Mock Board Exam 2006

1. Finite element studies by Himmlova et al. in 2004 on the influence of implant length and
diameter on stress distribution showed:
a) Implant length is a more influential factor for the reduction of masticatory stress than
implant diameter
* b) Implant diameter is a more influential factor for the reduction of masticatory stress
than implant length
c) Maximum stress areas are located around the apical 2mm of implants
d) Stress distribution is inversely proportional to implant diameter
Answer: b.
Himmlova et al: Influence of implant length and diameter on stress distribution: A finite element
analysis. JPD 2004; 91:20-25.

2. Which lesion is often associated with a denture?

a. Peripheral ossifying fibroma
b. Leiomyoma
* c. Fibroepithelial polyp
d. Giant cell fibroma
e. Neurofibroma
Answer: c.
Neville BW, et al. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. Philadelphia: W.B. Saunders, 1995: 365.

3. A 2002 article by Masri, Driscoll, et al. on pressures generated during complete

denture impressions found that:
* a. spacers and holes in the trays had no clinically significant effects.
b. alginate produced the lowest pressures.
c. medium body polyvinylsiloxane in trays with no relief produced the lowest
pressures.
d. polysulfides produced the highest pressures.
Answer: a.
Masri et al. Pressure generated on a simulated oral analog by impression materials in
custom trays of different designs. J Proshodont 2002;11:155-160.

4. Gingival retraction cords impregnated with racemic epinephrine can contain from 0.2
mg to 1.0 mg of this chemical per inch of cord. The maximum dose of epinephrine for a
healthy adult patient is:
* a. 0.2 mg.
b. 0.4 mg.
c. 0.6 mg.
d. 0.8 mg.
e. 1.0 mg.
Answer: a.
Ref: Donovan TE, Gandara BK and Nemetz H: Review and survey of medicaments used
with gingival retraction cords. J Prosthet Dent. 1985; 53: 525-531.
5. Canine guidance and lateral disoclusion result in:
a. An increase in EMG activity of all muscles.
b. Isotonic muscle contraction of the medial pterygoid muscle.
c. Increased activity in the anterior temporal muscle during lateral slide from centric
occlusion.
* d. A decrease in EMG activity of the temporal and masseter muscles.
e. No significant effect on the EMG activity of the temporal and masseter muscles.
Answer: d.
Williamson, EH, et al., Anterior guidance: Its effect on electromyographic activity on the
temporal and masseter muscles. J Prosthet Dent 1983; 49:816-823.

6. Upon completion of the pantographic tracing, the fully adjustable articulator is set and
the data provided becomes the “Diagnostic Information” for that patient. Setting the
instrument to establish the “Occlusal Prescription” typically (for a complete fixed
restorative case) requires reducing the steepness of the recorded condylar inclination by
what amount according to Clyde Schuyler?
a. 3 degrees.
* b. 5 degrees.
c. 10 degrees.
d. 15 degrees.
e. 0 degrees.
Answer: b.
Ref: Schuyler JPD 1959, 9:3, p 376.

7. Some orthodontic-restorative patients have small, malformed teeth that require

restoration after completion of orthodontic treatment. The following may be considered
in treatment planning, except:
* a. All retained primary teeth should be extracted and replaced.
b. Replace a retained primary tooth with implant when there is a congenitally
missing tooth.
c. Build up of retained primary tooth with composite resin before orthodontic
therapy to establish appropriate spacing.
d. Create space with orthodontics to restore malformed lateral incisors to the
correct dimension.
e. Position the peg-shaped lateral incisor nearest to a central incisor than to a
canine during orthodontic movement for a better esthetic result.
Answer: a.
Ref: V.G. Kikich & F.M. Spear: Guidelines for managing the orthodontic-restorative
patient. Seminars in Orthodontics 1997,3(1);3-20
8. Which individual is given credit for recognizing the importance of the hinge axis in
mandibular movements and developing a facebow to be used to transfer the position of the axis
to the articulator?
a. McCollum
* b. Snow
c. Lucia
d. Stuart
e. Gysi
Answer: b.
Rhan, Arthur O, Heartwell Charles, Textbook of Complete Dentures. Fifth edition.

9. According to Goodacre et al., what is the most common all-ceramic crown complication?
a. Caries.
b. Loss of retention.
c. Periodontal disease.
* d. Fracture.
e. Pulpal health.
Answer: d.
Charles J. Goodacre,DDS,MSD, et al: Clinical complications in fixed prosthodontics.
The Journal of Prosthetic Dentistry.2003;Vol. 90: 31-41.

10. A disadvantage of the use of poly(vinyl siloxane) impression material is:

* a. Setting inhibition of the impression material caused by some brands of latex
gloves.
b. High tear strength of the impression material.
c. The impression material gives off water as a by-product of its polymerization
reaction.
d. The impression material gives off alcohol as a by-product of its polymerization
reaction.
e. The set material is very rigid.
Answer: a.
Ref: Rosenstiel, Land, Fujimoto. Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics, Third edition,
Mosby Inc, page 363.

11. The crown preparation modification that significantly enhanced resistance form of a
compromised tooth preparation reported by Proussaefs in 2004 was which of the following?
a. mesiodistal grooves
b. mesiodistal boxes
c. buccolingual grooves
* d. reduced TOC at the cervical aspect of the axial wall
e. occlusal isthmus
Answer: d.
Proussaefs, et al: The effectiveness of auxiliary features on a tooth preparation with
inadequate resistance form. The Journal of Prosthetic Dentistry. 2004.Vol 91 33-41.
12. A side effect of NSAID (non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs) is:
* a. increased bleeding time.
b. reduced bleeding time.
c. increased platelet function and no effect on bleeding time.
d. no effect on bleeding time.
e. possible pancreas dysfunction.
Answer: a.
Falace and Little. Dental management of the medically compromised patient.

13. Osteoporosis occurs in approximately one third of:

a. women who don’t exercise.
b. men who are over 65 years of age.
* c. women who are over 60 years of age.
d. women who are over 70 years of age.
e. women with calcium metabolism deficiency.
Answer: c.
Riggs BL, Melton LJ III: Involutional osteoporosis. N Engl J Med 1986;314:1676-86.

14. A type of statistical test used to analyze two (unpaired) treatment groups with quantitative
data would be:
a. a Mann Whitney test.
b. a chi-squared analysis.
* c. an unpaired t-test.
d. an Analysis of variance.
e. all of the above.
Answer: c.
Baumgardner K. A review of key research design and statistical analysis issues OOO 1997: 84 :
550 stet

15. In a discussion on the biomechanical interaction between implants and teeth, Langer
and Rangert suggest:
a. that a non-rigid connector should always be used when an FPD has both
implant and tooth abutments.
b. that there is no difference in occlusion between implants and natural teeth.
c. that there is more than enough clinical evidence to indicate when teeth and
implants can be used together as FPD abutments.
* d. that partially edentulous patients are best treated with implants that are kept
separate from the teeth.
e. that single crown implants should be tied to a natural tooth to prevent rotation
of the implant crown.
Answer: d.
Langer and Rangert. Biomechanical interaction between teeth and implants. In mplant
therapy: Clinical approaches and evidence of success. Quintessence 1998. pp. 48-9.
16. When a patient is exhibiting symptoms of bacteremia, immediate and aggressive therapy is
mandatory. Which of the following treatments is NOT recommended?
a. Immediate use of a broad-spectrum antimicrobial agent with a low toxicity.
b. Surgical excision, debridement, or draining.
c. Intravenous and bacterialcidal antimicrobial agent.
* d. Immediate use of an antimicrobial agent based on an empirical choice of what type of
infection the patient has.
e. No action.
Answer: d.
Virella, Gabriel, NMS Microbiology and Infectious Diseases, 3rd Edition, Williams & Wilkins,
Baltimore, 1997, pgs. 441-2.

17. Multiple sclerosis is a complex neurological condition that may affect Prosthodontic care. A
diagnostic symptom in people under 40 years of age is:
a. uncontrollable tongue trust
b. nocturnal bruxism
c. temporal muscle spasm
* d. trigeminal neuralgia
e. dysphagia
Answer: d.
Fiske Griffiths and Thompson, Dental Update ; 29:273 - 283, 2002.

18. Pharmacological treatment of Xerostomia includes the parasympathomimetic drug:

* a. Pilocarpine
b. Propranolol
c. Ephedrine
d. Atropine
e. Glycerine
Answer: a.
Cassolato SF, Turnbull RS. Xerostomia: clinical aspects and treatment. Gerodontology. 2003;
20: 64-77.

19. Positive blebs on a stone cast, also known as occlusal nodules, are caused by:
a. Air bubbles or voids between the impression material and the dental stone.
b. The impression was not rinsed with water and disinfected following removal
from the mouth.
c. The impression was not poured with dental stone within 15 minutes.
d. The setting stone cast was immersed in water.
* e. Air bubbles or voids between the tooth surfaces and the impression material
Answer: e.
Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics. 3rd edition. Rosenstiel. page 27
20. For treatment of mandibular edentulism, a minimal therapy includes:
a. comprehensive diagnosis and new dentures.
b. comprehensive diagnosis and tissue conditioning.
c. comprehensive diagnosis and routine recall only.
d. comprehensive diagnosis and definitive treatment using implant supported fixed
dentures.
* e. comprehensive diagnosis and definitive treatment using implant retained overdentures.
Answer: e.
Feine JS, Carlsson GE, Awad MA, Chehade A, Duncan WJ, Gizani S, Head T, Lund JP,
MacEntee M, Mericske-Stern R, Mojon P, Morais J, Naert I, Payne AG, Penrod J, Stoker GT Jr,
Tawse-Smith A, Taylor TD, Thomason JM, Thomson WM, Wismeijer D. The McGill
Consensus Statement on Overdentures. Montreal, Quebec, Canada. May 24-25, 2002. Int J
Prosthodont. 2002; 15(4.: 413-4.

