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12- 06- 2020 Batch : REPEATERS

Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE REPEATERS NEET MODEL EXAMINATION - UNIT III A1
Puliyannoor P.O., PALA TEST ID
Time: 3 hrs.
Physics + Chemistry + Biology
000
Ph - 04822 206416, 206516, 206459
www.brilliantpala.org Max. Mark: 720

PHYSICS 3. In a single slit diffraction experiment,

the width of the slit is reduced by half.
1. Unpolarized light is incident from air
Which of the following needs to be done
on a plane surface of a material of
if the line ar width of the central
refractive index '  ' . At a particular maxima has to remain the same
angle of incidence i, it is found that
the reflected and refracted rays are 1) Reduce the distance between the
perpendicular to each other. Which of slit and the screen by half
the following option is correct for this 2) Reduce the distance between the
situation.
th
1
1) Reflected light is polarized with its slit and the screen to   the original
electric vector parallel to the plane of 4
incidence separation

2) Reflected light is polarised with the 3) Double the distance between the slit
electric vector perpendicular to the and the screen
plane of incidence 4) No need to do anything, as the width
of the central maxima does not depend
1  1  on the slit width
3) i  sin  

4. The angular width of the central
maximum in single slit diffraction
1  1  pattern is 600. The width of the slit is
4) i  ta n  
 1m . The slit is illuminated by
monochromatic plane waves. If another
2. In a Fraunhoffer diffraction at single slit of same width is made near it,
slit of width ‘d’ with incident light of Young’s fringe can be observed on a
0
wavelength 5500 A , the first minimum screen placed at a distance 50 cm from
the slits. If the observed fringe width
is observed, at angle 30 0 . The first is 1 cm what is slit separation distance
secondary maximum is observed at an (i.e. distance between the centres of
angle   each slit.)

1 1 1) 75 m
1) sin
2
2) 100 m
1 1
2) sin 3) 25 m
4
4) 50 m
3
1
3) sin
4

1 3
4) sin
2
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5. Unpolarized light of intensity I passes 8. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the
through an ideal polarizer A. Another slits are 2 mm apart and are
identical polarizer B is placed behind illuminated with a mixture of two
A. The intensity of light beyond B is wavelengths  0  750nm and   900nm .
I The minimum distance from the
found to be . Now another identical common central bright fringe on a
2
polarizer C is placed between A and B. screen 2m from the slit where a bright
The intensity beyond B is now found fringe from one interference pattern
coincides with a bright fringe from the
I other is
to be . The angle between polarizer A
8 1) 1.5 mm
and C is
2) 3 mm
1) 450 2) 600 3) 4.5 mm
3) 00 4) 300 4) 6 mm
6. A single slit of width a is illuminated 9. A ray of light of intensity I is incident
by violet light of wavelength 400 nm on a parallel glass- slab at a point A as
and the width of the diffraction pattern shown in fig. It undergoes partial
is measured as y. When half of the slit reflection and refracti on. At e ach
width is covered and illuminated by reflection 25% of incident energy is
yellow light of wavelength 600 nm, the reflected. The rays A 'B' undergo
width of the diffraction pattern is interference. The ratio I max I min is
1) The pattern vanishes and the width
is zero

2) y
3
3) 3y
4) None of these
7. A monochromatic beam of light falls on
YDSE apparatus at some angle (say  )
as shown in figure. A thin sheet of glass
1) 4 : 1
is in ser t ed in fr on t of t h e lower slit S2.
The central bright fringe (path 2) 8 : 1
difference = 0) will be obtained 3) 7 : 1
4) 49 : 1
10. Monochromatic light of wavelength
400 nm and 560 nm are incident
simultaneously on doubl e slits
apparatus whose slits separation is
0.1 mm and screen distance is 1 m.
1) At O Distance betwe en areas of total
2) Above O darkness will be
3) Below O 1) 4 mm
4) Anywhere depending on angle  , 2) 5.6 mm
thickness of plate t and refractive index 3) 14 mm
of glass  4) 28 mm
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11. Two coherent monochromatic light 15. A source emits electromagnetic waves
sources are located at two vertices of of wavelength 3m. One beam reaches
an equilateral triangle. If the intensity the observer directly and other after
due to each of the sources reflection from a wate r surface,
independently is 1 Wm-2 at the third travelling 1.5 m extra distance and with
vertex, the resultant intensity due to intensity reduced to 1/4 as compared
both the sources at that point (i.e., at to intensity due to the direct beam
the third vertex) is: alone. The resultant intensity will be:
1) Zero 2) 1) (1/4) fold
2
2) (3/4) fold
3) 2 4) 4
3) (5/4) fold
12. A mixture of light, consisting of
wavelength 590 nm and an unknown 4) (9/4) fold
wavelength, illuminates Young’s double 16. Which of the following statements is/
slit and gives rise to two overlapping are correct for phe nome non of
interference patterns on the screen. diffraction?
The central maximum of both lights I. For diffraction through a single slit,
coincide. Further, it is observed that the wavelength of wave must be
the third bright fringe of known light comparable to the size of the slit.
coincides with the 4th bright fringe of II. The diffraction is very common in
the unknown light. From this data, the sound waves but not so common in light
wavelength of the unknown light is waves.
1) 393.4 nm 2) 885.0 nm
III. Diffraction is only observed in
3) 442.5 nm 4) 776.8 nm electromagnetic waves.
13. In Young’s double slit experiment, a 1) Only I 2) II and III
glass plate is placed before a slit which
3) I and II 4) I, II and III
absorbs half the intensity of light.
Under this case 17. A ray of light is incident on the surface
of glass plate at an angle of incidence
1) The brightness of fringes decreases
eq u a l t o B r ew s t er ’s a n gl e  . If 
2) The fringe width decreases
represents the refractive index of glass
3) No fringes will be observed with respect to air, then the angle
4) The bright fringes become fainter between the reflected and the
and the dark fringes have finite light refracted rays is
intensity
1) 900  
14. In a Young’s double-slit experiment, let
 be the fringe width, and let I 0 be 2) sin 1   cos  
the intensity at the central bright 3) 900
fringe. At a distance x from the central
bright fringe, the intensity will be 1  sin  
4) 90  sin 
0

