R.M.

D Engineering College
R.S.M Nagar, Kavaraipettai – 601 206
DEPARTMENT OF ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING

Subject Code: EC8701

Subject Name: Antennas and Microwave Engineering

UNIT – I – MCQ’s
1. The basic requirements of transmitting antennas are:
a) High efficiency
b) Low side lobes
c) Large signal to noise ratio
d) Lone of the mentioned

2. _________ is a device that converts electrons to photons or vice-versa.

a) Antenna
b) Electron gun
c) Photon amplifier
d) Microwave tube

3. The basic equation of radiation that is applied to any antenna irrespective of the type of the
antenna is:
a) iL= Qv
b) iQ = Lv
c) i/L=Q/v
d) None of the mentioned

4. When the separation between two lines that carry the TEM wave approaches λ the wave
tends to be radiated.
a) True
b) False

5. The number of patterns radiation pattern required to specify the characteristic are:
a) Three
b) Four
c) Two
d) Five

6. The beam width of the antenna pattern measured at half power points is called:
a) Half power beam width
b) Full null beam width
c) Beam width
d) None of the mentioned

7. An antenna has a field pattern of E (θ) = cos2 θ, θ varies between 0 and 900. Half power
beam width of the antenna is:
a) 330
b) 660
c) 12000
d) None of the mentioned
8. An antenna has a field pattern E (θ) =cos θ. cos 2θ. The first null beam width of the
antenna is:
a) 450
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 1200

9. The solid area through which all the power radiated by the antenna is:
a) Beam area
b) Effective area
c) Aperture area
d) Beam efficiency

10. Power radiated from an antenna per unit solid angle is called radiation intensity.
a) True
b) False

11.. A __________ is a device that converts a guided electromagnetic wave on a transmission

line into a plane wave propagating in free space.
a) Transmitting antenna
b) Receiving antenna
c) Radar
d) Mixer

12. Antennas are bidirectional devices.

a) True
b) False

13. Dipole antennas are an example for:

a) Wire antennas
b) Aperture antennas
c) Array antennas
d) None of the mentioned

14. _________ antennas consist of a regular arrangement of antenna elements with a feed
network
a) Aperture antennas
b) Array antennas
c) Printed antennas
d) Wire antennas

15. A parabolic reflector used for reception with the direct broadcast system is 18 inches in
diameter and operates at 12.4 GHz. The far-field distance for this antenna is:
a) 18 m
b) 13 m
c) 16.4 m
d) 17.3 m
16._________ of an antenna is a plot of the magnitude of the far field strength versus position
around the antenna.
a) Radiation pattern
b) Directivity
c) Beam width
d) None of the mentioned

17. Antennas having a constant pattern in the azimuthal plane are called _____________
a) High gain antenna
b) Omni directional antenna
c) Unidirectional antenna
d) Low gain antenna

18. Beamwidth and directivity are both measures of the focusing ability of an antenna.
a) True
b) False

19. If the beam width of an antenna in two orthogonal planes are 300 and 600. Then the
directivity of the antenna is:
a) 24
b) 18
c) 36
d) 12

20. If the power input to an antenna is 100 mW and if the radiated power is measured to be
90 mW, then the efficiency of the antenna is:
a) 75 %
b) 80 %
c) 90 %
d) Insufficient data

21. As the beam area of an antenna decreases, the directivity of the antenna:
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains unchanged
d) Depends on the type of the antenna

22. If an antenna radiates over half a sphere, directivity of the antenna is:
a) Two
b) Four
c) Three
d) One

23. The half power beam width of an antenna in both θ and φ are 400 each. Then the gain of
the antenna is:
a) 23
b) 25
c) 14
d) 27
24. The number N of radio transmitters or point sources of radiation distributed uniformly
over the sky which an antenna can resolve is given by:
a) 4π/ ΩA
b) 2π/ ΩA
c) π/ ΩA
d) None of the mentioned

25. Ideally, the number of point sources an antenna can resolve is numerically equal to:
a) Gain of the antenna
b) Directivity
c) Beam efficiency
d) Beam area

26. Effective aperture is a parameter of the antenna that gives the physical aperture of the
antenna.
a) True
b) False

27. Effective aperture in terms of beam area and operating wavelength is given by the
relation:
a) λ2/ ΩA
b) ΩA / λ2
c) λ2× ΩA
d) No such relationship exists

28.________ of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the induced voltage to the incident
electric field.
a) Effective height
b) Gain
c) Directivity
d) Loss

29. The directivity of an antenna in terms of the aperture efficiency and operating wavelength
is given by:
a) 4πAe/λ2
b) 2πAe/λ2
c) πAe/λ2
d) None of the mentioned

30. A radio link has 15 W transmitter connected to an antenna of 2.5 m2 effective aperture at
5 GHz. The receiving antenna has an effective aperture of 0.5 m2 and is located at a 15 Km
line of sight distance from transmitting antenna. Assuming lossless, matched antennas, the
power delivered to the receiver is:
a) 20 µW
b) 15 µm
c) 23 µm
d) 25 µm
31.Self impedance of an antenna is basically __________
a. Its input impedance during the removal of all other antennas

b. Its impedance by taking into consideration the consequences of other antennas

c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

32. Which property/ies of antenna is/are likely to be evidenced in accordance to Reciprocity

theorem?
a. Equality of impedances

b. Equality of directional patterns

c. Equality of effective lengths
d. All of the above

33. A dipole antenna is also called as?

a) Marconi antenna
b) Yagi antenna
c) Bidirectional antenna
d) Hertz antenna

34. The impedance at center of the antenna is known as?

a) Characteristic impedance
b) Radiation resistance
c) Transmission impedance
d) Recovery resistance

35. What happens when the radiation resistance of the antenna matches the characteristic
impedance of the transmission line?
a) No transmission occurs
b) No reception occurs
c) SWR is maximum
d) SWR is minimum

36. The type of dipole antenna that has a higher band width is called as?
a) Conical antenna
b) Yagi antenna
c) Helical antenna
d) Marconi antenna
37. The radiation pattern of a half-wave dipole has the shape of a ______
a) Doughnut
b) Sphere
c) Hemisphere
d) Circular
38. What is the beam width for a half wave dipole antenna?
a) 90°
b) 180°
c) 50°
d) 250°

39. What does the beam width of an antenna tell us?

a) Signal strength
b) Signal power
c) Directivity
d) Degradation

40. What is the power radiated by the antenna with gain called as?
a) Critical power
b) Transverse power
c) Effective radiated power
d) Transmitted power

41. What is the radiation pattern of an isotropic radiator?

a) Doughnut
b) Sphere
c) Hemisphere
d) Circular

42. Which of the following antennas produce a vertical radiation pattern?

a) Dipole antenna
b) Yagi antenna
c) Marconi antenna
d) Hertz antenna

43. Antennas convert ----------------------to---------------------

a) Photons to electrons b) electrons to photons

c) Both a and b d) none

44. Antennas are of -------------- types

a) Two b) four
c) Infinite d) none
45. Which of the following is true

a) Time changing current radiates b) accelerated charges radiates

c) Both a and b d) none

46. Radiation pattern is ---------------- dimensional quantity

a) Two b) three
c) Single d) none

47. ------------- is also called as 3-dB bandwidth

a) FNBW b) HPBW
c) Both a and b d) none

48. One steradian is equal to --------------- square degrees

a) 360 b) 180
c) 3283 d) 41,253

49. --------------is independent of distance

a) Poynting vector b) radiation intensity

c) Both a and b d) none

50. The minimum value of the directivity of an antenna is……….

a) Unity b) zero
c) Infinite d) none

PART – B
1. Directivity is inversely proportional to………

a) HPBW b) FNBW
c) Beam area d) Beam width

2. Gain is always -------------than directivity

a) Greater b) lesser
c) Equal to d) none

3. Directivity and Resolution are------------

a) Different b) same
c) Both a and b d) none

4. Effective aperture is always ----------- than Physical aperture.

a) Higher b) lower
c) Both a and b d) none

5. --------------Theorem can be applied to both circuit and field theories

a) Equality of patterns b) Equality
of impedance
c) Equality of effective lengths d) Reciprocity theorem