21. Sleep apnea syndrome, first described by Gastaut, is a disorder associated with
repetitive cessation of breathing during sleep. What constitutes an apneic episode and
how many of these apneic episodes during 7 hours of nocturnal sleep is required to make
the correct diagnosis of sleep apnea?

a. an apneic episode is defined as the cessation of airflow at the mouth and nose
for more than 5 seconds and 15 or more apneic episodes are required to confirm a
diagnosis of sleep apnea
b. an apneic episode is defined as the cessation of airflow at the mouth and nose
for more than 10 seconds and 20 or more apneic episodes are required to confirm
a diagnosis of sleep apnea
*c. an apneic episode is defined as the cessation of airflow at the mouth and nose
for more than 10 seconds and 30 or more apneic episodes are required to confirm
a diagnosis of sleep apnea
d. an apneic episode is defined as the cessation of airflow at the mouth and nose
for more than 15 seconds and 20 or more apneic episodes are required to confirm
a diagnosis of sleep apnea
e. an apneic episode is defined as the cessation of airflow at the mouth and nose
for more than 15 seconds and 30 or more apneic episodes are required to confirm
a diagnosis of sleep apnea

Answer: c

Meyer JB, Knudson RC: The Sleep Apnea Syndrome. Part I: Diagnosis. J Pros Dent.
1989;62:675-9.

Morgan EJ: Sleep Apnea Syndrome. W V Med J. 1979:75:14-8.

22. Which factor is more important to increase the fracture resistance of an endodontically
treated tooth?
* a. 1mm of coronal tooth structure above the crown margin (ferrule effect).
b. Contrabevel at the tooth-core junction.
c. Increase thickness of axial tooth structure at the crown margin.
d. 0.5 mm of coronal tooth structure above the crown margin (ferrule effect).
Answer: a.
Sorensen JA, Engelman MJ. Ferrule design and fracture resistance of endodontically treated
teeth. J Prosthet Dent. 1990 May;63 (5):529-36.

23. The distance from the base of the contact area to the crest of the bone could be correlated
with the presence or absence of the interproximal papilla in humans. What is the ideal distance
from the crest of the bone to the contact point that we must achieve in order to predictably
maintain the interdental papilla?
a. 6 mm or less.
* b. 5 mm or less.
c. 7 mm or less.
d. 4 mm or less.
e. 3 mm or less.
Answer: b.
Tarnow DP, Magner AW, Fletcher P. The effect of the distance from the point of contact point
to the crest of bone on the presence or absence of the interproximal dental papilla. J
Periodontal.1992 Dec; 63(12):995-6.

24. The anatomy of the hard palate influences the area of support for a maxillary complete
denture. Which one of the following is FALSE?
a. Submucosa of the medial palatal suture is very close to underlying bone and has to be
relieved
b. Horizontal hard palate is the primary area of support
c. Rugae contribute to the stress-bearing role
d. Submucosa anteriolateral to the median palatal suture contains adipose tissue and is
displaceable
* e. Submucosa posterolateral to the median palatal suture contains glandular tissue and is
non-displaceable
Ans.: e.
Ref.: Zarb, GA, Bolender, CL, & Carlsoon, GE. Boucher’s Prosthodontic Treatment for
Edentulous Patients. 11th ed. Mosby, Inc. 1997:142.
25. Which of the following is not a method to increase the surface area of implants?

a. Surface coating such as Titanium Plasma spray

b. Etching the surface
c. Increasing the width
d. Increasing the implant length
*e. Using a non-threaded implant
Answer: e
Reference: Schroeder A, Vander Aypen E, Stich H. The reaction of bone, connective
tissue and epithelium to endosteal implants with titanium sprayed surfaces. J
Maxillofacial Surg 9:15-25, 1981.

26. When placing implants anterior to the mental foramen, how far away should the distal
extent of the implant be from this landmark (minimal distance)?

a. 1 mm anterior
b. It does not matter since the nerve is usually buccal at this location.
c. 2 mm anterior
*d. 5 mm anterior
Answer: d (2 mm from nerve, +3 mm for anterior loop from foramen)
Reference: Misch CE, Crawford. Predictable mandibular nerve location – clinical zone
of safety. Int J Oral Implant 7:37-40, 190-
27. Factors determining a crown’s resistance to dislodgement depends on:
a. Retention along path of placement
b. Type of luting agent used
c. Resistance to lateral forces
* d. b and c
e. All of the above
Ans.: d
Ref.: Wiskott, HWA, et al. The relationship between abutment taper and resistance of cemented
crowns to dynamic loading. Int. J. Prosthodontics 1996;9:117-130.

28. In 2003, Berglundh, et al. studied the de novo alveolar bone formation adjacent to implants in
humans and found that the primary mechanical stability offered by the parent bone is replaced by
new bone formation. The loss of primary stability is evident in the healing process at:
a. Day 4
b. 1 week
* c. 3 weeks
d. 4 weeks
e. 6 weeks
Ans.: c
Ref.: Berglundh, T et al. De novo alveolar bone formation adjacent to endosseous implants: A
model study in the dog. Clin Oral Impl Res, 2003;14:251-262.
29. Which method of evaluation of vertical dimension of occlusion is the most “controversial
and not always conclusive” according to Turner and Missirlian:
a. Evaluation of posterior support.
b. Determination of the history of wear.
c. Phonetic evaluation.
* d. Interocclusal distance.
e. Facial appearance.
Answer: d
Turner, KA, Missirlian, DM, Restoration of the extremely worn dentition. JPD 1984, V52,
p:467-74

30. Which of the following is not considered in the American College of Prosthodontists
classification of the edentulous patient:
* a. Residual ridge morphology of the mandible.
b. Residual ridge morphology of the maxilla.
c. Mandibular muscle attachments.
d. Jaw relationship classification.
e. Mandibular bone height.
Answer: a.
Ref: McGarry TJ, et al. Classification system for complete edentulism. The American
College of Prosthodontics. J Prosthodont 8(1):27-39,1999 Mar.

31. When designing a rotational path RPD which of the following statements is NOT TRUE:
a. As the number of minor connectors increases, so does the potential difficulty of
rotating the framework into place.
* b. The further the minor connector is from the axis of rotation the more block out is
required.
c. All block outs of interferences must be determined by radii that are extended at right
angles from the axis of rotation.
d. The closer the minor connector is to the axis of rotation the greater the curvature of the
arc that it must follow.
Answer: b
Kroll, AJ. Jacobson, TF. Finzen, FC. Removable partial denture design. Outline syllabus, p:
87,88
32. When comparing submerged and non submerged implants which of the following is NOT
TRUE:
a. For 1 part non-submerged implants crestal bone level follows the rough/smooth surface
interface.
b. For 2 part implants bone crest level changes depend on the location of
abutment/implant interface.
c. Distance between the microgap and the most coronal bone-to-implant contact is
approximately 2.0 mm.
* d. Most of the changes in the bone crest level occur during the healing phase of
submerged implants.
Answer: d
Hermann, JS. Cochrane, DL. Nummikoski, PV. Buser, D. Crestal bone changes around titanium
implants. A radiographic evaluation of unloaded non-submerged and submerged implants in the
canine mandible. J. Periodontology, Nov. 1997, p: 1117-29

33. Based upon several studies of lateral tooth guidance systems in normal populations,
which of the following is not a true statement?

*a. Canine guidance was found to be the guidance system of most normal
occlusions
b. Percentages of populations with canine guidance vs group function varied from
study to study based upon definitions for the two groups
c. Something other than canine guidance has the higher preponderance in normal
populations
d. More group function occlusions were found in studies that looked at early
lateral excursion vs. end-to-end contact

Answer: a

Yaffe A and Ehrlich J: The functional range of tooth contact in lateral gliding
movements. J Prosthet Dent 1987,57:730-733.

Scaife R and Holt J: Natural occurrence of cuspid guidance. J Prosthet Dent 1969,
22:225-229.

DiPietro G. A study of occlusion as related to the Frankfort mandibular plane angle. J

Prosthet Dent 1977, 38:452-458.
34. Campbell (1977) found which of the following to be false?
* a. an A-P bar was the preferred maxillary major connector.
b. a lingual bar was the preferred mandibular major connector.
c. the natural palatal metal finish was preferred to the highly polished finish.
d. in general, the patients adapted best to those major connectors that covered the
least amount of soft tissues.
e. none of the above.
Answer: a.
Campbell LD. Subjective reactions to major connectors designs for removable partial
dentures. J Prosthet Dent 1977;37:507-16.

35. Drs. Heartwell and Rahn established an articulator classification system that provides
a more descriptive classification of articulators for diagnosing dental problems and
planning dental occlusion. In what class do you find the fully adjustable instruments such
as the Denar D5A, Stuart, and McCollum Gnathoscope?
* a. Class 1.
b. Class 2.
c. Class 3a.
d. Class 3b.
e. Class 4.
Answer: a.
Ref: Heartwell and Rahn Syllabus of Complete Dentures, 2nd edition, 1974.