x   
2 x
1) I0 cos   2) I0 cos  
 

2  x   I0  2  x 
3) I0 cos   4)   cos  
   4   
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18. Wavefronts incident on an interface 20. A beam of unpolarised light of intensity
between the media are shown in the I0 is passed through a polaroid A and
figure. The refracted wavefronts will then through another polaroid B which
be is oriented so that its principal plane
makes an angle of 900 relative to that
of A. What is the intensity of the
emergent light when (N-1) more
polaroids are inserted between them?
Their axes are equally spaced.
N
I0  
1) I   cos N 
1) 2  
2N
I0   
2) I   cos 2N 
2) 2  
3) Zero
N
3) I0   
4) I   cos 2N 
2  
21. In YDSE, the screen is at a distance D
from the plane of the slit and slits are
4) illuminated by plane monochromatic
light of wavelength  . P is a point on
the screen at a distance y from the
19. In Young’s expt., the distance between central maximum. If by some special
arrangement, the slits be moved
d symmetrically apart with a relative
two slits i s and the distance
3 velocity v. The number of fringes
between the screen and the slits is crossing the point P per unit time is
1 y2 V 2yv
3D. The number of fringes in m on 1) 2)
3 D 2 D
the screen, formed by monochromatic
light wavelength 3 , will be D yv
3) 2yv 4)
D
d
1) 22. Two point white dots are 1mm apart
9D
on a black paper. They are viewed by
d eye of pupil diameter 3 mm.
2) Approximately, what is the maximum
27D
distance at which these dots can be
d resolved by the eye? (Take   500 nm )
3)
81D 1) 5 m 2) 1 m
d 3) 6 m 4) 3 m
4)
D
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23. In a YDSE, the fringe width is found to 27. A cube of side 2 m is placed in front of
be 2 mm, when light of wavelength a concave mirror focal length 1 m with
0 its face P at a distance of 3 m and face
6000 A is used. Find the change in Q at a distance of 5 m from the mirror.
fringe width, if the whole apparatus is The distance between the images of
immersed in water of refractive index face P and Q and height of images of P
1.33 and Q are
1) 0.5 mm 2) 1 mm
3) 1.5 mm 4) 2 mm
24. The apparent depth of water in
cylindrical water tank of diameter
2R cm is reducing at the rate of
x cm/mi n. When wate r is being
drained out at constant rate. The
amount of water drained in cc/min is
(n 1 = refractive index of air, 1) 1m, 0.5m, 0.25m
n2 = refractive index of water) 2) 0.5m, 1m, 0.25m
xR 2 n1 xR 2 n 2 3) 0.5m, 0.25m, 1m
1) 2) 4) 0.25m, 1m, 0.5m
n2 n1
28. A fish rising vertically up towards the
2Rn1 surface of water with speed 3 ms -1
3) n2 4) R 2 x observes a bird diving vertically down
towards it with speed 9 ms -1 . The
25. Two plane mirrors are inclined to each actual velocity of bird is [ refractive
other such that a ray of light incident index of water = 4/3]
on the first mirror and parallel to the
second is reflected from the second
mirror parallel to the first mirror. The
angle between the two mirrors is
1) 300 2) 450
3) 600 4) 750
26. Two plane mirrors A and B are aligned
parallel to each other, as shown in the
figure. A light ray is incident at an
angle of 300 at a point just inside one 1) 4.5 ms-1 2) 5 ms-1
end of A. The plane of incidence
coincides with the plane of the figure. 3) 3.0 ms-1 4) 3.4 ms-1
The maximum number of times the ray 29. A small object is placed 10 cm in front
undergoes reflections (including the of a plane mirror. If you stand behind
first one) before it emerges out is the object 30 cm from the mirror and
look at its image, the distance focused
for your eye will be
1) 60 cm
2) 20 cm
3) 40 cm
4) 80 cm
1) 28 2) 30
3) 32 4) 34
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30. An object is placed at a distance of 33. A microscope is focussed on a mark on
40 cm from a concave mirror of focal a paper and then a slab of glass of
length 15 cm. If the object is displaced thickness 3 cm and refractive index
through a distance of 20 cm towards 1.5 is placed over the mark. How should
the mirror, the displacement of the the microscope be moved to get the
image will be mark in focus again?
1) 30 cm away from the mirror 1) 2 cm upward 2) 1 cm upward
2) 36 cm away from the mirror 3) 4.5 upward 4) 1 cm downward
3) 30 cm towards the mirror 34. The refractive index of the material of
4) 36 cm towards the mirror a pr ism is 2 , and its refracting angle
31. An observer can see through a pin-hole is 300. One of the refracting surfaces
the top end of a thin rod of height h, of the prism is made a mirror inwards.
placed as shown in the figure. The A beam of monochromatic light
beaker height is 3h and its radius h. entering the prism from the other face
When the beaker is filled with a liquid retraces its path, after reflection from
up to a height 2h, he can see the lower mirrored surface, if its angle of
end of the rod. Then the refractive incidence on prism is
index of the liquid is 1) 00 2) 300
3) 450 4) 600
35. A small coin is resting on the bottom
of a beaker filled with a liquid. A ray of
right from the coin travels upto the
surface of the liquid and moves along
the surface. How fast is light travelling
in the liquid?

1) 5 2

2) 5 2
3) 3 2
4) 3 2
32. A light bulb is at a depth of D below
the surface of water. An opaque disc 1) 2.4  108 m / s
of radius R is placed on the surface of
water just above the bulb. The bulb is 2) 3.0  108 m / s
not at all seen through the surface of
water, then (n = Refractive index of 3) 1.2  108 m / s
water) 4) 1.8  108 m / s
D D 36. A plano convex lens has focal length
1) R  2) R  f= 20 cm. If its plane surface is silvered,
n 12
n 1
2

then new focal length will be

D 1) 20 cm 2) 5 cm
3) R  4) R  D n 2  1
n2 1 3) 10 cm 4) 25 cm
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37. The focal length of a lens of refractive 41. A man’s near point is 0.5 m and far
index 1.5 in air, is 30 cm. When it is point is 3 m. Power of spectacle lens
immersed in a liquid of refractive index required for (i) re ading purpose,
4/3, then its focal length in liquid will (ii) seeing distant objects, respectively,
be: are
1) 240 cm 2) 120 cm 1) -2D and +3D
3) 60 cm 4) zero 2) +2D and -3D
3) +2D and -0.33D
38. A glass prism    1.5  is dipped in water
4) -2D and +0.33D
   4 / 3
as shown in figure. A light ray 42. An astronomical telescope has an
is incident normally on the surface AB. angular magnification of magnitude 5
It reaches the surface BC after totally for distant objects. The separation
reflected from AC, if between the objective and the eye
piece is 36 cm and the final image is
formed at infinity. The focal length f 0
of the objective and the focal length f e
of the eye piece are
1) f0= 45 cm and fe= -9 cm
2) f0= 7.2 cm and fe= 5 cm
1) sin  8 / 9 2) 2 / 3  sin  8 / 9 3) f0= 50 cm and fe= 10 cm
3) sin  2 / 3 4) It is not possible 4) f0= 30 cm and fe= 6 cm
43. Shown i n the figure here is a
39. A luminous object is place d at a
convergent lens placed inside a cell
distance of 30 cm from the convex lens
filled with a liquid. The lens has focal
of focal length 20 cm. On the other side
length +20 cm when in air and its
of the lens, at what distance from the
material has a refractive index 1.50. If
lens a convex mirror of radius of
the liquid has refractive index 1.60, the
curvature 10 cm be placed in order to
focal length of the system is
have an upright image of the object
coincident with it?
1) 12 cm 2) 30 cm
3) 50 cm 4) 60 cm
40. A ray of li ght is incident on the
hypotenuse of a right-angled prism
after travelling parallel to the base
inside the prism. If n is the refractive
index of the material of the prism, the
maximum value of the base angle for 1) +80 cm
which light is totally reflected from the 2) -80 cm
hypotenuse is 3) -24 cm
1  1 
4) -100 cm
1
1) sin   2) tan 1  
n n

