MSD Bhatta

Unit-1 Design of Machine Tool Geraox
1. What is the maximum percentage loss of economic cutting speed if geometric progression ratio = 1.06 ?
a) 17 b) 11.5 c) 5.7 d)2.9
Ans: d
2. Diameter range is high in geometric progression due to _________ spindle speed.

a) Low b) High c) Constant d) all of these
Ans: a
3. What is harmonic progression?

a) Difference between reciprocal of two successive spindle speeds is constant
b) Difference between two successive spindle speeds is constant
c) Ratio of two successive spindle speeds is constant.
d) Ratio of two successive spindle speeds is variable.
Ans: a
4. What is arithmetic progression?

Ans: b
5. What is geometric progression?

Ans: c
6. What is the purpose of using a gear box?

a) To increase torque
b) To increase speed
c) Converts single input speed into multiple output speeds
d) All of above
Ans: d
7. Which of the following statements is true for structure/speed diagrams?

a) Structure diagrams gives range ratio of spindle speeds
b) Speed diagrams do not give range ratio of spindle speeds
c) Speed diagrams consider motor speed
d) All of above
Ans: c
8. A machine tool has minimum speed of 100 r.p.m. How many speed steps are required by it to achieve
speed of 200 rpm? (Geometric progression ratio = 1.06)
a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14
Ans: b
9. Maximum and minimum diameter of a shaft to be machined is 100 mm and 80 mm respectively. What is
the maximum spindle speed if cutting velocity is 40 m/min?
a) 120 b) 127 c) 160 d) 636
Ans: c
10. Economic cutting speed is minimum if geometric ratio is _________

a) Minimum b) Maximum c) Equal to economic cutting speed d) All of above
Ans: a
11. What is the geometric progression ratio if maximum and minimum spindle speeds are 500 r.p.m and 300
r.p.m respectively? (Number of speed steps = 7)
a) 2 b) 1.5 c) 1.08 c) None of these
Ans: c
12. Ratio of two spindle speeds is constant in _________ progression.

a) Arithmetic b) Harmonic c) Geometric d) All of the above
Ans: c
13. Which of the following is the need of the gearbox?

a) To vary the speed of the vehicle
b) To vary the torque of the vehicle
c) To vary the power of the vehicle
d) To vary the acceleration of the vehicle
Ans: b
a) 17.0% b) 11.5% c) 5.7 % d) 2.9%
Ans: d
15. Higher the value of geometric progression, ____________ is loss of economic cutting speed.
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Constant
d) None of the above
Ans: a
a) 17.0% b) 22.5% c) 5.7 % d) 2.9%
Ans: b
17. What is the maximum percentage loss of economic cutting speed if geometric progression ratio = 2 ?
a) 17.0% b) 22.5% c) 5.7 % d) 33.3%
Ans: d
18. If number of spindle speed steps, z = 27, then Number of stages of the gearbox is,
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
Ans: c
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
Ans: c
b) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
Ans: c
21. For a three stage, twelve speed gearbox the total number of structural formulae that can be written are
a) 3 b) 6 c) 12 d) 36
Ans: d
22. For a two stage, four speed gearbox the total number of structural formulae that can be written are
a) 2 b) 4 c) 12 d) 36
Ans: b
23. Lower is the speed of shaft, higher is the torque that shaft has to transmit and hence __________ is its
diameter.
a) Higher b) Lower c) Constant d) None of the above
Ans: a
a) 1.5 b) 2 c) 2.5 d) 3
Ans: a
25. What is the Range ratio if maximum and minimum spindle speeds are 100 r.p.m and 1800 r.p.m
respectively?
a) 15 b) 18 c) 20 d) 22
Ans: b
26. Identify the optimum structure diagram from the following structural formulae.
a) 2(3) 3(1) b) 2(1) 3(2) c) 3(1) 2(3) d) 3(2) 2(1)
Ans: b
27. Identify the optimum structure diagram from the following structural formulae.
a) 2(1) 2(2) 3(4) b) 2(1) 2(6) 3(4) c) 2(2) 3(1) 3(4) d) 3(1) 2(4) 2(2)
Ans:a
28. In node method of optimization, for optimum structure diagram the sum of diameter of all shafts be,
a) Minimum b) Maximum c) Constant d) None of the above
Ans: a
29. Loss of economic cutting speed is

a) Difference between actual cutting speed and optimum cutting speed
b) Ratio of actual cutting speed to optimum cutting speed
c) Difference between reciprocal of actual cutting speed and optimum cutting speed
Ans: a
30. Deviation of actual spindle speeds from calculated spindle speeds must not exceed
a) 10(Φ-1)% b) 15(Φ-1)% c) 20(Φ-1)% d) 10(Φ-10)%
Ans: a
31. Spacing between two adjacent gears on the shaft must be greater than__________ the facewidth.
a) Thrice b) Twice c) half d) None of these
Ans: b
32. Percentage speed deviation is given by,

a) nact-nth/nth*100 b) nact-nth/nact*100 c) nth-nact/nact*100 d) None of the above
Ans: a
33. What is the geometric progression ratio if gearbox based on R5 series is designed?
a) 4 b) 2 c) 1.58 d) 2.5
Ans: c
a) 4 b) 2 c) 2.5 d) 1.46
Ans: d
a) 4 b) 2 c) 1.26 d) 2.5
Ans: c
a) 4 b) 2 c) 1.06 d) 2.5
Ans: c
37. Advantage of the arithmetic Progression is

a) It is good in High spindle speed range
b) It is poor in low spindle speed range
c) All of the above
Ans: a
38. Disadvantage of the arithmetic progression is

a) It is good in High spindle speed range
c) All of the above
Ans: b
39. Advantage of the harmonic Progression is

a) It is good in low spindle speed range
b) It is poor in high spindle speed range
c) All of the above
Ans: a
40. Disadvantage of the arithmetic progression is

a) It is good in low spindle speed range
b) It is poor in high spindle speed range
c) All of the above
Ans: b
41. Advantage of the Geometric Progression is

a) It gives constant loss of economic cutting speed in total speed range
b) Gives better gearbox design features
c) All of the above
Ans: c
42. Disadvantage of the geometric progression is

a) It is good in high spindle speed range
c) All of the above
Ans: b
43. For a six speed gear box following can be one of the a structural formula,
a) 3(1) 2(3) b) 3(1) 3(3) c) 2(1) 2(2) d) None of the above
Ans: a
44. For a nine speed gear box following can be one of the a structural formula,
Ans: b
45. For a four speed gear box following can be one of the a structural formula,
Ans: c
46. For a eight speed gear box following can be one of the a structural formula,
a) 2(1) 2(2) 2(4) b) 3(1) 3(3) 2(9) c) 2(1) 2(2) 3(4) d) None of the above
Ans: a
47. For a eight speed gear box following can be one of the a structural formula,
Ans: a
48. For a twelve speed gear box following can be one of the a structural formula,
Ans: a
49. For a eighteen speed gear box following can be one of the a structural formula,
Ans: a
50. For a twenty seven speed gear box following can be one of the a structural formula,
Ans: b
51. Following is a purpose of gearbox:

a) To increase the torque
b) To increase the speed
c) To convert the single input speed to multiple output speeds
d) All of the above
Ans: d
52. The minimum number of teeth on the pinion can be taken as

a) 14 b) 20 c) 10 d) all of the above
Ans: b
53. What is Range ratio if, nmax=2880rpm, nmin= 60rpm,

a) 48 b) 60 c)85 d)100
Ans: a
54. Vertical lines in the structure diagram represent

a) Shafts b) Gears c) Speed steps d) None of the above
Ans: a
55. Number of vertical lines in structure diagram is equal to

a) N b) N+1 c) N+2 d) N-1
Unit 2 Statistical Consideration in Design
Sr. No
1. 1) What causes infant mortality in mechanical equipments?
a. Design errors
b. Manufacturing defects
c. Installation defects
d. All of the above
Ans d. All of the above
2. A plain carbon steel has mean yield strength of 300 N/mm2 and standard
deviation of 50 N/mm2. What is the mean and standard deviation of margin of
safety, if mean tensile stress of 250 N/mm2 and standard deviation of 65
N/mm2 acts on it?
a. 23.45 N/mm2, 50 N/mm2
b. 50 N/mm2, 82 N/mm2
c. 82 N/mm2, 7.07 N/mm2
d. 7.07 N/mm2, 50 N/mm2
Ans b. 50 N/mm2, 82 N/mm2
3 What is meant by mean time to failure (MTTF)?
a. Mean time between two successive failure components

b. Maximum time between two successive failure components
c. Sum of survival time for number of components divided by number of
failures
d. Sum of number of failures divided by survival time for number of
components
Ans c. Sum of survival time for number of components divided by number of
failures
4 If a relief valve has reliability of 0.989, how many failures are expected in
testing 1000 such relief valves?
a. 111
b. 100
c. 10
d. 11
Ans d. 11
5 Failure rate for safety valve working for 400 hours is 3 x 10–
6
failures/hour. What is the reliability of safety valve?
a. 0.998
b. 0.989
c. 0.888
d. 0.899
Ans a. 0.998
6 What is meant by hazard rate?
a. Number of failures per unit time per number of items when exposed for
same time
b. Probability of test specimen fails between time t1 and t1 + dt1 which survives
for time t1
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above
Ans c. Both a. and b.
7 What is the standard deviation of clearance population for the diameter
of shaft and hole assembly specified below?
Shaft diameter = 30 ± 0.15
Hole diameter = 30.5 ± 0.25
a. 0.097 mm
b. 0.059 mm
c. 0.036 mm
d. 0.390 mm
Ans a. 0.097 mm
8 Which of the following curves have the mean value equal to zero in the
graph of frequency vs random variable?
a. Normal distribution curve

b. Standard normal distribution curve
c. Both a. and b.
Ans b. Standard normal distribution curve
9 What is the relation between standard deviation(σ) and arithmetic mean
(μ) to determine coefficient of variation (C)?
a. C = σ + μ
b. C = σ – μ
c. C = σ / μ
d. C = σ x μ
Ans c. C = σ / μ
10 Assignable causes are caused due to changes in _________
a. manufacturing process
b. material
c. inspection process
d. all of the above
Ans d. all of the above
11 Which of these does not come into the general model of a process?
a) Input
b) Controllable input factors
c) Uncontrollable inputs factors
d) Acceptance sampling
Ans d) Acceptance sampling
12 The uncontrollable factors are the factor ___
a) That varies according to a normal distribution
b) That does not vary at all
c) That can be controlled by the user
d) That cannot be changed according to the wish of the user
Ans d) That cannot be changed according to the wish of the user
13 The uncontrollable factors are also called ____
a) Designed factors
b) Noise factors
c) Acceptance factors
d) Sound factors
Ans b) Noise factors
14 Which of these steps are not conducted when the design of experiment
procedure is adopted?
a) Determining which variable is most influential to output
b) Determining where to set the influential controllable factors so that output is
near the nominal requirement
c) Deleting the uncontrollable factors
d) Determining where to set the influential controllable inputs so that the
variability in the output is smallest
Ans c) Deleting the uncontrollable factors
15 Experimental design methods are not used ____
a) Evaluating the process capability
b) In process development
c) In process troubleshooting to improve process performance
d) To obtain a process that is robust and insensitive to external sources of
variability
Ans a) Evaluating the process capability
16 The designed experiments are the part of ___ step of DMAIC process.
a) Define
b) Measure
c) Analyze
d) Control
Ans c) Analyze
17 The design of experiment is used to determine the variables which are ___
affecting the state of the process.
a) The most
b) The least
c) Not
d) Not changing or
Ans a) The most
18 Which of these can be used to develop a new process?
a) Design of experiments
b) Acceptance sampling
c) Control charts
d) Histogram
Ans a) Design of experiments
19 The types of frequency distribution are
A. a) 3
B. b) 4
C. c) 5
D. d) 2
Ans E. d) 2
20 The minimum value in the class limit is called
A. a) primary limit
B. b) upper limit
C. c) lower limit
D. d) secondary limit
Ans E. c) lower limit
21 The total of frequency up to an upper class limit or boundary is known as
A. a) average frequency
B. b) cumulative frequency
C. c) frequency distribution
D. d) frequency polygon
Ans E. b) cumulative frequency
22 The data presented in the form of frequency data is known as
A. a) grouped data
B. b) ungrouped data
C. c) secondary data
D. d) calculated data
Ans E. a) grouped data
23 A tabular arrangement for classifying data into different groups is called
A. a) standard deviation
B. b) frequency distribution
C. c) class mn
D. d) arithmetic mean
Ans E. b) frequency distribution
24
Why is it sometimes easier to use a frequency table to interpret data than
to examine a distribution of raw scores?
A. A frequency table transforms the raw scores by showing the means.
B. Frequency tables display patterns, organizing the data by how often
each score occurs.
C. Raw scores are not based on the sample.
D. Raw scores do not represent the data.
Ans B. Frequency tables display patterns, organizing the data by how often
each score occurs
25 In comparing frequency tables with grouped frequency tables for the same set of
data, which of the following would be true?
a) Depending on the width of class intervals it is possible that
some scores may not be counted in a grouped frequency table.
b) If the data set is large the grouped frequency table would be
easier to decipher.
c) Because of overlapping class intervals, the total frequency for a
grouped frequency table would exceed that of a frequency table.
d) It is generally harder to spot patterns in the data when using a
grouped frequency table.
Ans b) If the data set is large the grouped frequency table would be easier
to decipher.
26
A bar graph is usually used with __________ data while a histogram is used
with _________ data.
a) Interval; nominal
b) Ratio; scale
c) Nominal; scale
d) Nominal; ordinal
Ans a) Interval; nominal

27
A normal distribution is:
a) Symmetric.
b) Bell-shaped, symmetric, and unimodal.
c) Unimodal.
d) Bell-shaped.
Ans e) Bell-shaped.
28 The sum of frequencies for all classes will always equal
a. 1
b. the number of elements in a data set
c. the number of classes
d. a value between 0 and 1
Ans c. the number of classes
29 A bar chart constructed in which the area of each bar is proportional to
the number of items in each group is known as
A. a) pi chart
B. b) histogram
C. c) frequency distribution table
D. d) polygon
Ans E. b) histogram
30 The table which shows the frequency of each score is called a
A. a) polygon
B. b) pi chart
C. c) histogram
D. d) frequency distribution table
Ans E. d) frequency distribution table
31 A many sided closed figure used in frequency distribution is termed as

A. a) frequency polygon
B. b) frequency hexagon
C. c) frequency pentagon
D. d) frequency decagon
Ans E. a) frequency polygon

32 The number of times each value appears is called the value's
A. a) range
B. b) mode
C. c) frequency
D. d) standard Deviation
Ans c) frequency
33 1. Normal Distribution is applied for ___________
a) Continuous Random Distribution
b) Discrete Random Variable
c) Irregular Random Variable
d) Uncertain Random Variable
Ans a) Continuous Random Distribution
34 The shape of the Normal Curve is ___________
a) Bell Shaped
b) Flat
c) Circular
d) Spiked
Ans a) Bell Shaped
35 Normal Distribution is symmetric is about ___________
a) Variance
b) Mean
c) Standard deviation
d) Covariance
Ans b) Mean
36 For a standard normal variate, the value of mean is?
a) ∞
b) 1
c) 0
d) not defined
Ans c) 0
37 The area under a standard normal curve is?
a) 0
b) 1
c) ∞
d) not defined
Ans b) 1
38 The standard normal curve is symmetric about the value ___________
a) 0.5
b) 1
c) ∞
d) 0
Ans d) 0
39 For a standard normal variate, the value of Standard Deviation is ___________
a) 0
b) 1
c) ∞
d) not defined
Ans b) 1
40 Normal Distribution is also known as ___________
a) Cauchy’s Distribution
b) Laplacian Distribution
c) Gaussian Distribution
d) Lagrangian Distribution
Ans c) Gaussian Distribution
41 Skewness of Normal distribution is ___________
a) Negative
b) Positive
c) 0
d) Undefined
Ans c) 0
42 In Normal distribution, the highest value of ordinate occurs at ___________
a) Mean
b) Variance
c) Extremes
d) Same value occurs at all points
Ans a) Mean
43 The shape of the normal curve depends on its ___________
a) Mean deviation
b) Standard deviation
c) Quartile deviation
d) Correlation
Ans b) Standard deviation
44 In Standard normal distribution, the value of mode is ___________
a) 2
b) 1
c) 0
d) Not fixed
Ans c) 0
45 In Standard normal distribution, the value of median is ___________
a) 1
b) 0
c) 2
d) Not fixed
Ans b) 0
46 In a normal curve, the highest point on the curve occurs at the mean, μ, which is
also the:
(a) Median and mode
(b) Geometric mean and harmonic mean
(c) Lower and upper quartiles
(d) Variance and standard deviation
Ans (a) Median and mode
47 The shape of the normal curve depends upon the value of:
(a) Standard deviation
(b) Q1
(c) Mean deviation
(d) Quartile deviation
Ans (a) Standard deviation
48 The normal distribution is a proper probability distribution of a continuous random
variable, the total area under the curve f(x) is:
(a) Equal to one
(b) Less than one
(c) More than one
(d) Between -1 and +1
Ans (a) Equal to one
49 Process capability generally uses ____
a) Specifications
b) Control Limits
c) Process standard deviation
d) Mean of any one sample
Ans b) Control Limits
50 In case of a brittle material, the factor of safety is
(a) Real stress/unit stress
(b) Ultimate stress/allowable stress
(c) Allowable stress/ Yield stress
(d) None
Ans (b) Ultimate stress/allowable stress
51 What is accounted for by the factor of safety?
(a) Uncertainties
(b) Linear displacements
(c) Parabolic displacements
(d) None
Ans (a) Uncertainties
52 Other common name of the factor of safety is
(a) Strength
(b)Strain
(c)Ignorance
(d) None
Ans (c)Ignorance
53 Under exact analysis of stresses,what will be value of factor of safety in a body?
(a) More
(b) Less
(c) Zero
(d) None
Ans (c) Zero
54 Effect of higher factor of safety on cost of the material?
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) No change
(d) None
Ans (a) Increases
55 In normal distribution curve the random variable is
a) 0
b) X
c) Y
d) 1
Ans b) x
56 In standard normal distribution curve, the mean is equal to

a) 1
b) 0
c) -1
d) 2
Ans b) 0
57 In normal distribution curve, the area under curve is equal to the total population.
a) total population
b) standard deviation
c) mean
d) 1
Ans a) total population
58 In standard normal distribution curve, the area under curve is equal to the total population.
a) total population
b) standard deviation
c) mean
d) 1
Ans d) 1
59 In normal distribution curve, the standard deviation is any value.
a) total population
b) ̂σ
c) mean
d) 1
Ans b) ̂σ
60 In standard normal distribution curve, the standard deviation is any value.
a) total population
b) ̂σ
c) mean
d) 1
Ans d) 1
61 In normal distribution curve, the value in X-axis is
a) X
b) ̂σ
c) Z
d) no. of populations
Ans a) X
62 In standard normal distribution curve, the value in X-axis is

a) X
b) ̂σ
c) Z
d) no. of populations
Ans c) Z
63
Ans
64
Ans
65
Ans
66
Ans
67
Ans
124
24 STATISTICAL CONSIDERATION IN DESIGN
24.1 Histogram is
(a) a set of rectangles
(b) a line graph of class frequency plotted against class marks
(c) a bell shaped smooth curve
(d) none of the above
24.2 Frequency polygon is