36. Thompson reported, in 1946, a study of the rest position of the mandible and found
that:
a. Rest position of the mandible diminished with age and occlusal wear of the
teeth.
b. Increasing the vertical dimension of the mandible to the maxillae can be
accomplished with little concern in patients with lost or diminished vertical
dimension.
c. Vertical dimension is affected by the presence of natural teeth and diminishes
with the loss of natural teeth.
* d. After studying children through adolescence and edentulous adults that vertical
dimension is constant and does not vary through life.
Answer: d.
Ref: Thompson, JR, The rest position of the mandible and its significance to dental
science, JADA 33:151-180, 1946.
37. What are the advantages of a lingualized denture occlusion:
a. Better esthetics
b. Cusps have better penetrating power
c. Easier to execute and adjust than bilateral balance.
* d. a, b, c
e. a, b
Answer: d
Parr, GR. Loft, GH.
The occlusal spectrum and complete dentures. The Compendium of Continuing Education, V.3,
1982, p: 241-9

38. Eriksson and Albrektsson’s 1983 study on temperature threshold levels for heat-induced
bone-tissue injury in the rabbit concluded:
* a. It seems likely that 47ºC is the border temperature for the occurrence of
morphologically evident bone tissue damage
b. Heating to temperatures of 60ºC or more did not result in permanent cessation of blood
flow.
c. Heating to temperatures of 60ºC or more did not show obvious signs of bone tissue
necrosis.
d. Heating to temperatures of 64ºC for less than one minute did not result in any
morphologically evident bone tissue damage.
Answer: a.
Eriksson AR, Albrektsson T, Temperature threshold levels for heat-induced bone tissue injury: a
vital-microscopic study in the rabbit, JPD 50:1 July 1983

39. When developing a Neutrocentric occlusal scheme, which of the following is not one
of the concepts proposed by Devan?
a. A reduction in the number of posterior teeth from eight to six teeth per arch.
b. Neutralizing the compensating curve by setting the teeth on a plane instead of
on a spherical surface.
c. Positioning the posterior teeth in as central a position in reference to the
foundation as the tongue function will allow
* d. Increasing the width of the posterior teeth by 40 % to better distribute the
occlusal load
e. Using cusp-less posterior teeth
Answer: d.
The Concept of Neutrocentric Occlusion. Devan M, JADA 1954;48:164-169.
40. A 75-year old male is totally edentulous in the maxillary and mandibular arch.
Which of the following is not true regarding this edentulous patient?
* a. The mean mandibular arch resorption is twice the mean maxillary arch
resorption after seven years.
b. The vertical dimension of rest does not remain stable and can be altered over a
period of time.
c. The posterior mandible resorbs inferiorly and bucally.
d. Preservation of teeth 22 and 27. Restoration of these teeth as overdenture
abutment would probably have decreased resorption in this area of the mandible
by a factor of eight.
e. The anterior mandible resorbs inferiorly and lingually.
Answer: a.
Tallgren, A. The Effect of Denture Wearing on Facial Morphology. Acta Odon. Scand.
25:563-592, 1967.
Atwood, D.A. A Cephalometric Study of the Clinical Rest Position II. The Variability in
the Rate of Bone Loss Following the Removal of Occlusal Contacts. J Prosthet. Dent.
7:544-552, 1957.
Boucher’s Prosthodontic Treatment for Edentulous Patients. Ninth Edition, Hickey, J.C.,
Zarb, G.A., Bolender, C.L. C.V. Mosby Co., 9th Edition, 1985.
Crum, R.J., Rooney, G.E. Alveolar Bone Loss in Overdentures: A Five-Year Study.
JPD 1978; 60:610-613.

41. The commercial denture cleanser most effective for calculus removal contains:
* a. Acid.
b. Alkaline peroxide.
c. Alkaline hypochlorite.
d. Proteolytic enzymes.
e. Chlorhexidine.
Answer: a.
Jorgensen EB. Prosthodontics for the elderly - diagnosis and treatment. Quintessence;
1999. P. 244-246.

42. A recent study by Jahangiri and others in the Journal of Prosthetic Dentistry in 2002
on shade value of teeth and skin color of the person found that:
a. The two have no correlation.
b. Lighter skin color corresponds with higher value tooth shade.
* c. Darker skin color corresponds with higher value tooth shade.
d. Tooth shade value is independent of skin color but chroma is higher with
lighter skin color.
e. Tooth shade value is independent of skin color but chroma is higher with
darker skin color.
Answer: c.
Jahangiri L, Reinhardt SB, Mehra RV, Matheson PB. Relationship between tooth shade
value and skin color: an observational study. J Prosthet Dent 2002; 87:149-152.
43. According to Raigrooski and Chiche, which of the following should be considered
when using a ceramic metal-free material to replace a missing maxillary anterior tooth
with a 3-unit fixed partial denture (FPD)?
a. As a result of the successful use with ceramic crowns, use of a ceramic FPD is
indicated for all patients.
b. Ceramic materials are contraindicated for all FPD’s.
* c. Additional long-term clinical studies are required, until then, their use should
be limited.
d. Ceramic metal-free materials are indicated only for a single crown.
Answer: c.
Ref: Raigrooski AJ, Chiche GJ, The Safety and Efficacy of Anterior Ceramic Fixed
Partial Dentures: A Review of the Literature. JPD 2001, 86:520-525.

44. The use of more than 2 implants to support a mandibular overdenture has been
recommended for all of the following scenarios except:
a. Against a dentate maxilla.
b. When implants are < 8 mm in length and <3.5 mm in width.
c. When mucosa is sensitive.
* d. To improve masticatory forces.
e. When high muscle attachments are present.
Answer: d.
Ref: Sadowsky, SJ: Mandibular implant-retained overdentures: a literature review. J Prosthet
Dent 2001; 86:468-73.

45. Carbon fiber reinforced epoxy resin posts have a stiffness similar to human dentin.
Which of the following statements is also true.

a. Are less likely than metal posts to cause root fracture at failure.
b. Are radiolucent and biocompatible.
c. Occlusal loads may cause post failure and early preliminary failure of the core.
d. a & c
*e. All of the above
Answer: e
Reference: Morgano SM, Brackett SE. Foundation restorations in fixed prosthodontics:
Current knowledge and future needs. J Prosthet Dent 1999;82:649.

46. The most definitive method for completing the polymerization cycle of acrylic resin is:
* a. 4 hour curing cycle with water temperature 160F then boiling for at least 30 minutes.
b. rapid cooling in a continuous flow of cold water for at least 15 minutes.
c. 6 hour curing cycle with water temperature 160F then boiling for at least 20 minutes.
d. 4 hour curing cycle with water temperature 160F.
e. cooling slowly at room temperature for 12 hours.
Answer: a.
Rudd RW, Rudd KD: A Review of 243 errors possible during the fabrication of a removable
partial denture:part III, J Pros Den 2001;86:277-88.
47. According to the National Osteoporosis Foundation, estrogen therapy for women is
recommended:
a. for women who have already lost considerable amounts of bone.
* b.for women at high risk soon after menopausal onset.
c. for women greater than 15 years postmenopausal.
d. for women who don’t regularly consume the recommended amount of calcium.
e. for women who can’t take supplementary calcium.
Answer: b.
Riggs BL, Melton LJ III: Involutional osteoporosis. N Engl J Med 1986;314:1676-86.

48. After tooth loss, a defect known as a residual ridge deformity can occur. A loss of ridge
height with normal ridge width is considered a “ Siebert”:
a. Class I defect
* b. Class II defect
c. Class III defect
d. Class IV defect
e. Not a defect
Answer: b.
Rosenstiel S, Land M, and Fujimoto J. Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics. 3rd edition. page
514.

49. When a patient with a mandibular bilateral distal extension RPD chews, the I bar of a RPI
clasp assembly design will move in what direction?
a. occlusally and mesially
b. occlusally and distally
* c. gingivally and mesially
d. gingivally and distally
e. it does not move at all
Answer: c
Krol AJ, Jacobson TE, and Finzen FC. Removable Partial Denture Design. 5th edition. Page
100.

50. Ackermann and Dolder are classified as what type of attachments?

a. intracoronal.
b. stud.
c. auxiliary.
* d. extracoronal.
e. none of the above.
Answer: d.
Preiskel, H.: Precision Attachments in Dentistry: 2nd Edition, St. Louis: C.V. Mosby,
1973: pp. 37-40.
51. Scaife and Holt in their 1969 study on the natural occurrence of cuspid guidance found what
percent to have bilateral cuspid protective mechanism in lateral eccentric movements?
a. 16.4%
b. 26.6%
c. 39.2%
* d. 57.0%
e. 72.8%
Answer: d.
Scaife RR and Holt JE. Natural occurrence of cuspid guidance. J Prosthet Dent. 1969;22:225-
229.

52. Which of the following agents was proven effective in increasing bone formation in both
animal study and clinical study?
a. Estrogens
b. Calcitonin
* c. PTH
d. Vitamin D
e. Calcitriol
Answer: c
Rober Neer et al. Effect of PTH on fractures and bone mineral density in postmenopausal women
with osteoporosis. New England Journal of Medicine. Vol. 344 (19) 2001

53. In the USA, what is the approximate percentage of complete edentulism for the whole
population?
a. 0.5%
b. 1%
c. 2%
d. 4%
* e. 10%
Answer: e
Chester W. Douglass, et al. Will there be a need for complete dentures in the United States in
2020? JPD Jan 2002 87 (1)

54. The dental literature credits him as one of the developers of unilateral balanced or group
function occlusions.
a. Stallard
b. Von Spee
c. Stuart
* d. Schuyler
e. Kapur
Answer: d.
Thornton, L.J. Anterior Guidance: Group Function/Canine Guidance. A lit review, JPD 1990,
64:4, 479
55. RPD design plays an important role in the state of the periodontium. Which of the following
statements about the relationship between RPD design and periodontal health is correct?
a. In general, tooth and tooth/mucosa-supported RPDs can achieve better gingival health
for the remaining teeth than mucosa-supported dentures
b. It is good for periodontal health if RPD base is placed at least 4mm away from the
gingival margin (if possible)
c. If there is gingival margin coverage by RPD, there should be enough relief provided
d. b and c
* e. a, b and c
Answer: e.
Dubravka Knezovic Zlataric et al. The effect of removable partial dentures on periodontal health
of abutment and non-abutment teeth J Periodontol 73, 2002

56. What would be the best reason to prescribe a Reverse-Towne projection?

a. Periapical lesion
b. Suspected midline mandible fracture
c. Implant Placement
d. Maxillo-Mandibluar relationship
* e. Suspected condyle fracture
Answer: e.
Goaz-White. Oral Radiology Principles and Interpretation, Mosby 3rd Ed. 1994, 266.

