THE AMERICAN COLLEGE OF PROSTHODONTISTS

Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

American College of Prosthodontists

Mock Board Exam 2007
1. A multi-factorial etiology has been implicated in formation of the congenital
anomalies of cleft lip and palate. Which of the following factors affecting the
mother in the first trimester of pregnancy can contribute to cleft lip and/or palate
development?

a. Infection and toxicity

b. Poor nutrition and hormonal imbalances
c. Genetics
d. All of the above

Answer: d

Reference: Beumer J, Curtis T, and Marunick M: Maxillofacial Rehabilitation:

Prosthodontic and Surgical Considerations. Ishiyaku EuroAmerica, Inc.
Publishers. 1996: p337.

2. A patient seeks treatment from the prosthodontist for the restoration of his
significantly worn maxillary anterior teeth. The prosthodontist is deciding whether
to refer the patient to the periodontist for crown lengthening to provide adequate
inciso-cervical length for the preparations. What is the minimal inciso-cervical
length required with preparations exhibiting 10-20 degrees of total occlusal
convergence?

a. 2 mm
b. 3 mm
c. 4 mm
d. 5 mm

Answer: b

Reference: Goodacre, Campagni, Aquilino: Tooth preparations for complete

crowns: An art form based on scientific principles. J Prosthet Dent 2001;
85(4):363-376.

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 THE AMERICAN COLLEGE OF PROSTHODONTISTS
Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

3. The dentist has requested maxillary and mandibular wax trial dentures with 30-
degree teeth set to balanced articulation. When evaluating the eccentric occlusion,
the dentist notices lack of contact of the posterior teeth in straight protrusion. One
method that can be used to correct this problem is:

a. Raise the plane of occlusion in the posterior region.

b. Lower the plane of occlusion in the posterior region.
c. Reduce the prominence of the compensating curve.
d. Close the vertical dimension of occlusion (VDO) on the articulator.
e. None of the above changes can correct this problem.

Answer: a

Reference: Jordan LG. J Prosthet Dent 1978;39:484-94

4. Lingualized occlusion for removable prosthodontics according to Becker

a. Enhances esthetics particularly in the bicuspids

b. Allows for placement of mandibular teeth lingual to the ridge crest
c. Balance occlusion cannot be achieved
d. Vertical formces are decentralized on the mandibular teeth

Answer: a

Reference: Lingualized occlusion for removable prosthodontics. Curtis M. Becker

DDS. Et al. JPD Dec 1977. Pg. 601

5. Patient’s health, age, expectation, psychological factors, exisisting dental conditions,

and the operator’s philosophy and experience influence treatment plans. Which of
the following is not a factor influencing treatment plans?

a. Prognosis
b. Emergency treatment
c. Financial consideration
d. Patient availability

Answer: d

Reference: Bricker SL, Langlais, RP, Miller CS. Oral Diagnosis, Oral Medicine,
and Treament Planning. 2nd edition, 1994

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 THE AMERICAN COLLEGE OF PROSTHODONTISTS
Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

6. Wear due to Bruxism can be identified by the following pattern:

a. Progressively greater wear on the anterior teeth

b. Wear on the facial surface of cuspids and premolars
c. Wear primarily on the occlusal surfaces and incisal edges of the teeth
d. Severe attrition resulting in loss of vertical dimension

Answer: a

Reference: Verrett, R., Analyzing the etiology of an extremely worn dentition.

Journal Prosthet Dent 2001, 10(4): 224-233.

7. Which of the following occurs when intercondylar distance is increased?

a. The angle between working and non-working paths become more obtuse.
b. The non-working path moves lateral away from the central groove.
c. The working path moves more mesially.
d. There is no clinical significance between varying intercondylar distances

Answer: c

Reference: Izull AE, Condylar determinants of occlusal patterns, JPD; pg 826,

1965

8. Which Turner classification of worn dentition has lost VDO?

a. Category I
b. Category II
c. Category III
d. Category IV

Answer: b

Reference: Turner, Missirlian, “Restoration of the extremely worn Dentition”: JPD

Vol 52, No. 4, pp 467-474

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 THE AMERICAN COLLEGE OF PROSTHODONTISTS
Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

9. Moment loads on single implants tend to induce rotations in ________ planes.

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

Answer: c

Reference: Misch CE: Contemporary Implant Dentistry, 2nd ED, St. Louis, 1999,
Mosby.

10. In a porcelain fused to metal crown, the relative coefficients of thermal expansion
are best described by which statement:

a. The coefficient of thermal expansion of the metal should be considerably

lower than that of the veneering ceramic
b. The coefficient of thermal expansion of the metal should be slightly lower
than that of the veneering ceramic
c. The coefficient of thermal expansion of the metal should be as close as
possible to that of the veneering ceramic
d. The coefficient of thermal expansion of the metal should be slightly higher
than that of the veneering ceramic
e. The coefficient of thermal expansion of the metal should be considerably
higher than that of the veneering ceramic

Answer: d

Reference: Craig, R. G., Powers, J.M. Restorative Dental Materials. 11th

Ed.Mosby. St. Louis. 2002, pgs. 554-555.

11. Components of speech include all of the following except:

a. Respiration
b. Phonation
c. Intonation
d. Articulation
e. Resonation

Answer: c

Reference: Beumer J, Curtis TA, Marunick MT. Maxillofacial Rehabilitation

Prosthodontic and Surgical Considerations. Ishiyaku EuroAmerica, Inc.
Publishers; 1996. Chapter 7.

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 THE AMERICAN COLLEGE OF PROSTHODONTISTS
Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

12. The following can be said about lingualized denture setups except:

a. Palatal cusp contacts the mandibular lingual cusp incline in the working side
movement.
b. The mandibular buccal cusp incline contacts the palatal cusp in the balancing
side movement.
c. It is the occlusion for all reasons.
d. It is not an acceptable scheme for a flat-plane setup.

Answer: d

Reference: Parr, G. R. and Ivanhoe J. R., Lingualized Occlusion An Occlusion for

All Reasons, DCNA, Vol 40, 1, Jan 1966.

13. When fabricating a provisional restoration by mixing the polymer and the
monomer, color instability of the restoration can result. In time, the restoration may
become more yellow in appearance. The cause is:

a. The monomer present is urethane dimethacrylate

b. The polymer used was methyl methacrylate
c. Curing the restoration in water at 100° C
d. Unreacted benzoyl peroxide is present
e. None of the above

Answer: d.

Reference: Rosenstiel, Land, Fujimoto. Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics, third

edition, Mosby Inc, page 393.

14. What is the average supporting tissue area of the maxillary complete denture?

a. 14cm2
b. 22cm2
c. 34cm2
d. 46cm2

Answers: b

Reference: G.A. Zarb, Prosthodontic Treatment for Edentulous Patients, 2004

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 THE AMERICAN COLLEGE OF PROSTHODONTISTS
Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

15. What purpose does leucite serve in all-ceramic restoration systems?

a. Reduce sintering shrinkage

b. Thermal compatibility with the core ceramic
c. Dispersion strengthening
d. Colorant

Answer: c

Reference: Kelly JR. Dental ceramics: current thinking and trends. DCNA 2004;
48:513-530.

16. Comparing the clinical attachment level is one of the ways to monitor periodontal
disease progression. What is the most accurate reference point to measure the
clinical attachment level?

a. CEJ or crown margin

b. Crest of papilla
c. Free gingival groove
d. Mucogingival junction

Answer: a

Reference: Greenstein, Compend Contin Educ Dent. 2005 Jun; 26(6):381-399)

17. When assessing the position of the maxillary anterior teeth in a complete denture,
which of the following situations best indicates that the teeth are too long (set too
far down)?

a. An “f” sound is more likely to sound like a “v”.

b. An excess of pink wax (gingiva) is noted above the central incisors when the
patient smiles.
c. The teeth appear more posterior than the wet-dry line of the lower lip during a
labial-dental sound “f”.
d. When making a lingual-dental sound (“th”) the tip of the tongue protrudes
less than 3 mm.

Answer: a

Reference: Boucher’s Prosthodontic Treatment for Edentulous Patients.11th

Ed.p351-352.

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 THE AMERICAN COLLEGE OF PROSTHODONTISTS
Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

18. Which of the following salivary antigens is(are) most related to the incidence of
caries?

a. Immunoglobulin A
b. Immunoglobulin M
c. Secretory imunoglobulin A
d. Immunoglobulin M and immunoglobulin A

Answer: c

Reference: Ivan M. Roitt, Thomas Lehner. Immunology of oral diseases. Second

edition. 1983. P.349-350. and Russell J. Nisengard, Michael G. Newman.
Oral microbiology and immunology. Second edition. 1992. P351-354.