(a) a set of rectangles
(b) a line graph of class frequency plotted against class marks
(c) a bell shaped smooth curve
(d) none of the above
24.3 Central tendency of population is

(a) spread of data or extend to which the observations are scattered
(b) mid point of distribution where most of the data cluster
(c) concentration of data at either low or high end
(d) distribution with sharp peak
24.4 Dispersion of population is

(d) distribution with sharp peak
125
24.5 Skewness of population is
(d) measure of sharp peak
24.6 Kurtosis of population is

(d) measure of sharp peak
24.7 Central tendency of population is measured in units of
(a) standard deviation (b) arithmetic mean
(c) standard variable (d) square of standard deviation
24.8 Dispersion of population is measured in units of

(a) standard deviation (b) arithmetic mean
(c) geometric mean (d) square of standard deviation
24.9 Standard variable is

(a) square of standard deviation
(b) arithmetic mean
(c) root mean square deviation from the mean
(d) deviation from mean in units of standard deviation
126
24.10 Standard deviation is
(a) square of standard variable
(b) arithmetic mean
(c) root mean square deviation from the mean
(d) deviation from mean in units of standard deviation
24.11 The area below normal curve from (Z = - ∞) to (Z = + ∞) is

(a) 1 (b) 0.6827
(c) 0.9545 (d) 0.9973
where Z is standard variable
24.12 The area below normal curve from (Z = - 1) to (Z = + 1) is

(a) 1 (b) 0.6827
(c) 0.9545 (d) 0.9973

(a) 1 (b) 0.6827
(c) 0.9545 (d) 0.9973

(a) 1 (b) 0.6827
(c) 0.9545 (d) 0.9973
127
24.15 When two populations with means X μ and Y μ are added, the mean of
resultant population is given by,
(a) ( ) X Y μ + μ (b) ( ) X Y μ − μ
(c) ( ) X Y μ μ (d) ( / ) X Y μ μ
24.16 When population Y with means Y μ is subtracted from population X with

mean X μ , the mean of resultant population is given by,
(a) ( ) X Y μ + μ (b) ( ) X Y μ − μ
(c) ( ) X Y μ μ (d) ( / ) X Y μ μ
24.17 When two populations with means X μ and Y μ are multiplied, the mean of
(a) ( ) X Y μ + μ (b) ( ) X Y μ − μ
(c) ( ) X Y μ μ (d) ( / ) X Y μ μ
24.18 When population X with mean X μ , is divided by population Y with mean

Y μ , the mean of resultant population is given by,
(a) ( ) X Y μ + μ (b) ( ) X Y μ − μ
(c) ( ) X Y μ μ (d) ( / ) X Y μ μ
24.19 When two populations X and Y are added, the standard deviation of
(a) ( ˆ ˆ ) X Y σ + σ
(b) ( ˆ ˆ 2 )
Y
2
X σ+σ
(c) ( ˆ ˆ 2 )
Y
2
X σ + σ (d) ( ˆ ˆ 2 )
Y
2
X σ–σ
128
24.20 When population Y is subtracted from population X, the standard deviation
of resultant population is given by,
(a) ( ˆ ˆ ) X Y σ + σ (b) ( ˆ ˆ 2 )
Y
2
Xσ+σ
(c) ( ˆ ˆ 2 )
Y
2
X σ + σ (d) ( ˆ ˆ 2 )
Y
2
X σ–σ
24.21 The resultant population is normally distributed,

(a) when populations of two normally distributed random variables are added
(b) when populations of two normally distributed random variables are
subtracted
(c) when populations of two normally distributed random variables are
multiplied
(d) any one of above
24.22 In statistically controlled system,

(a) variations due to assignable causes are corrected
(b) variations due to chance causes are corrected
(c) variations due to assignable and chance causes are corrected
(d) none of these
24.23 There is no rejection of components when

(a) design tolerance is equal to (± 3σˆ ) and the process is centered
(b) design tolerance is slightly more than (± 3σˆ )
(c) design tolerance is (± 4σˆ )
(d) any one of above
129
24.24 The reliability of ball bearing selected from manufacture’s catalogue is
(a) 90% (b) 50%
(c) 99% (d) more than 90%
Answers:
24.1 (a) 24.2 (b) 24.3 (b) 24.4 (a) 24.5 (c)
24.6 (d) 24.7 (b) 24.8 (a) 24.9 (d) 24.10 (c)
24.11 (a) 24.12 (b) 24.13 (c) 24.14 (d) 24.15 (a)
24.16 (b) 24.17 (c) 24.18 (d) 24.19 (c) 24.20 (c)
24.21 (d) 24.22 (a) 24.23 (d) 24.24 (a)
Multiple Choice Questions : Mechanical System Design
Unit 3: Belt Conveyor Systems
Sr. No. Question Answer
1 Any Material Handling Process consists of: (a) Picking up the load (b) d
Transporting the load ( c)Setting the load down (d) All of the above
2 Which of the following is the type of Bulk Load: (a)Boxes (b)sand b
( c)machines (d)Containers
3 Which of the following is the type of Bulk Load: (a)Boxes (b)machines c
( c)Coal (d)Containers
4 Which of the following is the type of Unit Load: (a)Boxes (b)Sand ( c)Coal a
(d)Cement
5 Which of the following is the type of Unit Load: (a) Stones (b)Sand c
( c)Machine (d)Cement
6 Objectives of Material Handling Systems: (a) Accuracy in d
transportation(b)Low Cost ( c)Safety (d)All of the Above
7 Material Handling Equpments are: (a) Hoists(b)Conveyors ( c)Both of c
them (d) None
8 pulley Coupled to drive unit and drives the belt convyor is called as: (a) a
head pulley(b)tail pulley ( c)crown pulley (d) flat pulley
9 Which of the following is not a belt conveyor:(a) troughed(b) blanket ( c) c
chain (d)flat belt
10 If inclination angle is 55⁰ the belt conveyor used is called as: (a) b
troughed(b) blanket ( c) chain (d)flat belt
11 To calculate capacity of Horizontal Belt Conveyor----- factor is used : c
(a)flowability Factor (b)Inclination Factor ( c) Surcharge Factor (d) None
12 To calculate capacity of inclined Belt Conveyor----- factor is used : a
(a)flowability Factor (b)Inclination Factor ( c) Surcharge Factor (d) None
13 If the material is poured on the Stationary belt the angle made by top a
surface of belt with the horizontal is called as : (a)Angle of Repose (b)
Angle of Surcharge ( c)Angle of Inclination (d)Angle of Declination
14 If the material is poured on the moving belt the angle made by top b
surface of belt with the horizontal is called as : (a)Angle of Repose (b)
Angle of Surcharge ( c)Angle of Inclination (d)Angle of Declination
15 The minimum Diameter of Head Pulley is given by: (a) Dmin= d
K2Zp(b)Dmin= K1+K2+Zp ( c)Dmin= K1Zp (d) Dmin= K1K2Zp
16 The minimum Diameter of tail Pulley is given by: (a) Dmin= K2Zp(b)Dmin= d
K1+K2+Zp ( c)Dmin= K1Zp (d) Dmin= K1K2Zp
17 Function of Snub Pulley is: (a)Changing the path of Carrying run of the d
belt (b) Changing the path of return run of the belt ( c)Faciliating the
loading and unloading operations (d) All of the above
18 Function of Idler is:(a)Changing the path of Carrying run of the belt (b) c
Changing the path of return run of the belt ( c) To support belt on the
Carrying run and return run ( d)Faciliating the loading and unloading
operations
19 On carrying run the spacing between the idlers is: (a)1m to 1.5 m (b) 2m a
to 3m ( c) 0.5m to 0.75m(d)3m to 4m
20 On return run the spacing between the idlers is: (a)1m to 1.5 m (b) 2m to b
3m ( c) 0.5m to 0.75m(d)3m to 4m
21 At loading point the spacing between the idlers is: (a)1m to 1.5 m (b) 2m c
to 3m ( c) 0.5m to 0.75m(d)3m to 4m
22 Method of feeding to flat belt conveyor is: (a)By hopper (b) by preceeding d
Conveyor ( c)by process equipment (d)All of the above
23 Carrying capacity of horizontal flat belt conveyor is calculated by : a
(a)Q=Cb^2V (b) Q=Kb^2V ( c)Q=C^2bV (d)Q=K^2bV
24 Carrying capacity of inclined flat belt conveyor is calculated by : b
(a)Q=Cb^2V (b) Q=Kb^2V ( c)Q=C^2bV (d)Q=K^2bV
25 Frictional Resistance at unloading station is given by: (a)Fr=(2.1 to b
3.6)MmgB (b)Fr=(3.1 to 3.6)MmgB ( c) Fr=(4.1 to 4.6)MmgB(d)Fr=(3.6 to
4.6)MmgB
26 Frictional Reistance at cleaning Station is given by: (a)Fcl=KclgB (b) a
Fcl=Kclgb ( c)Fcl=Kcl+gB (d)Fcl=Kclg+B
27 which belt conveyor does prevents sliding down of material at an c
inclination of more than 35 degrees with the horizontal: (a)Flat belt
Conveyor (b)Troughed belt Conveyor ( c) Blanket belt Conveyor
(d)Woven Wire belt Conveyor
28 Which of the following statement is false for Troughed belt conveyors :(a) b
Used as a flexible belts(b) Depth deceases with incereasing no. of idlers
( c)They contains 5 idlers (d) They contains 3 idlers
29 What is the mass carrying capacity of flat belt conveyor if the volumetric b
capacity is 0.55m3/hr and density of the material is 1500 kg/m3? : (a) 825
tons/hr (b)825kg/hr ( c) 2727 tons/hr (d) 2722 kg/hr
30 The mass carrying capacity of a conveyor is 200 ton/hr, if the speed of the c
belt is 4m/s then what is the width of horizontal flat belt conveyor
carrying the load?( surcharge Factor= 0.075 and density=1000kg/m3) :
(a)499.23 mm (b) 500 mm ( c)533.7 mm (d) Insufficient Data
31 The mass carrying capacity of a conveyor , if the speed of the belt is a
1.75m/s , the width of horizontal flat belt conveyor carrying the load is
650 mm ?( surcharge Factor= 0.1 and density=1200kg/m3) : (a)216.38
tons/hr (b)316.38 tons/hr ( c)216.38 kg/hr (d) Insufficient Data
32 The mass carrying capacity of a conveyor , if the speed of the belt is a
1.75m/s , the width of horizontal flat belt conveyor carrying the load is
800 mm ?( surcharge Factor= 2.35*10^-4 and density=2 ton/m3) :
(a)1.329 tons/hr (b)1.32 tons/hr ( c)1.33 kg/hr (d) Insufficient Data
33 A horizontal belt conveyor is to be used for transporting 450 tons/hr of b
iron ore with a mass density of 1750 kg/m3. if the surcharge factor is
0.06, determine the belt width?: (a)900 mm (b) 915 mm ( c)930 mm
(d)950 mm
34 Length of pulley is given by : (a)Lp= 2B+S (b) Lp= B*2S ( c)Lp= B+S (d)Lp= d
B+2S
35 A horizontal belt conveyor is to be used for transporting 500 tons/hr of b
iron ore with a mass density of 1800 kg/m3. if the surcharge factor is
0.075, determine the belt width?Belt Speed= 1.5 m/s: (a)900 mm (b) 980
mm ( c)1000 mm (d)1100 mm
36 Out of the following is not the standard belt width? :(a)900 mm d
(b)1000mm ( c)1200mm (d)1300 mm
37 Out of the following is not the standard belt width? :(a)400 mm d
(b)450mm ( c)500mm (d)550 mm
38 Out of the following is the standard belt width? :(a)200 mm (b)250mm c
( c)300mm (d)350 mm
39 Out of the following is the standard belt width? :(a)400 mm (b)425mm a
( c)550mm (d)470 mm
40 Out of the following is the standard belt width? :(a)1500 mm (b)1700mm c
( c)1800mm (d)1900 mm
41 Cranes are the-----: (a)Hoisting Equipments (b)Surface and overhead a
Equipments ( c) Conveyors(d) None
42 Angle of Lap factor for pulley when Ө<90° is : (a)0.02 to 0.03 (b)0.03 to a
0.04 ( c)0.05 to 0.06 (d) 0.01 to 0.02
43 Angle of Lap factor for pulley when 90°<Ө<180° is : (a)0.02 to 0.03 (b)0.03 b
to 0.04 ( c)0.05 to 0.06 (d) 0.01 to 0.02
44 Angle of Lap factor for pulley when Ө>=180° is : (a)0.02 to 0.03 (b)0.03 to c
0.04 ( c)0.05 to 0.06 (d) 0.01 to 0.02
45 Frictional Resistance at loading station is given by: (a)F=(3.1 to 3.6)MmgB d
(b)F=(3.1 to 3.6)MmgB ( c) F=(4.1 to 4.6)MmgB (d)F=M(V-Vi)
46 Method of unloading for flat belt conveyors is: (a)Plow Discharge (b) d
Tripper dischrge ( c) Head Pulley Discharge(d) All
47 It is not the type of idler: (a)Impact idler (b) Spring Idler ( c) Disc Idler (d) d
Grooved Idler
48 Angle of Surcharge is always ------ than angle of repose: (a)less (b)more a
( c)equal to (d)none
49 Angle of Repose is always ------ than angle of Surcharge: (a)less (b)more b
( c)equal to (d)none
50 What is the mass carrying capacity of flat belt conveyor if the volumetric d
capacity is 0.45m3/hr and density of the material is 1200 kg/m3? : (a) 54
tons/hr (b)450kg/hr ( c) 540 tons/hr (d) 540 kg/hr
51 Which of the following is the type of take up device? : (a)Screw type d
(b)Vertical Gravity type ( c)Horizontal Gravity type (d) All
52 The rate at which material is carried by the conveyor is called as: c
(a)Density of the Conveyor (b) Volume ( c)Capacity of the conveyor (d)
Mass
53 The width on which material is present on the belt is called as: (a)Width b
of belt (b)Effective beltwidth ( c)Both (d) None
54 Relationship between effective belt width and width of belt is: (a) b= c
0.09B-0.05 (b)b= 0.5B-0.09 ( c)b= 0.9B-0.05 (d)b= 0.9B-0.5
55 Flowability factor when belt inclination angle is 16° to 20° is: (a)2.65*10^- b
4 (b)2.5*10^-4 ( c)2.35*10^-4 (d)2.20*10^-4
56 Flowability factor when belt inclination angle is 10° to 15° is: (a)2.65*10^- a
4 (b)2.5*10^-4 ( c)2.35*10^-4 (d)2.20*10^-4
57 Flowability factor when belt inclination angle is 21° to 25° is: (a)2.65*10^- c
4 (b)2.5*10^-4 ( c)2.35*10^-4 (d)2.20*10^-4
58 Flowability factor when belt inclination angle is 26° to 30° is: (a)2.65*10^- d
4 (b)2.5*10^-4 ( c)2.35*10^-4 (d)2.20*10^-4
59 The------conveyors consists of a pair of parallel endless roller chains a
running on tracks supported by frames.: (a)Apron (b)screw ( c)Chain (d)
Falt Belt
60 Which of the following Coveyor has highest probability of Slip? (a) Flat a
Belt (b) Troghed Belt ( c) Chain (d) Apron
61 The ---- devices are used in belt conveyors to maintain adequate tension c
in the belt? : (a) Idlers(b) Snub Pulleys ( c) Belt Take up Devices (d)
Cleaner
Multiple Choice Questions : Mechanical System Design
Unit 3: Belt Conveyor Systems
Sr. Question
No.
Any Material Handling Process consists of: (a) Picking up the load (b) Transporting the
1 d
load ( c)Setting the load down (d) All of the above
Which of the following is the type of Bulk Load: (a)Boxes (b)sand ( c)machines
2 b
(d)Containers
Which of the following is the type of Bulk Load: (a)Boxes (b)machines ( c)Coal
3 c
(d)Containers
4 Which of the following is the type of Unit Load: (a)Boxes (b)Sand ( c)Coal (d)Cement a
Which of the following is the type of Unit Load: (a) Stones (b)Sand ( c)Machine
5 c
(d)Cement
Objectives of Material Handling Systems: (a) Accuracy in transportation(b)Low Cost
6 d
( c)Safety (d)All of the Above
7 Material Handling Equpments are: (a) Hoists(b)Conveyors ( c)Both of them (d) None c
pulley Coupled to drive unit and drives the belt convyor is called as: (a) head pulley(b)tail
8 a
pulley ( c)crown pulley (d) flat pulley
Which of the following is not a belt conveyor:(a) troughed(b) blanket ( c) chain (d)flat
9 c
belt
If inclination angle is 55⁰ the belt conveyor used is called as: (a) troughed(b) blanket ( c)
10 b
chain (d)flat belt
To calculate capacity of Horizontal Belt Conveyor----- factor is used : (a)flowability Factor

