NMAT Official Guide PDF
NMAT Official Guide PDF
Sangeet Chowfla
President and CEO
Graduate Management Admission Council®
HOW TO USE
NMAT BY GMAC™ OFFICIAL
GUIDE 2020
NMAT by GMAC™ Official Guide has been designed
with the following focus to help you study and
achieve your personal best in the NMAT by GMAC™
exam:
Understanding numbers
While numbers can be divided into various types, for the NMAT by
GMAC™, you need to be conversant with the following types of
numbers.
Decimals
Decimals are numbers that fall in between integers. They express a
part-to-whole relationship in terms of place value. For example, 1.2
is a decimal. The integers 1 and 2 are not decimals. An integer
written as 1.0, however, is considered a decimal.
How the day of the week for the same date shifts from one
year to the next
The concept of odd days means that when we proceed from one
year to the next and the year is ordinary, that is, it has 365 days,
the day will get shifted by one day.
As an example, if the 24th of May 2014 is a Saturday, then 24th of
May 2015 will be a Sunday while 24th of May 2013 would have
been a Friday and so on.
A leap year has 366 days, that is, 52 weeks and two odd days. This
means that when we proceed from one year to the next and the
year has the effect of leap (29th February being included), and the
year has 366 days, the day would get shifted by two days.
As an example, if the 24th of May 2015 is a Sunday, then 24th of
May 2016 would be a Tuesday, that is, a shift of two days.
An end of the century year (the last year of a century, e.g. 1900, 2000,
2100, etc.) is a leap year only if divisible by 400. For all the other years,
check the divisibility by 4, and if the year is divisible by 4 it is said to be
a leap year and will have 366 days.
This would mean that the year 1900 in spite of being divisible by 4
was not a leap year and the year 2100 will also not be a leap year.
Important Learning: Do you know why an end of the century year
has to be divisible by 400 to be a leap year? This is because the
revolution of the Earth around the Sun, which is normally said to
be 365.25 days, which is what leads to an additional day being
added in February, is actually 365.242 days.
Therefore, when we take 365.25 days in each year in our
calculations, we are introducing an error of approximately 0.008
days in our calendar every year.
This error of 0.008 days does not seem very significant when
viewed alone, but when its effect is taken for 400 consecutive
years, it will introduce an error of 3 complete days in our calendar.
Therefore, it was decided that if the above mentioned error is to
be corrected, then we need to add 3 days less in every 400 years,
and so the 100th, 200th and 300th year are not leap years in spite
of being divisible by 4. This error correction has also meant that
after every 400 years, our calendar repeats itself for the next 400
years.
Concept of total odd days in 100, 200, 300 and 400 years
The total number of odd days form the basis of these calculations:
1. If we take 100 consecutive years from 1st January AD, there will
be 24 leap years (remember the 100th year will not be a leap
year) and 76 ordinary years.
24 leap years = 24 × 2 = 48 odd days, that is, 42 days being
converted into 6 weeks and 6 odd days.
76 ordinary years = 76 × 1 = 76 odd days, that is, 70 days being
converted into 10 weeks and 6 odd days.
Total = 6 + 6 = 12 odd days, that is one week and 5 odd days.
So, 100 consecutive years from 1st January AD will give 5 odd
days.
2. Similarly, 200 consecutive years from 1st January AD = 10 odd
days, that is, 3 odd days.
3. 300 consecutive years will be 15 odd days, that is, 1 odd day.
4. But, 400 consecutive years = 20 + 1, that is, 21 odd days, that
is, 0 odd days. (This is because the 400th year will be a leap
year and contribute 1 extra day.)
Also, any multiple of 400 consecutive years will always give 0
odd days. This is used along with the other four concepts to
calculate a day if a date is given.
5. Also, 100 consecutive years will have 5 odd days, that is, the
last day of 100 years will be a Friday. Similarly, the last day of
the 200th, 300th and the 400th years will be Wednesday,
Monday and Sunday, respectively.
Any two years will have the same calendar if they are both of
the same type (that is, both ordinary or both leap) and the first
days of both the years are the same.
Type 1
Example 1
What was the day on 24th May 2014?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Wednesday
(C) Thursday
(D) Friday
(E) Saturday
Solution
In such questions, it would always depend on whether we
have a reference point or not. As we do not have a reference
point in this case, we will start our calculations from 1st
January AD.
The first 2,000 years = 0 odd days
Next 13 years will have:
3 leap years × 2 odd days = 6 odd days
10 ordinary years × 1 odd day = 10 odd days = 3 odd days
Example 2
If 31 March 2017 is a Saturday, find the day of the week on 1
January 2014.
(A) Wednesday
(B) Friday
(C) Thursday
(D) Monday
(E) Tuesday
Solution
The day of the week on 1 January 2014 can be determined
as:
31 March 2017 is a Saturday.
31 March 2016 will be a Friday.
31 March 2015 will be a Wednesday.
31 March 2014 will be a Tuesday.
3 March 2014 (28 days before) will be a Tuesday.
28 February 2014 will be a Saturday.
31 January 2014 will be a Saturday.
3 January 2014 will be a Saturday.
So, 1 January 2014 will be a Thursday.
Solution
For a number to be divisible by 3, the sum of all the digits
should be divisible by 3.
Now, 2 + 5 + 4 + 6 + b + c should be divisible by 3.
17 + b + c must be divisible by 3.
Therefore, b + c must be a (multiple of 3) + 1.
That is, 1, 4, 7, 10, 13, 16, 19.
b + c can take the mentioned nine values. 13 is the only value
available in the options.
Example 2
A number Q gives a remainder of 5 when divided by 7. Find
the remainder when 2Q is divided by 7.
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 7
(E) 9
Solution
2Q when divided by 7 will give a remainder of 2 × 5, that is,
10. This can be divided by 7 and the required remainder will
be 3.
The other way of approaching this question is to pick a
number that satisfies the criteria given in the question, that is,
it should leave a remainder of 5 when divided by 7. Let us
pick Q as 12. So, when 2Q , that is, 24 is divided by 7, the
remainder is 3, which is your answer. You can try this with any
other number, such as 19, the result will remain the same
Example 3
The sum of a two-digit number and the number obtained by
reversing the digits is a multiple of 88. If the difference of the
digits at the ten’s place and unit’s place is 6, find the digit at
the ten’s place of the number.
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 6
(E) 7
Solution
Let the two-digit number be 10x + y and so the number
obtained by reversing the digits is 10 y + x.
Their sum will be 11x + 11y, that is, 11(x + y).
If 11(x + y) is a multiple of 88, then x + y is a multiple of 8, that
is, x + y can be either 8 or 16.
Also, y − x = 6
Thus, one possible result is y = 7 and x = 1. The other result
is y = 11 and x = 5, which is not possible.
VBODMAS
VBODMAS stands for Vinculum Brackets, Of, Division,
Multiplication, Addition and Subtraction. This acronym helps us
remember the sequence in which to carry out arithmetic operations.
Order of Operations
V – Vinculum or Bar
The bar you see on top of the values like must be solved first.
B – Brackets
Parts of calculation inside the brackets are always done first after
the vinculum or bar.
O – Orders
Solve for orders if there is any, like powers, square roots or cube
roots.
DM – Divide or multiply before addition or subtraction
AS – Do addition and subtraction in the last (from left to right).
Example 4
Find the largest power of 3 in 100!
(A) 46
(B) 47
(C) 48
(D) 49
(E) 50
Solution
Example 5
Find the largest power of 30 in 50!
(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 13
(E) 14
Solution
30 = 2 × 3 × 5
Since largest prime factor of 30 is 5, therefore, largest power
of 5 in 50! is the largest power of 30 in 50!.
Largest power of 5 in 50! =
Therefore, the largest power of 30 in 50! = 12
The correct answer is C.
Cyclicity of numbers up to 9:
Let us take some examples to understand it clearly.
(a) The last digit for (163)11 is the same as that of 311, that is,
34×2+3 which is the same as the last digit for 33, that is, last
digit for 27 and so our last digit for (163)11 is 7.
(b) Last digit for (29)19 is the same as that of 919, that is, 92×9+1
which is the same as the last digit for 91 = 9.
Prime factorisation
Prime factorisation is a way to express any number as a product of
prime numbers. For example, the prime factorisation of 30 is 2 × 3
× 5. Prime factorisation is useful in answering questions about
divisibility.
Example 1
Given that 1,176 = 2p × 3q × 7r, find the value of p + q + r.
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) 10
(E) 12
Solution
The given number can be written as below:
1176 = 4 × 294 = 4 × 3 × 98 = 4 × 3 × 2 × 49 = 23 × 31 × 72
Since 1176 = 2p × 3q × 7r, therefore, p = 3, q = 1 and r = 2
Hence, p + q + r = 3 + 1 + 2 = 6
Example 2
What is the smallest integer which is greater than 1 and which
leaves a remainder of 2 when divided by any of the integers
3, 5 and 7?
(A) 18
(B) 38
(C) 105
(D) 107
(E) 213
Solution
You start by finding out the smallest number that is divisible
by 2, 5 and 7 (which will be their LCM) and add 2 to the
result.
The LCM of 3, 5 and 7 is 105, so our desired answer is 105 +
2 = 107.
Example 3
What minimum number must be subtracted from 247 so that
the number is divisible by both 6 and 7?
(A) 35
(B) 36
(C) 37
(D) 38
(E) 39
Solution
LCM of 6 and 7 is 42.
We need to find out a multiple of 42 closest to 247.
42 × 5, that is, 210 is the multiple of 42 closest to 247 and so
the value to be subtracted from 247 so that the number left is
completely divisible by both 6 and 7 = 247 − 210 = 37.
Where ‘a’ is also a positive real different than unity and is called the
base and ‘x’ is called the exponent.
We can write the relation (1) in logarithmic form as
Important Formula
1. Log (ab) = log a + log b
2. Log (a/b) = log a – log b
3. Log (a)n = n log a
4. Logab = log b/ log a (to any base)
The logarithm of 1
Important Learning:
2.5 Arithmetic
2.6 What is Measured?
The arithmetic section comprises topics such as averages, profit
and loss, ratio and proportion, percentages, simple and compound
interest, mixtures, calendars, etc.
Basic arithmetic questions test your ability to interpret and solve
problems of a mathematical nature, using such operations as
addition, subtraction, division and multiplication, and in a variety of
problem formats and situations.
While most of the concepts in arithmetic are quite simple, the
NMAT by GMAC™ will not always test you on straightforward
concepts; rather, it will mix up two or more topics, so you may see a
question that combines percentages and ratio and proportion.
The arithmetic section will also test your mental math skills as you
will be required to make quick calculations in your head.
Percentage Change
1. Percentage Change
Percentage Increase/Decrease
2. Percentage increase =
3. Percentage decrease =
4. If the price of a commodity increases by R%, then the reduction
in consumption so as not to change the expenditure is
Solution
Required percentage
Results on Population
Let the population of a town be P now and suppose it increases at
the rate of R% per annum, then:
Results on Depreciation
Let the present value of a machine be P. Suppose it depreciates at
the rate of R% per annum. Then:
Example 2
A number is increased by 20% and then the increased
number is again increased by 10%. What is the total
increment in the number?
(A) 30%
(B) 31%
(C) 32%
(D) 33%
(E) 34%
Solution
Required percentage =
Multiplication factor
To find the value of R% of a number, we multiply that number by
If we want to find out 35% of a given number, we need to
multiply the number by or 0.35.
To increase a number by R%, we multiply the number by
and to decrease a number by R%, we multiply the number by
The factor with which we multiply a number in order to (a) find the
value of certain percentage of a given number, (b) increase the
value of a number by a particular percentage or (c) decrease the
value of a number by a particular percentage is called the
multiplication factor.
For example, if we have to increase 120 by 20%, we need to
multiply 120 by or or 1.2. In this case, 1.2 is the
multiplication factor. The result is 120 × 1.2 = 144. Therefore, if we
increase 120 by 20%, the final result will be 144.
Let us look at the multiplication factor for some cases:
1. To increase a number by 17%, the multiplication factor will be
Do not commit this common error: There are two things that a
student must appreciate. 50% is what percentage of 40% and
50% is how much more than 40% are two different problems. In
this example, we are being asked about how much more is 50%
than 40%. Many students make the mistake of saying that the
required answer is 10%, which is the difference between the
given values 50 and 40. The percentage affixed after the given
values probably creates this confusion. What if the two values
were 50 km/h and 40 km/h, that is, speed, or 50 kg and 40 kg,
that is, weight?
Points to Remember
Some points to remember while resolving percentage related
problems are listed as follows:
1. A% of B = B% of A
For example, 20% of 80 = 80% of 20 = 16
2. If percentage increase in initial quantity is k%, then the new
value = × Initial quantity.
3. If new quantity becomes k times the old quantity, then the
percentage increase is (k – 1) × 100%. For example, if a
quantity becomes 5 times of its initial value, then the percentage
increase is 400%.
4. If A is k% more than B, then B is less than A.
Example 3
In a class having 60% girls, 40% of the students qualified in a
test. If 50% of the girls qualified, find the number of boys who
did not qualify in the test as a percentage of the total strength
of the class?
(A) 10%
(B) 30%
(C) 45%
(D) 55%
(E) 90%
Solution
Therefore, as a percentage of the total strength of the class,
30% of the boys have not qualified. Let the total number of
students in the class be 100. Then the number of girls = 60
and number of boys = 40. Total number of students who
qualified = 40% of 100 = 40. Of those 40 students, 30 are
girls (since 50% of the girls have qualified and 50% of 60 =
30). So, 10 boys have qualified, which means that 30 boys
have not qualified.
The correct answer is B.
Important Learning:
1. In the first period, SI and CI are equal. In all the other periods
after the first period, the CI is greater than the SI.
2. In simple interest, the total rate of interest applicable is the
sum of all the respective rates applicable.
3. In compound interest, the total rate of interest applicable is
the successive effect of the respective rates given.
4. If an amount becomes N times itself in T years at SI, then the
required rate of Interest
5. Difference between compound interest and simple interest
Example 1
The simple interest for 10 years is Rs. 6,000. The compound
interest for 2 years is Rs. 1,400. Find the rate of interest and
the principal.
(A) 30%, 1,800
(B) 33.33%, 1,600
(C) 33.33%, 1,800
(D) 35%, 1,500
(E) 66.66%, 1,600
Solution
SI for 10 years is Rs. 6,000.
Therefore, SI for 1 year will be Rs. 600.
SI for 2 years will be Rs. 1,200.
CI for 2 years is Rs. 1,400.
Difference = Rs. 200. This is because of interest received on
the first period’s interest.
Therefore,
Therefore,
Also, interest for the first period is Rs. 600, rate is 33.33%
and time period is 1 year. Therefore,
where SP is the selling price, that is, the price at which the item is
sold, and CP is the cost price, that is, the price at which it was
originally manufactured or purchased by the seller.
When profit is expressed as a percentage of CP, it is known as
profit %. Therefore,
Sometimes, the product is sold at a price lower than the CP. This is
called loss.
Loss can be written either as (CP − SP), in which case it has a
positive sign or (SP − CP), in which case it has a negative sign. So,
loss = SP − CP.
Example 1
50 kg of a product is sold and the profit generated is equal to
the cost price of 20 kg of the product. Find the profit
percentage made.
(A) 20%
(B) 25%
(C) 35%
(D) 40%
(E) 45%
Solution
As per the problem, we have:
SP of 50 kg − CP of 50 kg = CP of 20 kg
Or, CP of 70 kg = SP of 50 kg
Therefore,
False weights
If an item is claimed to be sold at cost price using false weights,
then the overall percentage profit is given by
Example 2
A dishonest dealer claims to sell his good at cost price but
uses a false weight, which reads 1000 gm for 800 gm. What
is his net profit percentage?
(A) 20%
(B) 25%
(C) 35%
(D) 40%
(E) 45%
Solution
Required percentage
Successive Discounts
When a discount of a% is followed by another discount of b%, then
Total discount =
9. If then
Example 1
The sum of the ages of the five members in a family is 124
years. If the ages of the children are in the ratio 3:4:5 while
the combined age of their parents is 76, find the age of the
youngest child.
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D) 14
(E) 15
Solution
Combined age of the three children = 124 − 76 = 48 years
Age of the youngest child will be:
7. If then
8. Invertendo rule: If then
9. Alternendo rule: If then
Example 2
Three solutions having milk and water in the ratio 2:3, 3:1 and
4:5, respectively, were mixed in the ratio 2:3:4. Find the ratio
of milk to water in the resultant mixture.
(A) 869:751
(B) 219:341
(C) 420:519
(D) 531:622
(E) 640:729
Solution
Let the solutions added be 2, 3 and 4 L, respectively.
Then, the quantity of milk in the solution is as below:
Direct proportionality
Y is said to be directly proportional to X if Y increases as X
increases and Y decreases as X decreases. Here, Y is called the
dependent variable, while X is called the independent variable.
We can write the relation in the form Y = KX, where K is called the
constant of proportionality.
Inverse proportionality
Y is said to be inversely proportional to X if Y decreases as X
increases and Y increases as X decreases.
We can write the relation in the form where K is called the
constant of proportionality.
Age-related problems
Problems based on ages are a simple application of the concept of
ratios. In all problems of ages, we need to follow the instructions
given in the problem keeping the time shift in consideration.
Important Points
1. We can take the unknown variable as the current age of the
persons in the question or their age a few years earlier or a few
years later. The answer will be the same, provided we keep the
time shift in consideration.
2. The difference between the ages of two persons will always be
the same whether the calculation is done today, a few years
earlier or a few years later.
3. If the average age of a family of n members is x today, after
three years, the average age of the family will be x + 3.
Example 3
Three years ago, the ratio of the ages of a father and a son
was 6:1. After 3 years, the ratio will be 36:11. Find the present
age of the son.
(A) 3 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 8 years
(D) 11 years
(E) 17 years
Solution
Let the ages of father and son three years ago be 6x and x.
Today their ages will be 6x + 3 and x + 3 and after 3 years
their ages will be 6x + 6 and x + 6.
Now,
Averages
An average is typically the central value of a set of numbers.
For a set of ‘n’ values x1, x2,……xn, the average is given by the
following algebraic expression:
Example 4
The average of five consecutive integers is 20. What is the
average of the first 3 of these integers?
(A) 15
(B) 17
(C) 18
(D) 19
(E) 21
Solution
We know that the average of consecutive integers is always
the middle value. So, if the average is 20, the integers are 18,
19, 20, 21, 22.
So, the first 3 integers in this list are 18, 19, 20 whose
average will again be the middle value, that is, 19.
Properties of average
Case 1
If the average is increased by µ, then the deleted value ‘x’ is given
by
Example 5
The average of a set of five values is 12. If one number is
deleted, the average of the set is increased by 0.6. What is
the value of the deleted number?
(A) 8.2
(B) 8.8
(C) 9.2
(D) 9.6
(E) 10.2
Solution
Here, the original average (a) = 12
Total number of items (n) = 5
Decrease in the original average (µ) = 0.6
Therefore, the deleted value (x) = a – (n – 1) µ = 12 – (5 – 1)
0.6 = 9.6
Case 2
If the average is decreases by µ, then the deleted value ‘x’ is given
by
Example 6
The average of a set of five values is 12. If one number is
deleted, the average of the set is decreased by 0.6. What is
the value of the deleted number?
(A) 14.2
(B) 14.4
(C) 16.2
(D) 19.6
(E) 20.2
Solution
Here, the original average (a) = 12
Total number of items (n) = 5
Decrease in the original average (µ) = 0.6
Therefore, the deleted value (x) = a + (n – 1) µ = 12 + (5 – 1)
0.6 = 14.4
Case 1
If the average is increased by µ, then the added value ‘x’ is given
by
Example 7
The average weight of a class of 13 students is 62.875 kg.
When a new student joins the class, the average weight
increases to 62.985 kg. What is the weight of the new
student?
(A) 64.415 kg
(B) 65.825 kg
(C) 66.545 kg
(D) 67.215 kg
(E) 69.615 kg
Solution
Original average (a) = 62.875 kg
Increase in average weight (µ) = 62.985 – 62.875 = 0.11
Number of students (n) = 13
Therefore, the weight of the new students can be calculated
using the formula:
x = a + (n + 1) µ
x = 62.875 + (13 + 1) 0.11 = 64.415 kg
Case 2
If the average is decreased by µ, then the added value ‘x’ is given
by
Example 8
Virat Kohli has an average score of 54 in the last 15 matches.
After the last match his average becomes 53. What was
Virat’s score in the last match?
(A) 30 runs
(B) 34 runs
(C) 38 runs
(D) 42 runs
(E) 46 runs
Solution
Using the formula discussed above, we get.
Virat’s score in the last match = 54 – (15 + 1) 1 = 38 runs
Example 1
A can do a work in 20 days. B can do the same work in 30
days. In how many days can A and B do the work together?
(A) 8 days
(B) 10 days
(C) 12 days
(D) 14 days
(E) 16 days
Solution
Unitary method: We have been solving such problems using
the unitary method.
A can do a work in 20 days. Therefore, in 1 day, A will be able
to do of the work.
B can do the same work in 30 days. Therefore, in 1 day, B will
be able to do of the work.
Example 2
A and B can do a work in 20 and 25 days, respectively. With
the help of C and D, they finish the same work in 5 days. If
the efficiency of C is half that of A, find the total time taken by
D to finish the work alone.
(A)
(B) 12
(C)
(D) 15
(E) 20
Solution
Let the total work be 100 units.
A: 20 days 5 units/day
B: 25 days 4 units/day
A + B + C + D: 5 days 20 units/day
It means C and D can do 11 units per day. Since the
efficiency of C is half of A, C will be able to do 2.5 units per
day. It means D would be doing the remaining 8.5 units per
day.
Total time taken by D to finish the work alone =
Example 3
Three boys can do the same work as one woman. If a work is
completed by 36 boys in 28 days working 9 h every day, how
many women must be required to complete the same work in
7 days working 6 h every day?
(A) 36 women
(B) 48 women
(C) 54 women
(D) 66 women
(E) 72 women
Solution
Given that 36 boys will be equivalent to 12 women.
12 women × 28 days × 9 h = y women × 7 days × 6 h
Therefore, y = 72 women
Partnership
Partnership is defined as a legal agreement between two or more
persons who agree to share profits or losses incurred by a
business entity. Each person in the partnership is called a partner.
If the partnership incurs losses, then partners also share losses;
and vice versa.
If IR = Investment Ratio
And, TR = The ratio of time periods of different partners,
Then, Profit Sharing Ratio (PSR) or Loss Sharing Ratio (LSR) is
calculated as the product of the IR and TR.
Therefore,
PSR or LSR = IR × TR
2. If there are two partners who invest I1 and I2 amounts for time
periods t1 and t2, then the PSR or LSR of partners 1 and 2 is
calculated as:
3. The share of each partner in a two-person (say Partner 1 and
Partner 2) partnership, when they invest I1 and I2 amounts for
the same duration of time, is calculated as:
Example 4
A started a business with a capital of Rs. 5,000. Three
months later, B joined with a capital of Rs. 7,000. After
another 3 months, A invested Rs. 1,000 more while B
withdrew Rs. 2,000. Two months later, C joined with a capital
of Rs. 5,000. In what ratio should the profits get divided at the
end of the year?
(A) 22:4:17
(B) 22:17:8
(C) 22:17:4
(D) 66:51:20
(E) 66:17:20
Solution
As per the problem:
Equivalent contribution of A = 5,000 × 6 + 6,000 × 6 = 6,6000
Equivalent contribution of B = 7,000 × 3 + 5,000 × 6 = 51,000
Equivalent contribution of C = 5,000 × 4 = 20,000
Therefore, the required ratio = 66:51:20
Basis of classification
Algebraic expressions can be classified in the following ways:
1. Number of terms: The first basis of classification of algebraic
expressions is based on the number of terms in the expression.
• An expression having a single term is called a monomial, for
example, 5x2y. Please note that the number of variables does
not make any difference as long as the term is single.
• An expression having two terms is called a binomial. For
example, 3x + 5.
• An expression having more than two terms is called a
polynomial. For example, 5x + 2y − 6.
2. Degree of the expression: Before we understand this, we
need to understand the definition of degree. Degree is defined
as the highest or maximum sum of the powers of all the
variables in any term of the expression.
For example,
Important Learning:
• (a + b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2 = (a – b)2 + 4ab
• (a – b)2 = a2 – 2ab + b2 = (a + b)2 – 4ab
• a2 – b2 = (a + b)(a – b)
•
• (a + b)2 – (a – b)2 = 4ab
• (a + b)3 = a3 + b3 + 3ab (a + b)
• (a – b)3 = a3 – b3 – 3ab (a – b)
• a3 + b3 = (a + b) (a2 – ab + b2)
• a3 – b3 = (a – b) (a2 + ab + b2)
•
• (a + b + c)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 + 2(ab + bc + ac)
• If a + b + c = 0 then a3 + b3 + c3 = 3abc
Linear equations
As stated earlier, an equation of degree 1 is called a linear
equation. In this type of equation, all the variables are raised to the
first power only (there are no squares, cubes, etc.). For example,
Example 1
In colony A, there are 12 houses with an average of 4
members per house, while in colony B, there are 20 houses
with an average of Y members per house. If the two colonies
together have an average of 3.5 members per house, find Y.
(A) 3.2
(B) 3.6
(C) 4.8
(D) 5.4
(E) 6.2
Solution
It is given that the average number of members in the two
colonies together is 3.5. Therefore,
12 × 4 + 20 × Y = 32 × 3.5
48 + 20Y = 112
20Y = 64
Y = 3.2 members per house
Simultaneous equations
In linear equations, we were working with one variable, namely x. In
simultaneous equations, we will be working with two variables,
namely x and y.
Let us look at this equation
From this equation, can you find the values of x and y? Obviously
not!
As a rule, if you want to find the numerical value for N variables,
you will need N different equations. In linear equations, we are
trying to find the value of one variable, so a single equation is
sufficient. However, in the above equation, we are trying to find the
values of two variables x and y, so we need two different equations
that we will combine and solve simultaneously.
We can then solve Eq. (3) as a normal linear equation to get the
value of y as We can then substitute this value of y in either Eq.
(1) or Eq. (2) to find the value of x.
Example 2
The price of two cups, seven pans and four saucers is Rs.
110 while of one cup and two saucers is Rs. 20. Find the price
of three pans.
(A) 30
(B) 40
(C) 60
(D) 70
(E) 80
Solution
As per the problem:
2. + 7y + 4z = 110
Also, 2x + 4z = 40
Therefore,
7. = 70 or y = 10
Price of three pans will be Rs. 30.
Example 3
Two apples and five bananas cost Rs. 17, while three apples
and four bananas cost Rs. 15. What is the price of an apple?
(A) Rs. 1
(B) Rs. 1.50
(C) Rs. 2
(D) Rs. 2.50
(E) Rs. 3
Solution
Let the price of an apple be X.
And, the price of a banana be Y.
Now, as per the question, we have:
Quadratic Equations
An equation of the form ax2 + bx + c = 0, where a, b and c are real
and a ≠ 0, is called a quadratic equation.
Example 4
Solution
For a quadratic equation,
Sum of the roots = and product of the roots =
According to the problem,
Note: The NMAT by GMAC™ will not test any skills beyond
quadratic equations.
Inequalities
While equations tell us that two parts of an equation are equal,
inequalities tell us that one part is bigger or smaller than the other.
Solution of an inequality
The value(s) of the variable(s) which makes the inequality a true
statement is called its solutions. The set of all solutions of an
inequality is called the solution set of the inequality. For example,
x – 1 ≥ 0, has infinite number of solutions as all real values greater
than or equal to one make it a true statement. The inequality x2 + 1
< 0 has no solution in R as no real value of x makes it a true
statement.
Inequality Rules
Rule 1: Equal numbers may be added to (or subtracted from) both
sides of an equation.
Rule 2: Both sides of an equation may be multiplied (or divided) by
the same non-zero number.
Example 5
Which of the following describes all possible solutions to the
inequality |a + 4| < 7?
(A) a<3
(B) a > −11
(C) 3 > a > −11
(D) −11 > a > 3
(E) a > 11 or a < −11
Solution
Note the absolute value sign in the original inequality. This
basically means that the solution could lie on either side of
the number line. So, you will have to solve this inequality in
two ways to get the entire range of solutions for a.
a − 4 < 7 or a + 4 > −7
So, a < 3 or a > −11
Arithmetic progression
Popularly known as AP, it is a series of terms in which the
difference between a term and the next term is constant. This
difference is called the common difference of the AP and is denoted
by d.
Some examples of AP are
1. 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, …
2. −3, −6, −9, −12, −15, −18, …
3. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, …
4.
Properties of AP
The first term is called a, the common difference is called d and the
number of terms is denoted by n. Therefore, an AP would be like a,
a + d, a + 2d, a + 3d, a + 4d and so on. Some important properties
of AP are listed below:
1. The nth term of an AP is given by Tn = a + (n − 1)d, a relation
between the nth term, the first term, the common difference and
the number of terms.
2. If the same quantity (positive or negative) is added to each term
of an AP, the series will continue to be an AP.
3. If the same quantity (positive or negative) is multiplied with or
divides each term of an AP, the series will continue to be an AP.
4. In an AP, the sum of the terms equidistant from the beginning
and end is a constant and is equal to the sum of the first and
last terms. Let us try to understand this with the help of an
example:
• Sum of the first and last terms = 3 + 24 = 27
• Sum of the second and second last terms = 6 + 21 = 27
• Sum of the third and third last terms = 9 + 18 = 27
• Sum of the fourth and fourth last terms = 12 + 15 = 27
What if the number of terms is odd?
Let us try to understand this with the help of another example:
where l is the last term, in this case the nth term of the AP, and l
= Tn = a + (n − 1)d
Substituting for l, we get
One can use either of the above formulae to find the sum to n
terms of an AP.
6. Three consecutive terms in an AP will be a − d, a and a + d.
7. Four consecutive terms in an AP will be a − 3d, a − d, a + d and
a + 3d.
8. Five consecutive terms in an AP will be a − 2d, a − d, a, a + d
and a + 2d.
9. Sum of first n natural numbers
Example 1
Which term of the AP series 3, 8, 13, ... is the term 78?
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 16
(D) 17
(E) 18
Solution
In the given AP
an = a + (n − 1)d = 78
We have a = 3, d = 8 − 3 = 5. Therefore,
3 + (n − 1) × (5) = 78
(n − 1) × 5 =78 − 3 = 75
n = 15 + 1 = 16
Solution
The series is an AP with a = 50, d = 50 and n = 10
Geometric Progression
GP refers to a series in which the ratio of a term to its previous term
is constant. This ratio is called the common ratio of the GP and is
denoted by r.
Some examples of GP are
1. 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, …
2.
3. −2, 4, −8, 16, −32, 64, …
Properties of GP
The first term is called a, the common ratio is r and the number of
terms is denoted by n. Therefore, a GP would be like a, ar, ar2, ar3,
ar4 and so on.
Some important properties of a GP are listed below:
1. The nth term of a GP denoted by Tn is given by Tn = ar(n−1).
2. If a constant term (positive or negative) is multiplied with or
divides each term of a GP, the series continues to be a GP.
3. Sum to n terms of a GP is given by
Example 3
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Solution
As per the problem,
and r =
Harmonic Progression
A series of terms is said to be in Harmonic Progression (HP) if the
reciprocal of the terms are in AP. As an example, if a, b and c are in
HP, then and will be in AP. Therefore,
Example 4
If the second term of a harmonic progression is 5 and the 5th
term of the same harmonic progression is 11, then find the
56th term.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Solution
The reciprocals of the HP form an arithmetic progression a, a
+ d, a + 2d ….
Then, a + d = and, a + 4d =
Solving above two equations, we get
Example 5
Evaluate: 62 + 72 + 82 + 92 + 102 + 112
(A) 449
(B) 450
(C) 451
(D) 452
(E) 453
Solution
Permutation
While a combination deals only with selection, permutation is
selection and arrangement both, that is, in permutation, we are not
only interested in selecting the things, but we also take into
consideration the number of possible arrangements of the selected
things.
The permutation of n different things taken r at a time is
Example 1
Suppose there are four children in a group. Find the number
of ways in which any two children out of the four can be
arranged for a photograph.
(A) 8 ways
(B) 10 ways
(C) 12 ways
(D) 14 ways
(E) 16 ways
Solution
We need to select two children out of the four, and then
arrange them. So, we need to take the permutation of four
different things, taken two at a time.
Example 2
In how many different ways can the letters of the word
ARRANGE be arranged?
(A) 1200 ways
(B) 1240 ways
(C) 1260 ways
(D) 1300 ways
(E) 1340 ways
Solution
Circular permutation
The total number of ways in which n different things can be
arranged in a circle = (n − 1)! ways.
For example, if three people are to be seated on a circular table for
dinner, the number of ways of doing so is (3 − 1)! = 2 ways.
Case 1
Different things to be distributed to different groups.
Example 3
In how many ways can five different balls be distributed in
three different boxes?
(A) 143 ways
(B) 243 ways
(C) 343 ways
(D) 443 ways
(E) 543 ways
Solution
The first ball can go into any of the three boxes, and
therefore, the first ball can be distributed in three ways.
Having done this, the second ball can be distributed in three
ways and so on.
Therefore, the five balls can be distributed in 3 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 3
= 35 ways or 243 ways.
Case 2
Identical things to be distributed to different groups.
Example 4
In how many ways can five identical balls be distributed in
three different boxes?
(A) 15 ways
(B) 18 ways
(C) 20 ways
(D) 21 ways
(E) 24 ways
Solution
Five identical balls have to be distributed in three different
boxes. If space has to be divided into three boxes, we can do
so by using two partitions.
three balls in the first box, two balls in the second box and no
balls in the third box.
Other possible arrangements can be:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Example 5
In how many different ways can 10 students of a class with
roll numbers from 1 to 10 be seated in a straight line such that
one of the extreme positions has a student with an odd roll
number while the other extreme position has a student with
an even roll number?
(A) 48 × 6!
(B) 44 × 12!
(C) 50 × 8!
(D) 50 × 6!
(E) 52 × 8!
Solution
Let the first place have an odd number. This place can be
filled in five ways (1, 3, 5, 7 and 9).
The other extreme position can be also filled in five ways (2,
4, 6, 8 and 10).
These two extreme positions can be interchanged also.
Therefore, the two extreme positions can be first filled in
5 ways × 5 ways × 2 ways = 50 ways
Now, the remaining eight people can occupy eight available
positions in 8! ways.
Total ways = 50 × 8! ways
Example 6
Eight students were to be seated along two rows such that
four students will be seated in each of the two rows called A
and B. Two of the eight students definitely want to be seated
in row A while one of them definitely wants to be seated in
row B. In how many different ways can the eight students be
seated?
(A) 5,760
(B) 5,960
(C) 6,500
(D) 6,760
(E) 7,160
Solution
The two students who want to be in row A can be seated in 4
× 3 = 12 ways
The student who wants to be in row B can be seated in four
ways
The remaining five people can be seated in 5! ways = 120
ways
Therefore, total number of ways = 12 × 4 × 120 = 5,760 ways
Combination
Combination means selection only, that is, in combination, we are
only interested in the selection of things and not in their
arrangement.
In general, the number of combinations of n different things taken r
at a time is given by nCr , where
0! = 1 (by definition)
1! = 1
2! = 2 × 1
3! = 3 × 2 × 1 and so on
Example 7
There are four fruits, an apple, a mango, a banana and an
orange, and we need to select any two fruits out of these four
fruits. In how many ways can we do this?
(A) 4 ways
(B) 5 ways
(C) 6 ways
(D) 7 ways
(E) 8 ways
Solution
Number of ways of selecting two fruits from four fruits is 4C2,
that is,
that is, six different ways, which will be AM, AB, AO, MB, MO
and BO.
Rules of combination
1. nC0 = 1 way (there is only one way to select 0 things out of n
different things).
2. nCn = 1 way (there is only one way to select n things out of n
different things).
3. nC1 = n ways (there are n ways to select one thing out of n
different things).
4. nCr = nCn–r (the number of ways of selecting r things out of n
different things is the same as identifying those (n – r) things
that will not be selected).
Example 8
Eleven players are to be selected for a match out of an
available list of 14 players. In how many ways can this be
done such that the best two identified players are always
selected?
(A) 14C
11
(B) 12P
9
(C) 12C
9
(D) 12C × 2!
9
(E) 12C
11
Solution
If two people have to be definitely selected, then nine people
have to be selected of the remaining 12 people = 12C9.
4 Probability
Introduction
Probability is defined as the chance of happening of an event and
is a measure of the likelihood that an event will occur. It is used to
quantify an attitude of mind towards some proposition of whose
truth we are not certain. The certainty we adopt can be described in
terms of a numerical measure and this number, between 0 and 1
(where 0 indicates impossibility and 1 indicates certainty), is called
probability.
Thus, the higher the probability of an event, the more certain we
are that the event will occur. A simple example would be the toss of
a fair coin. As the two outcomes are deemed equiprobable, the
probability of ‘heads’ equals the probability of ‘tails’, and each
probability is or equivalently a 50% chance of either ‘heads’ or
‘tails’.
In many ways, the concept of probability can be said to be an
extension of the concepts of permutation and combination.
In examples and problems where the event is described, the basis
of solving the problem happens to be the classical definition of
probability, which says
Example 1
What is the probability that the month of May will have five
Tuesdays?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Solution
The month of May will have 31 days which would get
converted into 28 days (4 weeks) and 3 odd days.
Therefore, each of the 7 days will definitely appear 4 times.
The remaining 3 days can be
1. Mon, Tue, Wed
2. Tue, Wed, Thu
3. Wed, Thu, Fri
4. Thu, Fri, Sat
5. Fri, Sat, Sun
6. Sat, Sun, Mon
7. Sun, Mon, Tue
Total number of cases = 7.
Number of favourable cases = 3 (There are the three cases in
which Tuesday appears.)
Required probability =
Elements of probability
1. Scope: Probability is always defined for the future.
2. Random experiment: A random experiment is an experiment,
trial or observation that can be repeated numerous times under
the same conditions. The outcome of an individual random
experiment must be independent and identically distributed. It
must in no way be affected by any previous outcome and
cannot be predicted with certainty.
3. Sample space: The total number of ways in which an event can
happen is called the sample space of the event.
Example 2
What is the probability that a card drawn at random from a
pack of cards is either black or a jack?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Solution
There are a total of (13 + 13) = 26 black cards and 4 jacks in
a pack of cards. But remember that two of these jacks are
also black cards, so we will have to account for this overlap.
Therefore, number of favourable cards = 13 + 13 + 4 − 2 =
28.
Total cards = 52.
Required probability =
Example 3
Two students are selected from a class of 5 girls and 12 boys.
Find the probability that a particular pair of girl and boy is
selected.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Solution
Example 4
A bag contains five red and nine black balls, while another
has three red and five black balls. A ball is first selected at
random from bag 1 and transferred to bag 2, and then a ball
is drawn from bag 2. What is the probability that the ball
drawn is red?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Solution
We need to consider both the cases here.
Red ball is transferred, and then red ball is drawn.
Black ball is transferred, and then red ball is drawn.
Example 5
Three cards are drawn from a pack of cards at random. Find
the probability that they consist of both colours.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E) None of these
Solution
Number of favourable cases = 2 red and 1 black or 1 red and
2 black
= 26C2 × 26C1 + 26C1 × 26C2 = 2 × 26C2 × 26C1
Total cases = 52C3
Bayes’ Theorem
Bayes’ theorem is a direct application of conditional probabilities.
