B SL. No.

: XX

BΔ«M•⁄ O⁄}⁄°¬“
Jlflo Æ⁄√ÀÊ-V⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 50 ] [ Jlflo »⁄flfl¶√}⁄ Æ⁄‚¥lV⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 8
]
CCE RF [ Total No. of Printed Pages : 8
CCE RR
Total No. of Questions : 50

—⁄MOÊfi}⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 14-E REVISED & UN-REVISED Code No. : 14-E

…Œ⁄æ⁄fl : Æ⁄√¢⁄»⁄fl ∫¤ŒÊ — BMW«ŒÈ

Subject : First Language — ENGLISH
( À¤≈¤ @∫⁄¥¿£% & Æ⁄‚¥´⁄¡¤»⁄~%}⁄ À¤≈¤ @∫⁄¥¿£% / Regular Fresh & Regular Repeater )
¶´¤MO⁄ : 21. 03. 2019 ] [ Date : 21. 03. 2019
—⁄»⁄flæ⁄fl : ∑Ê◊⁄VÊX 9-30 ¬M•⁄ »⁄fl®¤¿‘⁄-12-30 ¡⁄»⁄¡ÊVÊ ] [ Time : 9-30 A.M. to 12-30 P.M.

TEAR HERE TO OPEN THE QUESTION PAPER

V⁄¬Œ⁄r @MO⁄V⁄◊⁄fl : 100 ] [ Max. Marks : 100

Æ⁄√ÀÊ-Æ⁄~√OÊæ⁄fl´⁄fl-}Ê¡Êæ⁄flƒfl BΔ« O⁄}⁄°¬“

General Instructions to the Candidate :

1. This Question Paper consists of 50 objective and subjective types of

questions.

2. This question paper has been sealed by reverse jacket. You have to cut on

the right side to open the paper at the time of commencement of the

examination. Check whether all the pages of the question paper are intact.

3. Follow the instructions given against both the objective and subjective

types of questions.

4. Figures in the right hand margin indicate maximum marks for the

questions.

5. The maximum time to answer the paper is given at the top of the question
paper. It includes 15 minutes for reading the question paper.
Tear here

RF & RR(B)-8004 [ Turn over

14-E 2 CCE RF & RR
Instructions :
i) This question paper contains three parts.
ii) Part-A — Prose, Poetry and Supplementary Reading ( Non-detail ).
iii) Part-B — Grammar and Vocabulary.
iv) Part-C — Composition and Comprehension.

PART - A
( Prose, Poetry and Supplementary Reading )
I. Answer the following questions in a sentence each : 4×1=4
1. Why did the idler ask the girl of the silent torrent for one of her pitchers ?
2. According to Alexander Cheriyan, what should one do to make one’s life
meaningful and sustainable ?
3. What was the science that Buttoo wanted to learn from Dronacharya ?
4. How did Buttoo fulfil his promise to his master ?
II. Answer the following questions in two sentences each : 8 × 2 = 16
5. How were the ribbons, made by the idler, responsible for the girl’s work
remaining unfinished ?
6. How does a close friend describe Anne when she saw her at the Belsen
Camp ?
7. How has shopping become more than a need ?
8. What was Gaultier’s excuse for not carrying the eel pie to the Mayor’s
house himself ?
9. How does the poet contrast the deaths of the male and the female cranes ?
10. How was Lochinvar greeted by the bride’s father when he entered the
Netherby Hall ?
11. What was the curse Parasurama pronounced in his anger on Karna ?
12. Why did the fellow Cyclops leave Polyphemus alone when Ulysses and his
men attacked him ?
III. Answer the following questions in four to five sentences each : 4 × 3 = 12
13. How did Pasteur prove himself to be useful to the manufacturers of Lille ?
14. How does Basavanna console himself regarding his helplessness as a poor
man ?
15. How does Robert Frost try to convince his neighbour that they do not need a
wall ? How does the neighbour respond ?
16. Why had the doctor given the pirates the stockade and the treasure map ?

RF & RR(B)-8004
CCE RF & RR 3 14-E

IV. Explain with reference to the context : 5 × 3 = 15

17. Egypt, in fact, was made by its river.

18. “But if you’ll unwrap that package you may see why you had me going a
while at first.”

