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1.

Carbonic anhydrase is present at all places except:


a) gastric parietal cells
b) red blood cells
c) renal tubular cells
d) plasma
e) renal tubular lumen

2. Which one of the following respiratory chain components is a mobile carrier of electrons:
a) cytochrome oxidase
b) NADH-Q reductase
c) ubiquinone
d) succinate dehydrogenase
e) cytochrome reductase

3. All of the following proteins are flavoproteins except:


a) xanthine oxidase
b) cytochrome c
c) NADH dehydrogenase –Q reductase
d) succinate dehydrogenase
e) L-amino acid oxidase

4. All of the following enzymes require NAD+ except:


a) acyl-CoA dehydrogenase
b) cytosolic glyceraldehyde-3-P dehydrogenase
c) pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
d) malate dehydrogenase
e) isocitrate dehydrogenase

5. A child has accidentally ingested a chemical and has presented with high fever. The chemical is known
to affect ATP formation in electron transport chain. Which of the following compounds could cause the
similar manifestations:
a) cyanide
b) malonate
c) 2,4-dinitrophenol
d) rotenone
e) carbon monoxide

6. Which complex of electron transport chain is inhibited by cyanide action:


a) complex I
b) complex II
c) complex III
d) complex IV
e) a and c

7. The enzymes of mitochondrial matrix include all of the following except:


a) enzymes of β-oxidation
b) creatine kinase
c) enzymes of TCA cycle
d) pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
e) pyruvate carboxylase

8. The energy yield during the conversion of succinate to fumarate is:


a) 1.5 ATP
b) 3 ATP
c) 2.5 ATP
d) 0 ATP
e) 5 ATP 

9. Which one of the following enzymes catalyzes substrate level phosphorylation in TCA cycle:
a) malate dehydrogenase
1
b) succinate dehydrogenase
c) α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex
d) isocitrate dehydrogenase
e) succinate thiokinase

10. Which of the following is a monosaccharide:


a) galactose
b) lactose
c) maltose
d) sucrose
e) a and c

11. The compound that consists of ribose linked by an N-glycosidic bond to N-9 of adenine is:
a) a purine nucleotide
b) a pyrimidine nucleotide
c) adenosine
d) AMP
e) inosine

12. Endogenously synthesized triacylglycerols are transported from liver to extrahepatic tissues by which
of the following lipoproteins:
a) chylomicrons
b) VLDL
c) LDL
d) HDL
e) b, c

13. All of the following are essential fatty acids except:


a) linoleic acid
b) linolenic acid
c) arachidonic acid
d) stearic acid
e) b, d

14. Which nitrogenous base of the following is present in lecithin:


a) choline
b) adenine
c) ethanolamine
d) cytosine
e) any of the above

15. Cholesterol is a precursor of all of the following except:


a) taurocholate
b) glycocholate
c) calcitriol
d) corticosteroids
e) oxytocin

16. Which statement best describes xanthine:


a) It is a direct precursor of guanine.
b) It covalently binds to allopurinol.
c) It is oxidized to form uric acid.
d) It is oxidized to form hypoxanthine.
e) It is a substrate rather than a product of the enzyme xanthine oxidase.

17. Which of the following contributes nitrogen atoms to both purine and pyrimidine rings:
a) aspartate
2
b) carbamoyl phosphate
c) carbon dioxide
d) glutamate
e) tetrahydrofolate

18. Allopurinol, which effectively treats gout, has no effect on the severe neurological symptoms of Lesch-
Nyhan patients, because it does not:
a) decrease de novo purine synthesis
b) decrease de novo pyrimidine synthesis
c) decrease urate synthesis
d) increase PRPP levels (phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate)
e) inhibit xanthine oxidase

19. A child is found to have severe combined immunodeficiency. His lab tests demonstrate a decrease in T
cells, B cells, natural killer cells and decreased antibodies. The enzyme that is defective in this disorder
is important in which of the following processes:
a) conversion of ribonucleotides to deoxyribonucleotides
b) formation of AMP
c) synthesis of UMP
d) conversion of dUMP to dTMP
e) conversion of adenosine to inosine

20. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is due to defective:


a) salvage pathway for pyrimidine biosynthesis
b) de novo synthesis of pyrimidines
c) xanthine oxidase
d) HGPRT (hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase)
e) formyl transferase