This theorem is used to find the conditional probability of an event
P(A/B), say, when the “reverse” conditional probability P(B/A) is
known.
Let A1, A2, ... , An be a set of mutually exclusive events that
together form the sample space S. Let B be any event from the
same sample space, such that P(B) > 0. Then,
Example 6
Three companies P, Q and R supply 20%, 30% and 50% of
the books to a college. Past experience shows that 2%, 4%
and 5% of the books produced by these companies are
defective. If a book was found to be defective, what is the
probability that the book was supplied by company Q?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Solution
Let us consider that P, Q and R be the events that books are
supplied by companies P, Q and R respectively.
Suppose D be the event that books are defective.
According to the question,
P(P) = 0.2, P(Q) = 0.3 and P(R) = 0.5
Also, P(D/P) = 0.02, P(D/Q) = 0.04, P(D/R) = 0.05
Introduction
Data Interpretation is an important area in testing the aptitude of a
candidate. The primary objective in Data Interpretation (henceforth
referred to as DI) is to:
1. Assess the capability of data assimilation, that is, to understand
a data in its given form.
2. Carry out calculations based on the given data.
3. Take effective business decisions based on the calculations.
The data could be in the form of a caselet, bar graph, line graph,
pie chart, histogram, frequency polygon, etc.
Example 1
The following table gives the value of the total sales of AR
Associates across four years. The sales value is in Rs. (’000).
Solution
(A) The growth in the sales of AR Associates in the year
2014
(D) If we want to find out the growth rate of sales in the year
2012, we need to find the value of sales in the
immediately preceding year, that is, 2011.
Since this data is not provided, the answer to the
question cannot be determined.
(E) Let y be the sales of AR Associates in the year 2011.
Therefore,
Percentage change in growth rate
Many of us do not differentiate between the calculation of
percentage change in growth and growth rate. Actually, these are
two different concepts.
Percentage change in growth rate gives the percentage change
between two values that are expressed in percentage terms, that
is, percentage change in growth rate gives the percentage change
in two values that are growth rates.
To understand the concept better, consider Example 1 again.
Example 2
Find the percentage change in the growth rate of AR
associates in the year 2014.
(A) Decrease of 20%
(B) Increase of 20%
(C) Decrease of 40%
(D) Increase of 40%
(E) Increase of 50%
Solution
In order to answer this question, we would need the value of
the growth rate of sales of AR Associates in the year 2013
and the year 2014.
Growth rate of sales of AR Associates in the year 2013
Growth rate of sales of AR Associates in the year 2014
Percentage points
Percentage point is the difference between two values that are
expressed in percentage terms. Consider the following example.
Example 3
A girl got 55% marks in the fifth semester and 57.5% marks in
the sixth semester. By how many percentage points are the
marks in the sixth semester more than the marks obtained in
the fifth semester?
(A) 1.5 percentage points.
(B) 2.5 percentage points.
(C) 3.5 percentage points.
(D) 4.5 percentage points.
(E) 5.5 percentage points.
Solution
Required value = 57.5% − 55% = 2.5 percentage points.
Example 4
In a market there are three products being sold. The price
along with the total sale in units is given for each of the three
products.
Solution
(A) Total market volume = 45,000 units.
Total sale of product P = 10,000 units.
Market share of P on volume basis =
1 DI-Caselets
A DI-Caselet is a set of information that is given in the paragraph
form. In a caselet, no graphs or tables is given. You need to read
the given information and organise the given data in tabular or
pictorial form to solve the questions.
Data for Examples 1–3: A person was looking at the performance
data of four companies namely A, B, C and D for the year 2014. He
observed that the sale of company A for the year 2014 was twice
the expenses for company D in the same year. The profit for
company C in the year 2014 was 25% while its sale was Rs. 300
crore. The ratio of the sales of company B and the expenses of
company D was 4:5. Also, the expenses of company B were half of
the total expenses of company D in the same year.
It was also observed that the sale of company D was Rs. 250 crore
while its profit for the year was Rs. 150 crore. Also, the expenses of
company A in the year 2014 were such that its profit was 50%.
(For the questions based on above data, consider, Profit = Sale -
Expenses)
Example 1
What is the profit percentage of company B in the year 2014?
(A) 35%
(B) 40%
(C) 50%
(D) 55%
(E) 60%
Example 2
Find the value of profit of company A in the year 2014.
(A) Rs. 33.33 crore
(B) Rs. 45 crore
(C) Rs. 50 crore
(D) Rs. 55 crore
(E) Rs. 66.66 crore
Example 3
Which company had the highest profit percentage in the year
2014?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) Both A and D
Expenses =
For company B:
Ratio of the sales of company B to the expenses of company
D = 4:5
Therefore, sales of company
Sales of company B in 2014 = Rs. 80 crore
Expenses of company B in 2014 = Rs. 50 crore
Therefore, profit of company B in 2014 = Rs. 30 crore
Thus overall performance of companies can be tabulated as:
2 DI-Tables
A DI-Table is a set of data arranged in rows and columns. It is one
of the most common ways of putting information across to people.
A table consists of several boxes with information inside. The first
row and the first column are generally used to denote the titles.
Data for Examples 1–3: The following table gives the sales of four
companies in lakhs across four years from 2004 to 2007. Read the
data carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Example 1
By what percentage are the sales of company B in the year
2005 more than that of company A in the year 2004?
(A) 20%
(B) 33.33%
(C) 38.33%
(D) 40%
(E) 46%
Solution
Required value
Example 2
By how much value is the average sale of company C more
than the average sale of company D during the period?
(A) 35 lakhs
(B) 38 lakhs
(C) 45 lakhs
(D) 55 lakhs
(E) None of these
Solution
Average sales of company C is
170 + 185 + 190 + 200 =
Average sales of company D is 110 + 125 + 140 + 150 =
Difference =
Example 3
If the four companies account for a 40% market share by
value in 2007, what was the total sale of the market?
(A) 14 crore
(B) 16 crore
(C) 17.5 crore
(D) 18 crore
(E) 20 crore
Solution
Total sales of the four companies in 2007 = 160 + 190 + 200
+ 150 = Rs. 700 lakh
This is 40% of the total sales. Therefore,
Total sales = 700 × 2.5 lakh = Rs. 17.5 crores
≤ 10 marks 15
≤ 20 marks 25
≤ 30 marks 40
≤ 40 marks 60
≤ 50 marks 85
≤ 60 marks 100
Example 4
What is the number of students who received marks in the
range of 21–30 in the admission test?
(A) 240
(B) 400
(C) 500
(D) 640
(E) None of these
Solution
As per the problem, 2,000 students applied out of which 20%
did not appear for the test.
Number of students who appeared = 80% of 2,000 = 1,600
Percentage of students in the range of 21–30 marks = 40 −
25 = 15%
Therefore, 15% of 1,600 = 240 students
Example 5
If more than 40 marks are required to qualify for the next
round, find the difference between the number of students
who qualified for the next round and those who failed to
qualify for the next round.
(A) 160
(B) 240
(C) 320
(D) 380
(E) 420
Solution
Percentage of students who qualified for the next round =
40%
Percentage of students who did not qualify for the next round
= 60%
Difference between the two = 20% of 1600 = 320 students
Example 6
By what percentage is the number of students in the range of
41–50 marks more than those in the range of 0–10 marks?
(A) 10%
(B) 20%
(C) 33.33%
(D) 55.55%
(E) 66.66%
Solution
Percentage of students in the range of 41–50 marks = 25%
Percentage of students in the range of 0–10 marks = 15%
Therefore,
Solution
As per the problem:
46. of the total = Rs. 69 lakh
Total = Rs. 150 lakh
Difference between equity and debt = 70 − 25 = 45% of the
total = 0.45 × 150 = 4.5 × 15 = Rs. 67.5 lakh
Example 8
If the difference between the contribution of equity to that of
all the other components put together in the proposed
structure is Rs. 16 lakh, find the value of cash in the existing
structure.
(A) Rs. 1.6 lakh
(B) Rs. 2 lakh
(C) Rs. 2.6 lakh
(D) Rs. 4 lakh
(E) Cannot be determined
Solution
As per the problem:
40. of the total = Rs. 16 lakh
Total = Rs. 40 lakh
Cash in the existing structure = 4% of 40 lakh = Rs. 1.6 lakh
Example 9
By what percentage is the contribution of equity in the
proposed structure more as compared to the contribution of
equity in the existing structure?
(A) 42%
(B) 100%
(C) 120%
(D) 150%
(E) 200%
Solution
1 Bar Graph
A bar graph is a chart whose main purpose is to compare two or
more categories. This comparison is done on the basis of
quantitative value associated with each category. Horizontal or
vertical bars are used to show comparisons among categories.
Data for Examples 1–3: The given bar graph shows the total sales
value (in Rs. lakh) and the profit percentage for a company ABC
Ltd. for 4 years from 2008 to 2011. Answer the questions based on
the following data.
Example 1
If the total sales is equivalent to the selling price, what is the
value of profit for ABC Ltd. for the year 2010?
(A) Rs. 35 lakh
(B) Rs. 38.75 lakh
(C) Rs. 40 lakh
(D) Rs. 45 lakh
(E) None of these
Solution
We need to find out the profit for the year 2010. Therefore,
The correct answer is A.
Example 2
Which year has shown the highest percentage change in
profit %?
(A) 2008
(B) 2009
(C) 2010
(D) 2011
(E) Cannot be determined
Solution
Percentage change in profits for 2008 cannot be calculated
since we do not know the profits for 2007.
Percentage change in profits for 2009 = = 25%
Example 3
By what percentage is the sales in 2011 more or less than the
cost in 2008?
(A) 50%
(B) 100%
(C) 200%
(D) 250%
(D) 300%
Solution
Cost in 2008 = Rs. 100 lakhs
Sales in 2011 = Rs. 200 lakhs
Percentage change =
Example 4
What was the total strength of Section B in the previous year?
(A) 60
(B) 90
(C) 80
(D) 70
(E) Cannot be determined
Example 5
In the previous year, what was the ratio of the number of
students in Section C to those in Section D?
(A) 1:3
(B) 3:1
(C) 2:3
(D) 3:5
(E) None of these
Example 6
Which among the following sections saw the least change in
the number of students from the previous year?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) A and C
Example 7
If 50% of the total decrease is attributed to students shifting to
other schools while the entire increase is due to new
admissions, what is the difference between the number of
students shifting to other schools and new admissions?
(A) 18
(B) 21
(C) 26
(D) 39
(E) 60
Example 8
Which two sections saw a decrease in the number of students
in the current year as compared to the previous year?
(A) B and C
(B) A and D
(C) B and D
(D) A and C
(E) A and B
Example 9
Find the number of students in the previous year in Section D.
(A) 40
(B) 120
(C) 60
(D) 80
(E) Cannot be determined
General Explanation for Examples 4–9:
Let y be the variable which represents the number of students
in each of the four sections in the previous year. Section C
has 88 students and there is a percent change of 10% from
the previous year. The only possibility is
Example 1
If S is the others category and company X has a share of
30% in this category, find the number of TV sets sold by
company X in the year 2011.
(A) 10,000
(B) 12,000
(C) 15,000
(D) 18,000
(E) 20,000
Solution
Total sale of the others category = 10% of 4,00,000 = 40,000
Sales of company X = 30% of 40,000 = 12,000
Example 2
If the total sale of two products P2 and P3 of company P is
30000, find the percentage contribution of products P2 and
P3 to the total sales unit-wise of company P in the year 2011.
(A) 37.5%
(B) 40%
(C) 50%
(D) 60%
(D) 75%
Solution
P2 and P3 have together sold 30000 units.
Company P has a total sale of 20% of 4,00,000 = 80,000
Therefore, contribution of P2 and P3
Example 3
By what percentage is the market share of R more than the
market share of P?
(A) 20%
(B) 25%
(C) 30%
(D) 35%
(D) 40%
Solution
The percentage by which the market share of R is more than
that of P is
1 Data Sufficiency
Introduction
The primary objective of data sufficiency questions is to find out
whether the given data is sufficient to answer the question asked.
In order to understand data sufficiency, we will need to look at the
following aspects:
1. The structure of a data sufficiency problem.
2. The answer choices of a data sufficiency problem.
3. How to approach a data sufficiency problem.
4. The common errors in a data sufficiency problem.
Answer choices
The answer choices given in a data sufficiency problem are as
follows:
(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (2) ALONE is
not sufficient.
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (1) ALONE is
not sufficient.
(C) BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient, but
NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
(D) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
(E) Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient, and
additional data is needed.
Note: Although the options will be the same in most of the cases, it
is not necessary that they will always be the same. It is suggested
that a student should always read the instructions about the options
while answering the question.
Example 1
What is the value of x?
(1) x2 − 5x + 6 = 0
Solution
If we solve for x, the quadratic equation will give the values as
x = 2 or x = 3.
So the given problem has more than one answer. This is not
acceptable in data sufficiency. We always need a unique
solution. It is here that data sufficiency is different from
quantitative skills.
Example 2
Can I fill up the tank of 100 L capacity completely?
(Measurements are accurate and there should be no
overflow.)
(1) I have a bucket which can exactly measure 5 L.
(2) I have a mug which can exactly measure 3 L.
Solution
Many students make the mistake of thinking that only
statement I alone can answer the question asked because
the important aspect for them is that the tank should be filled
whereas the important aspect is whether we can answer the
question uniquely about the tank getting filled.
Therefore, in the above example, using statement I alone, the
answer is yes, the tank can be filled completely and so
statement 1 alone is able to answer the question asked.
Similarly, using statement 2 alone, the answer is a definite no,
the tank cannot be filled completely and so statement 2 alone
is also able to answer the question asked.
So, as per the standard answer options of data sufficiency,
the correct answer to the question is option (D).
Example 3
What is the value of x?
(1) x3 = −27
(2) x2 = 9
Solution
If we use the first statement alone, we will get a unique value
of x = −3. Therefore, the question can be answered by using
statement 1 alone.
If we use statement 2 alone, we will get two values of x as 3
and −3. As data sufficiency requires a unique answer, the
question cannot be answered by using statement 2 alone.
Example 4
On which day was Naveen born?
(1) On 25th November, Naveen celebrated his ninth birthday.
(2) Naveen was born on a Friday.
Solution
The question is asking about the day when Naveen was born
and not the date. From statement 1 we get the date but not
the day.
Using statement 2 alone, we can conclude that Naveen was
born on a Friday.
The question can be answered by using statement 2 alone
but not by using statement 1 alone.
Example 5
What is the speed of the train?
(1) In an hour, the train covers a distance of 50 km after
stopping for 15 min.
(2) The train is 150 m long and crosses a man moving in the
same direction at 5 km/h in 10 s.
Solution
We can find the speed of the train using statement 1 alone.
Do remember, the question does not want us to find the value
of the speed of the train.
What is required to be known is that distance covered and
time taken can be used to find out the speed of a moving
body.
Similarly, using statement 2 alone, the question can be
answered.
Example 6
What is the profit earned in rupees?
(1) The marked price is Rs. 400 and it is sold at a discount of
30%.
(2) The marked price is 50% more than the cost price.
Solution
In order to answer the question, we will require the values of
the cost price and the selling price.
While statement 1 can give us the selling price, we do not
know the cost price.
Also, statement 2 can give us the cost price but we do not
know the selling price.
Therefore, either of the two statements is not sufficient to
answer the question alone.
Both the statements together can answer the question asked.
Example 7
What is the ratio of the prices of A and B?
(1) Three years ago, their prices were in the ratio 4:5.
(2) In the last 3 years, the price of both A and B has increased
by Rs. 5000.
Solution
When we look at a question like this, many of us would be
tempted to mark option (C) as the answer.
The question cannot be answered by using either of the two
statements alone, and therefore, we will try and answer the
question by combining the two statements.
Let their prices be 4x and 5x, respectively.
Also, their prices have increased by Rs. 5000 each.
The ratio of their prices will be (4x + 5000):(5x + 5000), which
will not give any definite value of their prices.
Solution
The question cannot be answered by using statement 1 alone
because we do not know the efficiency comparison of a man
and a woman.
Using statement 2 alone and equating the total work to be
done in the section Time and Work, we have
Example 9
Find the value of the number if it is less than 100.
(1) The number is a perfect square.
(2) It is a multiple of 16.
Solution
Using Statement 1 alone, the question cannot be answered
as there can be a number of possibilities, such as 1, 4, 9, 16,
25, 36 and so on.
Using Statement 2 alone, there will again be a number of
possibilities, such as 16, 32, 48, 64, etc.
However if we combine both the statements, there is only one
possibility = 64.
Thus, C is the answer.
Example 10
Find the speed of the stream.
(1) A log of wood travels 4 km in 3 h.
(2) Speed of a boat while moving downstream is 7 km/h.
Solution
A log of wood does not have any power of its own so it moves
at the same rate as the speed of the stream. Thus, Statement
1 is sufficient to answer the question.
The speed of a boat does not tell us anything about the speed
of the stream. So Statement 2 is not sufficient.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
2. Express as a fraction:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 6
(E) 40
13. What is the difference between the sum of all even positive integers
between 1 and 100 (inclusive) and the sum of all odd positive
integers between
100 and 150?
(A) –575
(B) –475
(C) 225
(D) 475
(E) 575
15. The sum of the last digits of the numbers of the form 22n + 1, for n =
0, 1, 2, 3 and 4, when divided by 7 gives a remainder
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
16. If ‘a’ and ‘b’ are prime numbers, then what is the H.C.F. of the
numbers (a2 + b2), (a + b + 1) and (a2 + b2 – 1)?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) Cannot be determined
17. A three digit number is such that its hundredth digit is equal to the
product of the other two digits which are prime numbers. Also, the
difference between the number and its reverse is 297. Then, what is
the ten’s digit of the number?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 6
(E) 7
18. When a two digit number is divided by the sum of its digits, the
quotient is 4. If the digits are reversed, the new number is 6 less than
twice the original number. The number is
(A) 12
(B) 21
(C) 24
(D) 42
(E) Both (C) and (D)
20. A positive integer ‘A’ is a multiple of 180 and it has 40 factors. If ‘A’ is
less than 3000, then the value of is
(A) 54
(B) 60
(C) 240
(D) 270
(E) Cannot be determined
23. At a nature trail camp, one-fifth of the total members went rock
climbing; twice the square root of the total members went hiking up a
mountain trail. The remaining 10 were exploring in caves. How many
members went hiking? (Real NMAT Question)
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) 20
(E) 25
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
26. What is the digit in the unit place of (9843 × 12222) + 72959 + 2543 ?
(Real NMAT Question)
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
(E) 9
28. What is the LCM of nC1 and nC2, where n is odd? (Real NMAT
Question)
(A) n
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E) (n − 1)
30. If August 15, 1947 was a Friday, then, what was the day on January
26, 1950?
(A) Thursday
(B) Friday
(C) Saturday
(D) Sunday
(E) Monday
33. Puja born in 1900s realised that in 1980 his age was the square root
of the year of her birth. When was Puja born?
(A) 1929
(B) 1936
(C) 1940
(D) 1946
(E) 1949
37. If log30 3 = x and log30 5 = y, then find the value of log8 30.
(A) 3(1 – x – y)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E) None of these
(A)
(B) 1
(C)
(D)
(E)
(C) 5
(D) 6
(E) Both and
7. By selling the burger at Rs. 260 per piece, Sameer gains 30%. Find
the cost price of the burger per piece?
(A) Rs. 150
(B) Rs. 200
(C) Rs. 250
(D) Rs. 300
(E) Rs. 350
8. Ghosh Babu, a trader, marked up his goods 30% over the cost price
and then he gave the discount of 5%. What was the profit
percentage of Ghosh Babu in the whole transaction?
(A) 19.5%
(B) 21.5%
(C) 23.5%
(D) 25.5%
(E) None of these
10. ‘p’ is five times as large as ‘q’. By what percent is q less than p?
(A)
(B) 37.5%
(C) 60%
(D) 80%
(E) 90%
12. The interest rate, compounded annually, that would bring a principal
of Rs. 1,200 to a final value of Rs. 1,650 in 2 years is approximately:
(A) 17%
(B) 18%
(C) 19%
(D) 20%
(E) 21%
14. What is the value of the rate of interest if the difference between the
compound interests of the first and the second year is 4 times that of
the principal?
(A) 50%
(B) 100%
(C) 150%
(D) 200%
(E) 400%
15. Some amount was divided into two equal parts. The first part was
invested at 10% per annum at simple interest for 4 years. The
second part was invested at 10% per annum at compound interest
for 3 years. If the difference in the interests earned from the two
investments is Rs. 1000, find the approximate value of the total initial
amount.
(A) Rs. 28,485
(B) Rs. 28,985
(C) Rs. 29,485
(D) Rs. 29,985
(E) Rs. 30,485
16. The value of a car depreciates at the rate of 10% per annum. If its
present value is Rs. 121500, then what was the value of the car two
years ago?
(A) Rs. 100000
(B) Rs. 150000
(C) Rs. 200000
(D) Rs. 250000
(E) Rs. 300000
17. Ram lent Rs. 800 to a friend for 2 years and one-fourth of this
amount to another friend for 3 years. He received Rs. 275 in total as
simple interest. What was the rate of interest?
(A) 10.5%
(B) 12.5%
(C) 15.5%
(D) 17.5%
(E) 19.5%
18. At what interest rate per annum will a sum of money double itself in 8
years?
(A)
(B) 13%
(C) 15%
(D) 17%
(E) 19%
19. Parikshit invests Rs. 1546 in BNP bank at a certain rate of
compound interest per annum. At the end of 8 years, he finds that
his money has doubled. What approximately is the rate of interest
BNP bank paid him?
(A) 9%
(B) 12%
(C) 15%
(D) 16%
(E) 18%
20. Giri divided his property between his children Suma and Dev. Suma
invested her share at 10% per annum simple interest and Dev
invested his share compounded at 8% per annum. At the end of 2
years, the interest received by Suma is Rs. 13,360 more than the
interest received by Dev. What was Suma’s share if the total amount
divided was
Rs. 2,50,000? (Real NMAT Question)
(A) Rs. 50,000
(B) Rs. 63,360
(C) Rs. 1,13,360
(D) Rs. 1,50,000
(E) Rs. 1,63,360
21. If Rs. 23,579 triples itself in 3 years when invested in a bond for
which the investment interest rate is compounded annually, then in
how many years will it become 27 times of itself? (Real NMAT
Question)
(A) 6
(B) 9
(C) 18
(D) 27
(E) 81
22. Arvind sells clothes at a roadside market for which he pays Rs. 150
per day to rent a table plus Rs. 10 per hour to his salesman. He sells
an average of Rs. 78 worth of clothes per hour. Assuming no other
costs, which of the functions below best represents profit per day P
in terms of hours h that Arvind
works for?
(A) P(h) = 238 – 10h
(B) P(h) = 72 – 10h
(C) P(h) = 68h – 150
(D) P(h) = 78h – 160
(E) P(h) = –160h + 78
23. A batch of clips costs Rs. (p + 15) for a company to produce and
each batch sells for Rs. p (9 – p). For which of the following values of
p does the company make a profit?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
(E) 7
(B) 14 gain
(C) 4% loss
(D) 4% gain
(E) 2% loss
30. Yalda sold two MP3 players using two different online sites. She sold
one for Rs. 1,710 at a loss of 5% and the other for Rs. 2,520 at a
profit of 20%. What is her total profit or loss percentage? (Real
NMAT Question)
(A) gain of 4.8%
(B) loss of 5.1%
(C) loss of 6.4%
(D) gain of 8.5%
(E) loss of 9.2%
31. Satish works on 15% commission on the total cost of the book sets
he sells. He sold 10 book sets at Rs. 850 each, 5 at Rs. 750 each,
and 10 at Rs. 700 each. How much more commission would he have
made had he sold all the book sets at Rs. 850 each? (Real NMAT
Question)
(A) Rs. 100
(B) Rs. 150
(C) Rs. 300
(D) Rs. 350
(E) Rs. 400
32. The ratio of the cost price to the selling price of an item is 4 : 5. The
item is sold at a profit of Rs. 500. What is the selling price of the
item? (Real NMAT Question)
(A) Rs. 1,000
(B) Rs. 1,500
(C) Rs. 2,000
(D) Rs. 2,500
(E) Rs. 4,500
33. How much tea selling at Rs. 10.40 per kg should be mixed with tea
selling at Rs. 8.80 per kg to get a resulting mixture of 15 kg for Rs.
146.40? (Real NMAT Question)
(A) 6 kg
(B) 7 kg
(C) 8 kg
(D) 9 kg
(E) 10 kg
34. A chemist is mixing a solution of ink and water. She currently has 30
litres of mixture solution, of which 10 litres are ink. How many litres
of ink should the chemist add to her current mixture to attain a 50:50
mixture of ink and water if no additional water is added?
(A) 2.5
(B) 5
(C) 10
(D) 15
(E) 20
35. A full glass of lemonade is a mixture of 20% lime juice and 80%
soda. The contents of the glass are poured into a pitcher that is
200% bigger than the glass. The remainder of the pitcher is filled
with 16 litres of water. What was the original volume of lime juice in
the mixture?
(A) 1.6 litres
(B) 3.2 litres
(C) 4.8 litres
(D) 6.4 litres
(E) 8 litres
38. If a:b = b:c = c:d = 3, then find the value of (Real NMAT
Question)
(A)
(B)
(C) 3
(D) 6
(E) Cannot be determined
39. In what ratio, solution X which contains 50% milk and solution Y
which contains 30% milk be mixed so that the obtained solution
contains 45% milk?
(A) 1 : 3
(B) 2 : 3
(C) 3 : 2
(D) 3 : 5
(E) 3 : 1
41. The sum of the ages of the six members in a family is 130 years. If
the age of the children is in the ratio 1:2:6:7 while the combined age
of their parents is 82 years, find the age of the eldest child.
(A) 7 years
(B) 14 years
(C) 21 years
(D) 28 years
(E) 35 years
43. Two jars P and Q contain the same quantity of a mixture of milk and
water. The milk and water in P and Q are in the ratio 5 : 2 and 4 : 1
respectively. What will be the ratio in which these two mixtures have
to be blended to obtain a new mixture of milk and water in the ratio
of 3 : 1? (Real NMAT Question)
(A) 5 : 6
(B) 1 : 1
(C) 4 : 3
(D) 7 : 5
(E) 3 : 2
46. Two persons of average age 40 years leave a group and hence the
average age of the remaining group increases from 50 to 52 years.
Find the number of persons originally in the group.
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 10
(E) 12
47. If the average weight of 8th, 9th and 10th class is in the ratio of a:b:c
and the number of students in class 8th, 9th and 10th is in the ratio of
x:y:z, then the average weight of all the three classes considered
together is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E) Cannot be determined
48. The average age of a husband and wife who were married 5 years
ago, was 25 years then. The average age of the family including the
husband, the wife and two children who were born during the interval
is 16 years now. How old are the children now? [All of them have
different ages with integral values.]
(A) 1 year, 3 years
(B) 4 years, 1 year
(C) 2 years, 3 years
(D) 2 years, 2 years
(E) None of these
50. The average age of three people living in a house – man, woman
and child, is 24 years. If the man leaves and his mother stays in his
place, then the average age in the house becomes 34 years. How
much older is the mother than her son? (Real NMAT Question)
(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 30
(D) 32
(E) 36
52. A ski resort has enough wood to keep 20 rooms heated for 14 days.
If the resort decides to save wood by turning off the heat in 5
unoccupied rooms, and each room requires the same amount of
wood to heat it, how many extra FULL days will the wood supply
last?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 18
(E) 19
53. Working alone at their respective constant rates, Ajay can complete
a certain job in 4 hours, while Firoz can do the same job in 3 hours.
Ajay and Firoz worked together on the job and completed it in 2
hours, but while Ajay worked this entire time, Firoz worked for some
of the time and took 3 breaks of equal length. How many minutes
long were each of Firoz’ breaks?
(A) 5 minutes
(B) 10 minutes
(C) 15 minutes
(D) 20 minutes
(E) 25 minutes
54. A machine can manufacture 20 pens per hour, and exactly 10 such
pens fit into every box. Mahesh packs pens in boxes at a constant
rate of 3 boxes per hour. If the machine ran for 2 hours and was then
turned off before Mahesh started packing the pens in boxes, how
many minutes would it take Mahesh to pack all the pens that the
machine had made?
(A) 40 minutes
(B) 45 minutes
(C) 80 minutes
(D) 160 minutes
(E) 800 minutes
55. Two taps can separately fill a tank in 4 minutes and 5 minutes
respectively. Due to a small hole at the bottom of the tank, the two
taps together take 30 seconds more time to fill the tank. The hole
can empty the completely filled tank in
(A) minutes
(B) minutes
(C) minutes
(D) minutes
(E) minutes
56. Three taps P, Q and R when filling together can fill a cistern in 3
hours. After 1 hour tap P is closed and the cistern is filled in 4 more
hours. Find the time in which tap P alone can fill the cistern?
(A) 3 hours
(B) 4 hours
(C) 5 hours
(D) 6 hours
(E) 7 hours
58. Pipe X pours a mixture of acid and water, and pipe Y pours pure
water into a bucket. After 1 hour, the bucket got filled and the
concentration of acid in the bucket was noted to be 8%. If pipe Y was
closed after 30 minutes and pipe X continued to pour the mixture,
concentration of acid in the bucket after 1 hour would have been
10%. What is the ratio of acid to the water in the mixture coming out
of pipe X?
(A) 13: 2
(B) 2 : 15
(C) 3 : 20
(D) 1 : 5
(E) 2 : 13
59. Two taps P and Q can fill a cistern in 12 minutes and 18 minutes
respectively. If both the taps are opened together, how long it take to
fill the cistern?
(A) minutes
(B) minutes
(C) minutes
(D) minutes
(E) None of these
60. There are 12 workers who have been recruited to dig a 20 km long
tunnel. It takes one worker to dig 250 m of tunnel in a week. How
many more workers are needed to complete the work in 2 weeks?
(A) 12
(B) 18
(C) 20
(D) 24
(E) 28
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
64. Nishit works twice as fast as Pradeep. Nishit and Pradeep together
can work three times faster than Bhuvan. If Nishit, Pradeep and
Bhuvan together work on a job, in what ratio should they share the
earnings? (Real NMAT Question)
Note: The ratio of individual share of earnings for all 3 workers is the
same as the ratio of their relative efficiencies.
(A) 2 : 1 : 1
(B) 2 : 3 : 1
(C) 4 : 2 : 1
(D) 4 : 2 : 3
(E) 4 : 3 : 2
65. FDB Builders was awarded the contract to construct a bridge. The
company employed 100 workers to finish the work in 120 days.
When four-fifths of the work was completed in 80 days, the company
wanted to reduce the number of workers. How many workers can be
let go without affecting the completion schedule of the construction
of the bridge? (Real NMAT Question)
(A) 25
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 65
(E) 75
67. Sanya, Babli and Jhanvi started a new business. Sanya’s capital was
invested for a period which was equal to four times Jhanvi’s period of
investment whereas Sanya and Babli invested for the same period.
Also, twice Sanya’s investment is equal to Jhanvi’s investment, and
Babli’s investment is equal to of Sanya’s investment. If the total
year-end profit from this business yielded Rs. 4,40,000, then what
was the total share of Sanya and Babli in this profit? (Real NMAT
Question)
(A) Rs. 2,40,000
(B) Rs. 2,50,000
(C) Rs. 2,55,000
(D) Rs. 2,60,000
(E) Rs. 3,30,000
68. Tina, Ishan, Abhishek and Fatima jointly started a business and
invested a total of Rs. 80. If Tina’s share increases by Rs. 3, Ishan’s
share increases by one-third of his share, Abhishek’s share
decreases by 20% and Fatima’s share decreases by Rs. 4, all of
them would have equal amounts of money. What is Fatima’s original
share?
(A) Rs. 20.25
(B) Rs. 23. 50
(C) Rs. 23.75
(D) Rs. 24.25
(E) Rs. 24.75
69. Mukesh, Manish, Lalu and Jaggi bought a MOKIA mobile for £60.
Mukesh paid one–half of the sum of the amounts paid by the other
persons. Manish paid one–third of the sum of the amounts paid by
the other persons. Lalu paid one–fourth of the sum of the amounts
paid by the other persons. How much did Jaggi have to pay?
(A) £ 13
(B) £ 15
(C) £ 17
(D) £ 23
(E) None of these
70. Yogesh and Mohan, two business partners, invest Rs. 21000 and
Rs. 17500 respectively in their garment business and at the end of
the year both of them make a profit of Rs. 26400. Find their
individual shares in the profit.
(A) Rs. 14400 and Rs. 12000
(B) Rs. 12000 and Rs. 14400
(C) Rs. 14000 and Rs. 12400
(D) Rs. 14200 and Rs. 12200
(E) none of these
3 Algebra and Probability
1. If 3x3 – 7 = 185, what is x2 – x?
(A) –4
(B) 8
(C) 12
(D) 16
(E) 27
(B)
(C)
(D) a = p, c = r and b = 1
(E) a = r, c = p and b = q
4. If a, b and c are the three positive integers in geometric progression,
then the roots of the equation ax2 + 4bx + 2c = 0 are
(A) Imaginary
(B) Equal
(C) Rational
(D) Real
(E) Irrational
6. Which of the following could be the quadratic equation for which one
root is times the other root and the difference between the roots
is 1?
(A) x2 + 3x + 3 = 0
(B) x2 + 4x + 3 = 0
(C) x2 – 5x + 6 = 0
(D) x2 + x – 6 = 0
(E) x2 – 3x – 3 = 0
(E)
9. If , then
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
11. If and are reciprocals, and, which of the following must be true?
(A) ab < 0
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
12. It costs a certain chair manufacturing unit Rs. 11,000 to operate for
one month, plus Rs. 300 for each chair produced during the month.
Each of the chairs sells for a retail price of Rs. 700. What is the
minimum number of chairs that the manufacturing unit must sell in
one month to make a profit?
(A) 26
(B) 27
(C) 28
(D) 29
(E) 30
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1 and 2 only
(E) 2 and 3 only
18. If ab ≠ 0, =
(A) 1
(B) a – b
(C) (a + b) (a – b)
(D) (a2 + b2) (a2 – b2)
(E)
21. Three people sit down to eat 14 pieces of cake. If two of the people
eat the same number of pieces, and the third person eats two more
pieces than each of the other two, how many pieces are eaten by the
third person?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
(E) 7
22. There are a number of beads of three different colours: red, blue and
yellow, and each colour has a different value. If the value of a red
bead plus a blue bead is 4.25, the value of a blue bead plus a yellow
bead is 2.75, and the value of a red bead plus a blue bead plus a
yellow bead is 4.5, what is the value of a red bead plus a yellow
bead?
(A) 0.25
(B) 2
(C) 2.25
(D) 2.75
(E) 3
23. National Cricket Academy offers two different pricing packages for
cricket coaching. Under the ‘Regular’ pricing plan, classes can be
bought for a flat rate of Rs. 80 per hour. Under the ‘Exclusive’ pricing
plan, after paying an initial fee of Rs. 495, classes can be availed for
a rate of Rs. 15 per hour. If Karan buys the ‘Exclusive’ pricing plan,
how many classes does he need to take in order to have spent
exactly 40% less than he would have under the ‘Regular’ plan?
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 18
(E) 20
24. A student took a test in which 3 marks were given for each correct
answer and 0.5 marks were deducted for an incorrect answer. If the
test had 25 questions and the student attempted all the questions
and got 40 marks in total, what is the difference between the number
of correct and incorrect answers?
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 15
(E) 18
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) –1
(D) pqr
(E) p + q + r
27. Out of a group of swans, seven times half of the square root of the
number of swans were seen going away from a bank of a river and
only one pair remained in the water. How many swans were there in
the group?
(A) 9
(B) 16
(C) 25
(D) 36
(E) 49
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
29. Let f(x + 2) + f(5x + 6) = 2x – 1 for all real x. Find the value of f(1).
(A) –2
(B) –1
(C)
(D)
(E) None of these
30. For what value of K, the given set of equations would have no
solution?
4x – Ky = –7 and 5x + 3y = 2
(A)
(B) 0
(C)
(D)
(E)
32. , K ≠0
(A) K2
(B)
(C)
(D) 1
(E) Cannot be determined
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
35. Manoj plans to work at a coffee shop during his summer holidays. He
will be paid as per the following schedule: at the end of the first
week, he will receive Rs. 1000. At the end of each subsequent week,
he will receive Rs. 1000, plus an additional amount equal to the sum
of all payments he has received in the previous weeks. How much
money will Manoj be paid in total if he works for 6 weeks at this
coffee shop?
(A) Rs. 18000
(B) Rs. 20000
(C) Rs. 42000
(D) Rs. 63000
(E) Rs. 81000
36. If the collection of a movie is Rs. 100,000 for the first day, Rs.
120,000 for the second day, Rs. 140,000 for the third day and so on,
that is, the collection increases by Rs. 20,000 every day, then find
the total collection for the first 10 days.
(A) Rs. 1200,000
(B) Rs. 1400,000
(C) Rs. 1600,000
(D) Rs. 1700,000
(E) Rs. 1900,000
37. On January 1, Ajit put Re 1 in his piggy bank. Every day, he put in
Rs. 2 more than the total amount of money already in the piggy
bank. Which of the following expressions gives the total amount of
money in Ajit’s piggy bank at the end of January? (Real NMAT
Question)
(A) 230
(B) 231
(C) 3(230) – 2
(D) 3(231) – 2
(E) 3(230)
38. A person saves Rs. 200 more each year than in the previous year. If
he started with Rs. 400 in the first year, how many years would he
take to save Rs. 18,000 (excluding interest)?
(A) 10 years
(B) 12 years
(C) 15 years
(D) 18 years
(E) None of these
39. If the second term of a geometric progression is 6 and the fifth term
is 48, then what is its tenth term?
(A) 2236
(B) 2146
(C) 1536
(D) 1246
(E) 1146
40. p, q, r and s are any four positive real numbers, the minimum value
of is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 2
(E) 4
41. If a, b, c and d are in GP, then (a3 + b3)–1, (b3 + c3) –1, and (c3 + d3) –
1 are in ____ .
(A) AP
(B) GP
(C) HP
(D) AP or GP
(E) None of these
42. A man pays a rent of Rs. 70 for the first day, Rs. 80 for the second
day and so on, with the rent on each day being Rs. 10 more than the
rent on the previous day. What is the total rent paid for the first 20
days?
(A) Rs. 2,300
(B) Rs. 2,700
(C) Rs. 3,000
(D) Rs. 3,200
(E) Rs. 3,300
43. In one day, what is the sum of the numbers on which the hour hand
of a clock points each time the minute hand is on 12? (Real NMAT
Question)
(A) 12
(B) 78
(C) 156
(D) 160
(E) 178
(A) 35
(B) 37
(C) 39
(D) 48
(E) 63
46. How many five-digit numbers can be formed using the digits 5, 6, 7,
2, 9, 0 if no digits can be repeated?
(A) 64
(B) 120
(C) 240
(D) 600
(E) 720
47. Five friends, Akshita, Binod, Chetan, Dravid, and Eshan are to be
arranged in a line. How many such arrangements are possible if
Binod is not allowed to stand next to Dravid?