11 c
(b)Inclination Factor ( c) Surcharge Factor (d) None
To calculate capacity of inclined Belt Conveyor----- factor is used : (a)flowability Factor
12 a
(b)Inclination Factor ( c) Surcharge Factor (d) None
If the material is poured on the Stationary belt the angle made by top surface of belt
13 with the horizontal is called as : (a)Angle of Repose (b) Angle of Surcharge ( c)Angle of a
Inclination (d)Angle of Declination
If the material is poured on the moving belt the angle made by top surface of belt with
14 the horizontal is called as : (a)Angle of Repose (b) Angle of Surcharge ( c)Angle of b
Inclination (d)Angle of Declination
The minimum Diameter of Head Pulley is given by: (a) Dmin= K2Zp(b)Dmin= K1+K2+Zp
15 d
( c)Dmin= K1Zp (d) Dmin= K1K2Zp
The minimum Diameter of tail Pulley is given by: (a) Dmin= K2Zp(b)Dmin= K1+K2+Zp
16 d
( c)Dmin= K1Zp (d) Dmin= K1K2Zp
Function of Snub Pulley is: (a)Changing the path of Carrying run of the belt (b) Changing
17 the path of return run of the belt ( c)Faciliating the loading and unloading operations (d) d
All of the above
18 Function of Idler is:(a)Changing the path of Carrying run of the belt (b) Changing the path c
of return run of the belt ( c) To support belt on the Carrying run and return run
( d)Faciliating the loading and unloading operations
On carrying run the spacing between the idlers is: (a)1m to 1.5 m (b) 2m to 3m ( c) 0.5m
19 a
to 0.75m(d)3m to 4m
On return run the spacing between the idlers is: (a)1m to 1.5 m (b) 2m to 3m ( c) 0.5m to
20 b
0.75m(d)3m to 4m
At loading point the spacing between the idlers is: (a)1m to 1.5 m (b) 2m to 3m ( c) 0.5m
21 c
to 0.75m(d)3m to 4m
Method of feeding to flat belt conveyor is: (a)By hopper (b) by preceeding Conveyor
22 d
( c)by process equipment (d)All of the above
Carrying capacity of horizontal flat belt conveyor is calculated by : (a)Q=Cb^2V (b)

23 a
Q=Kb^2V ( c)Q=C^2bV (d)Q=K^2bV
Carrying capacity of inclined flat belt conveyor is calculated by : (a)Q=Cb^2V (b)
24 b
Q=Kb^2V ( c)Q=C^2bV (d)Q=K^2bV
Frictional Resistance at unloading station is given by: (a)Fr=(2.1 to 3.6)MmgB (b)Fr=(3.1

25 b
to 3.6)MmgB ( c) Fr=(4.1 to 4.6)MmgB(d)Fr=(3.6 to 4.6)MmgB
Frictional Reistance at cleaning Station is given by: (a)Fcl=KclgB (b) Fcl=Kclgb
26 a
( c)Fcl=Kcl+gB (d)Fcl=Kclg+B
which belt conveyor does prevents sliding down of material at an inclination of more
27 than 35 degrees with the horizontal: (a)Flat belt Conveyor (b)Troughed belt Conveyor c
( c) Blanket belt Conveyor (d)Woven Wire belt Conveyor
Which of the following statement is false for Troughed belt conveyors :(a) Used as a
28 flexible belts(b) Depth deceases with incereasing no. of idlers ( c)They contains 5 idlers b
(d) They contains 3 idlers
What is the mass carrying capacity of flat belt conveyor if the volumetric capacity is
29 0.55m3/hr and density of the material is 1500 kg/m3? : (a) 825 tons/hr (b)825kg/hr ( c) b
2727 tons/hr (d) 2722 kg/hr
The mass carrying capacity of a conveyor is 200 ton/hr, if the speed of the belt is 4m/s
then what is the width of horizontal flat belt conveyor carrying the load?( surcharge
30 c
Factor= 0.075 and density=1000kg/m3) : (a)499.23 mm (b) 500 mm ( c)533.7 mm (d)
Insufficient Data
The mass carrying capacity of a conveyor , if the speed of the belt is 1.75m/s , the width
of horizontal flat belt conveyor carrying the load is 650 mm ?( surcharge Factor= 0.1 and
31 a
density=1200kg/m3) : (a)216.38 tons/hr (b)316.38 tons/hr ( c)216.38 kg/hr (d)
Insufficient Data
The mass carrying capacity of a conveyor , if the speed of the belt is 1.75m/s , the width
of horizontal flat belt conveyor carrying the load is 800 mm ?( surcharge Factor=
32 a
2.35*10^-4 and density=2 ton/m3) : (a)1.329 tons/hr (b)1.32 tons/hr ( c)1.33 kg/hr (d)
Insufficient Data
A horizontal belt conveyor is to be used for transporting 450 tons/hr of iron ore with a
33 mass density of 1750 kg/m3. if the surcharge factor is 0.06, determine the belt width?: b
(a)900 mm (b) 915 mm ( c)930 mm (d)950 mm
34 Length of pulley is given by : (a)Lp= 2B+S (b) Lp= B*2S ( c)Lp= B+S (d)Lp= B+2S d
35 A horizontal belt conveyor is to be used for transporting 500 tons/hr of iron ore with a b
mass density of 1800 kg/m3. if the surcharge factor is 0.075, determine the belt width?
Belt Speed= 1.5 m/s: (a)900 mm (b) 980 mm ( c)1000 mm (d)1100 mm
Out of the following is not the standard belt width? :(a)900 mm (b)1000mm
36 d
( c)1200mm (d)1300 mm
Out of the following is not the standard belt width? :(a)400 mm (b)450mm ( c)500mm
37 d
(d)550 mm
Out of the following is the standard belt width? :(a)200 mm (b)250mm ( c)300mm
38 c
(d)350 mm
39 a
(d)470 mm
40 c
(d)1900 mm
Cranes are the-----: (a)Hoisting Equipments (b)Surface and overhead Equipments ( c)
41 a
Conveyors(d) None
Angle of Lap factor for pulley when Ө<90° is : (a)0.02 to 0.03 (b)0.03 to 0.04 ( c)0.05 to
42 a
0.06 (d) 0.01 to 0.02
Angle of Lap factor for pulley when 90°<Ө<180° is : (a)0.02 to 0.03 (b)0.03 to 0.04
43 b
( c)0.05 to 0.06 (d) 0.01 to 0.02
Angle of Lap factor for pulley when Ө>=180° is : (a)0.02 to 0.03 (b)0.03 to 0.04 ( c)0.05
44 c
to 0.06 (d) 0.01 to 0.02
Frictional Resistance at loading station is given by: (a)F=(3.1 to 3.6)MmgB (b)F=(3.1 to
45 d
3.6)MmgB ( c) F=(4.1 to 4.6)MmgB (d)F=M(V-Vi)
Method of unloading for flat belt conveyors is: (a)Plow Discharge (b) Tripper dischrge ( c)
46 d
Head Pulley Discharge(d) All
47 It is not the type of idler: (a)Impact idler (b) Spring Idler ( c) Disc Idler (d) Grooved Idler d
Angle of Surcharge is always ------ than angle of repose: (a)less (b)more ( c)equal to
48 a
(d)none
Angle of Repose is always ------ than angle of Surcharge: (a)less (b)more ( c)equal to
49 b
(d)none
What is the mass carrying capacity of flat belt conveyor if the volumetric capacity is
50 0.45m3/hr and density of the material is 1200 kg/m3? : (a) 54 tons/hr (b)450kg/hr ( c) d
540 tons/hr (d) 540 kg/hr
Which of the following is the type of take up device? : (a)Screw type (b)Vertical Gravity
51 d
type ( c)Horizontal Gravity type (d) All
The rate at which material is carried by the conveyor is called as: (a)Density of the
52 c
Conveyor (b) Volume ( c)Capacity of the conveyor (d) Mass
The width on which material is present on the belt is called as: (a)Width of belt
53 b
(b)Effective beltwidth ( c)Both (d) None
Relationship between effective belt width and width of belt is: (a) b= 0.09B-0.05 (b)b=
54 c
0.5B-0.09 ( c)b= 0.9B-0.05 (d)b= 0.9B-0.5
55 Flowability factor when belt inclination angle is 16° to 20° is: (a)2.65*10^-4 (b)2.5*10^-4 b
( c)2.35*10^-4 (d)2.20*10^-4
Flowability factor when belt inclination angle is 10° to 15° is: (a)2.65*10^-4 (b)2.5*10^-4
56 a
( c)2.35*10^-4 (d)2.20*10^-4
57 c
( c)2.35*10^-4 (d)2.20*10^-4
58 d
( c)2.35*10^-4 (d)2.20*10^-4
The------conveyors consists of a pair of parallel endless roller chains running on tracks
59 a
supported by frames.: (a)Apron (b)screw ( c)Chain (d) Falt Belt
Which of the following Coveyor has highest probability of Slip? (a) Flat Belt (b) Troghed
60 a
Belt ( c) Chain (d) Apron
The ---- devices are used in belt conveyors to maintain adequate tension in the belt? : (a)
61 c
Idlers(b) Snub Pulleys ( c) Belt Take up Devices (d) Cleaner
The power transmitted by belt drive depends upon

62 (a) belt velocity (b) initial belt tension d
(c) arc of contact (d) all of the above
When the belt speed increases
(a) power transmitted increases
63 (b) power transmitted decreases c
(c) power transmitted increases to a maximum value and then decreases
(d) power transmitted remains the same
The coefficient of friction in belt drive depends upon

64 (a) material of belt (b) material of pulley c
(c) materials of belt and pulley (d) belt velocity
Material handling consists of movement of material from
(a) one machine to another
65 b)one shop to another shop d
c)stores to shop
d) all of the above
Overbridge crane has

a)transverse movement
66 b)longitudinal movement c
c)both ‘a’ and ‘b’
d)None of the above
It is generally not possible to change the direction of flow with belt conveyors.
Statement 2: If belt conveyors are to be used in the bent position, slat belts are used.
a) True, False
67 b
b) True, True
c) False, False
d) False, True
68 Statement 1: Belt conveyors cannot be used in the inclined position. c

Statement 2: Screw conveyors can carry more amount of load compared to belt
conveyors.
a) True, False
b) True, True
c) False, False
d) False, True
Statement 1: Chain drive rollers move faster than belt driven rollers.
Statement 2: Screw conveyors are used in the feeding of raw materials like wheat or
chilly into the grinding unit to make a powder out of it.
69 a) True, False b
b) True, True
c) False, False
d) False, True
Statement 1: Cranes and hoists have an incline up and down option.
Statement 2: Trucks can be used for continuous operations.
a) True, False
70 c
b) True, True
c) False, False
d) False, True
The angle of repose depends on

71 A. shape of the material B. smoothness of the material d
C. degree of fineness of the material D. all of the above
Overbridge crane has
a)transverse movement
72 b)longitudinal movement c
c)both ‘a’ and ‘b’
d)None of the above
Which of the following is a property of bulk load?

a. Hardness
73 b. Cake forming tendency b
c. Suspension part
d. Weight
What are bulk loads?
a. Lump of material
74 b. Single rigid mass b
c. Homogeneous particles
d. Heterogeneous particles
Which belt conveyor prevents sliding down of material at an inclination of 55o with
horizontal?
a. Flat belt conveyor
75 c
b. Troughed belt conveyor
c. Blanket belt conveyor
d. Woven wire belt conveyors
76 Which of the following statements is false for troughed belt conveyors? c
1. Troughed belt conveyors use flexible belts
2. They contain five idlers
3. Depth of trough decreases with increasing number of idlers
4. Flexibility of belt increases as depth of trough decreases
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
Mass capacity of a conveyor is 200 ton/hr, if speed of the belt is 4 m/s then what is the
width of horizontal flat belt conveyor carrying the load? (Surcharge factor = 0.075 & ρ =
1000 kg/m3)
77 c
a. 499.23 mm
b. 500.0 mm
c. 533.7 mm
d. Insufficient data
What is the mass capacity of flat belt conveyor if volumetric capacity 0.55 m3/hr? (ρ =
1500 kg/m3)
78 a. 825 tons/hr b
b. 825 kg/hr
c. 2.727 tons/hr
d. 2722 kg/hr
An inclined belt conveyor is used for loading goods. If speed of the belt having 1500 mm
width is 3 m/s then what is the volumetric capacity of the conveyor?
(For 21o, k= 2.35 x 10–4)
79 a
a. 1.19 x 10-3 m3/s
b. 1.75 x 10-3 m3/s
c. 1.5 x 10-3 m3/s
d. 2.5 x 10-3 m3/s
Which discharge method provides only intermediate discharge for low speed flat belt
conveyor?
80 a. Plow discharge a
b. Tripper discharge
c. Both a. and b.
MSD
Unit 4 Design of Cylinders and Pressure Vessels.
Sr. No Questions
1. Internal pressure of 2.5 Mpa acts on a pressure vessel of thickness 15 mm and internal
diameter of 1500 mm. What is the stress induced in longitudinal direction?
a. 36.63 N/mm2
b. 59.13 N/mm2
c. 65.62 N/mm2
d. 131.25 N/mm
Ans c. 65.62 N/mm2
2. Which type of formed threads are used for vertical pressure vessels in the pressure range of
0.1 N/mm2 to 1.5 N/mm2?
a. Plain formed head

b. Torispherical dished head
c. Semi-elliptical dished head
d. All of the above
Ans b. Torispherical dished head
3 Design pressure for unfired pressure vessels is 1.05 times of _______
a. minimum working pressure

b. maximum working pressure
c. hydrostatic test pressure
d. none of the above
Ans b. maximum working pressure
4 Class 3 pressure vessels having welded joints are _________
a. fully radio-graphed
b. partially radio-graphed
c. spot radio-graphed
d. not radio-graphed
Ans d. not radio-graphed
5 Which type of welded joints are not included in class 3 pressure vessels?
a. Double welded butt joint with full penetration

b. Single welded but joint with back strip
c. Single full fillet lap joints
Ans c. Single full fillet lap joints
6 In unfired pressure vessels, category A consists of _________
a. joints connecting flanges and flat heads

b. welded joints connecting nozzles with main shell
c. circumferential welded joints joints
d. longitudinal welded joints
Ans d. longitudinal welded joints

7 What is the weld joint efficiency if pressure vessel is fabricated with single full fillet lap
joint?
a. 1.0
b. 0.55
c. 0.65
d. 0.85
Ans b. 0.55
8 A cylindrical pressure vessel is subjected to an internal pressure of 3 MPa on internal
diameter of 1000 mm. The vessel is fabricated with single weld butt joint with back strip
and is not radio-graphed. What is the thickness of flat head, if head made of alloy steel has
an ultimate tensile strength of 400 N/mm 2 ? (corrosion allowance = 2)
a. 110 mm
b. 120 mm
c. 150.23 mm
d. 152.13 mm
Ans a. 110 mm
9 A cylindrical pressure vessel is subjected to operating pressure of 0.55 Mpa and corrosion
allowance of 2. What is the thickness of pressure vessel shell if its internal diameter is 2000
mm? (σall = 120 N/mm2 & ηl = 0.75)
a. 6.5 mm
b. 7 mm
c. 9 mm
d. 9.5 mm
Ans c.9 mm
10 A vessel is said to be thin if
a. Its wall has less thickness
b. Stresses are uniform over the entire thickness
c. Stresses vary at inner and at outer radius
Ans b. Stresses are uniform over the entire thickness

11 In a thin vessel, the true ratio of D/t is
a. D/t =20
b. D/t=10
c. D/t >20
d. D/t >10
Ans c. D/t >20

12 Hoop stress in a thin vessel is
a. pD/2t
b. pD/4t
c. pD/3t
d. None
Ans a. pD/2t
13 Radial stress in a thin shell is given by
a. pD/2t
b. pD/4t
c. pD/3t
d. None
Ans d. None
14 A thin cylindrical shell under internal pressure can fail by
a. Shear
b. Compression
c. Tension
d. None
Ans b. Tension
15 Failure of a thin spherical shell under internal pressure will be due to
a. Maximum shear stress
b. Principal compressive stress
c. Principal tensile stress
d. None
Ans C. Principal tensile stress

16 Stresses in a thin cylindrical shell under internal pressure is independent of
a. Diameter
b. Thickness
c. Length
d. Diameter and thickness
Ans c. Length
17 Design of a thin shell under pressure is done on the basis of
a. Radial stress
b. Longitudinal stress
c. Hoop stress
d. All the three stresses
Ans c. Hoop stress

18 The thickness of thin cylinder is determined on the basis of
(a) radial stress
(b) longitudinal stress
(c) circumferential stress
(d) principal shear stress
Ans (c) circumferential stress

19 The end-closure for tankers of milk, petrol or diesel is
(a) hemispherical head
(b) conical head
(c) torispherical head
(d) flat head
Ans (c) torispherical head

20 Weld joint efficiency is maximum when the pressure vessel is welded by (a) single-welded
butt joint with backing strip (b) single-welded butt joint without backing strip (c) double-
welded butt joint with full penetration (d) none of the above
Ans (c) double-welded butt joint with full penetration

21 While designing pressure vessels according to ‘Code for unfired vessel IS2825’, the design
pressure is taken as
(a) 1.05(maximum operating pressure)
(b) 1.5(maximum operating pressure)
(c) 2(maximum operating pressure)
(d) 1.3(maximum operating pressure)
Ans (a) 1.05(maximum operating pressure)

22 Class 3 pressure vessels are to be designed according to ‘Code for unfired vessel IS-2825’
when,
(a) operating pressure is less than 17.5 kgf/cm 2
(b) operating temperature is more than 0°C and less than 250°C
(c) thickness of shell is less than 16 mm
(d) any one of the above
Ans (d) any one of the above

23 Class 1 pressure vessels are to be designed according to ‘Code for unfired vessel IS-2825’
when,
a. hydrocyanic acid, carbonyl chloride or mustard gas are stored
b. operating temperature is more than -20°C
c. liquefied petroleum gas is stored
d. thickness of shell is less than 38 mm
Ans a. hydrocyanic acid, carbonyl chloride or mustard gas are stored

24 According to Lame’s equation, the thickness of cylindrical shell is given by,
Ans
25 According to Birnie’s equation, the thickness of cylindrical shell is given by,
Ans
26 According to Clavarino’s equation, the thickness of cylindrical shell is given by,
Ans
27 In thick cylinders, the tangential stress across the thickness of cylinder
(a) remains uniform throughout
(b) varies from internal pressure at the inner surface to zero at the outer surface (c) varies
from maximum value at the inner surface to minimum value at the outer surface
(d) varies from maximum value at the outer surface to minimum value at the inner surface
Ans (c) varies from maximum value at the inner surface to minimum value at the outer surface
28 In thick cylinders, the radial stress across the thickness of cylinder (a) remains uniform
throughout (b) varies from internal pressure at the inner surface to zero at the outer
surface (c) varies from maximum value at the inner surface to minimum value at the outer
surface (d) varies from maximum value at the outer surface to minimum value at the inner
surface
Ans (b) varies from internal pressure at the inner surface to zero at the outer surface
29 In thick cylinders, the axial stress across the thickness of cylinder
(a) remains uniform throughout
(b) varies from internal pressure at the inner surface to zero at the outer surface (c) varies
from maximum value at the inner surface to minimum value at the outer surface
(d) varies from maximum value at the outer surface to minimum value at the inner surface
Ans (a) remains uniform throughout

30 Autofrettage is,
(a) a surface coating process of cylinders for corrosion resistance
(b) a heat treatment process for cylinders to relieve residual stresses
(c) a process of pre-stressing the cylinder to develop residual compressive stress at the
inner surface
(d) a surface hardening process of cylinder to improve wear resistance 22
Ans (c) a process of pre-stressing the cylinder to develop residual compressive stress at the
inner surface
31 Autofrettage is achieved by,
(a) compound cylinder
(b) overloading the cylinder before putting it in service
(c) winding a wire under tension around the cylinder
(d) any one of the above methods
Ans (d) any one of the above methods