6. Antenna temperature considers--------parameter into account

a) Directivity b) gain
c) Beam area d) beam efficiency

7. Radiation resistance of antenna is-------------

a) Physical resistance b) Virtual Resistance

c) Both a and b d) none

8. Antenna aperture is same as-----------

a) Length b) width
c) Area d) volume

9. The source of scalar potential is

a) Charge density b) Current density

c) Both a and b d) none

10. The source of vector potential is

a) Charge density b) Current density

c) Both a and b d) none

11. R/v is called-------------

a) Radiation to voltage ratio b) resistance to velocity

ratio
c) Propagation delay d) none

12. Which condition makes coupled equations into uncoupled equations?

a) Retarded b) Helmholtz
c) Lorentz gauge d) none

13. Suppose we wish to use a standard car radio antenna (length = 1m) as a transmitting
antenna at 1 MHZ. The power to be transmitted is 10 W. Use the above information for
solving questions 1 and 2
If the antenna has a resistance of 2mΩ, the efficiency is_______
a)81.4%
b)40.7%
c)100%
d)20.3%

14. The gain of antenna is ___________.

a)1.425
b)2.85
c) 5
d) 0
15. Consider a lossless antenna with a directive gain of 6 dB. If 1 mW of power is fed to it,
the total power radiated by the antenna will be_______

a)1 mW
b)4 mW
c)7 mW
d)1/4 mW

16. The transmitting and receiving antennas are separated by a distance of 200λ and have
directive gains of 25 and 18 dB, respectively. If 5 mW of power is to be received, calculate
the minimum transmitted power.
a) 0.791 W
b) 1.583 W
c)3.166 W
d)1.258 W

17. A magnetic field strength of 5 μA/m is required at a point on θ =π/2, 2 km from an

antenna in the air. Answer question 17-19 Neglecting ohmic loss, how much power must the
antenna transmit if it is a Hertzian dipole of length λ/25?
a)158 mW
b)144 mW
c)72 mW
d)36 mW

18. Neglecting ohmic loss, how much power must the antenna transmit if it is a half wave
dipole?
a)158 mW
b)144 mW
c)72 mW
d)36 mW

19. Neglecting ohmic loss, how much power must the antenna transmit if it is a quarter wave
dipole?
a)158 mW
b)144 mW
c)72 mW
d)36 mW

20. The maximum effective area of a λ/2 wire dipole operating at 300 MHz is _________
a) 0.26
b)13
c) 26
d) 0.13

21. How much power is received in Q-9 with an incident plane wave of strength 2 mV/m?
a)0.71 nW
b)1.42 nW
c)0.35 nW
d)2.12 nW

22. The measured half power beam widths (HPBW) of an antenna in the two orthogonal
planes are 70° and 65°. The directivity of the antenna in dBi is approximately:
a)4.8
b)9.6
c)19.2
d)24.0
23. The normalized E-field pattern of an antenna varies as 0.5(1 + cosθ), where, angle θ is
measured from broadside direction. The approx. HPBW of the antenna is:
a) 131°
b) 95.6°
c) 65.5°
d) 47.8°

Common data for 24 and 25:. If reflection coefficient of an antenna is 0.3 at a frequency of
900 MHz, then

24. The value of voltage standing wave ratio (VSWR) is:

a) 3
b) 1.86
c) 1.5
d) 1

25. The percentage power transmitted by the antenna is:

a) 91%
b) 80%
c) 70%
d) 40%
UNIT – II – PART - A
1. Alternating current element is given by
a) I dl
b) I dl cosωt
c) I dl sinωt
d) I

2. ------- Potential is used to find the field components of current element

a) Scalar Potential, V
b) Vector Potential, A
c) Both a and b
d) None

3. ------ is basic building block for any practical antenna

a) Current element
b) Dipole
c) Monopole
d) Loop

4. The radiation pattern of loop antenna ---------

a) Circle b) Semi-circle c) highly directional d) none of the above

5. Consider an isotropic radiator radiating a power of 1 watt. At a distance of 1 metre,

power per unit area in W/𝑚2
a)1 b) 4π c) 1/ 4π d) None

6. The log periodic antenna is a -----------------

a) Directional b) Frequency dependent c) Omni directional
d) Frequency independent
7. The main application of Loop Antenna is--------------------
a) a. AM Broadcast radios
b) Direction Finding
c) UHF Transmitters
d) TV broadcasting

8. The Directivity of Loop Antenna is --------------------

a) Same as infinitesimal dipole.
b) Greater than infinitesimal dipole.
c) Smaller than infinitesimal dipole.
d) 1.7

9. For a square corner reflector, the flaring angle is----------

a) 60° b)30° c)90° d)180°

10. The Widely shaped for patch antenna

a) Rectangular b) Circular c) Elliptical d) Parabolic

11. The radiation pattern of Parabolic Antenna is

a) Omni-directional
b) Figure of eight
c) Highly directional
d) None of the above

12. Yagi antenna is used for -------

a) Very large bandwidth
b) High Forward Gain
c) Omnidirectional Gain
d) All of the above
13. Antennas commonly used for microwave links
a) Loop antennas
b) Paraboloidal Dish
c) Log-periodic antennas
d) Rhombic antennas

14. The no. of images formed for a square corner reflector, using method of images are---
-------
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 6

15. The no. of images formed for a 30 degrees corner reflector, using method of Images
are----------
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 6
16. The generally used feed antenna for paraboloids is --------------
a) Microstrip antenna
b) Loop antenna
c) Helical antenna
d) Horn Antenna

17. The disadvantage of parabolic reflector------

a) Poor Efficiency
b) Low value of radiation resistance
c) Power loss
d) Spill over effect

18. The radiation Pattern of helix in Axial mode

a) Bi directional b) Unidirectional C) 4 lobed d) Omni directional

19. The radiation Pattern of helix in Normal mode

a) Bi directional b) Unidirectional C) 4 lobed d) Omni directional

20. The efficiency of Microstrip antenna is------

a) High b) Very high c) infinite d) Low

21. Radiation pattern of Yagi-Uda array is--------directional

a) Bi directional b) Omni directional C) 4 lobed d) Unidirectional

22. The reflector is longer than the folded dipole in Yagi-Uda antenna.
a.True b.False

23. The director is shorter than the Folded dipole in Yagi-Uda antenna.
a.True b.False
24. Which expression states qualitatively the behavior in the middle of a λ/2-dipole
antenna?
a) V=max, I=max
b) V=max, I=min
c) V=min, I=max
d) V=min, I=min

25. The simplest ideal antenna is called...

a) Horn
b) Yagi-Uda
c) Array
d) Hertzian dipole

26. What is the gain of an isotropic radiator?

a) –1 dB
b) 0 dB
c) 5 dB
d) 10 dB
27. Which element should exist in order to have a λ/4-monopole antenna?
a) Anechoic chamber
b) Semiconductor
c) Insulator
d) Ground plane
28. Which one is not a typical antenna parameter?
a) Gain
b) Conductivity
c) Directivity
d) Radiation Pattern

29. When does the microwave region in the electromagnetic spectrum start?
a) 1 Hz
b) 1 kHz
c) 1 MHz
d) 1 GHz

30. The propagation speed of an EM wave depends on the-----

a) Medium
b) Frequency
c) Polarization
d) Power

31. In order to match the impedance between dipole and free space, dipoles are normally
---------
a) Vertical
b) Horizontal
c) Folded
d) Circularly Polarized

32. A slot cut at an edge of a sheet is ------

a) Horn antenna
b) Loop antenna
c) Helical Antenna
d) Notch Antenna

33. What is the geometry of Helical Antenna?

a) Straight line
b) Circle
c) Cylinder
d) All of the above

34. Helical Antennas are --------polarized with high gain.

a) Circularly
b) Vertically
c) Horizontally
d) Elliptically
35. Helical Antennas are used for satellite tracking because of its -----
a) Good front to back ratio
b) Maneuverability
c) Broad bandwidth
d) Circular polarization

36. --------antenna is the standard reference antenna for the directiveness.

