leadership do not include:

(a) representation,
(b) initiation,
(c) planning,
(d) motivation

26. Leadership has a lot of characteristics and a leader must not maintain this trait in his
behaviour:
(a) coexistence,
(b) taking responsibility,
(c) avoiding responsibility,
(d) All of the above.

27. Which of the following statements about leadership is false?

(a) Leadership does not necessarily take place within a hierarchical structure of an organisation.
(b) Not every leader is a manager.
(c) When people operate as leaders their role is always clearly established and defined.
(d) All the above.

28. Contingency theories of leadership are based on the belief that:

(a) there is no single style of leadership appropriate to all situations.
(b) there is a single style of leadership appropriate to all managers.
(c) there is a single style of leadership appropriate to all situations.
(d) none of the above.

29. Another contingency model of leadership is the path-goal theory. This suggests that subordinates
will see leadership behaviour as a motivating influence if:
(a) path-goal relationships are clarified.
(b) their effective performance will satisfy their needs.
(c) the necessary direction, guidance, training and support is provided.
(d) all the above.

Download Rejinpaul App from Playstore

 www.rejinpaul.com

30. When determining the most appropriate form of leadership, which of the following should be
considered?
(a) The manager.
(b) The work environment.
(c) The group.
(d) All the above.

31. The following phrase is used to describe a leader:

(a) relies on control strategies
(b) challenges status quo
(c) uses traditional influence
(d) acts with established culture
(e) maintains and allocates resources

32. The "means" of leadership involve

(a) getting results through others.
(b) the ability to build cohesive, goal-oriented teams.
(c) the process of influencing an organized group toward accomplishing its goals.
(d) an interpersonal relation in which others comply because they want to, not because they have to.

33. Which of the following is a leadership trait?

(a) Dominance
(b) Energy
(c) Cognitive ability
(d) All responses are leadership traits

34. Which of the following statements is false about the behavioral theories of leadership?
(a) Consideration is a people-oriented dimension of leadership behavior
(b) Production-centered leader behavior focuses on tasks and has little concern for people
(c) Leaders high in initiating structure do not set deadlines or make individual task assignments
(d) Employee-centered leader behavior focuses on people and the quality of the social system.

35. Maslow and Herzberg are two examples of theories of motivation.

(a) process
(b) content
(c) expectancy
(d) equity

36. Maslow suggests that human needs are arranged in a series of levels, a hierarchy of importance.
Which of the following statements are relevant to Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory?
(a) The hierarchy is not necessarily in a fixed order.
(b) A satisfied need is no longer a motivator.
(c) A need is not necessarily fully satisfied before a subsequent need arises.
(d) All of the above.

37. According to Herzberg, which of the following may be regarded as hygiene/maintenance factors?
(a) Sense of achievement.
(b) Recognition.
(c) Personal growth and advancement.
(d) None of the above.

38. Which of the following statements is true about the goal theory of motivation?
(a) People with easier goals will perform better than people with difficult goals.
(b) A person's level of commitment to a goal will not regulate the level of effort expended.
(c) People with difficult goals will perform better than people with easier goals.
(d) Research has shown that there is little support for the goal theory and its effects on motivation with
regard to the relationship between goal-setting and performance.

39. Douglas McGregor's view that suggests that employees will exercise self-direction and self-control
when they are committed to the objectives of the work is called:
(a) Theory B
(b) Theory X
(c) Theory Y
(d) Theory A

Download Rejinpaul App from Playstore

 www.rejinpaul.com

40. Which step in Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs Theory deals with achieving one's potential?
(a) Esteem
(b) Physiological
(c) Self-actualization
(d) Social

41. Which of the following would be classified by Herzberg as a hygiene factor?

(a) Achievement
(b) Promotion
(c) Responsibility
(d) Company policy

42. Who proposed that achievement, affiliation and power are three important needs that help explain
motivation in workplace situations?
(a) McClelland
(b) Herzberg
(c) Alderfer
(d) Maslow