32 The thickness of thick cylindrical shell with closed ends and made of brittle material is
determined by,
(a) Lame’s equation
(b) Clavarino’s equation
(c) Birnie’s equation
(d) Barlow’s equation
Ans (a) Lame’s equation

33 The thickness of thick cylindrical shell with closed ends and made of ductile material is
determined by,

Ans (b) Clavarino’s equation

34 The thickness of thick cylindrical shell with open ends and made of ductile material is
determined by,
Ans (c) Birnie’s equation

35 In thin cylinders, the longitudinal stress is,
(a) 2(circumferential stress)
(b) 1/2(circumferential stress)
(c) 1/4(circumferential stress)
(d) 4(circumferential stress)
Ans (b) 1/2(circumferential stress)

36 The thickness of thin cylinder is determined on the basis of,
(a) radial stress
(b) longitudinal stress
(c) circumferential stress
(d) principal shear stress
Ans (c) circumferential stress

37 The piston rod of a hydraulic cylinder exerts an operating force of 10kN. The allowable
stress in the cylinder is 45N/mm². Calculate the thickness of the cylinder using Lame’s
equation. Diameter of the cylinder is 40mm and pressure in cylinder is 10MPa.
a) 2.05mm
b) 4.2mm
c) 5.07mm
d) None of the listed
Ans c) 5.07mm
t=D/2[√[σ+ P /σ-P] -1 ].
38 The piston rod of a hydraulic cylinder exerts an operating force of 10kN. The allowable
stress in the cylinder is 70N/mm². Calculate the thickness of the cylinder using Clavarinoe’s
equation. Diameter of the cylinder is 240mm.μ=0.3 and pressure in cylinder is 15MPa.
a) 35mm
b) 30mm
c) 27mm
d) None of the listed
Ans c) 27mm
t=D/2[√[σ+(1-2μ) P /σ-(1+μ)P] -1 ].
39 A seamless cylinder of storage capacity of 0.03mᵌis subjected to an internal pressure of

21MPa. The ultimate strength of material of cylinder is 350N/mm².Determine the thickness
of the cylinder if it is twice the diameter of the cylinder.
a) 12mm
b) 4mm
c) 8mm
d) 16mm
Ans c) 8mm
t=PD/2σ.
40 A seamless cylinder of storage capacity of 0.03mᵌis subjected to an internal pressure of

21MPa. The ultimate strength of material of cylinder is 350N/mm².Determine the length of
the cylinder if it is twice the diameter of the cylinder.
a) 540mm
b) 270mm
c) 400mm
d) 350mm
Ans a) 540mm
0.03=πd²L/4 and L=2d.
41 A thin cylindrical pressure vessel with closed-ends is subjected to internal pressure. The
ratio of circumferential (hoop) stress to the longitudinal stress is
a)0.25
b)0.50
c)1.0
d)2.0
Ans d)2.0
42 What is the condition to avoid joint separation of connected members in cylinders.
a) Fm<0
b) Fm>0
c) Fm=0

Ans a) Fm<0
43 _______________closure is the weakest enclosure for cylindrical vessels.
a.)Hemispherical
b) Torispherical
c) Conical or flat plate

d) Elliptical
Ans c) Conical or flat plate

44 In hydrostatic testing of welded pipe (for leakage, strength etc.) the ratio of minimum
hydrostatic test pressure to internal design pressure is around
a. 0.5
b. 1.5
c. 2.5
d. 3.5
Ans b.1.5
45 A certain pressure vessel manufacturer avoids doing reinforcements calculations for
openings by always providing a reinforcing pad extending upto double the diameter of the
opening and of the same material and thickness as that of the shell wall. If area
compensation is accepted as a code guideline, his approach leads to safe design
a. Only if the opening is on spherical vessel
b. Only if the opening is on a vertical cylindrical vessel
c. Only if the opening is on a horizontal cylindrical vessel
d. Irrespective of the shape of the vessel
Ans d. Irrespective of the shape of the vessel

46 Safety valves are provided in chemical equipments to guard against excessive
a. Temperature
b. Pressure/pressure fluctuation
c. Turbulence
d. Noise
Ans b. Pressure/pressure fluctuation
47 Welded joint efficiency in the design of chemical process equipment is taken as
a. 0.55
b. 0.75
c. 0.85
d. 0.95
Ans c. 0.85
48 Circumferential (hoop) stress in a thin cylindrical vessel under internal pressure is
__________ the longitudinal stress.
a. Half
b. Equal to
c. Twice
d. Eight times
Ans c. Twice
49 Cylindrical pressure vessels in horizontal condition is generally supported on a __________
support.
a. Lug
b. Skirt
c. Saddle
d. Guy wire
Ans c. Saddle
50 For high pressure process equipments/vessels, the connected nozzle should be
a. Welded
b. Screwed
c. Flanged
d. Brazed
Ans c. Flanged
UNIT – I Design of Machine Tool Gear Boxs
1. Diameter range is high in geometric progression due to _________ spindle speed.
a. Low
b. High
c. Constant
Ans: a
a. Difference between reciprocal of two successive spindle speeds is constant
b. Difference between two successive spindle speeds is constant
c. Ratio of two successive spindle speeds is constant.
d. Ratio of two successive spindle speeds is variable.
Ans: a
3. Ratio of two spindle speeds is constant in _________ progression.
a.Arithmetic
b.Geometric
c.Harmonic
d.None of the above
Ans: b
a.To increase torque
b.To increase speed
c.Converts single input speed into multiple output speeds
d.All of the above
Ans: d
5. Which of the following statements is true for structure/speed diagrams?
a.Structure diagrams gives range ratio of spindle speeds
b.Speed diagrams do not give range ratio of spindle speeds
c.Speed diagrams consider motor speed
d.All of the above
Ans: b
6. What is the maximum percentage loss of economic cutting speed if geometric progression
ratio = 1.06 ?
a.17.0 %
b.11.5 %
c.5.7 %
d.2.9 %
Ans: d
7. A machine tool has minimum speed of 100 r.p.m. How many speed steps are required by
it to achieve speed of 200 rpm? (Geometric progression ratio = 1.06)
a.11
b.12
c.13
d.14
Ans: b
8. Maximum and minimum diameter of a shaft to be machined is 100 mm and 80 mm
respectively. What is the maximum spindle speed if cutting velocity is 40 m/min?
a.120 r.p.m
b.127 r.p.m
c.160 r.p.m.
d.636 r.p.m.
Ans: c
a.Minimum
b.Maximum
c.Equal to economic cutting speed
d.None of the above
Ans: a
10. What is the geometric progression ratio if maximum and minimum spindle speeds are
500 r.p.m and 300 r.p.m respectively? (Number of speed steps = 7)
a.0.91
b.1.5
c.1.08
d.2.0
Ans: c
11. In machine tool gear box, optimum number of speed steps with increments between---
a. 5 to 10 %
b. 10 to 15 %
c. 15 to 20 %
d. 20 to 25 %
Ans: c
12. In case of single speed gear box for every input speed there is/are only -----output speed.
a. Three
b. Two
c. One
Ans: c
13. In arthmetic progression the------between any two successive spindle speed is constant.
a. Addition
b. Substraction
c. Reciprocal
Ans: a
14. Multispeed drive with arithmetic progression is /are good in -----spindle speed range.
a. High
b. Low
c. Both a and b
Ans: a
15. Multispeed drive with arithmetic progression is /are poor in -----spindle speed range.
a. High
b. Low
c. Both a and b
Ans: b
16. In geometric progression the ------of any two successiv espindle speed is constant.
a. Addition
b. Substraction
c. Ratio
Ans: c
17. Multispeed drive with geometric progression is / are poor in------spindle speed range.
a. High
b. Low
c. Both a and b
Ans: b
18. Multispped drive with geometric progression gives better gear box design feature.
a. True
b. False
Ans: a
19. In which laws of stepped regulation of speeds gives constant loss of economic cutting
speed.
a. Geometric progression
b. Arthmetic progression
c. Harmonic progression
Ans: a
20. In harmonic progression the -----between reciprocal of any two successive spindle speed
is constant.
a. Addition
b. Difference
c. Insufficiant data
Ans: b
21. Multispeed drive with harmonic progression is / are poor in------spindle speed range.
a. High
b. Low
c. Both a and b
Ans: a
22.Multispeed drive with harmonic progression is / are good in------spindle speed range.
a. High
b. Low
c. Both a and b
Ans: b
23. If speed steps are obtained by arithematic or harmonic progression the number of gear
pairs required are equal to the number of speed steps.
a. This makes gear box bulky
b. Gear shifiting time consuming as well as inconvenient
c. Entire arrangement economically infeasible
d. All of the above
Ans: d
24. The constant loss of economic cutting speed over the total spindle speed range,the
spindle speed must be in----
Ans: a
25. Compact and better gear box designed obtained in which law---
Ans: a
26. The multispeed drive with ---- law is commanly used in machine tool drive.
a. Arthmetic progression
b. Harmonic progression
c. Geometric progression
Ans: c
27. The range ratio for the multispeed gear box is ---
a. The ratio of maximum output speed of gear box to the minimum output speed of the gear
box.
b. The ratio of minimum output speed of gear box to the maximum output speed of the gear
box.
Ans: a
28. The value of range ratio Rn is large for general purpose machine tools--
a. True
b. False
Ans: a
29. The value of range ratio Rn is small for secial purpose machine tools--
a. True
b. False
Ans: a
30. The smaller value of geometric progression ratio ф is / are used in---
a. Large sized heavy duty machine
b. Automats
c. Both a and b
Ans: c
31.The larger value of geometric progression ratio ф is used in---
a. Small sized special purpose machine tools
b. Large sized heavy duty machine
c. Automats
d.None of the above
Ans: a
32. For the higher the value of geometric progression ratio ф the loss of economic cutting
speed is--
a. Low
b. High
c. Moderate
d. Insufficiant data
Ans: a
33. For the lower value of geometric progression ratio ф the loss of economic cutting speed
is--
a. Minimum
b. Maximum
c. Moderate
Ans: b
34. For the lower value of geometric progression ratio ф the number of speed steps or
spindle speeds Z is---
a. Large
b. Small
Ans: a
35. For the higher value of geometric progression ratio ф the number of speed steps or
spindle speeds Z is---
a. High
b. Low
Ans: b
36. Standard values of geometric progression ratio ф for series ф20/3 equal to----
a. 1.41
b. 1.56
c. 1.78
d. 2
Ans: a
37. In order to compromise between the loss of economic cutting speed and the compactness
of the drive the value of ф is selected.

a. 2 < ф ≤ 3
b. 3 < ф ≤ 4
c. 4 < ф ≤ 5
d. 1 < ф ≤ 2
Ans: d
38. Recommende value of ф for heavy duty machine tools and automats--
a. 1.12
b. 1.26
c. 1.14
d. 1.58
Ans: a
39. Recommende value of ф for medium size general purpose machine tools--
a. 1.12
b. 1.26
c. 1.14
d. 1.58
Ans: c
40. Number of spindle speed stepsin machine tool gear box indicated by letter--
a. Z
b. ф
c. Rn
Ans: a
41. The normally selected value/ s of Z is /are --
a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. All of the above
Ans: d
42. letter P indicates in machine tool gear box as ?
a. Number of speed steps per stage
b. Number of spindle speed steps
c. Geometric ratio
d. Range ratio
Ans: a
43. When structural formulae to be feasible , the product PkXk must be a factor of Z--
a. True
b. False
Ans: a
44. For machine tool gear box the transmission range should not be grater than ---
a. 9
b. 10
c. 11
d. 8
Ans: d
45. In structural digram, Each zone between two adjacent vertical lines reperesents a---
a. Transmission group
b. Stage
c. Both a and b
Ans: c
46.In speed diagram, Each horizontal line represents a---
a. Spindle speed
b. Spindle steps
c. Both a and b
Ans: a
47. What is /are the limitation/s of structure diagram---
a.It gives, The spindle speeds
b. It gives, The motor speeds
c. It gives ,The geometric progression ratio
d. All of the above
Ans: d
48. Number of speed steps in any stage should not be more than---
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
Ans: a
49. The speed ratio in last stage should be as ---------as possible.
a. Maximum
b. Minimum
c. Insufficient data
Ans: a
50. Sailent feature/ s of speed diagram is / are---
a. It gives ,The number of shaft in the gera box
b. It gives ,The number of gears on each shaft
c. It gives , the spindle speeds
d. All of the above
Ans: d
51. To avoid interference on gears ,the number of teeth on the smallest gear of the gear box
is---
a. 21
b. 16
c. 18
d. 20
Ans: c
52. If gear pairs on parallel shafts have same module the sum of number of teeth on mating
gear must be same---
a. Correct
b. Incorrect
Ans: a
53. Minimum difference between number of teeth of adjacent gears in a change gera block
must be at least---
a. 6
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Ans: c
54. Spacing between two adjacent gear on the shaft must be grater than -----the face width.
a. Twice
b. Thrice
d. none of the above
Ans: a
55. If the line is inclined upwards from left to right in speed diagram repersent the----
a. Increment in speed
b. Decrement in speed
c. There is no speed change
Ans: a
56. If the line is inclined downwards from left to right in speed diagram repersent the----
Ans: b
57. If the line is straight from left to right in speed diagram repersent the----
Ans: c
58. Conditiom for optimum structure diagram---
a. X1 < X2 < X3
b. X3 < X2 < X1
c. X2 < X1 < X3
d. X3 < X1 < X2
Ans: a
59. Letter N indicate in machine tool gear box design ?
a. Number of stages of gear box
b. Number of spindle speed steps
c. Range ratio
d. geometric progression ratio
Ans: a
60. Range ratio for central lathe is --
a. 8-10
b. 15-25
c. 15-30
d. 40-60
Ans: d
61. Deviation of actual spindle speeds from calculated spindle speeds must not exceed--
a. 10 (ф-1)
b. 20 (ф-1)
c. 30 (ф-1)
d. 40 (ф-1)
Ans: a
62. The speed diagram contains the number of horizontal lines required for locating ?
a. All spindle speds
b. Electric motor speed
c. Both a and b
Ans: c
63. Zth Spindle speed in Arithematic progression ----
a. nz = nmax- nmin/(Z-1)
b. nz = (nmax/nmin)1/Z-1
c. nz = 1/nz - 1/n1
Ans: a
64. Zth Spindle speed in geometric progression ----

c. nz = 1/nz - 1/n1
Ans: b
65. Zth Spindle speed in harmonic progression ----
c. nz = 1/nz - 1/n1
Ans: c
66. ф Geometric progression ratio is equal to
a. ф = (nmax/nmin)1/Z-1
b. ф = Rn
1/Z-1
c. Both a and b
Ans: c
UNIT II Statistical Considerations in Design
1. Histogram is
a. A set of rectangles
b. A line graph of class frequency plotted against class marks
c. A bell shaped smooth curve
Ans: a
2. Frequency polygon is
b.A line graph of class frequency plotted against class marks
Ans: b
3. Central tendency of population is
a. Spread of data or extend to which the observations are scattered

b. Mid point of distribution where most of the data cluster
c. Concentration of data at either low or high end
d. Distribution with sharp peak
Ans: b
4. Dispersion of population is
Ans: a
5. Skewness of population is
d. Measure of sharp peak
Ans: c
6. Kurtosis of population is
d. Measure of sharp peak
Ans: d
7. Central tendency of population is measured in units of
a. Standard deviation
b. Arithmetic mean
c. Standard variable
d. Square of standard de
Ans: b
8. Dispersion of population is measured in units of
b.Arithmetic mean
c.Geometric mean
d. Square of standard deviation

Ans: a
9. Standard variable is
a. Square of standard deviation
b.Arithmetic mean
c. Root mean square deviation from the mean
d. Deviation from mean in units of standard deviation
Ans: d
10. Standard deviation is
a. Square of standard variable
b.Arithmetic mean
d. Deviation from mean in units of standard deviation
Ans: c
11. The area below normal curve from (Z = - ∞) to (Z = + ∞) is
a.1
b.0.6827
c. 0.9545
d. 0.9973
Ans: a
12. The area below normal curve from (Z = - 1) to (Z = + 1) is
a. 1
b. 0.6827
c. 0.9545
d. 0.9973
Ans: b
a.1
b. 0.6827
c. 0.9545
d. 0.9973

Ans: c
a.1
b. 0.6827
c. 0.9545
d. 0.9973
Ans: d
15. When two populations with means μ X and μ Y are added, the mean of resultant
population is given by,
a. ( μ X + μ Y )
b. ( μ X − μ Y )
c. ( μ X μ Y )
d. ( μ X / μ Y )
Ans: a
16. When population Y with means μ Y is subtracted from population X with mean μ X , the
mean of resultant population is given by,
a. ( μ X + μ Y )
b. ( μ X − μ Y )
c. ( μ X μ Y )
d. ( μ X / μ Y )
Ans: b
17. When two populations with means μ X and μ Y are multiplied, the mean of resultant
a. ( μ X + μ Y )
b. ( μ X − μ Y )
c. ( μ X μ Y )
d. ( μ X / μ Y )
Ans: c
18. When population X with mean μ X , is divided by population Y with mean μ Y , the
mean of resultant population is given by,
a. ( μ X + μ Y )
b. ( μ X − μ Y )
c. ( μ X μ Y )
d. ( μ X / μ Y )
Ans: d
19. When two populations X and Y are added, the standard deviation of resultant population
is given by,
a. ( σ ˆ X + σ ˆ Y )
b. ( σ ˆ 2X + σ ˆ 2Y )
c. √( σ ˆ 2X + σ ˆ 2Y )
d. √( σ ˆ 2X − σ ˆ 2Y )
Ans: c
20. When population Y is subtracted from population X, the standard deviation of resultant
a. ( σ ˆ X + σ ˆ Y )
b. ( σ ˆ 2X + σ ˆ 2Y )
c. ( σ ˆ 2X + σ ˆ 2Y )
d. ( σ ˆ 2X − σ ˆ 2Y )
Ans: c
21. The resultant population is normally distributed,
a. When populations of two normally distributed random variables are added
b. When populations of two normally distributed random variables are subtracted
c. When populations of two normally distributed random variables are multiplied
d. Any one of above
Ans: d
22. In statistically controlled system,
a. Variations due to assignable causes are corrected
b. Variations due to chance causes are corrected
c. Variations due to assignable and chance causes are corrected
d. None of these
Ans: a
23. There is no rejection of components when
a. Design tolerance is equal to ( ± 3 σ ˆ ) and the process is centered
b. Design tolerance is slightly more than ( ± 3 σ ˆ )
c. Design tolerance is ( ± 4 σ ˆ )
d. Any one of above
Ans: d
24. The reliability of ball bearing selected from manufacture’s catalogue is
(a) 90%
(b) 50%
(c) 99%
(d) More than 90%
Ans: a
25. What is the standard deviation of clearance population for the diameter of shaft and hole
assembly specified below?
a.0.097 mm
b.0.059 mm
c.0.036 mm
d.0.390 mm
Ans: b
26. Which of the following curves have the mean value equal to zero in the graph of
frequency vs random variable?
a.Normal distribution curve
b.Standard normal distribution curve
c.Both a. and b.
d.None of the above
Ans: b
27. What is the relation between standard deviation(σ) and arithmetic mean (μ) to determine
coefficient of variation (C)?
a.C = σ + μ
b.C = σ – μ
c.C = σ / μ
d.C = σ x μ
Ans: c
28. Assignable causes are caused due to changes in _________
a. Manufacturing process
b. Material
c. Inspection process
d. All of the above
Ans: d
29. If a relief valve has reliability of 0.989, how many failures are expected in testing 1000
such relief valves?
a. 111
b.100
c.10
d.11
Ans: d
30. Failure rate for safety valve working for 400 hours is 3 x 10–6 failures/hour. What is the
reliability of safety valve?
a.0.998
b.0.989
c.0.888
d.0.899
Ans: a
31. What is meant by hazard rate?
a.Number of failures per unit time per number of items when exposed for same time
b.Probability of test specimen fails between time t1and t1+ dt1which survives for time t1
c.Both a. and b.
d.None of the above
Ans: c
32. What causes infant mortality in mechanical equipments?
a.Design errors
b.Manufacturing defects
c.Installation defects
d.All of the above
Ans: d
33. A plain carbon steel has mean yield strength of 300 N/mm2 and standard deviation of 50
N/mm2. What is the mean and standard deviation of margin of safety, if mean tensile stress
of 250 N/mm2 and standard deviation of 65 N/mm2 acts on it?