(A) 24
(B) 48
(C) 72
(D) 96
(E) 120
48. How many 5 digit numbers can be formed using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4,
5 and 6 (without repetition) that are divisible by 8? (Real NMAT
Question)
(A) 56
(B) 64
(C) 72
(D) 84
(E) 96
(B) 6C
5
(C) 5
(D) 1
(E) 6
52. A shop sells 5 different types of sweets. In how many different ways
a total of 8 sweets can be purchased?
(A) 125
(B) 495
(C) 795
(D) 840
(E) 930
53. A box contains 90 balls of different colours: 13 yellow, 19 green, 27
red, 10 black, 7 brown and 14 white. Find the smallest number V
such that any V balls drawn from the box will contain at least 14 balls
of the same colour.
(A) 69
(B) 70
(C) 72
(D) 76
(E) 79
54. Salim has total 9 friends, 5 girls and 4 boys. In how many ways can
Salim invite them for his birthday party, if there have to be exactly 3
girls in the invitees list?
(A) 80
(B) 160
(C) 200
(D) 240
(E) 320
55. There are 12 holes made in the ground. At least 3 are to be filled
with a red ball and the other holes can be filled with any colour ball.
In how many different ways can all the holes be filled from a box of 5
red balls and 10 mixed colour balls? (Real NMAT Question)
(A) 345
(B) 425
(C) 445
(D) 465
(E) 485
56. How many arrangements of the word ABOVE are possible such that
O is always in the middle? (Real NMAT Question)
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 12
(D) 24
(E) 48
57. In how many ways can a team selector select 6 batsmen from team
A?
(A) 18
(B) 20
(C) 24
(D) 28
(E) 30
58. In how many ways a team selector can select 10 players in team B
where 6 are bats men, 3 are bowlers and 1 is an all-rounder?
(A) 720
(B) 800
(C) 840
(D) 900
(E) None of these
59. In how many ways a team selector can select 11 players in team C
where 8 are bats men, 2 are bowlers and 1 is an all-rounder?
(A) 4455
(B) 4545
(C) 4465
(D) 4475
(E) None of these
60. Each factor of 210 is written on a piece of paper, and all the pieces
of paper are mixed up. If a piece of paper is randomly picked up from
this mix, what is the probability that a multiple of 42 is written on the
paper?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
61. As per a weather forecast, the probability of hail is for any given
day next week. What is the chance that there will be hail on both
Thursday and Friday?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
62. A classroom has 12 girls and 20 boys. of the girls in the class have
cell phones. If a child is selected at random from the class, what is
the probability that she is a girl who does not have a cell phone?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
63. A cube has sides numbered 1 through 6. If the cube is rolled three
times, what is the probability that at least one of the rolls will result in
a number higher than 4?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
64. There is an 80% chance that Deeksha will skip her lunch and 25%
chance that there will be a power failure. If these events are
independent, what is the probability that Deeksha will skip her lunch
OR that there will be a power failure?
(A) 20%
(B) 80%
(C) 85%
(D) 95%
(E) 105%
65. Bag A contains 3 white and 3 red beads. Bag B contains 6 white and
3 red beads. One of the two bags will be chosen at random, and
then two beads will be drawn from that bag at random without
replacement. What is the probability that the two beads drawn will be
of the same colour?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
66. Two different unbiased dice are rolled together. What is the
probability of getting a sum of more than or equal to 10 after adding
the numbers shown on the tops of both the dice?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
67. Two apples and five bananas are defective out of 10 apples and 20
bananas contained in a fruit basket. If Sanjeev takes out two fruits at
random, what is the probability that either both are bananas, or both
are good?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E) None of these
68. If ‘M’ and ‘N’ are two independent events and P(M) = 0.5 and P(N) =
0.4, find P(M/N).
(A) 0.4
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.6
(D) 0.74
(E) 0.88
69. The roll numbers of students in the class are in the range from 100
to 199 (both inclusive). If the teacher selects one student at random,
what is the probability that his/her roll number is divisible by 3?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
70. An integer x is chosen at random from the numbers 1 to 50. Find the
probability that x + ≤ 50.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
4 DI-Caselets and Tables
Directions for Questions 1–4: The table below* shows the information
about number of laptops (figures in 1000s) of different models produced
and rejected by a company over six years.
Number of laptops of different models produced and rejected by a company
over the years (figures in 1000s)
Directions for Questions 5–8: Refer to the following table and answer the
questions that follow:
Number of trousers produced by 5 factories over 5 months of 2016.
7. Which of the five factories has the highest ratio of the number of
trousers manufactured in April to number of trousers manufactured
in February?
(A) Prisma
(B) Shelby
(C) Kooper
(D) Wendy
(E) Caret
The table given at the bottom of this page depicts the marks obtained by
1000 students in English and Computer Science in an entrance exam
conducted by JET (Junior Entrance Test)
14. What is the total number of students securing more than 20 marks in
English and 40 marks in Computer Science?
(A) 40
(B) 70
(C) 260
(D) 840
(E) Cannot be determined
15. The percentage of the number of students securing more than 60%
marks in Computer Science is approximately what percent of those
getting more than 40% marks in aggregate?
(A) 20%
(B) 29%
(C) 31%
(D) 36%
(E) 42%
Directions for Questions 16–19: Use the table to solve the question.
The following table gives the sales of various sections of three departmental
stores that began operations in 2005. All values are in million dollars. (Real
NMAT Question)
16. For which year did the sales increase the most, relative to the
previous year, for the men’s section of Olivestyle?
(A) 2005
(B) 2006
(C) 2007
(D) 2008
(E) 2009
17. Which of the following represents the years during which the total
sales of men’s sections of the three departmental stores lay between
30% and 40% of the total sales of all the sections for the three
stores?
(A) 2005 and 2006
(B) 2005 and 2007
(C) 2005, 2006 and 2007
(D) 2005, 2006 and 2008
(E) 2006, 2008 and 2009
18. The highest percentage growth in the sales of all three stores
together, relative to the previous year, was achieved in:
(A) 2005
(B) 2006
(C) 2007
(D) 2008
(E) 2009
21. In 1993, what percentage of the Science doctorates from Asia were
from India?
(A) 6.87%
(B) 34.32%
(C) 37.34%
(D) 50.67%
(E) 62.65%
22. The table shows the number of only Engineering doctorates from the
same countries in 2003.
Directions for Questions 24–27: In the Copa America league, four football
teams namely, Brazil, Argentina, Uruguay and Paraguay, take part where
each team is to play against the other three teams at most once. For a win,
a draw and a loss, 2 points, 1 point and 0 points are awarded respectively.
After several matches have been played in the league, a table is compiled
which gives information about the points earned by teams at this stage in
the league. (Real NMAT Question)
It is also known that Uruguay has not won any matches so far. Brazil has
scored the same number of goals as other teams have scored against it.
Paraguay has lost at least one match. The total points of Brazil are not
known.
25. How many teams have played matches against every other team?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) 4
27. What is the difference between the number of drawn matches played
by Brazil and Argentina?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 0 or 1
(E) 0 or 2
Directions for Questions 28–30: Read the information given below and
answer the questions that follow.
1. What was the mode for the GPA among the 3,000 students in 2010?
(A) 3.7
(B) 3.3
(C) 3.0
(D) 2.7
(E) 2.3
2. What was the median GPA among the 3,000 students in 1980?
(A) 3.7
(B) 3.3
(C) 3.0
(D) 2.7
(E) 2.3
Directions for Questions 5–8: Go through the given graph and solve the
questions based on it.
6. All players, except those in Athletics and Cricket teams, are a part of
only one team. If there are a total of 76 male players in different
university sports teams, how many male players are in both Athletics
team and Cricket team?
(A) 11
(B) 17
(C) 37
(D) 54
(E) 76
11. If in 2005 the total population of the seven towns together was
approximately 55,000, what will be the approximate population of
Town F in that year below the poverty line.
(A) 2500
(B) 3000
(C) 3500
(D) 4000
(E) 4500
12. The population of Town C is 2000 in 2005. What will be the ratio of
the population of Town C below the poverty line to that of Town E
below the poverty line in that year?
(A) 207 : 76
(B) 76 : 207
(C) 152 : 207
(D) 76 : 307
(E) 87 : 207
Directions for Questions 13–16: Go through the given graphs and solve
the questions based on them. (Real NMAT Question)
13. In 2010, the total number of students surveyed in the five countries
who liked science was 8,450. Which statement is true about the total
number of students surveyed in the five countries who liked science?
(A) It remained the same between 1998 and 2008 but changed
between 2008 and 2010.
(B) It increased by 13.05% between 1998 and 2008 but decreased
by 15.03% between 2008 and 2010.
(C) It decreased by 13.05% between 1998 and 2008 but increased
by 15.03% between 2008 and 2010.
(D) It increased by 27.03% between 1998 and 2008 but decreased
by 25.19% between 2008 and 2010.
(E) It decreased by 27.03% between 1998 and 2008 but increased
by 25.19% between 2008 and 2010.
14. In the year 2000, the total number of students surveyed in the five
countries who liked science was 10% more than the total number of
students surveyed in the five countries in 1998 who did not like
science. Out of the total number of students surveyed in the five
countries who liked science in the year 2000, there were 2,000
students who liked only physics but not chemistry and biology, 4,346
students who liked only chemistry but not physics and biology and
5,579 students who liked biology. How many students surveyed in
the five countries who liked science in the year 2000 did not like
biology but liked both physics and chemistry?
(A) 925
(B) 1,000
(C) 1,320
(D) 2,425
(E) 2,835
16. All the countries which recorded a percentage change of less than
50% in the number of students who liked science from 1998 to 2008,
were surveyed for a second time in 2008 to verify the results. When
the same population was surveyed for a second time for those
countries, it was found that the data was 900 more than the actual
value for 2008. What was the percentage error in plotting the value
for 2008?
(A) 50%
(B) 60%
(C) 75%
(D) 85%
(E) 90%
19. In which of the following two years was the number of employees in
ABC Pvt. Ltd. the same?
(A) 2013 and 2017
(B) 2013 and 2015
(C) 2016 and 2017
(D) 2014 and 2017
(E) None of these
The bar chart represents the volume of cars sold in a particular year and the
sales per unit volume of a particular year.
20. By what percentage is the total volume of sales in the year 2015
greater/smaller than that in 2011?
(A) 45.6%
(B) 50.3%
(C) 54.2%
(D) 61.4%
(E) 66.67%
21. What is the difference between the average of the volume of cars
sold and that of the sales per unit volume for the whole period?
(A) 40.00
(B) 41.57
(C) 43.21
(D) 45.12
(E) 50.73
22. In how many of the years, the trend is such that when there is an
increase in volume sold over the previous year, then there is a
decrease in the sales per unit volume over the previous year and
vice versa?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Directions for Questions 23–26: The given graph shows the distribution of
a net property tax of 16.6 million dollars levied by a district government. Go
through the given graph and solve the questions based on it. (Real NMAT
Question)
23. If points A, O, and B can be joined to form a straight line, what was
the property tax levied by the government on Libraries?
(A) 3,40,000 dollars
(B) 4,88,235 dollars
(C) 5,64,400 dollars
(D) 16,60,000 dollars
(E) 18,30,000 dollars
24. The tax levied on Schools, Libraries, and Counties was 75% of the
total tax levied. The total tax levied on Townships and Cities and
Towns was 3.652 million dollars. What was the tax levied on Other
Units?
(A) 4,98,000 dollars
(B) 5,15,000 dollars
(C) 8,30,000 dollars
(D) 12,45,000 dollars
(E) 16,60,000 dollars
25. The combined tax levied on Townships, Cities and Towns, and Other
Units was equal to the tax levied on Counties. The tax levied on
Counties was half the combined tax levied on Schools and Libraries.
How much tax was levied on Counties?
(A) 25,00,000 dollars
(B) 27,50,000 dollars
(C) 32,60,000 dollars
(D) 41,50,000 dollars
(E) 83,00,000 dollars
26. The tax levied on Cities and Towns was 6 times the tax levied on
Other Units and 4.5 times the tax levied on Townships. If the tax
levied on Other Units was 4,98,000 dollars, what per cent of the total
taxes was levied on Townships?
(A) 3%
(B) 4%
(C) 13.5%
(D) 18%
(E) 20%
28. How many people below 40 years did not have an ideal body mass
index?
(A) 460
(B) 640
(C) 900
(D) 1,100
(E) 1,600
29. What percent of people who took the survey were obese?
(A) 10%
(B) 16%
(C) 25%
(D) 42%
(E) 100%
30. Of the total number of overweight people, what percent was in the
age group of 50 – 59?
(A) 4.50%
(B) 17.65%
(C) 21.42%
(D) 30.00%
(E) 45.00%
6 Data Sufficiency
Directions for Questions 1 to 30: A question is followed by
two statements, numbered (1) and (2). Using the information
provided and general knowledge, decide whether the
information given is sufficient to solve the problem.
(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) ALONE is
not sufficient.
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) ALONE is
not sufficient.
(C) BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER
statement ALONE is sufficient.
(D) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
(E) Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.
6. If a is an integer, is a + 1 even?
(1) a + 2 is an even integer.
(2) a – 1 is an odd integer.
7. If Udit saved Rs. 1200 of his earnings last month, how much did Udit
earn last month?
(1) Udit spent of his earnings last month on household expenses
and saved of the remainder.
(2) Of his earnings last month, Udit paid twice as much in rent as
he saved.
13. If the sequence S has 150 terms, what is the 121st term of S ?
(1) The first term of S is 32.
(2) The 138th term of S is 1248, and each term of S after the first is
18 more than the preceding term.
14. What is the selling price of the mixture if the ratio of the two qualities
of tea mixed is 3:4? (Real NMAT Question)
(1) Cost price of the first quality of tea is Rs. 180 per kg.
(2) Cost price of the second quality of tea is Rs. 225 per kg.
16. The absolute difference between a two digit number and the number
formed by reversing the digits of that number is D. What is the
number?
(1) D = 36
(2) The sum of the digits of the number is 12.
21. Is a = b = c = 1?
(1) a2 + b2 + c2 = ab + bc + ca
(2) a2 + b2 = 2c2
22. Pipe A can fill a tank in ‘a’ hours and pipe B can fill the same tank in
‘b’ hours. If both the pipes are opened together for 2 hours, then
what is the volume (in cc) of water in the tank after 2 hours?
(1) a = 6 and b = 8
(2) Volume of the tank is 100 cc
Statements:
(1) x =
(2) x64 = 8128
29. What is the probability of drawing a Rs. 5 coin from a bag containing
23 coins? (Real NMAT Question)
(1) Rs. 2 coins are 12 in number.
(2) Rs. 5 coins are 8 in number.
(1)
(2)
3.2 Answers and Explanations
The following discussion is intended to familiarise you
with the most efficient and effective approaches to the
kinds of problems common to quantitative skill
questions. The particular questions in this chapter are
generally representative of the kinds of problem-solving
questions you will encounter on the NMAT exam.
Remember that it is the problem-solving strategy that is
important, not the specific answers or details of a
particular question.
1 Number Properties
1.
Thus, we get
2.
3. of all the pencils is 5 pencils. These 5 pencils each cost Rs. 2, for a
total of Rs. 10.
The remaining 10 pencils cost Rs. 5 each, for a total of Rs. 50.
If all of these more expensive pencils are lost, then the lost pencils
represent of all the money paid.
4,000 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 5 × 5 ×5
= 25 × 53
180 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 5 = 22 × 32 ×5
These numbers have 2 × 2 × 5 in common, so 20 is the GCF.
The correct answer is C.
5k+ 1 = 5k51
5k51 = 2,000
Now divide both sides by 5:
5k = 400
So, 5k + 1 = 401
The correct answer is B.
9. For three consecutive integers, the possibilities are [odd, even, odd]
or [even, odd, even].
Since n could be an odd or an even, option (B) and (C) are
eliminated.
Option (D) is true only if n is even, but not if n is odd, so option (D) is
also eliminated.
In any set of three consecutive integers, one of the integers must be
divisible by 3, but not necessarily n, so option (A) is also eliminated.
For the same reason, (E) must be true, as n (n + 1)(n + 2) can be
thought of as “the product of any three consecutive integers.” Since
one of these integers must be divisible by 3, the product of those
three numbers must also be divisible by 3.
The correct answer is E.
11. Note that 25 x 4 = 100, and the other side of the equation involves a
power of 10. Separating out the ‘pairs’ of 25 and 4 on the left, we
have:
25546 = 10x + a
41(45255) = 10x + a
41(100)5 = 10x + a
4(1010) = 10x + a
40,000,000,000 = [a power of 10] + a
72 = 49
73 = 343
74 = 2,401
75 = 16,807
76 = 117,649
77 = 823,543
78 = 5,764,801
Pattern: 7, 9, 3, 1
To find the 86th item in a pattern of 4 repeating items, find the
remainder when 86 is divided by 4, that is, 2. The second element in
the pattern is 9.
The correct answer is E.
13. Remember that when dealing with evenly spaced integers, the
average is the middle value.
The sum of the even integers between 1 and 100 = 51 × 50 = 2550
The sum of the odd integers between 100 and 150 = 125 × 25 =
3125
The required difference = 2550 – 3125 = –575
The correct answer is A.
14. The LCM of 12, 18, 30 and 45 is 180. Thus, the answer has to be 8
less than a multiple of 180.
1080 – 8 = 1072 is the only number that fits and should be the
correct answer.
For n = 1, 22n + 1 = 22 + 1 = 23 = 8
For n = 2, 22n + 1 = 24 + 1 = 25 = 32
a2 + b2 = even number
a + b + 1 = odd number
a2 + b2 – 1 = odd number
Therefore, the H.C.F. of these numbers will be 1.
Similarly for the case a = b = 2, the H.C.F. will be 1.
When only one of them is equal 2, it will again give the H.C.F. as 1.
Alternatively,
17. The two digits at unit’s place and ten’s place can be only 2 or 3. So,
the hundredth digit must be 6. So, the number is either 632 or 623.
The difference between 623 and 326 is 297.
The correct answer is A.
18. Such questions can be solved easily on working with the answer
choices.
Checking option (C), we get
= 4 and 24 × 2 = 48
19. If we assume that any digit out of five digits is at fixed position, then
the remaining four digits can be arranged in 4! (24) ways. So, each
of the five digits will appear at each of the five places 4! (24) times.
So, the sum of the digits at each position is 24
(1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9) = 600 and hence the sum of all such numbers will
be
= 600(1 + 10 + 100 + 1000 + 10000) = 6666600
20. 180 = 22 × 32 × 51
A = 24 × 33 × 51 (As 5 × 4 × 2 = 40)
Therefore, the required value
22. 2A when divided by 9 will give a remainder of 2 × 7, that is, 14. This
can be divided by 9 and the required remainder will be 5.
The correct answer is C.
Hence, + (2x) + 10 = x²
x = 5, –
Remainder = 1! + 2! = 3
The correct answer is C.
26. We have to find the digit in the unit place of the following:
Cyclicity of 9 = 2 (9, 1)
Therefore, the given expressions can be written as below:
27. The divisibility rule of 9 says that the sum of the digits must be
divisible by 9.
So, checking the options one by one, we get:
Option A: 1 + 2 + 0 + 3 = 6 ➜ Not divisible
Option B: 2 + 2 + 5 + 6 = 15 ➜ Not divisible
Option C: 4 + 2 + 6 + 5 + 1 = 18 ➜ Divisible
Option D: 7 + 1 + 6 + 2 + 3 = 19 ➜ Not divisible
Option E: 9 + 2 + 4 + 2 + 3 = 20 ➜ Not divisible
The correct answer is C.
28. We have to find the LCM of nC1 and nC2, where n is odd
We know that,
Therefore,
And,
The correct answer is B.
29. Let the number of female employees be x and the number of male
employees be y.
30. In an ordinary year, there are 52 weeks and one extra day and in a
leap year there are 52 weeks and 2 extra days.
From August 15, 1947 to August 14, 1949, there is one ordinary
year and one leap year, that is,
1 + 2 = 3 odd days
So, August 15, 1949 would be a Friday + 3 days, that is, Monday.
31. In such questions, always start from today. If today is 8 March, 2018,
and it is Thursday, we can work backwards to April 20, 1984.
32. Since there are exactly 4 Wednesdays and 4 Sundays in the month
of January having 31 days, the 1st of January that year has to be on
Thursday because only then the month will end on a Saturday, with
the month having 5 Thursdays, 5 Fridays and
5 Saturdays.
The correct answer is E.
33. If her age is x in the year 1980, then she was born in the year 1980 –
x.
As per the question,
x= or x2 + x – 1980 = 0
Or x = = 44
So, log10(2 × 5) = 1
⇒ x = 11.
The correct answer is B.
37. log30 3 + log30 5 + log30 2 = 1
⇒ x + y + log30 2 = 1
⇒ log30 2 = 1 – x – y
⇒ 3 log30 2 = 3(1 – x – y)
⇒ log30 8 = 3(1 – x – y)
⇒ log8 30 =
38. Let ap = bq = cr = ds = k
So,
40. Given P =
= 34 + 32 + 25 = 122
The correct answer is C.
2 Arithmetic
1. The number that is 50% greater than 80 = 1.5(80) = 120.
Similarly, the number that is 25% less than 200 = 0.75(200) = 150.
12a = 48,000
a = 4,000
Machine X packs 4,000 books per hour.
The correct answer is A.
9. (p % q + q% of p)
=
= 2% of pq
The correct answer is C.
12.
13. Given that an amount ‘A’ becomes three times in 6 years which
means increment of ‘2A’ occurs in 6 years. That is, increment of ‘A’
occurs in 3 years.
For the amount to be 24 times, increment of ‘23A’ is required.
Therefore, it will take 69 years to become 24 times.
14. Let us consider the compound interests for the first and the second
year be CI1 and CI2 respectively.
CI2 – CI1 =
⇒ R = 200%
The correct answer is D.
Alternatively,
We know that difference between SI and CI for the first two years is
. It is given that difference of CI in the second year and that in
the first year is 4 times the principal. Since CI for first year is same
as SI for each of the years, the above difference is also the
difference between CI of the first and the second year.
So, = 4P or r = 200%
⇒x =
= 2x = = Rs. 28,985
P=
R = 12.5%
The correct answer is A.
Alternatively,
In case of simple interest, an amount doubles if the rate of interest
becomes 100%.
Let us consider the rate of interest is r.
Then, the time period ‘td’ in which total interest becomes 100% is
given by as below:
Suma’s interest
23. We know that profit equals revenue minus cost. Therefore, the
company’s profit is
p (9 – p) – (p + 15) = 9p – p2 – p – 15
= –p2 + 8p – 15
= –(p2 – 8p + 15)
= –(p – 5)(p – 3)
When p = 5 or p = 3, the profit becomes 0), so eliminate (A) and (C).
For p > 5, the profit becomes negative (that is, the company loses
money). The profit is only positive if (p – 5) and (p – 3) have
opposite signs, which occurs when 3 < p < 5.
The correct answer is B.
250 –10x = 0
So, x = 25
Now p for x = 25 is
= 10 – 0.75 = 9.25%.
The correct answer is C.
So,
So,
Required answer
= Rs. 3187.50 – Rs. (1275 + 562.50 + 1050)
= Rs. 300
The correct answer is C.
Alternatively,
Extra payment would be received in case of second and third
transaction.
So, extra commission
= 15% of (5 × Rs. 100 + 10 × Rs. 150)
= Rs. 300
or, x =
34. The chemist now has 10 litres of ink in a 30-litre mixture, so she
must have 20 litres of water. You want to know the amount of ink you
must add in order to make this mixture a 50% solution. Since no
additional water is added, the solution must finish with 20 litres of
water. Therefore, she also needs a total of 20 litres of ink, or 10 more
litres than the mixture currently contains.
The correct answer is C.
35. 200% bigger means ‘three times as big as’ the original. If the pitcher
is three times as big as the glass, then pouring the contents of the
glass into the pitcher will make the pitcher full. If adding another 16
litres fills up the pitcher, the 16 litres must be equal to the remaining
of the pitcher’s capacity.
Thus,
38.
39. Given that solution X contains 50% milk and solution Y contains 30%
milk. Using the Alligation method, we can determine the ratio of
volume of the two mixtures:
Similarly,
= 28 : 20 = 7 : 5
The correct answer is D.
44.
Required average =
47. Let average weight of class 8th, 9th and 10th students be ka, kb and
kc.
Let number of students in class 8th, 9th and 10th be jx, jy and jz.
48. The average age of husband and wife now is 30 years and the
average age of husband, wife and the children now is 16 years.
= = 15 students
Difference in age of mother and son can be calculated using Eq. (1)
and (2).
Required difference = 102 – 72 = 30 years
51. As the product of time taken to construct a hut and the number of
workers doing the work is always constant, we have:
(3 hours) x (40 workers) = (t hours) x (140 workers)
= approximately 51 minutes.
The correct answer is A.
53. Ajay and Firoz’ combined rate So, in 2 hours, they should
have completed = of the job.
Thus, Firoz’ break time = the amount of time it would have taken him
to do of the job = 30 minutes
54. First, figure out how many boxes worth of pens the machine
produced in the 2 hours that it was on.
20 pens per hour is the rate, and 2 hours is the time:
Work = (20 pens per hour) × (2 hours) = 40 pens.
Now, since there are 10 pens per box, compute the number of
boxes:
Time
55. Without the hole, the two taps will fill the tank in minutes
56. If x, y and z are the time taken by P, Q and R respectively to fill the
cistern alone, then
Also, P works for 1 hour, whereas Q and R work for 5 hours in total.
Then,
Multiplying Eq. (1) by 5 and subtracting Eq. (2) from it, we get
x = 6 hours
So, P alone can fill the cistern in 6 hours.
The correct answer is D.
57. P works for X + 5 minutes whereas Q works for X minutes only. So,
Or X = 4 minutes
60. Given that one worker can dig 250 m of tunnel in a week. It means
one worker in two weeks can dig 500 m of tunnel.
So, for digging 20,000 m of tunnel in two weeks, the number of
workers required is given by:
n= = 40 workers
61.
So, or y = 36
62. Since each of the two assistants work 3/4 as fast as Ajay, all the
three put together will work
Hence, if all three work together, they can finish the work in of the
time taken by Ajay alone to do the work.
The correct answer is D.
Alternatively,
Let Ajay does 4 units per day. The job is 4 units of work. So
assistants would do 3 units each per day. Hence, it takes them
days which is of what Ajay takes working alone.
= x + 2x = 3x
Efficiency of Bhuvan = =x
And, M2 = ?, D2 = 40, W2 =
⇒ M2 = 50
= × 440000
= 330000
The correct answer is E.
We get:
– 7 – 3 – 5 = 80
F = Rs. 23.75
The correct answer is C.
70. Since their investments in the business are for the same duration i.e.
1 year, profits will be shared in the ratio of their investments i.e.
21000 : 17500 = 6 : 5.
or,
Thus x = =4
Thus, x2 – x = 16 – 4 = 12
The correct answer is C.
n2–n–240 = 0
n2–16n + 15n–240 = 0
n(n –16) + 15(n–16) = 0
(n–16) (n + 15) = 0
n = 16 (since n can’t be negative)
Or, x2 – 50x + 49 = 0
The correct answer is A.
8. 2(x – 1)3 + 3 ≤ 19
2(x – 1)3 ≤ 16
(x – 1)3 ≤ 8
x–1≤2
x≤3
The correct answer is B.
9.
10.
11. If , then the two fractions must have opposite signs, that is,
Thus, D is the answer. The other choices may or may not be true.
The correct answer is D.
12. Let b equal the number of chairs sold. Each chair sells for Rs. 700,
so the total revenue is Rs. 700b. The cost is equal to 11,000 plus
300 for every chair sold.
(700b) – (11,000 + 300b) > 0
700b – 11,000 – 300b > 0
13. Note the absolute value sign in the original inequality. This
basically means that the solution could lie on either side of the
number line. So, you will have to solve this inequality in two
ways to get the entire range of solutions for p.
p + 5 < 9 or –(p + 5) < 9
p < 4 or p > –14
15. The simplest way to approach this question is to divide the marbles
evenly among all 13 people and then adjust this number so that
Manish ends up with the most marbles.
Let Manish have 5 marbles. Then each of his friends can have at the
most 4 marbles, giving a total of (12 × 4) + 5 = 53 marbles. We still
have 7 marbles left, so Manish may not necessarily end up with the
most number of marbles.
Then, let Manish have 6 marbles. Now each of his friends can have
at the most 5 marbles, giving a total of (12 × 5) + 6 = 66 marbles.
But we only have a total of 60 marbles, so if Manish keeps 6, there
is no way any of his friends can end up with a greater number of
marbles. Thus, the answer is 6.
The correct answer is B.
a2 – b2 = 0
or, a2 = b2
or,
The correct answer is E.
Then,
= (a + b) (a – b)
The correct answer is C.
(a + b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2
Then,
21. Let the number of pieces of cake eaten by each of the two people
who eat the same quantity be P and the number of pieces of cake
eaten by the third person be T.
According to the question:
P + P + (P + 2) = 14
⇒ 3P + 2 = 14
⇒ 3P = 12
⇒P=4
You can use the value of P to solve for T:
Therefore, the number of pieces eaten by the third person = 4 + 2 =
6
The correct answer is D.
22. Suppose the value of the red beads, the blue beads and the yellow
beads are r, b and y respectively.
From the question,
r + b = 4.25
b + y = 2.75
r + b + y = 4.5
You need to find out ‘r + y’
If r + b = 4.25, then r + b + y = 4.5 could be rewritten as:
4.25 + y = 4.5
y = 0.25
Since b + y = 2.75 and y = 0.25:
b + 0.25 = 2.75
b = 2.5
25. Let the number of persons be x and contribution per person be Rs. y.
Therefore, the total contribution = Rs. xy
Also, the total contribution
= (x – 3)(y + 10) = xy + 10x – 3y – 30
Since the contribution is the same, therefore:
xy = xy + 10x – 3y – 30
⇒ 10x – 3y = 30
⇒ 3y = 10x – 30
We find that,
So, we get:
28.
32.
34. a2 + 2b = b2 + 2a + 5
a2 – 2a = b2 – 2b + 5
Adding 1 to the both sides of the expression, we get
36. The collection figures are in AP, with the first term as 100,000 and
the common difference is 20,000.
Then,
S10 = [2a + (n – 1) × d]
= 5[200,000 + (9 × 20,000)]
= 5 (380,000)
= Rs. 1900,000
The correct answer is E.
= 1 + 3(230 – 1)/(2 – 1)
= 1 + 3(230 – 1)
= 1 + 3(230) – 3
= 3(230) – 2
The correct answer is C.
38. Here, the person saves Rs. 400 in the first year, Rs. 600 in the
second year, Rs. 800 in the third year and so on.
Hence, this forms an AP with the first term, a = 400 and the common
difference, d = 200.
According to the question,
Sn = [2a + (n – 1)d]
⇒ 18000 = [800 + (n – 1)200]
We have n2 + 3n – 180 = 0
⇒ n = 12
The correct answer is B.
Hence, r = 2 and a = 3
40. are all positive real numbers and for positive numbers.
A.M. ≥ G.M.
So,
or,
Clearly, (a3 + b3)–1, (b3 + c3) –1, and (c3 + d3) –1 are also in GP with
common ratio
The correct answer is B.
43. We have to calculate the sum of values of hour hand in a day when
minute hand is on 12.
Also, when minute hand is on 12, hour hand point towards inegeral
values between 1 to 12 because of exact hour completion.
45. To figure out the ‘limiting factor’, take the number of players available
for each position and figure out how many sets could be formed in
each case, if there were more than enough players in all the other
positions.
Batsmen: 23 players available ÷ 2 players needed per set = 11.5
sets = 11 complete sets.
Bowlers: 21 players available ÷ 3 bowlers needed per set = 7
complete sets.
Wicketkeepers: 9 players available ÷ 1 wicketkeeper needed per set
= 9 complete sets.
Thus, only 7 complete sets can be formed, using all of the available
bowlers and some of the other players. A total of 7 × 2 = 14 batsmen
are required, leaving 23 – 14 = 9 unused batsmen. Likewise,
7 × 1 = 7 wicketkeepers are required, leaving
9 – 7 = 2 unused wicketkeepers. In all, there are
9 + 2 = 11 unused players, who will not be on any team.
The correct answer is C.
46. For the first digit, there are only five options
(5, 6, 7, 8, and 9) because a five-digit number must start with a non-
zero integer. For the second digit, there are 5 choices again,
because now zero can be used but one of the other numbers has
already been used, and numbers cannot be repeated. For the third
number, there are 4 choices, for the fourth there are 3 choices, and
for the fifth number there are 2 choices. Thus, the total number of
choices is (5)(5)(4)(3)(2) = 600.
The correct answer is D.
47. The number of ways in which the friends can be arranged with Binod
and Dravid separated is equal to the total number of ways in which
the friends can be arranged minus the number of ways they can be
arranged with Binod and Dravid together.
The total number of ways to arrange 5 people in a line is 5! = 120.
To compute the number of ways to arrange the 5 friends such that
Binod and Dravid are standing together, group Binod and Dravid as
one person, since they must be lined up together. Then the problem
becomes one of lining up 4 students, which gives 4! possibilities.
However, remember that there are actually two options for Binod
and Dravid coming together: Binod first and then Dravid or Dravid
first and then Binod. Therefore, there are (4!)(2) = (4)(3)(2)(1)(2) =
48 total ways in which the five friends can be lined up with Dravid
and Binod standing together.
Therefore, there are 120 – 48 = 72 arrangements where Binod will
be separated from Dravid.
49. First distribute 2 balls in each of the boxes. So, we are left with 4
identical balls to be distributed in 3 boxes.
We know that the number of ways of distributing ‘n’ identical balls
among ‘k’ different boxes = n+k–1Ck–1 The number of ways = 4+3–1C3–
1 = 6C2 = = 15
50. Since the hexagon formed by joining those 6 points is regular, any
pentagon formed using 5 vertices will be congruent.
Hence, only one pentagon with distinctly different area can be
formed.
The correct answer is D.
Out of 4 boys, Salim can invite them in the said manner in = 5C3 ×
(2)4 = 10 × 16 = 160
The correct answer is B.
55. Out of total 12 holes, at least 3 holes with red coloured balls can be
filled in the following ways:
3 red coloured balls + 9 other coloured balls
= 5C3 × 10C9 = 100
= 28 ways.
The correct answer is D.
10 and 21
14 and 15
Out of the list of 16 factors, there are two multiples of 42 (42 and
210).
61. In this case, there are two independent events: hail on Thursday and
hail on Friday. The question asks about the probability that there will
be hail on both the days. Hence, we simply need to multiply the
individual probabilities together as follows to arrive at the answer:
62. There are 12 girls and 20 boys in the classroom. If of the girls have
cell phones, then there are girls with cell phones. Therefore,
there are 12 – 3 = 9 girls who do NOT have cell phones.
Therefore, the probability of choosing a girl who does not have a cell
phone is the number of girls without cell phones divided by the total
number of children, which is
63. The probability that at least one roll results in a number higher than 4
is equal to 1 minus the probability that all three of the rolls result in
numbers 4 or lower. For one roll, there are 6 possible outcomes and
4 ways in which the outcome can be 4 or lower, so the probability is
. Thus, the probability that all three rolls result in numbers 4 or
lower is . This is the result that you do NOT want;
subtract this from 1 to get the probability that you do want:
n(S) = 62 = 36
Required probability =
67. Let A be the event of getting two bananas and B be the event of
getting two good fruits.
Therefore, (A ∩B) will be the event of getting two good bananas.
P(A ∩B) =
68. Since the events are independent, the outcome of one will not affect
the other.
Given that P(M) = 0.5 and P(N) = 0.4
P(M/N) means the probability of the event M given that the event N
has already occurred.
So, the P(M/N) = P(M) = 0.5
The correct answer is B.
x+ ≤ 50 or (x – 8)(x – 42) ≤ 0
Or, 8 ≤ x ≤ 42
So, x can be anything from 8 to 42, that is, 35 numbers.
Required probability =
= approximately 108%
The correct answer is D.
= = approximately 23.33 %
= = approximately 19 %
= = approximately 23.25 %
= = approximately 20 %
= = approximately 22 %
7. While you can try calculating the required ratio for all the companies
to get to the answer, the faster way to calculate this question is to
look at the figures for the companies for April and February. Only in
the case of Shelby is the April figure greater than the February
figure. Thus, the highest ratio has to be that of Shelby.
The correct answer is B.
9. Only Sulpar and Sictor have more than doubled over the entire
period.
Overall growth of Sulpar
= 1168400
Required difference = 1168400 – 1163200 = 5200
The correct answer is D.
= = 118756
= 28.67% = 29%
The correct answer is B.
16. By the close observation of the table, we see that the sale for the
men’s section of Olivestyle increases only in the year 2008 (17.2
million dollars to 18.5 million dollars). For the rest of the years the
sale decreases.
The correct answer is D.
Therefore, years 2005, 2006 and 2008 represent total sale of men’s
section between 30% and 40% of the total sale.
18. The percentage growth in the sales of all three stores together in
2006
= = 1.24%
= = 6.66%
= = 7.31%
= = 3.21%
Hence, the highest percentage growth in the sales of all three stores
together, relative to the previous year, was achieved in 2008.
The correct answer is D.
19. Option A:
Total sales of the men’s section of Topper’s Top across all the years
= 59.8
Total sales of the women’s section of Topper’s Top across all the
years = 70.4
Total sales of the other’s section of Topper’s Top across all the years
= 109.9
Clearly, percentage of other’s section is less than 50%.
So, option A is incorrect.
Option B:
Sales of the women’s section of Topper’s Top increases from 2006
to 2009.
So, option B is incorrect.
Option C:
The men’s section sales at Oliveside are always the highest among
all three stores.
So, option C is incorrect.
Option D:
Average of all three sections in the year 2005
Alternatively,
From the figures of 1989 and 2003, we can easily understand that
except India, the figures for the rest of the countries are more than
doubled.
Therefore, least percentage increase in the number of engineering
doctorates was in India only.
Point of Brazil = 3
The correct answer is C.
= 60 + 60 + 50 = 170
Number of students who got selected during campus placement
drives
= 24 + 30 + 40 = 94
Required percentage
30. Total number of Electrical Engineering students from all the colleges
who got selected during campus placement drives
= 24 + 36 + 30 + 18 + 12 = 120
The correct answer is C.
5 DI-Graphs and Charts
1. The mode of a list of numbers is the number that occurs most
frequently in the list. In the bar graph for GPA, dark gray bars
represent the students in 2010, and the mode of that data set is
indicated by the tallest dark gray bar. This is at grade point average
of 3.3. There were 625 students with a grade point average of 3.3 in
the year 2010, more students than had any other grade point
average.
The correct answer is B.
3. In 2010,
350 students had a 4.0 GPA.
525 students had a 3.7 GPA.
625 students had a 3.3 GPA.
500 students had a 3.0 GPA.
Thus, there were 350 + 525 + 625 + 500 = 2000 students who
earned at least a 3.0 GPA in the year 2010, out of a total of 3000
students. This is of the students, or about 67% of the students.
4. In 1980,
150 students had a 4.0 GPA.
225 students had a 3.7 GPA.
300 students had a 3.3 GPA.
450 students had a 3.0 GPA.
In 1980, 150 + 225 + 300 + 450 = 1,125 students had a GPA of 3.0
or higher.