43. Company policy, administration, supervision, interpersonal relations, working conditions, and
salary are characterized as:
(a) Achievement factors
(b) Growth factors
(c) Motivating factors
(d) Hygiene factors

44. An employee's experiences in a situation or position outside his or her current organization is a
referent comparison called:
(a) Self-outside
(b) Other-inside
(c) Other-outside
(d) Self-inside

45. Theory X suggests that employees:

(a) Like their manager
(b) Dislike work
(c) Dislike their manager
(d) Like work

46. What three words define motivation?

(a) Intensity, direction, persistence
(b) Fairness, equity, desire
(c) Desire, persistence, fairness
(d) Ambition, direction, intensity
(e) Persistence, fairness, ambition

47. According to Herzberg’s motivation hygiene theory, the opposite of satisfaction

is,
(a) Dissatisfaction
(b) No satisfaction
(c) No dissatisfaction
(d) All of the above
48. The concept of social assumption is based on ......................................... belief that people are motivated by

social needs.
(a) Kurt Lewin’s
(b) Douglas McGregor’s.
(c) Elton Mayo’s
(d) Chris Argyris’s

Download Rejinpaul App from Playstore

 www.rejinpaul.com

49. proposed by Douglas McGregors has a positive, dynamic, flexible and optimistic

view of employees.
(a) Theory W
(b) Theory X
(c) Theory Y
(d) Theory Z

50. Which type of leaders gives complete freedom to their employees?

(a) Autocratic leaders

(b) Bureaucratic leaders
(c) Participative leaders
(d) Laissez faire leaders

Download Rejinpaul App from Playstore

 www.rejinpaul.com

UNIT – V

1. What is the management function that involves monitoring activities to ensure that they’re being
accomplished as planned and correcting any significant deviations.
(a) Control
(b) Planning
(c) Organising
(d) Directing

2. Which of the following is not a type of control systems?

(a) Feed backward control
(b) Feedback control
(c) Concurrent control
(d)Feed forward control

3. Control process is a ………….. process

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four

4. By starting the budget of each package from base zero, budgeters calculate costs afresh for each
budget period is called as ………………………..
(a) Cash Budget
(b) Variable Budget
(c) Captial Expenditure Budget
(d) Zero Based Budget

5. Important factors of non-budgetary controltechniques

(a) Statiscal data
(b) Break-even point analysis
(c) Operational audit
(d) All the above

6. ……………. Is classification of budget based on capacity?

(a) Basic Budget
(b) Current Budget
(c) Flexible Budget
(d) Master Budget

7. Expand MIS?
a) Management Interactive session
b) Management Information system
c) Message Information system
d) Managers Information system

8. Managers deal with information controls as

(e) Inventory control
(f) Message
(g) to speak to large groups of people.
(h) Organizational area

9. What other than software corporate tools improve management of departments?

(e) Debugging tools
(f) Internet and external computing tools
(g) Testing tools
(h) Snipping tool

Download Rejinpaul App from Playstore

 www.rejinpaul.com

10. The use of MIS is to

(e) communication
(f) Track manager roles
(g) Transmit information
(h) provide information to managers

11. Application of MIS is used in,

(e) Marketing
(f) manufacturing
(g) logistics
(h) accounting
i. (a) &(b)
ii. (d)
iii. All the above
iv. None of the above

12. Productivity is the ratio between

(e) Output and input
(f) Work and time
(g) Quantity and quality
(h) Hard work and smart work

13. Memory utilization as a function of lines of code is an example of

(e) structural
(f) Economic
(g) Functional
(h) Physical

14. three common approaches defining productivity based on the model

(e) physical, functional, and economic
(f) direct, indirect and functional
(g) violent, social and scalar
(h) Coherent, cohesion and structural

15. Purchase of right quantity of materials avoids locking up of

(e) Employee
(f) Repetition in purchase
(g) working capital
(h) stocking

16. Which is the advantage of cost control

(e) depends on the education level of those around you.
(f) can be learned.
(g) is a natural talent that cannot be learned.
(h) depends on not using technology to send messages.