19. “Can you tell me — did she keep her hair long or short ?”

20. Which by and by black night doth take away,

21. ................ If we should meet,

She would pass by me in the street,

V. Answer the following questions in six to eight sentences each : 4 × 4 = 16

22. How does Gandhiji illustrate that for an act to be moral, it should be free
from fear and compulsion ?

OR

How did the young students of Germany pay homage to Anne Frank ?

23. Explain how the hopes of the village, of winning the cricket match, fell with
the resounding fall of their three champions.

OR

Why should any model of development based on high consumption and

limitless market expansion prove to be highly dangerous ?

24. The Poet, Sir Walter Scott, brings out the fact that love and courage go
together. Explain this with reference to the poem “Lochinvar”.

OR

How does Wordsworth describe the beauty of Nature as he rows the boat he
had stolen ?

25. What does the poet father want his son’s teacher to teach his son about —

a) Books and Nature ?

b) Being honest ?

OR

The poem ‘Buttoo’ is a saga of loyalty and faithfulness as well as selfishness

and cunning. Explain.

RF & RR(B)-8004 [ Turn over

14-E 4 CCE RF & RR

VI. Quote from memory : 4

26. But ere ...... ..............................................................

...................................................................................

...................................................................................

........................................................ of brave Lochinvar.

OR

And it grew ...............................................................

...................................................................................

...................................................................................

................................................................... was mine.

PART - B
( Grammar and Vocabulary )
VII. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the correct
alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter of alphabet :
10 × 1 = 10

27. He is ..................... Indian, but his wife is .................. European.

The correct pair of articles to be filled in the above blanks is

(A) the ; an (B) an ; an

(C) an ; a (D) a ; a.

28. Dr. Jenner discovered how to vaccinate against small pox, ................. ?

The appropriate question tag to be added to the above sentence is

(A) hadn’t he (B) didn’t he

(C) did he (D) had he.

29. The bus is coming round the corner.

The tense of the verb in the given sentence is

(A) Simple Past (B) Simple Present

(C) Past continuous (D) Present continuous.

RF & RR(B)-8004
CCE RF & RR 5 14-E

30. Drive slowly, .................... for potholes on the road.

The correct phrasal verb to be used in the above blank is

(A) look at (B) look out

(C) look over (D) look up.

31. The President called off the meeting.

The passive form of the above sentence is

(A) The meeting was called off by the President.

(B) The meeting has been called off by the President.

(C) The meeting had been called off by the President.

(D) The meeting will be called off by the President.

32. Pick out the complex sentence from the alternatives given below :

(A) Being an honourable man, he will not tell lies.

(B) He is an honourable man and he will not tell lies.

(C) Since he is an honourable man, he will not tell lies.

(D) In spite of being an honourable man, he will not tell lies.

33. Only one of the given sentences is correctly punctuated. Identify it :

(A) “Why are you so late for the meeting, Robert ?” asked Anwar.

(B) Why are you so late for the meeting, Robert asked Anwar.

(C) “Why are You so late for the Meeting, robert ?” asked anwar.

(D) “Why are you so late for the meeting Robert ? asked Anwar.”

34. ..................... in dots and pits

like the Morse code of bird’s sorrow.

The figure of speech used here is

(A) Simile (B) Personification

(C) Metaphor (D) Synecdoche.

RF & RR(B)-8004 [ Turn over

14-E 6 CCE RF & RR

35. The government has launched a massive campaign .................... smoking.

The correct preposition to be used in the above sentence is

(A) for (B) between

(C) against (D) after.

36. ...................... the boy is clever, he is lazy.

The appropriate conjunction to be used in the blank is

(A) But (B) And

(C) Though (D) Since.

VIII. Observe the relationship in the first pair of words and complete the second pair
accordingly in the following : 4×1=4

37. Elude : Escape :: Ecstasy : .......................... .

38. Role : Roll :: Great : ........................... .

39. Moral : Immoral :: Real : ........................... .

40. Progress : Progressive :: Victory : ....................... .

IX. Rewrite as directed :

41. Change the following into other two degrees of comparison : 2

Napoleon was the bravest of the generals.

42. Combine the following sentences using “too ..... to” : 1

He is very weak. He cannot play the match.