21. A 58-year-old man suffers from the recurrent attacks of angry inflammed great toe, especially after a
rich meal. Inhibition of which of the following enzymes might prevent the occurrence of such symptoms:
a) amido transferase
b) PRPP synthetase
c) xanthine oxidase
d) orotate phosphoribosyl transferase
e) carbamoyl phosphate synthetase-II

22. Glycine and proline are the most abundant amino acids in the structure of:
a) hemoglobin
b) myoglobin
c) insulin
d) glucagon
e) collagen

23. Which of the following amino acids is a precursor for a mediator of allergies and inflammation:
a) histidine
b) tyrosine
c) phenylalanine
d) tryptophan
e) asparagine

24. All of the following amino acids are both glucogenic as well as ketogenic except:
a) isoleucine
b) leucine
c) tyrosine
d) phenylalanine
e) tryptophan

25. Which of the following amino acid is a precursor of niacin:


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a) tyrosine
b) threonine
c) tryptophan
d) phenylalanine
e) proline

26. In scurvy, which amino acid that is normally part of collagen is not synthesized?
a) hydroxytryptophan
b) hydroxytyrosine
c) hydroxyalanine
d) hydroxylysine
e) hydroxyphenylalanine

27. Which of the following amino acids in myoglobin is highly likely to be localized within the interior of the
molecule:
a) arginine
b) valine
c) aspartic acid
d) lysine
e) serine

28. Which of the following statements is not true of competitive inhibitors:


a) Vmax remains the same.
b) Apparent Km is increased.
c) Inhibitor is a structural analogue of the substrate.
d) Inhibitor binds covalently to the enzyme.
e) Increasing concentration of substrate can reverse the changes.

29. Glycogen phosphorylase, which mobilizes glycogen for energy, requires as a cofactor:
a) pyridoxal phosphate
b) tetrahydrofolate
c) adenosyl cobalamine
d) coenzyme A
e) ATP

30. Which of the following statement is incorrect about the effect of increasing temperature on enzyme
activity:
a) Raising the temperature increases the kinetic energy of molecules.
b) A 10 oC rise in temperature will increase the activity of most enzymes by 50 to 100%.
c) Most animal enzymes rapidly become denatured at temperatures above 40oC.
d) Storage of enzymes at 5°C or below is generally not suitable.
e) Enzymes from thermophilic bacteria are stable at temperatures above 45 oC.

31. Enzymes of I class catalyse the reactions of:


a) oxidation-reduction
b) transamination
c) phosphorylation
d) decarboxylation
e) isomerisation

32. The conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate involves the participation of a coenzyme:


a) NAD+
b) NADPH
c) biotin
d) UTP
e) all of the above

33. The inhibition of thymidylate synthase by the drug fluorouracil is an example of:
a) allosteric inhibition
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b) competitive inhibition
c) noncompetitive Inhibition
d) suicidal inhibition
e) reversible inhibition

34. The activities of many enzymes, membrane transporters and other proteins can be quickly activated or
inactivated by phosphorylation of specific amino acid residues. This regulation is called:
a) allosteric modification
b) covalent modification
c) induction
d) repression
e) feedback regulation

35. Glycogen synthase adds glucose residues to the nonreducing ends of a glycogen primer from:
a) UDP- glucose
b) glucose-1-P
c) glucose-6-P
d) glycogenin
e) glycoproteins

36. Glycogen phosphorylase degrades glycogen to produce:


a) glucose
b) glucose-1-P
c) glucose-6-P
d) UDP-glucose
e) glycogen primer

37. Glucagon induces activity of:


a) glycogen synthase
b) glycogen phosphorylase
c) glucokinase
d) hexokinase
e) UDP-glucose pyrophosphorylase

38. Which of the following is the most important for maintenance of blood glucose:
a) liver
b) heart
c) skeletal muscle
d) spleen
e) gut

39. A 15-year-old male presents with increased thirst, hunger, urination, and weight loss. His fasting blood
glucose level is 400 mg/dl and is diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. What is the reason for this
patient’s inability to maintain a normal blood glucose level:
a) decreased uptake of glucose by peripheral cells
b) abnormal response to glucagon
c) decreased glucagon to insulin ratio
d) decreased glucose output by the liver
e) increased ketone body production

40. Which enzyme is not present in muscle:


a) phosphorylase b
b) hexokinase
c) glucose-6-phosphatase
d) glycogen synthase
e) lactate dehydrogenase

41. Glycogenolysis is best described by which of the following statements:


a) It involves enzymes cleaving β(1→4) glycosidic linkage.
5
b) It requires activation of glycogen synthase.
c) It requires a dual action enzyme α(1→4) glycosidase and transferase.
d) It uses ATP to produce glucose-1-P.
e) It requires inactivation of phosphorylase kinase.