19. Tissue conditioners have been incorporated in a variety of uses. An area of specific
interest is pressure changes over time on denture-bearing mucosa. According to a
reported study, which of the following selections is incorrect?

a. Tissue changes are reported to occur because shrinkage of the applied

materials
b. The higher the residual ridge resulted in more pressure on the denture
periphery and less pressure on the ridge crest
c. Pressure tended to increase on the ridge crest up to a period of 4 weeks
d. The period of tissue conditioner use influences the dimensional accuracy of a
dynamic impression technique

Answer: b

Reference: Shigeto, N et al, IJP Vol. 8(5): 490-495

20. The mandible functions as a lever of what type?

a. As a Type I lever
b. As a Type II lever
c. As a Type III lever
d. As both Type I and Type III levers
e. As a Type IV lever

Answer: c

Reference: Rosensteil, SF. Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics, C.V. Mosby

Company 1988, page 66.

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 THE AMERICAN COLLEGE OF PROSTHODONTISTS
Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

21. What was the conclusion of Attard and Zarb’s literature review of clinical studies
concerning immediate and early implant loading protocol?

a. early loading results in a positive outcome

b. predictable positive results can be expected in extraction sites of teeth
with periodontal disease
c. treatment protocols are predictable in the anterior mandible
d. immediate loading in the maxillae using 10 mm long implants is a
predictable protocol

Answer: c

Reference: Attard and Zarb: Immediate and early loading protocols: A literature
review of clinical studies, J Prosthet Dent 2005;94(3):242-258.

22. The optimal support for an implant single mandibular molar crown remains
somewhat controversial. According to a recent finite element analysis by Geramy
& Morgano, all statements are correct except:

a. There was a difference in the loading among the two implant design, the
large diameter single implant design and the standard implant diameter
design.
b. Selecting a large diameter implant design reduced offset loading
displacement significantly over a standard implant design.
c. The two implant designs were the most effective reducing displacement
with off center loading
d. The single standard size implant was considered ineffective because high
off loading would cause fractures

Answer: d

Reference: Geramy & Morgano, J Prosthet Dent 2004: 92:434-40.

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 THE AMERICAN COLLEGE OF PROSTHODONTISTS
Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

23. According to Rosenstiel et al which of the following statements about dental cements
is correct?

a. Resin cements, especially the urethane-based luting agents, are highly

resistant to water sorption.
b. Resin-modified glass ionomer cement is the luting agent of choice for all-
ceramic crowns.
c. Glass ionomer and resin luting agents shrink when setting.
d. Glass ionomer cements display a high resistance to water solubility very
soon after setting.

Answer: c

Reference: Rosentiel et al., J Prosthet Dent 1998;80:280-301

24. According to Aramany, which classification of obturator designs for partially

edentulous patients occurs more frequently?

a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV

Answer: a

Reference: Aramany, MA. DDS. Basic principles of obturator designs for partially
edentulous patients. Part I- Classification. JPD Dec 2001: Vol 86, number
6. Pg 559.

25. The following responses are related to cytotoxicity of denture base acrylic resins.
Select the incorrect statement:

a. Cytotoxicity of denture base resins is related to monomer-polymer ratio

– as the amount of polymer increases, cytotoxicity increases
b. As storage time in water increases, cytotoxicity decreases
c. Heating cycles with temperatures less than 100˚may result in polymers
with higher methyl methacylate residual monomer content than heating
cycles with temperature greater than 100˚c
d. Heat polymerized resins have lower amounts of residual monomer than
autopolymerizing monomer

Answer : a

Reference: Jorye, JH, et al J Prosthet Dent. 90: 90-3, 2003.

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 THE AMERICAN COLLEGE OF PROSTHODONTISTS
Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

26. What is the amount of “long centric” as advocated by Dawson and others that
should be incorporated in the restoration of the occlusion?

a. It should be 0.5 mm
b. It should be ¼ of the distance from the centric stop to the incisal edge of
the anterior teeth
c. It should be 0.2 mm – 1.00 mm depending on the vertical overlays of
the anterior teeth.
d. It should be the distance between centric relation closure and light
closure from rest when the patient is in the postural position.

Answer: d

Reference: Dawson Evaluation, Diagnosis and Treatment of Occlusal Problems

2nd Ed, 1989; p 267.

27. In an article written by Tarnow et al. it was found that the mean height of papillary
tissue, measured from the height of the papilla to the crest of bone, between two
adjacent implants was ________ mm?

a. 2.0 mm
b. 3.4 mm
c. 5.0 mm
d. 6.0 mm

Answer: b

Reference: Tarnow, D, et al. Vertical Distance from the Crest of Bone to the
Height of the Interproximal Papilla Between Adjacent Implants. J
Periodontol 2003; 74: 1785-1788.

28. The best and most consistent indicator for caries risk assessment is:

a. Lactobacillus saliva test

b. Mutans streptococci saliva test
c. Past caries experience
d. Saliva ph test

Answer: c

Reference: NIH CONSENSUS STATEMENT 18(1): 10-11, March 26-28, 2001.

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 THE AMERICAN COLLEGE OF PROSTHODONTISTS
Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

29. Fracture resistance of endodontically treated teeth retained with or without dowel and
core remains an interesting topic of discussion. According to a recently reported study,
which of the following selections is incorrect?

a. Ferrule of non-uniform 0.5-2.0 mm is not an important criteria when

considering a restoration
b. Endodontically treated central incisor teeth with a uniform 2 mm ferrule
were more fracture resistant than those with a ferrule varing between 0.5
mm and 2 mm
c. Endodontically treated maxillary central incisors with a ferrule length
between 0.5 mm and 2.0 mm were more fracture resistance than those
teeth without a ferrule.
d. Uniform ferrule of 2.0 mm or more may be an important restorative
factor for endodontically treated incisors.

Answer: a

Reference: Tan LB et al, J Prosthet Dent. 93-331-6, 2005.

30. In a comprehensive literature review relative to complications with implants and

implant prostheses by Goodacre, which of the following statements is correct
concerning the survival of individual implants?

a. The mean incidence of loss of individual implants for maxillary implant-

supported overdentures was 10%.
b. The mean incidence of loss of individual implants for mandibular
implant-supported overdentures was 15%.
c. The mean incidence of loss of individual implants for single implant-
supported artificial crowns was 3%.
d. The mean incidence of loss of individual implants for maxillary implant-
supported fixed partial dentures was 15%.

Answer: c

Reference: Goodacre el at., J Prosthet Dent 2003; 90:121-32.

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 THE AMERICAN COLLEGE OF PROSTHODONTISTS
Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

31. Which of the following statements about speech is incorrect?

a. The “f” and “v” sounds are described as labiodental sounds.

b. Linguodental sounds are made with the tongue extending slightly between
the teeth.
c. The “s” sound is described as a linguoalveolar sound.
d. The sounds “b”, “p” and “m” are described as linguopalatal sounds.

Answer: d

Reference: Zarb GA et al. Boucher’s prosthodontic treatment for edentulous

patients. 11th ed. St Louis: Mosby. pp 352-4.

32. The use of non- bonded abrasives; such as exist in dental prophylaxis pastes is an
example of:

a. A. two-body abrasion
b. One-body abrasion
c. Three-body abrasion.
d. the same process of abrasion when you use diamond bur.

Answer: c

Reference: (Anusavice, Kenneth J. Anusavice. Phillips' Science of Dental

Materials, 11th Edition. Elsevier, 2003. 16.5.1). chap 13.

33. Which of the following method(s) can be employed during the diagnosis and
treatment planning phase to assess and to calculate available interarch distance that
correct vertical dimension of occlusion?

a. Assessment of properly articulated diagnostic or master casts

b. Diagnostic waxing of the planned prostheses
c. Evaluation of existing interim or immediate conventional dentures
d. All of the above

Answer: d

Reference: Alsiyabi, AS, Felton DA, Cooper, LF. The role of abutment-attachment
selection in resolving inadequate interarch distance: a clinical report.
Journal of Prosthodontics 14: 184-190.

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Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

34. An articulator that will allow for orientation of the casts to the temporomandibular
joints and will accept three dimensional dynamic registrations to program
simulation of mandibular movements is classified as a:

a. Class I articulator
b. Class II articulator
c. Class III articulator
d. Class IV articulator

Answer: d

Reference: Glossary of Prosthodontic Terms 8th ed. J Prosthet Dent 2005; 94:10-
92.