a) Isotropic
b) Elementary douplet
c) Rhombic
d) Half-wave dipole

37. Electrical length or effective length of an antenna is -------------

a) Same as its physical length
b) Greater than its physical length
c) Smaller than its physical length
d) None of these

38. Top loading is used with antennas to

a) Increase the effective height
b) Reduce the effective height
c) Increase the bandwidth
d) Increase the input capacitance

39. Which of the following antenna is best guided by a waveguide?

a) Biconical
b) Horn
c) Helical
d) Discone

40. Which antenna does not depend on the frequency?

a) Yag-Uda
b) Folded dipole
c) Log periodic antenna
d) None of the above

41. An antenna with very high gain and very narrow beamwidth
a) Helical antenna
b) Discone antenna
c) Horn antenna
d) Parabolic dish antenna
42. What is the theoretical gain of Hertzian dipole?
a) 1.76dB
b) 2.15dB
c) 3 dB
d) 0 dB

43. Which of the following improves antenna directivity?

a) Driven element
b) Reflector antenna
c) Director element
d) Parasitic element

44. What is the nature of current distribution over the small dipoles?
a) Spherical
b) Rectangular
c) Triangular
d) Square

45. Which conversion mechanism is performed by parabolic reflector antenna?

a) Plane to spherical wave
b) Spherical to plane wave
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

46. Which type of wire antennas are also known as dipoles?

a) Linear
b) Loop
c) Helical
d) All of the above

47. If a half-wave dipole operates at 300 MHz with λ = 0.5m & D0 = 1.643, what will be
its effective area?
a) 0.032 m2
b) 0.047 m2
c) 0.65 m2
d) 0.99 m2

48. What is the far-field position of an electric short dipole?

a) Along x-axis
b) Along y-axis
c) Along z-axis
d) Along xy plane

49. From the radiation point of view, small loops are ------- radiators
a. Poor
b. Good
c. Better
d. Excellent
50. Aperture efficiency of antenna is
a) Ratio of gp and gd
b) Maximum effective area to physical area
c) Effective area to physical area
d) physical area to effective area

UNIT – II Part B - Two Marks

1. The field at any point behind a plane having a screen, if added to the field at the same
point when the complementary screen is substituted, is equal to the field when no
screen is present. This statement is-------- and used in ------
a) Rumsey’s Principle, Loop Antenna
b) Babinet’s Principle, Slot Antenna
c) Rumsey’s Principle, Slot Antenna
d) Babinet’s Principle, Loop Antenna
2. The Principle of Equality of path length, ---------- Principle is applicable to ---------
antenna design.
a) Rumsey’s Principle, Loop Antenna
b) Fermat’s Principle, Slot Antenna
c) Rumsey’s Principle, Slot Antenna
d) Fermat’s Principle, Horn Antenna
3. Give the optimum flare angle and length of Horn Antenna.
𝐿 0𝛿 cos(𝛳/2)
a) 𝑂𝑝𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑢𝑚 𝛿 = 𝛿0 = 𝛳 − 𝐿, 𝑂𝑝𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑢𝑚 𝐿 = = 1−cos(𝛳/2)
cos( )
2
𝐿 𝛿0
b) 𝑂𝑝𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑢𝑚 𝛿 = 𝛿0 = 𝛳 , 𝑂𝑝𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑢𝑚 𝐿 = = 1−cos(𝛳/2)
cos( )
2
𝐿 𝛿 cos(𝛳/2)
0
c) 𝑂𝑝𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑢𝑚 𝛿 = 𝛿0 = 𝛳 , 𝑂𝑝𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑢𝑚 𝐿 = = 1−cos(𝛳/2)
cos( )
2
𝐿 cos(𝛳/2)
d) 𝑂𝑝𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑢𝑚 𝛿 = 𝛿0 = 𝛳 − 𝐿, 𝑂𝑝𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑢𝑚 𝐿 = = 1−cos(𝛳/2)
cos( )
2
4. The directivity of a horn Antenna can be expressed as ---------------- in terms of its
effective aperture.
4𝜋𝐴𝑝
a) 𝐷 = 𝜆2
4𝜋𝐴𝑒 𝐴𝑝
b) 𝐷 =
𝜆2
4𝜋𝜀𝐴𝑒
c) 𝐷 = 𝜆2
4𝜋𝐴𝑒
d) 𝐷 = 𝜆2
5. A half wave dipole at a frequency of 100MHz has a length of --------metre.
a) 100 b) 3 c) 1.5 d) 0.75
6. Find the length of a half wave dipole at 30MHz.
a) 4 b) 3 c) 1.5 d) 5
7. A quarter wave monopole at a frequency of 1 MHz has a length of -------metre
a)1 b) 75 c) 150 d) 300
8. The Radiation Resistance of dipole is --------
a) 36.5 ohms
b) 73 ohms
c) 377 ohms
d) 50 ohms
9. The Radiation Resistance of quarter wave monopole is ---------
a) 36.5 ohms
b) 73 ohms
c) 377 ohms
d) 50 ohms
10. The frequency of operation of a dipole antenna cut to a length of 3.4m.
a) 88MHz
b) 44MHz
c) 22MHz
d) 11MHz
11. For a transmit antenna with a radiation resistance of 72 ohms, an effective antenna
resistance of 8 ohms, a directive gain of 20 and an input power of 100W, determine
the antenna gain.
a) 12.55dB
b) 10.43dB
c) 11.21dB
d) 9.78dB
12. Calculate the characteristic impedance of the quarter wave section used to connect to
300 ohms antenna to a 75 ohms line.
a) 150 ohms
b) 120 ohms
c) 130 ohms
d) 110 ohms
13. A simple half-wavelength antenna radiates the strongest signal.
a) At 45° to its axis
b) Parallel to its axis
c) At right angles to its axis
d) At 60° to its axis.

14. Calculate the efficiency of an antenna that has a radiation resistance of 73 ohms and
an effective dissipation resistance of 5 ohms.
a) 98.3%
b) 93.6%
c) 90.7%
d) 95.5%
15. The radiation resistance of short dipole is given by
a) Rr = 80П2 (dl/λ)2 b) Rr = 20П2 (dl/λ) 2 c) Rr = 10П2 (dl/λ) 2
d) None
16. The radiation resistance of short monopole is given by
a) Rr = 80П2 (dl/λ)2 b) Rr = 20П2 (dl/λ) 2 c) Rr = 10П2 (dl/λ) 2
d) None
17. What is the directivity of λ/2 dipole with effective aperture Ae=0.13 λ2
 a) 1.5
b) 5.1
c) 1.63
d) 1.71
18. Match List I (Type of Antenna) with List II (Example) and select the correct
answer using the codes.
List I List II
A. Aperture antenna 1. Helical antenna
B. Circularly polarized antenna 2. Point source
C. Frequency independent antenna 3. Log periodic antenna
D. Isotropic antenna 4. Microstrip antenna
a) A-1, B-4, C-3, 4-2
b) A-4, B-1, C-2, 4-3
c) A-4, B-3, C-1, 4-2
d) A-4, B-1, C-3, 4-2
19. For an 8 ft. parabolic dish operating at 4GHz, the minimum distance
required for far field measurement is closest to
a) 7.5 cm
b) 15 cm
c) 15m
d) 150 m
20. The electric field E and the magnetic field H of a short dipole antenna satisfy the
condition
a) The r component of E is equal to zero
b) Both r and 𝜃 components of H are equal to zero
c) The 𝜃 component of E dominates the r component in the far – field region
d) The 𝜃 and ∅ components of H are of the same order of magnitude in the near –
field region
21. If diameter of a λ/2 dipole antenna is increased from λ/100 to λ/50, then its,
a) Bandwidth increases
b) Bandwidth decreases
c) Gain decreases
d) Gain increases.
22. For a dipole antenna
a) The current distribution along its length is uniform irrespective of the length
b) The radiation intensity is maximum along the normal to the dipole axis
c) The effective length equals its physical length
d) The input impedance is independent of the location of the feed-point.
23. When corner angle α = 90°, the sheets intersect at right angles, forms-------- and α =
180° is equivalent to --------.
a) Square-corner reflector, Flat sheet reflector
b) Passive corner reflector, Square-corner reflector
c) Flat sheet reflector, Square-corner reflector
d) Passive corner reflector, Flat sheet reflector
24. Parabolic reflector requires --------- which radiates all or most of the energy into the
parabola, whereas corner reflector uses -------
 a) Directional feed, image theory
b) Lens antenna, directional feed
c) Lens antenna, image theory
d) Directional feed, lens antenna
25. If the dipole has been cut from a metal sheet, leaving a slot, the dipole and slot are
said to -------- and the slot impedance is proportional to ------
a) Similar, dipole admittance
b) Complementary, dipole admittance
c) Similar, dipole impedance
d) Complementary, dipole admittance.