17. _________ refers to the technical process of gathering, examining, and analyzing the project
(e) Cost control
(f) Maintenance control
(g) Quality control
(h) Functional control

18. Maintenance department has to exercise effective

(e) Networking
(f) Feedback
(g) Noise control
(h) cost control

19. What should be made and the cost of reporting should commensurate with the expenditure
involved?
(e) Cost benefit analysis
(f) Flexibility
(g) Controllability
(h) Principle of exception

Download Rejinpaul App from Playstore

 www.rejinpaul.com

20. What are the types of management reporting?

(e) Oral and written
(f) External and Internal
(g) Routine and special
(h) Control and information

Download Rejinpaul App from Playstore

 www.rejinpaul.com

Download Rejinpaul App from Playstore

1. A model that is the demo implementation of the system.
a) waterfall
b) prototype
c) incremental
d) agile

2. Maintenance is the final phase in waterfall model.

a) True
b) False

3. A stage in which individual components are integrated and ensured that they are error-free to
meet customer requirements.
a) Coding
b) Testing
c) Design
d) Implementation

4. ___________ is a step in which design is translated into machine-readable form.

a) Design
b) Conversion
c) Debugging
d) Coding

5. The customer requirements are broken down into logical modules for ease of
_______________
a) inheritance
b) design
c) editing
d) implementation

6. What do you call a technical person who is capable of understanding the basic requirements?
a) team leader
b) analyst
c) engineer
d) stakeholder

7. A step in waterfall model that involves a meeting with the customer to understand the
requirements.
a) Requirement Gathering
b) SRS
c) Implementation
d) Customer review

8. Methodology in which project management processes were step-by step.

a) Incremental
b) Waterfall
c) Spiral
d) Prototyping

9. An individual who plans and directs the work.

a) Stakeholder
b) Project manager
c) Team leader
d) Programmer

10. A planned program if work that requires a definitive amount of time, effort and planning to
complete.
a) Problem
b) Project
c) Process
d) Program

11.Which is not one of the types of prototype of Prototyping

Model?
a. Horizontal Prototype
b. Vertical Prototype
c. Diagonal Prototype
d. Domain Prototype

12.Which one of the following models is not suitable for

accommodating any change?
a. Build & Fix Model
b. Prototyping Model
c. RAD Model
d. Waterfall Model

Which model is also called as the classic

life cycle or the Waterfall model?
a. Iterative Development
b. Linear Sequential
Development
c. RAD Model
d. Incremental Development
Which model is not suitable for large software
projects but good one for learning and
experimenting?
a. Big Bang model
b. Spiral model
c. Iterative model
d. Waterfall model

Which model is also known as Verification and

validation model?
a. Waterfall model
b. Big Bang model
c. V-model
d. Spiral model

What is the simplest model of software

development paradigm?
a. Spiral model
b. Big Bang model
c. V-model
d. Waterfall model

11) Which of the following is delivered at the end of the Sprint?

a. A document containing test cases for the current sprint

b. An architectural design of the solution

c. An increment of Done software

d. Wireframes designs for User Interface

12 Who is responsible to measure the Project’s performance?

a. The Scrum Master

b. The Delivery Manager

c. The Product Owner

d. The Development Team

UNIT 3

MCQ Questions

1. Which of the following are the objectives of Activity planning?

1. Motivation

2. Resource allocation

3. Plan to mitigate

4. Feasibility assessment

5. Delivery on time

a. 1,2,3,4,5

b. 1,2,4

c. 1,2,4,5

d. 3,4,5

2. Activity planning and scheduling techniques considers

a. Maximum time

b. meeting quality targets

c. Acceptable cost

d. impose constrains

3. The following are the steps in creating a project schedule, arrange them in
order

a. activity risk analysis, resource allocation, schedule production, Ideal activity

plan

b. resource allocation, schedule production, Ideal activity plan, activity risk

analysis

c. schedule production, Ideal activity plan, activity risk analysis, resource

allocation
d. Ideal activity plan, activity risk analysis, resource allocation, schedule
production

4. Which is not the characteristic of project?

a. A Project is composed of number of interrelated activities

b. A project may have multiple activities to start.

c. A project is completed when all the activities are completed.

d. A project may start when one of its activities is ready to start.