35. The muscles of mastication are derived from which of the following branchial
arches:

a. First branchial arch

b. Second branchial arch
c. Third branchial arch
d. Sixth branchial arch

Answer: a

Reference: Gray, Henry. Anatomy of the Human Body Philadelphia: Lea &
Febiger, 1918; Bartleby.com, 2000.

36. The muscles of mastication are derived from which of the following branchial
arches:

a. First branchial arch

b. Second branchial arch
c. Third branchial arch
d. Sixth branchial arch

Answer: a

Reference: Gray, Henry. Anatomy of the Human Body. Philadelphia: Lea &
Febiger, 1918; Bartleby.com, 2000.

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Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

37. Surgical modifications which may improve the prognosis for maxillary obturator
prosthetic rehabilitation include all of the following except:

a. Conservation of premaxilla
b. Skin graft of cheek flap
c. Medial bony margin coverage using palatal mucosa
d. Surgical resection through transeptal bone approximating the tooth
bordering the proposed defect

Answer: d

Reference: Curtis BA, Beumer III J. Chapter 6 Restoration of Acquired Hard

Palate Defects: Etiology, Disability and Rehabilitation, in: Maxillofacial
Rehabilitation: Prosthodontic and Surgical Considerations, Beumer J,
Curtis TA, Marunick MT, Eds, Ishiyaku EuroAmerica, Inc., St. Louis, 1996.
58.

38. Which author is responsible for a classification system of removable partial

overdentures?

a. OC Applegate
b. E Kennedy
c. IG McDermott
d. RP Renner
e. KD Rudd

Answer: c

Reference: McDermott IG, Classification of Removable Partial Overdentures.

Dental Clinics of North America Vol 34 #4. Oct 1990. Pg 611.

39. According to Moy, et al., which of the following patient risk factors are absolute
contraindications for implant placement?

a. Diabetes
b. Osteoporosis
c. History of head/neck radiation
d. None of the above

Answer: d

Reference: Moy, PK, et al., International Journal of Maxillofacial Implants, 2005;

20:569-577.

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 THE AMERICAN COLLEGE OF PROSTHODONTISTS
Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

40. The concept of "load testing" to verify centric relation, a technique where the
mandible is manipulated to a freely hinging position suspected to be centric relation
and is incrementally loaded with gentle, moderate, and then firm pressure, is
advocated by:

a. Okeson
b. Ash
c. Dawson
d. Ramfjord

Answer: c

Reference: Dawson PE. Functional Occlusion: From TMJ to Smile Design. 2007:
Chap10; 86-90.

41. In general, there should be a minimum separation of how many millimeters between
a natural tooth and an implant in order to preserve the blood supply to the natural
tooth’s periodontal ligament?

a. 1 mm
b. 3 mm
c. 5 mm
d. 7 mm

Answer: b

Reference: Misch, CE. Dental Implant Prosthetics. St Louis: Elsevier-Mosby;

2005.

42. Di Pietro and Moegeli reported patients with high or low Frankford-Mandibular
plane angles (FMA) were often associated with the following clinical findings:

a. Low FMA patients tended to have evidence of bruxing more than High
FMA patients.
b. High FMA patients tended to have evidence of bruxing more than Low
FMA patients.
c. No particular association with bruxing was suggested.
d. Open bite patients have

Answer: a

Reference: DiPietro, G. and Moergeli, J. Significance of the Frankfort-mandibular

plane angle to prosthodontics. J Prosthet Dent 36:624-635, 1976.

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Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

43. Which of the following are components of the biologic width?

a. Junctional epithelium, connective tissue attachment.

b. Periodontal ligament.
c. Marginal and attached gingiva.
d. Dentogingival and alveologingival fibers.
e. Cementoenamel junction.

Answer: a.

Reference: Gargiulo AW, Wentz FM, Orban B. Dimensions and relations of the
dentogingival junction in humans. J Periodontal 1961:32:261.

44. What is the average masticatory efficiency of complete dentures compared to the
full natural dentition?

a.10%
b. 25%
c. 45%
d. 65%

Answer: b

Reference: G.A. Zarb, Prosthodontic Treatment for Edentulous Patients, 2004.

45. A protrusive record is used to program a semi-adjustable articulator. A molar

crown is fabricated with intimate contact between cusp inclines in all excursions on
this articulator. Assuming that the patient has a significant Fischer angle, the crown
on the nonworking side will:

a. interfere with the opposing teeth

b. separate from the opposing teeth
c. have intimate contact with the opposing teeth
d. Who cares, I just grind where there is a high spot

Answer: b

Reference: Niles Guichet. Principles of Occlusion: A collection of monographs

1970.

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Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

46. What is the pH of zinc phosphate cement during the initial union between the zinc
oxide powder and phosphoric acid liquid?

a. pH 2.0
b. pH 3.0
c. pH 5.0
d. pH 6.0

Answer: a

Reference: Dental Materials, William J. O’Brien 1989 page 220.

47. The distance between two implants has a significant effect on the height of the
inter-implant bone crest. What is adequate distance between two adjacent implants
in order to conserve the inter-implant bone crest?

a. 1.5 mm
b. 2.0 mm
c. 2.5 mm
d. 3.0 mm

Answer: d

Reference: Tarnow DP, Cho SC, Wallace SS. The effect of inter-implant distance
on the height of inter-implant bone crest. Journal of Periodontology 2000 Apr;
71(4):546-9.

48. The two common designs for distal extension(s) removable partial denture with
either I-bar retainer, mesial occlusal rest seat, and distal guide plan; or cast
circumferential clasp, distal guide plane and distal occlusal rest seat presented a
similar long term success rate and periodontal health results on the terminal
abutment teeth within which following condition(s)?
a. Abutment teeth with healthy periodontium
b. Incorporate a regular 6-month patient recall program
c. A well fabricated removable partial denture
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

Answer : d

Reference: Kapur KK, Deupree R, Dent RJ, Hasse AL: A randomized clinical trial
of two basic removable partial denture designs. Part I: Comparisons of five-
year success rate and periodontal health. J Prosthet Dent 1994; 72:268-82.

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Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

49. Research on chewing conducted by Gibbs and Lundeen reported:

a. Five distinct adult chewing patterns.

b. heavy occlusal loads on canines when canine-guided occlusion (canine
disclusion) was present.
c. a broad lateral chewing stroke for patients who lacked anterior guidance.
d. All of the above are correct.

Answer: c

Reference: Lundeen HC, Gibbs CH Advances in occlusion. Boston, John Wright-

PSG Inc. 1982, chapter 1.

50. A ferrule is commonly established when restoring a pulpless tooth with a post and
core. According to Morgano and Brackett which of the following statements
concerning this ferrule is incorrect?

a. The ferrule effect should be developed by extending the finish line of the
crown preparation a minimum of 1.5-2 mm apical to the margin of the
core.
b. When a cast post and core is used, a cast ferrule as a component of the
core itself is recommended.
c. The ferrule will reduce the potential for failure of the cement seal of the
artificial crown.
d. The ferrule will reduce the potential for fracture of the post.
e. All of the above are correct.

Answer: b

Reference: Morgano and Brackett., J Prosthet Dent 1999; 82:643-57.

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Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

51. A study by Pullinger and Seligman on the predictive values of occlusal variables on
temporomandibular disorders reported that:

a. Dental occlusion was a cofactor that accounted for 73-95% of the

likelihood of developing temporomandibular disorders.
b. Horizontal overlap (overjet) > 5mm was more commonly associated with
osteoarthrosis.
c. Patients with unilateral cross bite were less likely to have disk
displacements.
d. Horizontal overlap (overjet) < 1mm was more commonly associated with
patients with temporomandibular disorders.

Answer: b

Reference: Pullinger and Seligman., J Prosthet Dent 2000;83:66-75.

52. “Preload” is a term that is commonly used in implant dentistry. Which of the
following is a definition of preload?

a. The contact force clamping together an implant and implant abutment.

b. The amount of torque, expressed in Ncm, delivered to a screw.
c. The force transmitted to an implant during occlusal function.
d. The torque, expressed in Ncm, required to loosen a screw

Answer: a

Reference: Lang LA. J Prosthet Dent 2003; 90:539-

53. Reports have indicated that resin bond strength to non-carious sclerotic cervical
dentin is lower and unpredictable compared to normal dentin. Based on a review
article by Toy and Pashley, all statements are correct except:

a. Restorations of sclerotic cervical dentin demonstrated adherent bacteria

and bacteria encapsulated into the bonded restorations
b. Removal of a thin layer of sclerotic cervical dentin is advisable but may
not guarantee improved bond strength
c. Micromechanical retention in restorations involving sclerotic dentin
remains indispensable to insure clinical success of composite bonded
restorations
d. It is clinically a simple task to validate the quality of the hybrid layer in
sclerotic dentin using enhanced visualization – i.e. magnification

Answer: d

Reference: Toy and Pashley, J. Dentistry 32: 173-176, 2004.