a. 23.45 N/mm2, 50 N/mm2
b. 50 N/mm2, 82 N/mm2
c. 82 N/mm2, 7.07 N/mm2
d. 7.07 N/mm2, 50 N/mm2
Ans: b
34. What is meant by mean time to failure (MTTF)?
c. Sum of survival time for number of components divided by number of failures
d. Sum of number of failures divided by survival time for number of components
Ans: c
35. The variation in an apperantly identical componat are due to---
a. Variation in material
b. Variation in manufaturing process
c. Variation in workmanship
d. All of the above
Ans: d
36. It is practically imposible to produce exactly identical component of ---
a. Same geometrical properties
b. Same material properties
c. Same functional properties
d. All of the above
Ans: d
37. Assigenable cause do not occur at random but are the result of changes in the material,
manufacturing process, inpection process.
a. True
b. False
Ans: a
38. In a frequncy distribution , there are different measures of central value or central
tendancy. Choose correct option.
a. Arithematic mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. All of the above
Ans: d
39. The dispression or variation or spread of a frequncy distribution is measured in number
of units like--
b. Number of units
c. Quartile Deviation
d. All of the above
Ans: d
40. Coefficient of variation is defined as----
a. Ratio of the standard deviation to the arithematic mean
b. Ratio of mean deviation to the arithematic mean
c. Ratio of quartile deviation to the arthematic mean
Ans: a
41. In standard normal distribution curve the mean is equal to---
a. 1
b. 0
c. -1
d. 2
Ans: b
42. In standard normal distribution curve the standard deviation is equal to---
a. 1
b. 2
c. -1
d. 3
Ans: a
43. In standard normal distribution curve the area under curve is always equal to---
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 1
Ans: d
44. In normal distribution curve the standard deviation is any value of ---
a. Ψ
b. ˆб
c. μ
d. z
Ans: b
45. In normal distribution curve the mean is only value of ---
a. Ψ
b. ˆб
c. μ
d. z
Ans: c
46. In normal distribution curve the random variable is--
a. X
b. ˆб
c. μ
d. z
Ans: a
47. In normal distribution curve the standard variable is--
a. X
b. ˆб
c. μ
d. z
Ans: d
48. Distribution of population under normal distribution curve population within band
μ + 3ˆб equal to
a. 99.73 %
b. 95.45 %
c. 68.27 %
d. 78.25 %
Ans: a
49. Distribution of population under normal distribution curve population within band
μ + 2ˆб equal to
a. 99.73 %
b. 95.45 %
c. 68.27 %
d. 78.25 %
Ans: b
50. The mode is / are obeservation/ s that occurs--------
a. Most frequntly
b. Not frequntly
Ans: a
51. When the design tolerance is grater than the natural tolerance there is---
a. No rejection
b. Rejection
Ans: a
52. When the design tolerance is equal to the natural tolerance there is---
a. No rejection
b. Rejection
Ans: a
53. When the design tolerance is less than the natural tolerance there is---
a. No rejection
b. Rejection
Ans: b
54. Reliability it is usually denoted by R and is expressed by a number within the range---
a. 0 ≤ R ≤ 1
b. -1 ≤ R ≤ 0
c. 1 ≤ R ≤ 2
d. 2 ≤ R ≤ 3
Ans: a
55. Reliability is defined as the probability that a component , system or device will perform
without failure for a specified period of time under the specified operating conditions.
a. Incorrect
b. Correct
Ans: b
UNIT III
Question 1 The Objective of Material Handling System * 1
Option A Accuracy in load transportation
Option B Transportation of load without damage
Option C Low initial and operating cost
Option D all of above
Answer D
Question 2 Economy in material handling can be achieved by______ * 1
Option A employing gravity feed movements
Option B minimizing distance of travel
Option C by carrying material to destination without using manual labour
Option D all of the above
Answer D
Question 3 Unit load states that____ * 1
Option A materials should be moved in lots
Option B one unit should be moved at a time
Option C both ‘a’ and ‘b’
Option D none of the above
Answer A
Question 4 Match the following and the correct order is____ * 3
Option A A-1, B-2, C-3
Option B A-2, B-1, C-3

Option C A-3, B-2, C-1
Option D A-2, B-3, C-1
Answer B
Question 5 Which of the following statements is false for troughed belt conveyors?* 2
Option A 1 and 2
Option B 2 and 3
Option C 3 and 4
Option D None of the above
Answer C
Question 6 Which of the following belt conveyors have low volume carrying capacity*? 1
Option A Flat belts
Option B Troughed belts
Option C Both of above
Answer A
Question 7 What is the mass capacity of flat belt conveyor if volumetric capacity 0.55 m3/hr? (ρ = 1500
kg/m3)* 3
Option A 825 tons/hr
Option B 825 kg/hr
Option C 2.727 tons/hr
Option D 2722 kg/hr
Answer B
Question 8
An inclined belt conveyor is used for loading goods. If speed of the belt having 1500 mm width is 3 m/s
then what is the volumetric capacity of the conveyor?(For 21 degree, k= 2.35 x 10 2.5 x 10-3 m3/s–4)* 3
Option A 1.75 x 10^-3 m3/s
Option B 1.5 x 10^-3 m3/s
Option C 1.19 x 10^-3 m3/s
Option D 2.5 x 10^-3 m3/s
Answer 1.19 x 10^-3 m3/s
Question 9 The capacity of a conveyor belt is depends on ______ * 1
Option A belt speed
Option B a continuous supply of products
Option C distance between the products being conveyed

Answer D
Question 10 Which type of conveyor is shown in figure below * 2
Option A Flat belt conveyor
Option B Blanket belt conveyor
Option C Troughed belt conveyor
Option D Woven wire belt conveyor
Answer C
Question 11 Angle of repose * 1
Option A Angle made by the surface of pile of material with horizontal
Option B Angle measured with respect to horizontal plane of surface of material by moving a belt
Option C Capacity to move by flow
Answer A
Question 12 For very loose and free material Angle of repose is _____ * 1
Option A more
Option B less
Option C same as angle of surcharge
Option D None of above
Answer
Question 13 Describe the type of idler shown in figure * 2
Option A roller
Option B rubber covered
Option C Impact
Option D disc
Answer C
Question 14 Material factor for pile is represented by_____ * 1
Option A K1
Option B K2
Option C K3
Option D K4
Answer A
Question 15 Where do adjust the tension on a conveyor belt? * 1

Option A at ending point of conveyor
Option B at starting point of conveyor
Option C at roller
Option D at the take-up pulley
Answer A
Question 16 Impact idlers are used in a belt conveyor at * 1
Option A the return point
Option B the loading points
Option C an interval of 15m on a conveyor run
Option D none of these
Answer B
Question 17 Volumetric capacity of inclined belt conveyor is___ * 2
Option A Q=C*b^2*V
Option B Q=k*b^2*V
Option C Q= C*V*b^2
Option D Q=k*V*b^2
Answer C
Question 18 Which material is classified as bulk material * 1
Option A coal
Option B iron ore
Answer A
Question 19 Belt conveyors are operated in_____ * 1
Option A vertical plane
Option B horizontal plane
Option C inclined plane
Option D smooth surface on all of these planes
Answer D
Question 20 Resisting force on conveyor belt shown in below figure is at _________ * 1
Option A Lifting of material
Option B Idlers
Option C Loading station
Option D Unloading station
Answer B
Question 20 Material handling consists of movement of material from 1
Option A one machine to another
Option B one shop to another shop
Option C stores to shop
Answer D
Question 21 The following is used to transport materials having flat bottoms
Option A Belt conveyor
Option B Roller conveyor
Option C Chain conveyor
Answer B
Question 22 Fork lift truck is used for 1
Option A lifting and lowering
Option B vertical transportation
Answer C
Question 23 Cranes are used for 1
Answer C
Question 24 Which of the following is a property of bulk load? 1
Option A Hardness
Option B Cake forming tendency
Option C Suspension part
Option D Weight
Answer B
Question 25 What are bulk loads? 1
Option A Lump of material

Option B Single rigid mass
Option C Homogeneous particles
Option D Heterogeneous particles
Answer B
Question 26 Which belt conveyor prevents sliding down of material at an inclination of 55o with
horizontal? 1
Option B Troughed belt conveyor
Option C Blanket belt conveyor
Option D Woven wire belt conveyors
Answer C
Question 27
Mass capacity of a conveyor is 200 ton/hr, if speed of the belt is 4 m/s then what is the width of
horizontal flat belt conveyor carrying the load? (Surcharge factor = 0.075 & ρ = 1000 kg/m3) 3
Option A 499.23 mm
Option B 500.0 mm
Option C 533.7 mm
Option D Insufficient data
Answer 533.7 mm
Question 28 The angle of repose depends on 1
Option A shape of the material
Option B smoothness of the material
Option C degree of fineness of the material
Answer degree of fineness of the material
Question 29 Which of the following application is a belt conveyor used for?
Option A Material transportation over long distances
Option B Material transportation within premises
Option C Material transportation for processing
Option D All of the mentioned
Answer D
Question 30 Statement 1: It is generally not possible to change the direction of flow with belt conveyors.
2
Option A True, False
Option B True, True
Option C False, False
Option D False, True
Answer B
UNIT IV
Sr No. Questions Marks
Question 1 A cylinder is considered as thin cylinder when the ratio of inner diameter to the wall
thickness is 1
Option A more than 15
Option B less than 15
Option C equal to 15
Option D none of these criteria
Answer A
Question 2 A cylinder is considered as thick cylinder when the ratio of inner diameter to the wall
thickness is 1
Answer B
Question 3 In thin cylinders, the longitudinal stress is,
Option A 2(circumferential stress)
Option B 1/2(circumferential stress)
Option C 1/4(circumferential stress)
Option D 4(circumferential stress)
Answer B
Question 4 The thickness of thin cylinder is determined on the basis of 1
Option A radial stress
Option B longitudinal stress
Option C circumferential stress
Option D principal shear stress

Answer circumferential stress
Question 5 The thickness of thin cylindrical shell is given by, 2
Option A PiDi/2σt
Option B PiDi/4σt
Option C 2PiDi/σt
Option D 4PiDi/σt
Answer A
Question 6 The thickness of thin spherical shell is given by, 2
Option A PiDi/2σt
Option B PiDi/4σt
Option C 2PiDi/σt
Option D 4PiDi/σt
Answer B
Question 7 In thick cylinders, the tangential stress across the thickness of cylinder
Option A remains uniform throughout
Option B varies from internal pressure at the inner surface to zero at the outer surface
Option C varies from maximum value at the inner surface to minimum value at the outer surface
Option D varies from maximum value at the outer surface to minimum value at the inner surface
Answer C
Question 8 In thick cylinders, the radial stress across the thickness of cylinder 1
Answer B
Question 9 In thick cylinders, the axial stress across the thickness of cylinder 1
Answer A
Question 10 In thin cylinders, the tangential stress across the thickness of cylinder 1
Answer A
Question 11 The thickness of thick cylindrical shell with closed ends and made of brittle material is
determined by,
Option A Lame’s equation
Option B Clavarino’s equation
Option C Birnie’s equation
Option D Barlow’s equation
Answer A
Question 12 The thickness of thick cylindrical shell with closed ends and made of ductile material is
determined by, 1
Answer B
Question 13 The thickness of thick cylindrical shell with open ends and made of ductile material is
determined by, 1
Answer C
Question 14 The thickness of high-pressure oil and gas pipes is determined by,
Answer D
Question 15 Autofrettage is,
Option A a surface coating process of cylinders for corrosion resistance
Option B a heat treatment process for cylinders to relieve residual stresses
Option C a process of prestressing the cylinder to develop residual compressive stress at inner surface
Option D a surface hardening process of cylinder to improve wear resistance
Answer C
Question 16 Autofrettage is achieved by, 2
Option A compound cylinder
Option B overloading the cylinder before putting it in service
Option C winding a wire under tension around the cylinder
Option D any one of the above methods
Answer D
Question 17 A gasket is made of, 2
Option A asbestos or cork
Option B lead, copper or aluminum
Option C vulcanized rubber
Option D any one of the above
Answer D
Question 18
Welded pressure vessels made of steel plates should be designed according to ‘Code for unfired vessel
IS-2825’
when, 2
Option A internal pressure is from 1 kgf/cm2 to 200 kgf/cm2
Option B internal diameter is less than 150 mm
Option C water container is to be designed with capacities less than 500 litres
Option D steam boilers and nuclear pressure vessels are to be designed
Answer A
Question 19 Class 1 pressure vessels are to be designed according to ‘Code for unfired vessel IS-2825’
when 2
Option A hydrocyanic acid, carbonyl chloride or mustard gas are stored
Option B operating temperature is more than -200C
Option C liquefied petroleum gas is stored
Option D thickness of shell is less than 38 mm

Answer A
Question 20 Class 3 pressure vessels are to be designed according to ‘Code for unfired vessel IS-2825’
when, 2
Option A operating pressure is less than 17.5 kgf/cm2
Option B operating temperature is more than 00C and less than 2500C
Option C thickness of shell is less than 16 mm
Answer D
Question 21
While designing pressure vessels according to ‘Code for unfired vessel IS- 2825’, the design pressure is
taken as
Option A 1.05(maximum operating pressure)
Option B 1.5(maximum operating pressure)
Option C 2(maximum operating pressure)
Option D 1.3(maximum operating pressure)
Answer A
Question 22 Weld joint efficiency is maximum when the pressure vessel is welded by 1
Option A single-welded butt joint with backing strip
Option B single-welded butt joint without backing strip
Option C double-welded butt joint with full penetration
Answer C
Question 23 Type of domed heads for the pressure vessel is
Option A hemispherical head
Option B semi-ellipsoidal head 1
Option C torispherical head
Answer D
Question 24 The end-closure for tankers of milk, petrol or diesel is
Option A hemispherical head 1
Option B semi-ellipsoidal head
Option D Flat head

Answer C
Question 25 The end-closure for tall vertical pressure vessel is 1
Option D Flat head
Answer A
Question 26
cylinder made of plain carbon steel has inner diameter 100 mm. What is the thickness of cylinder if
maximum
internal pressure of 20 Mpa acts on it? ( σall = 100 N/mm2 & poisson's ratio = 0.3) 3
Option A 11 mm
Option B 15.36 mm
Option C 22.32 mm
Option D 80 mm
Answer A
Question 27 Claviro's equation is applicable to cylinders with _______ 1
Option A close ends
Option B open ends
Option C both a. and b.
Answer A
Question 28 Why is autofrettage process used in pressure vessels?
Option A Increase fatigue lifetime
Option B To enhance carrying capacity
Option C To introduce compressive residual stress in them
Option D All of the above
Answer D
Question 29
A seamless cylinder of storage capacity of 0.03mᵌis subjected to an internal pressure of 21MPa. The
ultimate strength
of material of cylinder is 350N/mm².Determine the length of the cylinder if it is twice the diameter of
the cylinder. 3
Option A 540mm
Option B 270mm
Option C 400mm
Option D 350mm
Answer A
Question 30
Internal pressure of 2.5 Mpa acts on a pressure vessel of thickness 15 mm and internal diameter of 1500
mm. What
is the stress induced in longitudinal direction? 3
Option A 36.63 N/mm2
Option B 59.13 N/mm2
Option C 65.62 N/mm2
Option D 131.25 N/mm2
Answer 65.62 N/mm2
Question 31 Which of the following is not an unfired pressure vessel?
Option A Heat exchanger
Option B Storage vessels
Option C Steam boilers
Answer C
UNIT V
Question 1 I.C. engine cylinder is made of, 1
Option A cast iron
Option B plain carbon steel
Option C alloy steel
Option D copper
Answer A
Question 2 The ratio of length of stroke to cylinder bore (l/D) is usually,
Option A a. 1/2
Option B b. 5
Option C c. 1.5
Option D d. 1/4
Answer C
Question 3 Cylinder thickness is calculated on the basis of, 1
Option B residual stress
Option C whipping stress
Option D circumferential hoop stress
Answer D
Question 4 The length of cylinder is taken as, 1
Option A equal to cylinder diameter
Option B equal to length of stroke
Option C 1.15 times of stroke length
Option D 1.5 times length of piston
Answer C
Question 5 Piston is made of
Option A alloy steel 1
Option C cast iron
Option D brass
Answer C
Question 6 The function of piston skirt is 1
Option A to provide bearing surface for side thrust
Option B to support gas load
Option C to support gudgeon pin
Option D to seal the cylinder and prevent leakage of oil past piston
Answer A
Question 7 The ratio of side thrust on piston to maximum gas force on piston head is, 1
Option A 1
Option B 0.5
Option C 0.25
Option D 0.1
Answer D
Question 8 For buckling consideration, the end conditions of connecting rod in plane of motion are, 1
Option A one end is free and the other fixed
Option B both ends are hinged