Thus, 3,000 – 1,125 = 1,875 students earned a GPA less than 3.0.
As a percent of the class, this was = 62.5%
5. Note that there are 5 vertical grid lines for every 10 players, so each
vertical grid line accounts for 2 players. On the Athletics team, there
are between 36 and 38 men (so it must be 37) represented by the
light gray bar. On the Athletics team, there are between 60 and 62
women (so it must be 61) represented by the dark gray bar. In
fractional form, the required ratio =
6. Note that there are 5 vertical grid lines for every 10 players, so each
vertical grid line accounts for 2 players.
Male athletes are represented by the light gray bars for each sport.
Sum the male athletes on each of the separate teams.
Males on Volleyball team: 0
Males on Athletics team: 37
Males on Tennis team: 9
Males on Football team: 10
Males on Cricket team: 17
= approximately 6750
The population below poverty line = 52% of 6750
= approximately 3500
The correct answer is C.
= 9000 × = 10200
= 10200 × = 11220
= 9000 × = 8550
= 2000 × = 760
13. From the table we made earlier, we know that the total number of
students who like science was 9,250 in 1998 and 6,750 in 2008
Now given that number of students who were surveyed and were
loving science in 2010 was 8,450
So percentage increase from 2008 to 2010 is
The correct answer is E.
n(A∩B∩Cc) = 1,000
So, number of students who like both Physics and Chemistry but not
Biology is 1,000.
The correct answer is B.
15. Difference between students who like science in 1998 and 2008 =
9,250 – 6,750 = 2,500
Sample size of survey conducted in country F in 2010 is 2,500
The correct answer is A.
16. The total number of students surveyed in the five countries in 1998
who liked science:
Country A: 3,600; Country B: 800; Country C: 2,250; Country D:
2,400; Country E: 200
The total number of students surveyed in the five countries in 2008
who liked science:
Country A: 2,400; Country B: 1,500; Country C: 300; Country D: 800;
Country E: 1,750
% decrease for:
Country A = 33.33%; Country B = 87.5%; Country C = 86.67%;
Country D = 66.67%; Country E = 77.5%
Only Country A recorded a percentage change of less than 50%.
Hence, only Country A was surveyed for a second time in 2008. For
the same population surveyed, correct number of Country A
students who liked science in 2008 = 2400 – 900 = 1500.
= = 5%
19. Looking at the above calculation, it is clear that none of the given two
years has the number of employees in ABC Pvt. Ltd. the same.
The correct answer is E.
22. This happens only in the duration 2011 – 2012, 2014 – 15 and 2015
– 2016. In rest of the duration the trend in both are same.
The correct answer is C.
Tax levied on Other units, Townships and Cities and Towns = 25%
Tax levied on Other units
= Tax levied on Other units, Townships and Cities and Towns – Tax
levied on Townships and Cities and Towns
= 4150000 – 3652000 = 498000 dollars
The correct answer is A.
= 150 + 20 = 170
The correct answer is B.
29. Number of people from age group of 20–29 who took the survey
were obese = 0
Number of people from age group of 30–39 who took the survey
were obese
= 10% of 30% of 2000
Number of people from age group of 40–49 who took the survey
were obese
Number of people from age group of 50–59 who took the survey
were obese
Number of people from age group of 60–69 who took the survey
were obese
3. Since we don’t have the total number of people given to us, or the
ratio of men to women, we cannot arrive at the answer even by
combining both the statements.
4. If of the students are boys, this means that of the students are
girls. So the required probability is . Statement 1 is sufficient.
Statement 2 does not help since we don’t know the total number of
students in the class.
The correct answer is A.
Then = 1200
By solving the above equation, we will get Udit’s earnings for the last
month; Sufficient. (Remember, you do not need to try to solve this
equation, it will only waste your time).
Statement 2 just tells us the relation between Udit’s savings and his
rent, which does not tell us anything about his overall earnings. So,
the statement 2 is Insufficient.
9. Using statement 1 alone, we can say that the price of coffee = x+5,
where x is the price of tea.
Using statement 2 alone, we know that the price of coffee = 3x–5,
where x is the price of tea.
10. You don’t need to actually calculate the 7th and 22nd roots of y;
doing so will only waste your time. However, the important thing to
note is that you will get a unique value for y from either of the two
given statements. What that value is does not matter to you. Thus,
the answer is D.
The correct answer is D.
11. You know that in a triangle, the largest angle lies opposite to the
longest side. So all we need to figure out is which of the three sides
is the longest.
From Statement 1, AC is the longest side, so it is Sufficient.
From Statement 2, we still don’t have a value for y. So it is NOT
Sufficient.
The correct answer is A.
12. You can’t do anything with either of the two statements because the
total number of students is not given to you, neither is the ratio of
Indian to
non-Indian students given.
The correct answer is E.
13. Statement 1 is not sufficient since it does not provide us with the
Common difference.
Statement 2 is Sufficient because it provides us with the common
difference (18) and also with one specific term.
The correct answer is B.
14. The two statements simply give the cost price of the two types of tea.
However, from the cost price we cannot get any idea of the selling
price. Thus, both the statements together are Not Sufficient to
answer the question asked.
The correct answer is E.
a2 + b2 + c2 = ab + bc + ca
or a2 + b2 + c2 – ab – bc – ca = 0
⇒a=b=c
Therefore, we cannot say that a = b = c = 1
Hence, statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Using statement 2
Since, the value of ‘V’ is not known, hence statement 1 alone is not
sufficient to answer the question.
Using statement 2
Obviously, this statement alone is not sufficient to answer the
question.
Combining both the statement together, we get:
z2 < z
It is only possible when 0 < z < 1
Statement 2 is sufficient to answer the question. Hence, each
statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.
The correct answer is D.
29. Statement 1 does not say anything about the Rs. 5 coin.
Therefore, statement 1 is not sufficient to answer the question.
From statement 2:
Total outcome = 23
Favourable outcome = 8
Probability =
Examples of Quantifiers
With With Countable With Both
Uncountable Nouns
Nouns
much many all
a little/little/very a few/few/very few enough
little
a bit (of) a number (of) more/most
a great deal of several less/least
a large amount a large number of no/none
of
a large quantity a great number of not any
of
a majority of some
any
a lot of
lots of
plenty of
Nominative
Accusative Case Genitive Case
Case
Also called the Also called the Also called the
subjective case. objective case. possessive case.
It refers to the It is called the It refers to the
subject of the objective case possession of
verb. because it refers to another noun.
the direct object of
a verb. On the
other hand, the
‘dative case’ refers
to the indirect
object of the verb.
A noun or A noun or pronoun A noun or pronoun
pronoun is in is in the objective is in the
the subjective case when it is possessive case
case when it is used as a direct when it is used to
used as the object, an indirect show ownership of
subject of the object, or an object an object.
sentence. of the preposition.
Examples: Examples: Examples:
Nancy Neha gave me Where did you find
participated in money. my books?
the state The teacher gave This pen is mine.
championship. the notes to the
I love dancing. student.
Pronouns
A pronoun is a word that replaces a noun or a group of words
used as a noun. It acts as a substitute for a noun.
Pronouns are classified into various categories. The more
important of these are –
1. Personal Pronouns
2. Relative Pronouns
3. Demonstrative Pronouns
4. Reflexive/Intensive/Emphatic Pronouns
5. Indefinite Pronouns
6. Reciprocal Pronouns
7. Possessive Pronouns
8. Interrogative Pronouns
In the following portion we shall focus on the more commonly
confused usage of personal pronouns.
Personal pronouns
Personal pronouns refer to the speaker or speakers. They
take the place of proper nouns (the names of people, places
or things) and are used to avoid repetition
They can be spoken in the First, Second or Third person.
First Person – The subject of the sentence is the person
speaking.
• I am so tired today!
• We are going to the mall.
Second Person – The subject of the sentence is the person or
people being spoken to.
• Subject pronouns,
• Object pronouns, and
• Possessive pronouns.
Subject Pronouns – Subject pronouns (I, You, He, She, It,
They, We) are used in place of the subject in the sentence.
Example: Richa and Riya study in Xth grade. They are twins.
“Richa and Riya” are the subject and “they” is the subject
pronoun.
Object Pronouns – Object pronouns (Me, You, Him, Her, It,
Us, Them) are used in place of the object in the sentence (the
noun that receives the action in a sentence). Example: After
Rayman bought a phone, it got broken within a week, “it” is
the object pronoun used to replace “phone.”
Possessive Pronouns – Possessive pronouns are used in
the place of a noun phrase to indicate ownership (My, Our,
Your, Her, His, Its, Their, Mine, Yours, Ours). They show who
or what owns something. For example -
• My apartment is big.
• Your dinner is ready.
• His favorite subject at school is English.
• This book is mine.
• The puppy dumped its water bowl.
Note the difference between possessive adjectives and
possessive pronouns:
Who, which and that are relative pronouns (that is, they are
used to refer back to a person or thing previously mentioned).
While we use ‘who’ to refer to people; ‘which’ and ‘that’ are
used largely to refer to things.
However, when introducing a restrictive relative clause, we
use ‘that’ or ‘who’ or ‘which’ without a comma.
Consider the following examples:
My car that is big consumes a lot of petrol (‘That’ is used for
the purpose of identification and definition. In this sentence,
‘that is big’ defines the ‘car’ being referred to. It indicates the
presence of more than one car and restricts the information
being provided to a particular car. )
My car, which is big, consumes a lot of petrol (in this
sentence, ‘which’ is introducing additional information that
does not impact the sentence as a whole; I can simply say –
“my car consumes a lot of petrol”)
We don’t use ‘that’ to introduce a non- restrictive additional
clause –
My bag, that is blue, is quite old (Incorrect)
My bag, which is blue, is quite old (Correct)
After two antecedents, one of which is the name of a person
and the other, the name of some animal or thing, use ‘that’ in
place of ‘who’ or ‘which’.
The lady and her pet dog that came yesterday have come
again today.
After words such as all, any, none, only, alone, nothing, use
‘that’ in place of ‘which’ or ‘who’.
Man is the only animal that can think.
All that glitters is not gold.
In case of any doubts, refer to the following table:
Use of Who and Whom
The pronoun ‘who’ is used in place of a noun/pronoun in the
nominative case while the pronoun ‘whom’ is used in place of
a noun/pronoun in the accusative case.
In case of any doubts, follow this simple rule; if you can
replace the word with ‘he’ or ‘she’; use ‘who’. However, if you
find yourself using ‘her’ or ‘him’ to replace the word, then use
‘whom’. The same principle applies to the use of ‘whoever’
and ‘whomever’.
Consider the following sentences:
Fakir is the man (who/whom) has been chosen (The correct
answer is ‘who’; as ‘he’ is the man who has been chosen)
Fakir is the man (who/whom) we have chosen ( The correct
pronoun is ‘whom’ as ‘We- subject’ have chosen ‘him’)
Use of Each other and One another
Each other refers to two items while one another refers to
more than two items.
At the campus I came across my colleague and we
complimented each other.
The guests at the party knew one another.
(The sentence implies that each guest knew the rest.)
The scientists at the conference were exchanging ideas with
each other.
(This sentence implies that the exchange was happening
between two scientists at a time)
The table given below illustrates the various kinds of
pronouns with an example of each kind. Fill up the table with
a few more examples:
Ability power to do
Abilities powers and skills, especially of the
mind
Capacity a potential but undeveloped power
Accede implies actual agreement
Concede yielding without necessarily
agreeing
Admit used for less serious matters
Confess implies a personal fault
Affection a feeling, an emotion or the state of
being
Affectation artificial manner: pretentious
display
Alternate occur in turn repeatedly
Alternative choice between two or more things
Artisan a handicraftsman; a mechanic
Artist a person who practices one of the
fine arts
Attenuate to make slender or thin, or to
reduce in force or value
Extenuate to lessen by partial excuse: to
mitigate
Beside at the side of or close to
Besides in addition to
Capable able or competent
Capacious roomy: of large content
Ceremonial formal
Ceremonious addicted or showing addiction to
ceremony
Collision violent encounter of moving bodies
Collusion fraudulent secret understanding
between ostensible opponents
Complacent self-satisfied
Complaisant obliging
Confidant person to whom one confides one’s
private affairs
Confident feeling or showing assurance
Conscious awake to one’s surroundings or
aware of
Conscientious obedient to dictates of conscience
Continuance duration
Continuation going on with: resuming something
Credible believable
Creditable praiseworthy
Credulous too ready to believe
Decry disparage or condemn
Descry make out dimly
Depositary a person entrusted with the
safekeeping of something
Depository storehouse
Economic pertaining to economy
Economical saving; frugal
Effectual answering its purpose
Effective operative; striking; fit for service
Efficacious producing desired effect
Efficient competent; capable
Eligible desirable; suitable
Illegible unreadable
Eminent distinguished; notable
Imminent about to happen soon
Endemic regularly found among a people
Epidemic prevalent for the time among
community
Euphemism substitute of mild for blunt
expression
Euphuism high flown style or writing
Expedient suitable; advisable
Expeditious done with or marked by
promptness
Factitious artificial
Facetious given to or marked by pleasantry
Farther more far (distance)
Further in addition to; promote
Forego to precede or go before
Forgo go without; relinquish
Historic noted in history
Historical belonging in the past
Honorary conferred by way of honor; unpaid
Honorable deserving or bringing honor
Human of or typical of people
a man, woman, or child
Humane benevolent compassionate
Humility humbleness
Humiliation abasement
Idle without work
Idol an image of a deity
Imaginary existing only in imagination
Imaginative full of imagination
Imminent about to happen soon
Immanent inherent; pervading the universe
Impassable that cannot be traversed
Impassible not liable to pain or injury
Imperial of an empire; of an emperor;
supreme
Imperious domineering; urgent
Industrial of industries
Industrious diligent
Judicial of or by a court of law
Judicious sensible, skillful
Last after all others
Latest most recent
Luxuriant profuse; florid
Luxurious fond of luxury; self – indulgent
Mean ignoble; intermediate
Mien person’s bearing or looks
Momentary lasting only a moment
Momentous or great importance
Naught nothing
Nought the figure 0
Negligent heedless
Negligible that need not be taken account of
Notable worthy of note; striking
Notorious known to deserve an ill name
Oar bladed pole used for steering a
boat
Ore native mineral yielding metal
Official properly authorised by an office
Officious intrusively kind, meddling
Ordinance authoritative direction; decree
Ordnance department for military stores
Peaceable disposed or leading to peace
Peaceful having or marked by peace
Peal long ringing of bells
Peel rind of fruit; thin soft bark of young
shoots
Persecute subject to ill treatment
Prosecute pursue or carry on; institute legal
proceedings
Perspicacious having sight; discerning
Perspicuous expressed with clearness; lucid
Physic medicinal drugs
Physique bodily structure and development
Popular of the people; generally liked
Populous thickly populated
Prescribe lay down authoritatively
Proscribe exile; ostracise
Presumptive that may be assumed to be correct
Presumptuous forward; arrogant
Raise set upright; make stand up
Raze completely destroy; wipe out
Regretful full of regret
Regrettable undesirable- unwelcome
Reverend deserving reverence
Reverent feeling or showing reverence
Rhyme identity between terminal sounds of
words or verse lines
Rime hoarfrost
Sanatory tending to health, curative.
Sanitary of the conditions that affect health,
especially with regards to dirt and
infections.
Seam line of junction between two edges,
especially those of pieces of cloth,
etc. turned back and sewn together
Seem have the appearance of being
Sear wither or blast
Seer inspired person
Sere withered; dried up
Sensual self-indulgent; carnal; licentious
Sensuous stimulating or operating through the
senses; aesthetic
Sensible having or showing good sense
Sensitive touchy or quick to take offence
Sequel what follows after; after effects;
upshot
Sequence succession; coming after or next
Significance meaning; importance
Signification sense or exact meaning or a term
etc.
Social relating to society, living in
communities
Sociable fitted for or disposed to
companionship or conversation
Spacious having ample space; roomy
Specious fair-seeming; apparently good, but
not genuine
Spiritual concerned with the spirit or soul
Spirituous containing distilled spirit
Straight without curves or angles
Strait narrow; strict
Team a side of players
Teem to prolific with
Temperance avoidance of excessive indulgence
Temperament idiosyncrasy; natural disposition
Temporal earthly; secular
Temporary lasting only a short time
Vacation fixed period of cessation from work
Vocation occupation or calling
Vain showy and valueless; conceited
Vane weathercock
Vein tube that carries blood from any
part of the body to the heart
Vale valley
Veil curtain
Verbal oral
Verbose prolix
Venal guilty of taking bribes; mercenary
Venial excusable
Virtual such in practice though not in same
Virtuous morally good
Wave undulate
Waive forego
Whit particle; jot
Wit intelligence; understanding
Willing cheerfully ready or given
Willful committed intentionally
Wreck destruction or disablement
Wreak inflict or cause a lot of damage
Yoke wooden neck piece; bond or union
Yolk yellow part of egg
Idiomatic errors
Certain nouns or verbs can be used only in a set idiomatic
pattern with certain prepositions or adverbs in order to
express new meanings or even completely different
meanings. Hence, it is important to learn the use of such set
of word. Prepositions in conjunction with words are
particularly notorious in this regard, as their usage is often not
in keeping with their more common meanings.
These are quite a few errors you need to remember.
For example, are the following sentences correct?
Example 9
Root, Prefix, or
Meaning Examples
suffix
a- without amoral,
amorphous,
asexual
ambi- on both sides ambidextrous,
ambivalent
ante- before or in front antecedent,
antedate
anti- against antipathy,
antisocial
aqu/aqua- water aquatic, aqueous,
aquarium,
aqueduct
Root, Prefix, or
Meaning Examples
suffix
bene- good benefit,
benediction,
benevolent
bi- two bifurcate, biannual,
bisect
bio- life biology, biography,
biome
cede/ceed go or yield precede, exceed,
recede
circum- around circumscribe,
circumnavigate,
circumvent
contra- against or opposite contradiction,
contraception,
controversy
cycl circle bicycle, cyclical
de- reduce or remove deescalate,
defenestrate,
decelerate
di-, dis- apart or away digress, disappear,
diverge
Root, Prefix, or
Meaning Examples
suffix
dict speak or say edict, dictation,
dictator, prediction,
contradiction
dox belief orthodox, paradox,
heterodox
du-, duo- two dual, duology,
duochrome
em-, en- into, in embrace, enclose,
encircle
esce becoming coalesce,
adolescence,
obsolescent,
tumescent
ex- out or way exit, exhale,
extirpate, exile
extra-, extro- beyond or outside extraordinary,
extraterrestrial
fid/e faith bonafide, fidelity,
confide
fore before, previously, forestall, before,
earlier forebear, forebode,
forecast
Root, Prefix, or
Meaning Examples
suffix
gram writing, letters diagram, grammar,
epigram, telegram
graph writing, recording stenography,
autograph,
graphics
hetero- different heterosexual,
heterozygous,
heterogeneous,
heterodox
homo- same homogenous,
homosexual,
homologous
hyper- excessive hyperactive,
hyperbole
hypo- under, below hypothermia,
hypocrite,
hypoglycemic
inter- between intercede, interlude
intra-/intro- inside, within introvert,
intramural,
intravenous
Root, Prefix, or
Meaning Examples
suffix
junct joining juncture,
conjunction,
disjunction
-less without listless, aimless,
heartless
-logy the study of biology, geology,
psychology
mal, male bad, evil malediction, malice
mis- bad or incorrect misprint,
misbehave,
misstep
-ness state of being likeness,
greatness
non- not, without nonfiction, non-
resident
ob- against or before obdurate,
obfuscate
omni- all, everything omnipotent,
omniscient,
omnivorous
pedi, pede foot pedestrian,
pedicure
Root, Prefix, or
Meaning Examples
suffix
phil love or affinity bibliophile,
philanthropy
pre- before or earlier pretest, preamble
pro- before or forward proceed, prologue
re- again, backwards reaction, rebound,
reuse
sub- under or lower submarine,
subprime
temp time temporal,
contemporary,
temporarily
tort twist tortuous,
contortion
trans- across or beyond transnational,
transit
un- not or opposite unimpressive,
unwanted,
unwarranted
Taking words apart
These affixes can have a dramatic impact on the meanings of
words. Knowledge of various prefixes and suffixes can help
you build understanding of words, their meanings and
usages.
Keep in mind that even though affixes are required for forming
words, they cannot stand alone in a sentence as they are not
words in their own rights.
Idioms and phrasal verbs
Idioms are a group of words/ expression that have a figurative
meaning- a meaning separate from the literal meaning
conveyed by the constituent words. Questions on sentence
completion also involve correct usage and idiomatic/phrasal
expression. Therefore, a comprehensive knowledge of
idioms/phrasal verbs and their usage shall be of great
assistance, not only for the examination, but also for
enhancing your understanding and comprehension of the
language.
NOTE: Do not confuse idioms with idiomatic usage. Here
is a list of some common idioms and constructions that
are tested for idiomatic usage of words.
Idioms
C
Cache hiding place, a collection of similar items
stored in a hidden or inaccessible place
Cacophony a loud harsh or strident noise
Cajole persuade by praise or false promise;
coax; wheedle
Callous hardened; without sympathy for the
sufferings of others
Camaraderie goodwill and light-hearted rapport
between or among friends
Canard unfounded false rumour; exaggerated
false report
Candid free from prejudice; impartial; frank
Capitulate to surrender under specified conditions;
come to terms
Capricious characterised by or subject to whims;
impulsive and unpredictable
Cardinal of foremost importance; paramount
Caricature a representation of a person that is
exaggerated for comic effect
Carnage the savage and excessive killing of many
people
Castigation punishment; chastisement; reproof
Cataclysm an event resulting in great loss and
misfortune; a great flood
Catholic relating to the Church; comprehensive or
universal
Cavalier casual and offhand; arrogant
Cede surrender formally
Celerity speed; rapidity
Censure harsh criticism or disapproval
Certitude certainty
Charlatan a person who makes fraudulent, and
often voluble, claims to skill or knowledge
Chasm a deep opening in the earth’s surface; a
difference of ideas, beliefs or opinions
Chagrin strong feelings of embarrassment
Chicanery deception by trickery or sophistry
Choleric characterised by anger
Circumlocution an indirect way of expressing something
Citadel a stronghold into which people could go
for shelter during a battle; fortress
Clairvoyant a person who can look into the future
Coercion using force to cause something to occur
Cogent powerfully persuasive
Cognizant marked by comprehension and
perception: fully informed and aware
Collusion secret agreement or conspiracy
Colossus a person of exceptional importance and
reputation
Comeliness the quality of being good looking and
attractive
Commensurate corresponding in size, degree or extent;
proportional
Commiserate to feel or express sympathy or
compassion
Compendium a concise but comprehensive summary of
a larger work
Complacent contented to a fault; self-satisfied and
unconcerned
Complaisant showing a cheerful willingness to do
favours for others
Concurrent occurring or operating at the same time
Condone excuse, overlook or make allowances for;
be lenient with
Congeal to thicken or to solidify
Connoisseur an expert in some field, especially in the
fine arts
Consecrate render holy by means of religious rites
Consequential having great significance, following as a
result or effect
Contentious argumentative; quarrelsome;
controversial
Conundrum a difficult problem; a puzzling situation
Convene call together
Convivial fun loving; fond of good company
Convoluted having numerous overlapping coils or
folds
Copious affording an abundant supply
Cornucopia the property of being extremely abundant
Corporal of or relating to the body
Corpulent excessively fat
Covert covered over; sheltered; secret
Cower show submission or fear
Craven an abject coward
Credulous believe too readily; gullible
Crestfallen brought low in spirit; dejected
Cryptic secret; obscure in meaning
Culmination a concluding action
Culpable deserving blame or censure as being
wrong or evil
Cursory hasty and without attention to detail; not
thorough
Cynicism feeling of distrust
D
Dabble work in an amateurish manner
Dainty delicate; delicately beautiful
Dandy a man who is much concerned with his
dress and appearance
Dapper neat in appearance and quick in
movements
Dauntless having or showing courage
Dawdle loiter; hang around; waste time doing
nothing
Deadpan impassive; with no show of feeling; with
an expressionless face
Dearth a scarce supply; a lack
Debacle a complete failure
Debase degrade; reduce in quality or value;
degenerate
Debauchery extreme indulgence in sensual pleasures;
immoral self-indulgence
Debilitate weaken (through heat, hunger, illness);
enfeeble
Decadence the state of being degenerate in mental or
moral qualities
Decapitate to cut off the head; behead
Decipher decode
Decorum appropriate behaviour; good manners
Decrepit weak and in bad condition (from old age)
Decry to condemn openly
Defection withdrawing support or help despite
allegiance
Deference high degree of respect or courtesy
Defunct no longer in use, force or operation
Delectable greatly pleasing, normally associated with
food; delicious
Deleterious having a harmful effect; injurious
Deluge a great flood or a heavy downpour
Demur to voice opposition; object
Demure shy
Denigrate to defame or belittle
Depravity moral corruption or degradation
Derelict deserted by an owner or keeper;
abandoned; run-down; dilapidated
Derision the act of deriding or treating with
contempt
Descry to discover by careful observation or
scrutiny; detect
Despondent the condition of being depressed
Detrimental causing damage or harm; injurious
Diatribe a bitter, abusive denunciation
Dictum an authoritative statement
Diffident lacking self-confidence
Digress turn aside, especially from the main
subject of attention
Dilapidation a state of deterioration due to old age or
long use
Dilatory wasting time
Dilemma a confusing situation; a difficult choice
Dilettante lacking the required professional skill
Dirge a funeral hymn or lament
Disabuse free somebody (from an erroneous belief)
Discern detect with the senses
Disconsolate sad beyond comforting; incapable of
being consoled
Disgruntled in a state of sulky dissatisfaction
Disparage to speak of in a slighting or disrespectful
way; belittle
Disquietude feelings of anxiety that make you tense
and irritable
Dissemble to disguise or conceal behind a false
appearance
Disseminate to scatter widely, as in sowing seed
Dissidence disagreement, especially with the
government
Dissuade discourage someone from a particular
course of action
Divulge reveal a secret
Dogmatic orthodox; conventional
Dolorous showing sorrow
Dregs the sediment in a liquid; the basest or
least desirable portion; residue
Droll arousing laughter
Dulcet pleasing to the ear
E
Ebb recede; lessen; diminish
Ebullience zestful enthusiasm
Eclectic combining elements from a variety of
sources
Ecstasy rapture; very strong feeling of joy and
happiness
Edifice building (of imposing size)
Effeminate having feminine traits or qualities;
characterised by weakness and
excessive refinement
Effervescence enthusiasm; vivacity; the process of
bubbling as gas escapes
Effete exhausted, infertile or no longer effective;
no longer possessing a unique quality
Efficacy power or capacity to produce a desired
effect; effectiveness
Effulgence brilliant radiance; bright and sending out
rays of light
Egregious bad or offensive; strong and offensive in
odour or flavour
Egress a path or opening for going out; an exit
Elated filled with excited joy and pride; overjoyed
Elegy a poem or song composed especially as
a lament for a deceased person
Elicit to bring or draw out
Eloquent persuasive, powerful discourse
Elucidate explain; make clear; clarify; enlighten
Elusive evasive; not frank; baffling; hard to grasp,
catch or understand
Emaciation extreme thinness and wasting, caused by
disease or undernutrition
Emanate issue forth; come out
Emancipate action or process of setting free,
especially from legal, social or political
restrictions
Embroil involve in dispute; complicate
Eminent rising above others; high; lofty;
distinguished
Emolument salary; payment for an office;
compensation
Emulate imitate; rival; try to equal or excel
Encomium warm, glowing praise
Endemic prevalent in or peculiar to a particular
locality, region or people
Endorse approve; support
Enervate to weaken or destroy the strength or
vitality
Engender to procreate; propagate; give rise to
Engross occupy fully; absorb
Enigmatic difficult to explain or understand
Enjoin to give orders to
Ennui the feeling of being bored by something
tedious
Enthrall hold spellbound
Entice lure; persuade to do (something wrong);
attract; tempt
Entrench fix firmly or securely
Epiphany a revelatory manifestation of a divine
being
Equanimity the quality of being calm and even-
tempered; maintaining composure
Equivocal deliberately ambiguous or vague
Erratic lacking consistency, regularity or
uniformity
Erudite extremely learned
Eschew to keep away from or to avoid
Esoteric known by a restricted number of people;
understood by few
Eulogy high praise or commendation
Euphemism substituting a mild, indirect or vague term
for one considered harsh, blunt or
offensive
Euphoria a feeling of great happiness or well-being
Exacerbate to increase the severity; to aggravate
further
Exasperate to provoke or annoy to an extreme degree
Exhume to remove from a grave; to dig out of the
earth something that has been buried
Exigent requiring immediate action or remedy;
demanding; exacting
Exodus a departure of a large number of people
Exonerate to free from blame
Expatriate to give up residence in one’s homeland;
to send into exile
Expiate to make amends; atone
Expurgate remove parts considered harmful or
improper for publication
Extirpate to destroy totally; exterminate
Extol to pay tribute or homage to; to honour
Exuberant full of unrestrained enthusiasm or joy
G
Gainsay to deny, dispute or contradict; to speak or
act against
Gait a person’s manner of walking
Galvanise to stimulate (someone) into taking action
Gambol gay or light-hearted recreational activity
for diversion or amusement
Gamut entire range
Gape open the mouth wide; stare wonderingly
with the mouth open
Garbled not orderly or coherent; lacking continuity
Gargantuan of great mass; huge and bulky
Garish over bright in colour; unpleasantly bright;
gaudy
Garrulous full of trivial conversation; talkative
Gauche clumsy (in social behaviour); coarse and
uncouth
Gaunt lean and angular; thin and bony;
emaciated
Germane relevant and appropriate
Gesticulate motion; gesture
Ghastly shockingly repellent; inspiring horror
Gibe mock; make jeering remarks
Giddy dizzy; causing dizziness
Gingerly very carefully
Gist essence; main point; substance
Gloat express evil satisfaction; look at or think
about with evil satisfaction
Gluttonous given to excess in consumption of
especially food or drink
Grandiloquence high-flown style; excessive use of verbal
ornamentation
Gregarious instinctively or temperamentally seeking
and enjoying the company of others
Grouse complain
Grovel show submission or fear
Gullible easily tricked because of being too
trusting
H
Hackneyed repeated too often; overfamiliar through
overuse
Hail frozen rain
Hale healthy
Hallowed blessed; consecrated
Harangue a loud bombastic declamation expressed
with strong emotion
Harbinger something that precedes and indicates
the approach of something or someone
Harrowing agonising; distressing; traumatic
Haughty proud and arrogant
Headstrong wilful; stubborn; unyielding
Heckle verbally harass, as with gibes
Heed pay attention to
Herald messenger; sign of something to come;
announce; proclaim
Heterodox characterised by departure from accepted
beliefs or standards
Hiatus an interruption in the intensity or amount
of something
Hone to sharpen; make perfect or complete
Hoodwink conceal one’s true motives by pretending
to have good intentions so as to gain an
end
Hubris overbearing pride or presumption
Husband use cautiously and frugally
K
Kernel central or vital part; core
Kindle call forth (emotions, feelings and
responses) or cause to start burning
Kinship a close connection marked by community
of interests or similarity in nature or
character
Kleptomaniac someone with an irrational urge to steal in
the absence of an economic motive
Knack special talent
Knave a deceitful and unreliable scoundrel
Knell tolling of a bell, especially to indicate a
funeral, disaster and so on
Knoll little round hill; hillock
Knotty intricate; difficult; tangled
Kudos an expression of approval and
commendation
M
Magnanimity liberality in bestowing gifts; extremely
liberal and generous of spirit
Maim mutilate; injure lastingly; disable
Maladroit not skillful
Malady illness
Malapropism the unintentional misuse of a word by
confusion with one that sounds similar
Malediction the act of calling down a curse that
invokes evil (and usually serves as an
insult)
Malevolent having or exerting a malignant influence
Malfeasance wrongful conduct by a public official
Malinger to pretend illness, especially in order to
shirk one’s duty, avoid work and so on
Malleable adaptable; tractable; yielding
Malodorous having an unpleasant smell
Manifest evident; visible; obvious
Manipulate control or play upon (people, forces, etc.)