57. A review of the scientific literature reveals all of the following are major factors associated
with a temporomandibular disorder except:
a. Occlusal condition
* b. systemic disease pattern
c. Trauma
d. Emotional stress
e. parafunctional activity
Answer: b
Reference: Okeson JP. Management of temporomandibular disorders and occlusion, 5th ed. St
Louis, Mosby, 2003 pg 162

58. Mandibular lateral translation, as a determinant of occlusal morphology, effects:

a. Cusp height
b. fossa depth
c. Cusp height and fossa depth
d. Ridge and groove direction
* e. Cusp height, fossa depth and ridge and groove direction
Answer: e
Reference: Okeson JP. Management of temporomandibular disorders and occlusion, 5th ed. St
Louis, Mosby, 2003 pg 137-145
59. The following are all techniques for diagnostic imaging of the oral and maxillofacial region
utilizing X Rays except:
a. Panoramic radiology
b. Conventional tomography
c. Direct digital radiography
d. Computed tomography
* e. Magnetic resonance imaging
Answer: e
Reference: Razmus TF, Williamson GF. Current oral and maxillofacial imaging Philadelphia,
WB Saunders, 1996 pg 2-20

60. Which of the following cell types has the highest degree of radiosensitivity:
a. Osteoblast
* b. Erythroblast
c. Fibroblast
d. Chondroblast
Answer: b
Reference: Razmus TF, Williamson GF. Current oral and maxillofacial imaging Philadelphia,
WB Saunders, 1996 pg 91

61. According to Okesson, the following are TMJ disorders of structural incompatibility of the
articular surfaces, EXCEPT:
a. Deviation in form
b. Adhesion
c. Subluxation
* d. Protective Co-contraction
e. Spontaneous dislocation.
Answer: d
Okesson J.: Management of Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion. Mosby: 2003. 5th
Edition. pp: 453-460.

62. Which of the following arteries supplies blood to the second maxillary molar?
a. Anterior superior alveolar.
b. Middle superior alveolar.
* c. Posterior superior alveolar.
d. Sphenopalatine.
e. Pharyngeal.
Answer: c.
Ref: C. Netter, F.H., Atlas of Human Anatomy, 8th edition, 1995, pp 116.
63. Which of the following effects ridge and groove direction?

a. Vertical overlap of the anterior teeth

b. Horizontal overlap of the anterior teeth
*c. Intercondylar distance
d. Anteroposterior curve of Spee
e. Steepness of the articular eminence.
Answer: c
Okeson, J. Management of Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion, Fourth
Edition, Mosby – Year Book, Inc. St. Louis, MO. 1998 pp. 145.

64. According to Naert (1998), which of the following is true?

a. magnets had a significantly higher survival rate than other types of
attachments.
b. ball attachments had the greatest plaque accumulation.
c. the connection state (magnet, bar, ball attachment) had a great effect on the
peri-implant tissues
* d. bleeding on probing was not directly correlated with marginal bone loss.
e. traditional periodontal diagnostic factors should be used when assessing peri-
implant health.
Answer: d.
Naert, I. Et al: A 5-year randomized clinical trial on the influence of splinted and
unsplinted oral implants in the mandibular overdenture therapy. Clin Oral Impl Res
9:170-177, 1998

65. According to Simon (2003), the failure rate for osseointegrated implants after 10 years in
molar and premolar positions restored as single crowns is:
a. 5.0%
b. 3.4%
c. 2.5%
* d. 4.6%
Answer: d
From: Simon Robert L. Single implant-supported molar and premolar crowns: A ten-year
retrospective clinical report. J Prosth Dent 2003; 90(6):517-521
66. Which complication in fitting the anophthalmic socket is due to the loss of volume between
the implant and the lids after removal of the eye, and it can be corrected by increasing the
volume of the prostheses in the socket, if the physiological function of the eyelid is intact?
a. Ptosis
* b. Pseudoptosis
c. Ectropion
d. Sagging lower eyelid
e. Contracted socket
Answer: b
Maxillofacial Rehabilitation: Prosthodontic and Surgical Considerations
John Beumer III, Thomas A. Curtis & Mark T. Marunick
Page 422

67. Movement of a distal extension portion of a removable partial denture under occlusal
loading is a function of all except:
a. the impression technique.
b. the impression material.
c. the opposing dentition.
* d. the incisal guidance.
Answer: d.
Holmes JB. Influence of impression procedures and occlusal loading on partial denture
movement. Jour Prosthet Dent 1965;15:474-81. Reprinted 2001;86:335.

68. According to Sennerby and Roos, which of the following statements is false
regarding risk for implant failure.
a. Hyperbaric oxygen improves survival of implants in irradiated bone.
b. Antibiotic prophylaxis at Stage I reduces failure rate.
c. Self-tapping implants improve implant stability.
d. Surgical experience affects implant survival rate.
*e. Short implants fail at the same rate as long implants.
Answer: e
Sennerby L, Roos J. Surgical determinants of clinical success of osseointegrated oral
implants: A literature review. J Prosthod 1998; 11:408-420.

69. Normal values for platelets are in the range of:

a. 4,500-11,000
b. 15,000-45,000
c. 45,000-110,000
d. 15,000-45,000
*e. 150,000-450,000
Answer e:
Wynn RL, Mieller TF, Crossley HL. Drug Information Handbook for Dentistry. 6th
Edition. Lexi-Comp Inc. Ohio, 2000.
70. In an antihypertensive medication study it was found the test group (n = 750) had an
average systolic BP of 138.2 and the control placebo test group (n = 750) had an average
systolic BP of 138.5. Following a t-test it was found that p < 0.0015. The following was
probably a fatal flaw in this study design:

a. There is no flaw, the design was good and the results significant
b. The sample size was too small
*c. The sample size was too large
d. The t-test is an inappropriate test when comparing 2 groups
e. There were insufficient degrees of freedom for error.

Answer: c
Marks, RG: Designing a Research Project, Van Nostrand Reinhold Company, NY, 1982

71. Regarding the restoration of endodontically treated teeth, which of the following
statements is incorrect?
a. Adequately condensed gutta percha can be safely removed immediately after
endodontic treatment.
b. Both rotary and hand instruments can safely be used to remove adequately
condensed gutta percha.
c. 4 to 5 mm of gutta percha should be retained to ensure an adequate apical seal.
* d. The removal of a portion of a silver point during post preparation is of no
concern.
e. A zinc oxide eugenol provisional restoration placed over an obturated canal
which is exposed to saliva for more. then three months requires that the canal in
question be retreated.
Answer: d.
Ref: Goodacre CJ and Spolnik KJ: The prosthodontic management of endodontically
treated teeth: A literature; review. Part II. Maintaining the apical seal. J Prosthod
1995:4:51-53.

72. Which of the following are advantages of cement-retained implant restorations versus screw-
retained implant restorations:

a. better esthetics
b. better occlusion
c. passive when placed
d. a and b only
e. a, b, and c
Answer: e
Taylor TD, Agar JR, Implant prosthodontics: current perspective and future directions. nt
J Oral Maxillofac Implants 2000; 15 (1): 66-75.
73. Posselt, Glickman, Arstad and Yurkstas demonstrated that maximal intercuspal
relation of the teeth is anterior to terminal hinge position (centric relation) in
approximately _____ of individuals with a full complement of natural teeth.
a. 80%
b. 85%
* c. 90%
d. 95%
Answer: c.
Rahn, Heartwell: Textbook of Complete Dentures, 5th ed., p257, 1993.

74. In Wright’s study related to denture stability, what percentage of the patients were
found to have a retracted tongue?
a. 40.
b. 65.
* c. 35.
d. 25.
e. 80.
Answer: c.
Wright, C. et al.: A study of the tongue and its relation to denture stability, J. Am. Den.
Assoc. 39:269-275, 1949.

75. Permanent salivary gland damage can be expected if radiation exposure exceeds:
a. 10 Gy.
b. 20 Gy.
c. 30 Gy.
d. 40 Gy.
* e. 50 Gy.
Answer: e.
Ref: Fox PC. Acquired salivary dysfunction. Drugs and radiation. Ann N Y Acad Sci
1998;842:132-7.

76. The most common oral manifestation of cancer chemotherapy is:

* a. ulceration of the oral mucosa.
b. candidiasis.
c. acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
d. glossodynia.
e. caries.
Answer: a.
Rose, LF, Kaye D. Internal Medicine for Dentistry. CV Mosby, St. Louis, 1983. p 450.
77. To which philosophy of occlusion does the following quote apply: “…The basis of
this figure is a sphere whose radius is approximately four inches. The center is equi-
distant from the occlusal surface of the teeth and the center of the condyle has the same
radial dimensions.”
a. Triangular theory.
b. Gnathology.
c. Pankey-Mann.
d. Pankey-Mann-Schuyler.
* e. Spherical.
Answer: e.
Ref: Monson: JADA 7:May 1920, #5, page 399.

78. According to Solnit, the following are all contraindications for selective occlusal
adjustment of the natural teeth except:
a. Before palliative treatment for dysfunction.
b. Excessively worn occlusal surfaces.
* c. Post orthodontic correction.
d. Lack of disclusion factors.
e. Anterior open bite.
Answer: c
Solnit A, Curnutte DC. Occlusal correction - principles and practices. Quintessence;
1988. P. 245-247.

79. Platelet rich plasma or platelet concentrates, increase bone formation due to:
a. PDGF (platelet derived growth factor).
b. TGF- (transforming growth factor-).
c. Lack of immune reaction.
* d. all of the above.
Answer: d.
Ref: Kim ES, Park EJ; Platelet Concentration and Its Effect on Bone Formation in
Calvarial Defects, JPD Oct 2001, 86:428.