 n 1 1  1 
3) si n 1   4) cos  
 n  n
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44. A point object O is placed in front of a 48. From the following, the he ighe st
glass rod having spherical end of radius packing efficiency in
of curvature 30 cm. The image would 1) Square close packing repeated in 3D
be formed at [refractive index of glass
2) Hexagonal close packing in 3D
=3/2]
3) Hexagonal close packing in 2D
4) Square close packing in 2D
49. Number of nearest neighbours in bcc
arrangement of unit cell is
1) 6 2) 12
3) 8 4) 4
1) 30 cm left 50. Consider an isolated unit cell of NaCl
where chloride ions are forming the
2) Infinity close packing. How many sodium ions
3) 1 cm to the right are present in this isolated unit cell?
1) 13 2) 12
4) 18 cm to the left
3) 4 4) 6
45. A telescope has an objective lens of
51. At high temperature, NaCl crystal
10 cm diameter and its situated at a
shows metal excess defect due to
distance of one kilometer from two
anion vacancy to form F-centre. What
objects. The minimum distance
is the magnetic property of NaCl crystal
between these two objects, which can
at room temperature?
be resolved by the telescope, when the
0
1) Paramagnetic
mean wavelength of light is 5000 A , is 2) Diamagnetic
of 3) Antiferromagnetic
1) 6 cm 2) 0.6 cm 4) Ferrimagnetic
3) 6 m 4) 6 mm 52. Caesium chloride is in bcc
arrangement having edge length 400
CHEMISTRY
pm. The density in g/cm3 (Cs = 137, Cl
46. A atoms on the corners B atoms on = 35.5)
the face centre. One of the central axis 1) 8.95 g/cm3 2) 4.48 g/cm3
facial atoms are removed. Find the
3) 6.71 g/cm3 4) 2.37 g/cm3
formula
53. Frenkel de fect is one of the
1) A3B 2) A2B3 stoichiometric dislocation point defects.
3) AB2 4) A2B From the following compounds, identify
the one exhibiting anion Frenkel
47. A non-stoichiometric compound Cu1.8S defect
is formed due to incorporation of Cu2+
ions in the lattice of cuprous sulphide. 1) Rock salt 2) Sphalerite
What percentage of Cu+2 ion in the total 3) Fluorite 4) Lithium oxide
copper content is present in the 54. Cu 1.8O forms metal deficiency defect
compound due to cation vacancy. Select the
1) 88.88 2) 11.11 correct statements regarding Cu1.8O
1) It is non stoichiometric compound
3) 99.8 4) 89.8
2) It can form n-type semiconductor
3) It can form p-type semiconductor
4) Both 1 and 3
FT20V/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 9 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

55. In a solid, oxide ions are arranged in 61. Select the incorrect statement
ccp. Cation A occupy (1/8) th of the 1) Micelles are associated colloids
tetrahedral voids and cation B occupy
2) The electrical charge on a colloidal
(1/4) th of the octahedral voids. The
particle is indicated by electrophoresis
formula of the compound is
3) Formation of micelles takes place
1) ABO4 2) AB2O3
above Kraft temperature
3) A2BO4 4) AB4O4
4) Formation of micelles takes place
56. If the ratio of co-ordination no.of X to below CMC
that of Y is a : b in an ionic crystal
62. The gold number of protective colloids
formed from X and Y the ratio of no.of
A, B, C, D are 0.04, 0.004, 10, 40
atoms of X to that of Y in a unit cell is
respectively. The protective powers of
1) a : b 2) b : a A, B, C, D are in the order
3) b : a
2 4) a2 : b 1) A > B > C > D 2) B > A > C > D
57. Number of lithium atoms are present 3) D > C > A > B 4) D > C > B > A
in a unit cell with edge length 3.5 A0
63. For the coagulation of 50 ml of ferric
and density 0.53 g/cm3 (atomic mass
hydroxide sol. 1 ml of 5 M KCl is
of Li = 6.94)
required. The coagulation value is very
1) 2 2) 1 close to
3) 4 4) 6 1) 5 2) 10
58. 3.6 g of oxygen is adsorbed on 1.2 g of 3) 100 4) 1000
me tal powder. What vol ume of
64. From the following, which one of the
dioxygen is adsorbed per gram of the
statement is wrong about Zeolites?
adsorbent at 1 atm and 273 K ?
1) It is microporous alumino silicate
1) 0.19 L g–1 2) 1L g–1
2) Its general formula is
3) 2.1 L g–1 4) 8.5 L g–1
59. The potential difference between the M x   AlO 2  x  SiO 2  y  .mH 2 O where n
n  
fixed layer and diffuse d layer of
opposite charges around a colloidal is valence of metal ion M
particle in a colloidal dispersion is 3) Zeolites are act as molecular sieves
called 4) ZSM-5 is used for the conversion of
1) Electrokinetic potential gasoline to alcohol
2) Tyndall effect 65. In presence of which metal ion among
3) Kraft potential the following, amylase is catalytically
very active?
4) Critical potential
1) Li+ 2) Ca2+
60. Equal volumes of each of two sols of
AgI. One obtained by adding AgNO3 to 3) Na+ 4) Al3+
slight excess of KI and another 66. 3g of activated charcoal was added to
obtained by adding KI to slight excess 50 ml of acetic acid solution (0.06 N)
of AgNO3, are mixed together. Then in flask. After an hour it was filtered
1) The two sols will stabilize each other and the strength of the filtrate was
found to be 0.042 N. The amount of
2) The sol particles will acquire more
acetic acid adsorbed per gram of
electric charge
charcoal is
3) The sols will neutralise each other
1) 18 mg 2) 36 mg
and will get precipitated
3) 42 mg 4) 54 mg
4) A true solution will obtained
FT20V/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 10 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
67. Which of the following curves correctly 70. 1,2-Diethylbenzene on ozonolysis gives
represents the rate of decolourisation ....... different products
of KMnO 4 with oxalic acid in acid
1) 1 2) 2
medium
3) 3 4) 4
71. Which of the following is least reactive
towards nucleophile?
1) Methanal 2) Propanone
1) 3) 3-Pentanone 4) Propanal
72. Acetal formation is a reve rsible
reaction
R H+
/
C O + R OH
R
2)
R OH
C R/OH, H+
H OR/

R OR/
3) C + H2O
/
H OR
Under what conditions, the reaction
can be forced to proceed only in right
(forward) direction?
1) Using lesser amount of alcohol and
4) cooling
2) Using high temperature and dilute
acid
68. Gelatin often used as an ingredient in 3) Using dilute HCl and excess of
the manufacture of ice-cream. The alcohol
reason for this 4) Using HCl gas and excess of alcohol
1) to prevent the formation of a colloid 73. Which of the following does not react
2) to stabilize the colloid and prevent with sodium bisulphite?
crystal growth 1) HCHO 2) CH3COCH3
3) to cause the mixture to solidify
O COCH3
4) to improve the flavour
69. Which of the following reagent reacts
in different ways with CH3CHO, HCHO 3) 4)
and C6H5CHO?
1) Fehling solution 2) C6H5NHNH2
74. Which among the following has the
3) Ammonia 4) HCl highest normal boiling point?
1) n-butane 2) methoxyethane
3) propanone 4) propanal
FT20V/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 11 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
75. Which of the following acts as a
O
nucleophile in the aldol condensation
of ethanal?