artfully; maneuver
Mar spoil the appearance of
Martyr one who suffers for the sake of principle
Masquerade wear a mask or disguise; pretend
Masticate chew (food); to bite and grind with the
teeth
Maul handle roughly; batter; injure by beating
Maverick someone who exhibits great
independence in thought and action
Maxim proverb; truth pithily stated
Mayhem violent disorder
Meagre scanty; inadequate
Meander wind or turn in its course; follow a winding
or turning course; move aimlessly and idly
Meddlesome intrusive; interfering
Medley mixture
Meek submissive; patient and long-suffering
Melancholy gloomy; morose
Melee a noisy riotous fight
Mellifluous sounds that are pleasing to the ear
Menace something that is a source of danger
Mendacity the tendency to be untruthful
Mendicant a pauper who lives by begging
Mesmerise hypnotise
Metamorphosis change of form
Meticulous marked by extreme care in treatment of
details
Mettle the courage to carry on
Misanthrope someone who dislikes people in general
Misconstrue interpret in the wrong way
Misdemeanor misbehaviour; misdeed; a crime less
serious than a felony
Misnomer an incorrect or unsuitable name
Misogynist a misanthrope who dislikes women in
particular
Mitigate make less severe or harsh
Mollify make less rigid or softer; make more
temperate, acceptable or suitable
Mollycoddle treat with excessive indulgence
Morose showing a brooding ill humour
Mundane not ideal or heavenly; found in the
ordinary course of events
Munificent very generous
Myopic unable to see distant objects clearly;
lacking foresight or scope
O
Obdurate stubborn; resistant
Obeisance the act of obeying; dutiful or submissive
behaviour
Obese excessively fat
Obfuscate make obscure or unclear
Objurgating to reproach or denounce vehemently;
upbraid harshly; berate sharply
Obliterate destroy completely; wipe out
Oblivious inattentive or unmindful; unaware; wholly
absorbed
Obnoxious causes disapproval or harm to something
Obscure dark; vague; unclear; not well known
Obsequious attentive in an ingratiating or servile
manner
Obsolete outmoded; no longer used
Obstinate persist stubbornly
Obstreperous boisterously and noisily aggressive or
defiant
Obtuse slow to learn or understand; lacking
intellect
Obviate prevent the occurrence of; prevent from
happening
Occlude block passage through
Odious sincerely hated and despised
Olfactory concerning the sense of smell
Ominous threatening; of an evil omen
Omnipotent having unlimited power
Omnipresent universally present; ubiquitous
Onerous burdensome, tiring, heavy load that
makes one weary
Onus an onerous or difficult concern
Opprobrium a state of extreme dishonour and
disgrace
Opulence wealth as exhibited by sumptuous living
Ordain order by virtue of superior authority;
decree
Ordeal severe trial or affliction; difficult
experience
Orthodox traditional; (of someone) conservative in
belief; adhering to an established doctrine
Ossified set in a rigidly conventional pattern of
behaviour, habits or beliefs
Ostentatious intended to attract notice and impress
others
Ostracise avoid speaking to or dealing with; expel
Overbearing having or showing arrogant superiority to
and disdain of those one views as
unworthy
Overt open and observable; not secret or
hidden
P
Pacify soothe; make calm or quiet; subdue
Paean a formal expression of praise
Painstaking taking pains; showing hard work; taking
great care
Palatable agreeable; pleasing to the taste
Palate roof of the mouth
Palette board on which painter mixes pigments
Palindrome a word or phrase that reads the same
backward as forward
Pallid pale; wan
Palpable easily perceptible; obvious
Paltry meagre
Pan criticise harshly
Panacea hypothetical remedy for all ills or diseases
Panache flair; flamboyance
Pandemic widespread; affecting the majority of
people
Pandemonium wild noisy disorder
Panegyric a formal expression of praise
Paradox a statement that contradicts itself
Paragon a perfect embodiment of a concept
Paramount foremost in importance; supreme
Paraphernalia equipment; odds and ends used in a
particular activity
Paraphrase restatement of text in one’s own words
Parched extremely dry; very thirsty
Pare cut away the outer covering or skin of
(with a knife); trim
Parochial narrowly restricted in outlook or scope
Parry dodge; circumvent
Parsimonious excessively unwilling to spend
Partisan one sided; prejudiced
Passive inactive
Patent obvious; easily seen; open for the public
to read
Pathogenic able to cause disease
Pathos tender sorrow; pity
Patronise be a regular customer or client of
Paucity scarcity; dearth
Pauper very poor person
Peccadillo slight offence or fault
Pecuniary pertaining to money
Pedagogue someone who educates young people
Pedant a person who pays more attention to
formal rules and book learning than they
merit
Pedestrian lacking wit or imagination
Pejorative having a disparaging, derogatory or
belittling effect or force
Pellucid transparently clear; easily understandable
Penitent feeling or expressing remorse for
misdeeds
Penurious excessively unwilling to spend
Peremptory not allowing contradiction or refusal
Perennial recurring again and again
Perfidy an act of deliberate betrayal
Perfunctory hasty and without attention to detail; as a
formality only
Pernicious working or spreading in a hidden and
usually injurious way
Peroration the concluding section of an oration
Perspicacious having keen mental perception and
understanding; acutely insightful and wise
Peruse examine or consider with attention and in
detail
Pervasive spreading or spread throughout
Philanthropy donations to charity
Phlegmatic showing little emotion
Pillage the act of stealing valuable things from a
place
Pillory to expose to public derision, ridicule or
abuse
Pine have a desire for something or someone
Pique to arouse an emotion or provoke to action
Pith the choicest or most essential or most
vital part of some idea or experience
Pithy concise and full of meaning
Pittance an inadequate payment
Placate to appease or pacify, especially by
concessions or conciliatory gestures
Plagiarise take without referencing from someone
else’s writing or speech
Plebiscite a vote by the electorate determining
public opinion on a question of national
importance
Plethora extreme or excess
Pluck courage or resolution in the face of
difficulties
Plumb examine thoroughly and in great depth;
exactly
Plummet drop sharply
Polemic a controversial argument, as one against
some opinion, doctrine and so on
Potion a medicinal or magical or poisonous
beverage
Pragmatic concerned with practical matters
Prattle idle or foolish and irrelevant talk
Precursor something that precedes and indicates
the approach of something or someone
Predilection a predisposition in favour of something
Preen to be exultant or proud
Preponderant having superior power and influence
Prescience the power to foresee the future
Presumptuous unwarrantedly or impertinently bold
Prevaricate be deliberately ambiguous or unclear in
order to mislead or withhold information
Pristine immaculately clean and unused
Privation a state of extreme poverty
Probity having strong moral principles
Proclivity a natural inclination
Prodigal wastefully or recklessly extravagant
Prodigious so great in size or force or extent as to
elicit awe
Profligate shameless; dissolute; extravagant
Profound showing intellectual penetration or
emotional depth; pervasive or intense;
thorough
Profuse produced or growing in extreme
abundance
Proletariat a social class comprising those who do
manual labour or work for wages
Proliferate cause to grow or increase rapidly
Prolific productive
Prolix tediously prolonged or tending to speak or
write at great length
Promulgate put a law into effect by formal declaration;
promote an idea or cause
Propound put forward, as of an idea
Propriety correct or appropriate behaviour
Prosaic lacking wit or imagination
Proscribe command against; prohibit
Proselytise convert to another faith or religion
Prudence discretion in practical affairs
Puerile displaying or suggesting a lack of maturity
Pugilist someone who fights with his fists for sport
Punctilious marked by precise accordance with
details
Pungent strong and sharp
Pusillanimous lacking in courage and manly strength
Putrefy become putrid; decay with an offensive
smell
Q
Quack medically unqualified
Quaff to swallow hurriedly or greedily
Quagmire a soft wet area of low-lying land that sinks
underfoot
Qualms a sudden feeling of apprehensive
uneasiness
Quandary state of uncertainty or perplexity,
especially as requiring a choice between
equally unfavourable options
Quarantine isolation to prevent the spread of
infectious disease
Quarry animal hunted or caught for food
Quash put down by force or intimidation
Queasy causing or fraught with or showing anxiety
Quench suppress or crush completely; satisfy
one’s thirst
Querulous habitually complaining
Quibble argue over petty things
Quiddity the quality that makes a thing what it is
Quiescent being at rest; quiet; still; inactive or
motionless
Quirk a strange attitude or habit
Quisling a person who betrays his or her own
country by aiding an invading enemy
Quiver a shaky motion
Quixotic not sensible about practical matters;
idealistic and unrealistic
Quorum a gathering of the minimal number of
members of an organisation to conduct
business
Quotidian found in the ordinary course of events;
usual or customary
R
Rabble mob; noisy crowd
Rabid marked by excessive enthusiasm for and
intense devotion to a cause or idea
Racketeer a person who has dishonest and
fraudulent dealings
Raconteur a person skilled in telling anecdotes
Raffish marked by a carefree unconventionality or
disreputableness
Raffle lottery
Rail criticise severely
Rake immoral or dissolute person
Rally come or bring together; call up or
summon
Ramification one of the results following from an action
or decision
Rampant growing or spreading uncontrollably;
growing in profusion
Ramshackle in deplorable condition
Rancid smelling of fermentation or staleness
Rancorous showing deep-seated resentment
Rank offensive in odour or flavour
Rankle irritate; fester; annoy
Ransack search thoroughly; pillage
Rant speak violently or excitedly; rave
Rapacious devouring or craving food in great
quantities
Rapport close relationship; emotional closeness;
harmony
Rapt engrossed; absorbed; enchanted
Rapture great joy and delight; ecstasy
Rarefy make more subtle or refined; become thin
Rave an extravagantly enthusiastic review
Recalcitrant marked by stubborn resistance to
authority
Recant to reject or disavow a formerly held belief
or opinion
Recondite difficult to penetrate; incomprehensible to
one of ordinary understanding or
knowledge
Recuperate get over an illness or shock
Redoubtable worthy of respect or honour
Referendum a legislative act is referred for final
approval to a popular vote by the
electorate
Relegate assign to a lower position; reduce in rank
Remiss failing in what duty requires
Remonstrate censure severely or angrily
Renascence a second or new birth
Rendezvous a meeting planned at a certain time and
place
Renege fail to fulfill a promise or obligation
Repertoire the entire range of skills or aptitudes or
devices used in a particular field or
occupation
Reprehensible bringing or deserving severe rebuke or
censure
Reprisal a retaliatory action against an enemy in
wartime
Repudiate eject as untrue, unfounded or unjust
Requiem a song or hymn of mourning composed or
performed as a memorial to a dead
person
Rescind cancel officially
Resilience an occurrence of rebounding or springing
back
Restive being in a tense state
Reticence hesitation; shyness
Reverent feeling or showing profound respect or
veneration
Rhetoric study of the technique and rules for using
language effectively
Ribald someone who uses vulgar and offensive
language
Risqué suggestive of sexual impropriety
Robust sturdy and strong in form, constitution or
construction
Rupture burst
S
Sacerdotal associated with the priesthood or priests
Sacrilege blasphemous behaviour
Sacrosanct must be kept sacred
Sagacious acutely insightful and wise
Salubrious promoting health; healthful
Salutary synonym of salubrious
Salvage rescue (goods or property) from loss
Sanctimonious excessively or hypocritically pious
Sanction the act of final authorisation; restrictions
or limitations
Sanguinary marked by eagerness to resort to violence
and bloodshed
Sanguine a blood red colour; confidently optimistic
and cheerful
Sap deplete
Sapid full of flavour
Sardonic disdainfully or ironically humorous;
scornful and mocking
Satiate fill to satisfaction
Satire witty language used to convey insults or
scorn
Saturnine sluggish in temperament; gloomy; taciturn
Saunter a leisurely walk
Savour enjoy; have a distinctive flavour, smell or
quality
Scale climb up; ascend
Scanty meagre
Scapegoat someone who is punished for the errors
of others
Schism division of a group into opposing factions
Scintillate sparkle; flash; be animated; be full of life
Scion a descendent or heir
Scoff laugh (at); mock; ridicule
Scorch a discolouration caused by heat, sear,
burn
Scowl frown angrily
Scrupulous arising from a sense of right and wrong;
principled
Scrutinise examine closely and critically
Scurrilous grossly or obscenely abusive
Seasoned experienced
Secede withdraw from an organisation or
communion
Seclusion isolation; solitude
Sedate cause to be calm or quiet as by
administering a sedative to
Sedentary requiring sitting or little activity
Sedition incitement of discontent or rebellion
against a government
Sedulous marked by care and persistent effort
Seedy rundown; decrepit; disreputable
Seminal very important; containing seeds of later
development
Senescent growing old
Sententious given to excessive moralising
Sepulcher a chamber that is used as a grave
Serendipity good luck in making unexpected and
fortunate discoveries
Servitude state of subjection to an owner or master
or forced labour imposed as punishment
Sever cut off from a whole
Shard a broken piece of a brittle artefact
Silhouette a drawing of the outline of an object
Simper to smile in a silly, self-conscious way
Simulate create a representation or model of
Sinewy consisting of tendons or resembling a
tendon; possessing physical strength and
weight; rugged and powerful
Sinister threatening or foreshadowing evil or tragic
developments
Skirmish a minor short-term fight
Sloth a disinclination to work or exert yourself
Solicitous anxious or concerned; eager
Somatic affecting or characteristic of the body as
opposed to the mind or spirit
Sophistry a false or deceptive argument
Sophomore a second year undergraduate
Soporific sleep inducing
Sordid meanly selfish; dirty; filthy
Specious plausible but false
Spendthrift someone who spends money prodigally
Sporadic recurring in scattered and irregular or
unpredictable intervals
Spurious intended to deceive; fake
Squander spend extravagantly; waste
Static showing little if any change; angry
criticism
Steep let sit in a liquid to extract a flavour or to
cleanse
Stentorian very loud or powerful in sound
Stickler someone who insists on something
Stoic someone who is seemingly indifferent to
emotions
Stolid having or revealing little emotion or
sensibility; not easily aroused or excited
Strut a proud stiff pompous gait
Stultify deprive of strength or efficiency; make
useless or worthless
Stupefy make senseless or dizzy by or as if by a
blow
Stymie hinder or prevent the progress
Sublime lofty or grand
Succinct expressed in few words; concise
Succulent full of juice
Suffuse cause to spread or flush or flood through
Sully to soil, stain or tarnish
Supercilious expressive of contempt
Superfluous more than is needed, desired or required
Supplant take the place or move into the position of
Supplicate ask humbly (for something)
Surreptitious conducted with or marked by hidden aims
or methods
Swelter suffer from intense heat
Sycophant a person who tries to please someone in
order to gain a personal advantage
T
Tacit implied by or inferred from actions or
statements
Taciturn habitually reserved and uncommunicative
Tawdry cheap and shoddy
Tedium dullness owing to length or slowness
Teetotaller one who abstains from drinking
Temerity fearless daring
Tempestuous characterised by violent emotions or
behaviour
Tenacity persistent determination
Tendentious having or showing a definite tendency,
bias or purpose
Tenet a religious doctrine that is proclaimed as
true without proof
Tenuous lacking substance or significance; thin or
slender in form
Tepid moderately warm; feeling or showing little
interest or enthusiasm
Terse brief and to the point
Tether tie with a tether
Thrall the state of being under the control of
another person
Throes violent pangs of suffering
Thwart hinder or prevent
Timorous timid by nature or revealing timidity
Tirade a speech of violent denunciation
Titan a person of exceptional importance and
reputation
Toady a person who tries to please someone in
order to gain a personal advantage
Topography precise detailed study of the surface
features of a region
Torpid slow and apathetic
Torpor inactivity resulting from lethargy and lack
of vigour or energy
Torque a twisting force
Tortuous not straightforward
Tousled in disarray; extremely disorderly
Tractable easily managed or controlled
Traduce speak unfavourably about
Transgression the action of going beyond or
overstepping some boundary or limit
Transient one who stays for only a short time
Translucent allowing light to pass through diffusely
Transmute change in outward structure or looks
Travesty any grotesque or debased likeness or
imitation
Trenchant incisive or keen; vigorous; clear-cut
Truculent defiantly aggressive
Truism an obvious truth
Truncate make shorter as if by cutting off
Tryst a secret rendezvous; a date
Tumefy expand abnormally
Turbid cloudy; murky
Turpitude a corrupt or depraved or degenerate act
or practice
Tutelage teaching pupils individually
Tyro someone new to a field or activity
U
Ubiquitous being present everywhere at once
Ulterior being beyond what is seen or avowed;
intentionally kept concealed
Umbrage a feeling of anger caused by being
offended
Unabashed not embarrassed
Unconscionable lacking a conscience
Unctuous characterised by excessive piousness or
moralistic fervour
Undermine to attack by indirect, secret or underhand
means
Underscore give extra weight to
Undulate move in a wavy pattern or with a rising
and falling motion
Unfathomable impossible to understand
Unfeigned not pretended; sincerely felt or expressed
Unflagging unceasing
Unfledged young and inexperienced
Unfrock to deprive (a monk, priest, minister, etc.)
of ecclesiastical rank, authority and
function
Ungainly lacking grace in movement or posture
Unimpeachable free of guilt; not subject to blame
Unkempt not properly maintained or cared for
Unprecedented having no precedent
Unremitting not slackening or abating; incessant
Unsavoury morally offensive
Unseemly not in keeping with accepted standards of
what is right or proper in polite society
Unstinting very generous
Unsullied free from blemishes
Untenable incapable of being defended or justified
Untoward contrary to your interests or welfare
Unwieldy difficult to use or handle or manage
because of size or weight or shape
Unwitting not aware or knowing
Upbraid express criticism towards
Upshot the final issue, the conclusion or the result
Urbane sophisticated; polished; refined in manner
Usurp seize and take control without authority
and possibly with force
Usury the act of lending money at an exorbitant
rate of interest
Utilitarian having a useful function
Utopia an imaginary place considered to be
perfect or ideal
W
Waft be driven or carried along, as by the air
Wag move from side to side
Waive forego; dispense with
Wallow an indolent or clumsy rolling about;
delight greatly in
Wanderlust very strong or irresistible impulse to travel
Wane a gradual decline (in size, strength, power
or number)
Wastrel someone who dissipates resources self-
indulgently
Waver the act of moving back and forth
Welter be immersed in; a confused multitude of
things
Wheedle influence or urge by gentle urging,
caressing or flattering
Whet make keen or more acute; stimulate
Whimsical determined by chance or impulse or whim
rather than by necessity or reason
Whittle cut small bits or pare shavings from
Wilful done by design; intentional
Wily marked by skill in deception
Winnow blow away or off with a current of air
Winsome charming in a childlike or naive way
Wizened lean and wrinkled by shrinkage as from
age or illness
Wont an established custom
Wraith a visible spirit
Wreck a serious accident; smash or break
forcefully
Writ a legal document issued by a court or
judicial officer
Wry humorously sarcastic or mocking
X
Xenophobia a fear of foreigners or strangers
Xenophylic an attraction to foreign peoples, cultures
or customs
Xerothermic characterised by heat and dryness
Xylophone a musical instrument
Y
Yearn have a desire for something
Yeoman farmer who owns and works his land
Yield bear, produce or provide
Yoke a connection, usually between cows on a
farm
Yokel simple-minded country person; bumpkin
Yore time long past
Z
Zany ludicrous; foolish
Zealot a fervent and even militant proponent of
something
Zenith highest point; apex
Zephyr a slight wind
Zest great enjoyment or excitement; gusto
Zoology study of animals
Logical coherence and conceptual fit
Identifying the answer choice that is in consonance with the
logical construction of the paragraph is crucial for obtaining a
high accuracy level on these questions. One way to do this is
to understand the flow of ideas in the sentence, the tone and
the structure of the sentence. Certain strategies that can
prove helpful in this process are
Use your knowledge of Word ‘charge’ to narrow down your choices
Words can have a positive charge (a positive meaning), a
negative charge (a negative meaning) or a neutral charge
(neutral meaning). If you can identify whether your desired
answer should have a negative or a positive charge, you can
narrow down your choices.
Example 1
The unruly and ___________ behaviour exhibited by her
children was quite shocking.
For this question we can see that the word which needs to go
in the blank should be similar to UNRULY. These are the
options given to you:
(A) Faithful
(B) Ethical
(C) Perseverant
(D) Disobedient
(E) Depressing
Now, you may not be aware of the exact meaning of UNRULY
but you may have heard of it being used somewhere in the
negative sense, such as in newspapers. For example, you
may remember this headline from a newspaper that you had
read sometime in the past ‘The police used tear gas to control
the unruly mob’. So, then you know that ‘unruly’ is a negative
word, which means you also know that the synonym of
‘unruly’ will also be a negative word. With this knowledge, you
can immediately eliminate options A, B, and C because they
are all positive words. So, you now have a 50% chance of
getting the answer correct because you have managed to
come down to two options.
The correct answer, by the way, is (D) because ‘Unruly’
means ‘disobedient’ or ‘difficult to control’.
Important Learning: In order to become
good at identifying word charge, start reading
the newspaper and some current affairs
magazines. Even if you won’t remember all the
words you come across, your subconscious mind
will remember whether they carry a positive,
negative, or neutral connotation.
Use your knowledge of Word Roots to eliminate options
You would have seen earlier that we broke up the words
synonym and antonym into their respective roots to explain
their meaning. If you are aware of some common roots, this
can at least help you eliminate some of the options.
Example 2
For example, let us say you predict that the word that has to
go in the blank should be the antonym of BENIGN. The
following options are given to you:
(A) Syncretism
(B) Favourable
(C) Malevolent
(D) Acrid
(E) Verbose
Now, even if you do not know the meaning of ‘benign’ but are
aware that its root ‘bene’ means good (think beneficial,
benevolent, etc.), then you immediately know that the
antonym will be a negative word signifying harmful or
something along those lines.
If you are aware that the root ‘mal ’ means something
negative or harmful (think malignant, malnutrition, etc.), then
you can immediately select (C) as the correct answer, even if
you do not know the meaning of malevolent. At least, you can
definitely eliminate option (B), which is more of a synonym of
benign. You can also eliminate option (A) because ‘syn’
means same, and it is extremely unlikely that something with
same will mean harmful. So, the knowledge of root words can
help you eliminate options or even take you to the correct
answer.
Let us consider another example: Let’s say that in a particular
question you have made the prediction that your answer
should be a positive word and you are stuck between the two
words – Malediction and Benediction – both of whose
meanings you do not know.
How do you decide which word to go with then?
Word roots can come to your rescue here because you may
have heard of words such as malnutrition or malnourishment,
which should tell you that ‘mal’ has a negative connotation.
Similarly, you may have heard of words such as beneficial or
benevolent, which should tell you that ‘bene’ has a positive
connotation. Thus, if you need to pick the positive word from
amongst the two, you should pick ‘Benediction’ (which means
‘blessing’).
Identify a relation between some of the options
Example 3
Looking at the bride’s refulgent smile, the groom’s
___________ expression was quite perplexing.
Now, we can predict that the word that has to go in the blank
has to be an antonym of REFULGENT. These are the options
available to you:
(A) radiant
(B) distant
(C) dull
(D) glowing
(E) noisy
Now, most likely you would not know the meaning of
REFULGENT. However, you will notice that two of the options
—radiant and glowing—are in fact synonyms. Then, there is
no way that these two can be your answer because they
mean the same thing and you obviously cannot have two
answers to the question. Thus, even without knowing the
meaning or charge of the word in question, you have
managed to eliminate two options.
The correct answer, is (C) because refulgent means shiny or
glowing, so dull is the antonym of refulgent.
So, the lesson for you is that you can get to the correct
answer even if you don’t know the meaning of every given
word. However, it definitely helps if you have a good
vocabulary so go through the word list given at the end of this
section and try to remember as many of those words as you
can.
Let us consider a few more examples:
Directions for examples 4–5: Each of the sentences below
consists of one blank or two blanks. Choose the word or set
of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the
sentence as a whole.
Example 4
One requirement of a good book is that it deepens and
extend our knowledge, not that it merely __________what we
already know.
(A) enhance
(B) confirm
(C) modify
(D) reduce
(E) vilify
Solution
Keyword—deepen and extend our knowledge
Connector—not (contrast)
The word that goes in the blank has to contrast with the
keyword
Prediction—reiterate, restate
Confirm comes closest to our prediction and should be the
correct answer.
The correct answer is B.
Example 5
There are many things to be said against newspapers, but
much of the __________ is __________ when one considers
that every now and then they develop a great writer like Don
Marquis.
(A) blandishment; kindled
(B) somnolence; underscored
(C) indictment; quashed
(D) criticism; upheld
(E) applause; negated
Solution
Keyword—many things to be said against
Connector—but (contrast)
Prediction for Blank 1—criticism, complaint
Prediction for Blank 2—acceptable, worthwhile
Indictment and quashed come closest to our prediction and
should be the correct answer.
The correct answer is C.
Plausibility of message (guessing the writer’s intention)
The word that goes into the blank should be a logical fit in the
sentence, both with respect to the grammar and the author’s
flow of ideas. One way to do this is to always try to predict the
answer before you take a look at the answer choices given to
you. This will prevent you from getting confused between
similar looking answer choices. Your prediction doesn’t have
to be very accurate – even something broad like ‘the word
should be a positive word’ or a ‘negative word’ can be good
enough to eliminate some wrong answers.
Let’s say you get a fill in the blank question on the test such
as this one:
Example 6
Since Indian cricket team is in great form, it will ________ the
upcoming cricket World Cup.
(A) lose
(B) surrender
(C) win
(D) abandon
(E) wreck
The first thing that you should do is just read the above
sentence and not look at the options. After reading the
sentence, make a prediction in your head as to what kind of
word you think should go in the blank. The word can be
anything, it can even be in Hindi. In the above sentence, the
logical word has to be ‘win’ because if the team is in great
form, the only logical thing is for it to emerge victorious. Once
you have made this prediction, look at the answer choices
and go with the one that best matches your prediction, that is
(C).
This approach will also help you identify whether your weak
area is vocabulary or comprehension. For example, if you
notice that you are making the wrong predictions for what you
think should be the answer, then you are not understanding
the meaning of the sentence correctly. In that case, even if
you memorise the entire dictionary, it won’t help because your
problem is not vocabulary in the first place. Similarly, if you
notice that you are making the correct predictions but not
getting the answer right, then you need to work at first
strengthening your vocabulary base.
Use Keywords and Connectors to make predictions
You have just learnt above that you should always try to
predict the correct answer for vocabulary in context
questions. In order to be able to make these predictions
correctly, try to look for two kinds of clues:
1. The Keywords
2. The Connectors
Keywords are words that tell you the meaning of the word that
should go in the blank.
Example 7
For example, consider this sentence:
Known for their bravery, horses are used as symbols of
_________ in several cultures.
(A) arrogance
(B) courage
(C) loyalty
(D) speed
(E) stamina
As most of you might have guessed, the correct answer
should be (B), courage. But why can’t the answer be (C),
loyalty? Because the sentence talks about horses being
known for their ‘bravery’ i.e. courage, so ‘bravery’ becomes
your keyword in this sentence. Hence, even though horses
are also known for loyalty, speed, and stamina, the answer
still has to be courage because it is connected to the keyword
in the sentence.
• Because
• Since
• And
• Hence
• As a result of
• Also
• Due to
• Thus
• Likewise
• Moreover
• Consequently
• Additionally
Contrasting Connectors
• Despite
• Yet
• But
• However
• Nonetheless
• Nevertheless
• While
• Although
• Ironically
• Rather
• Contrastingly
Note that every sentence may not necessarily have a
Connector. In such sentences the meaning, obviously, always
goes in the same direction.
Connector
Examples
Type
Similar likewise, in the same way, also, and
Concession / although, but, however, nonetheless,
Contrasting nevertheless
Exemplify for instance, for example, particularly
Conclusion therefore, hence, consequently, as a
result of, thus
Explanation so ... that, since, because, due to
Emphasis in particular, indeed
Contrasting despite, in spite of, conversely,
surprisingly, in contrast, yet, while, rather
More moreover, additionally, furthermore
Information
4.17 Analogies
4.18 What is Measured?
Questions based on analogies aim to measure a
candidate’s general verbal acumen and insight.
These questions are designed to assess a
candidate’s ability to recognise relationships
between ideas, think methodically and exhibit
fluency in the English language.
4.19 Overall Test Taking Strategies
1. Identify the link or connection between the given
words using a logical and analytical approach.
2. The order of the words in the answer pair should
replicate the relationship exhibited by the main
pair in the same sequence.
3. There should be no ambiguity in the answer pair.
4. Build competencies in the main types of
analogous relationships.
5. Practice extensively.
Analogies
An analogy literally means ‘Drawing a comparison in
order to show a similarity in some respect’. An analogy
basically uses a relationship between two (or more) elements
to show similar relationship among another set of elements.
So, these questions aim to test overall logical
understanding of the candidates and how coherently they
understand the different kinds of relationships among
various elements.
Types of analogies
There are various types of relationships which are used in
analogy-based questions. Below is one such list which shows
the various relationships with one example each:
1 Reading Comprehension
Each of the reading comprehension questions is
based on the content of a passage. After reading
the passage, answer all questions pertaining to it
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the
passage. For each question, select the best
answer from the given choices.
Passage 1 (Real NMAT Question)
Advertising communicates the firm’s employment needs to the public
through media such as newspapers, radio, television and industry
publications. The internet is the newest and fastest growing external
recruitment method. Regardless of the advertising method utilised in
determining the content of an advertising message, a firm must
decide on the corporate image it wants to project. Obviously, the firm
should give prospective employees an accurate picture of the job
and the organisation.
Even though a text comes into existence only through the medium of
an author, it is erroneous to assign the author’s design to the status
of a standard by which critics are to evaluate the text. Besides, the
question arises as to how a critic is to find out the ‘intention’ behind a
text. Wimsatt and Beardsley believe that if the poet was successful
in bringing out his intention through the words he had written, it must
be evident in the poem itself. And if the poet was not successful in
doing so, the critic must move outside the text to search for the
intention. Unlike practical messages, which are successful only if the
readers correctly infer the intention of the author, poems should just
be, not mean.
Another argument that the duo puts forward is regarding the process
of revision. Authors often revise their work, thereby creating multiple
versions of the same text. This raises the question of which intention
is to be considered by the critics. By extension, it raises the question
of whether the author’s “former concrete intention was not his
intention”.
Wimsatt and Beardsley conclude that a text is neither the critic’s nor
the author’s. It is detached from the author at birth and goes about
the world beyond his power of intention or ability to control it. The
poem belongs to the public. It comes to life through language, which
is the peculiar possession of the public and it is about the human
being, which is an object of public knowledge.
Once the foundation has disbursed some or all of its funding and the
beneficiary’s project is underway, the foundation may want to
continue monitoring progress to prevent misuse of funds or
unwanted deviations from the originally-planned project. This
supervision can be accomplished through several methods. The
foundation can specify in its agreement with the beneficiary that its
grant is a conditional grant, contingent on specified uses. An
alternate approach is for the foundation to appoint monitors to work
with the beneficiary throughout the project. This is a common
practice for venture capital “foundations” in monitoring the start-up
companies which are the beneficiaries of their seed capital.
In its early years, the book set its sights on satisfying man’s innate
curiosity about the natural world around him. Its two principal fact
finders, twins Norris and Ross McWhirter, scoured the globe to
collect empirical facts. It was their task to find and document aspects
of life that can be sensed or observed, things that can be quantified
or measured—but not just any things. They were only interested in
superlatives: the biggest and the best.
In its latest incarnation, the book has found a new home on the
Internet. No longer restricted to the confines of physical paper, the
Guinness World Records website contains seemingly innumerable
facts concerning such topics as the most powerful combustion
engine or the world’s longest train. What is striking, however, is that
such facts are found sharing a page with the record of the heaviest
train to be pulled with a beard. While there is no denying that each of
these facts has its own individual allure, the latter represents a
significant deviation from the education-oriented facts of earlier
editions. Perhaps, there is useful knowledge to be gleaned regarding
the tensile strength of a beard, but this seems to cater to an
audience more interested in seeking entertainment than education.
But in the past 20 years, this electrical ‘space’, which was once thin
and dark and one-dimensional—little more than a narrow speaking
tube, stretching from phone to phone—has flung itself open like a
gigantic jack-in-the-box. Light has flooded upon it, the eerie light of
the glowing computer screen. This dark electric netherworld has
become a vast flowering electronic landscape. Since the 1960s, the
world of the telephone has crossbred itself with computers and
television, and though there is still no substance to cyberspace,
nothing you can handle, it has a strange kind of physicality now. It
makes good sense today to talk of cyberspace as a place all its own
because people live in it now. Not just a few people, not just a few
technicians and eccentrics, but thousands of people, quite normal
people—and not just for a little while either, but for hours straight,
over weeks, and months and years. Cyberspace today is a ‘Net’, a
‘Matrix’, international in scope and growing swiftly and steadily. It is
growing in size, wealth and political importance.
One of the only two species of the genus Lepidochelys that is known
for arribadas or mass synchronised nesting, the Olive Ridley Turtles
nest in the beaches of Chennai between the months of December
and April. Measuring about two and a half feet in length, these are
the smallest of the sea turtles and are restricted to the Pacific and
Indian Oceans.
3. The passage:
(A) describes arribadas as mass-synchronised nesting.
(B) does not mention the gestation period of the Olive
turtles.
(C) mentions Olive turtles to be the only species known for
arribadas.
(D) does not mention anything about volunteers witnessing
the actual hatching process.
(E) mentions that the highest number of turtle nests were
found during the walks of Year 1991.
In 1842, Dickens and his wife, Kate, went on a tour of the United
States, where people went crazy listening to him. Upon his return,
Dickens wrote American Notes for General Circulation, a sarcastic
travelogue criticising American culture and materialism.
The death of his daughter and father and separation from his wife in
the 1850s cast a dark shadow on Dickens’ writing during this period.
He returned to his original style with A Tale of Two Cities in 1859, a
historical novel, followed by Great Expectations in 1861, widely
considered his greatest literary feat.
Global data from the World Health Survey show that employment
rates are lower for disabled men (53%) and disabled women (20%)
than for non-disabled men (65%) and women (30%).
The data in the Survey from four Southern African countries found
that only 26–55% of people received the medical rehabilitation and
5–23% received the vocational training they needed. The data from
51 countries also revealed that people with disabilities were four
times more likely to be treated badly and nearly three times more
likely to be denied needed health care.
2. (a) Only then can any virus make use of its single talent,
which is to take control of a host’s cellular machinery
and use it to churn out thousands of copies of itself
(b) In this way, one infected cell soon becomes billions.
(c) These viruses then move from one cell to the next,
transforming each new host into a factory that makes
even more virus.
(d) A virus is nothing more than a few strands of genetic
material wrapped in a package of protein—a parasite,
unable to function on its own.
(e) In order to survive, it must find a cell to infect.
(A) dceab
(B) bcead
(C) deacb
(D) decab
(E) bdcea
10. (a) Logging operations, which provide the world’s wood and
paper products, also cut countless trees each year.
(b) Often, small farmers will clear a few acres by cutting
down trees and burning them in a process known as
slash and burn agriculture.
(c) The biggest driver of deforestation is agriculture.
(d) Farmers cut forests to provide more room for planting
crops or grazing livestock.
(a) cdab
(B) cdba
(C) cbda
(D) dcba
(E) dcab
12. (a) Nearly 24 hours after the snafu, Oscars host Jimmy
Kimmel broke his silence on the shocking moment with a
few words on his show, Jimmy Kimmel Live.
(b) “I don’t know if you know this but I hosted the Oscars
last night,” Kimmel quipped, opening his ABC show.
(c) La La Land was incorrectly named the Best Picture
when Moonlight was really the winner.
(d) In case you’ve been living under a rock, the Oscars were
rocked by an epic mistake on Sunday night.
(a) abdc
(B) bdca
(c) bdac
(D) abcd
(E) dcab
13. (a) Thus, they are more at risk for adult health problems
such as heart disease, type 2 diabetes, stroke, several
types of cancer, and osteoarthritis.
(b) According to an article in The New York Times all of
these health effects are contributing to a shorter lifespan
of five years for these obese children.
(c) One study showed that children who became obese as
early as age 2 were more likely to be obese as adults.
(d) Children who are obese are likely to be obese as adults.
(a) cdba
(B) cbda
(C) dcab
(D) dcba
(E) dbac
14. (a) Not a bad legacy for a man who, after his first studio
went belly up, placed his career in the hands of a cartoon
mouse.
(b) While he was at it, he built fantastical amusement parks,
developed a brand recognised by children and adults all
over the world, and created an educational foundation
for future entertainment innovators.
(c) The Walt Disney Company, which reported more than
$38 billion in revenue in 2010, was started by a high-
school dropout who loved to draw and had a passion for
learning.
(d) Walt Disney founded an empire on fantasy and risk
taking.
(a) cdab
(B) cdba
(C) cbda
(D) dcba
(E) dcab
15. (a) The Land of Morning Calm is rapidly becoming one of
Asia’s most popular destinations.
(b) Since then an Olympics and a World Cup have kick-
started a vibrant modern economy.
(c) South Korea’s rise has been nothing short of meteoric
after breaking from military dictatorship in the 80s.
(d) Almost every year South Korea or Seoul features on top
ten lists of the best places to visit, and with good
reason.
(a) cbda
(b) cdba
(c) bdac
(d) bdca
(e) adcb
16. (a) But even as the vote pushed the bill past its latest test, it
set up a critical few hours in which Republicans will have
to address serious and at times contradictory criticism of
the bill from their own caucus, with zero chance of
support from Democrats.
(b) Senate Republican leaders breathed a collective sigh of
relief on Wednesday as all 52 GOP senators voted to
begin debate on the tax reform bill.
(c) For Republicans, time is of the essence.
(d) If they do not pass the tax reform bill this week, it will be
sidelined by next week’s legislative struggle to secure
funding to avoid a government shutdown.
(a) abdc
(b) bdca
(c) bdac
(d) bacd
(e) dcab
18. (a) Great players end their careers with anywhere from 25 to
50 such scores.
(b) Every sport has record breakers, but of his
contemporaries, only Michael Jordan, Lance Armstrong
and prescandal Tiger Woods come anywhere close to
matching him in redefining the realms of possibility.
(c) In cricket, a batsman who hits a century, or a “ton”--
another term for a 100-plus-run innings--displays the
most consistent measure of batting prowess.
(d) Tendulkar’s ton of tons is beyond great.
(a) dbac
(b) cadb
(c) cbda
(d) bdca
(e) dbca
26. (a) He’d say, undoubtedly, that he’d found a nation of poets.
(b) There was hardly any such thing as slang in his day, for
no graphic trope was too virile or uncommon for
acceptance, if its meaning were patent.
(c) If Shakespeare came to Chicago and heard “the man in
the street,” he’d find himself more at home than in
London.
(d) In the mouths of clerks he’d find English used with all the
freedom of unexpected metaphor and the plastic,
suggestive diction that was the privilege of the
Elizabethan dramatists.
(e) His own heroes often spoke what corresponds to the
slang of today. (Real NMAT Question)
(A) cadeb
(B) cdeba
(C) cbdae
(D) cedba
(E) cdabe
30. (a) Bees and other insects are vital for global food
production as they pollinate three-quarters of all crops.
(b) The plummeting numbers of pollinators in recent years
has been blamed, in part, on the widespread use of
pesticides.
(c) The EU banned the use of neonicotinoids on flowering
crops that attract bees, such as oil seed rapeseed and
so on, in 2013.
(d) But in 2017, a major report from the European Union’s
scientific risk assessors concluded that the high risk to
both honeybees and wild bees resulted from any
outdoor use, because the pesticides contaminate soil
and water.
(A) abcd
(B) bacd
(C) dabc
(D) acdb
(E) adbc
3 Identify the Error
Questions 1–30 each has a sentence with four underlined words
or phrases. Identify the one underlined word or phrase that
must be changed in order to make the sentence correct. Mark E
for no error.
6. Although Rajesh studied hard for the test, yet he could only
manage 50% marks.
(A) studied
(B) for the test
(C) yet
(D) only manage
(E) No error
8. When Amir met Tiara for the first time, he was thinking that
she was very pretty. (Real NMAT Question)
(A) met
(B) for
(C) was thinking
(D) was
(E) No error
10. In this store, we sell items sourced from not only Asia but
also from the Central and Latin Americas.
(A) items sourced
(B) not only Asia
(C) from
(D) Central and Latin Americas
(E) No error
11. The items served in my restaurant are far more diverse
and delicious than your restaurant.
(A) served in
(B) are far more
(C) and delicious
(D) your restaurant
(E) No error
16. The child loves both dancing and singing and refuses to
conform by the wishes of his parents.
(A) both dancing and singing
(B) refuses
(C) conform by
(D) wishes of
(E) No error
18. The first inning of the match was more interesting than the
second one.
(a) first inning
(b) the match
(c) more interesting
(d) second one
(e) No error
20. One of the ancient traditions in India commit the guru as well
as his disciples to celibacy. (Real NMAT Question)
(A) One of the
(B) commit the guru
(C) as well as
(D) to celibacy
(E) No error
22. Either of these stuffed toys are suitable for your little four-
year-old. (Real NMAT Question)
(A) these
(B) stuffed
(C) are
(D) little
(E) No error
23. We’ve already paid for our journey; so we need only take
some pocket money with us. (Real NMAT Question)
(A) paid for
(B) we need
(C) only take
(D) with us
(E) No error
28. The Indian rupee is again under pressure as rising oil prices
has resulted in an increased demand for the dollar.
(A) again under pressure
(B) has resulted
(C) an increased
(D) for the dollar
(E) No Error
29. Please ask your sister to unthaw all the vegetables as I plan
to have a smorgasbord of cheese, vegetables and soups.
(A) ask your
(B) to unthaw
(C) as I plan
(D) have a smorgasbord
(E) No Error
9. 1. He is _______ work.
2. Eighteen and _______ can watch this movie.
3. He made her feel special and cared ______.
(a) above
(b) out of
(c) after
(d) on
(e) for
(f) in
(A) fce
(B) bcf
(C) eca
(D) bae
(E) fce
17. 1. She was adamant that she would work __________ the
night.
2. I prefer walking ___ driving.
3. She won’t get the lead role as her age is _________ her.
(a) to
(b) in
(c) beneath
(d) behind
(e) against
(f) over
(A) dbf
(B) cfe
(C) bae
(D) fad
(E) efb
21. 1. The first credible signs ______ the presence of the snow
leopard have been found in Uttarakhand.
2. The role of two senior bureaucrats came ________ the
scanner.
3. Subsequent _______ the Court’s orders, hearing on the
issue has been initiated. (Real NMAT Question)
(a) of
(b) to
(c) off
(d) under
(e) towards
(f) beneath
(A) adc
(B) adb
(C) bdc
(D) fcd
(E) cda
24. 1. It was a tough victory to pull _______ but they did it with
aplomb.
2. It was disheartening to watch as they proceeded to
quarrel and fall _______ with one another.
3. It is doubtful that after such a setback they will ever
manage to put _______ their differences and play
together on the stage again.
(Real NMAT Question)
(a) out
(b) about
(c) up
(d) off
(e) aside
(f) since
(A) cae
(B) caf
(C) dbe
(D) dae
(E) baf
14. The road is quite ______________ and one does feel a little
____________ when driving through it.
(a) meandering, bizarre
(B) discursive, giddy
(C) serpentine, light headed
(D) sinuous, surreal
(E) digressive, nauseous
17. It’s only when the underwater clown turns to face you that you
understand why it’s the most feared animal on Earth. From
the front its head is no longer soft and jowly but _________ to
an arrow that draws its black eyes into a __________ looking
V. The ________ smile is gone, and all you see are rows of
two-inch teeth capable of crunching down with almost two
tons of force.
(a) diminishes, joyous, dazed
(B) contracts, quivering, cheeky
(C) stiffens, menacing, intimidating
(D) tapers, sinister, bemused
(E) subsides, threatening, indignant
18. The southern tip of Africa is more _______ than many give it
credit for: a spectacular blend of game-spotting safaris,
________ of ancient cultures and _________ landscapes
ranging from widescreen dusty plains to thundering waterfalls.
(A) distinct, traces, multitude
(B) disparate, vestige, profuse
(C) diverse, echoes, myriad
(D) distinguishable, memento, excessive
(E) different, reminder, riot
1. Crime : Police
(A) Watchman : Theft
(B) Food : Eat
(C) Weight : Exercise
(D) Flood : Dam
(E) Play : Football
2. Cleaver : Butcher
(A) Screwdriver : Mechanic
(B) Treadmill : Runner
(C) Pen : Writer
(D) Scalpel : Surgeon
(E) Brush : Painter
3. Captain : Ship
(A) Teacher : School
(B) Manager : Office
(C) Guide : Tourist
(D) Doctor : Hospital
(E) Hotel : Concierge
4. Dislike : Loathe
(A) Pain : Discomfort
(B) Coward : Foolhardy
(C) Disquiet : Anxious
(D) Fear : Stress
(E) Joy : Ecstasy
5. Altruistic : Selfishness
(A) Enlightened : Wisdom
(B) Befuddled : Clarity
(C) Flippant : Calm
(D) Assiduous : Diligence
(E) Depressed : Sorrow
Directions for Questions 6–17: Choose the pair of words that does
not share the same relationship as the given pair.
6. Metal: Music
(a) Expressionism: Painting
(b) Risotto: Dish
(c) Clarinet: Musical Instrument
(d) Bolero: Dress
(e) Cha Cha: Dance
7. Scrawny: Slim
(a) Nitpicking: Meticulous
(b) Shocking: Surprising
(c) Miserly : Economical
(d) Nosey : Inquisitive
(e) Ludicrous : Absurd
8. Tiara: Hair
(a) Muffler: Neck
(b) Anklet: Ankle
(c) Cravat: Neck
(d) Girdle: Wrist
(e) Sash: Waist
9. Paleontology: Fossils
(a) Entomology: Insects
(b) Seismology: Earthquakes
(c) Petrology: Rocks
(d) Anthropology: Mankind
(e) Ornithology: Fish
Directions for Questions 18–25: Find out the pair of words that has
the same relationship as the original pair.
1. (A) The author talks about it in Para1 but this is not what the
passage is primarily concerned with.
(B) B summarises our thought in the topic and scope
defined earlier in the best manner and should be the
correct answer.
(C) This has been talked about in the last Para but is
definitely not the central theme.
(D) The author has discussed their ideas but has not talked
about the significance of their ideas.
(E) This is one of the points discussed by the author but not
the main theme.
The correct answer is B.