80. According to Tarnow and Wallace, what is the minimum amount of bone that must
be present between implants to preserve papilla position?

a. 1 mm
b. 2 mm
*c. 3 mm
d. 4 mm
e. None of the above

Answer: c

Tarnow DP, Wallace SS: The effect of inter-implant distance on the height
of inter-implant bone crest. J Periodontol 2000;71:546-549
81. The area that lies above the dorsum of the tongue and below the hard and soft palates
when the mandible and tongue are in the rest position is called the:

a. Bolus space
*b. Space of Donder
c. Mastication space
d. Space of Bonwill

Answer b.
Glossary of prosthodontic terms. 7th Ed p. 99

82. Aramany’s classification of partially edentulous maxillectomy patients is based upon:

* a. frequency of occurrence.
b. difficulty of fabrication.
c. ease of adaptation of the patient to the prosthesis.
d. size of the defect.
Answer: a.
Ref: Aramany, Mohamed. Basic principles of obturator design for partially edentulous
patients. Part I: Classification. J Prosthet Dent 1978;40: 554-557.

83. In 2001 Meijer et al. found the following in a 3-year prospective study on the
influence of age on the success rate of dental implants supporting overdentures in
edentulous mandibles:
a. A mean probing depth greater in the older group.
b. Women had poorer results than men.
* c. Equal success in younger and older patients.
d. a bleeding index which was higher in the younger group.
e. The type of overdenture was significant.
Answer: c.
Meijer HJA, Batenburg RHK, Raghoebar GM. Influence of patient age on the success
rate of dental implants supporting an overdenture in an edentulous mandible: a 3-year
prospective study. Int J Oral Maxillofac Implants 2001; 16:522-526.

84. The ADA 1984 classification for dental casting alloys includes each of the following
except:
a. High noble metals contain 60 wt% or greater noble metal elements.
* b. Noble metals contain 40 wt% or greater noble metal elements.
c. Noble metal elements include: Au, Ir, Os, Pt, Rh, Ru.
d. Predominately base metal contains less than 25 wt% noble metal.
e. High noble metals contain 40 wt% or greater gold.
Answer: b.
Anusavice KJ. Phillips’ science of dental materials. 10th ed. Philadelphia: WB Saunders;
1996 p. 427.
85. Profile changes seen in the adult human face after the age of 25 years is primarily due
to:
a. Vertical growth in the lower anterior face.
* b. Soft tissue changes of the nose and chin.
c. Growth induced changes in the Facial Angle.
d. Mesial migration of the maxillary and mandibular dentoalveolar complexes.
e. Growth induced crowding of the mandibular anterior dentition.
Answer: b.
Behrents, R.G., The consequences of adult craniofacial growth, In Orthodontics in an
Aging Society, Ed D.S. Carlson, Craniofacial Growth Series, Monograph 22. Center for
Human Growth and Development, University of Michigan, Ann Arbor, MI. pp.53-99.

86. Which of the following has the most influence on retention of a casting to a tooth
preparation?

a. Opposing wall height of the preparation

b. Convergence angle or taper of the opposing walls
*c. Surface area of the crown preparation
d. Surface roughness of the prepared surface
Answer: c
Kaufman E, Coehlo D, and Colin L: Factors influencing the retention of cemented gold
castings.J Prosthet Dent. 1961;11:487-502.
87. Several studies have shown that the most critical item in the survivability of a
posterior endodontically treated tooth is

*a. Extracoronal cast coverage

b. Type of dowel material used
c. Type of core material used
d. Length of the dowel in the intracoronal restoration
Answer: a
Hoag E and Dwyer T: A comparative evaluation of three post and core techniques. J
Prosthet Dent 1982,47:177-181.

Sorensen J and Martinoff J: Intracoronal reinforcement and coronal coverage: A study of

endodontically treated teeth. J Prosthet Dent 1984,51:780-784.
88. Which of the following statements regarding healing of implants is true.

*a. Approximately 0.5-1.0mm of bone adjacent to the implant site preparation

will undergo necrosis as a result of disruption of vessels and inadequate collateral
blood supply.
b. The second stage is characterized by two different processes: Lamellar bone
apposition, and fibrous tissue attachment at the superior surface of the implant.
c. The final process of maturation is over before one year and no further changes
in the bone occur after that.
d. The initial stage of healing takes place over a period of 6-18 weeks and
involves formation of a callous.
Answer: a
Endosseous Implants: Scientific and Clinical Aspects, Watzek, G, pp 68-74.

89. Which of the following is true concerning Glass Ionomer cements:

a. Least amount of post cementation sensitivity.
b. Salivary contamination is of little concern during cementation.
c. The polyacrylic acid is limited to the liquid component.
d. Crown margins need no protection during cementation.
* e. Desiccation of the tooth leads to shrinkage cracks in the recently set cement.
Answer: e.
Shillingburg, H.T.Jr.; Fixed Prosthodontics, 3rd Edition, Chapter 22, page 404.

90. Which of the following statements related to the nociceptive reflex is incorrect?
a. The reflex may be activated by biting on a hard object.
b. The stimulus is initiated from the teeth and periodontal ligament being
stressed.
* c. The inhibitory effect arises centrally from higher levels of the brain’s cortex.
d. The reflex helps protect the teeth and supportive structures from very heavy
functional forces.
Answer: c.
Management of Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion. Jefferey P. Okeson 3rd
Edition, Mosby 1993 pp37-38.

91. According to Osterle and Cronin, when placing single tooth implants in adults:
a. There should be no concern over changes related to continued growth and
development.
*b. A restoration that was initially well placed may end up becoming vertically
deficient and 2-3 mm lingual to the natural teeth after 2 or more decades.
c. There is continued growth in adults, but it is usually just seen in areas such as
ears, noses, and chins, not in dentoalveolar areas.
d. If a radiograph is made to verify closure of growth plates and sutures, then one
can be confident that dentoalveolar areas have quit growing.
Answer: b
Osterle, L.J., Cronin, R.J.: Adult Growth, Aging, and the Single Tooth Implant. JOMI
2000;15:2:252-259.
92. What materials are used today for cranial plates?
a. Tantalum, methyl methacrylate, polystyrene, polyvinyl.
b. Tantalum, methyl methacrylate, polyethylchloride, polystyrene.
* c. Tantalum, methyl methacrylate, vinyl acrylic, autopolymerizing acrylic.
d. Tantalum, methyl methacrylate, polyethylene, polymethane.
Answer: c.
Beumer, Curtis, Firtell: Maxillofacial Rehabilitation and Chalian, Drane, Standish:
Maxillofacial Prosthetics.

93. A 2002 article by Cameron et al. found that the percentage of their sample population
that had enough room for a 4 mm mandibular lingual bar was:
a. 6.
b. 21.
c. 53.
d. 72.
* e. 85.
Answer: e.
Cameron SM et al. The dimensions of mandibular lingual tissues relative to the
placement of a lingual bar major connector. J Prosthodont 2002;11(2):74-80.

94. One of the detrimental effects commonly reported of using a combination of implant
and natural tooth abutments for a fixed partial denture, where the implant segment and
the natural tooth segment are non-rigidly connected is:
* a. intrusion of the natural tooth.
b. bone loss around the natural tooth.
c. bone loss around the implant.
d. loosening of the natural tooth.
e. loosening of the implant.
Answer a.
Ericsson, et al, A clinical evaluation of fixed-bridge restorations supported by the
combinatioin of teeth and osseointegrated titanium implants. J. Clin Periodontol 13: 307-
312, 1986. Block, et al. Prospective Evaluation of Implants Connected to teeth. IJPMI
17:473-487,2002.

95. According to data from the 1988-1991 National Health and Nutrition Examination
Survey, what percentage of people over the age of 75 exhibited root caries?
a. 26%.
b. 37%.
c. 42%.
* d. 56%.
e. 78%.
Answer: d.
American Dental Association, “Fluoridation Facts.”
96. Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common primary malignancy of the oral cavity.
Of the following oral sites, which is the site least likely for a diagnosis of squamous cell
carcinoma?
a. Lateral border of tongue
b. Ventral tongue
c. Base of tongue
* d. Anterior dorsal tongue
e. Tonsillar pillars
Answer: d
Goldenberg D, Ardekian L, Rachmiel A, et al. Carcinoma of the dorsum of the tongue.
Head Neck. 2000;22:190-4.

97. When testing the fatigue resistance of cobalt-chromium alloy bars in a wet
environment, which of the following is not likely to be a factor in decreasing fatigue
resistance?
a. type of alloy.
b. corrosion fatigue of the alloy.
c. duration of induction melting of the alloy.
d. lower pH of the liquid environment.
* e. higher pH of the liquid environment.
Answer: e.
Lassila and Vallitru. Effect of water and artificial saliva on the low cycle fatigue
resistance of cobalt-chromium dental alloy. J Prosthet Dent 1998;80:708-713.

98. Which of the following most accurately describes the relationship between maximum
bite force measurements of edentulous patients restored utilizing 3 commonly utilized
denture prostheses: conventional complete dentures (CD), Implant-Retained Overdenture
(IOD) and Implant-Supported Prosthesis (ISP = ”Hybrid”).
a. No correlation found between maximum bite force and prosthesis type
b. ISP bite force was significantly greater than CD and IOD
c. IOD bite force was significantly greater than ISP and CD
* d. ISP bite force  IOD bite force  CD bite force
e. None of the above
Answer: d.
Reference: Carr and Laney: Maximum occlusal force levels in patients with
osseointegrated oral implant prostheses and patients with complete dentures. Int J Oral
Maxilofac Implants 2: 101-108, 1987.
99. The Summers technique:
a. Is a soft tissue procedure used to cover root surfaces after recession.
b. Is a procedure used to do tissue biopsies that insure proper wound margins.
*c. Refers to a technique to augment the sinus with minimal trauma.
d. Is a technique used in surgery to lateralize the Inferior Alveolar Nerve prior to
implant placement.
Answer: c
Rissolo, A.R. and Bennett, J.: Bone Grafting and Its Essential Role in Implant Dentistry.
DCNA 1998, 42:1, 91-127.