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Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

54. The most important consideration for treatment of patients with Alzheimer’s
disease is:

a. The use of a rubber dam

b. The increased use of removable prostheses as disease progresses
c. That necessary dental treatment be completed early in the illness
d. Longer appointment times are preferred to complete restorative care
e. The use of fluoride containing restorative materials

Answer: c

Reference: Chapman, P. Normative dental treatment needs of Alzheimer patients.

Australian Dental Journal.1991; 36(2):141.

55. Early wound healing around endosseous implants involves phenotypic conversion
of mesenchymal cells into bone-forming cells. What is the term given to this
phenomenon?

a. Osseoinduction
b. asseoconduction
c. appositional bone growth
d. contact osteogenesis

Answer: a

Reference: Raghavendra, Wood, Taylor: Early wound healing around endosseous

implants: A review of the literature. J Oral & Maxillofacial Implants 2005;
20(3):425-431.

56. Which is not an indication for a Swinglock Partial Denture?

a. Loss of a strategic abutment

b. Remaining teeth too mobile
c. Poor position of strategic teeth
d. Stabilization for maxillofacial prostheses
e. Optimal stress release

Answer: e

Reference: Stuart KL, Rudd KD, and Kuebker WA. Clinical Removable Partial
Prosthodontics, C.V. Mosby Company 1983, page 595

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57. Goodacre’s 2001 article describes the minimum occlusocervical dimension of

molars should be:

a. 4 mm
b. 5 mm
c. 3 mm
d. 7 mm

Answer: a

Reference: Charles J.Goodacre, DDS et al. Tooth preparations for complete

crowns. JPD April 2001. Vol 85 Number 4. Pg 363.

58. According to Turner, what is the most common cause of loss of vertical dimension?

a. Loss of posterior support

b. Gradual Occlusal wear over many years
c. Accelerated wear over a short period of time
d. Bruxism

Answer: a

Reference: Turner, K., Restoration of the extremely worn dentition.J Prosthet Dent
1984, 52(4): 467-74.

59. Five factors governing articulation according to Hanau’s Quint are: CG ( condylar
guidance), IG (incisal guidance), CI (cusp inclination), OOP(orientation of occlusal
plane) and CC (compensating curve). Which factor is determined by the patient
and the dentist has the least control over it.

a. CG (condylar guidance)
b. IG (incisal guidance)
c. CI (cusp inclination)
d. OOP (orientation of occlusal plane)
e. CC (compensating curve)

Answer: a

Reference: Hanau, Rudolph LJ, Articulation Defined, Analyzed and Formulated

Amer Dent Assoc 1926 1694-1709.

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60. Which of the following anatomic structure attaches to the pterygoid hamulus of the
medial pterygoid plate?

a. Buccinator
b. Tensor Veli Palatini
c. Pterygomandibular raphe
d. Medial pterygoid

Answer: c

Reference: Prosthodontic Treatment for Edentulous Patient, 12th Ed, Zarb, Pg.217.

61. Five intrinsic areas within and around a palatal defect that can provide retention to a
maxillary obturator prosthesis include all except:

a. residual soft palate

b. residual hard palate
c. lateral scar band
d. height of medial wall
e. height of lateral wall

Answer: d

Reference: Desjardins, R. Obturator Prosthesis for Acquired Maxillary Defects. J

Prosthet Dent 1978:39:424-435.

62. According to Grasso, all of the following are viable indications for using denture
adhesives except:

a. To stabilize denture trial bases

b. To augment retention while ridge re-contouring is occurring following
immediate denture placement
c. To augment retention and stability of ill-fitting dentures
d. To improve retention and support of removable partial dental prostheses

Answer: c

Reference: Grasso, J.E. Dental Clinics of North America. Volume 48, pp 721-733.
2004.

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63. Aramany’s classification of partially edentulous maxillectomy patients is based

upon _____________.

a. frequency of occurrence
b. difficulty of fabrication
c. ease of adaptation of the patient to the prosthesis
d. size of the defect

Answer: a

Reference: Aramany, Mohamed. Basic principles of obturator design for partially

edentulous patients. Part I: Classification. J Prosthet Dent 1978; 40:
554-557.

64. Mutually protected occlusion had its origins with the Gnathological Society. Those
included in the literature associated with the Gnathological Society and mutually
protected occlusion includes all of the following except:

a. D’Amico
b. Stuart
c. Stallard
d. Dawson
e. Lucia

Answer: d

Reference: Shillingburg, HT: Fundamentals of Fixed Prosthodontics 3rd ed.

Pp 19-20.

65. The average mesio-distal diameter of the maxillary central incisor at the cervix is:

a. 7.0 mm
b. 6.5 mm
c. 6.0mm
d. 7.5mm

Answer: a

Reference: Wheeler’s Dental Anatomy, Physiology and Occlusion- Ash; Saunder’s

6th edition: Page 13; Table 1-1.

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66. Which of the following belongs to autoimmune disease:

a. Candidiasis
b. Erythema multiforme
c. Pemphigus vulgaris
d. Herpes simplex

Answer: c

Reference: J. Philip Sapp, Lewis Roy Eversole and George W. Wysocki.

Contemporary oral and maxillofacial pathology. Second edition.
P265-268.

67. Utilizing a facebow when mounting a master cast on a semi-adjustable articulator

may have adverse esthetic consequences because:

a. The esthetic reference plane and intercondylar axis may not be parallel
b. The incisal edge position of the anterior restorations may be placed too
far labially
c. Condylar determinants may not be accurately transferred
d. None of the above

Answer: a

Reference: Chiche GJ, Pinalt A. Esthetics of anterior fixed prosthodontics.

Chicago: Quintessence; 1994 p. 115-118.

68. Trauma from occlusion, in the presence of periodontitis may result in:

a. Narrowing of the periodontal ligament space

b. Pulpal necrosis
c. The formation of intrabony pockets
d. No change in shape of the alveolar crest

Answer: c

Reference: Carranza et al. Clinical Periodontology 9th Edition. 2002. Pg. 377.

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69. The addition of yttrium, cerium, magnesium or calcium to zirconium oxide is to:

a. Stabilize it in its tetragonal form

b. Stabilize it in its monoclinic form
c. Increase opacity
d. Decrease opacity

Answer: a

Reference: Kelly JR. Dental ceramics: current thinking and trends. DCNA 2004;
48:513-530.

70. Which part of a resin denture tooth exhibits reduced cross-linking?

a. cervical
b. labial
c. incisal
d. lingual

Answer: a

Reference: Anusavice: Phillip’s Science of Dental Materials. 10th Edition. Chapter

11, Page 268.

71. The main purpose for incorporating a tissue stop in the metal frame work of a
Kennedy Class I or II partial denture is to:

a. Prevent excessive displacement of movable tissue under a functional load

resulting in denture displacement
b. Increase the strength of the framework saddles.
c. Prevent distortion of the framework during acrylic resin processing.
d. Indicate the distal extent of the denture to the technician.

Answer: c

Reference: McCraken’s Removable Partial Prosthodontics. 10th Ed. p 62-64.

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72. In discussing the restoration of the extremely worn dentition Turner and Missirlian
discussed wear relative to each of the following except:

a. Limited occlusal vertical dimension space available for restoration.

b. Occlusal vertical dimension loss
c. No loss of occlusal vertical dimension.
d. Occlusal vertical dimension space available for restoration.
e. TMD associated problems.

Answer: e

Reference: Turner KA, Missirlian DM. Restoration of the extremely worn

dentition. J Prosthet Dent. 1984; 52:467-74.

73. Research on chewing conducted by Gibbs and Lundeen reported:

a. Five distinct adult chewing patterns.

b. heavy occlusal loads on canines when canine-guided occlusion (canine
disclusion) was present.
c. a broad lateral chewing stroke for patients who lacked anterior guidance.
d. All of the above are correct.

Answer: c

Reference: Lundeen HC, Gibbs CH Advances in occlusion. Boston, John Wright-

PSG Inc. 1982, chapter 1.