P 3—To discuss the Guinness Book in its current form and how the
nature of records contained in it has changed from its earlier forms.
P 4—To state how Tycho dispelled a popular belief held at that time.
2. (A) The 5th paragraph mentions that Tycho could not ignore
Aristotelian Physics, and hence if this option was true, it
would not weaken the argument.
(B) The existence of various theories related to astronomy
in the sixteenth century supports this option.
(C) There is no argument in the passage that would be
weakened if this option was true.
(D) Nothing in the passage supports the fact that Ptolemic
system was more accepted while the Copernican model
was rejected. In fact, the passage mentions that Tycho,
to some measure, supported the theory proposed by
Copernicus, and the Tychonic world system provided a
middle ground between the Copernican models and
Ptolemic models. If at all the Ptolemic system was more
accepted while the Copernican model was rejected, it
would indicate that Tycho’s theories were based on a
rejected theory, and hence could not become popular.
(E) There is no argument in the passage that would be
weakened if this option was true.
The correct answer is D.
P 2—To describe the civil uses of fingerprint records which are often
overlooked in favour of the criminal uses.
1. (A) This is the purpose of the entire paragraph and not just
of this sentence.
(B) Same as A.
(C) This is the literal meaning of the sentence, but we need
to answer why the author is stating this fact.
(D) The question is asking you for the role of the sentence,
that is, why did the author put this sentence in this
paragraph? Since this is a function question, you need
to answer for the ‘why’ and not the ‘what’. Note that the
sentence starts with the term ‘however’, which
immediately implies that it is trying to show a contrast
with the previous statement. The previous statement
states that the lay mind associates fingerprints with
being useful primarily in criminal investigation.
The second sentence then creates the contrast by
stating that this is not the case and that, in fact, there
are more fingerprints in the Civil File of the FBI than in
the Criminal File; thereby implying that fingerprints
probably have a more important or an equally important
role outside of criminal investigation as well. Thus, the
function of this sentence is to create this contrast
between the two roles of fingerprints. (D) brings this out
best and is the correct answer.
(E) Same as A.
The correct answer is D.
Note that in such questions the wrong answer choices will typically
provide you the answer for the entire paragraph and not for the
specific sentence or they will paraphrase the sentence in question,
that is, answer ‘what’ rather than ‘why’.
2. (A) While common sense dictates that this may very well be
the case, there is nothing in the passage to suggest this.
(B) The second paragraph states that this is not the case
and that, in fact, the opposite may be true.
(C) Extreme option. We know that this is a very important
way, but we do not know whether this is the most
foolproof way. There could always be a better way.
(D) The first paragraph clearly states that the use of
fingerprint records results in the imposition of more
equitable sentences by the judiciary. (D) states this
almost verbatim and is the correct answer.
(E) According to the latter half of the third paragraph, the
opposite may actually be true.
The correct answer is D.
P 4—Gives one reason how our genes may help prevent or indirectly
cause cancer
3. (A) The author does not say that it is only genes that cause
cancer. There could be other ways of developing cancer
as well. This can be negated.
(B) Neoplasm is an abnormal cell mass that develops when
the controls of the cell cycle and cell division
malfunction. However, all neoplasms are not cancerous.
This can also be rejected.
(C) Not mentioned.
(D) This can be concluded from our reading of the passage
especially the last paragraph. This cannot be denied or
falsified making it the correct option.
(E) Not mentioned.
The correct answer is D.
P 5—To conclude that despite minor hiccups, the turtles are thriving
in this region.
Scope—The early life of Dickens, his motivation for writing, his style
of writing, his success and his end.
Passage Map
P 1—To introduce Dickens and the simplicity in his writings.
P 5—To talk about the beginning of Dickens’ literary journey and his
overwhelming success.
P 8—To talk about the tragedies in his life, his further writings and to
conclude with his death.
P 4—Gives one reason how our genes may help prevent or indirectly
cause cancer.
3. (A) The author does not say that it is only genes that cause
cancer. There could be other ways of developing cancer
as well. This can be negated.
(B) Neoplasm is an abnormal cell mass that develops when
the controls of the cell cycle and cell division
malfunction. However, all neoplasms are not cancerous.
This can also be rejected.
(C) Not mentioned.
(D) This can be concluded from our reading of the passage
especially the last paragraph. This cannot be denied or
falsified making it the correct option.
(E) Not mentioned.
The correct answer is D.
2. (A) Though this statement has been made by the author, the
topic of school education for children with disabilities has
been discussed by the author to highlight larger
systemic flaws.
(B) Option B is incorrect as the author’s tone is not
contentious at all. He is convinced of his perspective
and has provided data and facts in support of his
viewpoint.
(C) The passage is talking about higher prevalence of
disability among lower income countries. Also, it talks
about disability rates in general and not specifically for
children.
(D) Refer the lines, “In some countries the policies are
either faulty or the resources allocated to implementing
policies are often inadequate. For example, lack of
financial incentive in education policy fails to motivate
children with disabilities to attend school. In many
regions of the world, misconceptions and prejudices
affect the inclusion of children with disabilities in
mainstream education and the progress of disabled
employees in jobs.” This clearly shows that the author
discusses this point to highlight the role played by bad
policies and prejudices.
(E) Option E is incorrect as the topic of discrimination is not
a fresh introduction.
The correct answer is option D.
7. Here, (d) and (a) form a logical pair since the band in (a) is
introduced in (d). (e) needs to come after (c), since (c)
introduces the Great Barrier Reef. The only question then is
where should (b) come—after (c) or after (a). Note that there
is no option that puts (b) immediately after (a). Hence, cbe is
the correct order.
The correct answer is B.
8. The entire paragraph has to start from the invite from the
sister. Thus, sentence (d) should be the first sentence.
Sentence (e) gives the reason for sentence (c)—why the lady
is making the trip alone.
The correct answer is E.
14. (c) is the most obvious start as it introduces the topic of ‘Walt
Disney Company’. (d) will follow (c) as it tells us how ‘Walt
Disney’ the ‘high school dropout’ founded his empire on
fantasy and risk taking. This will be followed by (b) which
further talks about how he created such a huge brand with his
vision. (a) is obviously the closing sentence as it talks about
the enormous legacy left by him.
The correct answer is B.
19. This jumble can be resolved with the help of chronology. (d) is
the most evident start as it introduces the topic of Merce
Cunningham’s death and an open house being organised the
day after his death. (b) will follow (d) as it gives us details as
to the time and the number of dancers performing at the open
house. (b) is followed by (c) which talks about Cunningham’s
assistant Robert Swinston giving a class in the master’s style
at the open house. (a) closes the paragraph by talking about
how in the recent years Swinston and other senior dancers
had been training students as the master was incapacitated
by rheumatoid arthritis.
The correct answer is E.
21. (c) is the most obvious start as it poses the question of the
reason behind Holmes’ captivating quality. (b) will definitely
follow (c) as it talks about the answer to the question. (d) will
follow (c) as it speaks about summarizing the life of Holmes’
creator before answering the question in (c). The paragraph
ends with (a) as it talks about Holmes’ creator, Doyle.
22. (d) is an obvious start as it opens the topic of the media trying
to attract kids with advertisements. This is followed by (b) that
takes the topic further and talks about the advertising industry
viewing teenagers as a viable market option. The use of
‘furthermore’ and ‘also’ in option (a) connects it with option (c)
by presenting a further expansion of the idea.
The correct answer is D.
24. (a) is a logical pair since (a) describes the places mentioned
in (d). This brings us to options (d) and (e). It doesn’t make
sense starting the paragraph with (c). The entire paragraph
talks about glaciers. Thus, (d) should be the perfect starting
sentence, making option E the correct answer.
The correct answer is E.
28. In this question, the statements b-d form a logical pair as the
pronoun “it” in statement (d) refers to the “extents to appear
unique” mentioned in statement (b). By the process of
elimination, we are left with two options B and C. The use of
“This, of course” in statement (c) makes it the concluding line
and connects it with (a), making bdac the correct sequence.
The correct answer is B.
29. Sentence (e) introduces the topic and sentence (c) directly
negates it, making ec a mandatory pair. So, options A, B and
E are negated. Sentence (d) explains the negation. ab is
another mandatory pair as (a) gives an example of how an
alternative therapy, that is, Chiropractic can be risky to the
patients while (b) states that despite the risks, the patients are
rarely informed about them. So, ecdba is the correct answer.
The correct answer is C.
30. Statements (c) and (d) form a mandatory pair based on the
chronological sequence of the years – 2013 and 2017. This
eliminates options C and E. Sentence (a) has to be the
opening sentence as it introduces the main idea being
discussed-bees and pollination. Also, a-b form a mandatory
pair because statement (b) talks about the problem being
faced with respect to bees. This makes abcd the correct
sequence.
The correct answer is A.
3 Identify the Error
1. The aim is to find the phrase which is making the given
statement grammatically incorrect. The clue word in the given
sentence is ‘both’. The word ‘both’ vouches for two events or
people like, ‘both the boys… or ‘both Robin and Batman’, etc.
Keeping this in mind one may analyse the given sentence.
(A) ‘to lose’ is a grammatically correct expression.
(B) ‘need to’ is also required here
(C) Correct. ‘Both’ always takes ‘and’ and not ‘as well as’.
(D) The adverb ‘regularly’ is required here.
(E) There is an error in C.
The correct answer is C.
11. The aim is to find the phrase which is making the given
statement grammatically incorrect. ‘Items’ should be
compared to ‘items’ and not ‘restaurant’. Keeping this in mind
one may analyse the given sentence.
(A) ‘served in’ is correct.
(B) ‘are far more’ is also correct.
(C) ‘and delicious’ is correct usage.
(D) Correct. ‘your restaurant’ is incorrect. ‘The correct
comparison should be ‘than those served in your
restaurant’.
(E) There is an error in D.
The correct answer is D.
12. The aim is to find the phrase which is making the given
statement grammatically incorrect. The helping verb
should be plural and not singular. Keeping this in mind
one may analyse the given sentence.
(A) Correct. ‘there is’ is incorrect. The correct verb to refer
to a large number of artefacts should be the plural ‘are’.
(B) ‘of artefacts from’ is correct.
(C) ‘period, going’ is also correct.
(D) ‘as’ is correct usage.
(E) There is an error in A.
The correct answer is A.
13. The aim is to find the phrase which is making the given
statement grammatically incorrect. The sentence is
constructed correctly. Keeping this in mind one may analyse
the given sentence.
(A) ‘as to which’ is grammatically fine.
(B) ‘would prefer’ is correct.
(C) ‘replied that’ is also correct.
(D) ‘was fine’ is correct construction.
(E) There is no error in the sentence.
The correct answer is E.
14. The aim is to find the phrase which is making the given
statement grammatically incorrect, There is a subject-verb
agreement error in the sentence. Keeping this in mind one
may analyse the given sentence.
(A) ‘Each of the’ is correct.
(B) Correct. ‘has a’ should be used in place of ‘have a’.
‘Each of the’ takes a plural noun and a singular verb.
(C) ‘narrate’ is also correct.
(D) ‘about the crime’ is correct as well.
(E) There is an error in B.
The correct answer is B.
15. The aim is to find the phrase which is making the given
statement grammatically incorrect, The sentence has a
redundancy error. Keeping this in mind one may analyse the
given sentence.
(A)
Correct. ‘Suppose’ and ‘if’ mean the same and the use
of ‘if’ is unnecessary.
(B) ‘marooned’ is used correctly.
(C) ‘what would’ is also correct.
(D) ‘do’ is correct as well.
(E) There is an error in A.
The correct answer is A.
16. The aim is to find the phrase which is making the given
statement grammatically incorrect, There are certain phrases
that have a fixed usage. Keeping this in mind one may
analyse the given sentence.
(A) ‘both dancing and singing’ is correct.
(B) ‘refuses’ is correct.
(C)
Correct. ‘Conform to’ should be used in place of
‘conform by’. ‘Conform to’ is a fixed phrase which
means comply with rules, standards, or laws.
(D) ‘wishes of’ is correct as well.
(E) There is an error in C.
The correct answer is C.
17. The aim is to find the phrase which is making the given
statement grammatically incorrect, There are certain words
whose usage together is redundant. Keeping this in mind one
may analyse the given sentence.
(A) ‘he heard’ is correct.
(B) ‘father’s accident’ is correct.
(C) Correct. ‘Returned’ means to ‘come back’. The
additional use of ‘back’ is unnecessary.
(D) ‘to his village’ is correct as well.
(E) There is an error in C.
18. The aim is to find the phrase which is making the given
statement grammatically incorrect, There are certain nouns
that retain their construction in the singular and plural forms.
Keeping this in mind one may analyse the given sentence.
(A) Correct. ‘Innings’ should be used in place of ‘inning’.
‘Innings’ has an identical singular and plural form.
(B) ‘the match’ is correct.
(C) ‘more interesting’ is also correct.
(D) ‘second one’ is correct as well.
(E) There is an error in A.
The correct answer is A.
19. The aim is to find the phrase which is making the given
statement grammatically incorrect, A singular subject takes a
singular verb. Keeping this in mind one may analyse the
given sentence.
(A) ‘A major’ is correct.
(B) ‘Maratha sculptors’ is also correct.
(C) Correct. ‘were the creation’ is incorrect. ‘Was’ should be
used in place of ‘were’.’Contribution’ is a singular
subject that takes the singular verb ‘was’.
(D) ‘the Buddha’s’ is correct.
(E) There is an error in C.
The correct answer is C.
20. The aim is to find the phrase which is making the given
statement grammatically incorrect, The phrase ‘one of the’
takes a plural noun and a singular verb. Keeping this in mind
one may analyse the given sentence.
(A) ‘One of the’ is correct.
(B) Correct. ‘commit the guru’ is the incorrect expression.
‘Commits’ should be used in place of commit.
(C) ‘as well as’ is correct.
(D) ‘to celibacy’ is also apt.
(E) There is an error in B
The correct answer is B.
21. The aim is to find the phrase which is making the given
statement grammatically incorrect. The placement of the
adjective is incorrect. Keeping this in mind one may analyse
the given sentence.
(A) Correct. ‘Retiring C.E.O’ is the incorrect phrase. The
correct construction should be ‘soon to retire’ or ‘about
to retire C.E.O’.
(B) ‘asked his’ is fine.
(C) ‘interest’ is correct.
(D) ‘after his retirement’ is also apt.
(E) There is an error in A
The correct answer is A.
22. The aim is to find the phrase which is making the given
statement grammatically incorrect. The sentence has a
subject-verb agreement error. Keeping this in mind one may
analyse the given sentence as:
(A) these, is correct.
(B) stuffed, is correct.
(C) Since ‘either’ takes a singular verb, are should be
replaced with “is”.
(D) little, is correct.
(E) There is an error in C.
The correct answer is C.
23. The aim is to find the phrase which is making the given
statement grammatically incorrect. Keeping this in mind one
may analyse the given sentence.
(A) paid for, is correct.
(B) we need, is correct.
(C) only take, is correct.
(D) with us, is correct.
(E) This option is correct
The correct answer is E.
24. The aim is to find the phrase which is making the given
statement grammatically incorrect. The sentence has a
subject-verb agreement error. Keeping this in mind one may
analyse the given sentence.
(A) a common, is correct.
(B) many a man, is correct.
(C) ‘Many a’ is a singular subject. Therefore, have resigned
should be replaced with “has resigned”.
(D) to fate, is correct.
(E) There is an error in C.
The correct answer is C.
25. The aim is to find the phrase which is making the given
statement grammatically incorrect. Note that the article “the”
is being used only once before politician and statesman. This
means that only one person is being talked about. Keeping
this in mind one may analyse the given sentence.
(A) his years, is correct.
(B) service to, is correct.
(C) and statesman, is correct.
(D) Since the subject is singular, were honoured, should be
replaced with “was honoured”.
(E) There is an error in D.
The correct answer is D.
26. The aim is to find the phrase which is making the given
statement grammatically incorrect. There is a tense
consistency error in the sentence. Keeping this in mind one
may analyse the given sentence.
(A) He has become, is correct.
(B) too old, is correct.
(C) it is, is correct.
(D) Since the sentence is in present tense looked after,
should be replaced by “looks after”.
(E) There is an error in D.
The correct answer is D.
27. The aim is to find the phrase which is making the given
statement grammatically incorrect. The given sentence
appears grammatically correct. Keeping this in mind one may
analyse the given sentence.
(A) A representative, is correct.
(B) provide the students, is correct.
(C) insight into, is correct.
(D) of the country, is correct.
(E) This option is correct.
The correct answer is E.
28. The aim is to find the phrase which is making the given
statement grammatically incorrect. Subject-verb agreement
has not been observed in the grammatical structure. Keeping
this in mind one may analyse the given sentence.
(A) ‘again under pressure’ is correct.
(B) Correct. ‘has resulted’ is incorrect. The subject ‘oil
prices’ require the plural verb ‘have’.
(C) ‘an increased’ is a grammatically correct expression.
(D) ‘for the dollar’ is correct.
(E) There is an error in B.
The correct answer is B.
29. The aim is to find the phrase which is making the given
statement grammatically incorrect. There is an error of diction
in the sentence. Keeping this in mind one may analyse the
given sentence.
(A) ‘ask your’ is correct.
(B) Correct. The use of ‘unthaw’ is incorrect. The word that
should be used is ‘thaw’ which means to change from a
solid frozen state to a soft or liquid one.
(C) ‘as I plan’ is a grammatically correct expression.
(D) ‘have a smorgasbord’ is correct. ‘Smorgasbord’ refers to
a wide range of something; a variety.
(E) There is an error in B.
30. The aim is to find the phrase which is making the given
statement grammatically incorrect. There is an error of verb
form in the sentence. Keeping this in mind one may analyse
the given sentence.
(A) Correct. ‘If I was’ is incorrect. When expressing a wish,
a suggestion, a command or a condition that is contrary
to fact, we do so in the subjunctive mood. Hence, the
correct construction would be ‘If I were’
(B) The use of ‘President’ is correct.
(C) ‘I would have made’ is a grammatically correct
expression.
(D) ‘compulsory for all’ is correct.
(E) There is an error in A.
The correct answer is A.
4 Choose the Correct Preposition
1. Option C is the right answer as ‘ebd’ is the correct sequence
of prepositions to be used in the given set of sentences.
As we can see:
1. Krishna said that he would arrive between 2 and 3 pm.
2. In the newly constructed shopping mall the shops stay
open from 11 am to 11 pm.
3. The formalities are all over and the rocket is ready for
launch in 30 minutes.
The correct answer is C.
As we can see:
1. ‘On’ is used to indicate where someone or something is
hit or touched.
2. ‘Between’ is used to indicate two or more people or
things that together produce a result or have an effect.
3. ‘Into’ is used to describe the state, condition, or form of
(something).
The correct answer is B.
4. Keyword—not correct
Connector—none
Prediction for blank 1—distinguishing
Prediction for blank 2—but
(A) ‘Universal means relating to or done by all people or
things in the world or in a particular group. This cannot
be a fit. ‘Moreover’ means ‘in addition’. This is also
incorrect.
(B) ‘Discriminating’ means discerning. This can be a fit.
‘Furthermore’ means in addition. This is not a correct fit.
(C) ‘Subjective’ means based on or influenced by personal
feelings, tastes, or opinions. ‘Surprisingly’ means
unexpectedly. These can be negated.
(D) ‘Contentious’ means controversial. ‘Nonetheless’ means
in spite of that. These are not correct fits.
(E) Correct ‘Differentiating’ means to form or mark
differently from other such things. ‘However’ means still
or but.
The correct answer is E.
7. Keyword—The vegetation
Connector—But (contrast)
Prediction for blanks 1 and 2—lush—thin, thin-lush
(A) Correct. ‘Luxuriant’, ‘copious’ and ‘bountiful’ mean
abundant and can fit the first blank. ‘Sparse’ means
thinly dispersed and shows contrast. ‘Luxuriant’ and
‘sparse’ are the correct options.
(B) ‘Profuse’ means the same as ‘copious’ and cannot fit the
blank. We need a set of words that show contrast. Thus,
this option can be negated.
(C) ‘Slender’ and ‘scanty’ mean thinly dispersed or
scattered. They can also fill the first blank. However,
‘sporadic’ means occurring at irregular intervals or only
in a few places. This also does not indicate contrast.
Hence, the option can be negated.
(D) ‘Exiguous’ means very small in size or amount. This can
also be negated.
(E) ‘Munificent’ means displaying great generosity. This
option can also be canceled.
The correct answer is A.
8. Keyword—wasn’t aware
Connector—because of
Prediction for blank 1—morals or values
Prediction for blank 2—satisfaction or dissatisfaction
(A) ‘Turpitude’ means moral corruption. Both, ‘turpitude’ and
’satisfied’ are not an appropriate fit.
(B) ‘Depravity’ also means moral corruption. Both,
‘depravity’ and ’certain’ are not an appropriate fit.
(C) Correct. ‘Rectitude’, ‘righteousness’ and ‘morality’ mean
morally correct behaviour or thinking. They can fit the
first blank. ‘Rectitude’ and ‘convinced’ are the only
options which fit the blanks appropriately. A parent will
usually believe his/her child to be a morally righteous
person, unless convinced otherwise.
(D) ‘Coaxed’ means to influence or gently urge by caressing
or flattering. This is not an appropriate fit.
(E) ‘Unassertive’ means (of a person) not having or showing
a confident and forceful personality. This is also not an
appropriate fit.
The correct answer is C.
9. Keyword—Budget travellers
Connector—when
Prediction for blank—reduce, drop
(A) ‘Escalate’ means to ‘increase rapidly’. This can be
negated.
(B) Correct. ‘Plummet’ means ‘a steep and rapid fall or
drop’.
(C) ‘Descend’ means to ‘pass from a higher place or level to
a lower one’. This is not an appropriate option.
(D) ‘Abate’ means become less intense or widespread.
(E) Diminish means dwindle or weaken gradually in size,
amount, or strength.
The correct answer is B.
Connector—if
Prediction for blank 1—Unstable
Prediction for blank 2—Drunk
(A) ‘Startled’ means ‘astonished’. ‘Restrained’ means
‘unemotional’. Both the words don’t fit the context.
(B) Correct. ‘Staggering’ means ‘walk or move unsteadily,
as if about to fall. ‘Inebriated’ means ‘drunk’.
(C) ‘Wobbly’ means ‘tending to move unsteadily from side to
side. ‘Despondent’ means ‘in low spirits from loss of
hope or courage’. Though the first word can fill the
blank, the second word is unsuitable.
(D) ‘Rickety’ means ‘feeble in the joints’. This is not an
appropriate fit for the context. ‘Intoxicated’ means
‘drunk’. This can fill the second blank.
(E) ‘Fragile’ means ‘delicate and vulnerable’. ‘Sober’ means
‘not affected by alcohol’. Both the words don’t fit the
context.
The correct answer is B.
Connector—and
Prediction for blank 1—Calamities
Prediction for blank 2—Credibility
Prediction for blank 3—Unthinkable
(A) ‘Tragedy’ means ‘an event causing great and often
sudden damage’. This can be a fit. ‘Authenticity is the
quality of being genuine or real. ‘Conceivable’ means
‘capable of being imagined or grasped mentally. This is
incorrect.
(B) ‘Calamity’ means ‘a disaster’. ‘Plausibility’ means ‘the
quality of seeming reasonable or probable’. ‘Ineffable’
means ‘too great or extreme to be expressed or
described in words. This option can be negated.
(C) ‘Affliction’ means ‘a cause of pain or harm’. ‘Chicanery’
means ‘the use of deception or subterfuge to achieve
one’s purpose. ‘Improbable’ means ‘not likely to be true
or to happen’. These words are not relevant in the
context.
(D) Correct. ‘Disaster’ means ‘a sudden accident or a
natural catastrophe that causes great damage or loss of
life. ‘Verisimilitude’ means ‘the appearance of being true
or real. ‘Inconceivable’ means ‘unbelievable’.
(E) ‘Tribulations’ means ‘a cause of great trouble or
suffering’. ‘Artfulness’ means ‘slyly crafty or cunning’.
‘Unimaginable’ means ‘difficult or impossible to imagine
or comprehend’.
The correct answer is D.
11. This is an analogy based question. The idea here is to find the
option which does not draw a similar relationship to that of
the given pair. Start by making a bridge between the words
given in the question stem— The relationship shared by the
original pair is that of ‘degree of intensity’. ‘Tepid’ means
slightly warm which is a mild degree of ‘boiling.’
Now, plug the bridge into the answer choices:
(A) ‘Punctilious’ means showing great attention to detail or
correct behavior. Incorrect.
(B) A ‘downpour’ is a heavy rainfall. Incorrect.
(C) ‘Dote’ means to be extremely and uncritically fond of
somebody. Incorrect.
(D) Both ‘avaricious’ and ‘rapacious’ mean to be extremely
greedy. Correct.
(E) ‘Vainglorious’ means to be excessively vain or proud.
Incorrect.
The correct answer is D.
1. Statement-Conclusion
2. Statement-Assumption
3. Statement-Course of Action
4. Fact analysis
5. Statement-Argument
The third section ‘Analytical Puzzles’, includes the following
topics:
1. Analytical Puzzles
2. Input-Output
The fourth section ‘Other Reasoning’, includes the following
topics:
1. Missing value in figures
2. Set Theory
3. Decision Making
4. Ranking Test
5. Venn Diagrams
6. Syllogism
6.1 Top Tips to Prepare for Logical Reasoning
1. You will get 36 questions in the Logical Reasoning section
on the NMAT by GMAC™ that you will have to attempt in 40
minutes. You will have about 1 minute for each question.
2. This section will test you on two areas of Reasoning—Verbal
Reasoning and Analytical Reasoning.
3. Read every part of the question carefully. Similarly, make
sure you have looked at each answer choice before
selecting your final answer. Even if you like an option at the
first glance, make sure you have taken a look at all the
remaining options as well before marking your answer.
4. NEVER assume or use any information that is not provided
in the question. This section is not trying to assess your
general knowledge. Consider ONLY the information given in
each statement and use this to answer the question.
5. Pay special attention to words like ‘all’, ‘some’ or ‘none’
when you read the factual information provided in each
question. Other qualifying words such as ‘other than’, ‘only’
or ‘unless’ are also important. These words can play a
critical part in precisely specifying the facts that need to be
used while reasoning.
6. Try to represent the given information pictorially, especially in
arrangement questions, or as a Venn diagram in syllogism
questions.
7. Logical Reasoning skills cannot be developed overnight, so
make sure you spend a lot of time before the test practising
Logical Reasoning questions and analysing your mistakes.
6.2 Critical Reasoning
6.3 What is Measured?
The critical reasoning section will test you on your ability to
analyse arguments logically. It will present you with a small
passage in the form of an argument and you will be required to
use logic to evaluate the strength of the arguments, identify
assumptions and conclusions, provide supporting statements,
replicate the reasoning and so on.
This section not only tests your understanding of English; it also
tests your logical reasoning ability.
6.4 Overall Test Taking Strategies
1. Read the passage carefully. Identify the premises,
assumptions and conclusion.
2. Make sure you have identified the conclusion of the passage
correctly.
3. Read the question stem to understand what has to be done
(strengthen / weaken / find assumption etc.) and then try to
formulate a broad idea in your mind.
4. Go through the answer choices and use the process of
elimination to arrive at the correct solution.
Introduction
Critical reasoning is a process. It involves conceptualisation, analysis
and application of objective, rational reasoning in order to arrive at
conclusions.
To be skilled in critical thinking is to be able to deconstruct one’s
thinking into individual arguments, analyse each one on its merit,
assess its validity and improve upon it. The first step in this process is
gaining an understanding of the elements of reasoning.
In critical reasoning, we are given an argument (a short paragraph) and
asked to answer questions based on it. Let us first define an argument.
Arguments constitute the basis of conversation. They are combinations
of facts, data, information and opinion that aim to influence the
perspective of the other person.
Structure of an argument
All arguments follow a structure, which may either be deliberate or
discovered through analysis.
At its simplest, an argument is a simple set of three things:
1. Facts
Facts are also referred to as premise in logic. By now, we can
recognise the conclusion in a critical reasoning paragraph. Typically,
this conclusion is proven with some information that is provided with the
conclusion—this information are the premises. A premise (or premises)
of an argument is something that is presented as being true. Although it
is not proven, its truth is assumed in the given scenario.
Premises: The people in this city are mad.
I am 5 feet tall
Identifying premises:
Premise is generally preceded by words like
Let us try and understand the approach for solving Critical Reasoning
questions. The process is simple:
1. Read the question stem.
2. Read the paragraph and analyse it keeping the question in mind.
3. State what a good answer can look like.
4. Now look at the answer choices and eliminate the incorrect
choices.
Step 1: Read the question stem.
‘Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument
given above?’
Step 2: Read the paragraph.
The question wants us to weaken the argument, that is, the
conclusion of the paragraph. Hence while reading, you have to
spot the conclusion and be aware of the premises that validate the
conclusion. In this case, the conclusion is ‘hair loss is one of the
causes of stress’. The reason—because people with hair loss
suffer from more stress.
Step 3: State what a good answer can look like.
What is wrong with this argument? Well, just because hair loss
and stress occur together does not mean that hair loss leads to
stress. It could easily be stress that causes hair loss or they can
be two random events that just co-incidentally occur together.
Here is an interesting fact: In the USA, it was found that beer
and diapers are usually bought together in department stores.
Using this fact, if I come to the conclusion that drinking beer leads
to loss of bladder control (hence, the diapers) or worse still,
wearing diapers leads to a craving for beer, then I am obviously
wrong. So, just because two things (beer and diapers) occur
together does not imply that one causes the other. This could be
one of the answers.
Step 4: Eliminate the incorrect answer choices.
(A) There are other causes like financial instability that may cause
more stress than hair loss.
This just shows that there are other causes; it does not negate
hair loss as a cause.
(B) Employees have been experiencing hair loss in recent times
whereas they have been experiencing the same levels of stress
for a very long time.
If people are experiencing the same level of stress even before
hair loss, then may be hair loss does not cause the stress. Clearly
if hair loss causes stress then with the advent of hair loss there
would have at least been an increase in stress.
(C) The study should also consider people who face no stress.
If I want to explore the causes for stress then studying people who
have no stress will not be very helpful.
(D) Stress may have a large number of factors that cause it.
Like the first option, this also just shows that there are other
causes; it does not negate hair loss as a cause.
(E) Recently, there has been a decline in the reported instances of
hair loss.
This statement has no bearing on the main argument being
discussed.
The correct answer is option B.
Some observations:
• What we thought our answer can look like and what was the actual
answer were two different things. That’s fine! Forming an
approximate answer ensures that you have understood and imbibed
the paragraph.
• The key to solving a Critical Reasoning question lies in the question
stem. Hence, it is important to read it first because the question
stem will dictate how you will analyse the paragraph. This obviously
leads us to the analysis of question stem.
So, what kind of question stems can we come across and what kinds of
analyses are possible?
Types of questions
Inference questions will ask you to infer or conclude something from the
information given in the passage. The literal meaning of infer is to
conclude something without it being explicitly mentioned. This is exactly
what you are required to do on an inference question—arrive at an
option that is not explicitly stated in the Passage but that can easily be
concluded given the information in it.
Inference vs Assumption
An inference is similar to a conclusion that can be drawn based on one
or more elements of the statement. An inference must be true based on
something that you read. An assumption is a hidden but necessary
piece of evidence. An assumption is something that must be true in
order for the argument to be complete and valid.
Inference questions are diametrically opposite to assumption questions.
In inference questions, you have to conclude a statement that has to be
true. It is not ‘perhaps’, ‘may be’, or ‘most likely’ true, it has to be true.
Usually, these inferences are a small step away from the conclusion
and in some rare cases it can be an assumption that has to be true. A
good trick in these questions is to be biased towards options that use
mild words such as perhaps, likely, and so on instead of all, definitely,
and so on.
Example 2
Last month three automobile manufacturers—companies H, T and
S—launched new models of their respective sedans in Japan. The
three models that were launched were similarly priced and had
similar features. However, the sales of company S’s new sedan
have been far lower than those of companies
H and T’s new sedans in the last month.
The statements above best support which of the following as a
conclusion?
(A) The people in Japan prefer cars manufactured by companies
T and H to those manufactured by company S.
(B) The people in Japan do not like cars manufactured by
company S.
(C) Cars manufactured by company S are notorious for their
flimsy build quality and poor fuel efficiency.
(D) In the last month, company S has earned less revenue from
the sale of its new sedan than companies H and T.
(E) Company D manufactures its cars primarily for the export
market and not for domestic sale.
Solution
Do remember that the passage of an Inference question may not
necessarily be in the form of an argument. In fact, most often the
passage will contain a set of facts like the one above. All that the
above passage tells us is that companies H, T and S have each
launched a new sedan last month and that the sales of companies
H and T’s new sedans have been far greater than the sales of
company S’s new sedan. These are all facts, and the author does
not provide any conclusion on the basis of these facts.
With this background, let’s go through each of the options in the
above question and see if we can arrive at the correct answer:
(A) This seems very obvious but such inferences must be
avoided. For all you know Japanese people might actually
prefer company S cars the most but due to some supply
constraints company S’s new sedan may not be available in
the market.
(B) The earlier explanation applies to this option as well. In fact,
this option goes a step further by concluding that Japanese
people do not like company S cars at all. Since this may or
may not be the case, this cannot be the correct answer.
(C) This looks very logical because it provides a very convincing
reason why the sales of company S’s cars have been so low.
But is that what we are supposed to do? Absolutely not. So,
this option does not even come close to being an Inference.
It merely explains why the sales of company S’s new sedan
may have been low but that is not what we are required to
do in the argument.
(D) The Correct answer. The argument tells us that the three new
sedans are similarly priced. Then if company S has sold
fewer cars (and by a large margin) than companies H and T,
its revenues from the sale of this new sedan have to be
lower than those of companies H and T. This option must be
true in all cases and hence has to be the correct answer.
(E) Like option C, this option again provides a logical explanation
for company S’s low sales in Japan but this may or may not
be the case. In any case we are not required to provide an
explanation in the first place. So, this cannot be a valid
inference.
Assumption based questions
Example 5
Kamlesh: It is quite surprising that junk food consumption has
increased by 20% from last year.
Kavita: What is so surprising about that? As it was last year, junk
food is still popular.
Kamlesh: The Government of India has been putting in sustained
efforts to publicise the harmful effects of junk food since last year.
So I expected junk food consumption to go down.
Which of the following responses can Kavita make to resolve
the paradox?
(A) Junk food consumption has steadily increased every year.
(B) Kamlesh and Kavita rarely eat junk food.
(C) Currently, the youth in the country are very health conscious
and regularly watch what they eat.
(D) Most people eat junk food because it is served quickly and
can be eaten while travelling.
(E) Junk food consumption is restricted to a particular segment of
society.
Solution
Step 1: Read the question stem.
Which of the following responses can Kavita make to resolve the
paradox? Resolving paradoxes are very similar to ‘Weakening the
Argument’ questions. Think about it. The paradox exists because
the author has made some conclusion that the premise does not
support.
Step 2: As usual, we will focus on Conclusion-Premise-
Assumption.
Remember that you now need to state the assumption negatively
to weaken the argument.
Conclusion / What?: It is quite surprising that junk food
consumption has increased by 20% from last year.
Premise / Why?: The government of India has been putting in
sustained efforts to publicize the harmful effects of junk food since
last year.
Step 3: State what a good answer can look like.
Assumption: Kamlesh is assuming that just because something
has been deemed unhealthy, people will stop eating it. We need to
negate this assumption, we can do this by introducing another
cause.
Step 4: Eliminate the incorrect answer choices.
(A) Junk food consumption has steadily increased every year.
Increase in junk food do not explain why junk food
consumption is rising despite campaigns to discourage junk
food consumption.
(B) Kamlesh and Kavita rarely eat junk food.
What Kamlesh and Kavita do in their personal life cannot
explain aggregate figures for junk food consumption.
(C) Currently, the youth in the country are very health conscious
and regularly watch what they eat.
This actually intensifies the paradox because if people are
health conscious then they will reduce their junk food
consumption.
(D) Most people eat junk food because it is served quickly and
can be eaten while travelling.
This introduces a new reason as to why people prefer junk
food. Hence it negates the assumption that Kamlesh makes
and helps in explaining the paradox.
(E) Junk food consumption is restricted to a particular segment of
society.
Just like option (C), this option also strengthens the paradox.
If consumption of junk food is restricted to a specific segment
of society then its use should remain stable and not increase.
The correct answer is option D.
Parallel the reasoning
Example 6
The fear of contracting swine flu is very high in Asian countries. If
only these people could compare the number of people who
actually contract swine flu (very few) with the number of people
who actually contract the common cold (high),then this fear would
be assuaged.
Which of the following is most closely similar to the
reasoning used in the argument above?
(A) I do not understand why people fear cockroaches even if they
are numerous; the real danger lies with tigers even though
they are few.
(B) I do not understand why people fear cockroaches even if they
are numerous; the real danger lies with tigers because they
are too numerous to count.
(C) I do not understand why people fear cockroaches, they are
very few; the real danger lies with tigers because they are
too numerous to count.
(D) I do not understand why people fear cockroaches, they are
very few; the real danger lies with tigers because though
they are few they can hide in the unlikeliest of places.
(E) I do not understand why people fear cockroaches even if they
are few; the real danger lies with tigers as they are few.
Solution
Step 1: Read the question stem.
Which of the following is most similar to the reasoning used in the
argument above?
Pay close attention to how the original argument is structured, you
will have to replicate the same structure in the answer.
Step 2: Find the structure of the original argument.
The original argument states that you should not fear something
because it occurs rarely, instead you
should fear the things that occur a greater number of times.
Step 3: State what a good answer can look like.
The fear for tigers is very high in Asian countries. If only these
people could contrast the number of tigers (very few) with the
number of cockroaches (high) then this fear would be assuaged.
Of course, we should not have pre-conceived notions about tigers
and cockroaches. Hence the answer
can easily look like this:
The fear for cockroaches is very high in Asian countries. If only
these people could contrast the
number of cockroaches (very few) with the number of tigers (high)
then this fear would be assuaged.
Step 4: Eliminate the incorrect answer choices.
From the above step, the answer clearly has to be (C).
The correct answer is option C.
Tips for solving questions on critical reasoning
1. Start by reading the question stem.
Doing this shall allow you to identify the type of question
(Assumption, Strengthen, Weaken, Inference, and so on). This
shall let you categorise the different elements of the argument
structure, for example, the premises, the assumption and the
conclusion.
2. Try to predict the answer before looking at the options.
It is not necessary to have a detailed solution, but a generic
statement or a broad outline/framework will help point you in the
right direction by eliminating choices.
3. Analyse the given answer choices.
Carefully read through all 5 answer choices. While doing so,
compare these choices with your prediction. There will be certain
choices that can be eliminated upfront – they will either be beyond
the scope of the argument, too narrow in their construction or too
vague and so on. Once you have eliminated 2–3 options through
this process, the remaining 2–3 options can then be evaluated on
the basis of their correctness.
4. Avoid options that are extreme or exaggerated in their
construction.
For an option to be the correct answer, it must always hold true
within the context of the argument. However, one should be
cautious of modifiers that amplify one aspect of the premise or
make overstatements. They usually signify an incorrect answer.
For example, if the argument states that “certain phones made by
the company were defective”, then an answer choice that claims
that “most of the phones made by the company were defective.”