100. Hygroscopic expansion of gypsum products during setting:

a. is the same as linear setting expansion
b. is not important from a clinical perspective
* c. is physical in nature
d. is increased with an increased water powder ratio
Answer: c.
Anusavice, Phillips Science of Dental Materials, Ed 10, P 199

101. Which of the following situations will increase the retentive force of a removable
partial denture clasp as well as increase the flexibility of the clasp?
* a. Greater angle of gingival convergence of the abutment and increased clasp
length.
b. Lower angle of gingival convergence of the abutment and increased clasp
length.
c. Clasp terminus in greater undercut with a short clasp arm.
d. Clasp terminus in reduced undercut with a long clasp arm.
e. Lower angle of gingival convergence of the abutment and use of a wrought
wire clasp.
Answer: a
Phoenix, R; Cagna, D; DeFreest, C: Stewart’s Clinical Removable Partial Prosthodontics,
Quintessence Publishing Co, Chicago, 3rd Edition, 2003, pp63-70.

102. Comparing the flexibility of one-tooth FPD to a two-tooth FPD and a three-tooth
FPD, all other aspects being equal:
a. the two-tooth FPD is three times as flexible as a one-tooth FPD
* b. the three-tooth FPD is 27 times more flexible as the one-tooth FPD
c. the three-tooth FPD flexes 8 times more than the one-tooth FPD
d. the three-tooth FPD bends more than the one-tooth FPD in directly as the cube
of the span.
Answer: b
Smyd E.S., Mechanics of Dental Structures., J Prosthet Dent 1952 (2):668-692.
103. All of the following are characteristics of the Applegate fluid wax impression
technique except:
a. Correcta Wax # 4 is used to establish the border extension.
b. An open mouth impression technique is used.
c. The technique may be used to make a reline impression or to correct the
original master cast.
d. Peripheral overextensions are prevented by ensuring adequate space for
material flow and allowing sufficient time for escape of excess material.
* e. If .5 mm of space exists between the edentulous ridge and the impression tray,
the more rigid Iowa wax material may be utilized.
Answer: e
McGivney, G.P. and Castleberry, D.J.; McCracken’s Removable Partial Prosthodontics.
10th Edition, 1995, Pg 336.

104. Pre-extraction dental casts are useful in determining all of the following except:
a. Vertical Dimension of Occlusion
b. Centric Relation
c. Maxillary anterior tooth position
* d. Prognosis
Answer: d
Bissasu, M.: Pre-extraction records for complete denture fabrication: A literature review.
J Prosth Den. 2004; 91:55-8.

105. All of the following are functions of the posterior palatal seal except:
a. To provide close tissue contact during speech and swallowing.
b. To enhance retention and stability.
* c. To allow a smooth transition of denture base material from palatal rugae to the
distal aspect of the prosthesis.
d. To compensate for processing shrinkage of the acrylic resin.
e. To allow for a thin posterior border which reduces discomfort during contact
between the posterior denture border and the dorsum of the tongue.
Answer: c.
Weintraub, G., Establishing the Posterior Seal During the Final Impression Procedure: A
Functional Approach. J. Am. Dent. Assoc., 94: 505-510, 1977.
106. In embryogenesis of the craniofacial complex, cleft lip/palate formation is
characterized by:
a. Failure of factors of timing, form, function and organ systems to relate to each
other with greatest precision
b. Failure of synchrony between descent of tongue and elevation of palatal
shelves
c. Diminished size of the left and right palatal shelves causing a midline gap or a
delay in closure
* d. All of the above
Answer: d.
Source: Cleft Palate and Cleft Lip: a team Approach to Clinical Management and
Rehabilitation of the Patient, by Cooper, et.al, p.33, WB Saunders Co. 1979

107. Who is the first person to introduce the Gysi intraoral tracer?
a. Trapozano
* b. Sears
c. Gysi
d. Yurkastas and Kapur
e. Hardy and Pleasure
Answer: b.
Reference: Dixon DL. Overview of articulation materials and methods for the
prosthodontic patient. J Prosthet Dent 2000;83(2); 235-47.

108. In Keshvad’s study, which centric relation registration technique proved to be the
most reproducible?
a. Chin point guidance with jig
* b. Bimanual mandibular manipulation with jig
c. Gothic arch tracing
d. Chin point guidance without jig
e. Bimanual mandibular manipulation without jig
Answer: b.
Reference: Keshvad and Winstanley, Comparison of the replicability of routinely used
centric relation registration techniques; Journal of Prosthodontics, Vol. 12, No. 2 (June),
2003: pp 90-101.

109. The initiator in Light-Activated Resin is:

a. Hydroquinone
b. Dimethyl-p-toluidine
* c. Camphoroquinone
d. Glycol Dimethacrylate
e. Benzoyl Peroxide
Answer: c.
Reference: K. Anusavice. Phillips’ Science of Dental Materials. 10th ed. P. 280.
110. Enamel is a highly mineralized tissue consisting of what percentage of
hydroxyapatite?
a. 100
* b. 96
c. 89
d. 83
e. 77
Answer: b.
Reference: Garner, L.P. Coloer textbook of histology. 2nd ed; W.B. Saunders Co.
Philadelphia, 2001.

111. The major advantage of computed tomography over linear tomography or panoramic
radiography in imaging for implant placement is:
a. cost
b. radiation dose
* c. dimensional accuracy
d. convenience
e. none of the above
Answer: c.
Reference: “Oral Radiology: Principles and Interpretation” 4th ed.

112. Applying the “Law of Beams” principle to optimize the strength of a posterior fixed
partial denture, which of the following is most correct:
a. The number of abutment teeth should be increased.
b. Increase the buccolingual resistance form of the abutment preparations.
* c. Increase the occlusogingival dimensions of the pontic design.
d. Narrow the occlusal table buccolingually.
e. Use an alloy with a lower yield strength.
Answer: c.
Reference: Shillingburg, H.T., et al.: Fundamentals of Fixed Prosthodontics. 3rd ed.:
Quintessence Publishing Co., 1997: p. 93.

113. The lateral wings of a mechanical incisal guide table on a semiadjustable articulator
are used to simulate:
* a. The guidance on mandibular movement imparted by contact between anterior
teeth.
b. The progressive sideshift that occurs between the condoyle and articular
eminence during mandibular movement.
c. The immediate sideshift that occurs between the condoyles and articular
eminence during mandibular movement.
d. The protrusive angulation established by contact of the lower incisors against
the maxillary incisors.
e. b and c.
Answer: a.
Reference: Shillingburg, H.T., et al.: Fundamentals of Fixed Prosthodontics. 3rd ed.:
Quintessence Publishing Co., 1997: p. 54.
114. For a patient who may be at special risk of developing late bacterial infection of a
prosthetic hip and has a history of anaphylaxis to cephalosporins, the drug of choice
would be:
a. amoxicillin.
* b. clindamycin.
c. erythromycin.
d. tetracycline.
Answer: b.
American Dental Association, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons. Antibiotic
prophylaxis for dental patients with total hip joint replacements. J Am Dent Assoc
128:1004-8, 1997.

115. Vasoconstrictors are added to local anesthetics to:

* a. increase the duration of anesthesia.
b. decrease the duration of anesthesia.
c. increase the amount of local anesthetic needed for nerve block.
d. decrease the duration of anesthesia and increase the minimum concentration of local
anesthetic needed for nerve block.
e. none of the above.
Answer: a.
Falace and Little. Dental management of the medically compromised patient.

116. The first reference in medical literature to the use of an obturator is attributed to:
* a. Pare.
b. Fouchard.
c. Drane.
d. Rahn.
e. Agar.
Answer: a.
Chalian, Drane, Standish: Maxillofacial Prosthetics.

117. Which statement is false concerning the motor unit?

a. The fewer the muscle fibers per motor neuron, the more precise the movement.
* b. The more the muscle fibers per motor neuron, the more precise the movement.
c. Acetylcholine is the primary neurotransmitter which is released at the motor
end plate.
d. Depolarization causes muscle contraction.
Answer: b
Okeson, J.P.; Management of Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion, 2nd Edition,
Chapter 2 page 27.
118. Drug interactions are most likely to occur with which of the following antibiotics?
a. Amoxicillin (Amoxil).
b. Cephalexin (Keflex).
* c. Erythromycin (E-Mycin).
d. Metronidazole (Flagyl).
e. Doxycline (Vibramycin).
Answer: c.
Hersch EV. Adverse drug interactions in dental practice: interactions involving
antibiotics. Part II of a series. J Am Dent Assoc 130:236-251, 1999.

119. Your patient develops a mild degree of CNS excitation 4 minutes after you inject 3.6
cc of local anesthetic. Your first management step is to:
a. administer oxygen.
* b. reassure the patient.
c. monitor vital signs.
d. call 911.
e. administer an anticonvulsant.
Answer: b.
Malamed. Handbook of Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office. Mosby 1978. p. 236.

120. For a patient who has the body of the mandible resected, restored mandibular
continuity is essential to provide normal function. Several considerations must be taken
into account to adequately provide implant rehabilitation for these grafted patients,
including:

a. tongue tethering
b. maintenance of arch form
c. oral competency
d. vertical dimension of occlusion
*e. all of the above
Answer: e
Implant prosthodontics: Clinical and laboratory procedures. 2nd edition Stevens PJ,
Frederickson EJ, Gress ML, C.V. Mosby Co., Inc., St. Louis, 1999.