74. Which is not an advantage of immediate complete dentures?

a. The denture acts as a bandage or splint.

b. The splinting promotes rapid healing and protects the blood clot.
c. Patients seem to function in speech, deglutition, and mastication much
sooner.
d. Patients are not as reluctant to have diseased teeth removed if they are
replaced immediately.
e. Bone is contoured by the immediate dentures and the osteoclastic action
may be of lesser magnitude in unhealed bone.

Answer: e

Reference: Heartwell, C. and Salisbury, F. W. Immediate complete dentures: An

evaluation. J Prosthet Dent 15:615-624, 1965.

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75. A lingual bar major connector for a mandibular removable partial denture should
be:

a. half pear shaped in cross section.

b. half round in cross section.
c. flexible for patient comfort.
d. 3 mm in height.

Answer: a

Reference: McGivney GP, Carr AB. McCracken’s removable partial

prosthodontics 10th ed. St Louis: Mosby. pp 38-39.

76. Which of the following determinants of occlusal morphology will allow for taller
posterior cusps?

a. Greater horizontal overlap of the anterior teeth

b. More acute anteroposterior curve of Spee
c. Greater immediate lateral translation
d. Greater vertical overlap of the anterior teeth
e. Shallower condylar guidance

Answer: d

Reference: Okeson, J. Management of Temporomandibular Disorders and

Occlusion, Fourth Edition, Mosby – Year Book, Inc. St. Louis, MO. 1998
pp. 145.

77. Jerbi’s classic method for trimming casts in the construction of immediate complete
dentures is called:

a. Rule of resorption
b. Rule of thirds
c. Transitional denture technique
d. Law of fours

Answer: b

Reference: Jerbi, F.: Trimming the Cast in the Construction of Immediate

Dentures. J Prosthet Dent 16: 1047-1053, 1966.

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78. Under lateral loads, an implant does not exhibit a primary immediate movement,
but a secondary movement of:

a. 5-10μm
b. 50-100μm
c. 1-5μm
d. 10-50μm

Answer: a

Reference: Misch CE. Dental Implant Prosthetics. 2005; Chap 25: 474.

79. Failure of osseointegration is a concern when treatment planning implant placement

in irradiated bone. Use of the established protocol for hyperbaric oxygen will
restore radiated tissues to:

a. 65% to 70% of their former healing potential

b. 75% to 80% of their former healing potential
c. 85% to 90% of their former healing potential
d. 95% to 100% of their former healing potential

Answer: b

Reference: Marx ME, Morales MJ. The Use of Implants in the Reconstruction of
Oral Cancer Patients. The Dental Clinics of North America; Pg 137,
Jan 1998

80. Which of the following is not part of the Pankey-Mann-Schuyler occlusal concepts?

a. No deflection is permitted between centric occlusion and MIP

b. Cusp to embrasure occlusal relationship in centric occlusion
c. Occlusal contacts are a single point
d. Unilateral balanced occlusion developed by means of functionally
generated path

Answer: b

Reference: Continuum II; Journal of the L.D. Pankey Institute, 1981.

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81. The total area under a stress-strain curve for a given material represents

a. Resilience
b. Ductility
c. Toughness
d. Elasticity

Answer: c

Reference: Powers, J.M. and Sakaguchi, R. L. Craig’s Restorative Dental

Material’s 12th ed. 4:62.

82. Sears stated that when the occlusal load is too far anterior, three major evils are
caused. Which of the following is not one of the three?

a. The breaking down of the anterior parts of the ridges.

b. The bending of the mandible at its weakest place.
c. The upward displacement of the condyles.
d. The stability of the denture is decreased.

Answer: d

Reference: Sears, V.H. Occlusal pivots. J Prosthet Dent 9:73-90, 1995.

83. An occlusal rest must be at least ___ mm thick at its thinnest point.

a. 5mm
b. 1mm
c. 1.5mm
d. 2.mm
e. Not important

Answer: b

Reference: Stuart KL, Rudd KD, and Kuebker WA. Clinical Removable Partial
Prosthodontics, C.V. Mosby Company 1983, page 302.

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84. When patients are treated with complete arch fixed partial dentures connecting teeth
and implant abutment, what type of connectors should be used?

a. Rigid
b. Non-rigid
c. Non-rigid with teeth with normal periodontal support
d. Teeth should never be connected to implants because they almost
always exhibit intrusion

Answer: a

Reference: Cordaro et al.: Retrospective evaluation of complete arch fixed partial

dentures connecting teeth and implant abutments in patients with normal
and reduced periodontal support. J Prosthet Dent 2005; 94(4):313-320.

85. One of the treatment goals in placing occlusal restorations should be to produce a
posterior occlusion with buffer space that equals or surpasses the deviations
resulting from natural variation found in the TMJ. What is the recommended buffer
space on the non-working side in restoring the posterior occlusion in dentate
mouths?

a. 0.3
b. 0.5
c. 1.0
d. 2.0

Answer: c

Reference: Shillingburg Fundamentals of Fixed Prosthodontics 3rd Ed. 1997, p 20.

86. What property of impression materials is the most important factor in producing
impressions and dies with minimal bubbles and maximum detail?

a. Strain in compression
b. Dynamic modulus
c. Viscosity
d. Permanent deformation

Answer: c

Reference: Craig, G., Powers, J. Restorative Dental Materials. Mosby, Inc. 11th
Ed. 2002, pg 368.

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87. Micromotion of implant-supported crowns under occlusal load has been reported to
cause:

a. Soft-tissue complications.
b. Bone loss.
c. Mechanical complications such as loosening and fracture of abutment
screws.
d. All of the above are correct.

Answer: d

Reference: Allahyar G, Morgano SM. Finite element analysis of three designs of

an implant-supported molar crown. J Prosthet Dent 2004; 92:434-440.

88. A method of analysis of survival times for censored observations that have been
grouped into intervals is called:

a. Frequency distribution analysis

b. Relative risk ratio
c. Life table analysis
d. Meta-analysis

Answer: c

Reference: Carr AB, McGivney GP. User’s guide to the dental literature: How to
get started. J Prosthet Dent 2000;83:13-20.

89. How much mg of Lidocaine and epinephrine are in 2 cartridges of 2% Lidocaine

with 1: 100,000 epinephrine?

a. 18mg and 0.018mg

b. 36mg and 0.018mg
c. 36mg and 0.036mg
d. 72mg and 0.036mg

Answer: d

Reference: Drug Information Handbook for Dentistry 8th edition, Richard Wynn
pg 709.

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90. The ideal depth of platform level placement for a two-stage implant is _____mm
below the adjacent tooth CEJ.

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

Answer: b

Reference: Misch CE: Dental Implant Prosthetics. China, 2005, Mosby. Pg 391.

91. Which discrepancy in the Transverse Horizontal Axis results in larger occlusal
error?

a. Superior-Inferior error
b. Anterior- Posterior error
c. The error is the same

Answer: a

Reference: Preston J, Reassessment of the THA theory, J Prosth Dent 1979.

92. Which of the following is NOT a recommendation when selecting the shade of a
tooth?

a. Take the shade early in the appointment

b. Periodically stare at a blue napkin or card
c. Carefully compare each shade tab to the tooth
d. Have the patient wear neutral colors and remove and make-up
e. Compare shades under various lighting conditions

Answer: c

Reference: Sorensen J, Torres T; J Prosth Dent, 1987; 58(2):133-9 and

58(6):669-76.

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93. All of the following are clinical procedures that aid in preventing screw loosening
in implant supported and retained restorations except:

a. Implants placed parallel to the forces of occlusion

b. Occlusion adjusted to direct forces in the long axis of the implant
c. Antirotational feature engaged for single teeth
d. Components tightened with 10-15 N-cm of torque

Answer: d

Reference: Block MS, Kent JN, Guerra LR: Implants in Dentistry, W. B. Saunders,
Philadelphia, PA, 1997, pp. 92-93.

94. According to Celenza’s Classification of Articulators, the Whipmix and the Denar
Mark 2 are classified as:

a. Class III, Subdivision A

b. Class III, Subdivision B
c. Class IV, Subdivision A
d. Class IV, Subdivision B

Answer: b

Reference: Celenza, Frank V.: Articulator and determinants of occlusal

morphology. In Complete Denture Occlusion-International Prosthodontia
Workshop. 1st Edition by Lang, B.R. and Kelsey, C.C. The Univ of
Michigan, School of Dentistry Perss, 1973: 89-104.