I) OH– II) H2O

78. + H2SO3(aq)  Product is

III) CH2CHO O
1) Only I
2) I and II O
3) I and III H OH SO3H
4) All the three
1) 2)
SO3H
76. Which of the following undergoes
haloform reaction? O
i) CH3CH2COCH2Cl
ii) C6H5COCH3 OH OH

iii) C6H5COCHCl2
iv) CH3CH2COCCl3
3) 4)
1) only ii
OH SO3H
2) ii and iv
3) i, ii and iv 79. Which of the following reaction is
possible?
4) all the four
77. In the Cannizzaro reaction given below i) CH3COCl  H2O  CH3COOH  HCl

ii) CH3COOCH3  HBr 


2C6H5CHO 
OH
 C 6H5CH2OH  C6H5 COO
the slowest step is CH3COBr  CH3OH
1) The attack of OH– at the carbonyl iii) CH3CONH2 + HBr  CH3COBr+NH3
group
2) The transfer of hydride ion to the iv) CH3COOCOCH3  H2O  2CH3COOH
carbonyl group i) i and iv
3) The abstraction of proton from the 2) i, iii and iv
carboxylic acid
3) i, ii and iv
4) The deprotonation of C6H5CH2OH
4) all the four
FT20V/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 12 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
80. Which of the following will undergo 84. The correct order for the acidic
alkaline hydrolysis most rapidly? character of the following carboxylic
acids is
COOCH3
COOH COOH
COOCH3
OH
I) II)
1) 2)

CH3
COOH
COOCH3 COOCH3 COOH
OCH3
III) IV)

3) 4) OH
Cl NO2
COOH
81. Which among the following is the HO OH
organi c product formed when
V)
C6H5CH = N–NH2 is heated with KOH
in ethylene glycol medium?
1) C6H5–CHO 1) IV > I > II > III > V
2) C6H5CH2NH2 2) V > II > III > I > IV
3) C6H5–CH3 3) V > II > IV > III > I
4) C6H6 4) V > II > IV > I > III
82. Reduction of benzoic acid with 85. Hexane-1, 6-dioic acid (adipic acid) is
diborane gives obtained from cyclohexene by reaction
1) Benzene with which reagent among the
2) Benzaldehyde following?
3) Benzyl alcohol 1) O3, Zn/H2O
4) Toluene 2) Acidified KMnO4, heat
83. Which electrophilic substi tution 3) Cu/573 K
reactions among the following is/are 4) DIBAL-H
not undergone by benzoic acid?
86. CHO 
NaOH
 X . The product X will be
i) nitration
ii) Bromination
CHO
iii) Friedal Craft’s alkylation
iv) Friedal Craft’s acylation CH2ONa
1) 2) COOH
1) i and ii 2) iii and iv
3) ii and iv 4) i and iii COONa COOH
3) CH2OH 4) CH2OH

COONa CH2OH
FT20V/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 13 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
87. An organic compound (X) with B
R R/ HCN A
molecular formula C3H6O is not readily 90. C
oxidised. On reductio n it gives
KCN
C3H8O(Y) which reacts with HBr to give O
a bromide (Z) which is converted to
Grignard reagent. Grignard’s reagent
reacts with (X) to give 2,3-dimethyl R OH
butan-2-ol. (X), (Y) and (Z) respectively C
are . A and B are
R/ CH2NH2
1) CH3COCH3 ,CH3CH2CH2OH , respectively

CH3CH  Br  CH3 OH
RR/C , NH3
1)
COOH
2) CH3CH2CHO, CH3CH  CH2 ,

CN
CH3CH  Br  CH3 RR/C , H3O+
2)
OH
3) CH3COCH3 , CH3CH  OH CH3 ,
3) RR  CH2CN, NaOH

CH3CH  Br  CH3
CN
4) RR/C , LiAlH4
4) CH3CH2CHO, CH3CH2CH2OH, OH

CH3CH2CH2Br BIOLOGY

91. One of the parents [ie, male] of a cross

Hg 2 
 X  Y
CH3MgX
88. CH  CH  H2SO4 H2O
has a mutation in its mitochondria.
During segregation of progenies, that
 
O
mutation is found in :
 Z
1) All progenies
1) Ethanal 2) Propan-2-ol
2) 50% of progenies
3) Propanone 4) Propan-1-ol
3) 1/3 of progenies
89. Benzene carbonyl chloride react with
which reagent among the following to 4) None of progenies
form benzene carbaldehyde?

1) SnCl2 and HCl

2) DIBAL-H

3) H2/Pd-BaSO4

4) CrO2Cl2
FT20V/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 14 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
92. Match the following columns :
95. Genotype of Drosophila is

Column I Column II
phenotypically written as :

1) Yellow bodied, white eyed wild

A) Autosomal linked 1. Down's
female
recessive trait Syndrome
2) Brown bodied, red eyed female
B) Sex linked recessive 2. Phenyl
disease ketonuria 3) Yel low bodies, white eyed
recombinant male
C) Metabolic error
linked to autosomal 3. Haemophilia 4) Brown bodied, red eyed recombinant
recessive trait male

D) Additonal 21st 4. Sickel cell 96. The percentage of parental types in

chromosome anaemia the cross considering the characters,
eye colour and shape of wings :

1) 98.7% 2) 1.3%
A B C D
3) 62.8% 4) 37.2%
1) 4 1 2 3
97. Female heterogamety is common in the
2) 4 3 2 1 following organisms :
3) 2 1 4 3 1) Human and Drosophila
4) 3 4 1 2 2) Grasshopper and Cockroaches
93. The mutant haemoglobin molecule
3) Birds and Reptiles
undergoes polymerization under low
oxygen tension causing, the change of 4) Humans and Birds
shape of RBC from biconcave to
elongated structure. This property of 98. A diploid cell with chromosome
RBC is found in : arrangement AABBCC, undergo es
numerical change 2n+2-1 fashion.
1) Haemophilia Which among the following represent
2) Sickle cell anaemia the correct chromosome complement.

1) AABBBC 2) AABBBBC
3)   thalassemia
3) AABCCCC 4) AABBCCC
4) Erythrocytopenia
99. Number of linkage group in pea plant
94. Monohybrid F 2 and dihybrid F 2 can
is :
have the following similarity :
1) 14 2) 7
1) Both are formed by cross pollination
3) 8 4) 4
2) Both are formed by self pollination
3) Both are having same phenotypic
ratio
4) Both are having same genotypic ratio
FT20V/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 15 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