121. Changing the third point of reference between facebow transfers on the same
patient, one transfer being done before the articulator was programmed to eccentric
movements, and the second after the articulator has been programmed to eccentric
records will affect the accuracy of the:
a. Intercondylar distance.
b. Bennett angle.
* c. Condylar inclination.
d. Incisal guidance.
e. All of the above.
Answer: c.
Weinberg, L.A. An Evaluation of Basic Articulators and Their Concepts. J Prosthet
Dent 13:622, 1963.
122. According to the criteria for implant success as set up by Albrektsson, et.al. in
1986, an implant may have no more vertical bone loss after the first year of service than:
a. 0.1mm.
* b. 0.2mm.
c. 0.5mm.
d. 1.0mm.
e. 2.0mm.
Answer: b.
Albrektsson, et al, The long term efficacy of currently used dental implants: A review
and proposed criteria of success. IJOMI 1:11-25. 1986.

123. In a study of 140 patients, where complete denture masticatory performance and
efficiency were determined, the chewing efficiency of denture wearers is less than ____
that of patients with natural teeth.
a. 1/3
b. 1/4.
c. 1/5.
* d. 1/6.
e. 1/7.
Answer: d.
Kapur, K. and Soman, S.: Masticatory performance and efficiency in denture wearers. J
Prosthet Dent 1964:14;687-694.

124. All of the following are considered stud attachments, except:

a. Rotherman.
b. Zest-Anchor.
* c. Crismani.
d. Ceka.
e. Zaag.
Answer: c.
Becerra,G. and MacEntee,M. : A classification of precision attachments, J Prosthet Dent
1987;58:322-327
125 Please review the following statements in regards to the prosthodontic management
of endodontically treated teeth. Which one of these statements is false?
a. The incidence of endodontic treatment required after tooth preparation for a
fixed prosthesis has ranged from 3% to 23%.
b. Posts do not reinforce endodontically treated teeth and are not necessary when
substantial tooth structure is present after the endodontically treated teeth have
been prepared for the definitive prosthesis.
c. When preparing a post space, between four to five millimeters of gutta percha
should be retained apically to ensure an adequate apical seal.
d. When preparing a post space, post diameters should not exceed one third of
the root diameter at any location, and the post tip should usually be 1 millimeter
or less.
* e. None of the above.
Answer: e.
Goodacre, CJ & Spolnik, KJ: The Prosthodontic Management of Endodontically Treated
Teeth: A Literature Review. Part I, II & II. Journal of Prosthodontics. 1994; 3:243-250;
4:51-53; & 4:122-128.

126. Which is true concerning the biologic effects of radiation?

a. the cytoplasm is more radiosensitive than the nucleus.
b. cell damage is greater in hypoxic conditions.
* c. mitotic cells are more radiosensitive than non-mitotic cells.
d. has very little effect on mature erythrocytes.
e. none of the above.
Answer: c.
White S, Pharoah M. Oral Radiology, Principles and Interpretation. 4th ed. Mosby, St
Louis 2000 pg 24-30.

127. Orr et al. in a study on gingival health relative to RPDs found:

a. that gingival tissues responded better to metal than acrylic.
* b. that coverage of the gingival margin was detrimental regardless of the amount
of relief.
c. that coverage of the gingival margin was equivalent to no coverage as long as
there was adequate relief of the RPD.
d. that there was long term damage to the gingival margin even after the RPDs
were no longer being worn.
e. that there was no difference in response to metal and acrylic.
Answer: b.
Orr et al. The effect of partial denture connectors on gingival health. J Clin Periodontol
1992;19:589-594.
128. An adult patient with prosthetic cardiac valves is scheduled for 12 extractions
followed by placement of an immediate denture in your office. Medical history reveals
patient is allergic to penicillin and unable to take oral medications. Endocarditis
prophylaxis is:
a. not recommended for this patient.
b. 2.0 g of Amoxicillin 1 hr before procedure.
c. 600 mg of Cephalexin 1 hr before procedure.
d. 2.0 g of Ampicillin 1 hr before procedure.
* e. 600 mg of Clindamycin 1 hr before procedure.
Answer: e.
American Heart Association: Antibiotic prophylaxis guidelines. 1997.

129. Which of the following is correct regarding “arcon” articulators?

a. Has the same degree of accuracy as nonadjustable articulators.
b. Programs the articulator by using special pantographic tracings.
* c. Provides a practical approach to obtain necessary diagnostic information since
the stone casts can be positioned with sufficient accuracy that minimize the arcing
errors.
d. A mechanical device that simulates maxillary movement
e. Because of its accuracy, it is best used in complete denture prosthodontics
Answer: c.
Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics. 3rd edition Rosenstiel. page 28-30
130. In a 10 year study of the survival of teeth adjacent to bounded edentulous spaces:
* a. There was no significant difference between the survival of teeth restored with
an FPD and those that were not treated.
b. Edentulous spaces restored with an RPD had a significantly higher survival
rate.
c. 54% of patients experienced clinically significant tilting of teeth adjacent to the
edentulous space.
d. The majority of terminal solitary teeth were lost when the missing tooth was
not replaced.
Answer: a
Aquilino SA, Shugars DA, Bader JD, White BA: Ten-year survival rates of teeth adjacent
to treated and untreated posterior bounded edentulous spaces. J Prosthet Dent
2001;85:455-60.

131. In elderly patients, it is often noted that the tongue becomes smooth, glossy and
inflamed in appearance. This condition often results in:
a. mucositis.
* b. altered taste sensation.
c. xerostomia.
d. denture soreness.
e. geographic tongue.
Answer: b.
Zarb, George, Bolender, Charles, Hickey, Judson, Carlsson, Gunnar. Boucher’s
Prosthodontic Treatment for Edentulous Patients, C.V. Mosby Co., 1990, p.44.
132. Statements of acceptable fabrication practices for RPDs have been published as
Principles, Concepts and Practices in Prosthodontics in the Journal of Prosthetic
Dentistry. Which of the following statements are valid sources of patient satisfaction?
a. statements relating to occlusion.
b. statements relating to base support.
c. statements relating to retention.
d. statements relating to base extension.
* e. none of the above.
Answer: e.
Frank et al. Relationship between the standards of removable partial denture
construction, clinical acceptability and patient satisfaction. J Prosthet Dent 2000;82:521-
527.

133. Both maxillary and mandibular RPD major connectors are best able to transfer and
distribute which of the following forces to the dental arch?
* a. horizontal forces.
b. vertical forces.
c. torsional forces.
d. a and c.
e. none of the above.
Ben-Ur et al. Stiffness of different designs and cross-sections of maxillary and
mandibular major connectors of removable partial dentures. J Prosthet Dent 1999;81:526-
532.

134. Iatrogenic occlusal interferences of the natural dentition:

a. may induce bruxing behavior.
* b. may induce changes in jaw function.
c. in eccentric positions are more deleterious than in the IC position.
d. may result in long term increases in EMG activity.
Answer: b.
Clark et al. Sixty-eight years of experimental occlusal interference studies: What have
we learned? J Prosthet Dent 1999;82:704-713.

135. The lateral pterygoid muscle is reliably palpated:

a. at the pterygomandibular raphe.
b. in the oral vestibule.
c. along the buccal shelf.
* d. none of the above.
Answer: d.
Stratman et al. Clinical anatomy and palpability of the inferior lateral pterygoid muscle.
J Prosthet Dent 2002;83:548-554.
136. The submergence profile of implants is defined as the vertical discrepancy between
the top of an implant and the peaks of the bony septa proximal to the adjacent teeth. For
ideal gingival framing of a single tooth implant, the top of an implant should be
positioned apical to an imaginary line joining the bordering CEJ by:
a. < 1 mm.
* b. 2-3 mm.
c. 4-5 mm.
d. 5-6 mm.
e. >6 mm.
Answer: b.
Stein, J.M., Nevins, M.: The Relationship of the Guided Gingival Frame to the
Provisional Crown for a Single-Implant Restoration. Compend 1996;17:1175-82.

137. Patients who are at increased risk for hematogenous total joint infections requiring
antibiotic prophylaxis include all of the following except:
a. immunocompromised patients.
b. patients who have had previous prosthetic joint infections.
c. insulin-dependent (type 1) diabetes.
* d. patients with chronic periodontitis.
Answer: d.
Mosby's Dental Drug reference, 5th Ed., T. Gage & F.A. Pickett editors, St. Louis, 2001.
See advisory statements from ADA and AAOP. Antibiotic prophylaxis for dental patients
with total joint replacements, JADA 128:1004-1008, July 1997.

138. The following statement most accurately describes the association between
occlusion and temporomandibular disorders (TMD):
a. malocclusion is an etiologic factor in TMD.
b. Class II patients are predisposed to developing TMD.
* c. literature to date does not strongly support occlusion as an etiologic factor for
TMD.
d. prophylactic occlusal equilibration eliminates the development of TMD.
Answer: c.
Marzooq AA, Yatabe M, Ai M. What types of occlusal factors play a role in
temporomandibular disorders? A literature review. J Med Dent Sci 1999 Sep;46(3):111-
6.

139. The best way to assess the fit of an implant fixed-detachable prosthesis framework
intraorally is by using:
a. Periapical radiographs.
b. Both the single screw test and screw resistance test.
c. Disclosing media or other fit checking materials.
d. Alternate finger pressure.
* e. A combination of the above methods.
Answer: e.
Kan JYK, Rungcharassaeng K, et al., Clinical Methods for evaluating implant framework
fit. J Prosthet Dent 1999; 81(1): 7-13.
140. The difference between an evisceration and an enucleation is:
a. An enucleation is the entire removal of the eye, including the surrounding
musculature and tissue; and an evisceration is the removal of the eyeball itself.
* b. An evisceration is the removal of the contents of the globe, but leaving the
sclera; and an enucleation is the removal of the eyeball itself, usually with the
extraocular muscles attached to an orbital implant.
c. An enucleation is the removal of the contents of the globe, but leaving the
sclera; and an evisceration is the removal of the eyeball itself, usually with the
extraocular muscles attached to an orbital implant.
d. An evisceration includes an enucleation and removal of the surrounding
musculature and tissue.
e. None of the above.
Answer: b.
Haug SP and Andres CJ. Fabrication of custom ocular prostheses. In: Clinical
Maxillofacial Prosthetics, ed. TD Taylor, Quintessence Pub Co., Carol Stream Il, 2000:
pp. 265

141. The normalized index of x-ray attenuation , a Hounsfield unit, is based on what
three substances:
a. water, barium, air.
b. bone, blood, oxygen.
c. water, bone, barium.
* d. air, bone, water.
e. water, air, blood.
Answer: d
White SC, Pharoah MJ, Oral Radiology: Principles and Interpretation, ed 4, St Louis,
2000, Mosby.