Option C both ends are fixed
Option D one end is fixed and the other hinged
Answer B
Question 9
The condition for connecting rod to be equally strong in plane of motion (XX) and a plane perpendicular
to
plane of motion (YY) is, 2
Option A I xx = I yy
Option B I xx = 4 I yy
Option C 4 I xx = I yy
Option D I xx = 2 I yy
Answer B
Question 10 Connecting rod is made of, 1
Option A aluminium
Option B medium carbon steel
Option C cast iron
Option D babbits
Answer B
Question 11 The ratio of length of connecting rod to the crank radius (L/r) is usually, 2
Option A 1.5 to 2
Option B 10 to 12
Option C 4 to 5
Option D 1:1
Answer C
Question 12 The bolts for the cap of big end of connecting rod are subjected to 1
Option A only gas force
Option B only inertia force
Option C only side thrust
Option D inertia force, gas force and side thrust
Answer B
Question 13 Automotive crankshafts are made by, 1
Option A casting process
Option B machining from rolled stock
Option C drop forging process

Option D welding process
Answer C
Question 14 The function of valve gear mechanism is, 1
Option A to rotate the cam
Option B to reduce the speed of crankshaft
Option C to transmit the power
Option D open and close inlet and exhaust valve
Answer D
Question 15 At the top dead centre position, the crankshaft is subjected to, 1
Option A maximum torque
Option B maximum bending moment
Option C maximum torsional and bending moment
Answer B
Answer B
Question 17 For maximum torque condition, the crank angle is, 2
Option A 0 0 from top dead centre for petrol and diesel engines
Option B 33 0 before top dead centre for petrol engine and 1 0 after top dead centre position for diesel
engine
Option C 25 0 to 35 0 for petrol engine and 30 0 to 40 0 for diesel engine from top dead centre
Option D 90 0 from top dead centre for petrol and diesel engines
Answer C
Question 18 The area of inlet valve is 1
Option A equal to the area of exhaust valve
Option B more than the area of exhaust valve
Option C less than the area of exhaust valve
Answer B
Question 19 Whipping stress is due to 1

Option A vibrations of crankshaft
Option B reciprocating motion of piston
Option C inertia force on connecting rod
Option D obliquity of connecting rod
Answer C
Question 20 When the length of connecting rod is small, it results in 1
Option A greater angular swing and greater side thrust on piston
Option B lesser angular swing and lesser side thrust on piston
Option C more chances of buckling failure
Option D no side thrust on piston
Answer A
Question 21 The design of piston head is based on 1
Option A strength and rigidity considerations
Option B bending and torsional moments
Option C buckling consideration
Option D strength and heat transfer considerations
Answer D
Question 22 The spring index for valve spring is usually 1
Option A 5
Option B 8
Option C 12
Option D 20
Answer B
Question 23 The main objective of providing two concentric valve springs, one inside another, in heavy
duty engines is, 1
Option A to increase force on valve
Option B to eliminate surge
Option C to provide fail safe system
Option D to provide linear force-deflection characteristic
Answer B
Question 24 Push rod is designed on the basis of, 1
Option A tensile strength
Option B compression strength
Option C bending strength

Option D buckling strength
Answer D
Question 25 The valve lift depends upon 1
Option A bore and length of cylinder
Option B length of connecting rod and crank radius
Option C seat angle and diameter of port
Option D length of stroke and length of piston
Answer C
Question 26 Valve springs have 1
Option A plain ends
Option B plain and ground ends
Option C square ends
Option D square and ground ends
Answer D
SR.NO. UNIT NO.VI OPTIMUM DESIGN MARKS
Question 1 Which of the following is no expressed by primary design equation ? 1
Option A Functional parameters
Option B Material parameters
Option C Geometrical parameters d
Answer D
Question 2 The limit equatipn St= Sut /Nf is expressed as ----
Option A loose limit equation
Option B rigid limit equation
Option C rigid on one side and loose on other side
Answer D
Question 3 Which is / are the design parameter/ s in a design of any mechanical element ? 1
Option A Functional requirement parameter
Option B Material parameter
Option C Geometrical parameter

Answer D
Question 4 Functional requirement parameter are----- 1
Option A Positive
Option B Negative
Option C Both (a) and (b)
Option D Neither (a) and (b)
Answer C
Question 5 Functional requirement parameter are indpend on ----- 1
Option A Material Parameter
Option B Geometrical parameter
Answer C
Question 6 Individual functional requirement parameter on each other. 1
Option A Independent
Option B Dependent
Option C Independent or Dependent
Answer B
Question 7 Choose incorrect example of functional requirement parameters ? 1
Option A Power tansmitting capacity and gera ratio of gear pair
Option B Maximum force exerted by the spring stiffness for helical compression spring
Option C Cost
Option D Density
Answer D
Question 8 Choose desirable functional requirement parameter ? 1
Option A Weight
Option B Stress
Option C Deflection
Option D Power transmitting capacity and gear ratio for gear pair
Answer D
Question 9 The undesirable effect / s --- 1
Option A Negative functional requirement

Option B Positive functional requirement
Option C both (a) and (b)
Answer A
Question 10 Choose incorrect material parameter ? 1
Option A Cost per unit weight
Option B Density
Option C Yield strength
Option D Vibration
Answer D
Question 11 The material parameter are independet on ---- 1
Option A Functional requiremet parameter
Option B Geometrical Parameter
Answer C
Question 12 The material parameter are generally not of each other. 1
Option A Dependent
Option B Independent
Answer B
Question 13 The geometrical parameters are dependent on the ----
Option A material parameters 1
Option B Functionla requirement parameters
Answer C
Question 14 The geometrical parameter for a spur gear are--.Choose incorrect geometrical parameter 1
Option A Possions ratio
Option B Addendum
Option C Pressure angle
Option D Face width

Answer A
Question 15 Classification of Design Parameter/ s based on status in design problem. 1
Option A limited Parameters
Option B Specific Parameters
Option C Unspecified and Unlimited parameters
Answer A
Question 16 Specified Parameter as given below. Choose correct. 2
Option A P = 30 kw
Option B 30mm ≤ d ≤ 60 mm
Option C 60 mm ≤ l ≤ 90 mm
Answer A
Question 17 In adequte design available for single design problem 1
Option A There are number of adequate design
Option B Unique adequate design
Answer A
Question 18
The optimum design targets a single paramete for optimizing while fulfilling the
other requirement. 1
Option A a. Maximizing
Option B b. Minimizing
Option C c. Both (a) and (b)
Option D d. None of the above
Answer C
Question 19
The objective in the optimum design might be to maximize one of the quanyity, consider the
following parameters. Choose correct. 1
Option A Cost
Option B Deflection
Option C Center distance

Option D Load carrying capacity
Answer D
Question 20
The objective in the optimum design might be to minimize one of the quanyity, consider the
following parameters. Choose correct. 1
Option A Power transmitting Capacity
Option B Energy storing Capacity
Option C Load carrying capacity
Option D Deflection
Answer D
Question 21 How many design avialable in adeduate design. 1
Option A Number of design available
Option B Unique design available
Answer A
Question 22 How many design avialable in optimum design. 1
Option A Unique design available
Option B Number of design available
Answer B
Question 23 In design procedure, How many type/s of design equation use ?
Option A Primary design equation (P.D.E) 1
Option B Limit equation (L.E)
Option C Subsidiary Design equation (S.D.E)
Answer D
Question 24 The subsidiary design equations express----
Option A Material Parameters 1
Option B Geometrical Parameters
Option C Either Functional requirement or Undesirable effects
Answer C
Question 25 The primary design equation is the most important design equation Which Express---- 1
Option A The most significant functional requirement to be maximized
Option B The most significant undesirable effect to be minimized
Answer C
Question 26
Which is the most significant undesirable effect to be minimized . Choose Incorrect
Parameter. 1
Option A Cost
Option B Weigth.
Option C Vibration
Option D Module
Answer D
Question 27 Stess equations in any optimum design are gemerally-----
Option A Limit equation (L.E) 1
Option B Subsidiary design equation (S.D.E)
Option C Primary design equation
Answer B
Question 28
If it is paooible to combine the effect of all subsidairy design eauaion, limit equation and
specified parameters in primary design equation (P.D.E) then it is the case of------- 1
Option A Normal specifications
Option B Redudant Specifications
Option C Incompatible Specifications
Answer B
Question 29
specified parameters in primary design equation (P.D.E) then it is the case of------- 1

Answer B
Question 30 σt = F / A it is called as-----
Option A Limit equation
Option B Primary design Eauation
Option C Subsidary design equation
Answer C
Question 31 σt ≤ Syt /Nf it is called as ----
Answer C
Question 32 Choose correct material parameters. 2
Option A w , ρ
Option B A , L
Option C F , Nf
Option D σt , Syt
Answer D
Question 33 Choose correct functional parameters. 2
Option A w , ρ
Option B A , L
Option C F , Nf
Option D σt , Syt
Answer C
Question 34 Choose correct geometrical parameters as limited value , unspecified and unlimited value ?
2
Option A w , ρ
Option B L, A
Option C F , Nf
Option D σt , Syt
Answer B
Question 35 Choose undesirable effect parameters as limited value, unspecified and unlimited value. 2
Option A σ , w
Option B L , A
Option C ρ , Syt
Option D F , Nf
Answer A
Question 36 Choose material selection factor/s--- 2
Option A σ/Sut
Option B σ/Syt
Answer C
UNIT – I Design of Machine Tool Gear Boxs
1. Diameter range is high in geometric progression due to _________

spindle speed. a. Low
b. High
c. Constant
d. None of the
above Ans: a
a. Difference between reciprocal of two successive spindle speeds is

constant b. Difference between two successive spindle speeds is constant
c. Ratio of two successive spindle speeds is

constant. d. Ratio of two successive spindle
speeds is variable. Ans: a
3. Ratio of two spindle speeds is constant in _________
progression. a.Arithmetic
b.Geometric
c.Harmonic
d.None of the
above Ans: b
a.To increase torque
b.To increase speed
c.Converts single input speed into multiple output speeds
d.All of the above
Ans: d
5. Which of the following statements is true for structure/speed

diagrams? a.Structure diagrams gives range ratio of spindle speeds
b.Speed diagrams do not give range ratio of spindle
speeds c.Speed diagrams consider motor speed
d.All of the
above Ans: b
6. What is the
maximum
percentage loss of
economic cutting
speed if geometric
progression ratio =
1.06 ?
a.17.0 %
b.11.5 %
c.5.7 %
d.2.9 %
Ans: d
7. A machine tool has minimum speed of 100 r.p.m. How many speed steps are
required by it to achieve speed of 200 rpm? (Geometric progression ratio = 1.06)
a.11
b.12
c.13
d.14
Ans: b
8. Maximum and minimum diameter of a shaft to be machined is 100 mm and

80 mm respectively. What is the maximum spindle speed if cutting velocity is
40 m/min? a.120 r.p.m
b.127 r.p.m
c.160 r.p.m.
d.636 r.p.m.
Ans: c
a.Minimum
b.Maximum
c.Equal to economic cutting speed
d.None of the above
Ans: a
10. What is the geometric progression ratio if maximum and minimum spindle speeds are
500 r.p.m and 300 r.p.m respectively? (Number of speed

steps = 7) a.0.91
b.1.5
c.1.08
d.2.0
Ans: c
11. In machine tool gear box, optimum number of speed steps with increments between---
a. 5 to 10 %
b. 10 to 15 %
c. 15 to 20 %
d. 20 to 25 %
Ans: c
12. In case of single speed gear box for every input speed there is/are only
-----output speed. a. Three
b. Two
c. One
d. None of the
above Ans: c
13. In arthmetic progression the------between any two successive spindle speed is

constant. a. Addition
b. Substraction
c. Reciprocal
d. None of the
above Ans: a
14. Multispeed drive with arithmetic progression is /are good in -----spindle speed range.
a. High
b. Low
c. Both a and b
d. None of the
above Ans: a
15. Multispeed drive with arithmetic progression is /are poor in -----spindle speed range.
a. High
b. Low
c. Both a and b
Ans: b
16. In geometric progression the ------of any two successiv espindle speed is
constant. a. Addition
b. Substraction
c. Ratio
d. None of the
above Ans: c
17. Multispeed drive with geometric progression is / are poor in------spindle

speed range. a. High
b. Low
c. Both a and b
d. None of the
above Ans: b
18. Multispped drive with geometric progression gives better gear box design feature.
a. True
b. False
Ans: a
19. In which laws of stepped regulation of speeds gives constant loss of

economic cutting speed.

20. In harmonic progression the -----between reciprocal of any two successive
spindle speed is constant.
a. Addition b.
Difference
d. None of the
above Ans: b
21. Multispeed drive with harmonic progression is / are poor in------spindle
b. Low
c. Both a and b
d. None of the
above Ans: a
22.Multispeed drive with harmonic progression is / are good in------spindle

b. Low
c. Both a and b
d. None of the
above Ans: b
23. If speed steps are obtained by arithematic or harmonic progression the

number of gear pairs required are equal to the number of speed steps.
a. This makes gear box bulky
b. Gear shifiting time consuming as well as inconvenient

c. Entire arrangement economically infeasible
d. All of the
above Ans: d
24. The constant loss of economic cutting speed over the total spindle speed
range,the spindle speed must be in----
a. Geometric
progression b. Arthmetic
progression c. Harmonic
progression d. None of
the above Ans: a
25.Compact and better gear box designed obtained in which law---
a. Geometric
progression b. Arthmetic
progression c. Harmonic
the above Ans: a
26. The multispeed drive with ---- law is commanly used in machine tool
drive. a. Arthmetic progression
b. Harmonic progression
c. Geometric
the above Ans: c
27.The range ratio for the multispeed gear box is ---
a. The ratio of maximum output speed of gear box to the minimum output speed of
the gear box.
b. The ratio of minimum output speed of gear box to the maximum output speed of
the gear box.
Ans: a
28. The value of range ratio Rn is large for general purpose machine
tools-- a. True
b. False
d. None of the
above Ans: a
29. The value of range ratio Rn is small for secial purpose machine
tools-- a. True
b. False
d. None of the
above Ans: a
30.The smaller value of geometric progression ratio ф is / are used in---
a. Large sized heavy duty machine
b. Automats
c. Both a and b
d. None of the
above Ans: c
31.The larger
value of
geometric
progression ratio
ф is used in---
a. Small sized special purpose machine tools
b. Large sized heavy duty machine
c. Automats
d.None of the
above Ans: a
32. For the higher the value of geometric progression ratio ф the loss of
economic cutting speed is--
a. Low
b. High
c. Moderate
33. For the lower value of geometric progression ratio ф the loss of economic cutting speed
is--
a. Minimum
b. Maximum
c. Moderate
d. Insufficiant
data Ans: b
34. For the lower value of geometric progression ratio ф the number of speed
steps or spindle speeds Z is---
a. Large
b. Small
d. None of the
above Ans: a
35. For the higher value of geometric progression ratio ф the number of
speed steps or spindle speeds Z is---
a. High
b. Low
Ans: b
36.Standard values of geometric progression ratio ф for series ф20/3 equal to----
a. 1.41
b. 1.56
c. 1.78
d. 2
Ans: a
37. In order to compromise between the loss of economic cutting speed and the
compactness of the drive the value of ф is selected.
a. 2 < ф ≤ 3
b. 3 < ф ≤ 4
c. 4 < ф ≤ 5
d. 1 < ф ≤ 2
Ans: d
38.Recommende value of ф for heavy duty machine tools and automats--
a. 1.12
b. 1.26
c. 1.14
d. 1.58
Ans: a
39. Recommende value of ф for medium size general purpose machine tools--
a. 1.12
b. 1.26
c. 1.14
d. 1.58
Ans: c
40. Number of spindle speed stepsin machine tool gear box indicated by letter--
a. Z
b. ф
c. Rn

Ans: a
41.The normally selected value/ s of Z is /are --
a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. All of the
above Ans: d
42. letter P indicates in machine tool gear box

as ? a. Number of speed steps per stage
b. Number of spindle speed

steps c. Geometric ratio
d. Range
ratio Ans: a
43. When structural formulae to be feasible , the product PkXk must be a

factor of Z-- a. True
b. False
d. None of the
above Ans: a
44. For machine tool gear box the transmission range should not be grater than ---
a. 9
b. 10
c. 11
d. 8
Ans: d
45. In structural digram, Each zone between two adjacent vertical lines reperesents a---
a. Transmission group
b. Stage
c. Both a and b
d. None of the
above Ans: c
46.In speed diagram, Each horizontal line represents a---

a. Spindle speed
b. Spindle steps
c. Both a and b
Ans: a
47.What is /are the limitation/s of structure diagram---
a.It gives, The spindle speeds
b. It gives, The motor speeds
c. It gives ,The geometric progression

ratio d. All of the above
Ans: d
48.Number of speed steps in any stage should not be more than---
a. 3
b. 4 c.
5 d. 6
Ans:
a
49. The speed ratio in last stage should be as ---------as

possible. a. Maximum
b. Minimum
c. Insufficient data
d. None of the
above Ans: a
50.Sailent feature/ s of speed diagram is / are---

a. It gives ,The number of shaft in the
gera box b. It gives ,The number of gears
on each shaft c. It gives , the spindle
speeds d. All of the above
Ans: d
51. To avoid interference on gears ,the number of teeth on the smallest gear of the
gear box is---
a. 21
b. 16
c. 18
d. 20
Ans: c
52. If gear pairs on parallel shafts have same module the sum of number of teeth
on mating gear must be same---
a. Correct
b. Incorrect
d. None of the
above Ans: a
53. Minimum difference between number of teeth of adjacent gears in a change

gera block must be at least---
a. 6
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Ans: c
54. Spacing between two adjacent gear on the shaft must be grater than -----the face width.
a. Twice
b. Thrice
d. none of the
above Ans: a
55. If the line is inclined upwards from left to right in speed diagram repersent the----
d. None of the
above Ans: a
56. If the line is inclined downwards from left to right in speed diagram repersent the----
Ans: b
57. If the line is straight from left to right in speed diagram repersent the----
c. There is no speed
change d. None of the
above Ans: c
58.Conditiom for optimum structure diagram---
a. X1 < X2 < X3
b. X3 < X2 < X1
c. X2 < X1 < X3
d. X3 < X1 < X2
Ans: a
59. Letter N indicate in machine tool gear box

design ? a. Number of stages of gear box
b. Number of spindle speed

steps c. Range ratio
d. geometric progression
ratio Ans: a
60.Range ratio for central lathe is --
a. 8-10
b. 15-25
c. 15-30
d. 40-60
Ans: d
61. Deviation of actual spindle speeds from calculated spindle speeds must not exceed--
a. 10 (ф-1)
b. 20 (ф-1)
c. 30 (ф-1)
d. 40 (ф-
1) Ans: a
62. The speed diagram contains the number of horizontal lines required for
locating ? a. All spindle speds
b. Electric motor
speed c. Both a and b
d. None of the
above Ans: c
63. Zth Spindle speed in Arithematic progression ----
c. nz = 1/nz - 1/n1
d. None of the
above Ans: a
64. Zth Spindle speed in geometric progression ----
c. nz = 1/nz - 1/n1
d. None of the
above Ans: b
65. Zth Spindle speed in harmonic progression ----
c. nz = 1/nz - 1/n1
d. None of the
above Ans: c
66. ф Geometric progression ratio is equal to
a. ф = (nmax/nmin)1/Z-
1
b. ф = Rn1/Z-1
c. Both a and b
d. None of the
above Ans: c
UNIT II Statistical Considerations in Design
1. Histogram is
b. A line graph of class frequency plotted against class marks
Ans: a
2. Frequency polygon
is a. A set of rectangles
b.A line graph of class frequency plotted against class

marks c. A bell shaped smooth curve
d. None of the
above Ans: b
3. Central tendency of population is
Ans: b
4. Dispersion of population is
Ans: a
5. Skewness of population is

b. Mid point of distribution where most of the data
cluster c. Concentration of data at either low or high
end d. Measure of sharp peak
Ans: c
6. Kurtosis of population is
c. Concentration of data at either low or
high end d. Measure of sharp peak Ans: d
7. Central tendency of population is measured in
units of a. Standard deviation
b. Arithmetic mean
c. Standard variable
d. Square of standard
de Ans: b
8. Dispersion of population is measured in units of
b.Arithmetic mean
c.Geometric mean
d. Square of standard deviation