UNIT – III – PART - A

1. If the individual antennas of the array are spaced equally along a straight line.
Then It is ------------array.
a) Linear.
b) Non-Linear.
c) Both a and b.
d) None.
2. Linear array is a system of ------spaced elements.
a) Un equally.
b) equally.
c) Both a and b.
d) None.
3. In a Uniform Linear array all elements are fed with a current of ----------amplitude
a) Equal.
b) Unequal.
c) Both a and b.
d) None.
4. In a Broad side array the radiation is along-----------
a) X-direction.
b) Y-direction.
c) Both a and b.
d) None.
5. In an end- fire array the radiation is along -----------
a) X-direction.
b) Y-direction.
c) Both a and b.
d) None.
6. In increased end- fire array the radiation is along-----------
a) X-direction.
b) Y-direction.
c) Both a and b.
d) None.
7. Which array is also called as Hansen-Woodyard array.
a) Broad side.
b) End-fire.
c) Increased End-Fire.
d) Binomial.
8. Which array is also called as Stone‘s array.
a) Broad side.
b) End-fire.
 c) Increased End-Fire.
d) Binomial.
9. Hansen-Wood yard array is a --------array
a) Linear.
b) Non-Linear.
c) Both a and b.
d) None.
10. Stone‘s array is a --------array
a) Linear.
b) Non-Linear.
c) Both a and b.
d) None.
11. Which of the following can be the excitation amplitude of binomial array with 4
elements?
a) 1 3 3 1
b) 1 2 3 1
c) 2 1 1 2
d) 1 4 6 4 1
12. What will be the array factor in polynomial form for the 3 element binomial array if
Z=e^(-iᴪ)?
a.1+2z+z2
b. 1+3z+3z2+z3
c. 1+2z+3z2+z3
d. 1+3z+z2
13. Dolph- Chebyshev becomes a Binomial array when there are no side lobes.
a)True
b) False
14. If 8 isotropic antennas, fed with in phase currents, form a linear array along the x axis(ф=0
degrees) with element spacing of 1 wavelength, then the array’s radiation intensity is
maximum along ф equal to
a. 90 degrees
b. 0 degrees
c. 90 degree and 0 degree
d. 90, 270, 0 and 180 degrees
15. The excitation amplitudes of the binomial array follow ____________.

a. Pascal’s triangle
b. Bermuda triangle
c. Right angled triangle
d. Natural squares
16. The ------------- of broad side array is along the normal direction of array axis.
a. Back lobes
b. Major lobes
c. Side lobes
d. All the above
17. ------------- lobes will exist in linear antennas
a. Back lobes
b. Major lobes
c. Side lobes
d. All the above
18.How do the elements of an active region behave?
a. Inductive
b. Capacitive
c. Resistive
d. None of the above

19. If the length of elements of an array is greater than λ/2, which will be the operating
region of an array?
a. Transmission line region
b. Active region
c. Reflective region
d. All of the above

20. What kind of beamwidth is/are produced by Chebyshev arrays for given side lobe level
(SLL)?
a. Widest
b. Narrowest
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

21. If the elements of a binomial array are separated by λ/4, how many shape patterns are
generated with no minor lobes?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16

22._____ is an antenna with a number of half-wave antenna on it.

a. Antenna array
b. Tower
c. Omni-directional
d. Rhombic

23.The parasitic element of an antenna system will

a. decrease its directivity
b. increase its directivity
c. give the antenna unidirectional properties
d. both b and c

24.______ is an antenna array which is highly directional at right angles to the plane of the
array?
a. Broadside array
b. End-fire array
c. Turnstile array
d. Log-periodic array

25.All elements in a beam _____ antennas are in line

a. collinear
b. yagi
c. broadside array
d. log-periodic

26.In order to increase the gain of Yagi-Uda arrays, what element are added?
a. Using many director
b. Using many dipole
c. Using many reflector
d. All of these

27.Antenna array having one active dipole element and two or more parasitic element is
known as _______.
a. Marconi
b. Horizontal antenna
c. Ground antenna
d. Yagi-Uda antenna

28.If the current ratios of the two or more elements must be held 5% and the phase angle to
3° the antenna is called a
a. end fire array
b. critical phased array
c. broadband array
d. wideband array

29. Which among the following is regarded as a condition of an ordinary endfire array?
a. α < βd
b. α > βd
c. α = ±βd
d. α ≠ ±βd

30. In broadside array, all the elements in the array should have similar _______excitation
along with similar amplitude excitation for maximum radiation.
a. Phase
b. Frequency
c. Current
d. Voltage

31. What is the nature of radiation pattern of an isotropic antenna?

a. Spherical
b. Dough-nut
c. Elliptical
d. Hyperbolic

32. In which kind of array configuration, the element locations must deviate or adjust to some
nonplaner surface like an aircraft or missile?
a. Linear
b. Planer
c. Conformal
d. All of the above

33. A parasitic element of an array is one which

a. is directly connected to the transmitter output
b. is spaced X18 from driven element
c. increases signal strength in its own direction
d. acts as a reflector or director depending on whether it is longer or shorter than the driven
element
34. Which statement regarding end-fire array is wrong?
a. there is no radiation at right angles to the plane of the array
b. it has a dipole spacing of X/2
c. it is called a linear resonant dipole array
d. it has narrow bandwidth

35. Broad side arrays are

a. Omni directional
b. Directional
c. Point sources
d. Isotropic

36. The total field produced by an antenna array system at a great distance from it is
a. sum of the fields produced by the individual antennas of the array system
b. directional gain of antenna
c. linear antenna gain
d. vector sum of the fields produced by the individual antennas of the array system.

37. It consists of a number of dipoles of equal size, equally spaces along a straight line with
all dipoles fed in the same phase from the same source.
a. End-fire array
b. Yagi antenna
c. Log-periodic antenna
d. Broadside array

38. Which of the following is an essential condition for antenna array to be linear?
a. Any two individual antennas of the array must not be in the same direction
b. Individual antennas of the array must be of equal size
c. Individual antennas of the array must be equally spaced along a straight line
d. None of the above

39. Conductors in multi-element antennas that do not receive energy directly from the
transmission line are known as ______.
a. parasitic element
b. driven element
c. the boom
d. receptor

40. Tapering is a technique to

a. Increase side lobe level
b. Decrease side lobe level
c. Increase directivity
d. Decrease directivity

41. Secondary lobes does not appear in the radiation pattern, which is termed as,
a. Linear array
b. Uniform array
c. Binomial array
d. All the above

42. The total field pattern for pattern multiplication is,

a. E = Epi(θ, ф) x Epa(θ, ф) x {Ei(θ, ф) + Ea(θ, ф)}
b. E = Epi(θ, ф) x Epa(θ, ф) x {Epi(θ, ф) + Epa(θ, ф)}
c. E = Ei(θ, ф) x Ea(θ, ф) x {Epi(θ, ф) + Epa(θ, ф)}
d. E = Ei(θ, ф) x Ea(θ, ф) x {Ei(θ, ф) + Ea(θ, ф)}
43. Resultant Radiation Pattern of 4 Isotropic Elements by Pattern Multiplication

a. b. c.

d.
44. The unit radiation pattern of binomial array is
a. E =sin(π/2 sinф)
b. E =cosec(π/2 cosф)
c. E =sec(π/2 cosф)
d. E =cos(π/2 cosф)