5. Which is not the characteristic of activity?

a. An activity must have start and end point.

b. an requires resources

c. The duration of the activity is distrust.

d. some activities can start before others are completed.

6. In which approach breakdown structure and flow diagram is used

a. The activity based approach

b. The product based approach

c. The hybrid approach

d. Work breakdown structure approach

6. In which approach brainstorming involves

a. The activity based approach

b. The product based approach

c. The hybrid approach

d. Work breakdown structure approach

6. In which approach work break down structure is used

a. The activity based approach

b. The product based approach

c. The hybrid approach

d. Work breakdown structure approach

7. The different levels used in work break down structure is given arrange
according their levels in order.

a. Deliverables, Components, work package, cost, Project

b. Components, work package, cost, Project, Deliverables

c. Project, Deliverables, Components, work package, cost

d. work package, cost, Project, Deliverables, Components

8._____________________indicates the project activities is planned to occur

and the resources required for it.

a. activity

b. project

c. schedule

d. sequencing

9. What is Activity on arrow approach?

a. activities are represented as nodes.

b. the link between the nodes represent the precedence

c. activities are drawn as arrows joining circles

d. does not represent the possible start and possible end activities

10. What is activity on node approach?

a. activities are represented in arrows joining nodes

b. does not represent the possible start and completion of the activity

c. activities are represented as nodes

d. the nodes between the links represent precedence.

11. what are the rules for constructing the precedence networks.
a. should have multiple start node

b. should have only one end node

c. links have duration

d. precedence may be the first node

12. what are the properties of hammock activities

1. Acuities have non zero duration

2. it will not start at the same time and will not end at the same time

3. They are used to represent Overhead cost

4. Used at the constant rate over the duration of set of ativities

a. 1,3,4

b. 2,4

c. 1,2,3,4

d. 3,4

13. The project specification with estimated activity durations and precedence
requirements are given below

Activity Duration Precedents

A Hardware selection 8 ----

B System confirmation 6 ----

C Install hardware 5 A

D Data migration 9 B

E Draft office procedures 5 B

F Recruit staff 12 ----

G User training 5 E,F

H Install and test system 4 C,D

From the above Table in calculate the forward pass and identify the value for
earliest finish and latest finish for activity E.

a. 11, 14

b. 7,10

c. 12, 14,

d. 8,10

14. From the above Table in Q no (13) calculate the forward pass and identify
the value for earliest finish and latest finish for activity H.

a. 17,19

b. 19,19

c. 15,15

d. 11,14

15. From the above Table in Q no (13) calculate in the backward pass and
identify the value for earliest start and latest start for activity G.

a. 15,15

b. 11, 14

c, 13, 15

d. 12, 14

16. From the above Table in Q no (13) calculate in the backward pass and
identify the value for earliest start and latest start for activity D.

a. 6,9

b, 6,5

c. 6,6

d. 8,10

16. From the above Table in Q no (13) find the critical path

a. F-G
b. B,D,H

C. B, E, G

A,C,H

17. From the above Table in Q no (13) find the total float for the activity H.

a.1

b.2

c.3

d. 0

18. From the above Table in Q no (13) find the total float for the activity C

a.1

b.2

c.3

d. 0

19. From the above Table in Q no (13) find the total float for the activity E

a.1

b.2

c.3

d. 0

20. what is the formula to calculate free float

a. activity may delayed with affecting subsequent activity

b. difference between the earliest completion date and earliest start date for
succeeding activity.

c. difference between the earliest completion date and earliest start date for
preceding activity.
d. difference between the latest completion date and latest start date for
preceding activity.

21. what is the formula to calculate Interfering float

1. Difference between the free float and total float.

2. Activity may be delayed without delaying the project end date.

3. it will delay the start of subsequent activity.

