365.

Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees

enters a building using the ID badge of only one person?
▪ A. intrusion detection
▪ B. user awareness
▪ C. physical access control
▪ D. network authorization
Answer: C
366. A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a single logical
link which must negotiate layer 2 connectivity to ports on another switch
What must be configured when using active mode on both sides of the
connection?
▪ A. 802.1q trunks
▪ B. Cisco vPC
▪ C. LLDP
▪ D. LACP
Answer: D
367. In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new
subnet on the network of an organization?
▪ A. There is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet
will stay local within the organization.
▪ B. The network has multiple endpoint listeners, and it is desired to limit the
number of broadcasts.
▪ C. Traffic on the subnet must traverse a site-to-site VPN to an outside
organization.
▪ D. The ISP requires the new subnet to be advertised to the internet for web
services.
Answer: A
368. Aside from discarding, which two states does the switch port transition
through while using RSTP (802.1w)? (Choose two)
▪ A. listening
▪ B. blocking
▪ C. forwarding
▪ D. learning
▪ E. speaking
Answer: C D
369. Which state does the switch port move to when PortFast is enabled?
▪ A. forwarding
▪ B. listening
▪ C. blocking
▪ D. learning
Answer: A
370. Refer to the exhibit. An access list is created to deny Telnet access from
host PC-1 to RTR-1 and allow access from all other hosts A Telnet attempt
from PC-2 gives this message:”% Connection refused by remote host” Without
allowing Telnet access from PC-1, which action must be taken to permit the
traffic?

▪ A. Add the access-list 10 permit any command to the configuration

▪ B. Remove the access-class 10 in command from line vty 0.4.
▪ C. Add the ip access-group 10 out command to interface g0/0.
▪ D. Remove the password command from line vty 0 4.
Answer: B
371. What is a role of wireless controllers in an enterprise network?
▪ A. centralize the management of access points in an enterprise network
▪ B. support standalone or controller-based architectures
▪ C. serve as the first line of defense in an enterprise network
▪ D. provide secure user logins to devices on the network.
Answer: A
372. What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID
are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?
▪ A. No router ID is set, and the OSPF protocol does not run.
▪ B. The highest up/up physical interface IP address is selected as the
router ID.
 ▪ C. The lowest IP address is incremented by 1 and selected as the router
ID.
▪ D. The router ID 0.0.0.0 is selected and placed in the OSPF process.
Answer: B
373. What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design of an
organization?
▪ A. group access points together to increase throughput on a given
channel
▪ B. configure the first three access points are configured to use Channels 1,
6, and 11
▪ C. include a least two access points on nonoverlapping channels to
support load balancing
▪ D. assign physically adjacent access points to the same Wi-Fi channel
Answer: A
374. Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client
sends a probe request?
▪ A. action
▪ B. management
▪ C. control
▪ D. data
Answer: B
375. How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment?
▪ A. wireless to an access point that is physically connected to the network
▪ B. a cable connected to a physical switch on the network
▪ C. a virtual switch that links to an access point that is physically connected
to the network
▪ D. a software switch on a hypervisor that is physically connected to the
network
Answer: D
376. Which CRUD operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method?
▪ A. read
▪ B. update
▪ C. create
▪ D. delete
Answer: A
Explanation: GET: This method retrieves the information identified by the
request URI. In the context of the RESTful web services, this method is used to
retrieve resources. This is the method used for read operations (the R in CRUD).
https://hub.packtpub.com/crud-operations-rest/
377. With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server which media
type is expected by the client?
▪ A. Accept-Encoding: gzip. deflate
 ▪ B. Accept-Patch: text/example; charset=utf-8
▪ C. Content-Type: application/json; charset=utf-8
▪ D. Accept: application/json
Answer: C
378. Which device tracks the state of active connections in order to make a
decision to forward a packet through?
▪ A. wireless access point
▪ B. firewall
▪ C. wireless LAN controller
▪ D. router
Answer: C
379. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is trying to ping PC3 for the first time and sends
out an ARP to S1. Which action is taken by S1?

▪ A. It forwards it out G0/3 only

▪ B. It is flooded out every port except G0/0.
▪ C.It drops the frame.
▪ D.It forwards it out interface G0/2 only.
Answer: B
380. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been tasked with
securing VTY access to a router. Which access-list entry accomplishes this
task?

▪ A. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq

ssh
▪ B. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq scp
▪ C. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq
telnet
▪ D. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq
https
Answer: A
381. A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites.
What must be configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on
to the server?
▪ A. a DHCP Relay Agent
▪ B. DHCP Binding
▪ C. a DHCP Pool
▪ D. DHCP Snooping
Answer: A
382. Which device controls the forwarding of authentication requests for
users when connecting to the network using a lightweight access point?
▪ A. TACACS server
▪ B. wireless access point
▪ C. RADIUS server
▪ D. wireless LAN controller
Answer: B
383. Refer to the exhibit. What is the result if Gig1/11 receives an STP BPDU?

▪ A. The port transitions to STP blocking

▪ B. The port transitions to the root port
▪ C. The port immediately transitions to STP forwarding.
▪ D. The port goes into error-disable state
Answer: D
384. Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a
router?
▪ A. Configure the version of SSH
▪ B. Configure VTY access.
▪ C. Create a user with a password.
▪ D. Assign a DNS domain name
Answer: D
385. What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connection?
▪ A. 1.544 Mbps
▪ B. 2.048 Mbps
▪ C. 34.368 Mbps
▪ D. 43.7 Mbps
Answer: A
386. An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the
switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used?
▪ A. switchport trunk allowed vlan 10
▪ B. switchport trunk native vlan 10
▪ C. switchport mode trunk
▪ D. switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
Answer: D
387. How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel
overlap?
 ▪ A. It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent
access points
▪ B. It allows the administrator to assign channels on a per-device or per-
interface basis.
▪ C. It segregates devices from different manufacturers onto different
channels.
▪ D. It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a
channel.
Answer: A
388. What does a switch use to build its MAC address table?
▪ A. VTP
▪ B. DTP
▪ C. egress traffic
▪ D. ingress traffic
Answer: D
389. Which network plane is centralized and manages routing decisions?
▪ A. policy plane
▪ B. management plane
▪ C. control plane
▪ D. data plane
Answer: C
390. What does a router do when configured with the default DNS lookup
settings, and a URL is entered on the CLI?
▪ A. initiates a ping request to the URL
▪ B. prompts the user to specify the desired IP address
▪ C. continuously attempts to resolve the URL until the command is
cancelled
▪ D. sends a broadcast message in an attempt to resolve the URL
Answer: B

33. Drag and drop the characteristics of network architectures from the left
onto the type of architecture on the right.
Answers

34. Drag and drop the SNMP manager and agent identifier commands from the
left onto the functions on the right
Answers