100. According to Mendel’s procedure, in a 105. If a colourblind women marries a

monohybrid cross considering pod normal vision man, what proportion of
colour. Which among the following their daughters will be colour blind.
observations is wrong : 1) 0% 2) 25%
1) If there are 10 seeds in F1, all will 3) 50% 4) 100%
grow into green pod coloured plants. 106. Observe the following pedigree chart
2) If there are 100 seeds in F2, 75 seed and identify the type of inheritance
will grow into green pod coloured plants happened in the family :
and 25 will grow into yellow pod
coloured plants.
3) If there are 200 seeds in F 2, 150
seeds will grow into yellow pod coloured
plants and 50 will grow into green pod
coloured plants
4) If there are 40 seeds in F2, 20 will
have homozygous genotype
101. If the blood group of one parent is ‘B’
group and offspring is of ‘O’ group. What
1) Autosomal dominant
are the possible groups of other
parent? 2) X-linked dominant
1) B or O 2) A or B 3) Autosomal recessive
3) A, B or O 4) O group only 4) Y-linked recessive
102. Genetic recombination occur through: 107. Which among the following disorder is
1) Mitosis and fertilization an example of allosomal monosomy :
2) Mitosis and Meiosis 1) Klinefelter’s syndrome
3) Meiosis and fertilization 2) Super female
4) Amitosis 3) Down’s syndrome
4) Turner’s syndrome
103. A heterozygous genotype forms 108. Which of these do not follow
independent assortment?
different type of gamete in the
1) Genes on homologous chromosomes
following proportion ie, = 225 ; 2) Completely linked genes on same
= 25 ; = 225; = 25. chromosome
The approximate distance between 3) Incompletely linked genes on the
genes ‘c’ and ‘d’ is : same chromosome
1) 50 cM 2) 5 cM 4) All of these
3) 20 c M 4) 10 cM 109. Who use d the freque ncy of
104. Mutation happening in a segment of recombination between gene pairs on
DNA without changing their length, the same chromosome and mapped
which ultimately changes the their position on the chromosome?
complimentary codon only is/are :
1) Morgan 2) Sutton
1) Point mutation
3) Bateson 4) Sturtevant
2) Substitution mutation
3) Transition mutation
4) All of these
FT20V/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 16 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
110. The fourth amino acid in globin protein 116. In an alien sample cell like structure,
[ie,  2 globin chain] of Haemoglobin is: there were 5 nitrogen bases and 125
amino acid in the cytoplasm. The
1) Proline 2) Leucine probability of genetic code or codon
3) Threonine 4) Histidine being :
111. Down’s syndrome was first described 1) Doublet 2) Triplet
by Langdon Down in the year : 3) Quadraplet 4) Singlet
1) 1886 2) 1876 117. Find the odd one out from the
3) 1866 4) 1896 following:
112. Binomial expression of monohybrid F2 1) 3' UAG  5' 2) 3' AUU  5'
generation can be expanded as :
3) 3' CAC  5' 4) 3' GCG  5'
 12 T  12 t    12 T  12 t    12 T  12 t  
2
1) 118. Transcription is the process of
formation of :
1
4 TT  1 2 Tt  1 4 tt
1) mRNA 2) rRNA
 12 T  12 T    12 T  12 t    12 T  12 t  
2
2) 3) tRNA 4) All of these
119. A scie ntist wanted to synthesi ze
4 TT  2 Tt  4 tt
1 1 1
nucleic acid without the help of DNA.
Which enzyme he should use?
 12 T  12 t    12 T  12 T    12 T  12 t  
2
3)
1) RNA polymerase II
1
4 TT  1 2 Tt  1 4 tt 2) DNA polymerase
3) Peptidyl transferase
 12 T  12 t    12 T  12 t    12 T  12 t  
2
4) 4) Ochoa enzyme
120. Double stranded, circular and naked
1
2 TT  1 4 Tt  1 4 tt
DNA is present in :
113. If a particular allele in pea seeds 1) Prokaryotes only
control amount of starch, size of seed
and shape of seed. The gene ‘B’ 2) Eukaryotes only
exhibits: 3) In Prokaryotes and Eukaryotic
1) Co-dominance nucleus
2) Epistasis 4) In Prokaryotes and Eukaryotic cell
organelles such as chloroplast and
3) Pleiotropy
mitochondria
4) Incomplete dominance 121. Identify the correct statements.
114. When serum of a random sample was I. Nitrogen base and sugar are linked
taken from an individual and mixed
with almost all the blood samples, it by   N  gly cos idic bond
showed the agglutination with almost II. Phosphate is linked to sugar by
all samples. The source of serum is phosphodiester bond
from genotype : III. Phosphodiester bond link two
1) IA IB 2) IOIO polynucleotide strands together
3) IAIB and IOIO 4) IAIO IV. DNA is acidic molecule
115. “Cindrella of Genetics” is : 1) II and IV 2) III and IV
1) Pisum 2) Lathyrus 3) I and IV 4) IV only
3) Fruit fly 4) Honey bee
FT20V/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 17 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
122. A particular sample of nucleic acid 127. A young scientist has isolated a
shows following data ie, A = 15%, T = nucleic acid from nucleus having
25%, C = 30% and G = 30%. The sample almost equal number of nitrogen bases
nucleic acid is : to template strand. The polypeptide
obtained from the cytoplasm, after
1) dsRNA 2) ssRNA
translation from this nucleic acid
3) dsRNA 4) ssDNA obtained is smaller. He isolated :
123. From the following template strand of 1) mRNA 2) hnRNA
DNA, which among the polypeptide
3) rRNA 4) siRNA
chain can be obtained DNA template -
128. Which of the following pairs is correctly
3' CACGAGCCUAGC  5' matched :
1) Ser-Gly-Leu-Val
2) Val-Leu-Ser-Gly Carrie s amino acid to
3) Val-Leu-Gly-Ser 1) Ribosomal RNA the site of prote in
4) Val-Leu-Ser-Pro synthe sis

124. E.coli bacterium cultured in N 15 2) Transcription

Proce ss by which
medium for several generations is prote in is synthe size d
transferred to N 14 medium. After 20 Proce ss by which mRNA
minutes : 3) Translation
carrie s the information
from the nucle us to
1) Hybrid DNA of N15/N14 is formed and
ribosome
can be observed at the base of test tube site of a tRNA mole cule
of CsCl density gradient centrifugation 4) Anticodon that binds to the mRNA
2) Hybrid DNA N15/N14 is formed and mole cule
can be observed as one band at the
middle of test tube of CsCl density
gradient centrifugation 129. In absence of   galactoside ,
transcription of :
3) N14/N14 DNA is formed and can be
observed as one band at the 1) Lac A not possible
supernatant of test tube of CsCl density 2) Lac Y not possible
gradient centrifugation 3) Lac Z not possible
4) None of these 4) All of these
125. DNA is absent in : 130. Which among the following DNA has
1) Mature RBC least melting point :
2) Peroxisomes
GATTGC GATTAT
3) Platelets 1) 2)
CTAACG CTAATA
4) Both 1 and 2
126. Peptidyl transferase (23s or 28s) is GATGGC GACCTA
present in : 3) 4)
CTACCG CTGGAT
1) Viruses and Prokaryotes
131. If 30% of Guanine is present in 6.8nm
2) Virus and Eukaryotes length of DNA, calculate the total
3) Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes number of hydrogen bonds present in
4) All of these 6.8nm length of DNA :
1) 30 2) 40
3) 98 4) 52
FT20V/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 18 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