95. The mean denture-bearing area of the edentulous maxilla is ______cm squared and
the edentulous mandible is _______cm squared. This contrasts with the
_______cm squared area of periodontal ligament available in each dental arch.

a. 12.25 ; 22.96 ; 45
b. 45 ; 22.96 ; 12.25
c. 12.25 ; 45 ; 22.96
d. 22.96 ; 12.25 ; 45

Answer: d

Reference: Zarb, Bolender, and Carlsson. Boucher's Prosthodontic Treatment for

Edentulous Patients, 11th ed. 1997; Chap 2: 12.

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96. According to Shillingburg, the optimum difference between the coefficient of

thermal expansion for a gold alloy and a ceramic in a metal-ceramic restoration is:

a. 1.7 x 10(-6)°C
b. 1 x 10(-6)°C
c. 7 x 10(-6)°C
d. 1 x 10(-8)°C

Answer: b

Reference: Shillingburg et al. Fundamentals of Fixed Prosthodontics, 3rd Ed.

2005; Chap 25: 456.

97. The most effective time to apply polyvinyl siloxane adhesive to a custom Triad
impression tray, in order to achieve the best adhesion between the tray and PVS
impression material is:

a. 10 minutes
b. 7 days
c. 48 hours
d. There is no difference between these time choices

Answer: c

Reference: Dixon D, Breeding L, Brown J: the effect of custom tray material type
and adhesive drying time on the tensile bond strength of an impression
material / adhesive system. International Journal of Prosthodontics,
7(2):129-133, 1994.

98. Hatley et al. found that the minimum distance between implants can/should be:

a. 7 mm center-to-center
b. 7 mm edge-to-edge
c. 5 mm center-to-center
d. 3 mm edge-to-edge
e. only limited by instrumentation and restoration design

Answer: e

Reference: Hatley CL, Cameron SM, Cuenin MF, Parker MH, Thompson SH,
Harvey SB. The effect of dental implant spacing on peri-implant bone using
the rabbit (Oryctolagus cuniculus) tibia model. J Prosthodont 2001; 10:154-
159.

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99. The safest time to extract teeth in relation to therapeutic radiation is

a. At least two years after radiation treatment

b. At least 21 days prior to radiation treatment
c. During the period of radiation treatment
d. No more that two weeks after radiation treatment
e. There is no safe time

Answer: b

Reference: Marx, R and Johnson, R. Studies in the radiobiology of

osteoradionecrosis and their clinical significance. Oral Surg 1987; 64: 379-
390.

100. The Frankfurt Horizontal Plane is parallel to which of the following?

a. Axis-Orbital Plane
b. Camper’s Line
c. Horizontal Plane of Reference
d. None of the above

Answer: d

References: Ercoli et al. Face-bow record without a third point of reference:

theoretical considerations and an alternative technique. JPD 1999 Aug;
82(2):237-41.

Bailey JO Jr, Nowlin TP. Evaluation of the third point of reference for
mounting maxillary casts on the Hanau articulator. J Prosthet Dent 1984;
51:199-201.

Lundstrom F, Lundstrom A. Natural head position as a basis for

cephalometricanalysis. Am J Orthod Dentofacial Orthop 1992; 101:244-7.

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101. The conventional shrinkage of ceramics is a result of a reduction in porosity as the

liquid binder is eliminated and the ceramic or glass densifies, and thereby reduce
the porosity. The conventional densification shrinkage of 30 to 50% volume
represents:

a. 6% to 8% linear shrinkage
b. 10 % to 15 % linear shrinkage
c. 15 % to 18 % linear shrinkage
d. 18 % to 20 % linear shrinkage

Answer: a

Reference: Campbell S. Dimensional and formation analysis of a restorative

ceramic and how it works. J Prosth Dent Vol 74. Oct 1995. pp 332-337.

102. What is not correct about metal ceramic alloy?

a. Must be able to produce surface oxide

b. Coefficient of thermal expansion is slightly lower than veneering
porcelain
c. Melting range should be higher than fusing range of dental porcelain fired
onto it.
d. Should have biocompatibility

Answer: b

Reference: Wataha and Messer Casting Alloys, DCNA April 2002 pg. 504.

103. The third point of reference, located arbitrarily on the face in transferring a
facebow to an articulator, defines the occlusal plane in relation to the horizontal
condylar inclination. If the third point of reference is changed from orbitale to the
ala of the nose this will affect the occlusal plane in relation to the condylar
inclination how?

a. The occlusal plane will become more superior at the anterior end.
b. The occlusal plane will become more inferior at the anterior end.
c. There will be no change in the occlusal plane relationship.

Answer: a

Reference: Weinberg L: Basic articulators and their concepts, Part I. J Prosthet

Dent 1963, 13: 622-644.

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104. When producing the “S” curve of the lingual flange in a mandibular denture, what
statement is false?

a. The posterior lingual flange is usually able to be extended inferiorly more

than the anterior lingual flange
b. The posterior fibers of the mylohyoid muscle attach more superiorly on
the mandible and descend vertically to attach to the hyoid bone
c. The lingual flange of the mandibular denture must be incline laterally to
allow for contraction of mylohyoid muscle which lies beneath the
mucosa covering lingual slope of the residual ridge.

Answer: c

Reference: JPD February 1983 Volume 49 Number 2.

105. Increasing the water/powder ratio of a gypsum product will have what effect on
setting time and setting expansion?

a. Increase setting time and decrease setting expansion

b. Increase setting time and increase setting expansion
c. Decrease setting time and increase setting expansion
d. Decrease setting time and decrease setting expansion

Answer: a

Reference: Craig: Restorative dental materials, 8th ed. Pg. 360 table 12-8.

106. Dental devices have been used to assist in the management of snoring and
obstructive sleep apnea (OBS). Compliance and complications with the use of
oral appliances may be a consideration with long term use of anterior mandibular
positioning appliances (AMP). Select the incorrect statement:

a. AMP devices are commonly used to treat all forms of OBS

b. It has been reported that 50% of patients with mild to moderate OSA
using the AMP device quit using the device over a three-year period
c. Alternations in occlusions are not experienced with the use of AMP
d. TMD problems and occlusal discomfort typically may accompany
treatment with AMP

Answer: c

Reference: Clark, et al, JADA, Vol. 131, page 765.

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107. When treating patients with Parkinson’s disease:

a. Do not compromise swallowing by placing the patient in a supine

position
b. Assure adequate suctioning to avoid drooling
c. Adjust the dental chair slowly to avoid orthostatic hypotension
d. Wait 60-90minutes after patients have taken their medications
e. All of the above

Answer: e

Reference: Alexander, RE. Parkinson’s disease: An Update for Dentists. General

Dentistry.September-October 2000;48(5):572.

108. What is the effect of designing a ring clasp without a supporting strut on the non
retention side of a lower second molar?

a. the clasp will lack adequate retention

b. the clasp will likely fracture at the retentive tip
c. the clasp will not provide reciprocation or stabilization
d. the clasp will lack a guide plane

Answer: c

Reference: Carr, McGivney, Brown McCracken’s Removable Partial

Prosthodontics 11th Ed. P103, 2005.

109. Apparent color change exhibited by a single color when the spectral distribution of
the light source is changed or when the angle of illumination or viewing is changed
is called:

a. Metamerism
b. Translucency
c. Fluorescence
d. Color constancy

Answer: d

Reference: 2005 Glossary of Prosthodontic Terms pg 43 (see “metamerism”)

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110. According to Misch concerning occlusal considerations involving implants, all of

the following are true with the exception of:

a. Teeth benefit from increased occlusal awareness compared with implants.

b. The initial reversible signs and symptoms of trauma on natural teeth also
occur with endosteal implants.
c. Implants generate greater stresses and strains at the crest of bone
compared with a tooth.
d. Implants have elastic moduli 5 – 10 times that of bone.

Answer: b

Reference: Misch, CE. Dental Implant Prosthetics. St Louis: Elsevier-Mosby;

2005. pp. 474-476.

111. According to Goodacre et al., all of the following instruments are safe for the
preparation of posts for maxillary central incisors with the exception of:

a. Number 2 and 4 round burs

b. Parapost size 3-5
c. Gates glidden size 1-4
d. Peeso reamers size 1-6

Answer: d

Reference: “The Prosthodontic Management of Endodontically Treated Teeth: A

Literature Review. Part III. Tooth Preparation Considerations.
Goodacre, C.J. and Spolnick K.J. Journal of Prosthodontics, Vol. 4, No. 2
(June), 1995: pp. 122-128.