4. Difference between the total float and free float.

a. 1,2,3

b. 2,3,4

c. 1,3,4

d. 1,2,3,4

22. The two main approaches of risks are

1. Structure

2. Tasks

3. Checklist

4. Brain storming

a. 1,2

b. 1,3

c. 2,4

d. 3,4

23. The risk due to personnel shortfalls consist of

1. Staffing with top talent

2. Team building

3. multiple estimation techniques

4. Protyping
a. 1,2

b. 2,3

c. 1,2,3,4

d. 2,3,4

24. The risk due to developing the wrong user interface consist of

1.task analysis

2. Design to cost

3. Early user manuals

4. formal specification methods

a. 1,3

b. 2,4

c. 3,4

d. 1,4

25. A project depended on a data centric vulnerable with flood. It might be

estimated that if a floor occurred a new computer configuration could be
established for Rs. 2,00,000 . It might also be estimated that ehere the computer
is located there is 1 in 100 chance of flood actually happening. Find the resk
explosure?

a. 200

b. 2000

c. 20000

d. 200000

26. The formula for calculating risk exposure is

Potential damage x probability of risk

Potential damage x probability of occurrence

Potential damage x probability of money

Potential damage x probability of estimated cost

27. what is the range value for the qualitative descriptors of risk probability with
moderate.

a. > 50 %

b. 30-50%

c. 10-29%

d. <10%

28. what is the associated range value for the qualitative descriptors of impact
on cost for significant impact level.

a. > 30 %

b. 20-29%

c. 10-19%

d. <10%

29. arrange the risk planning according to their priorities.

a. risk avoidance, risk reduction and mitigation, risk transfer, risk acceptance

b. risk reduction and mitigation, risk transfer, risk acceptance, risk avoidance

c. risk transfer, risk acceptance, risk avoidance, risk reduction and mitigation,

d. risk acceptance, risk avoidance, risk reduction and mitigation, risk transfer

30. What are the four commercial off-the-shelf software acquisition risks.

a. Integration, Upgrading, No source code, Supplier failures

b. Risk reduction, data storage, Reduce the likelihood, contingency planning

c. data format, communication protocols, enhance the system, access to source

code.

d. Risk acceptance, activities may be prone, reduce the risk probability, risk
transfer.
31. Find the risk reduction leverage if the risk evaluation before is 1% of the
total cost Rs, 2,00,000 and risk evaluation after is 0.5% of the total cost if fire
accident happens. And the total cost to fit the fire alarm is Rs. 1000.

a. 1

b. 2

c. 4

d. 8

32. what is pessimistic time

a. task to do under Normal circumstances

b. the shortest time in which the activity may be completed

c. The worst possible time

d. the best time

33. The PERT activity time estimates is given below

Activity Predecessor pessimistic time Optimistic time Most likely

time

A ---- 9 7 8

B ---- 8 4 3

C A 7 3 2

D B 6 4 5

E B 5 3 4

F --- 10 8 15

G E,F 5 3 4

H C,D 4 2 3

Calculate the Expected time for G

a. 4
 b. 5

c. 6

d. 7

34. From question number 33 , calculate the Standard deviation for activity E
and H

a. 1/3 , 2/3

b. 1/3, 4/3

c. 1/3, 1/3

d. 2/3, 2/3

35. from question number , calculate the Standard deviation for activity A and B

a. 1/3 , 2/3

b. 1/3, 4/3

c. 2/3, 1/3

d. 2/3, 2/3

36. Find the critical path .

a. A,C,H

b. B,D,H

c. F,G

d. B,E,G

37. Find the standard deviation for the critical path.

a. 1/3

b. 2/3

c. 4/3

d. 5/3
38. Why we go for Monte carlo simulation

1. Solve complex problem

2. Solve linear problem

3. Solve the problem with certainty

4. use repeated random sampling

a. 1,2,3

b, 1, 4

c. 2, 3, 4

d, 2,3

39.The steps of Monte carlo simulation are given arrange them in order.

a. Express the project completion time, generate the random inputs,

Evaluate the project completion time, analyse the result.

b. generate the random inputs, Evaluate the project completion time, analyse the
result, Express the project completion time.

c. Evaluate the project completion time, analyse the result, Express the project
completion time, generate the random inputs,

d. Analyse the result, Express the project completion time, generate the random
inputs, Evaluate the project completion time,

40. the final result in resource allocation consist of

a. activity schedule, resource schedule and cost schedule

b. labour schedule, equipment schedule, materials schedule

c. space schedule, services schedule, time schedule

d. Money schedule, activity schedule, materials schedule

41. what are the different categories in resources

a. human, schedule, resources

b. natural resources, human resource, waste resources

c. Money, Time, cost, space

d. labour, resource schedule, resource requirement.