45. The directivity of binomial array is.

a. 1.77√𝑛
b. 0.77√𝑛
c. 2.77√𝑛
d. 3.77√𝑛

46. The directivity of end fire array is

a. 2L/λ
b. 3L/λ
c. 4L/λ
d. 5L/λ

47. In an end fire array with antenna spacing of λ/2, the elements are fed,
a. In phase
b. 90° out of phase
c. 180° out of phase
d. 60° out of phase
48. The beam width between first nulls of an end fire uniform linear array(equally spaced
antennas) of a given length, l is
a. less than that of the broad side array
b. equal to that of the broad side array
c. more than that of the broad side array
d. dependent on ‘l’ only and not on element spacing

49. An array of two vertical dipoles, fed in phase and spaced one wavelength apart along the
North South direction, has its maximum radiation intensity along
a. the North direction
b. the South direction
c. both the directions
d. all the four North, South, East and West directions

50. Two point sources, spaced λ apart, and excited equally and in phase, have
a. maxima along ф=90° and 270°, and nulls along ф=0° and 180°
b. maxima along ф=0° and 180°, and nulls along ф=90° and 270°
c. maxima along ф=0° and 180°, and also along ф=90° and 270°
d. none of the above

III – UNIT - PART - B

Common data for Questions 1 to 5: A 6-element linear array of isotropic antennas with equal
spacing of 0.55λo is fed with equal amplitude and same phase. For this array,
1. The approximate directivity is:
a.3.8 dBi
b.5.6 dBi
c.7.4 dBi
d.10.4 dBi

2.The approximate HPBW is:

a.24.6°
b.18.5°
c.15.4°
d.9.2°

3.The direction of first null from the array axis is:

a.38.4°
b.52.6°
c.66.8°
d.72.4°

4.The approximate direction of first side lobe level from the array axis is:
a.78°
b.63°
c.51°
d.40°
5. The magnitude of first side lobe level is:
a. -13.2dB
b. -16.5dB
c. -18.2dB
d. -19.6dB

6. An array fed with equal amplitude and progressive phase shift is designed to scan at 20°
from the array axis. To avoid grating lobes, the maximum allowed inter-element separation
is:
a.0.915λ
b.0.710λ
c.0.516λ
d.0.425λ

7. A broadside square array of isotropic elements provides 25 dBi gain. If this array is used to
scan at an angle 60° from the broadside using progressive phase difference, the gain of the
array in dBi will be:
a.28
b.25
c.22
d.19

8. A rectangular array is designed at 2.45 GHz using 12 elements with spacing = 6 cm in x-

direction and 10 elements with spacing = 8 cm in the y-direction. It is fed with equal
amplitude and same phase. Directivity of the array is:
a.21 dBi
b.26 dBi
c.29 dBi
d.34 dBi

9. If a linear uniform array consists of 9 isotropic elements separated by λ/4, what would be
the directivity of a broadside array in dB?
a. 6.53 dB
b. 7.99 dB
c. 8.55 dB
d. 9.02 dB

10. By how many times is an input impedance of a folded dipole at resonance greater than
that of an isolated dipole with same length as one of its sides?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6

11. A uniform linear array contains 50 isotropic radiation with an inter element spacing of
λ/2. Find the directivity of broadside form of arrays.
a. 50
b. 55
c. 60
d. 65
12. A uniform linear array contains 10 isotropic radiation with an inter element spacing of
λ/4. Find the directivity and length of broadside form of arrays.
a. 5, 5 λ/2,
b. b. 10, 10 λ/2
c. c. 5, 5 λ/4
d. d. 10, 10 λ/4
13. An antenna is formed of four array antenna, each of which has a gain of _____ if the total
gain of these antenna arrays is 30 dB.
a. 12 dB
b. 13 dB
c. 14 dB
d. 15 dB

14. An antenna consists of 4 identical Hertzian dipoles uniformly located along the z axis and
polarized in ‘z’ direction. The spacing between the dipoles is The group pattern function is
(Assume initial phase difference between the dipoles is zero degrees)
a) 4cos( 𝜋 4 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃)cos( 𝜋 2 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃)
b) 4cos( 𝜋 4 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃)cos( 𝜋 8 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃)
c) 4cos( 𝜋 4 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃)sin( 𝜋 2 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃)
d) 4cos( 𝜋 4 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃)sin( 𝜋 8 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃)

15. Two identical and parallel dipole antennas are kept apart by a distance of 𝜆/4 in the H –
plane. They are fed with equal currents but the right most antennas have phase shift of +90ᴼ.
The radiation pattern is given as(2)

16. It is group of antenna arrays that when connected together, function as a simple antenna
whose beamwidth and direction can be changed electronically without having to physically
move any of the individual antennas or antenna elements within the array.
a. end-fire array
b. broadside antenna
c. phased array antenna
d. log-periodic antenna

17. A linear broad side array consists of four equal isotropic inphase point sources with λ/3
spacing. Find the directivity and beamwidth.
a. 2.6, 57.3
b. 3.6, 67.3
c. 6.3, 75.3
d. 6.2, 76.3
18. A uniform linear array consists of 16 isotropic point sources with a spacing of λ/4. If the
phase difference is 90°, calculate the directivity and HPBW, beam solid angle and effective
aperture.
a. 51, 24
b. 15, 42
c. 16, 54
d. 61, 45

19. A uniform linear array consists of 16 isotropic point sources with a spacing of λ/4. If the
phase difference is 90°, calculate the beam solid angle.
a. 0.48Sr
b. 0.64Sr
c. 0.84Sr
d 0.28Sr

Question No. 20 & 21, For an end fire array consisting of several half wave length isotropic
radiator is to have a directive gain of 30°,
20. Find the array length and width of the major lobe (i.e., BWFN).
a. 7.5λ, 59.18
b. 5.7λ, 95.18
c. 15λ, 7.64
d. 2.7λ, 75.18

21. What will be these values for a broadside array?

a. 7.5λ, 59.18
b. 5.7λ, 95.18
c. 15λ, 7.64
d. 2.7λ, 75.18

22. A broadside array operating at 100 cm wavelength consists of four half wave dipoles spaced
50 cm. Each element carries radio frequency current in the same phase and of magnitude 0.5
amperes. Calculate i) radiated power, ii) Half width of major lobe.
a. 37 watts, 18.65
b. 73 watts, 81.65
c. 37 watts, 21.63
d. 73 watts, 28.65

23. For the five element array system, with λ/2 spacing, the HPBW for Binomial and Linear
arrays are respectively,
a. 23, 31
b. 31, 23
c. 21, 33
d. 33, 21

24. An 8-isotropic element end-fire array separated by a λ/4 distance has first null occurring at
____
a. 60
b. 30
c. 90
d. 120
 25. What should be the side lobe level to make Dolph Chebyshev to binomial array?
a. -∞dB
b. 0dB
c. 1dB
d. 100dB
PART- A – UNIT – IV
1. The wavelength range of microwave is
e) 1m to 1mm
f) 1cm to 1mm
g) 1m to 1cm
h) 1m to 2mm

2. Which microwave component is used for both power dividing and combining
e) E plane Tee
f) H plane Tee
g) Magic Tee
h) All the above

3. T junction is an example of
e) 2 port network
f) 3 port network
g) 4 port network
h) None of the above

4. The main benefit of using microwaves is

a) Low cost equipment
b) Greater transmission distances
c) Simpler equipment
d) More spectrum space for signals

5. Power dividers and couplers are ……….. microwave components used for power division
and power combining.
a) Passive
b) Active
c) Linear
d) Non linear

6. Coupling factor and Directional coupler must be maximum and is a key factor that
determines the performance of the directional coupler
a) Yes
b) No

7. Isolation of a directional coupler is a measure of

e) Power delivered to the coupled port
f) Power delivered to the uncoupled port
g) Power delivered to the secondary port
h) None of the above

8. Coupling Factor of a directional coupler is a measure of

e) Power delivered to the coupled port
f) Power delivered to the uncoupled port
g) Power delivered to the secondary port
h) None of the above

9. Parameter used to analyze the microwave is

a) Z parameter
b) h parameter
c) ABCD parameter
d) S parameter

10. Magic Tee is used as

a) Mixer
b) Duplexer
c) Coupler
d)All the above
11. The condition for the dominant mode is
e) Small quality factor
f) Large quality factor
g) Lowest resonant frequency
h) Highest resonant frequency