132. Okazaki fragments are formed in : 136. Production of human protein in bacteria
by genetic engineering is possible
1) 5' 3' template strand towards Ori because :
2) 3' 5' template strand towards Ori 1) Bacterial cell can carry out the RNA
splicing
3) 3' 5' templ ate strand towards
2) The human chromosome can
replication fork
replicate in bacterial cell
4) 5' 3' template strand towards 3) The mechanism of gene regulation
replication fork is identical in humans and bacteria
133. Find the mismatch : 4) The genetic code is universal
Column I Column II 137. In an alien sample cell, it was observed
1. E.coli 4.6 × 106 bp that codon GAG codes for Valine,
Glutamic acid, Serine and Tyrosine.
2. 174 48,502 bp
The property of codon is :
3. Haploid DNAcontent 1) Ambiguous
of human cell 3.3 × 109 bp 2) Unambiguous
4) Diploid DNA content
3) Degeneracy
of human cell 6.6 × 109 bp
4) Redundancy
134. Match column I and column II
138. Dominance of RNA world is due to :
1) Capping 2) Tailing
Column I 3) Splicing 4) Exons
Column II
[Components of lac
[Function] 139. Synthesis of polypeptide chain, during
operon]
translation occur in :
1. Binding site for
A) Structural gene 1) Smallest subunit of ribosome
repressor protein
2) Anticodon site of tRNA
2. Codes for repressor 3) Larger subunit of ribosome
B) Operator gene
protein
4) Towards 3'  5' direction on mRNA
3. Induces lactose
140. Credit for the discovery of DNA is given
C) Promoter gene transport from the
medium to :
D) Regulator gene
4. Code for enzyme 1) F. Meischer (1869)
proteins
5. Binding site for RNA
2) Watson and Crick (1953)
polymerase 3) F. Meischer (1889)
4) Hershey and Chase (1952)
A B C D 141. Biogenetic law given by Haeckel states
1) 3 4 5 1 that
2) 2 3 1 4 1) ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny
3) 5 4 2 1 2) phylogeny recapitulates ontogeny
4) 4 1 5 2 3) ontogeny and phylogeny go together
135. Griffith performed the transformation 4) there is no relationship between
in the year : phylogeny and ontogeny
1) 1918 2) 1928
3) 1938 4) 1933 - 1944
FT20V/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 19 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
142. Which is the correct order of 147. Random non-directional change in
increasing geological time scale for a allele frequencies that occurs in a
hypothetical vertebrate evolution? small population, all of a sudden, is
1) cenozoic, mesozoic, palaeozoic, known as
precambrian 1) natural selection
2) cenozoic,palaeozoic,mesozoic, 2) Sewall-Wright effect
precambrian 3) mutation
3) precambrian,cenozoic,palaeozoic, 4) migration
mesozoic 148. An isolated population with equal
4) precambrian,palaeozoic,mesozoic, number of blue-eyed and brown-eyed
cenozoic indivi dual s was de cimated by
earthquake. Only a few brown-eyed
143. Darwin’s finches are a good example
individuals survive d to form ne xt
of
generation. The change in gene pool
1) industrial melanism is
2) connecting link 1) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
3) adaptive radiation 2) blocked gene flow
4) convergent evolution 3) founder effect
144. Choose the wrong pair 4) bottleneck effect
149. The most accepted line of descent in
human evolution is
Forelimbs of whales, bats,
1 Divergent evolution
cheetah and human 1) Dryopithecus  Ramapithecus 
Pectoral fins of sharks and Homo habilis  Homo erectus 
2 Convergent evolution
flippers of dolphins Homo sapiens
3 Homologous structures Vertebrate hearts
2) Ramapithecus  Dryopithecus 
Homo habilis  Homo erectus 
Protein found in blood of Homo sapiens
4 Analogous structures
man and ape
3) Dryopithecus  Ramapithecus 
145. Flippers of penguin and dolphin are Homo erectus  Homo habilis 
considered analogous though they are Homo sapiens
modified forelimbs because of the 4) Ramapithecus  Dryopithecus
1) absence of certain bones  Homo erectus  Homo habilis
2) development from same lineages  Homo sapiens
3) structural differences 150. First photoautotrophic organisms that
4) molecular differences arose was :
146. Miller performed experiment to prove 1) bacteria 2) green algae
abiogenetic molecular evolution of life. 3) ferns 4) bryophytes
Which molecule was not present in 151. Resemblance between widely different
Miller’s experiment? groups due to common adaptation is
1) Water 2) Methane 1) restricted evolution
3) Oxygen 4) Ammonia 2) divergent evolution
3) convergent evolution
4) retrogressive evolution
FT20V/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 20 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
152. What is the correct arrangement of 157. Identify the scientist who did not
periods of palaeozoic era from oldest challenge the theory of spontaneous
to latest in geological time scale? generation
1) Cambrian  Devonian Ordovician  1) Francesco Redi
Silurian  Carboniferous  Permian 2) Van Helmont
2) Cambrian  Ordovician  Silurian 3) Lazzaro Spallanzani
 Devonian  Carboniferous  4) Louis Pasteur
Permian
158. Higher frequency of melanic moths and
3) Cambrian  Ordovician  DDT resistance in mosquitoes are
Devonian  Silurian  Carboniferous examples of
 Permian 1) directional selection
4) Silurian  Devonian  Cambrian 2) genetic drift
 Ordovician  Pe rmian  3) natural selection
Carboniferous 4) both 1 and 3
153. Who demonstrated that life comes from 159. Atavism is the
life with the help of flask of boiled
1) changes in allele frequencies by
broth?
random events
1) Redi 2) Pasteur
2) changes in gene frequencies within
3) Helmont 4) Arrhenius a population
154. Which one of the following options gives 3) reappearance of certain ancestral
one correct example each of convergent characters
evolution and divergent evolution?
4) formation of living matter from non-
Convergent evolution Divergent evolution living materials
1
Eyes of octopus Bones of forelimbs of 160. Among human ancestors, brain size
and mammal vertebrates
was more than 1000 cc in
Thorns of Bougainvillea
2
and tendrils of Cucubita
Wings of butterfly and bird 1) Homo erectus
Bones of forelimbs of 2) Homo habilis
3 Wings of butterfly and bird
vertebrates
3) Homo neanderthalensis
Thorns of Bougainvillea
4
and tendrils of Cucubita
Eyes of octopus and mammal 4) Ramapithecus
161. Which of the following has the highest
155. In which period of Mesozoic era, pH?
gymnosperms were dominant?
1) Gasric juice
1) Jurassic 2) Triassic
2) Hepatic bile
3) Cretaceous 4) None of these
3) Saliva
156. The forelimbs of man and bat show
similar internal patterns of structure, 4) Secretion of the intestinal glands
yet they perform different functions. 162. Which of the following hormones
This is an example of influence the process of digestion?
1) analogous organs that have evolved i) Secretin ii) Ptyalin
due to convergent evolution iii) Cholecystokinin iv) Enterogastrone
2) analogous organs that have evolved v) Somatostatin
due to divergent evolution 1) i, ii and iii 2) i, iii and iv
3) homologous organs that have evolved 3) iii, iv and v 4) i, iii, iv and v
due to convergent evolution
4) homologous organs that have evolved
due to divergent evolution
FT20V/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 21 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
163. Refer to the figure showing gastric 166. Read the following statements and
glands and select the correct select the correct option.
statement of A-D 1) Lipase is prese nt in the both
pancreatic and intestinal juice
2) Nucleic acids are digested in the
stomach
3) Elastase hydrolyses fats into fatty
acids and glycerol
4) Both 1 and 3
167. Select the correct match
1) Pancreatic juice - Nucleosidases
2) Intestinal juice - Pepsin
3) Salivary juice - Elastase
4) Gastric juice - Rennin
168. Which of the following enzyme is not
present in intestinal juice?
1) Ribonucleases 2 )
Aminopeptidases
3) Enterokinase 4) Dipeptidases
169. Reabsorption of vitamin B12 requires
1) A is present throughout the
epithelium and secretes mucus 1) simple diffusion only
2) B secretes hydrochloric acid and 2) active transport only
Castle’s intrinsic factor 3) combination of simple diffusion and
3) C secretes gastric digestive enzymes Castle’s intrinsic factor
4) D produces serotonin and histamine 4) Castle’s Extrinsic factor only
164. Absorption of amino acids takes place 170. Which of the following option arranges
by the layers of alimentary canal in the
correct order from outer to inner layer?
1) facilitated transport
1) Muscularis  Visceral mucosa 
2) active transport
submucosa  mucosa
3) osmosis
2) Submucosa  Serosa  Muscularis
4) both a and b
 Mucosa
165. Identify A and B in the given equations.
3) Serosa  Muscularis  Submucosa
i) Casein 
A
 Paracasein  Mucosa
ii) Calcium paracaseinate 
B
 4) Muscularis  Submucosa 
Peptones Visceral mucosa  Mucosa
171. The enzyme which is responsible for
A B converting proteoses to dipeptides is
1 Pepsin HCL 1) chymotrypsinogen
2) trypsin
2 Pepsin Renin
3) enterokinase
3 Rennin Pepsin
4) carboxypeptidase
4 HCL Rennin
FT20V/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 22 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
172. In humans, the teeth that are 176. Which of the following option correctly
monophyodont are identifies the path taken by the bile
in human body?
1) 4 premolars and 8 molars
1) Liver  Hepatic ducts  Cystic
2) 8 premolars and 4 molars
duct  Gall bladder  Bile duct 
3) 4 premolars and 4 molars Duodenum