142. Shear thinning or pseudo plasticity affects the viscosity of polyether impression
materials therefore:
* a. The same phase of polyether impression material can be used as low and
medium consistency material.
b. A thinner consistency for syringe material and thicker consistency for tray
material should be used.
c. Minimal pressure should be applied during loading the tray material on
impression tray.
d. Minimal pressure should be applied at all times during making of impression.
e. Maximum pressure should be applied when using syringe material.
Answer: a.
Craig RG and Powers JM. Restorative Dental Materials 11th Edition. Mosby. Chapter 12;
359-360.
143. Which of the following statements describe the major advantage of a randomized
clinical trial:
a. It avoids observer bias.
b. It lends itself to ethical justification.
c. It yields results replicable in other patients.
* d. It rules out self-selection of participants to the different treatment groups.
e. It enrolls representative patients.
Answer: d.
L. Gordis. Epidemiology. 2nd edition, 2000. Chapter 6, 100-109

144. When analyzing nominal data, the following statistical method may be used:
a. simple linear regression.
b. correlation coefficient, r.
c. paired t test.
d. Kendall’s ґ.
* e. chi-squared test.
Answer: e.
Bland, M. An introduction to medical statistics. 3rd ed., Oxford University Press.

145. Which of the following characterizes residual ridge resorption?

a. The maxillary residual ridge resorbs at the expense of the crest of the ridge and the
lingual (palatal) aspect of the ridge. This causes the arch to become larger.
b. The mandibular residual ridge resorbs at the expense of the crest of the ridge
and the lingual aspect. This causes the arch to become smaller.
c. The maxillary ridge resorbs four times faster than the mandibular ridge.
* d. Residual ridge resorption affects all edentulous patients but to varying degrees.
e. Residual ridge resorption affects female patients more severely than male
patients.
Answer: d.
Tallgren A. The continuing reduction of the residual alveolar ridges in complete denture
wearers: a mixed longitudinal study covering 25 years. J Prosthet Dent 27:120-132.

146. Significant reduction in the fracture incidence of all-ceramic crowns has been
reported when:
a. they are supported by a foil core.
* b. an adhesive cement is used.
c. they are placed only in posterior quadrants.
d. the internal surface of the restoration is etched with phosphoric acid.
Answer: b
Malament KA, Grossman DG: Bonded vs. non-bonded DICOR crowns: four-year report,
J Dent Res 71:3231, 1992 (abst. No. 1720).
147. Which of the following is not true regarding the surface finish of ceramic
restorations?
a. Recent studies reveal more aggressive wear of the opposing teeth by a glazed
surface compared to a polished surface.
b. Enamel wears more when opposed by unglazed and unpolished porcelain than
when opposed by glazed or polished porcelain.
* c. Acrylic resin exhibits very poor wear resistance against glazed porcelain.
d. The question of the optimal ceramic finish remains unanswered.
Answer: c
Oh W, DeLong R, Anasuvice K: Factors affecting enamel and ceramic wear: A literature
review. J Prosthet Dent 2002; 87:451-9.

148. All of the following are true of the scar band in maxillectomy patients except:
a. occurs at the junction of the skin graft and the buccal mucosa.
* b. can be repaired by a secondary surgical procedure.
c. contracts with time.
d. is used to aid in retention of the prosthesis.
Answer: b.
Ref: Rahn, A, Goldman, B, Parr, G. Prosthodontic principles in surgical planning for
maxillary and mandibular resection patients. J Prosthet Dent, 1979;42: 429-433.

149. In a 5-year randomized study by Gotfredsen and Holm in 2000 comparing

mandibular overdentures retained with ball or bar attachments all the following are true
except:
a. During the first year more complications/repairs were registered in the bar
group.
b. No statistical difference in complications/repairs was found between the bar
and ball attachment groups after the first year.
c. There was no difference in marginal bone loss between groups.
* d. Significant peri-implant differences were recorded.
e. Survival was similar for each group.
Answer: d.
Gotfredsen K, Holm B. Implant-supported mandibular overdentures retained with ball or
bar attachments: a randomized prospective 5-year study.

150. The bonding of porcelain to gold alloys was introduced in dentistry in the early
1960s by:
* a. M Weinstein.
b. I Sced.
c. R Dykema.
d. J McLean.
e. F Clark.
Answer: a.
McLean JW. Evolution of dental ceramics in the twentieth century. J Prosthet Dent
2001;85:60-61.
151. What is the correct ADA specification for dental casting alloys?

a. ADA Specification # 5 Types I- IV content of gold/platinum from 95-75

wt%
b. ADA Specification # 5: 3 groups 1) High noble metal content of > 60%
wt% and gold content of >40% 2) Noble with noble metal content > 25%
3) Predominately base metal with noble metal content of <25wt%
c. ADA Specification #15 4 groups 1) High noble metal content of > 60%
wt% and gold content of >40% 2) Noble with noble metal content > 25%
3) Titanium 4) Predominately base metal with noble metal content of
<25wt%
d. ADA Specification # 5 4 groups 1) High noble metal content of > 60%
wt% and gold content of >40% 2) Noble with noble metal content > 25%
3) Titanium 4) Predominately base metal with noble metal content of
<25wt%

152. Metamerism describes:

a. Pairs of objects with the same hue that appear different under the same
light.
b. Two objects with different value that appear similar under a certain light.
c. Pairs of objects that have different spectral curves but appear to match
when viewed in a given hue.
d. An object that appears to have the same color under different light
conditions.

GPT

153 . When thickening a flange by 3mm, the force on the resting tongue was increased by:
a. 67.3%
b. 23.4%
* c. 40.6%
d. 15.2%
e. 20.5%
Answer: c.
Lowe,R.D. et al: Swallowing and Resting Forces Related to Lingual Flange Thickness in
Removable Partial Dentures. JPD 24:3:279-88, March 1970.
154. According to Parr & Loft, what is the best occlusal scheme for most denture patients?
a. Anatomic, balanced occlusion
b. Semi-anatomic, balanced occlusion
* c. Lingualized occlusion
d. Non-anatomic, balanced occlusion
e. Neutrocentric occlusion
Answer: c.
Parr GR and Loft GH, The Occlusal Spectrum and Complete Dentures. The Compendium of
Continuing Education 3:4:241-249, July- August 1982.

155. Select the incorrect answer: When developing the occlusal form of a restoration the
posterior cusps must be shorter when:
a. The inclination of the articulator eminence is made flatter on the articulator
b. The medial wall of the glenoid fossa allows more lateral translation.
* c. The horizontal overlap of the anterior teeth is reduced.
d. The vertical overlap of the anterior teeth is reduced.
Answer: c.
Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics 3rd Edition, Mosby, Rosenstiel, Lord, Fujimoto pp
90-91.
156. What is not the advantage of flowable composites?
a. Syringable.
b. High flexibility.
* c. Less polymerization shrinkage.
d. Excellent marginal adaptation.
e. Dispensed directly into cavity preparation.
Answer: c.
Craig RG, Powers, Restorative Dental Materials, Tenth edition.

157163. All of the following are true of the lingualized occlusion except:
a. lingualized occlusion uses the maxillary lingual cusp as the dominant functional
element, occluding against the corresponding portion of the mandibular tooth.
b. According to Mehringer, the lingual cusp of a maxillary posterior tooth in a
lingualized occlusion penetrates the bolus like a cleaver on a butcher’s block, and
then operates on the bolus in a holding and grinding fashion similar to the action
of a mortar and pestle.
* c. The denture teeth are set more lingually in the lingualized occlusion.
d. The maxillary buccal cusps are raised above the occlusal plane and play no
functional role in occlusion. The maxillary buccal cusps are present to improve
the esthetic appearance of the prosthesis and to lift the cheek away from the
occlusal plane to prevent cheek biting.
Answer: c.
Ref: Dental Clinics of North America 40:1, 1996, pages 103-104.
158. The major advantage of computed tomography over linear tomography or
panoramic radiography in imaging for implant placement is:
a. cost.
b. radiation dose.
* c. dimensional accuracy.
d. convenience.
e. none of the above.
Answer c.
Potter, Imaging for implant dentistry, Clark's Clinical Dentistry, 1992. pp 1-11.

159. The portion of the prosthesis that contacts the interproximal surface of the tooth and
tissue is the proximal plate. The functions of the proximal are to do all of the following
except:
a. Protect against food impaction.
b. Prevent tissue hypertrophy between tooth and prosthesis.
c. Resist dislodgement of the prosthesis by frictional contact with the teeth
(retention).
* d. Direct forces along the long axis of the tooth.
e. Maintain arch integrity by anterior-posterior bracing action.
Answer: d.
Kratochvil FJ: Partial removable prosthodontics. Philadelphia, WB Saunders, 1988 pp
25-29.

160. Compomer cements, also known as poly acid-modified composites are:

a. Indicated in full crowns but contraindicated in inlays and onlays.
b. Contraindicated in full crowns but may be indicated in inlays and onlays.
c. Indicated for all purposes including core build up and as filling material.
* d. Generally contraindicated in ceramic crowns, inlays, onlays and veneers.
e. Indicated only for cementing ceramic restorations.
Answer: d.
Craig RG and Powers JM. Restorative Dental Materials 11th Edition. Mosby.
Chapter 20; 618.