12. Is quality factor depends on lossy dielectric medium of waveguide

e) Yes
f) No

13. Which of the following is the nonreciprocal device

e) Isolator
f) Circulator
g) Gyrator
h) All the above

14. Which of the following component is called as uniline

e) Isolator
f) Circulator
g) Gyrator
h) None of the above

15. Gyrator is a ---------- device.

e) Passive
f) Linear
g) Lossless
h) All the above

16. Gyrator provides -------- phase shift in forward direction.

e) 00
f) 900
g) 1800
h) 2700
17. Gyrator provides -------- phase shift in forward direction.
e) 00
f) 900
g) 1800
h) 2700

18. Microwave resonators can be used as

a) Oscillators
b) Filters
c) Tuned amplifiers
d) All the above

19. Resistive cards placed inside the attenuator is used to--------

a) reduce the power flow
b) increase the power flow
c) produce phase shift
d) None of the above

20. Flap attenuator provides the attenuation of------

a) 90dB
b) 0dB
c) 45dB
d) 100dB

21. Flap attenuator has the VSWR value of------

a) 1.5
b) 3.05
c) 2.05
d) 1.05

22. Resistive films are used in

a)Fixed attenuators
b)Variable attenuators
c)Both fixed and variable attenuators
d)Neither fixed nor variable attenuators

23. Which port is perfectly matched in magic Tee

a) Port 3
b) Port 4
c) Both port 3 and port 4
d) Neither port 3 nor port 4

24. Which of the following property satisfied by S matrix

e) Unitary Property
f) Zeroth property
g) Symmetry property
h) All the above

25. Insertion loss of a directional coupler is a measure of

e) Power delivered to the coupled port
f) Power delivered to the uncoupled port
g) Power delivered to the secondary port
h) None of the above

26. GaAs is preferred in the fabrication of Gunn diode due to

e) Low conduction band electrons
f) Less forbidden energy gap
g) Less temperature sensitive
h) Cost effective

27. When the voltage or current is applied to the terminals of bulk solid state GaAs .......... is
developed
e) Negative resistance
f) Negative voltage
g) Positive resistance
h) None of the above

28. The mode of operation of the Gunn diode is not stable in

a) Gunn oscillation mode
b) Stable amplification mode
c) Limited space charge accumulation mode
d) Bias circuit oscillation mode

29. PIN diode consists of........... number of semiconductor layers

e) One
f) Two
g) Three
h) Four

30. The resistance of the PIN diode with positive bias voltage
e) Increases
f) Decreases
g) Remains constant
h) None of the above

31. PIN diode is used in either series or shunt configuration to form the
e) Single pole single throw switch
f) Single pole double throw switch
g) Amplifier
h) Oscillator

32. The working principle of series and shunt configuration single pole single throw switch is
same.
e) False
f) True

33. When the reverse bias voltage is exceeding the breakdown voltage is applied to an IMPATT
diode results
e) Avalanche multiplication
f) Breakdown of depletion region
g) High reverse saturation current
h) None of the above

34. The Klystron tube used in klystron amplifier is a........ type beam amplifier
e) Linear beam
f) Crossed field
g) Parallel field
h) None of the above

35. Transferred electron devices are fabricated from

e) GaAs
f) InP
g) CdTe
h) All the above

36. Gunn diodes can be used as

e) Oscillator
f) Amplifier
g) Detectors
h) All the above

37. Slow wave structures are used in microwave tubes

e) To reduce the wave velocity
f) To increase the wave velocity
g) To maintain constant velocity
h) None of the above

38. The area existing between anode and cathode in magnetron is

e) Interaction region
f) Drift region
g) Space charge region
h) None of the above

39. Which of the source is used in microwave ovens

e) Magnetron Oscillator
f) Reflex klystron oscillator
g) TWTA
h) Two cavity klystron amplifier

40. What is the limitation of conventional tubes at high frequencies

e) Lead inductance effects
f) Inter electrode capacitance effects
g) Gain bandwidth product
h) All the above

41. ........... is the single cavity klystron tube that operates as oscillator.
e) Backward wave oscillator
f) Reflex klystron
g) Magnetron
h) Travelling wave tube
42. A major disadvantage of klystron amplifier is
e) Low power gain
f) Low bandwidth
g) High source power
h) Design Complexity

43. Klystron amplifiers have high noise output as compared to crossed field amplifiers
e) True
f) False

44. Magnetrons are microwave devices that offers very high efficiencies of about 80%
e) True
f) False

45. Microwave tubes are grouped into two categories based on the type of
e) Electron beam field interaction
f) Amplification method
g) Power gain achieved
h) Construction methods

46. The number of semiconductor layers in IMPATT diode is

e) Two
f) Three
g) Four
h) None of the above

47. IMPATT diodes employ impact ionization technique which is a noisy mechanism of
generating charge carriers.
e) True
f) False

48. Classical p-n junction diode cannot be used for high frequency applications because of
e) High bias voltage
f) High junction capacitance
g) Frequency sensitive
h) High forward biased current

49. Schottky barrier diode is a sophisticated version of the point contact

e) Germanium diode
f) Silicon crystal diode
g) GaAs diode
h) None of the above

50. As the area of rectifying contact goes on increasing the forward resistance of the schottky
diode
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains unchanged
d. None of the above
 UNIT – IV – PART – B
51. IMPATT diode has the career drift velocity of vd = 2x107 cm/s, drift region length of 6μm.
Find the resonant frequency.
e) 16.67GHz
f) 166.7GHz
g) 1.667GHz
h) None of the above

52. A cylindrical magnetron has the magnetic flux density of 0.336 Wb/m2 . Find the cyclotron
angular frequency.
e) 5.91x1010 rad
f) 4.91x1010 rad
g) 0.91x1010 rad
h) None of the above

53. High power output in satellite transponders can be obtained by using

e) TWTA
f) Magnetron
g) Reflex Klystron
h) None of the above

54. Two cavity Klystron amplifier has the working principle of

e) Velocity modulation
f) Current modulation
g) Bunching process
h) All the above

55. Avalanche transit time devices produces negative resistance due to

a) career impact ionization and drift in the high field region of semiconductor
b) career depletion region and drift in the high field region of semiconductor
c) career impact ionization and depletion in the high field region of semiconductor
d) None of the above

56. The effective mass and mobility of the electrons in the upper valley is
a) mu = 1.2 & μu = 180 cm2/V-sec
b) mu = 0.2 & μu = 180 cm2/V-sec
c) mu = 1.2 & μu = 1800 cm2/V-sec
d) mu = 0.2 & μu = 1800 cm2/V-sec

57. The effective mass and mobility of the electrons in the lower valley is
a) ml = 0.068 & μl = 8000 cm2/V-sec
b) ml = 0.168 & μl = 8000 cm2/V-sec
c) ml = 0.068 & μl = 800 cm2/V-sec
d) ml = 0.168 & μl = 800 cm2/V-sec

58. From the energy band theory of n type GaAs, the high mobility lower valley is separated
from the low mobility upper valley by an energy of
e) 0.36eV
f) 0.26eV
g) 0.16eV
h) 0.06eV
59. Transferred Electron Devices operated with hot electrons due to its
e) Energy is very much greater than the thermal energy
f) Energy is very much lesser than the thermal energy
g) Energy is equal to the thermal energy
h) None of the above

60. The only disadvantage in schottky diode is performance depends on its saturation current that
is directly affected by
e) Capacitance
f) Temperature
g) Resistance
h) None of the above

61. Zero bias schottky diode has the typical knee value of
e) 1.5mV
f) 15mV
g) 150mV
h) 1500mV

62. Schottky diodes are preferred for high speed switching applications due to
e) Higher current density
f) Fast recovery time
g) No charge carry depletion region
h) All the above

63. The PIN diodes are suitable for fast switches, attenuators and high power voltage applications
due to
e) Wide intrinsic region
f) p type region
g) n type region
h) None of the above

64. Quality factor of the cavity resonator depends on

e) Lossy conducting walls and Lossy dielectric medium of the waveguide
f) Lossy conducting walls and Lossless dielectric medium of the waveguide
g) Lossless conducting walls and Lossy dielectric medium of the waveguide
h) Lossless conducting walls and Lossless dielectric medium of the waveguide