4) 8 premolars and 12 molars 2) Liver  Cystic duct  Hepatic

duct  Gall bladder  Bile duct
173. Which of the following statements is
 Duodenum
true about kwashiorkor?
3) Liver  Hepatic duct  Gall
1) It usually occurs in children in the
age group of 1 to 5 years bladder  Bile duct  Cystic duct
 Duodenum
2) It is caused due to deficiency of
proteins and calories 4) Liver  Hepatic duct  Gall
bladder  Cystic duct 
3) Its symptoms are prominent ribs, Hepatopancreatic ampulla 
wrinkled and thin skin due to less fat Duodenum
in body
177. Brunne r’s glands of duodenum
4) It leads to non-recoverable growth secrete mucoid flui d under the
retardation in preschoolers influence of
174. Select the option which is incorrectly 1) vagus nerve and duocrinin
matched regarding the absorption of
nutrients 2) vagus nerve and enterocrinin
1) Stomach - Alcohol, water 3) enterogastrone and secretin
2) Large intestine - NaCl, some drugs 4) secretin and enterocrinin
3) Duodenum- Vitamins produced by 178. The absorptive su rface in small
bacteria, amino acids intestine is increased by the presence
of
4) IIeum - Vitamin B12, bile salts
i) haustra
175. The enteric neural system present in
the gastrointestinal tract ii) taeniae coli
1) Consists of Meissener’s plexus iii) plicae circulares
situated in the muscular layer and
Auerbach’s plexus in the submucosa iv) villi

2) Consists of parasympathetic and v) rugae

sympathetic nerves 1) i, ii and iv
3) Consists of Meissener’s plexus 2) iii and iv
situated in the submucosa and
Auerbach’s plexus in the muscular 3) ii, iii, and iv
layer
4) i, iv adn v
4) Can modify the activity of intrinsic
neural system in response to a reflex
initiated in the GIT
FT20V/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 23 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
179. The gross calorific value of 180. Which of the following conversion takes
carbohydrates, proteins and fats are place in small intestine in the presence
respectively of pancreatic enzyme?

1) 4.1 kcal/g,4.0 kcal/g and 9.0 kcal/g 1) Dipeptides  Amino acids

2) 4 kcal/g, 5 kcal/g and 9 kcal/g 2) DNA  Deoxyribonucleotides

3) 4.1 kcal/g, 5.65 kcal/g and 9.45 kcal/ 3) Nucleosides  Nitrogenous bases +
g Pentose sugar
4) 4.2 kcal/g, 9.25 kcal/g and 5.65 kcal/ 4) Caesin  Paracaesin
g
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PHYSICS

1. 2

2. 3

2 D
3. 1 Width of central maxima 
a

a D
If then   distance is to be maintained between the slit and screen.
2, 2

4. 3 Angular width  2   600

  300

a= 1×10-6 m

D= 50×10-2 m

 = 1×10-2 m

For 1st diffraction minima, a sin   

a sin 30  
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a

2

D

d

 D aD
d 
 2

1  106  50  10 2

2  1  102

 25  106 m  25 m

5. 1

1 1
cos 4      450
2 8

2D
6. 3 Width of central maxima = y 
d

y '  ' d 600 d

      y '  3y
y d '  d /2 400

7. 4

8. 3 1  750nm

2  900nm

n11  n 2 2

n1  750  n 2  900
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n1 90 6
 
n 2 75 5

6th maxima of 1 coincides with 5th maxima of 2

n11D
 Required distance = Distance of 6th maxima of 1 from the centre =
d

6  750  109  2
 = 4.5 mm
2  10 3

I 9I I 9
9. 4 I1  , I2   2 
4 64 I1 16

 9 
 1 
I max
  16   49
Now, I min  9  1
 1 
 16 

10. 4 At the area of complete darkness minima will occur for both the wavelength.

1 2
 2n  1   2m2  1
2 2

 2n  1 400   2m  1 560

2n  1 56 7 21
  
2m  1 40 5 15

2n  1  7 2m  1  5

n 4 m 3
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4th minima of 1 coincides with 3rd minima of 2

2n-1 = 21 2m-1 = 15

n = 11 m=8

11th minima of 1 coincides with 8th minima of 2

 Required distance = distance between 4th and 11th minima of 1

1D 1D
  2  11  1   2  4  1
2d 2d

 21 7  D 7  400  10  1
9
    = 28 mm
 2 2 d 0.1  103

11. 4 Here, I 1  I 2  1Wm 2

At 3rd vertex of equilateral triangle the waves from two sources reach in
phase.

 I max  I 1  I 2  2 I 1I 2 cos 00  1  1  2  1  1  4Wm 2

3
12. 3 n11  n 2 2  3  590  4  2  2   590  442.5 nm
4

13. 4

14. 3 I max  I 0

dx
path difference x 
D

2 2 dx
  x 
  D

2 x  D 

    d 

 
I R  I max cos 2  
2

 2 x 
 I 0 cos 2  
 2 
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x 
 I 0 cos 2  
  

3 
15. 4 As x  1.5 m  m
2 2

   

Reflection from water surface introduces a phase diff. of  . Therefore, total

phase diff.      2

 Intensity obtained is maximum.

Now I max  I 1  I 2  2 I 1I 2 cos 2

I 9I
I 2 I I /4 
4 4

16. 3

17. 3

18. 2

 ' D' 3 3D D
19. 3    27
d' d /3 d

1/ 3 d
No. of fringes = 
 81 D

20. 2 No. of polaroids = N+1


  
2
 Angle between each polaroids     
N 2N

2N
I I   
In  0  cos 2  
n 1
 0 cos 2N 
2 2  

21. 4 Fringe width after a time ‘t’ second,

D
P
vt

y yv
Number of fringes crossing the point P per unit time is 
 t D
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y 
22. 1  1.22
d D

yD
d
1.22 

10 3  3  103
 =5m
1.22  5  107


23. 1 Change in fringe width     1     0.5 mm


n 
24. 2 ya   1  y
 n2 

y  actual depth

y a  apparent depth

n 
y   2  y a
 n1 

dy n2  dy a  n2 x
  n
dt n1  dt  1

 Amount of water drained

 dy 
 A 
 dt 

An2 x R 2 n2 x
 
n1 n1

25. 3

From equilateral triangle   600

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26. 2

2 3 2 3
Maximum number of reflection    3  30
x 0.2

27. 4
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28. 1 Optical distance between fish and the bird is

29. 3 Distance from eye = 30+10=40 cm

30. 2

Displacement of image = 2  1  36 cm

= 36 cm away from the mirror.