Will be incorrect. Also, beware of extreme words like “always”,
“only’, “never”, “none” and so on. Usually, these options will be
incorrect.
5. Be conscious of a change in the scope of the argument.
Scope refers to the specific aspects of a topic. For example, the
topic of a passage may be “Bollywood” and its scope may be “the
changing face of the female lead over the years”. Thus, the scope
is a more specific, narrower delineation of the topic. In critical
reasoning questions, it is extremely important to identify those
answer choices that shift the scope of the argument, albeit slightly.
For example, the passage may present a study that claims that
there has been an increase in the natural disasters plaguing the
state of Uttarakhand. In this case, an answer choice that talks
about the increased number of earthquakes in the state, though
tempting, will actually be incorrect. This is because natural
calamities are not restricted to earthquakes only. This alters the
scope of the initial argument.
6.5 Deductions
6.6 What is Measured?
This section will test you on your ability to use logic to evaluate the
strength of arguments, draw assumptions and inferences from
statements, evaluate effective courses of action and so on.
This section focuses on the analysis and interpretation of various
statements– with respect to their structure and application.
6.7 Overall Test Taking Strategies
1. Logic does not mean common sense. So, do not use
common sense or any outside information while answering
questions. Only focus on the statement and options given to
you.
2. Read the question carefully and watch out for terms such as
must, always, could, might and so on, as these could define
the difference between a correct and an incorrect answer
choice.
3. Avoid extreme options in Inference-based questions.
1 Introduction
Logic, which derives from the Ancient Greek word, logike refers
to the systematic study of the various kinds of arguments. A valid
argument is one where there is a logical, rational correlation
between the assumptions made in the argument and the
conclusions derived.
Questions based on reasoning are regularly asked in NMAT by
GMAC™ and are quite challenging. Their difficulty level is higher
as compared to the other management entrance examinations
and comprehensive practice across the various question types is
required in order to enhance one’s accuracy level.
You can even get questions with more than two conclusions
associated with them. Let us take a look at an example:
Statement: All those who had passed the eligibility test were
jobs as teachers in government schools.
Conclusion All those who were given jobs as teachers in gov
I: schools had passed the eligibility test.
Conclusion No government school now is without teachers w
II: not passed the eligibility test.
Conclusion Some government schools now have teachers w
III: passed the eligibility test.
Conclusion No school earlier had teachers who had passed
IV: eligibility test.
(A) Only I can be concluded
(B) Only II can be concluded
(C) Only III can be concluded
(D) Only I and III can be concluded
(E) Only III and IV can be concluded
Solution
Although all those who had passed the eligibility test were
given jobs, jobs could also have been given to some people
who had not passed the eligibility test. We also do not know
if the number of people who passed the eligibility test was
big enough to fill positions in all schools. Also, we cannot
conclude anything about the situation before this particular
event about given jobs to people who had passed the test.
The correct answer is C.
3 Statement and Assumption Questions
An assumption is an unstated premise that supports the
conclusion. An assumption provides logical support to the given
statement of the question. In other words, we can say that an
assumption is a concept, thought or view that is considered to be
true and taken for granted. An assumption is the hidden part of a
statement that is neither directly explained nor explicit. It is
implicit in the flow of the argument.
Both premise and assumption are unquestionable facts but the
assumption, unlike the premise, is not explicitly stated and needs
to be deciphered. Assumption is something that is taken for
granted in the context of a statement. For instance, ‘All kids are
happy when they get new gadgets. Therefore, Vicky will be
happy when he gets the new mobile phone.’ In this, the
assumption is that Vicky is a kid. Without this assumption, the
argument will make no sense. We can also assume that mobile
phone is a gadget.
Questions with statements and assumptions are common in the
logical reasoning section of entrance examinations. An
assumption question asks you to identify an unstated premise of
the statement. As you read the statement, try and identify a gap
in the underlying argument. The gap can only be closed by
stating out aloud what is now being assumed.
Identifying an assumption
While saying something, a person does not state each and every
aspect of his/her views. There are many things, views, thoughts,
and so on that remain unsaid. These ‘unsaid’ things, views,
thoughts, and so on are considered as ‘assumptions’.
An assumption is an important part of any argument. Almost all
arguments are based on some assumption or the other. The
most important aspect of assumptions is that they are implicit,
that is, they will never be written explicitly in the
statement/argument. However, the assumption must be true for
the argument’s conclusion to be true.
Testing an assumption
There are two types of question patterns. The first one is based
on a problem and suggested course of action which can help in
the resolution of the problem. The second one includes a fact or
situation and suggested courses of action which could improve
the situation. So, while attempting this segment, first decide
whether the given statement is based on a problem or is
describing a fact/situation.
In Problem and Solution based pattern, the given statement
presents a problem and the suggested course of action presents
solutions which can be accepted as appropriate, if they solve or
minimise the problem and are practically possible. We have to
keep in mind that a prescribed course of action that solves the
problem, but is not practically possible is of no use and must
definitely be rejected.
Statement
There is a widespread waterlogging in the city after the recent
heavy rains and large parts of the city are inundated.
Courses of Action:
I. Pumping out water from affected areas must be started
immediately.
II. The municipal corporation should invite suggestions to
prevent recurrence of the situation.
Mark your answer as follows:
(A) If only I follows.
(B) If only II follows.
(C) If either I or II follows.
(D) If neither I nor II follows.
(E) If both I and II follow.
Solution
The statement mentions two problems – waterlogging and
inundation caused by rains. Since nothing can be done about the
rains, we need to have solutions to get relief from waterlogging.
Also, the problem is urgent, and hence requires a solution that will
work and get results immediately. Action I is a valid course of
action while action II is a long-term suggestion that will not get
any solution to the present problem. Hence, the best choice is
option (A).
The correct answer is A.
In Fact and Improvement based pattern, the given statement
provides a simple fact and the suggested course of action
suggests ways to improve the condition.
Types of questions
Questions with two courses of actions to choose from
1. Scope– Universal/Specific
2. Charge
3. Main Idea
4. Tone
In a statement pay special attention to words like– all, no, few,
most, must, had to, will be, always, never, should be, may, may
not, only and so on. These will help you assess the facts and
arrive at the correct conclusion. Let us consider an example:
Example 1
Facts:
Fact 1: Graphics can tell news.
Fact 2: All newspapers have graphics.
Fact 3: Some newspapers have text.
Statements:
I. Some newspapers have both text and graphics.
II. Graphics can tell news better than text can.
III. The news in newspapers is very interesting.
(A) Only I can be concluded.
(B) Only II can be concluded.
(C) Only III can be concluded.
(D) Both II and III can be concluded.
(E) None of the statements can be concluded.
Solution
Statement I can be concluded from Fact 2 and 3. Those
newspapers which have text will have both text and
graphics. Statements II and III cannot be concluded as
there is no information about the efficacy of text in telling
news.
The correct answer is A.
Application of logic
The conclusion may not follow the given statement directly, but by
application of logic we can evaluate the conclusion. Let us
consider the following examples.
Example 2
Facts:
Fact 1: World Bank has proposed a loan of 1000 million
dollars for South Africa.
Fact 2: Apprehensions about erosion in the agriculturists’
vote bank prevented the ruling party from accepting
the World Bank proposal.
Fact 3: The opposition has criticised the decision of the
government.
Statements:
I. The proposal is pro-industrialists.
II. The proposal is anti-agriculturists.
III. The opposition party is anti-agriculturist.
A. Only I can be concluded.
B. Only II can be concluded.
C. Only III can be concluded.
D. Both I and III can be concluded.
E. None of the statements can be concluded.
Solution
From the facts it is clear that the South African government
rejected the proposal to appease agriculturists. But we can’t
draw any conclusions about whom the proposal favors.
Hence, we cannot conclude that the proposal is in favor of
industrialists. Thus, statement I does not follow. But it can
be inferred that the proposal is not in favor of agriculturists.
Hence, statement II follows. However, the fact that the main
opposition party has criticised the government’s decision
does not mean that the party is anti-agriculturists. It is
possible that they have a different perspective or believe
that the proposal actually benefits the farmers. It is also
possible that they might be opposing the ruling party out of
spite. Hence, statement III does not follow.
Let us consider a final example:
Example 3
The new CEO of a Research facility met with its Security In-
charge to assess the security protocols in place. During the
meeting, the following facts were gathered:
Fact 1: The research facility must have at least one
supervisor on duty 24 hours a day, seven days a
week, to satisfy Central and State labour regulations.
Fact 2: To maximise operational efficiency, there must be
exactly 10 security guards manning the facility.
Fact 3: The facility operates from 8am until 5pm, Monday
to Sunday. The security guards are required for this
duration only.
Fact 4: The facility employs 4 supervisors and 16 security
guards making the total strength of the security team
20.
Fact 5: Total weekly employee cost for the security team
is $16,000.
Statements:
I. One fifth of the total cost of the security team is for
supervisors.
II. At least one supervisor must work more than 40 hours
per week.
III. The security guards do not work more than 40 hours per
week.
IV. The majority of the security team’s employee cost is due
to the guards.
(A) Only I can be concluded.
(B) Only II can be concluded.
(C) Only III can be concluded.
(D) Both I and III can be concluded.
(E) None of the statements can be concluded.
Let us analyse the different options:
(A) There are 4 supervisors out of 20 security guards so it seems
likely that the cost of a supervisor will be 1 / 5 of the total
cost. But such an analysis assumes a very important piece
of information– that every person gets the same salary.
Since we don’t know this for a fact, this conclusion can’t be
drawn.
(B) This can be concluded based on the provided facts. As per
the facts, the research facility must have at least one
supervisor on duty 24 hours a day, seven days a week to
satisfy Central and State labour regulations. Thus, a total of
24 × 7 = 168 supervisor hours are needed in a week, which
equals 42 hours per week per supervisor. So, there has to
be one supervisor who works more than 40 hours.
(C) The facility opens for 9 hours every day, 7 days per week,
and there must be exactly 10 guards working at a time: this
translates to 630-man hours per week. There are 16 guards,
so on an average each guard must work only 39 hours per
week. This seems to fit very well with the proposed
conclusion: security guards do not work more than 40 hours
per week. But we don’t know whether every security guard
works the same amount of time (It is possible that some
guards work for more than 40 hours while others work for
lesser number of hours)
(D) As explained in A, there are more security guards, so it is
easy to conclude that the total cost for security guards is
more than the total cost for supervisors. But such a
conclusion makes the same assumption- that every person
earns the same amount. Hence, this is also incorrect.
Thus, only option B can be concluded.
6 Statement and Argument Questions
A statement that is used to support a proposition or statement in
favour or against is called an argument. It is irrelevant whether an
argument is favourable or adverse to a proposition. Both
favourable & adverse arguments are considered as strong
enough in their own ways.
Strong arguments are those that are directly connected to the
subject matter in the given statement and that help you
strengthen or support that statement. Weak arguments, on the
other hand, are either not connected to the subject matter at all or
they are connected to it in a very indirect and far-fetched manner.
Let us understand these concepts in detail.
Structure of an argument
Let us understand the structure of an argument with the help of
an example:
People don’t like to visit the Evergreen wildlife park in the rainy
season. This year the park authorities have reconstructed all the
roads inside the park, so people will like to visit the Evergreen
Park in the rainy reason this year.
Conclusion—This is the point of the argument and answers the
question What, that is, what the argument is basically stating—
that people would like to visit the Evergreen Wildlife park in the
rainy season this year.
Conclusions usually follow signalling words such as thus, so,
hence, therefore, and so on. In case there are no such words in
the argument, try to paraphrase the entire argument in one line.
This line would almost always be the conclusion of the argument.
Evidence—While the Conclusion tells you What the argument is
saying, the Evidence tells you Why the argument is concluding
what it is concluding. So in the above argument, why does the
author conclude that people will like to visit the Evergreen Park
this year? Because the park authorities have reconstructed all the
roads inside the park, so this becomes your evidence.
Evidence usually follows signalling words such as because, since,
as a result of, and so on.
So the conclusion tells you the what of the argument and the
evidence tells you the why of the argument. Another way of
looking at conclusion and evidence is that a conclusion will almost
always be an opinion whereas the evidence will almost always be
a fact. In the above argument it is a fact that the roads have been
reconstructed but it is the author’s opinion that people will like to
visit the Evergreen Park this year.
Assumption—Now, going back to the above argument, notice
that from the given evidence we cannot necessarily arrive at the
stated conclusion. The argument only states that people don’t
want to visit the Evergreen Park during the rainy season; it never
states why people don’t like to do so. So the author assumes that
the only reason people don’t like to visit the park is because of the
poor road conditions within the park. If this is not assumed then
the argument will fall apart.
For example, if the real reason why people do not visit the
Evergreen Park was the fact that there are hardly any animals in
the park, then even if the roads were of best quality, people will
not visit the park because bad roads was not the reason for
people not visiting the park in the first place. So, for the author to
conclude that people will want to visit the park this year, he has to
assume that the only reason people did not visit the park earlier
was the poor road conditions inside the park.
Identifying an argument
How to identify an argument as strong or weak?
Strong Argument: Statements that reinforce/build on the idea
discussed through the use of reasons, facts, and examples.
Strong argument provides a valid and directly related reason
either in favour of or against the proposal made.
• A strong argument provides a sensible and acceptable
argument that either supports or opposes the proposition.
• It is supported by the given facts or established notions.
• An argument based on Universal Truth is always strong.
Weak Argument: Statements that present data, facts, reasoning
that either contradicts or dilutes the argument presented are
known as weak arguments. They can be personal or judgmental
in nature.
• A weak argument is not directly related to the given statement.
• A weak argument does not discuss the key aspects of the
statement.
• It includes limited explanations.
• Weak arguments are personal or judgmental in nature.
Strong Arguments Weak Arguments
Important Learning:
• An argument that addresses the given issue even
by providing a partial solution should be
considered a strong argument provided the
solution is relevant to the issue and does not
create a new set of problems.
• An argument that presents a positive outcome for
large number of people is considered a strong
argument. For example, even if a government or
an organisation’s action puts some burden on the
public but is justified on the basis that it would
improve the quality of the services provided or
increase the number of new services, then the
argument is strong.
• An argument that presents an unethical, unrealistic
or extreme solution is considered weak.
• Any argument that supports added burden on the
general population, either in terms of money or
hardship, is usually considered a weak argument.
For example, if an action is supported on the
ground that it would increase the revenue or
profitability for an organisation/government but add
to the burden of the general public using the
service, it is not a strong argument.
• Again, if an action is opposed on the ground that it
would increase the expenditure of the government,
even if the general public would have gained by
the said action, it is considered a weak argument.
Let us elucidate the above points with the help of some examples:
Example
Statement: Should the government invest in female educatio
improve the sex ratio in the country?
Argument Yes. Higher levels of female education will help r
I: female infanticide.
Argument No. The government does not have the resource
II: invest in such schemes.
Argument No. There is a simple solution to the problem: the
III: boys should be killed.
Solution
In the case discussed above, argument I will be considered
a strong argument, because, even though it may not solve
the whole problem, it addresses an important aspect of the
problem. This is because it presents a positive and relevant
solution to the issue being discussed. Argument II will not
be considered a strong argument. As mentioned above, in
statements involving government/public bodies or people in
authority, the cost of undertaking an activity that impacts
public life is never a strong argument for not doing it. The
third argument, though presenting a direct solution to the
core problem of sex ratio imbalance, will be considered
weak because it is unethical and extreme. At the same
time, it will create larger problems.
Types of questions
Questions with two arguments
Note: Do not get confused with the lefts and rights. The
right of T will be your left because all the people are sitting
facing the table.
Using the information in Statement (ii) we get
Example 9
The head of an institution was standing behind a 4 feet high
rostrum in an afternoon on a sunny day to address his
students. He is 6 feet tall and cast a shadow in his front 9 m
long. If he completes his lectures in next 30 seconds and
leaves the place, what will be the length of the shadow cast
by the rostrum after his departure.
Solution
Step 1 : 71 C W 24 44 57 H B
Step 2 : 71 B C W 24 44 57 H
Step 3 : 71 B 57 C W 24 44 H
Step 4 : 71 B 57 C W 24 44 H
Step 5 : 71 B 57 C 44 W 24 H
Step 6 : 71 B 57 C 44 H W 24
Step 7 : 71 B 57 C 44 H 24 W
(A) 43
(B) 49
(C) 56
(D) 243
(E) 343
Solution
The numbers are squares of consecutive numbers—12, 22,
32, 42 and so on.
Thus, ? = 72 = 49
The correct answer is B.
2 Set Theory
Introduction
A set is defined as a group or collection of objects having similar
properties. The objects are called elements of the set and are
represented by small alphabets while the set itself is represented
by capital letters. Also, the number of distinct elements of the set
is called the cardinal number of the set.
Representation of a set
There are two basic ways to represent a set:
1. Tabular or Roster method: In this method, all the elements
of the set are shown or represented within a curly bracket
and separated by a comma.
For example, {a, e, i, o, u} is the set of all vowels in the
English language.
Similarly, {1, 3, 5, 7, 9} is the set of all odd natural numbers
less than 10.
2. Set-builder method: In this method, the elements of the set
are not shown. Instead, the rule or criteria to form or build
the set are provided.
For example, B = {b: b is a vowel of the English language}.
Types of sets
1. Empty set or Null set: A set having zero element or no
element is called a null set or empty set or void set
represented by { } or Φ.
2. Singleton set: A set having a single element is called a
singleton set.
3. Universal set: A set which is the combination of all possible
sets under consideration is called the universal set.
4. Equivalent sets: Any two sets having the same number of
elements, that is, the same cardinal number, are called
Equivalent sets.
For example, Set A is the set of all the vowels in the English
language while Set B is the set of all the odd numbers less
than 10. Then
3 Decision Making
Decision Making is essentially a test of a candidate’s ability
to apply logical and reasoning abilities to a given issue and
arrive at a plausible course of action. The decision-making
questions in NMAT by GMAC™ present students with
scenarios which need to be resolved effectively. In a
nutshell, they are conditions that require a logical and
rational decision to be made. These questions involve
elements of critical and logical reasoning.
They involve taking steps to address a problem or a circumstance
to improve the situation. In such type of questions, a situation is
presented within a statement and some actions are suggested in
the same context.
These questions are a bit different from conventional reasoning
type questions. The main feature of these types of questions is
that they are designed in such a way that the decision-making
ability of the candidates can be scrutinised. In simple words,
these questions test your ability to judge a problem and thus find
a suitable course of action for it.
Decision making concepts
Decision making questions challenge a student with respect to
his/her eye for detail, ability to adopt a nuanced approach and
judgement. To effectively solve and score in this section, you
must do the following –
1. Understand the context of the problem
2. Carefully analyse the given information
3. Understand the scope of the problem
4. Choose best possible option
Understand the context of the problem
Usually, the questions that you will see in NMAT by GMACTM will
not be from context A as this kind of problem solving requires
data and information way beyond the scope of an aptitude
question. You are most likely to find questions from context B and
C. Placing the scenario into a particular context helps define the
problem question.
Example 1
Ethan was a team leader for a team of 6 employees at City
Infotech. He was popular among employees with a
reputation of always delivering results on time. Ethan and
his team members usually followed their own office timings
and were quite often seen on coffee breaks. The
management had ignored these deviations as the team was
performing well. Ethan reports in to Julia, who managed 5
team leaders including Ethan. Julia is worried that not
addressing these deviations may impact City Infotech’s
culture negatively in the long run.
Which of the following is the basis of Julia’s apprehension?
(A) The flexibility given to Ethan and his team may be
perceived as preferential treatment by others.
(B) The working style of Ethan’s team may affect the
working style of other teams
(C) Ethan and his team’s behavior shows a Rohit’s blatant
disregard for office policies
(D) Productivity of Ethan’s team will go down in the long
run.
(E) Ethan and his teams conduct may affect the other
employees negatively.
Who is the problem factor here? Is it Ethan?
Solution
In this question, the management has allowed Ethan the
liberty to define the work culture of his team as long as he is
delivering results. Julia is worried that this will harm the
company. Ethan’s behavior speaks of a more liberal work
environment than what is probably prevalent at City
Infotech. This does not mean that he has disregard for
company policies. Also, nothing in the case indicates that
his behavior will reduce his team’s productivity in the long
run. There is also a possibility that his team delivers good
results, making Ethan a popular leader, because of his
working style.
Julia’s apprehension stems from the fact that other
employees may start to copy Ethan’s behavior. This may
lead to disorganisation in the office. Hence, Julia’s
apprehension is not about Ethan per se but about how
culture will be affected in the long run.
Therefore, understanding the context of the problem and
identifying the elements to be addressed is extremely
important in decision making scenarios.
Carefully analyse the given information
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Solution
All tea and coffee are beverages but all beverages are not
tea and coffee. Option D expresses this relation correctly.
The correct answer is D.
6 Syllogisms
A Syllogism is a logical proposition wherein a conclusion is
arrived at using two or more quantified statements. You will
typically be asked to determine whether this conclusion can
logically be arrived at from the given statements or not. The
primary difference between Syllogism questions and, say,
Inference questions is that Syllogism questions will always use
quantifiable terms such as ‘all’, ‘none’ and ‘some’.
In Syllogism questions on the NMAT by GMAC™, you will be
given two or more statements that will be followed by two or
more conclusions.
Your answer choices will be as follows:
(A) Only conclusion I follows
(B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Either conclusion I or II follows
(D) Neither I nor II follows
(E) Both I and II follow
Let’s look at certain concepts of Syllogism before approaching an
actual Syllogism question:
1. Proposition: Every syllogism question will contain two or
more propositions. A proposition is nothing but a statement
providing a relation between two terms. For example, All
men are mortals is a proposition as it provides the relation
between the terms men and mortal.
2. Use of terms such as Some and All: Almost every
proposition will involve the use of words such as some, all
and no/none. If a proposition says All pens are pencils, one
can conclude that there will not be a single pen that is not a
pencil. If a proposition says Some pens are pencils, then
there could be some pens that are not pencils though it is
not necessary. If a proposition says No pen is a pencil then
there is not a single pen that is a pencil.
3. Use of the term possibility: Sometimes, on Syllogism
questions, you will come across the term possibility in one or
more of the given conclusions. Possibility is an interesting
term because it may or may not be true. For example, if the
two propositions say Some roses are violets and Some
violets are jasmine, then some roses could be jasmine.
However, we cannot say this for sure because it is also
possible that no rose is jasmine. In such cases, the
conclusion Some roses being jasmine is a possibility is true
because possibility does not mean certainty and there is
definitely a possibility that some roses could be jasmine. You
will typically see possibility being used in the answer choices
when one or more of the propositions contain the word
some.
4. Answer choices on a Syllogism question: In a typical
Syllogism question, you will be given two statements
(propositions), which will be followed by two conclusions.
You will need to determine which of these two conclusions
logically follows from the given statements. The answer
choices will look like this:
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All follow
(E) Only III follows
Note that the order of these answer choices might change but the
wording of the five options will remain the same. While the
remaining answer choices are self-explanatory, answer choice (C)
Only I and III follow can be confusing at times. Usually, the correct
answer will be from one of the other four answer choices.
However, there is one situation in which (C) can be correct—
Complementary pairs. Complementary pairs are two conclusions
one of which must be true. For example, the conclusions Some
dogs are cats and No dog is a cat are a complementary pair
because one of the conclusions has to be true—either some dogs
will be cats or no dog will be a cat. In such cases, the correct
answer will be option (C).
5. Use of Venn diagrams to solve Syllogism questions
You can actually make use of Venn diagrams to answer
Syllogism questions because representing the information
given in the statements pictorially makes it less confusing.
There are four major propositions in Syllogisms that can be
represented using Venn diagrams. In all these propositions
we will be referring to two entities—A and B—representing
each by a circle.
(a) All A are B – There are two ways of representing this:
(i) The circle for A is completely within B.
(ii) The circle for A and B is the same, that is, all B are also
equal to A.
(c) Some A are B – In this case we draw two circles with some
intersecting part that represents the A which are also B. In the
below figure, Number 1 represents the part where Some A
are B.
3. St. Kilda, a tiny cluster of islands and sea stacks perched in the North
Atlantic 40 miles west of North Uist, was occupied for more than
4,000 years. A small community once huddled around the curve of
Village Bay on Hirta, the largest island. Sheep grazed steep slopes
all around. Modest crops of barley, oats, and potatoes were grown in
raised beds, where thin soil was carefully augmented with
applications of mineral-rich seaweed. Winter storms, rolling
unchecked across thousands of miles of open ocean, struck the
islands with almost unimaginable ferocity. In 1852, 36 islanders—
roughly a third of the population at that time—chose a long and
arduous journey to Australia over remaining on St. Kilda. Many
perished at sea.
5. Over the last few years e-mail services have become very good at
spotting spam. It catches just about every junk message before it hits
the inbox; the messages are rerouted to the spam folder, which I
myself almost never open (and when I do open it, I never notice
legitimate messages marked as spam). In other words, spam—which
was once the great boogeyman of the Internet, a scourge that was
often predicted to bring down e-mail entirely—is no longer a problem.
We have won the War on Spam.
11. In the National Park, the white tigers hardly moved around, they
always looked for opportunities to lie around. (Real NMAT Question)
13. Use of credit has both advantages and disadvantages. While one
can buy goods through credit option, many consumers may buy
things they do not really require or can even afford. But it also allows
them to take advantage of bargains when they are short of cash.
Anyone who takes advantage of this latter possibility saves money by
buying on credit.
15. “If you are an MBA aspirant, and hence are preparing for various
entrance exams, you should study Thorman Lewis to enhance your
vocabulary” – an advertisement.
16. As part of the austerity measures, the Government has put a ban on
foreign travel unless approved by an official of the Secretary level.
(Real NMAT Question)
Which of the following, if true, may be the most plausible cause for
the spread of the above mentioned diseases?
(A) The lifestyle and food habits of people, if not healthy, cause
many diseases.
(B) People themselves are responsible for the environment they
live in.
(C) People are aware of factors that can contribute to lifestyle
related diseases.
(D) Fast pace technological advancement is rampant these days
contributing to the spread of diseases.
(E) Cancer and AIDS are not avoidable by changing lifestyle and
food habits.
19. Man has reached Mars but is still unable to feed everyone on Earth.
(Real NMAT Question)
21. As Peter Parker’s Uncle Ben says to him: ‘With great power comes
great responsibility.’ (Real NMAT Question)
22. The Black Spider Monkey of Brazil has become endangered because
of human activities such as, deforestation and logging, which causes
destruction of the monkey’s natural habitat. (Real NMAT Question)
24. With an active mass media people have now become aware of their
rights and are willing to fight for them.
26. Annual recruitment in public sector banks has increased in the recent
years. This will lead to scarcity of talented candidates for private
banks.
27. I have no doubt that the Government of India should make Hindi the
official language of the country. How can we justify that the
government spends so much money to print documents in difference
languages because of those who cannot read and/or write Hindi. The
government should spend tax payers’ money for better causes. The
Government of India should enable people to learn Hindi at the
earliest.
29. ‘When women stop reading, the novel will be dead,’ declared Ian
McEwan in the Guardian last year. He reached this rather dire
conclusion after venturing into a nearby park in an attempt to give
away free novels. The result? Only one ‘sensitive male soul’ took up
his offer, while every woman he approached was ‘eager and grateful’
to do the same. Unscientific as McEwan’s experiment may be, its
thesis is borne out by a number of surveys conducted in Britain, the
United States and Canada, where men account for a paltry 20
percent of the market for fiction. Unlike the gods of the literary
establishment who remain predominantly male—both as writers and
critics—their humble readers are overwhelmingly female.
30. To anthropologists of the future, the gym boom of the past few
decades may look more like a sinister cult than a fitness movement.
Gym-going, after all, has all the basic lineaments of a religion. Its
adherents are motivated by feelings of guilt, and the urge to atone for
fleshly sins. Many visit their places of worship with a fanatical
regularity: a third of LA Fitness members, for instance, go virtually
every day. Once there, believers are led by sacerdotal instructors,
who either goad them into mass ecstasy during aerobics classes, or
preside over the confessional tête-à-tête of personal training. Each
devotee has his own rituals, though most rely on the principles of
self-mortification and delayed gratification.
Assuming the following are true, which of them casts most doubt on
the argument in this paragraph?
(A) Not all people turn gym-going into a ritual, or even go regularly.
(B) Unlike the workings of a cult, those of a gym are above-board
and meant to help people, not brainwash them.
(C) People go to the gym for many reasons, including socializing or
just feeling good about themselves, and not for any fanatical
reasons.
(D) There is at least a genuine scientific basis for going to the gym
—i.e. getting more exercise and becoming fitter and healthier—
unlike joining a cult.
(E) Cults promote fanatical devotion and commitment, not unlike
gyms.
31. Hosting a high-profile sporting event like the Olympic Games or the
World Cup can generate significant intangible benefits for the host
city or region, whose residents are likely to derive appreciable pride
and sense of community from hosting the event. Their homes are the
focus of the world’s attention for a brief but intense period. The
planning and work required to host the event take significant time
and effort—much of which is done by volunteers—and engender a
considerable local and national sense of accomplishment. These
factors are both important and valuable, even though researchers
find it difficult to place a dollar value on them.
Which of the following, if true, does NOT weaken the argument made
in this paragraph?
(A) Research shows that cities in which such events are hosted
have fewer instances of communal or societal tensions as
compared to cities that have never hosted such events.
(B) The sense of community and accomplishment last only as long
as the event itself lasts, which may be just a few days, and
have no long-term effects.
(C) The kind of attention garnered by the host city or region may be
more negative than positive, i.e. the rest of the world may feel
itself licenced to criticise the local politics and culture.
(D) There are several cheaper ways in which a sense of community
and camaraderie can be promoted.
(E) People already have a sense of community by virtue of living in
a particular place for a long time.
33. Ensuring equal opportunity has long been a prominent goal in many
countries, particularly Western Europe and America. These countries
have more equality of income - what a person gets for his efforts and
the yield of his property after taxes are deducted. Many economists
in India believe this concept of equality should be implemented in
developing countries in order to speed up economic development.
Which of the following, if true, will bring out the flaw in the argument
above?
(A) In developing countries, equality of opportunity ensures equality
of income but a person doesn’t get paid for his efforts.
(B) The excess income in the hands of people with higher incomes
provides less utility than extra income in the hands of those
with lower incomes.
(C) High achievement in many societies is due to equality of
incomes that comes from the fact that equality of opportunity
ensures equality of income.
(D) In developing countries, gross income of most of the people is
so low that if it were distributed equally, no one would save
enough to provide resources for investment.
(E) In developing countries, gross income of most of the people is
very low because of rampant corruption and high illiteracy.
34. A popular talk show host has been regularly making fun of a new
movie on his programme for the past few days. The director of the
movie attributes the poor performance of the movie to this fact.
39. Over the past 2 years, there has been a sharp decline in the number
of smokers in college campuses across the city. Over this same
period, the city’s governing council has spent a lot of money in
coming up with advertisements highlighting the harmful effects of
smoking targeted at college students. The authorities conclude that
its advertisements have been responsible for the drop in cigarette
use at college campuses within the city.
40. The sale of badminton racquets in Chennai has tripled in the last
year. Thus, it can be concluded that more and more people in
Chennai have started playing badminton.
41. In the last one month, more than a dozen children have been
attacked by Rottweilers (a large dog breed) when they stepped out of
their house to play. Thus, it is unsafe to keep dogs as pets in
neighbourhoods with a large population of children.
42. Petroleum and its by-products such as petrol and diesel cause a lot
of pollution and increase our carbon footprint. Over the last few
years, petrol and diesel have been replacing other non-renewable
fuels thereby polluting the atmosphere and as a result, affecting
health. The condition is particularly bad in cities like Delhi and
Mumbai.
(Real NMAT Question)
44. The University has increased the pace of work for getting the NAAC
accreditation, which is a must to attract students from all over the
country. It has decided to get the accreditation in the next six months.
All the requirements for getting A+ grading must be fulfilled. (Real
NMAT Question)
Which of the following statements weakens the decision of the
University?
(A) A committee has been set up to prepare the Self Study Report
of the University in 2 months.
(B) The required infrastructure will be built up by the contractor in
the next 2 years in a phased manner.
(C) The University Academic Council has done a detailed study of
the requirements for NAAC accreditation.
(D) The Board of Management will review the Self Study Report
after 2 months for necessary corrective actions.
(E) The recruitment of the required minimum number of faculty
members will also be done before the inspection of the NAAC
team.
45. There should be special tax rebates for small scale enterprises as
these enterprises create numerous jobs for thousands of people. It is
also suggested that company laws should be flexible up to a certain
limit for the small scale industries.
49. Children are often heard saying that they do not want to drink milk as
they cannot digest it. (Real NMAT Question)
Which of the following arguments strengthens the above statement?
(A) Children are known to come up with dumb excuses.
(B) In adults, the ability to digest milk is a genetic adaptation.
(C) Milk intake is good as it increases the calcium levels in the
body.
(D) Children who avoid milk face an increased risk of pre-pubertal
bone fracture.
(E) It has been scientifically proven that there are lactose-intolerant
people who cannot digest milk.
50. While China’s north-south gradient did retard crop diffusion to some
extent, it was less of a barrier there than in the Americas or Africa.
China’s long east-west rivers (the Yellow River in the north, the
Yangtze River in the south) facilitated diffusion of crops and
technology between the coast and inland, while its broad east-west
expanse and relatively gentle terrain, which eventually permitted
those two river systems to be joined by canals, facilitated north-south
exchanges. All these geographic factors contributed to the early
cultural and political unification of China, whereas western Europe,
with a similar area but a more rugged terrain and no such unifying
rivers, has resisted cultural and political unification to this day.
Inferences:
I. Hot season lasts for only two weeks on the East coast of the
country.
II. For most part of the year the east coast is safe from disasters.
Inferences:
I. Some people live in slums despite being able to afford a house
elsewhere.
II. Poverty lines do not measure incomes accurately.
3. Argument: The deforestation activities in the Amazon have
generated tremendous revenue for the small South American
nations. Now the people of this region are well-fed, owing much to
the state-sponsored food security programmes.
Inferences:
I. People of the South American nations are not self- reliant in
buying food.
II. The small nations in the South American region invest a part of
their revenues on food security.
7. Statement:
Aluminium manufactured in India is of a much better quality than the
aluminium manufactured in other countries across the world.
Conclusion I: Indian aluminium manufacturers make huge profits on
the sale of their aluminium.
Conclusion II: The manufacturing process employed by aluminium
manufacturers in India contributes to its better quality.
(A) Only I can be inferred.
(B) Only II can be inferred.
(C) Either I or II can be inferred
(D) Neither I nor II can be inferred
(E) Both I and II can be inferred
Assumptions:
I. All books based on the emotions of the youth will be best-sellers.
II. Ravi Sharma did not have a best-seller till date.
Assumptions:
I. ‘Employee of the Year’ is usually awarded to employees who
work longer hours.
II. Niloufer is quite friendly with her bosses.
10. Argument: Madhu cleaned her room in two days whereas Sapna,
who is her elder sister, cleaned her room in three days. It is evident
that Madhu cleans rooms quicker than Sapna does.
Assumptions:
I. Madhu’s and Sapna’s rooms are of the same size.
II. Sapna loves to clean whereas Madhu loves to play games.
11. Argument: Meena has taught in more than ten schools in the past
fifteen years. With her diverse experience in teaching, she should
prove to be a very good teaching resource for your new school.
Assumptions:
I. Meena is extremely qualified for the job.
II. Teaching in many schools for many years makes one a very
good teaching resource.
Assumptions:
I. The weather department’s forecast is accurate.
II. Farmers cannot take any decisions without the help of the
weather department.
13. Statement: Rahul’s new car ran off the road causing some damage
to the front part of the car. He is claiming insurance on the repairs
needed. His insurance premium will shoot up.
Assumptions:
I. Insurance premium shoots up if you claim insurance on the
damage of a new car.
II. Insurance premium shoots up if you claim insurance for damage
to the front part of a car.
14. Statement: The ‘Everybody Party’ has come up with a new sop in its
election agenda. It is promising to increase the upper limit of LPG
cylinders’ ration per family, from 12 to 14 per year. This sop is
expected to give the party a clear edge over other parties in
garnering the middle-class votes.
Assumptions:
I. The new sop is not promised by any other party.
II. Middle-class voters will benefit from the raised ration limit of LPG
cylinders.
15. Statement: The new mobile phone model of ‘Same Song’- Milky
Way KD4, is lighter, larger and faster than the previous models. In
the first week of its release, the company sold a record 1.3 million
sets across the world. This model will be the highest selling model in
the sales history of the company.
Assumptions:
I. No other model of ‘Same Song’ has sold 1.3 million pieces in the
first week.
II. All customers prefer lighter, larger and faster models of mobile
phones.
Assumptions:
I. There are shops selling grains mixed with impurities in rural
areas.
II. The percentage of people consuming grains is higher in rural
areas.
19. Statement: Suresh has applied for a loan of Rs. 60000 from his bank
to pay for his son’s educational expenses.
Assumptions:
I. The bank will reject the loan because it has a policy of not
awarding loans for education purpose.
II. Suresh has failed to arrange for the money from all other
sources available to him.
21. Statement: People need to find better ways to live life wisely. (Real
NMAT Question)
Assumptions:
I. People don’t live life wisely.
II. People have ways to live life wisely.
(A) Only Assumption I is implicit.
(B) Only Assumption II is implicit.
(C) Both assumptions I and II are implicit.
(D) Either assumption I or II is implicit.
(E) Neither assumption I nor II is implicit.
22. Statement: In the wake of the recent spate of vector borne diseases
such as Dengue and Malaria, the state government has decided to
declare these as notifiable diseases under the existing Epidemics
Act. According to this Act, the family members of the patient are
bound to inform the state authorities and are liable to be punished in
case they do not do so.
Courses of Action:
I. The efficacy of the government’s decision depends on effective
implementation of the Act. Hence, efforts should be made to
implement it in letter and spirit.
II. The government should propagate the instances of punishment
through mass media to make people aware of the stern action
taken against the defaulters.
Courses of Action:
I. Precautionary initiatives should be taken every four years to
check this epidemic.
II. People should be cautioned not to visit their neighbours during
the rainy season.
24. Statement: The bank manager of a city branch had a foreboding that
some money might have been missing from the safe of the bank.
Courses of Action:
I. He should get the safe checked with the help of the staff and if
required take help of the CA handling the bank’s account.
II. He should lodge an FIR with the police and get the culprit
arrested as soon as possible.
Courses of Action:
I. It should plan to revise its fee structure for the artists and take
various other measures to attract talent for its programmes.
II. It should take stringent action against people involved in the
programmes which lost their popularity and led to a loss in
business.
26. Statement: The enteric fever, a water-borne disease, has turned out
to be a killer this year. So far it has claimed more than 500 lives
across the country. In rural areas of Bihar the toll has been over 100
during the past two weeks.
Courses of Action:
I. The residents of these villages should immediately stop using
drinking water from open sources such as ponds and canals.
II. The Government should immediately send a medical team to
this area to restrict spread of the killer disease.
27. Statement: The companies producing fuel in India have been found
lacking in both quality and quantity of their supplies to bulk
consumers, especially the thermal power stations. This has resulted
not only in low volume of power production but also in increased cost
of production especially to the thermal power stations.
Courses of Action:
I. The Government should slap legally enforceable penalties on the
fuel producing companies defaulting on the quality and quantity
of supplies.