Ans: a
9. Standard variable is
a. Square of standard deviation
b.Arithmetic mean

d. Deviation from mean in units of standard
deviation Ans: d
10. Standard deviation is
a. Square of standard variable
b.Arithmetic mean
d. Deviation from mean in units of standard
deviation Ans: c
11. The area below normal curve from (Z = - ∞) to (Z = + ∞) is
a.1
b.0.6827
c. 0.9545
d. 0.9973
where Z is standard
variable Ans: a
a. 1
b. 0.6827
c. 0.9545
d. 0.9973
where Z is standard
variable Ans: b
a.1
b. 0.6827
c. 0.9545
d. 0.9973
Ans: c
14.The area below normal curve from (Z = - 3) to (Z = + 3) is
a.1
b. 0.6827
c. 0.9545
d. 0.9973
where Z is standard
variable Ans: d
15. When two populations with means μ X and μ Y are added, the mean of
a. ( μ X + μ Y )
b. ( μ X − μ Y )
c. ( μ X μ Y )
d. ( μ X / μ Y )
Ans: a
16. When population Y with means μ Y is subtracted from population X with mean μ
X , the mean of resultant population is given by,
a. ( μ X + μ Y )
b. ( μ X − μ Y )
c. ( μ X μ Y )
d. ( μ X / μ Y )
Ans: b
17. When two populations with means μ X and μ Y are multiplied, the mean of
a. ( μ X + μ Y )
b. ( μ X − μ Y )
c. ( μ X μ Y )
d. ( μ X / μ Y )
Ans: c
18. When population X with mean μ X , is divided by population Y with mean μ

Y , the mean of resultant population is given by,
a. ( μ X + μ Y )
b. ( μ X − μ Y )
c. ( μ X μ Y )
d. ( μ X / μ Y )
Ans: d
19. When two populations X and Y are added, the standard deviation of resultant
a. ( σ ˆ X + σ ˆ Y )
b. ( σ ˆ 2X + σ ˆ 2Y )
c. √( σ ˆ 2X + σ ˆ 2Y )
d. √( σ ˆ 2X − σ ˆ 2Y )
Ans: c
20. When population Y is subtracted from population X, the standard deviation of
a. ( σ ˆ X + σ ˆ Y )
b. ( σ ˆ 2X + σ ˆ 2Y )
c. ( σ ˆ 2X + σ ˆ 2Y )
d. ( σ ˆ 2X − σ ˆ 2Y )
Ans: c
21. The resultant population is normally distributed,
a. When populations of two normally distributed random variables are added

b. When populations of two normally distributed random variables are subtracted
c. When populations of two normally distributed random variables are multiplied
d. Any one of above
Ans: d
22. In statistically controlled system,
a. Variations due to assignable causes are corrected
b. Variations due to chance causes are corrected
c. Variations due to assignable and chance causes are corrected
d. None of these
Ans: a
23. There is no rejection of components when
a. Design tolerance is equal to ( ± 3 σ ˆ ) and the process is
centered b. Design tolerance is slightly more than ( ± 3 σ ˆ )
c. Design tolerance is ( ± 4 σ ˆ )
d. Any one of above
Ans: d
24.The reliability of ball bearing selected from manufacture’s catalogue is
(a) 90%
(b) 50%
(c) 99%
(d) More than
90% Ans: a
25. What is the standard deviation of clearance population for the diameter of shaft
and hole assembly specified below?

a.0.097 mm
b.0.059 mm
c.0.036 mm
d.0.390 mm
Ans: b
26. Which of the following curves have the mean value equal to zero in the
graph of frequency vs random variable?
a.Normal distribution curve
b.Standard normal distribution curve
c.Both a. and b.
d.None of the above
Ans: b
27. What is the relation between standard deviation(σ) and arithmetic mean (μ) to
determine coefficient of variation (C)?
a.C = σ + μ
b.C = σ – μ
c.C = σ / μ
d.C = σ x μ
Ans: c
28. Assignable causes are caused due to changes in _________
a. Manufacturing process
b. Material
c. Inspection process
d. All of the above
Ans: d
29. If a relief valve has reliability of 0.989, how many failures are expected in
testing 1000 such relief valves?
a. 111
b.100
c.10
d.11
Ans: d
30. Failure rate for safety valve working for 400 hours is 3 x 10–6 failures/hour.
What is the reliability of safety valve?
a.0.998
b.0.989
c.0.888
d.0.899
Ans: a
31. What is meant by hazard rate?
a.Number of failures per unit time per number of items when exposed for same time
b.Probability of test specimen fails between time t1and t1+ dt1which survives for time t1
c.Both a. and b.
d.None of the above
Ans: c
32. What causes infant mortality in mechanical

equipments? a.Design errors
b.Manufacturing defects
c.Installation defects
d.All of the above
33. A plain carbon steel has mean yield strength of 300 N/mm2 and standard deviation
of 50 N/mm2. What is the mean and standard deviation of margin of safety, if mean
tensile stress of 250 N/mm2 and standard deviation of 65 N/mm2 acts on it?
a. 23.45 N/mm2, 50 N/mm2
b. 50 N/mm2, 82 N/mm2
c. 82 N/mm2, 7.07 N/mm2
d. 7.07 N/mm2, 50 N/mm2

Ans: b
34. What is meant by mean time to failure (MTTF)?
c. Sum of survival time for number of components divided by number of failures d.
Sum of number of failures divided by survival time for number of components
Ans: c
35.The variation in an apperantly identical componat are due to---
a. Variation in material
b. Variation in manufaturing process
c. Variation in workmanship
d. All of the
above Ans: d
36.It is practically imposible to produce exactly identical component of ---
a. Same geometrical
properties b. Same material
properties c. Same functional
properties d. All of the above
Ans: d
37.Assigenable cause do not occur at random but are the result of changes in
the material, manufacturing process, inpection process.
a. True
b. False
d. None of the
above Ans: a
38. In a frequncy distribution , there are different measures of central value
or central tendancy. Choose correct option.
a. Arithematic mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. All of the above
39. The dispression or variation or spread of a frequncy distribution is measured in

number of units like--
b. Number of units
c. Quartile Deviation
d. All of the above
Ans: d
40. Coefficient of variation is defined as----
a. Ratio of the standard deviation to the arithematic mean
b. Ratio of mean deviation to the arithematic mean
c. Ratio of quartile deviation to the arthematic
mean d. None of the above

41.In standard normal distribution curve the mean is equal to---
a. 1 b.
0 c. -1
d. 2
Ans:
b
42. I
n
s
t
a
n
d
a
r
d
n
o
r
m
a
l
d
is
tr
i
b
u
ti
o
n
c
u
r
v
e
t
h
e
s
t
a
n
d
a
r
d
d
e
vi
a
ti
o
n
is
e
q
u
a
l
t
o
--
-
a. 1 b.
2 c. -1
d. 3
Ans: a
43. In standard normal distribution curve the area under curve is always equal to---
a. 2 b.
3 c. 4
d. 1
Ans:
44.In normal distribution curve the standard deviation is any value of ---
a. Ψ
b. ˆб
c. μ
d. z
Ans: b
45. In normal distribution curve the mean is only value of ---

a. Ψ
b. ˆб
c. μ
d. z
Ans: c
46. In normal distribution curve the random variable is--
a. X
b. ˆб
c. μ
d. z
Ans: a
47. In normal distribution curve the standard variable is--
a. X
b. ˆб
c. μ
d. z
Ans: d
48. Distribution of population under normal distribution curve population
within band μ + 3ˆб equal to
a. 99.73 %
b. 95.45 %
c. 68.27 %
d. 78.25
% Ans: a
49. Distribution of population under normal distribution curve population
within band μ + 2ˆб equal to
a. 99.73 %
b. 95.45 %
c. 68.27 %
d. 78.25
% Ans: b
50. The mode is / are obeservation/ s that occurs--------
a. Most frequntly
b. Not frequntly
Ans: a
51.When the design tolerance is grater than the natural tolerance there is---
a. No rejection
b. Rejection
d. None of the
above Ans: a
52.When the design tolerance is equal to the natural tolerance there is---
a. No rejection
b. Rejection
d. None of the
above Ans: a
53. When the design tolerance is less than the natural tolerance there is---
a. No rejection
b. Rejection
d. None of the
above Ans: b
54. Reliability it is usually denoted by R and is expressed by a number within the range---
a. 0≤R≤1
b. -1 ≤R≤0
c. 1≤R≤2
d. 2 ≤ R ≤ 3
Ans: a
55. Reliability is defined as the probability that a component , system or device will perform
without failure for a specified period of time under the specified operating conditions.
a. Incorrect
b. Correct
d. None of the
above Ans: b
UNIT III
Question 1 The Objective of Material Handling System* 1

Option A Accuracy in load transportation
Option B Transportation of load without damage
Option C Low initial and operating cost
Answer D
Question 2 Economy in material handling can be achieved by______* 1

Option A employing gravity feed movements
Option B minimizing distance of travel
Option C by carrying material to destination without using manual labour
Answer D
Question 3 Unit load states that____ * 1

Option A materials should be moved in lots
Option B one unit should be moved at a time
Answer A
Question 4 Match the following and the correct order is____* 3
Option A A-1, B-2, C-3
Option B A-2, B-1, C-3
Option C A-3, B-2, C-1
Option D A-2, B-3, C-1
Answer B
Question 5 Which of the following statements is false for troughed belt conveyors?* 2
Option A 1 and 2
Option B 2 and 3
Option C 3 and 4
Answer C
Question 6 Which of the following belt conveyors have low volume carrying capacity?* 1
Option A Flat belts
Option B Troughed belts
Option C Both of above
Answer A
Question 7 What is the mass capacity of flat belt conveyor if volumetric capacity 0.55 m3/hr? (ρ = 1500 kg/m3)* 3
Option A 825 tons/hr
Option B 825 kg/hr
Option C 2.727 tons/hr

Option D 2722 kg/hr
Answer B
An inclined belt conveyor is used for loading goods. If speed of the belt having 1500 mm width is 3 m/s
then what is the volumetric capacity of the conveyor?(For 21 degree, k= 2.35 x 10 2.5 x 10-3 m3/s–4)*
Question 8 3
Option A 1.75 x 10^-3 m3/s
Option B 1.5 x 10^-3 m3/s
Option C 1.19 x 10^-3 m3/s
Option D 2.5 x 10^-3 m3/s
Answer 1.19 x 10^-3 m3/s
Question 9 The capacity of a conveyor belt is depends on ______* 1

Option A belt speed
Option B a continuous supply of products
Option C distance between the products being conveyed
Answer D
Question 10 Which type of conveyor is shown in figure below* 2

Option B Blanket belt conveyor
Option C Troughed belt conveyor
Option D Woven wire belt conveyor
Answer C
Question 11 Angle of repose * 1

Option A Angle made by the surface of pile of material with horizontal
Option B Angle measured with respect to horizontal plane of surface of material by moving a belt
Option C Capacity to move by flow
Answer A
Question 12 For very loose and free material Angle of repose is _____* 1
Option A more
Option B less
Option C same as angle of surcharge
Option D None of above
Answer
Question 13 Describe the type of idler shown in figure* 2
Option A roller
Option B rubber covered
Option C Impact
Option D disc
Answer C
Question 14 Material factor for pile is represented by_____ * 1

Option A K1
Option B K2
Option C K3
Option D K4
Answer A
Question 15 Where do adjust the tension on a conveyor belt?* 1

Option A at ending point of conveyor
Option B at starting point of conveyor
Option C at roller
Option D at the take-up pulley
Answer A
Question 16 Impact idlers are used in a belt conveyor at* 1

Option A the return point
Option B the loading points
Option C an interval of 15m on a conveyor run
Option D none of these
Answer B
Question 17 Volumetric capacity of inclined belt conveyor is___* 2
Option A Q=C*b^2*V
Option B Q=k*b^2*V
Option C Q= C*V*b^2
Option D Q=k*V*b^2
Answer C
Question 18 Which material is classified as bulk material * 1

Option A coal
Option B iron ore
Answer A
Question 19 Belt conveyors are operated in_____ * 1

Option A vertical plane
Option B horizontal plane

Option C inclined plane
Option D smooth surface on all of these planes
Answer D
Question 20 Resisting force on conveyor belt shown in below figure is at _________* 1
Option A Lifting of material
Option B Idlers
Option C Loading station
Option D Unloading station
Answer B
Question 20 Material handling consists of movement of material from 1
Option A one machine to another
Option B one shop to another shop
Option C stores to shop
Answer D
1
Question 21 The following is used to transport materials having flat bottoms
Option A Belt conveyor
Option B Roller conveyor
Option C Chain conveyor
Answer B
Question 22 Fork lift truck is used for 1

Answer C
Question 23 Cranes are used for 1
Answer C
Question 24 Which of the following is a property of bulk load? 1
Option A Hardness
Option B Cake forming tendency
Option C Suspension part
Option D Weight
Answer B
Question 25 What are bulk loads? 1
Option A Lump of material
Option B Single rigid mass
Option C Homogeneous particles
Option D Heterogeneous particles
Answer B
Question 26 Which belt conveyor prevents sliding down of material at an inclination of 55 with horizontal? 1
Option B Troughed belt conveyor
Option C Blanket belt conveyor
Option D Woven wire belt conveyors
Answer C
Mass capacity of a conveyor is 200 ton/hr, if speed of the belt is 4 m/s then what is the width of
3
Question 27 horizontal flat belt conveyor carrying the load? (Surcharge factor = 0.075 & ρ = 1000 kg/m) 3
Option A 499.23 mm
Option B 500.0 mm
Option C 533.7 mm
Option D Insufficient data
Answer 533.7 mm
Question 28 The angle of repose depends on 1

Option A shape of the material
Option B smoothness of the material
Option C degree of fineness of the material
Answer degree of fineness of the material
Question 29 Which of the following application is a belt conveyor used for?
1
Option A Material transportation over long distances
Option B Material transportation within premises
Option C Material transportation for processing
Option D All of the mentioned
Answer D
Question 30 Statement 1: It is generally not possible to change the direction of flow with belt conveyors. 2
Option A True, False
Option B True, True
Option C False, False
Option D False, True
Answer B
UNIT IV
Sr No. Questions Marks

Question 1 A cylinder is considered as thin cylinder when the ratio of inner diameter to the wall thickness is 1
Answer A
Question 2 A cylinder is considered as thick cylinder when the ratio of inner diameter to the wall thickness is 1
Answer B
Question 3 In thin cylinders, the longitudinal stress is,
Option A 2(circumferential stress)
Option B 1/2(circumferential stress)
Option C 1/4(circumferential stress)
Option D 4(circumferential stress)
Answer B
Question 4 The thickness of thin cylinder is determined on the basis of 1
Option B longitudinal stress
Option C circumferential stress
Option D principal shear stress
Answer circumferential stress
Question 5 The thickness of thin cylindrical shell is given by, 2
Option A PiDi/2σt
Option B PiDi/4σt
Option C 2PiDi/σt
Option D 4PiDi/σt
Answer A
Question 6 The thickness of thin spherical shell is given by, 2
Option A PiDi/2σt
Option B PiDi/4σt
Option C 2PiDi/σt
Option D 4PiDi/σt
Answer B
Question 7 In thick cylinders, the tangential stress across the thickness of cylinder
Answer C
Question 8 In thick cylinders, the radial stress across the thickness of cylinder 1
Answer B
Question 9 In thick cylinders, the axial stress across the thickness of cylinder 1
Answer A
Question 10 In thin cylinders, the tangential stress across the thickness of cylinder 1
Answer A
Question 11 The thickness of thick cylindrical shell with closed ends and made of brittle material is determined by,
Answer A
Question 12 The thickness of thick cylindrical shell with closed ends and made of ductile material is determined by, 1
Answer B
Question 13 The thickness of thick cylindrical shell with open ends and made of ductile material is determined by, 1

Answer C
Question 14 The thickness of high-pressure oil and gas pipes is determined by,
Answer D
Question 15 Autofrettage is,
Option A a surface coating process of cylinders for corrosion resistance
Option B a heat treatment process for cylinders to relieve residual stresses
Option C a process of prestressing the cylinder to develop residual compressive stress at inner surface
Option D a surface hardening process of cylinder to improve wear resistance
Answer C
Question 16 Autofrettage is achieved by, 2
Option A compound cylinder
Option B overloading the cylinder before putting it in service
Option C winding a wire under tension around the cylinder
Option D any one of the above methods

Answer D
Question 17 A gasket is made of, 2
Option A asbestos or cork
Option B lead, copper or aluminum
Option C vulcanized rubber
Answer D
Welded pressure vessels made of steel plates should be designed according to ‘Code for unfired vessel IS-2825’
Question 18 when, 2
2 2
Option A internal pressure is from 1 kgf/cm to 200 kgf/cm
Option B internal diameter is less than 150 mm
Option C water container is to be designed with capacities less than 500 litres
Option D steam boilers and nuclear pressure vessels are to be designed
Answer A
Question 19 Class 1 pressure vessels are to be designed according to ‘Code for unfired vessel IS-2825’ when 2
Option A hydrocyanic acid, carbonyl chloride or mustard gas are stored