112. The W:P ratio is a very important factor in determining the physical and chemical
properties of the final gypsum product. Which of the following is true?
The higher the W:P ratio,

a. the longer will be the setting time and the stronger will be the gypsum
product
b. the shorter will be the setting time and the stronger will be the gypsum
product
c. the longer will be the setting time and the weaker will be the gypsum
product
d. the shorter will be the setting time and the weaker will be the gypsum
product
Answer: b

Reference: Science of Dental Materials, Philips, 9th Edition, Pg 73, 1991.

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113. The modiolus constitutes a meeting point for how many muscles?

a. 5
b. 6
c. 8
d. 9

Answer: c

Reference: Prosthodontic treatment for edentulous patient, Boucher’s, 10th

Edition, p. 303, 1990

114. Progressive mandibular lateral translation can influence which aspect of occlusal
morphology on the nonworking side?

a. Buccolingual inclination of the posterior cusps

b. Width of the central groove
c. Distobuccal groove direction of the posterior teeth
d. A and C

Answer: d

Reference: Niles Guichet. Principles of Occlusion: A collection of monographs

1970.

115. What purpose does leucite serve in metal-ceramic restoration systems?

a. Reduce sintering shrinkage

b. Thermal compatibility with the dental alloy
c. Dispersion strengthening
d. Colorant

Answer: b

Reference: Kelly JR. Dental ceramics: current thinking and trends. DCNA
2004; 48:513-530.

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Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

116. According to Pontoriero and Carnevale (2001), there is evidence that gingival
rebound will be ________ mm at 12 months following the crown lengthening
procedure.

a. 0.0-0.2
b. 0.5-1.2
c. 1.5- 2.0
d. > 2.0

Answer: b

Reference: Pontoriero and Carnevale 2001

117. Which of the following are not considered a mandibular border movement in the
sagittal plane (Posselt’s envelope.)
a. Centric occlusion abutment
b. Retruded contact position c. a well fabricated removable partial denture
c. Maximum protrusion with tooth contact
d. Postural rest position
e. Rotational hinge movement
Answer: d
Reference: Mohl, ND; et al. A Textbook of Occlusion. Chicago: Quintessence
Publishing Co., Inc. 1988. p. 130.

118. The dimension of color that is probably most important in shade matching is:

a. hue
b. value
c. chroma
d. saturation
e. intensity

Answer: b

Reference: Preston JD, Bergen SF: Color science and dental art, St Louis: The
CV Mosby Co, 1980, pg. 6.

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Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

119. Which method will act to increase the setting time of gypsum products?

a. Addition of Potassium Sulfate

b. Use of Slurry water
c. Addition of Sodium Citrate
d. Increased spatulation

Answer: c

Reference: Restorative Dental Materials, Mosby, 11th ed, p.399.

120. Dunham et al. found the percentage of RDP occlusal rests that contacted the
abutment tooth as designed was:

a.100%
b. 83%
c. 52%
d. 24%
e. 7%

Answer: d

Reference: Dunham D, Brudvik JS, Morris WJ, Plummer KD, Cameron SM. A
clinical investigation of the fit of removable partial dental prosthesis clasp
assemblies.J Prosthet Dent. 2006 Apr; 95(4):323-6.

121. How much shrinkage occurs during the firing of porcelain?

a. 5-10%
b. 15-20%
c. 30-40%
d. 45-50%

Answer: c

Reference: O' Brien, Dental Materials and their selection. 3rd edition.

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Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

122. A patient that has been diagnosed with a mitral valve prolapse needs a full mouth
rehabilitation. The patient will have regular 2 to 4 weeks appointment for a year. What
would be the protocol that you as a clinician will utilize to treat this patient

a. Clindamycin 300 mg 1 hour before appointment rotating the medication

with Azythromycin 500 mg every month
b. Amoxicillin 2 g 2 hours before appointments rotating every other week
to Azythromycin 500 mg 1 hour before appointment
c. Azythromycin 500 mg 1 hour before appointment or Amoxicillin 2 g 1
hour before appointment
d. Amoxicillin 2 g 1 hour before appointments rotating every other week to
Azythromycin 250 mg 1 hour before appointment
e. All of the above
f. None of the above

Answer: c

Reference: Drug Information hand book for Dentistry 8 th edition 2002. Wynn R,
Meiller T, Crossley H. page 1345.

123. In X-rays of the temporomandibular joint osteoarthritis is usually seen earliest on

the:
a. Medial pole of the condyle
b. Lateral pole of the condyle
c. Center of the condyle
d. All of the above

Answer: b

Reference: Management of TMD and Occlusion. Okesson, 2nd edition.

124. Patients with complete dentures complain of "losing the taste of food". What can
be done to the maxillary denture to help this situation?

a. Use a palatal stippled wax form to create "texture"

b. Hlghiy polish the denture base
c. Thin the palatal aspect of the denture base
d. Instruct the patient to brush their tongue
e. Counsel the patient

Answer: a

Reference: Steas, AD, Overcoming Altered Taste Sensation in Complete Denture

Wearers, J Prosthet Dent 1997; 77:453.

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Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

125. Fixed prostheses with non-rigid connectors should be used when:

a. Abutment teeth exhibit significant mobility

b. Restoring a long edentulous span
c. Abutments have been endodontically treated
d. A freestanding intermediate abutment is present

Answer: d

Reference: Shillingburg et al. Fundamentals of Fixed Prosthodontics 3rd Edition.

1997. Pg. 95-96.

126. All of the following can affect cusp height except:

a. Lateral displacement of the nonworking condyle

b. Intercondylar distance
c. Horizontal condylar inclination
d. Progressive mandibular lateral translation

Answer: b

Reference: Niles Guichet. Principles of Occlusion: A collection of monographs

1970.

127. In the maxillary arch, the borders of a major connector should be located at least
how many millimeters from the free gingival margins?

a. 2 mm
b. 4 mm
c. 6 mm
d. 10 mm

Answer: c

Reference: Stewart’s Clinical Removable Partial Prosthodontics. Phoenix, R.D.,

Cagna, D.R., DeFreest, C.F. Quintessence Publishing Co, Inc.
p. 22.

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Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

128. Classifications of soft palate defects identify the degree and type of
palatopharyngeal closure. The term palatopharyngeal insufficiency describes the
condition when:

a. the soft palate is of adequate dimensions but lacks movement because of

disease or trauma affecting muscular and/or neuralgic capacity.
b. some or all of the anatomic structure of the soft palate is absent.
c. pharyngeal wall function is reduced or absent.
d. afferent and efferent neural connections required to control physiologic
movement are lacking.

Answer: b

Reference: Eckert SE, Desjardins RP, Taylor TD. Clinical Maxillofacial

Prosthetics. Chicago: Quintessence Publishing Co, Inc; 1998. Chapter 8.

129. All of the following statements concerning elastomeric impression materials are
correct except:

a. All elastomeric impression materials undergo shrinkage due to

polymerization
b. Condensation silicone impression materials have the least linear
dimensional change
c. In general half of the shrinkage observed at 24 hours occurs in the first
hour
d. Polyether and addition silicone materials demonstrate the least shrinkage

Answer: b

Reference: Craig RG, Powers JM: Restorative Dental Materials, 11th edition,
2002, Mosby, St. Louis, p. 363.

130. Increasing the water/powder ratio of gypsum:

a. Decreases setting expansion

b. No change
c. Increases setting expansion
d. Increases compressive strength

Answer: a

Reference: Craig, RG. Restorative Dental Materials. 5 ed. 1975. p. 261.

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Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

131. Gold alloys commonly used for fixed prosthodontics shrink after solidification by
approximately:

a. 0.5 %
b. 1.5 %
c. 2.5 %
d. 3.5 %

Answer: b

Reference: Shillingburg et al. Fundamentals of fixed prosthodontics, 3rd ed.

Chicago Il, Quintessence Publishing Co. 1997, p: 367.

132. When making a preliminary impression for a mandibular edentulous arch, a stock
tray that is incorrectly designed with a short and vertical flange will have what
effect on the resulting impression?
a. Allow the material to flow lingually incorporating the lateral border of the
tongue
b. Guide the impression material vertically downward resulting in
displacement of the mylohyoid muscle
c. Result in a knife edge appearance of the impression material on the
lingual aspect due to inadequate tray support
d. The entire depth of the lingual vestibule will not be captured adequately
in the impression

Answer: b

Reference: Levin, Bernard. Impressions for Complete Dentures. Quintessence

Publishing Co., Inc. 1984, pg 72.

133. Which is not an advantage of Tooth Supported Overdentures:

a. Soft tissue of residual ridge receives less abuse since abutment teeth
provide support.
b. More horizontal stability.
c. Increased vertical stability.
d. Decreased patient stability.
e. Natural teeth unacceptable for conventional dental use are acceptable for
tooth supported dentures.