FT20V/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 9 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

31. 2

32. 2

1
sin ic 
n

R 1
 
R D
2 2 n

R 2  D2
  n2
R2

D2 D2 D
1 2
 n2
 2
 n2  1  R 
R R n2  1

If bulb is not seen

D
R
n2  1

33. 2 Here, real depth of mark, x= 3 cm

apparent depth of mark, y= ?

refractive index,  1.5

x x 3
As   y y  
 1.5
 2cm

Distance through which mark appears to be raised = x-y=3-2 =1 cm

FT20V/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 10 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
 To get the mark in focus again, distance through which microscope be
moved upward = 1cm.

34. 3 Here,   2, A  300

On reflection from mirrored surface, the ray will retrace its path, if it falls
normally on the surface.

Therefore, r2  00

As r1  r2  A

 r1  A  300

sin i1
As   sin r
1

2 1
 sin i1   sin r1  2 sin300  
2 2

i1  450

35. 4 OA = 4 cm, AB= 3 cm

OB  42  32  5 cm .

1 1 OB 5
   
sinC AB /OB AB 3
FT20V/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 11 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

c c 3  108
From   ,   m /s  1.8  108 m /s
  5 /3

36. 3

 Power of such a lens,

P  P1  P2  P1  2P1 P2  0 

2 2
   10 D
f 0.2

100 100
New focal length, f    10cm
P 10

37. 2 When a lens is immersed in a liquid, then we have:

fm   g  1  m
 ..... 1
fa  g  m 
where fm  focal length in medium

fa  focal length in air

 g  refractive index of medium of glass

 m  refractive index of the medium.

From relation (1), we have:

   g  1 g 
fm    fa
   g  m  

4
Substituting g  1.5; m  ;fa  30cm , we get:
3

fm  120 cm
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38. 1 For T/R at face AC

  ic

 sin   sin ic

1
 sin  
ngw

nw 8
 sin    sin  
ng 9

39. 3

Coincidence is possible when the image is formed at the centre of curvature

of the mirror. Only then the rays refracting through the lens will fall nor-
mally on the convex mirror and retrace their path to form the image at O. So
the distance between lens and mirror = 60-10=50 cm

40. 4
FT20V/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 13 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

41. 3 For reading purposes:

u=-25 cm, v= -50 cm, f= ?

1 1 1 1 1 1
     ;
f v u 50 25 50

100
P  2D
f

For distant vision, f = distance of far point = -3m

1 1
P   D   0.33D
f' 3

f0
42. 4 m 5
fe

and L  f0  fe  36

 5fe  fe  36  fe  6cm,f0  30 cm

43. 4
FT20V/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 14 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

n2 n1 n2  n1
44. 1  
 u R

1.5 1 1.5  1
      30cm
  15  30

(-) sign indicates that, image is formed at same side of object (i.e. left side)

x 1.22 1.22  5  103  10 10  103

45. 4 Here  or x 
1000 D 10  10 2

or x  1.22  5 103 m  6.1mm

x is of the order of 5 mm
CHEMISTRY

46. 3 at comers = 1 8  8  1  A 

On face centre = 1 2  4  2  B  ;  AB2

1 2
47. 2 Cu1.810 S110  Cu18 S10
Let no : Cu+2 = x
Cu+1 = 18 – x

x  2  18  x 1  2  10

2
x=2   100  11.1
18
FT20V/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 15 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
48. 3 Hexagonal close packing in 2D= 91%
49. 3 Nearest neighbour in present on body diagonal . no : nearest neighbours = 8
50. 1 Na+ ions are occupy in all octahedral voids. No: O.h voids = 12 + 1 = 13
51. 2 At room temperature, NaCl crystal is diamagnetic

ZM 1172.5
d   4.48 g cm3
52. 2 a NA  40010   610
3 10 3 23

53. 3 In CaF2, F- can occupy the interstitial void

54. 4 Cu1.8O can act as P type semiconductor and it is non stoichiometric compound
also.

55. 1 O2 in ccp  4 O2–

A cation  1  8  1 (A)
8

B cation  1  4  1 (b)
4
ABO4

X:Y
56. 2 Co.oxidation number formula = XbYa
a:b

ZM Z  6.94

 3.5  108   6  1023 ; Z = 2
3
57. 1 d = a NA
3

3.6
58. 3 Mass of O2 per gram of adsorbent = 3
1.2

3
No. moles of O2 per gram of adsorbent =
32

3 0.0821  273
Volume of oxygen per gram of adsorbent =   2.1 L
32 1
59. 1 It is electrokinetic potential or zeta potential
60. 3
61. 4
62. 2

no. milli moles of electrolyte required

63. 3 Coagulation value =
volume of colloidal solution in 1litre

 1 5
 1000  100
50m l
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64. 4
65. 3 Amylase in presence of NaCl ie Na+ is catalytically very active
66. 1 Milli equivalents of CH3COOH present -= 50  0.06  3

Milli equivalents of CH3COOH left = 50  0.042  2.1

Milli equivalents of CH3COOH adsorbed = 3 – 2.1 = 0.9

0.9  60
Wt of acid adsorbed =  0.054
1000

0.054
Wt of acid adsorbed per gram = g  1000  18 mg
3
67. 4 The reaction is slow initially and fastens as it proceeds on, due to autocatalysis
by Mn2+ ions formed during the course of reaction
68. 2

69. 3

70. 3 1.2-Diethylbenzene is a resonance hybrid of the two structures which on

ozonolysis give different products.

71. 3
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72. 4

73. 4

74. 3 Propanone has highest b.p.

75. 3

76. 4
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77. 2 Transfer of hydride ion to the carbonyl group is the slowest step of the reaction.

78. 3

79. 1

80. 4

81. 3 It is Wolff Kishner reduction of benzaldehyde

82. 3 B 2H6 reduces carboxylic acids to primary alcohols
83. 2 Aromatic carboxylic acids do not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction

84. 4

85. 2 Hot acidified KMnO4 oxidise cyclohexene to adipic acid

86. 3 Cannizaro reaction
FT20V/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 19 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

OH
Reduction CH3 + HBr
87. 3 CH3COCH3 CH3 C

Br

CH3 C CH3 + Mg (CH3)2 CMgBr

CH CH + H2O CH2 CH CH3 C H + CH3MgX

88. 3

OH

O OMgX

CH3 C CH3 CH3 C H

CH3

89. 3 It is Rosenmunds reduction

90. 4 Cyanohydrin is formed than –CN gets reduced into –CH2NH2
FT20V/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 20 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
BIOLOGY
91. 4 121. 4 151. 3
92. 2 122. 4 152. 2
93. 2 123. 3 153. 2
94. 2 124. 2 154. 1
95. 2 125. 4 155. 1
96. 3 126. 3 156. 4
97. 3 127. 2 157. 2
98. 2 128. 4 158. 4
99. 2 129. 4 159. 3
100. 3 130. 2 160. 3
101. 3 131. 4 161. 2
102. 3 132. 1 162. 4
103. 4 133. 2 163. 4
104. 4 134. 4 164. 4
105. 1 135. 2 165. 3
106. 3 136. 4 166. 1
107. 4 137. 1 167. 4
108. 2 138. 3 168. 1
109. 4 139. 3 169. 3
110. 3 140. 1 170. 3
111. 3 141. 1 171. 4
112. 1 142. 4 172. 2
113. 3 143. 3 173. 1
114. 2 144. 4 174. 3
115. 3 145. 3 175. 3
116. 3 146. 3 176. 4
117. 2 147. 2 177. 1
118. 4 148. 4 178. 2
119. 4 149. 1 179. 3
120. 4 150. 1 180. 2