65. Magnetron is called as crossed field device due to

a) The radial electric field and axial magnetic fields are perpendicular
b) The radial electric field and axial magnetic fields are parallel
c) All the above
d) None of the above

66. Which of the following is the property of ferrites

a) Resistivity is 1014 times greater than the metals
b) Dielectric constant is in the range of 10 to 15
c) Greater relative permeability
d) All the above
 67. Wilkinson power divider has
e) Not matched at all ports, no isolation at output ports
f) Matched at all ports, no isolation at output ports
g) Not matched at all ports, isolation at output ports
h) Matched at all ports, isolation at output ports

68. In Magic Tee which ports are perfectly matched

e) Port1 & Port2
f) Port2 & Port3
g) Port3 & Port4
h) Port4 & Port1

69. If the input is applied at port 3 of H plane Tee, what will be the output getting at port1 and
port2
e) Equal in magnitude, equal in phase
f) Equal in magnitude, opposite in phase
g) Unequal in magnitude, equal in phase
h) Unequal in magnitude, opposite in phase

70. If the input is applied at port 3 of E plane Tee, what will be the output getting at port1 and
port2
e) Equal in magnitude, equal in phase
f) Equal in magnitude, opposite in phase
g) Unequal in magnitude, opposite in phase
h) Unequal in magnitude, equal in phase
71. In a directional coupler, incident power is 1000mW. The power at port 4 is 10mW. The
power at port 3 is 1mW. Find the Isolation
e) 10dB
f) 20dB
g) 30dB
h) None of the above
72. In a directional coupler, incident power is 1000mW. The power at port 4 is 10mW. The
power at port 3 is 1mW. Find the Directivity
a) 10dB
b) 20dB
c) 30dB
d) None of the above

73. In a directional coupler, incident power is 1000mW. The power at port 4 is 10mW. The
power at port 3 is 1mW. Find the coupling factor
a) 10dB
b) 20dB
c) 30dB
d) None of the above
74. A helix travelling wave tube operates at 4 GHz, under a beam voltage of 10 KV and beams
current of 500mA. If the helix is 25Ω and interaction length is 20cm, find the gain
parameter
a) 0.0068
b) 6.8
c) 0. 68
d) 0.068

75. Find the resonant frequency of TE101 mode of an air filled rectangular cavity of dimensions
5cm*4cm*2.5cm
a) 6.71GHz
b) 5.5GHz
c) 7.6GHz
d) 4.2GHz

PART A - UNIT – V
1. What is the practice of designing the input impedance of an electrical load or the out
impedance of its corresponding signal source to maximize the power transfer or minimize
signal reflection from the load?
A. Impedance Transformation
B. Source Transformation
C. Load Transformation
D. All the above
2. Impedance matching is used to __________ reflections; it is achieved by making the
load impedance equal to the source impedance.
A. Maximize
B. Minimize
C. Stabilize
D. Unstabilize
3. A source of electric power such as a generator, amplifier or radio transmitter has source
impedance which is equivalent to an _________________.
A. electrical resistance in series and shunt with a reactance.
B. electrical resistance in Shunt with a reactance
C. electrical resistance in series with a reactance
D. electrical resistance in shunt

4. Which theorem says that maximum power is transferred from source to load when the
load resistance equals the source resistance?
A. Norton Theorem
B. Superposition Principle
C. Thevenin’s Theorem
D. Max. power transfer theorem
5. In the case of a complex source impedance 𝑍𝑠 and load impedance 𝑍𝐿 , maximum power
transfer is obtained when
𝐴. 𝑍𝑠 = 𝑍𝐿∗
𝐵. 𝑍𝑠 ≠ 𝑍𝐿∗
𝐶. 𝑍𝑠 ≥ 𝑍𝐿∗
𝐷. 𝑍𝑠 ≤ 𝑍𝐿∗
6. Which of the following are frequently used to achieve impedance matching in
telecommunications and radio engineering?
A. Transformers
B. Filters
C. Resonators
D. Attenuators
7. If a reactance is in parallel with the source, the effective network matches from
___________impedance.
A. Low to high
B. high to low
8. In radio-frequency (RF) systems, a common value for source and load impedances is
A. 50 ohms
B. 75 ohms
C. 150 ohms
D. 200 ohms
9. For vacuum tube amplifiers, impedance-changing transformers are often used to get a
__________ output impedance.
A. Low
B. High
C. Very Low
D. Very high
10. Which type of devices is intended to cancel the reactive and nonlinear characteristics
of a load at the end of a power line?
A. Bandwidth efficient
B. Power factor correction
C. High Quality factor
D. All the above
11. An alternative to impedance matching is __________, in which the load impedance is
chosen to be much larger than the source impedance and maximizing voltage transfer, rather
than power, is the goal.
A. Impedance mapping
B. Admittance matching
C. Impedance bridging
D. Conductive bridging
12. In the circuit, if 𝑍𝑠 = 50Ω and 𝑍𝐿 = 75Ω, calculate reflection coefficient
A. 0.5
B. 0.7
C. 0.3
D. 0.2
13. What will be the length’L’ for open stub of this circuit to act like band reject filter?
A. L/2
B. L/4
C. L/8
D. L
14. If the length of open stub is L/4 at frequency f, what will be the behaviour of its
frequency response at frequency 2f?
A. Band Pass filter
B. Low Pass filter
C. High Pass filter
D. Band stop filter
15. The approximate length of resonator in cm should be
A. 40 cm
B. 38 cm
C. 42 cm
D. 44 cm

16. Choose Low pass filter circuit from the given figure 1.
17. Choose High pass filter circuit from the given figure 1.
18. Choose band pass filter circuit from the given figure 1.
19. Choose band stop filter circuit from the given figure 1.

20. In the following methods which gives complete specialization of pass and stop band?
A. Image Parameter method
B. Insertion loss method
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B

21. For a transistor amplifier to be stable, either the input or the output impedance must
have a real negative part.
a) True
b) False

22. What is the condition, if met then the transistor can be impedance matched for any
load.
a) Conditional stability
b) Unconditional stability
c) Infinite gain
d) Infinite input impedance

23. A network is said to be conditionally stable if:

a) │Гin│<1, │Гout│<1.
b) │Гin│>1, │Гout│>1
c) │Гin│>1, │Гout│<1
d) │Гin│<1, │Гout│>1

24. Stability condition of an amplifier is frequency independent and hence can be

operated at any frequency.
a) True
b) False

25. For a unilateral device condition for unconditional stability in terms of S parameters
is:
a) │S11│<1, │S22│<1
b) │S11│>1, │S22│>1
c) │S11│>1, │S22│<1
d) │S11│<1, │S22│>1

26. If │S11│>1 or │S22│>1, the amplifier cannot be unconditionally stable.

a) True
b) False

27. For any passive source termination ГS, Unconditional stability implies that:
a) │Гout│<1
b) │Гout│>1
c) │Гin│<1
d) │Гin│>1

28. The condition for unconditional stability of a transistor as per the K-∆ test is │∆│> 1
and K<1.
a) True
b) False

29. If the S parameters of a transistor given are

S11=-0.811-j0.311
S12= 0.0306+j0.0048
S21=2.06+j3.717
S22=-0.230-j0.4517
Then ∆ for the given transistor is:
a) 0.336
b) 0.383
c) 0.456
d) None of the mentioned
30. By performing the K-∆ test for a given transistor the values of K and ∆ were found to
be equal to 0.383 and 0.334 respectively. The transistor with these parameters has
unconditional stability.
a) True
b) False

31. The power gain G of a two port network is independent of the source impedance of
the two port network.
a) True
b) False

32. __________ is defined as the ratio of power available from the two port network to
the power available from the source.
a) Transducer power gain
b) Available power gain
c) Power gain
d) None of the mentioned

33. Transducer power gain of a two port network is dependent on :

a) ZS and ZL
b) ZS
c) ZL
d) Independent of both the impedances

34. For a two port network the voltage reflection coefficient seen looking towards the
load, ГS is:
a) (ZS –Z0)/ (ZS –Z0)
b) (ZS +Z0)/ (Z0 – Z0)
c) ZS / (ZS –Z0)
d) Z0/ (ZS –Z0)