42. Which of the following statements about liver phosphorylase kinase is most accurate:
a) It is present in the inactivated form when epinephrine is released.
b) It phosphorylates glycogen phosphorylase to make it inactive.
c) It is stimulated by cAMP mediated phosphorylation cascade.
d) It is not affected by protein kinase A (PKA).
e) It is phosphorylated in response to insulin.

43. Which of the following biochemical deficits are seen in Pompe’s disease:
a) a glycogenin deficiency
b) an α(1→6) glycosidase deficiency
c) a glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency
d) a glycogen phosphorylase deficiency
e) a lysosomal glucosidase deficiency

44. Caffeine inhibits cAMP phosphodiesterase. If caffeine is added to cells, which of the following enzymes
is phosphorylated and inactivated in liver:
a) phosphorylase kinase
b) calmodulin
c) glycogen phosphorylase
d) protein kinase A
e) glycogen synthase

45. The activity of muscle glycogen synthase in resting muscles is increased by the action of:
a) epinephrine
b) glucagon
c) insulin
d) phosphorylation
e) fasting and starvation

46. Cytosolic HMG-CoA is reduced to mevalonate for the synthesis of cholesterol, the enzyme catalyzing
this irreversible step is:
a) thiolase
b) thioesterase
c) HMG-CoA lyase
d) HMG-CoA synthase
e) HMG-CoA reductase

47. Which of the following statements is incorrect about bile salts:


a) major constituent of bile
b) they solubilize dietary lipids
c) major breakdown products of cholesterol
d) taurocholate is the only one bile salt
e) bile salts are highly effective detergents

48. GABA is derived from glutamate by which of the following reactions:


a) decarboxylation
b) transamination
c) deamination
d) hydroxylation
e) dehydrogenation

49. Which of the following amino acid is another component of glutathione besides cysteine and glutamate:
a) methionine
6
b) arginine
c) lysine
d) ornithine
e) glycine

50. Creatine is derived from which of the following precursors:


a) arginine, lysine and glutamine
b) glutamic acid, cysteine and glycine
c) methionine, serine and glycine
d) methionine, arginine and glycine
e) cysteine, glycine and arginine

51. S-adenosylmethionine (S-AM) is required for the synthesis of which of the following compounds:
a) thyroid hormone
b) sphingosine
c) melatonin
d) serotonin
e) bile salts

52. Which of the following compounds is formed from hydroxylation requiring vitamin C and subsequent
methylation:
a) histamine
b) dopamine
c) epinephrine
d) creatine
e) norepinephrine

53. Which of the following is a precursor for thyroid hormone:


a) DOPA
b) glutamine
c) tyrosine
d) tryptophan
e) threonine

54. Methotrexate inhibits which of the following conversions:


a) dopamine to norepinephrine conversion
b) tyrosine to Dopa
c) dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate
d) phenylalanine to tyrosine
e) N-acetylserotonin to melatonin

55. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors, the drugs used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease, are given to
decrease the degradation of which of the following:
a) tyrosine
b) dopamine
c) nicotinamide
d) melanin
e) nitric oxide

56. Which of the following amino acids would be found in the highest concentration in the serum in the post
absorptive state:
a) alanine and glutamine
b) arginine and ornithine
c) glutamate and aspartate
d) branched chain amino acids
e) hydrophobic amino acids

57. Tyrosine upon catabolism enters TCA cycle as which of the following:
a) oxaloacetate
7
b) citrate
c) succinyl-CoA
d) α-ketoglutarate
e) fumarate