42. The cost schedule consist

a. human cost, equipment cost, resource cost

b. wages, material cost, equipment cost

c, staff cost, fixed charges, computer time

a. Staff cost , overheads, usage charges.

 PANIMALAR ENGINEERING COLLEGE
DEPARTMENT OF CSE
SPM - MCQ Unit 4
Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Correct
S.No Question Option
In management, ______means taking action to remedy
1. planning monitoring controlling organizing 2
hold-ups.
Once the project is started, attention must be focused on :
a. Monitor the progress of the project
b. Assess the risk of slippage
2. a,c &d a,b &d c &d a,b,c & d 4
c. Visualize and assess the state of a project
d. Revise targets to correct or counteract drift

Function
3. ------------are used to measure effectiveness of the project. Check point Review point None of the above 3
Point

not on target and ‘not on target

4. Assess constituent elements on the scale ”RED” represents, recoverable only with but ‘on target’ All of the above 1
difficulty recoverable’

When can be consider the project under budget or the work is

CV or CPI >
5. completed better than planned? CV or CPI < 1.00 CV or CPI = 1.00 None of the above 2
1.00
Set of procedures to ensure that changes Earned
6. Change Cost Change Control Cost Monitoring 3
made only after a consideration of the full impacts is Value
Actual cost
Accurate cost of work Actual cost of work Allocated cost of
7. What is ACWP? of work 2
Preference Preference work performed
performed
Budgeted
Budgeted cost of work Budgeted cost of
8. What is BCWP? cost of work None of the above 3
Preference work performed
Planning
What are two popular configuration management tools available
9. on most UNIX systems? a&b b&c a&c b&d 3
a. Source Code Control System
 b. Software Cost Control System
c. Revision Control System
d. Software Code Cost Control System

Change
Which is provided an efficient way of storing Configuration Management Open source
10. Control None of the above 3
versions that minimize the amount of occupied disk space? Process configuration tool
Board
What are the different types of contract based on payment?
a. Fixed Price Contracts
11. a b c All of the above 4
b. Time and Materials Contracts
c. Fixed Price per Delivered Unit
Supplier will increase price to meet contingencies is a Fixed Price Per
12. Time and Material Fixed Price None of the above 2
disadvantages of ----------------------- contracts. Delivered unit
Size and
13. What are the two factors used to progress of project? Size and Degree of the Risk
Accuracy
Size and Time None of the above 1

14.
What is/are the ways used to reporting? Oral and Written
Formal and
Regular and Adhoc All of the above 4
Informal
A------------- is a unit of measurement to express the
Review
15. amount of business functionality an information system Check Points
Points functional point None of the above 3
provides to a user
The ______has overall the responsibility for setting, project steering team
16. team member project manager 3
monitoring and modifying objectives of the project. committee manager
The ______ covers the planning stages of a project and not PRINCE project ISO 9001 project
17. Stepwise project planning PRINCE2 1
monitoring and control. planning planning
A _____ is likely to have very high priority for close activity with free
18. critical path activity activity activity with float 1
monitoring. float
In a project team, the ________are skilled at creating a monitor-
19. chair sharper team worker 4
good working environment. evaluator
In a project team, the ________is a good team player who
monitor-
20. is willing to undertake less attractive tasks if they were Company Worker Team worker Complete finisher 1
evaluator
needed for team success.
The ______ chart need to be redrawn each time when
21. Ball Slip Timeline Pie 1
target dates are revised.
In Gantt chart, ______ provides an immediate visual
22. indication of which activities are ahead or behind the Cursor Indicator Today cursor pointer 3
schedule.
 Risk
23. Traffic light method is used for _______. Risk reporting
mitigation
Risk contingency Risk transfer 1