35. In a two port network, the source impedance was measured to be 25 Ω and the
characteristic impedance of the transmission line was measured to be 50 Ω. Then the
reflection coefficient at the source end is:
a) -0.33333
b) -0.1111
c) 0.678
d) 0.2345

36. For a unilateral transistor, the S parameter that is zero is:

a) S11
b) S12
c) S21
d) S22

37. Gain of an amplifier is independent of the operating frequency.

a) True
b) False
38. Gain of a conjugate matched FET amplifier is given by the relation:
a) Rds (fT)2/ 4Ri (f)2
b) 4Ri (f)2/Rds (fT)2
c) Rds/ Ri
d) None of the mentioned

39. When both input and output of an amplifier are matched to zero reflection (in contrast
to conjugate matching), the transducer power gain is:
a) │S21│2
b) │S22│2
c) │S12│2
d) |S11│2

40. If the load impedance of a two port network is 40 Ω and the characteristic impedance
is 50 Ω, then the reflection coefficient of the two port network at the load end is:
a) -0.111
b) -0.333
c) -0.987
d) None of the mentioned

41. _______________ are used in the final stages of radar and radio transmitters to
increase the radiated power level.
a) Power amplifiers
b) Oscillators
c) Transistors
d) Attenuators

42. Important factors to be considered for power amplifier design are:

a) Efficiency
b) Gain
c) Thermal effect
d) All of the mentioned

43. Amplifier efficiency is the ratio of RF output power to DC input power. This
parameter determines the performance of an amplifier.
a) True
b) False

44. Gain of power amplifiers __________ with increase in operating frequency.

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Increases exponentially
d) Decreases exponentially

45. ___________ amplifiers are linear circuits, where the transistor is biased to conduct
over the entire range of the input signal cycle.
a) Class A amplifiers
b) Class B amplifiers
c) Class C amplifiers
d) None of the mentioned
46. A class B amplifier consists of _______ transistors in order to conduct the input signal
over the entire cycle.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6

47. Power amplifiers in the increasing order of efficiency is:

a) Class A, B, C
b) Class C, A, B
c) Class B, A, C
d) Efficiency of all the 3 amplifiers is the same

48. Behaviour of a transistor in power amplifiers is unpredictable at all input signal levels.
a) True
b) False

49. If the output power of an amplifier is 10 V, and the input power supplied to the amplifier
is 0.229 V given that the DC voltage used is 38.5 V, efficiency of the power amplifier is:
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 35%

50. If a power amplifier has an output power of 10 W, and an amplifier gain of 16.4 dB, then
the input drive power is:
a) 400 mW
b) 225 mW
c) 229 mW
d) 240 mW

UNIT V - PART – B
1. A one port oscillator uses a negative resistance diode having Гin=0.9575+j0.8034
(Z0=50Ω) at its desired frequency point. Then the input impedance of the diode is:
a) -44+j123
b) 50+j100
c) -44+j145
d) None of the mentioned

2. If the input impedance of a diode used in the microwave oscillator is 45-j23 Ω, then
the load impedance is to achieve stable oscillation is:
a) 45-j23 Ω
b) -45+j23 Ω
c) 50 Ω
d) 23-j45 Ω
3. For a load impedance of ZL=60-j80. Design of 2 single-stub shunt tuning networks to
match this load to a 50Ω line is to be done. What is the normalized admittance obtained so as
to plot it on smith chart?
a) 1+j
b) 0.3+j0.4
c) 0.4+j0.3
d) 0.3-j0.4

4. If the normalized admittance at a point on a transmission line to be matched is

1+j1.47. Then the normalized susceptance of the stub used for shunt stub matching is:
a) 1Ω
b) 1.47 Ω
c) -1.47 Ω
d) -1 Ω

5. In series stub matching, if the normalized impedance at a point on the transmission

line to be matched is 1+j1.33. Then the reactance of the series stub used for matching is:
a) 1 Ω
b) -1.33 Ω
c) -1 Ω
d) 1.33 Ω

Question: Design a 3-dB, equi-ripple low pass filter with a cutoff frequency of 2 GHz, 50-
impedance level, and at least 15-dB insertion loss at 3 GHz.

6. From the above problem find the capacitance C1’

A. 5.33 nF
B. 5.33pF
C. 53.33nF
D. 53.33pF

7. From the above problem find the capacitance L2’

A. 2.83nH
B. 2.83pH
C. 2.83mH
D. 2.83H

8. From the above problem find the capacitance C3’

A. 5.33 nF
B. 5.33pF
C. 53.33nF
D. 53.33pF
9. From the above problem find the capacitance R1’
A. 80ohms
B. 75 ohms
C. 50 ohms
D. 100 ohms

10. In the S matrix of a transistor, if the parameter S21 is 2.6 then the gain G0 of the
transistor has the value
a) 6.2 dB
b) 8.3 dB
c) 2.22 dB
d) None of the mentioned

11. In terms of S parameters for a transistor, the transducer gain is given by the relation:
a) │S21│/│S12│
b) │S12│/│S21│
c) │S22│/│S11│
d) │S11│/│S22│

12. If a load of 10Ω has to be matched to a transmission line of characteristic impedance

of 50Ω, then the characteristic impedance of the matching section of the transmission line is:
a) 50Ω
b) 10Ω
c) 22.36Ω
d) 100Ω

13. If the standing wave ratio for a transmission line is 1.4, then the reflection coefficient
for the line is:
a) 0.16667
b) 1.6667
c) 0.01667
d) 0.96

14. If the reflection coefficient of a transmission line is 0.4, then the standing wave ratio
is:
a) 1.3333
b) 2.3333
c) 0.4
d) 0.6

15. If the characteristic impedance of a transmission line 50 Ω and reflection coefficient is

0.0126+j0.1996, then load impedance is:
a) 47.3+j19.7Ω
b) 4.7+j1.97Ω
c) 0.26+j0.16
d) data insufficient

16. If the normalized load impedance of a transmission line is 2, then the reflection co-
efficient is:
a) 0.33334
b) 1.33334 c) 0 d) 1
17. In series stub matching, if the normalized impedance at a point on the transmission
line to be matched is 1+j1.33. Then the reactance of the series stub used for matching is:
a) 1 Ω
b) -1.33 Ω
c) -1 Ω
d) 1.33 Ω

18. In a microwave oscillator, a load of 50+50j is connected across a negative resistance

device of impedance -50-50j. Steady state oscillation is not achieved in the oscillator.
a) True
b) False

19. For achieving steady state oscillation, the condition to be satisfied in terms of
reflection coefficients is:
a) Гin=ГL
b) Гin=-ГL
c) Гin=1/ГL
d) None of the mentioned

20. A one port oscillator uses a negative resistance diode having Гin=0.9575+j0.8034
(Z0=50Ω) at its desired frequency point. Then the input impedance of the diode is:
a) -44+j123
b) 50+j100
c) -44+j145
d) None of the mentioned

21. If the input impedance of a diode used in the microwave oscillator is 45-j23 Ω, then
the load impedance is to achieve stable oscillation is:
a) 45-j23 Ω
b) -45+j23 Ω
c) 50 Ω
d) 23-j45 Ω

22. To achieve stable oscillation, Zin + ZL=0 is the only necessary and sufficient condition
to be satisfied by the microwave oscillator.
a) True
b) False

Question: A silicon transistor has following S-matrix at 1 GHz with a 50 reference

impedance,
0.38⌊−1580 0.01⌊340
[ ]
3.50⌊800 0.40⌊−430

The source and load impedances are 25 and 40 respectively. Compute the unilateral power
gain, unilateral available power gain and unilateral transducer power gain.
23. Calculate unilateral power gain
A. 11.6dB
B. 11.16dB
C. 126dB
D. 12.16dB

24. Unilateral available Power gain

A. 12.15dB
B. 13.15dB
C. 14.15dB
D. 15.15dB

25. Unilateral transducer power gain

A. 11.2dB
B. 11.02dB
C. 12.02dB
D. 12.21dB