Answer: d

Reference: Morrow, R. M., et al. Tooth-supported complete dentures: An

approach to preventive prosthodontics. J Prosthet Dent 21:513-522, 1969.

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Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

134. Which is false about the temporomandibular joint?

a. It is Responsible for the articulation between the temporal bone and the
mandible.
b. It is a diarthrodial, bilateral ginglymus joint.
c. Movement in the lower joint space is mostly translational, whereas that in
the upper joint space is mostly rotational.
d. The joint connects the mandibular condyle to the articular fossa of the
temporal bone with the temporomandibular disk interposed.

Answer: c

Reference: Sessle, BJ and Hu, JW. Mechanisms of pain arising from articular
tissues. Can J Physio Pharmacol 1991; 69:617-626.

135. According to Firtell 1983, which of the following clinicians did not publish
articles in the dental literature pertaining to rotational path RPDs?

a. Garner
b. King
c. Krol
d. Di Pietro

Answer: d

Reference: Removable partial dentures with rotational paths of insertion. David

Firtell, DDS et al. JPD July 1983. Vol 50. #1. pg 8.

136. When a handpiece and bur are translated in a direction opposite to the rotational
direction of the bur at the surface being abraded, the least situation you are going
to achieve is:

a. smoother grinding.
b. rougher surface
c. coarse surface in texture.
d. uncontrolled grinding

Answer: a

Reference: Anusavice, Kenneth J. Anusavice. Phillips' Science of Dental

Materials, 11th Edition. Elsevier, 2003. 16.5.1). chap 13.

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Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

137. Select the incorrect statement associated to valopharyngeal mechanism:

a. Gustof Passavant described a horizontal cross roll on the posterior

pharyngeal wall which occurred during speech and swallowing in cleft
palate patients
b. Passavant’s ridge serves as a guide for proper placement of soft palate
obturator prosthesis
c. The posterior pharyngeal wall plays no roll in velopharyngeal function of
the incompetent or insufficient patient
d. Lateral pharyngeal wall function is essential for normal speech to be
restored with either a prosthetic obturator or surgical reconstruction in
the incompetent or insufficient patient
Answer: c

Reference: Beumer, Curtis, Marunich, Maxillo facial rehabilitation

prosthodontic & surgical considerations, Ishluaku EuroAmerica, Inc.
Publishers 1996, St. Louis, Tokyo.

138. The arbitrary hinge axis location that is used for ear piece face-bows is:

a. Beryon’s point
b. Bergstrom’s point
c. Gysi’s point
d. Brandrup-Wognsen’s point
e. Granger’s point

Answer: b

Reference: Beck, HO. A Clinical Evaluation of the Arcon Concept of

Articulation. J. Prosthet. Dent. 9:3, pp. 409-421, 1959.

139. The nasion relator that is used for locating the third point of reference on face-bow
transfers places this point:

a. 42mm. superior to the incisal edge of the lateral incisor.

b. At the nasion
c. At the extraorbital rim
d. Porion
e. At Campers point

Answer: c

Reference: Teteruck, WR. And Lundeen, HC. The Accuracy of an Ear Face-
Bow. J. Prosthet. Dent. 16:6:pp. 1039-1046, 1966.

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Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

140. What types of microorganisms are present the most in periimplantitis?

a. gram positive aerobics

b. gram negative aerobics
c. gram negative anaerobic and facultative
d. gram positive anaerobes

Answer: c

Reference: Mombelli A, et al. The microbiota associated with successful or

failing of osseointegrated Ti implants. Oral Microbiology Immunol 2: 145,
1987.

Becker W, et al. Clinical and microbiologic findings that may contribute

to dental implant failure. Int. Journal of Maxillofacial Implants.5: 31-38.
1990.

141. Regarding T Albrektsson,s paper in 1987 on the Bone Metal Interface in

Osseointegration, which of the following statements are true?

a. The presence of Clinical stability can be taken as conclusive evidence of

Osseointegration
b. The lack of radiolucent zones around an implant is evidence of
osseointegration
c. The light microscopal resolution demonstrates whether most of the
implant surface is in direct bone contact
d. Ultrastructural examinations are needed to reveal the overall response to
the bone implant

Answer: c

Reference: Albrektsson T., 1987

142. Intraoral carcinoma is most commonly located on/in which structure:

a. Floor of the mouth

b. Lateral or ventral tongue
c. Soft palate
d. Buccal mucosa

Answer: b

Reference: Neville et al. “Oral & Maxillofacial Pathology,” 2nd ed.

Philadelphia, W.B. Saunders Co.; p. 361.

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Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

143. Polysulfide impression material is composed of a base and an accelerator paste.

What is the reactor in the accelerator paste?

a. Lead dioxide
b. Dibutyl phthalate
c. Sulfur
d. Oleic acid

Answer: a

Reference: Anusavice, k. Phillips’ Science of Dental Materials. Tenth Edition,

1991.

144. Cleft palate is the result of:

a. Failure of fusion of the lateral nasal and median nasal processes.

b. Failure of fusion of the maxillary and median nasal processes.
c. Failure of fusion of the maxillary and lateral nasal processes.
d. Failure of fusion of the maxillary and mandibular processes.

Answer: b

Reference: Neville, B., Damm, D., Allen, C., Bouquot, J., Oral and
Maxillofacial Pathology. Second edition, 2002.

145. Who is credited with the statement "The internal architecture and external form of
a bone are related to its function and change with altered function":

a. DeVan
b. Pleasure
c. Wolff
d. Adell
e. Zarb

Answer: c

Reference: Chaytor DV: Clinical criteria for determining implant success: Bone.
Int J Prosthodont 1993;6:150.

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 THE AMERICAN COLLEGE OF PROSTHODONTISTS
Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

146. ASTM (The American Society for Testing and Materials) recognizes four grades
of commercially puretitanium Ti, and three titanium alloys as follow:

a. Ti-6Al-4V, Ti-6Al-4V Extra low intersticial (low components), and Ti-

Al-Nb
b. Ti-6Al-2V, Ti-6Al-4V Extra high intersticial (low components), and Ti-
Al-Cu
c. Ti-6Al-4V, Ti-6Al-4V Extra high intersticial (low components), and Ti-
Al-Nb
d. None of the above

Answer: a

Reference: ADA council on Scientific Affairs. JADA Vol 134, March 2003,
pg 347.

147. What is the active ingredient in most toothpaste marketed in the United States for
desensitizing teeth?

a. Ferric oxalate
b. Potassium nitrate
c. Strontium chloride
d. Tetrasodium pyrophosphate
Answer: b

Reference: Jacobsen PL, Bruce G. Clinical dentin hypersensitivity:

understanding the causes and prescribing a treatment. J Contemp Dent
Pract 2001 Feb 15; 2(1):1-12.

148. According to Haffajee et al. (2001), in a comparison of the efficacy of manual and
powered toothbrushes, the greatest benefit of the powered brush was associated
with which surfaces?

a. Maxillary facial
b. Maxillary lingual
c. Mandibular facial
d. Mandibular lingual
e. No demonstrable differences
Answer: e

Reference: Haffajee AD, Thompson M, Torresyap G, Guerrero D, Socransky

SS. Efficacy of manual and powered toothbrushes (I). Effect on clinical
parameters.J Clin Periodontol 2001 Oct; 28(10):937-46.

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Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry

149. Camper’s plane is commonly used as a guide to the antero-posterior inclination of

the occlusal plane when establishing jaw relation records for edentulous patients.
The landmarks used to develop Camper’s plane are:

a. the inferior border of the right or left ala of the nose and the superior
border of the tragus of the ears.
b. the inferior border of the right or left ala of the nose and the most
posterior point of the tragus of the ears.
c. the inferior border of the right or left ala of the nose and the inferior
border of the tragus of the ears.
d. the superior border of the right or left ala of the nose and the superior
border of the tragus of the ears.
Answer: a

Reference: Glossary of Prosthodontic Terms 7th ed. J Prosthet Dent 1999; 81:56.

150. According to a 5-year prospective study by Jensen et al (2002), implant failure in

anterior maxillary alveolar distraction was related to:

a. Poor bone quality

b. Soft tissue healing
c. Lack of vertical height
d. Early functional loading

Answer: a

Reference: Jensen OT, Cockrell R, Kuhike L, Reed C Anterior maxillary

alveolar distraction osteogenesis: a prospective 5-year clinical study. Int
J Oral Maxillofacial Implants 2002 Jan-Feb; 17(1):52-68.

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