The priorities we might apply in deciding levels in prioritized

24. deciding monitoring monitoring tracking 4
monitoring is called as ______. A.. B. C.. D.. monitoring
A statistical technique to assess, monitor and maintain the Control
25. Pareto chart Run chart Histogram 2
stability of a process is -- chart
Project
This activity is undertaken once the development Project Planning Monitoring Project size Project cost
26. activities start? and estimation estimation
2

Control
The organization as part of its monitoring and control
policy may have a ________ programme in place which
27. measurement system software testing
dictates that certain statistics have to be collected at
various stages of a project.
A -------- is a unit of measurement to express the amount of
28. business functionality an information system provides to a functional point Control point Review point None of the above 1
user
Reflect
scope Review,
changes evaluates,
in and approve/di
Change management systems are designed to Track all changes that baseline
29. accomplish all of the following except: sapprove
are to be implemented and All of the above 4
proposed
performan changes
ce formally
measures

Gantt charts, Slip chars and Ball charts are under

30. Monitoring Verification Control Visualization 4
___________ process.
The _______is the amount of time an activity may be
31. Float Free float Total float Interference float 2
delayed without affecting any subsequent activity.
caution
critical process caution process
32. CPM stands for ______ critical path method path 3
method method
method
 In traffic light method of risk reporting, _______indicates
33. green amber red blue 1
that all the activities are on target.
A ________ in slip chart indicates a need for rescheduling very jagged slip
34. today cursor Cursor single slip 1
the project. line
In project management the ____ number of types of
35. 3 5 4 2 1
contract in management.
Adding more resources to a project to shorten its
36. Cost Trade off crashing Control point Function point 2
duration is called --------
Negotiated
Evaluation Evaluation of
37. Which is not a part of stages in contract placement? Requirement Analysis procedure 3
Plan proposal

What are the Common methods for assigning earned

value in s/w projects?
38. a.The 0/100 technique a and b b and c a and c a, b & c 4
b.The 50/50 technique
c.Milestone Technique
--------is one in which the costs increased by the project Base line Planned
39. Revised expenditure Cost Variance 3
is estimated before project starts Budget expenditure
The ---------- is measured in cost terms as EV-PV and equivalent
40. indicates the degree to which the value of completed CPI annual SPI Cost Variance 4
work differs from that planned. cost
What would be the charge for 2900 FPs?

41. $1,934,000 $2,866,700 $2,549,300 $3,068,200 2

In _________, the priority activities are allocated resources

42. total free total float technical float top float 2
in ascending order of total float.
The total value credited to a project at any point is known
43. earned ROI Value money ecurred 1
as _______ value.
 Time
control and
_________ standards should be in place to ensure that Change control and Access control . Quality control
configurati
44. changes to requirements are implemented in a safe and configuration and configuration and configuration 1
on
orderly way. management management management
manageme
nt
_______ is the method of recording and displaying the way
45. in which targets have changed throughout the duration of Gantt chart Bar chart Timeline Schedule 3
the project.
_______ is an activity bar chart indicating scheduled
46. activity dates and durations frequently augmented with Gantt chart Bar chart Timeline Schedule 1
activity floats.
The priorities we might apply in deciding levels in prioritized
47. hierarchical monitoring tracking tracing 2
monitoring is called as ______. monitoring
customized
System which is created from scratch specially for the off-the- None of the
48. bespoke off-the- 1
customer is------- shelf above
shelf
Which of the following is a requirement management
49. Investigation Design Construction All of the above 4
activity?
The definition and use of configuration management
50. ISO 9000 CMM CMMI All of the above 4
standards is essential for quality certification in
Software
What involves preparing software for external release and
Configurati
Keeping track of the system versions that have been Software Configuration None of the
51. on Base Line 1
released for customer use? Audit Above
manageme
nt