58. Which of the following compounds you most likely expect to be elevated in the blood of the patient with
the defect of cystathionine-β-synthase:
a) homocysteine
b) valine
c) threonine
d) glutamine
e) cysteine

59. Which of the following compounds is expected to be in the highest concentration in brain as a result of
detoxification of ammonia:
a) α-ketoglutarate
b) glutamate
c) glutamine
d) GABA
e) asparagine

60. Which of the following enzymes requires adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to mediate its reaction:
a) argininosuccinate lyase
b) argininosuccinate synthetase
c) arginase
d) glutaminase
e) ornithine transcarbamoylase

61. Which of the following amino acids is not converted to acetyl-CoA upon metabolism:
a) tyrosine
b) leucine
c) tryptophan
d) lysine
e) valine

62. Which of the following enzymes does not need a primer in order to function:
a) DNA Pol I
b) DNA Pol II
c) DNA Pol III
d) RNA polymerase
e) DNA polymerase α

63. Which of the following enzymes is required for the end to end joining of DNA:
a) DNA Pol I
b) DNA ligase
c) DNA Pol III
d) RNA polymerase
e) telomerase

64. How many hydrogen bonds form between T and A in a Watson-Crick base pair interactions:
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
e) 4

65. Histones have an abundance of which of the following amino acids:


a) lysine and arginine
8
b) alanine and glutamine
c) glycine and glutamine
d) arginine and glutamine
e) proline and glycine

66. In protein synthesis which of the following sequences is not a termination codon:
a) UAG
b) UGA
c) UUU
d) UAA
e) b and d

67. BRCA-1 is associated with which cancer:


a) breast
b) nerve
c) thyroid
d) leukemia
e) kidney

68. All are needed as coenzyme for α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex except:
a) niacin
b) folic acid
c) riboflavin
d) lipoic acid
e) HS-CoA

69. Which of the following vitamins can act without phosphorylation:


a) pyridoxine
b) lipoamide
c) niacin
d) thiamine
e) riboflavin

70. Impaired thymidylate formation is due to the deficiency of:


a) pantothenic acid
b) niacin
c) folic acid
d) B12
e) thiamine

71. Pantothenic acid is important for which of the following pathways:


a) pyruvate carboxylase action
b) fatty acid synthesis
c) gluconeogenesis
d) glycolysis
e) pentose phosphate pathway

72. Transketolase activity is measured for the detection of deficiency of:


a) riboflavin
b) thiamine
c) niacin
d) ascorbic acid
e) pyridoxine

73. The transaminases require the presence of:


a) inositol
9
b) B6
c) B12
d) B2
e) B1

74. Homocystinuria is due to the deficiency of:


a) vitamin B12
b) B6
c) folic acid
d) riboflavin
e) all of the above

75. Which one of the following is involved in the conversion of acetyl-CoA to malonyl-CoA:
a) thiamine pyrophosphate
b) acyl carrier protein
c) biotin
d) niacin
e) pyridoxal phosphate

76. Wernicke’s encephalopathy is found in the deficiency of:


a) riboflavin
b) thiamine
c) niacin
d) pyridoxine
e) folate

77. L-amino acid oxidase enzyme requires the presence of:


a) inositol
b) B6
c) B12
d) B2
e) B1

78. Which vitamin is required for the absorption of calcium from the gut:
a) vitamin D
b) vitamin E
c) vitamin B12
d) vitamin K
e) vitamin A

79. Which of the following vitamins increases the absorption of iron from the gut:
a) vitamin A
b) vitamin E
c) vitamin C
d) vitamin K
e) vitamin D

80. Which of essential nutrient participates as a coenzyme in the transport of high energy electrons and H+
ions during oxidative phosphorylation in the mitochondrion:
a) riboflavin
b) thiamine
c) niacin
d) ascorbic acid
e) a and c

81. Which of the following vitamins in pyruvate dehydrogenase complex becomes non functional by
arsenate poisoning:
10
a) niacin
b) lipoamide
c) pantothenic acid
d) riboflavin
e) HS-CoA

82. As a hormone, vitamin D has three target tissues. Which are they:
a) kidney, small intestine, bone
b) heart, blood, bone marrow
c) kidney, liver, brain
d) small intestine, liver, fat cells
e) brain, pancreas, muscle