II. The Government should force the fuel producing companies to
introduce welfare measures for their employees so that they
don’t show laxity.
Courses of Action:
I. Precautionary measures should be taken after every four years to
check this epidemic.
II. People should be advised to drink boiled water during rainy
season.
29. Statement: The Korean garment export industry venturing into the
Latin American markets faces tough competition from the Chinese.
Courses of Action:
I. Garment manufacturers from Korea should drop the plans of
entering Latin America.
II. Garment manufacturers from Korea should improve the quality
of their products so that they are able to compete better with the
Chinese.
Courses of Action:
I. The government should force Indian stores to stop selling the
imported apples and incentivise them to sell Indian apples.
II. To help indigenous apple growers, the government should
impose high import duties on imported apples.
31. Statement: The state owned airline has been continuously making
losses for the past several years with no signs of profits anytime
soon.
Courses of Action:
I. The government should provide a bailout package to the airline in
order to ensure that it does not collapse.
II. The government should take steps to ensure that the airline
improves its productivity and reduces wasteful expenditure.
Courses of Action:
I. The government needs to be sharp and realise the mood of its
people—it should take steps to address the existing pain points
and not allow anything to snowball.
II. The government should carry on with its work as usual—unrest
in people is obvious when things become difficult.
III. The government needs to focus on the economy—everything
else will fall into place.
(A) Only I should be pursued.
(B) Only II should be pursued.
(C) Only III should be pursued.
(D) Both II and III should be pursued.
(E) None should be pursued.
Courses of Action:
I. The government should make fire insurance mandatory for all
restaurants.
II. The government should check the wiring of buildings in the area.
III. The Fire Brigade should be made to arrive more promptly.
(A) Only I follows.
(B) Only II follows.
(C) Both I and II follow.
(D) All follow.
(E) None follow.
Statement:
Zenith Cotton, India’s largest cotton exporter, is incurring huge
losses due to an increase in the number of competitors in the
market.
Course of Action:
I. The company should offer attractive discounts on all its products
to attract customers.
II. Zenith Cotton should analyse its competition-their products and
methods and then take necessary action.
Statements:
I. Products available at malls may not be expensive.
II. There are no cheap products available at malls.
III. People don’t mind paying more for better quality products.
(A) Only I can be concluded.
(B) Only II can be concluded.
(C) Only III can be concluded.
(D) Both I and III can be concluded.
(E) None of the statements can be concluded.
36. Directions: Given alongside are a few facts. Based on these facts,
select from among the given statements, the statement that can be
concluded to be a fact. (Real NMAT Question)
Facts:
Fact 1: ABC public school has 300 students.
Fact 2: At least 1/3rd of them have chosen horse riding as a hobby.
Fact 3: At least 1/6th of them have chosen art as a hobby.
Fact 4: Almost half of them have chosen creative writing as a hobby.
Fact 5: Students are allowed to choose more than one hobby only if
they wish to do so.
Statements:
I. At least one student chooses two activities.
II. The majority of the students at ABC choose creative writing.
III. There are 3 hobbies offered at the school - horse riding, art and
creative writing.
(A) Only I can be concluded.
(B) Only II can be concluded.
(C) Only III can be concluded.
(D) Both I and III can be concluded.
(E) None of the statements can be concluded.
37. Facts:
Arguments:
I. Yes. It is wrong to drink away one’s money.
II. No. Thousands of workers in the wine industry will be rendered
unemployed.
41. Statement: Should all the illegal construction that has been carried
out in the city by unscrupulous builders be demolished?
Arguments:
I. Yes. This will dissuade such builders from carrying out such
activities in future and also punish people for buying such
properties.
II. No. There are people living in these buildings who will have
nowhere to go.
42. Statement: Has the easy availability of consumer loans made life
easier for the Indian consumer?
Arguments:
I. Yes. The consumers can now buy items that they couldn’t afford
earlier.
II. No. The easy availability of these loans can make consumers
buy unnecessary things.
Arguments:
I. No, the government will have to spend a lot of money in setting
up new universities.
II. Yes, setting up more universities will boost foreign interest in the
country’s education system.
The person who likes apple sits third to the right of the person who
likes spinach. Zoe sits between the person who likes apple and the
person who likes eggplant. Jessica is not an immediate neighbour of
Zoe.
The person who likes eggplant sits third to the right of the person
who likes cherry. Only one person sits between the person who likes
broccoli and Emma. Jessica likes neither broccoli nor dandelion.
11. What is the position of the person who likes broccoli with respect to
Zoe?
(A) 3rd to the left
(B) 4th to the right
(C) 5th to the left
(D) 4th to the left
(E) 2nd to the right
14. Four of the following five pairs are alike in a certain way based on
their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which
of the following pairs do not belong to the group?
(A) SR
(B) DM
(C) PS
(D) KM
(E) RP
20. If K’s cage is in the same row as H’s cage, which one of the following
must be true?
(A) F’s cage is in the same row as J’s cage.
(B) F is assigned to a lower-numbered cage than G.
(C) G is assigned to a lower-numbered cage than M.
(D) G’s cage faces H’s cage.
(E) M’s cage is in the same row as G’s cage.
Directions for Questions 21–24: Based on the information given
below, answer the questions that follow. (Real NMAT Question)
Five people, Kuldeep, Gaurav, Susmita, Pratima, and Devanshu are
working in three branches of a company based at Bangalore,
Chennai, and Hyderabad. Two people work in Bangalore and two
people work in Chennai. Of these four employees, one works in
Accounts and another works in Personnel. The remaining are in
Marketing. There are 2 Assistant Managers, one Manager, one
Director and one Supervisor.
1. Gaurav is the Director in the Marketing division at Chennai.
2. Pratima is the Manager at neither the Bangalore nor the Chennai
branch. She is in the Accounts department.
3. The person in the Personnel department is an Assistant Manager
in Bangalore.
4. Susmita is at the Bangalore branch working as Supervisor and
Devanshu is at the Chennai branch.
26. How many persons are staying between Jason and Emmanuel?
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Two
(D) One
(E) None of these
31. What are the favourite musical instruments of those who are
pursuing B.Sc?
(A) Guitar and Violin
(B) Sitar and Tabla
(C) Tabla and violin
(D) Flute and sitar
(E) Violin and saxophone
34. FAST
(A) 01, 23, 20, 41
(B) 43, 40, 78, 98
(C) 23, 20, 69, 42
(D) 01, 34, 69, 41
(E) None of these
35. LEAN
(A) 33, 42, 59, 97
(B) 13, 66, 20, 31
(C) 42, 97, 20, 34
(D) 00, 85, 88, 99
(E) None of these
Directions for Questions 36–39: Answer the questions that follow
based on the information given below. (Real NMAT Question)
There are seven trees named A, B, C, D, E, F and G in a garden. It
is known that these trees have their heights in an increasing order,
which may not be the same as the order of their names. It is also
known that their heights in feet are seven consecutive integral
values, between 1 and 10 (both inclusive). Tree A is 3 feet taller than
tree D. Tree B stands in the middle of the row of seven. The
difference in the heights of tree F and tree B, tree F being shorter, is
same as the difference between the heights of tree C and tree D,
tree C being taller. Tree F is shorter than tree G.
36. The difference in the heights of tree E and tree B is the same as the
difference between the heights of tree D and which tree?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) E
(E) None of these
37. The difference in the heights of tree G and tree D, in inches, is:
Note: 12 inches = 1 foot
(A) 12
(B) 24
(C) 48
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
39. The maximum possible height of tree A is greater than the least
possible height of tree F by how many feet?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
(E) None of these
40. Find out the two signs to be interchanged in order to make the
following equation correct:
8 + 7 x 6 / 16 – 8 = 48
(A) + and –
(B) – and /
(C) + and x
(D) + and /
(E) None of the above
43. If ‘+’ means ‘÷’, ‘×’ means ‘+’, ‘–’ means ‘×’ and ‘÷’ means ‘-’ then,
which of the following will be the correct equation?
(A) 20 + 25 ÷ 15 × 4 – 6 = 10
(B) 20 – 5 × 10 ÷ 20 +4 = 20
(C) 50 + 10 – 5 ÷ 5 × 20 = 40
(D) 15 – 5 × 50 + 25 ÷ 10 = 40
(E) None of these.
45. By using your numerical and logical reasoning skills please try to
figure out which number is missing in the questions below. The
numbers around will give you the clues you need to solve the puzzle.
16 ÷ 4 = 144
15 ÷ 3 = 144
10 ÷ 2 = 64
20 ÷ 5 = ?
(A) 169
(B) 100
(C) 196
(D) 225
(E) 256
Directions for Questions 46–49: A word and number arrangement
machine when given an input line of words and numbers
rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The
following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
New Input: 29, zoo, 36, yeast, 9, prices, 16, manoeuvre, toxicity
50. Which of the following will be Step II for the new input?
(A) manoeuvre, 29, zoo, 36, yeast, prices, 16, toxicity, 9
(B) manoeuvre, prices, 29, zoo, 36, yeast, toxicity, 9, 16
(C) manoeuvre, prices, 29, zoo, 36, yeast, toxicity, 16, 9
(D) manoeuvre, 29, zoo, 36, yeast, prices, toxicity, 9, 16
(E) manoeuvre, prices, zoo, 36, yeast, toxicity, 29, 16, 9
51. Which of the following will be the final output for the new input?
(A) Step III
(B) Step IV
(C) Step V
(D) Step VI
(E) Step VII
52. Which will be the correct sequence of numbers from left to right in
Step III of the new input?
(A) 36, 16, 9, 29
(B) 36, 9, 16, 29
(C) 29, 36, 9, 16
(D) 36, 29, 9, 16
(E) 9, 16, 36, 29
53. Which of the following is Step-II in reverse order for the new input?
(A) 9, 16, toxicity, yeast, 36, zoo, 29, manoeuvre, prices
(B) 29, 36, yeast, toxicity, 16, 9, zoo, manoeuvre, prices
(C) 16, 9, yeast, toxicity, 36, 29, zoo, prices, manoeuvre
(D) 9, 16, manoeuvre, prices, 29, zoo, 36, yeast, toxicity
(E) 16, 9, toxicity, yeast, 36, zoo, 29, prices, manoeuvre
Answer the questions that follow assuming that the new input given
below is processed by the machine in the same manner.
56. In a certain way in Step III, ‘doctors’ is related to ‘80’ and ‘review’ is
related to ‘75’. In the same way ‘would’ is related to which of the
following?
(A) American
(B) 45
(C) 50
(D) operation
(E) None of these
58. What is the value of the fourth element in the third step?
(A) 1078
(B) 1107
(C) 3204
(D) 4509
(E) 6642
59. Which element of which Step would have the value 29?
(A) 1st element of Step 1
(B) 1st element of Step 2
(C) 5th element of Step 1
(D) 2nd element of Step 3
(E) 2nd element of Step 4
60. If the new input element ‘1203’ was changed to ‘3210’, what would
be the 1st element of Step 5?
(A) B
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E
(E) F
61. If the new input series was ‘3021, 1123, 2254, 2222, 5555’, what
would Step 4 be?
(A) 86, 52, 39, 31, 35
(B) 83, 51, 39, 31, 35
(C) 71, 83, 35, 25, 25
(D) 35, 39, 25, 25, 84
(E) 52, 39, 35, 25, 84
Directions for Questions 62–65: A computer programme converts
an input series into an output in five steps as shown below. Study
the logic and answer the question that follows. (Real NMAT
Question)
62. If the fourth input element is 64, what is the final output of step 5?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
(E) 10
63. If the output in step 5 of a given input is 15, then what was the initial
input for this element?
(A) 100
(B) 123
(C) 131
(D) 152
(E) 169
64. If the output in step 5 is 13, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, then the input series
is:
(A) 22, 24, 25, 26, 27, 99
(B) 25, 35, 67, 82, 91, 89
(C) 100, 103, 130, 143, 153, 200
(D) 102, 145, 154, 176, 191, 201
(E) 121, 169, 196, 225, 256, 289
(A) 52
(B) 56
(C) 62
(D) 65
(E) 70
(A) 29
(B) 37
(C) 41
(D) 47
(E) 53
(A) 286
(B) 296
(C) 304
(D) 324
(E) 356
(A) 12
(B) 14
(C) 16
(D) 18
(E) 28
9. The sum of the number of employees who like only yellow and all
three is:
(A) 180
(B) 190
(C) 170
(D) 110
(E) None of these
Directions for Questions 10–13: Answer these questions on the
basis of the information given below:
1200 students of a college are involved in playing three games.
These students are grouped under the following categories.
• The following information is also available.
• The number of players who play Cricket and Hockey is three
times the number of players who play all 3 games.
• The number of players who play Cricket and Football is two times
the number of players who play all 3 games.
• 300 players play only Hockey.
• The ratio of number of players who play only Cricket to only
Football is 2:7.
11. What is the 20% of students who play Cricket and Hockey?
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 15
(D) 30
(E) None of these
12. The number of student who play Hockey and Football is:
(A) 50
(B) 100
(C) 180
(D) 120
(E) None of these
13. What is the difference between those who play all three games and
those who play Hockey only?
(A) 150
(B) 240
(C) 250
(D) 300
(E) None of these
14. Out of 140 mechanics, 10% can repair all three devices – Air
Conditioner (AC), Television (TV) and Refrigerator. The number of
mechanics who can repair exactly 2 of 3 electronic devices is 50. The
number of mechanics who can repair only TVs is 22. The number of
mechanics who can repair only ACs is equal to the number of
mechanics who can repair only Refrigerators.
How many mechanics can repair only ACs, if each mechanic can
repair at least 1 of the 3 electronic devices? (Real NMAT Question)
(A) 22
(B) 24
(C) 26
(D) 27
(E) 29
16. If of all the chocolates have nuts and of all the chocolates have
both nuts and fruits, then what fraction of all the chocolates has nuts
but no fruits?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
17. In a class, the ratio of the number of boys having mobile phones to
the number of girls having mobile phones is 5 : 2. There are a total of
100 students in the class and only 35 students of them have one
mobile phone each in their possession. If the boys form only the 3/5th
part of the class, then what percentages of the girls in the class have
mobile phones?
(A) 20%
(B) 24%
(C) 25%
(D) 40%
(E) 50%
23. Lately, there have been several incidents in which many doctors
have recommended medicines manufactured by those companies
that offer huge commissions to them. The medical council has
received numerous complaints from aggrieved parties that have been
forced to purchase these medicines at higher costs.
24. Many small-scale sector units in India become unviable and close
down resulting in huge loss to both the entrepreneur and the
government. (Real NMAT Question)
What decision should the government take in this situation?
(A) The banks should be asked to provide cheaper loans to the
small-scale sector units.
(B) The government should appoint a technical committee to find
out the reasons for the units’ closure.
(C) The entrepreneurs should be encouraged to restart their
ventures as one should not give up after a failure.
(D) The government should give contracts only to multinationals to
develop the small-scale sector units in India.
(E) The government should discourage the small-scale sector units
in India as it eventually results in losses and failed
entrepreneurship.
25. A team leader has left the company and the manager urgently needs
to put a replacement in place. A precious amount of time in the
project has already been lost and the product launch has already
been announced by the client. Stakes are high and time is at a
premium. Besides, the team which comprises of very highly skilled
individuals is becoming edgy due to the sheer pressure.
What decision should the manager take if they have to choose
between a person with very high people management and
interpersonal skills and a person known to be short-tempered but
highly skilled in multiple domains to be used in the project? (Real
NMAT Question)
(A) Choose the person with multiple domain expertise – different
team members would need support in different domains to
complete the work.
(B) Choose the person with people management skills – both the
team and the client would need high levels of engagement.
(C) Choose the person with multiple domain expertise – the team
would need such a person, should anyone else leave.
(D) Choose the person with multiple domain expertise – a lot of
time has already been lost and time is at a premium.
(E) Choose neither – you need to seek HR intervention, advertise
and get someone else recruited at the earliest.
27. In the series given below, which is the 5th element to the left of the
10th element to the right of the 4th element from the left?
AB46^&DKL*@BHD1987&%+A+V+W&X123*& (Real NMAT
Question)
(A) A
(B) D
(C) 8
(D) L
(E) &
Directions for Questions 28–31: Read the statements given
below carefully and answer the following question by choosing the
correct alternative among the given five options.
Ten friends are sitting on two parallel lines in such a way that A, B, C,
D, E are facing front while P, Q, R, S, T are sitting in the other line
and facing the the formers. S is sitting second to the right of P. T is
not the neighb our of P or S. There is one person between S and T.
D is facing R. C and E are neighbours. B is at the right end of the
row. A is facing P. D is not adjacent to B. E is not facing S.
28. Which of the following are sitting on the ends of the row facing north?
(A) A, B
(B) R, S
(C) P, T
(D) P, Q
(E) R, S
35. What is the sum of the floor numbers on which Esha and Chandu
stay?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 6
(E) None of these
43. How many pairs of letters in the word ‘STAIRS’ have as many letters
between them (in either direction) in the word as in the English
alphabet?
(A) None
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) More than 3
44. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘DEFAMATION’ such
that in the word, each pair has as many letters between them as
there are in the alphabet? (Real NMAT Question)
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
46. Which one of the following option comes in the place of question
mark (?)?
ACDG, CAFE, EYHC, GWJA, ?
(A) HULY
(B) IVLY
(C) IULZ
(D) IULY
(E) IUMY
47. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between
Doctors, Mothers and Fathers.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
51. Find the number of people in government job who are not educated.
(A) 35
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 55
(E) 65
Statements:
Some cars are trucks.
All trucks are airplanes.
Some airplanes are trains.
No car is a train.
Conclusions:
(A) All cars are airplane
(B) All trucks are trains
(C) All trains being airplanes is a possibility.
(D) No truck is a train
(E) None of these.
53. Statements:
(1) Some parks are ground.
(2) No ground is sky.
(3) All sky are walls
54. Statements:
(1) Some gifts are box.
(2) All cream are grapes.
(3) Some cream is box.
55. Statements:
(1) Some print are wrong.
(2) All wrong are deform.
56. Statements:
(1) All ships are goats.
(2) All goats are cows.
57. Statements:
(1) Some stones are rocks.
59. Statements:
(1) All sheeps are goats.
(2) Some goats are dogs.
(3) All cats are dogs.
60. Statements:
(1) No desk is a room.
(2) Some desks are halls.
Conclusion I Some halls are definitely not desks.
2. Argument Construction:
The argument says that a lot of politicians and bureaucrats have
been appointed as the head of various sports institutions which is
wrong as they have no knowledge or understanding of the sport and
thus they have made some wrong decisions.
This certainly means that the author wants the heads to be people
who have knowledge about the sport.
(A) The argument says both bureaucrats and politicians don’t have
knowledge of the sport and should not be the head of sports
institutions.
(B) This argument is easily eliminated by the word ‘all’. It makes the
argument extreme.
(C) New faces could also be people without knowledge of the sport;
therefore this argument doesn’t support the question.
(D) Correct. As discussed, the author assumes that the heads
should be people with knowledge of the sport and not
politicians. Thus this is the correct option.
(E) This is an opinion which cannot be inferred from any line of the
argument.
The correct answer is D
3. Argument Construction:
St.Kilda, a tiny cluster of islands in the North Atlantic had a harsh
climate and severe conditions that made it extremely difficult for its
inhabitants to survive there. In 1852, a group of islanders undertook
a perilous journey across the sea to find better opportunities.
(A) The fact that people have been living on St. Kilda for 4000
years contradicts option A.
(B) Option B assumes facts not stated in the passage, i.e., that St.
Kilda is no longer inhabited.
(C) Similar to option A, Option C also contradicts the information
given in the passage.
(D) Correct. Option D encapsulates the central idea being
discussed in the passage: that living on
St. Kilda was so tough that some of its inhabitants decided it
was too much for them (and chose a risky sea voyage over
continuing to stay there). Also, option D uses the words barely
and maybe which makes the statement true.
(E) Though the passage does mention that many of the 36
passengers perished at the sea, it cannot be concluded that the
journey was unsuccessful. We have no information regarding
this aspect. Hence, it is beyond the scope of the passage.
The correct answer is D.
4. Argument Construction:
There are employees who tend to be self-motivated and those who
don’t. Irrespective of it, external motivation always helps boost
employee productivity.
(A) Keeping shirkers away may or may not result in better
productivity. Therefore this cannot be concluded from the given
data.
(B) Correct. Motivated employees yield better productivity. Hence,
this can easily be concluded from the given data.
(C) Identification alone won’t boost productivity. This cannot be
concluded from the given data.
(D) This is an incomplete statement as it does not make any
reference to employee motivation. Thus, it cannot be a valid
conclusion.
(E) This statement suggests an extreme measure. Hence, it cannot
be a valid conclusion.
The correct answer is B.
5. Argument Construction:
The passage argues that the war on spam has been won. It presents
the enhanced security features of google as evidence for this claim.
(A) The fact that e-mail services will get better at catching spam in
the future does not really strengthen this conclusion, as they
are evidently doing the job very well even now. So option A is
ruled out.
(B) Option B is irrelevant, as the paragraph is about spam, not
legitimate e-mail.
(C) Correct. Option C strengthens the conclusion, by showing that
even the senders of spam may be slowly acknowledging
defeat.
(D) Option D slightly weakens the argument, as the phrase ‘so far’
implies that the spam filters may not be able to keep up in the
future.
(E) This option goes beyond the scope of the passage
6. Argument Construction:
7. Argument Construction:
This is basically a question which tests averages. If the average of A
and B is 24%, out of which B is only 6%, then A has to be greater
than 24%.
(A) Since there is no comparison made between A and other
brands, this cannot be inferred.
(B) Talking about prices makes the argument out of scope as there
is no mention of it in the argument.
(C) Correct. By averages, we can certainly conclude this.
(D) Had this been true, the percentage of B phones would have
been higher than A. So this cannot be inferred.
(E) We cannot say with certainty if the number of people who buy
phones may have increased. So this is an incorrect option.
8. Argument Construction:
9. Argument Construction:
Curbing of freedom is an undignified thing to do.
(A) The statement does not mention any subject(s) here. Hence it
cannot be implicit in the above case.
(B) This statement is directly mentioned and thereby not implied.
(C) This statement contradicts the main statement and therefore is
not implied.
(D) This is a possibility but not an underlying assumption.
(E) Correct. This is implicit in the main statement. Otherwise, the
argument falls apart.
The correct answer is E.
Man’s reach has expanded where man has been able to reach
places like Mars due to technological development and
advancement. But what is ironical is that people living on this planet
are still struggling for basic facilities like food.
(A) It is possible that food isn’t scarce, just that it isn’t distributed
properly or equally. Thus, this is an uncertain conclusion.
(B) This is too much to assume. We don’t know if man has gone to
Mars in search of food.
(C) This is not known to us as well.
(D) This statement is too generic. One cannot conclude if
advancements in space, science and agriculture are not at par.
The question doesn’t give us enough data to conclude this.
(E) Correct. The basic need in this argument refers to man being
hungry on earth despite all the advancement happening
around. Thus, this statement is the correct answer.
The correct answer is E.
To weaken the argument, we must show that the use of Petrol and
Diesel instead of other sources is actually good for health and not
harmful.
(A) Comparing petrol with diesel doesn’t do anything as the
argument considers both of them as harmful.
(B) Correct. This argument says coal and other such sources are
more harmful than petrol and diesel. Thus, using petrol and
Diesel is justified.
(C) This might look like strengthening the argument but it merely
justifies using petrol and diesel by giving an opinion.
(D) Solar energy may have limitations but it doesn’t justify not using
it over pollution creating sources like petrol and diesel.
(E) This statement is unrelated to the argument as it doesn’t refer
to petrol or renewable sources of energy.
The correct answer is B.
Inference II: Since the inference says ‘most’ it can be inferred as the
disasters occur only during two weeks of the hot season.
4. Inference I: When the author claims that the drop in gold prices is
against the usual trend he certainly means that the general belief
was that the gold prices must have increased during this festive
season like they normally do. So it is a correct inference.
Inference II: This is the opposite of the claim made by the author.
On the contrary, the author says that the increased demand for gold
ornaments usually results in an increased demand for gold bars. This
clearly shows that both are interlinked. So II cannot be inferred.
The correct answer is A.
12. Assumption I: The argument says that advisories have been issued.
This doesn’t mean that the forecast made by the weather department
is accurate. This is a precautionary step that is being suggested in
order to preclude the possibility of any damage. This assumption is
too extreme.
Assumption II: This also is a wrong assumption as farmers might be
taking decisions without the help of the weather department all the
time. The forecast made by the department might be just one factor
that influences their decision making. The weather department is
also merely fulfilling its responsibility and not dictating the decisions
of the farmer.
The correct answer is D.
13. The premium has shot up for either one of the reasons. Hence, either
assumption is enough to arrive at the conclusion.
The correct answer is C.
15. Assumption I: The statement that “this model will be the highest
selling model in the sales history of the company” is based on the
data that the company has sold a record 1.3 million sets of the model
in its first week of release. Hence, it is clear that no other phone
made by the company has achieved this feat.
Assumption II: Just because this phone is selling well, we cannot
make generic assumptions about customer preferences. It is
possible that different customers pay attention to different aspects of
a phone. Thus, only the first assumption is implicit.
The correct answer is A.
16. The situation defines the plight of rural areas where the food grains
being supplied and consumed are impure. This is causing food
poisoning.
A correct assumption will be the one on which the whole argument
rests upon.
Assumption I: Correct. It can certainly be assumed that impure
grains are readily available in the rural areas. Thus, we can also say
that there are shops that sell impure grains.
Assumption II: Since there is no data available other than that for
rural areas, we cannot say that the percentage of people consuming
grains is higher in rural areas.
The correct answer is A.
19. Assumption I: is not implicit since we have no idea how the bank
will respond.
Assumption II: is not implicit because we do not know whether
Suresh has approached other people for this loan. He may have
finalised taking money from the bank for various reasons;
unavailability may be one of the reasons among others.
The correct answer is D.
20. Assumption I: Since we do not know how many applicants are there
in total, we cannot assume that all the applicants might get selected.
Thereby this is not an assumption.
Assumption II: So many applicants would not apply to the said
college if the selection process was known to be biased in some
way. Thereby this is an assumption.
The correct answer is B.
II. The bank manager has just had a premonition. He should first
confirm whether money is actually missing and only then he/she
should inform the police for taking action.
The correct answer is A.
25. I. The decision to revise the fee structure for artists should be taken
by the channel as a remedy towards the challenging problem that
has arisen before it.
26. I. Since the enteric fever is a water borne disease, its chief source
is drinking water. The first course of action may help contain the
infection, as it often spreads through open sources also.
28. I. The disease occurs at the end of monsoons every year. So,
precautionary measures every four years shall not help.
30. The statement says that the imported apples are of a better quality.
Thus, to compete against them, Indian apple growers should take
steps to improve the quality of their apples.
Course of action I is not correct because a forceful action is always
undesirable.
Course of action II is invalid because although this might help the
indigenous growers but the core problem of quality will not be
catered to.
32. I. This option makes sense because if the issue of public discontent
is ignored, it could turn into a major crisis situation for the
government.
II. The government is tasked with the responsibility of maintaining
law and order. As a result, such a passive approach will prove
extremely harmful-both for the government and the community.
III. This proposed course of action is vague and irrelevant.
The correct answer is A.
33. I. Making fire insurance mandatory will help in better addressing the
aftermath of such mishaps. Thereby it is a valid course of action.
II. A checking of the wiring will surely help detect and prevent fires
that could be triggered by electrical sources. Thereby it is a valid
course of action.
III. The argument clearly mentions the slow emergency response
time as a critical factor. Hence, working on this is of prime
importance in improving our defenses in the current situation.
Thereby it is a valid course of action.
The correct answer is D.
35. The statement says that most of the items (but not all items)
available at malls are expensive. This means that some of the items
available at malls may not be expensive. Thus, statement I is a valid
inference. However, statement II is extreme and cannot be inferred.
Statement III is slightly tricky. Though the facts state that products
available at malls are of a better quality and generally more
expensive, the fact that the number of people going to malls has
increased tremendously over the past two years does not mean that
these people are buying the products; they could be going to malls
for other reasons.
The correct answer is A.
37. From the given statements, it can be concluded that A and B are
sisters, which means B’s nephew is C. Other statements cannot be
necessarily concluded.
The correct answer is B.
39. Argument I: The state machinery can make provisions for the
training/deputation of the required staff or other necessary
infrastructure that is needed for any initiative. Thus, claiming paucity
of resources as a reason for not doing something makes for a weak
argument.
Argument II: Though it is important to have a sense of pride in one’s
heritage, forcing people to learn the language is no guarantee of the
same. Also, a lot of initiatives can be undertaken to promote Tamil
that might prove more effective. Therefore, both the arguments are
weak.
42. Argument I: says that with the easy availability of consumer loans,
the accessibility and purchasing power of the Indian consumer has
increased. This argument is always desirable and good for the
consumer. Thus, it is a strong argument.
Argument II: also states a very valid point that if the purchasing
power of the consumer has increased, the consumer will buy things
which he may otherwise won’t need, leading to unnecessary
spending. Thus, this argument also is strong.
Both the arguments make logically valid points and are strong.
The correct answer is E.
4. All the other pairs have a gap of one place between them.
The correct answer is B.
Possibility 2
22. The answer can be clearly seen in the table we made for Q 21.
The correct answer is A.
23. The answer can be clearly seen in the table we made for Q 21.
The correct answer is B.
24. The answer can be clearly seen in the table we made for Q 21.
The correct answer is E.
29. We have to arrange 7 people on the basis of their course, name and
musical instrument and so we need a table with 3 columns and 7
rows. We can fill data for M and R. Now, P must be doing B.Sc as he
is doing the same course as R. Similarly, T is doing B.A. So, J, V and
W are doing B.Com. Similarly, other points can also be analysed and
filled in the table.
The final arrangement will look as follows:
or, 56 – 20 = ?
or, ? = 36
The correct answer is D.
= 25 – 5 + 20 = 40
From option (D)
15 – 5 × 50 + 25 ÷ 10
After changing sign.
15 × 5 + 50 ÷ 25 – 10
= 15 × 5 + 2 – 10
= 77 – 10 = 67
The correct answer is C.
10 ÷ 2 = 64 ⇒10 – 2 = 8 ⇒82 = 64
46. In the given example, note that in every step, the words get arranged
alphabetically from left to right and the numbers get arranged in
descending order. The words and numbers also alternate with the
numbers occupying the first slot. Using this logic:
Input: can axe 32 12 kit 57 bat 89
Step 1: 89 can axe 32 12 kit 57 bat
Step 2: 89 axe can 32 12 kit 57 bat
Step 3: 89 axe 57 can 32 12 kit bat
48. Note that we can never arrive at an input from a given output
because there exist multiple possibilities for the input.
The correct answer is E.
49. Note that to get the last step, that is the final output, we don’t need to
go through all the steps. We can simply arrange the given terms in
alphabetical order (for the words) and descending order (for the
numbers) – 99 jut 56 mat 33 pot 22 tie.
The correct answer is D.
50. The words are being arranged in increasing alphabetical order, one
at a time, and simultaneously, the numbers are being pushed to the
end, in increasing order, one at a time.
52. From the explanation for Q. 50, the answer can be easily arrived at
as B.
The correct answer is B.
53. From the table we made for Q. 50, the answer can be easily arrived
at as E.
The correct answer is E.
54. Looking at step V, we find that ‘American’ is fourth from the left.
The correct answer is B.
55. There are total five steps required to complete the arrangement.
The correct answer is C.
56. In step III ‘doctors’ is the third element from the left end and ‘80’ is
the third element from the right end.
Similarly, ‘review’ is the second element from the left end and ‘75’ is
the second element from the right end.
Now, as ‘would’ is the first element from the left end, so it will be
related to the first element which is from the right end, that is, ‘50’.
The correct answer is C.
57. Looking at the step IV, we find that there are three words/numbers
which are between ‘procedures’ and ‘50’.
The correct answer is A.
Step 2 = DD
Step 3 = 1107
The correct answer is B.
61. For the new input ‘3021, 1123, 2254, 2222, 5555’:
Step 1 = 6 7 13 8 20
Step 2 = FF GG NN HH TT
Step 3 = 3015 1116 2241 2214 5535
Step 4 = 35 39 25 25 84
The correct answer is D.
62. Given,
Input = 64
Step I: Square root of input = Square root of 64 = 8
Step V: Step I + II = 8 + 2 = 10
The correct answer is E.
63. Given,
Output in Step V = 15
Step I = Step V – 2 = 15 – 2 = 13
64. Given,
Output in step V = 13, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19
Step I = Step V – 2 = 11, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17
Input = Square of step I
2, 4, 8, 10, 12, 14
Input = Square of step I
2. 12 + 5 = 6
22 + 5 = 9
32 + 5 = 14
42 + 5 = 21
52 + 5 = 30
Therefore, 62 + 5 = 41
The correct answer is C.
3. 12 + 22 = 5
32 + 42 = 25
52 + 62 = 61
72 + 82 = 113
92 + 102 = 181
4. In figure 1
Sum of the first row = 4 + 3 = 7
Sum of the second row = 2 + 5 = 7
Sum of the first column = 4 + 2 = 6
⇒y = 10 – 3
⇒y = 7 (3)
From Eq. (1) and (3), we get
x + y = 15
⇒x = 15 – y
⇒x = 15 – 7
⇒x = 8
The correct answer is B.
9. The number of people who like only Yellow and all 3 = 40 + 210 = 250
The correct answer is E.
If x is the number of players who play all three games, then number
of players who play Cricket and Hockey is 3x and therefore those
who play only Cricket and Hockey is 2x. Similarly, number of players
playing Cricket and Football is 2x and so those who play only Cricket
and Football is x.
Also, if 2y play only Cricket, 7y play only Football.
Now, 2y + 2x + x + x = 400 or y + 2x = 200, and
Number of players playing only Hockey and Football = (800 – 7y – x
– x) which is same as (600 – 300 – 2x – x).
So, 800 – 7y – x – x = 600 – 300 – 2x – x or – 7y + x = –500.
Solving, we get x = 60, y = 80.
11. The number of players who play Cricket and Hockey = 60 + 120 =
180
20% of 180 = 36
The correct answer is E.
12. The number of players who play Hockey and Football = 60 + 120 =
180
The correct answer is C.
or x = 27
The correct answer is D.
15. Total number of student = 150
Number of student who passed PPT
= 50% of 150 = 75
Number of student who passed PMT = 55
Number of student who passed all the three tests
=6
Out of these 75 students who passed PPT, 62 students passed only
PPT test and 6 students passed all 3 tests.
So, remaining number of students
= 75 – 62 – 6 = 7 students
So, there will be 3 students who didn’t pass PET but passed other
two tests.
16. Since of the chocolates have nuts and of the chocolates have
both nuts and fruits, we can simply subtract − to get all the
chocolates with nuts but no fruit.
18. If x students like both the subjects, then number of students who like
only Chemistry is (45 – x) and the number of students who like only
Physics is (60 – x).
Hence, (45 – x) + (60 – x) + x + 5 = 100
⇒ 110 – x = 100
⇒ x = 10
The correct answer is C.
20. It is not given that all of them study at least one subject.
26. Given that there are five stations and Q is in the middle, that is, Q is
the third station.
Q is on the immediate left of R. So, R is the fourth station.
S is not the first station but towards the left of Q. So, S is the second
station.
T is towards the right of S, So T is the fifth station. Hence, P will be
the first station.
The final arrangement will be as below:
PSQRT
Hence, station P is to the immediate left of S.
The correct answer is A.
29. E is facing Q.
The correct answer is E.
33. From both the sides, there are three people between them.
The correct answer is D.
Aman + Bimal = 8
If Bimal’s floor number is 3, then the Aman’s floor number is 5.
Then Disha lives on floor number 4 from statement I. Last
statement says that full stay just above the floor number of disha
which is not possible.
If Bimal’s floor number is 5, then Aman’s floor number is 3. We
can get the following arrangement.
35. Looking the above table, we get that Esha stays on floor numbered 1
and Chandu stays on floor numbered 4. Therefore, the sum of their
floor numbers is 5.
The correct answer is B.
36. Looking at the above table, we find that there are three persons who
stay between Geeta and Disha.
The correct answer is C.
40. The marks of D is between 50% and 60% because the lowest marks
possible is 50%.
The correct answer is C.
44. The question means that we need to find the number of pairs of
letters from this word for which there are as many letters between
them in the given word as there are letters between them in the
sequence of letters (from A to Z).
For example, we know that ‘f’ follows ‘e’ in the of alphabet and in the
given word too ‘f’ follows ‘e’. We have to count all such cases in the
word ‘defamation’. We are not given any direction for the given
condition and so the letters can be related in a letter forward or
backward manner.
These word pairs are as follows:
(A) d,e—as there is no letter between them in this word and same
in actual sequence of letters.
(B) d,f—as there is 1 letter between them in this word and same in
actual sequence of letters.
(C) d,a—as there are 2 letters between them in this word and same
in actual sequence of letters. However the direction is reverse
in this word.
(D) e,f—as there is no letter between them in this word and same
in actual sequence of letters.
(E) e,a—as there are 3 letters between them in this word and same
in actual sequence of letters. However the direction is again
reverse.
The correct answer is E.
45.
46.
A + 2 = C, C +2 = E, E + 2 = G, G + 2 = I
C – 2 = A, A – 2 = Y, Y – 2 = W, W – 2 = U
D + 2 = F, F + 2 = H, H + 2 = J, J + 2 = L
G – 2 = E, E – 2 = C, C – 2 = A, A – 2 = Y
Therefore, ? = IULY
The correct answer is D.
47. Some mothers are also doctors and some fathers are also doctors.
The correct answer is D.
48. All grandmothers are definitely mothers, and all the mothers are girls
for sure. Therefore, the Venn-diagram would be:
51. The number of people in government job who are not educated = 15
+ 40 = 55
52.
Check options.
Option (A): Some cars are trucks and all trucks are airplanes. So,
some cars are airplanes. But it is not necessary that all cars are
airplanes. So, (A) is not necessarily true.
Option (B): Trucks and trains may or may not have anything
common. So, “all trucks are trains” is not necessarily correct.
Option (C): Some airplanes are trains also means some trains are
airplanes, which includes the possibility that all trains are airplanes.
So, (C) is a correct answer.
Option (D): “No truck is a train” is a possibility. But, it is not
necessarily true.
The correct answer is C.
53.
As there is nothing said clearly about wall and park, so, either “some
walls are park” or “No wall is a park” is possible but false individually.
So, either I and III follows:
The correct answer is A.
So, it is clear from diagram that conclusion I is true. But some print
may be right or may not be roght. So, conclusion II doesn’t follow
clearly from the above Venn diagram. Conclusion III follows.
But conclusion IV doesn’t follow as “All” strongly shows “Completely
without failure but as “Some deform are wrong” is true which is
showing uncertainty of the extent of deform being wrong.
The correct Answer is C.
As, there is nothing is said about the relation of stone and ring, so
either “Some stones are rings “ or “No stone is a ring “ but
individually both are false. Again from the above Venn diagrams only
conclusion II follows. That is, some stones are rocks.
The correct answer is B.
58. A possible Venn-diagram is as follow:
The relation between cat, sheep and goat is not clear from the above
Venn-diagram. So, ‘No cat is a sheep’ and ‘Some cats are goats’
does not necessarily follow. Hence neither I nor II follows.
The correct Answer is D