0
Option B operating temperature is more than -20 C
Option C liquefied petroleum gas is stored
Option D thickness of shell is less than 38 mm
Answer A
Question 20 Class 3 pressure vessels are to be designed according to ‘Code for unfired vessel IS-2825’ when, 2
2
Option A operating pressure is less than 17.5 kgf/cm
0 0
Option B operating temperature is more than 0 C and less than 250 C
Option C thickness of shell is less than 16 mm
Answer D
While designing pressure vessels according to ‘Code for unfired vessel IS- 2825’, the design pressure is taken as
Question 21
2
Option A 1.05(maximum operating pressure)
Option B 1.5(maximum operating pressure)
Option C 2(maximum operating pressure)
Option D 1.3(maximum operating pressure)
Answer A
Question 22 Weld joint efficiency is maximum when the pressure vessel is welded by 1
Option A single-welded butt joint with backing strip
Option B single-welded butt joint without backing strip
Option C double-welded butt joint with full penetration
Answer C
Question 23 Type of domed heads for the pressure vessel is
Option B semi-ellipsoidal head 1
Answer D
Question 24 The end-closure for tankers of milk, petrol or diesel is

Option A hemispherical head 1
Option D Flat head
Answer C
Question 25 The end-closure for tall vertical pressure vessel is 1
Option D Flat head
Answer A
cylinder made of plain carbon steel has inner diameter 100 mm. What is the thickness of cylinder if maximu
2
Question 26 internal pressure of 20 Mpa acts on it? ( σall = 100 N/mm & poisson's ratio = 0.3) 3
Option A 11 mm
Option B 15.36 mm
Option C 22.32 mm
Option D 80 mm
Answer A
Question 27 Claviro's equation is applicable to cylinders with _______ 1
Option A close ends
Option B open ends
Option C both a. and b.
Answer A
Question 28 Why is autofrettage process used in pressure vessels?
Option A Increase fatigue lifetime
Option B To enhance carrying capacity
Option C To introduce compressive residual stress in them
Answer D
A seamless cylinder of storage capacity of 0.03mᵌis subjected to an internal pressure of 21MPa. The ultimate strength
Question 29 of material of cylinder is 350N/mm².Determine the length of the cylinder if it is twice the diameter of the cylinder. 3
Option A 540mm
Option B 270mm
Option C 400mm
Option D 350mm
Answer A
Internal pressure of 2.5 Mpa acts on a pressure vessel of thickness 15 mm and internal diameter of 1500 mm. What
Question 30 is the stress induced in longitudinal direction? 3

2
Option A 36.63 N/mm
2
Option B 59.13 N/mm
2
Option C 65.62 N/mm
2
Option D 131.25 N/mm
2
Answer 65.62 N/mm
Question 31 Which of the following is not an unfired pressure vessel?
Option A Heat exchanger
Option B Storage vessels
Option C Steam boilers
Answer C
UNIT V
Question 1 I.C. engine cylinder is made of, 1
Option A cast iron
Option C alloy steel
Option D copper
Answer A
Question 2 The ratio of length of stroke to cylinder bore (l/D) is usually,
Option A a. 1/2
Option B b. 5
Option C c. 1.5
Option D d. 1/4
Answer C
Question 3 Cylinder thickness is calculated on the basis of, 1
Option B residual stress
Option C whipping stress
Option D circumferential hoop stress
Answer D
Question 4 The length of cylinder is taken as, 1
Option A equal to cylinder diameter
Option B equal to length of stroke
Option C 1.15 times of stroke length
Option D 1.5 times length of piston
Answer C
Question 5 Piston is made of
Option A alloy steel 1
Option C cast iron
Option D brass
Answer C
Question 6 The function of piston skirt is 1
Option A to provide bearing surface for side thrust
Option B to support gas load
Option C to support gudgeon pin
Option D to seal the cylinder and prevent leakage of oil past piston
Answer A
Question 7 The ratio of side thrust on piston to maximum gas force on piston head is, 1
Option A 1
Option B 0.5
Option C 0.25
Option D 0.1
Answer D
Question 8 For buckling consideration, the end conditions of connecting rod in plane of motion are, 1
Option A one end is free and the other fixed
Option B both ends are hinged
Option C both ends are fixed

Option D one end is fixed and the other hinged
Answer B
The condition for connecting rod to be equally strong in plane of motion (XX) and a plane perpendicular to
Question 9 plane of motion (YY) is, 2
Option A I xx = I yy
Option B I xx = 4 I yy
Option C 4 I xx = I yy
Option D I xx = 2 I yy
Answer B
Question 10 Connecting rod is made of, 1
Option A aluminium
Option B medium carbon steel
Option C cast iron
Option D babbits
Answer B
Question 11 The ratio of length of connecting rod to the crank radius (L/r) is usually, 2
Option A 1.5 to 2
Option B 10 to 12
Option C 4 to 5
Option D 1:1
Answer C
Question 12 The bolts for the cap of big end of connecting rod are subjected to 1
Option A only gas force
Option B only inertia force
Option C only side thrust
Option D inertia force, gas force and side thrust
Answer B
Question 13 Automotive crankshafts are made by, 1
Option A casting process

Option B machining from rolled stock
Option C drop forging process
Option D welding process
Answer C
Question 14 The function of valve gear mechanism is, 1
Option A to rotate the cam
Option B to reduce the speed of crankshaft
Option C to transmit the power
Option D open and close inlet and exhaust valve
Answer D
Answer B
Answer B
Question 17 For maximum torque condition, the crank angle is, 2
Option A 0 0 from top dead centre for petrol and diesel engines
0 0
Option B 33 before top dead centre for petrol engine and 1 after top dead centre position for diesel engine
Option C 25 0 to 35 0 for petrol engine and 30 0 to 40 0 for diesel engine from top dead centre
0
Option D 90 from top dead centre for petrol and diesel engines
Answer C
Question 18 The area of inlet valve is 1
Option A equal to the area of exhaust valve
Option B more than the area of exhaust valve
Option C less than the area of exhaust valve
Answer B
Question 19 Whipping stress is due to 1
Option A vibrations of crankshaft
Option B reciprocating motion of piston
Option C inertia force on connecting rod
Option D obliquity of connecting rod
Answer C
Question 20 When the length of connecting rod is small, it results in 1
Option A greater angular swing and greater side thrust on piston
Option B lesser angular swing and lesser side thrust on piston
Option C more chances of buckling failure
Option D no side thrust on piston
Answer A
Question 21 The design of piston head is based on 1
Option A strength and rigidity considerations
Option B bending and torsional moments
Option C buckling consideration
Option D strength and heat transfer considerations
Answer D
Question 22 The spring index for valve spring is usually 1
Option A 5
Option B 8
Option C 12
Option D 20
Answer B
Question 23 The main objective of providing two concentric valve springs, one inside another, in heavy duty engines is, 1
Option A to increase force on valve
Option B to eliminate surge
Option C to provide fail safe system
Option D to provide linear force-deflection characteristic

Answer B
Question 24 Push rod is designed on the basis of, 1
Option A tensile strength
Option B compression strength
Option C bending strength
Option D buckling strength
Answer D
Question 25 The valve lift depends upon 1
Option A bore and length of cylinder
Option B length of connecting rod and crank radius
Option C seat angle and diameter of port
Option D length of stroke and length of piston
Answer C
Question 26 Valve springs have 1
Option A plain ends
Option B plain and ground ends
Option C square ends
Option D square and ground ends
Answer D
SR.NO. UNIT NO.VI OPTIMUM DESIGN MARKS
Question 1 Which of the following is no expressed by primary design equation ? 1
Option A Functional parameters

Option B Material parameters
Option C Geometrical parameters d
Answer D
1
Question 2 The limit equatipn St= Sut /Nf is expressed as ----

Option A loose limit equation
Option B rigid limit equation
Option C rigid on one side and loose on other side
Answer D
Question 3 Which is / are the design parameter/ s in a design of any mechanical element ? 1
Option A Functional requirement parameter

Option B Material parameter
Option C Geometrical parameter
Answer D
Question 4 Functional requirement parameter are----- 1
Option A Positive
Option B Negative
Option D Neither (a) and (b)
Answer C
Question 5 Functional requirement parameter are indpend on ----- 1
Option A Material Parameter

Option B Geometrical parameter
Answer C
Question 6 Individual functional requirement parameter on each other. 1

Option A Independent
Option B Dependent
Option C Independent or Dependent
Answer B
Question 7 Choose incorrect example of functional requirement parameters ? 1
Option A Power tansmitting capacity and gera ratio of gear pair
Option B Maximum force exerted by the spring stiffness for helical compression spring
Option C Cost
Option D Density
Answer D
Question 8 Choose desirable functional requirement parameter ? 1
Option A Weight
Option B Stress
Option C Deflection
Option D Power transmitting capacity and gear ratio for gear pair
Answer D
Question 9 The undesirable effect / s --- 1
Option A Negative functional requirement

Option B Positive functional requirement
Option C both (a) and (b)
Answer A
Question 10 Choose incorrect material parameter ? 1
Option A Cost per unit weight

Option B Density
Option C Yield strength
Option D Vibration
Answer D
Question 11 The material parameter are independet on ---- 1
Option A Functional requiremet parameter

Option B Geometrical Parameter
Answer C
Question 12 The material parameter are generally not of each other. 1

Option A Dependent
Option B Independent
Answer B
Question 13 The geometrical parameters are dependent on the ----

Option A material parameters 1
Option B Functionla requirement parameters

Answer C
Question 14 The geometrical parameter for a spur gear are--.Choose incorrect geometrical parameter 1
Option A Possions ratio

Option B Addendum
Option C Pressure angle
Option D Face width
Answer A
Question 15 Classification of Design Parameter/ s based on status in design problem. 1
Option A limited Parameters

Option B Specific Parameters
Option C Unspecified and Unlimited parameters
Answer A
Question 16 Specified Parameter as given below. Choose correct. 2
Option A P = 30 kw
Option B 30mm ≤ d ≤ 60 mm
Option C 60 mm ≤ l ≤ 90 mm
Answer A
Question 17 In adequte design available for single design problem 1

Option A There are number of adequate design
Option B Unique adequate design
Answer A
The optimum design targets a single paramete for optimizing while fulfilling the
Question 18 other requirement. 1
Option A a. Maximizing
Option B b. Minimizing
Option C c. Both (a) and (b)
Option D d. None of the above
Answer C
The objective in the optimum design might be to maximize one of the quanyity, consider the
Question 19 following parameters. Choose correct. 1
Option A Cost
Option B Deflection
Option C Center distance
Option D Load carrying capacity
Answer D
The objective in the optimum design might be to minimize one of the quanyity, consider the
Question 20 following parameters. Choose correct. 1
Option A Power transmitting Capacity

Option B Energy storing Capacity
Option C Load carrying capacity
Option D Deflection
Answer D
Question 21 How many design avialable in adeduate design. 1
Option A Number of design available

Option B Unique design available
Answer A
Question 22 How many design avialable in optimum design. 1
Option A Unique design available

Option B Number of design available
Answer B
Question 23 In design procedure, How many type/s of design equation use ?

Option A Primary design equation (P.D.E) 1
Option B Limit equation (L.E)

Option C Subsidiary Design equation (S.D.E)
Answer D
Question 24 The subsidiary design equations express----

Option A Material Parameters 1
Option B Geometrical Parameters

Option C Either Functional requirement or Undesirable effects
Answer C
Question 25 The primary design equation is the most important design equation Which Express---- 1
Option A The most significant functional requirement to be maximized

Option B The most significant undesirable effect to be minimized
Answer C
Which is the most significant undesirable effect to be minimized . Choose Incorrect

Question 26 Parameter. 1
Option A Cost
Option B Weigth.
Option C Vibration
Option D Module
Answer D
Question 27 Stess equations in any optimum design are gemerally-----

Option A Limit equation (L.E) 1
Option B Subsidiary design equation (S.D.E)

Option C Primary design equation
Answer B
Question 28 specified parameters in primary design equation (P.D.E) then it is the case of------- 1

Answer B
Question 29 specified parameters in primary design equation (P.D.E) then it is the case of------- 1

Answer B
Question 30 σt = F / A it is called as-----

Answer C
Question 31 σt ≤ Syt /Nf it is called as ----

Answer C
Question 32 Choose correct material parameters. 2
Option A w,ρ
Option B A,L
Option C F , Nf
Option D σt , Syt
Answer D
Question 33 Choose correct functional parameters. 2
Option A w,ρ
Option B A,L
Option C F , Nf
Option D σt , Syt
Answer C
Question 34 Choose correct geometrical parameters as limited value , unspecified and unlimited value ? 2
Option A w,ρ
Option B L, A
Option C F , Nf
Option D σt , Syt
Answer B
Question 35 Choose undesirable effect parameters as limited value, unspecified and unlimited value. 2
Option A σ,w
Option B L,A
Option C ρ , Syt
Option D F , Nf
Answer A
Question 36 Choose material selection factor/s--- 2
Option A σ/Sut
Option B σ/Syt
Answer C
Item Bank
13872 Name MSU Baroda//.../Journalism
Option
Option Text Text
Option Text 1
Item Text Option Text 2 3 4
Recommende value
of ф for heavy duty
1.12 1.26 1.56 1.14
machine tools
and automats--
Number of spindle
speed stepsin machine None from
tool gear box Z ф Rn
indicated by given
letter-- options
The normally selected

value/ s of Z is /are All given
4 6 8
-- options
Which of the
following is not true
about Positive drive Constant Transmit large Bulky
gears? velocity ratio power construction
The basic series of R5, R10, R20,

preferred numbers are R40 R10, R20, R30, R5, R10, R15, None from
given
and R80 R40 and R50 R20 and R25 options
Series factor for

R20 series is, 1.16 4.47 1.12 2.71
For construction of
kinematic diagram of Zmin>18 Z1i +Z1o = Z2i Z2i +Z1i> 4 All given
multispeed gear box,
which of following +Z2o=Z3i +Z3o = equations
equation is
correct. C
Permissible speed
deviation is .. ±10(ø-1) ±10(ø+1) ± 10 (ø x 1) ± 10 (ø /1)
line graph of
class
Set of
What is frequency frequency
polygon plotted against Bar chart Histogram
rectangles
class marks
Root mean Root mean

Root mean
square square square
What is a standard
deviation Variance
deviation from deviation
the mode deviation from from
the median the mean
Process of converting
the bulk load into a All given
Materialization containerization Transportation
unit load using
container is options
A triple ply belt conveyor is

required to
transport 2 ton of iron ore per
hour at a
conveyor speed of 90 m/min
through a
15 16.7 17.4 18.2
distance of 1000m and a height
of 300 m.
what is the maximum suitable
inclination
for the conveyor.
Which of the following is a

property of Cake forming
weight Lump size density
unit load? tendency
The point where material is

loaded on the Discharge
Head end Tail end Feed point
belt conveyor is known as point
Which of the following is the

least Continuous Pneumatic Screw
Belt conveyor
preferred conveyor for
handling glue? flow conveyor conveyor conveyor
Chains for material handling cast iron wrought iron mild steel carbon
equipment steel
are generally made of
Surface and
In material handling equipment
through Hoisting
Conveying Equipment overhead Elevators.
belt conveyors is classified as Equipment
Equipment
Volumetric capacity of
horizontal belt Q= Cb2v
Q= Mb2v m3/s Q= kb2v m3/s m3/s M=ρQ
conveyor is given as
The angle of surcharge (f) will None

always be - from
Greater Less Equal
---------- than the angle of given
repose(Y) options
Circumferential (hoop) stress

in a thin
cylindrical vessel under
internal pressure is
__________ the longitudinal Eight
stress. Half Equal to Twice times

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Unit-1 Design of Machine Tool Geraox

2. Diameter range is high in geometric progression due to _________ spindle speed.

3. What is harmonic progression?

4. What is arithmetic progression?

5. What is geometric progression?

6. What is the purpose of using a gear box?

7. Which of the following statements is true for structure/speed diagrams?

10. Economic cutting speed is minimum if geometric ratio is _________

12. Ratio of two spindle speeds is constant in _________ progression.

13. Which of the following is the need of the gearbox?

29. Loss of economic cutting speed is

32. Percentage speed deviation is given by,

37. Advantage of the arithmetic Progression is

38. Disadvantage of the arithmetic progression is

39. Advantage of the harmonic Progression is

40. Disadvantage of the arithmetic progression is

41. Advantage of the Geometric Progression is

42. Disadvantage of the geometric progression is

51. Following is a purpose of gearbox:

52. The minimum number of teeth on the pinion can be taken as

53. What is Range ratio if, nmax=2880rpm, nmin= 60rpm,

54. Vertical lines in the structure diagram represent

55. Number of vertical lines in structure diagram is equal to

a. Mean time between two successive failure components

a. Normal distribution curve

Ans E. b) frequency distribution

Ans a) Interval; nominal

Ans E. d) frequency distribution table

31 A many sided closed figure used in frequency distribution is termed as

Ans E. a) frequency polygon

56 In standard normal distribution curve, the mean is equal to

Ans a) total population

62 In standard normal distribution curve, the value in X-axis is

24.2 Frequency polygon is

24.3 Central tendency of population is

24.4 Dispersion of population is

24.6 Kurtosis of population is

24.8 Dispersion of population is measured in units of

24.9 Standard variable is

24.11 The area below normal curve from (Z = - ∞) to (Z = + ∞) is

24.12 The area below normal curve from (Z = - 1) to (Z = + 1) is

24.13 The area below normal curve from (Z = - 2) to (Z = + 2) is

24.14 The area below normal curve from (Z = - 3) to (Z = + 3) is

24.16 When population Y with means Y μ is subtracted from population X with

24.18 When population X with mean X μ , is divided by population Y with mean

24.21 The resultant population is normally distributed,

24.22 In statistically controlled system,

24.23 There is no rejection of components when

To calculate capacity of Horizontal Belt Conveyor----- factor is used : (a)flowability Factor

Carrying capacity of horizontal flat belt conveyor is calculated by : (a)Q=Cb^2V (b)

Frictional Resistance at unloading station is given by: (a)Fr=(2.1 to 3.6)MmgB (b)Fr=(3.1

The power transmitted by belt drive depends upon

The coefficient of friction in belt drive depends upon

Overbridge crane has

68 Statement 1: Belt conveyors cannot be used in the inclined position. c

The angle of repose depends on

Which of the following is a property of bulk load?

Unit 4 Design of Cylinders and Pressure Vessels.