83. Deficiency of which of the following can cause folate trap:


a) methylcobalamine
b) tetrahydrofolate
c) copper
d) biotin
e) lipoamid

84. The Cori cycle proceeds in only one direction because glucose-6-phosphatase in not found in:
a) liver
b) muscle
c) spleen
d) small intestine
e) kidney

85. The pentose phosphate cycle produces which of the following compounds:
I. glucose II. ribose III. lactose
+
IV. NADPH V. NAD VI. NADH
a) II and IV
b) I and IV
c) III and V
d) I, II, VI
e) III and IV

86. Glucokinase:
a) has a Km value for glucose higher than hexokinase
b) is found in muscle
c) is inhibited by glucose-6-phosphate
d) is also known as the GLUT-2 protein
e) has glucose-6-phosphatase activity as well as kinase activity

87. Some patients develop hemolytic anemia after taking the oxidizing antimalarial drug. Which of the
following is the most likely cause of this severe reaction:
a) glycogen phosphorylase deficiency
b) disturbances in glucose-6-phosphatase activity
c) diabetes mellitus type II
d) glutathione peroxidase deficiency
e) genetic defect of glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase

88. The important compound produced under normal circumstances by erythrocytes in glycolysis, which
binds to hemoglobin. This metabolite is:

11
a) pyruvate
b) 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate
c) lactate
d) 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate
e) 3-phosphoglycerate

89. Which of the following enzymes is necessary for reversal of the reaction catalysed by pyruvate kinase
during gluconeogenesis:
a) pyruvate carboxylase
b) pyruvate dehydrogenase
c) phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
d) a, c
e) lactate dehydrogenase

90. Muscle enzyme deficiency, poor exercise tolerance, muscle glycogen abnormally high, blood lactate
very low after exercise. Deficiency of which of the following enzymes is the cause of the presented
clinical features:
a) muscle glycogen synthase
b) glucose 6-phosphatase
c) branching enzyme
d) myophosphorylase
e) muscle hexokinase

91. Insulin lowers blood glucose by:


a) enhancing immediately glucose transport into the liver cells
b) recruitment of glucose transporters from the interior of the muscle cells to the plasma membrane
c) stimulation of synthesis of cAMP
d) all of above
e) a, c

92. Acetyl-CoA for fatty acid synthesis is generated in the cytosol by:
a) acetyl-CoA carboxylase
b) ATP-citrate lyase
c) carnitine palmitoyltransferase-I
d) pyruvate dehydrogenase
e) thiolase

93. Which enzyme catalyzes the only step of fatty acid oxidation that requires energy:
a) acyl-CoA dehydrogenase
b) thiolase
c) Δ2-enoyl-CoA hydratase
d) L(+)-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase
e) acyl-CoA synthetase

94. All the following statements correctly describe ketone bodies except:
a) They may result from starvation.
b) They are present at high levels in uncontrolled diabetes.
c) They include β-hydroxybutyrate and acetone.
d) They are utilized by the liver during long term starvation.
e) They are transported from the liver to other tissues.

95. Aspirin inhibits which of the following enzymes:


a) lipoprotein lipase
b) lipoxygenase
c) cyclooxygenase
d) phospholipase D
e) phospholipase A2

96. Which of the following metabolite integrates glucose and fatty acid metabolism:
a) acetyl-CoA
12
b) pyruvate
c) citrate
d) lactate
e) acetone

97. Fatty acids cannot be converted into carbohydrates in the body as the following reaction is not
possible:
a) conversion of glucose-6-phosphate into glucose
b) fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate to fructose-6-phosphate
c) transformation of acetyl-CoA to pyruvate
d) formation of acetyl-CoA from fatty acids
e) transformation of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA

98. The following metabolic abnormalities occur in diabetes mellitus except:


a) increased plasma free fatty acids
b) increased pyruvate carboxylase activity
c) decreased lipogenesis
d) decreased gluconeogenesis
e) c and d

99. Alcohol dehydrogenase converts ethanol into:


a) acetyl-CoA
b) acetyl aldehyde
c) acetate
d) CO2 and H2O
e) methanol

100. The ability of liver to remove benzoate from the blood reflects its:
a) excretory function
b) detoxification function
c) metabolic function
d) circulatory function
e) blood glucose regulation function

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