43. Frame a question to get the underlined words as an answer : 1

For his M. A. degree, Radhakrishnan chose the topic ‘The Ethics of Vedanta’.
PART - C

( Composition and Comprehension )

X. 44. Imagine you are Rathan / Radhika, studying in Government High School,
Theerthalli.
Write a letter to your younger brother advising him to participate in the
inter-school Music Competition. 5
OR
Write a letter to the local Road Transport Authority requesting to have more
buses along your school route to help the students.

RF & RR(B)-8004
CCE RF & RR 7 14-E

XI. 45. Write an essay ( in about 15-20 sentences ) on any one of the following
topics : 1×5=5
a) Safety and dignity of women in India.
b) The Greener the world, the happier the life.
c) Organ donation — life after death.
XII. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :
5×1=5
Among all the gifts you can give a child, there is none more conducive to his
present and future happiness and content, none more likely to add richness to
his life, than books. Not a book, but the habit of reading. Give him the habit of
reading and you have done something for which he may be thankful all his days.
Books should be the daily companions of a child’s life. And they ought not to be
linked too closely with the school. You don’t want to create the idea that reading a
book is a task, a lesson. It’s the fun, the good time he can get out of reading that
needs to be emphasized. You want to make him enjoy reading so that reading will
become a treasured part of his daily life and there is nothing difficult about this.
Questions :
46. What can add to the richness of a child’s life ?
47. Why shouldn’t books be linked too closely to the school ?
48. What aspects should be emphasized while reading ?
49. When will reading become a treasured part of a child’s daily life ?
50. Give a word from the passage which means : “Valuable”.

RF & RR(B)-8004 [ Turn over

14-E 8 CCE RF & RR

RF & RR(B)-8004
 45 ]
A SL. No. : YY

[ 8

Total No. of Questions : 45 ]

CCE RF [ Total No. of Printed Pages : 8
CCE RR
: 33-K REVISED Code No. : 33-K

—
Subject : Second Language — KANNADA
/ New Syllabus
& / Regular Fresh & Regular Repeater

27. 03. 2019 ] [ Date : 27. 03. 2019

9-30 12-00 ] [ Time : 9-30 A.M. to 12-00 Noon

TEAR HERE TO OPEN THE QUESTION PAPER

80 ] [ Max. Marks : 80

1. 45

2.

3.

4.

5. 15
Tear here

RF + RR (A) - 1015 [ Turn over

33-K 2 CCE RF + RR

8 ×1=8

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

11 × 2 = 22

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

RF + RR (A) - 1015
 CCE RF + RR 3 33-K

20. 1 ×3=3
......................................……..........

…………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………

…………………………………...................….

……………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………

.…………………………………………………….

/
2 ×3=6
21.

22.

2 ×3=6
23.

24.

2 ×4=8
25.

26.

RF + RR (A) - 1015 [ Turn over

33-K 4 + RR
CCE RF
4×1=4

27.

28.

29.

30.

RF + RR (A) - 1015
 CCE RF + RR 5 33-K

12 × 1 = 12
31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

RF + RR (A) - 1015 [ Turn over

33-K 6 CCE RF + RR
37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.
1 ×3=3


RF + RR (A) - 1015
 CCE RF + RR 7 33-K
44.

1 ×4=4

45. 1 ×4=4

RF + RR (A) - 1015 [ Turn over

33-K 8 CCE RF + RR

RF + RR (A) - 1015
 A
SL. No. : ZZ

: 46 ] [ :8
Total No. of Questions : 46 ] [ Total No. of Printed Pages : 8
CCE RF
: 61-H CCE RR Code No. : 61-H
REVISED
—
Subject : Third Language — HINDI
( / New Syllabus )
( & / Regular Fresh & Regular Repeater )

: 04. 04. 2019 ] [ Date : 04. 04. 2019

: 9-30 12-00 ] [ Time : 9-30 A.M. to 12-00 Noon

TEAR HERE TO OPEN THE QUESTION PAPER

: 80 ] [ Max. Marks : 80

1. 46

2.

3.

4.

5.
Tear here

15

RF + RR(A)-1030 [ Turn over

61-H 2 CCE RF + RR

I. 6×1=6

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

II. 7. 4×1=4

i)

ii)

iii)

iv)

v)

vi)

vii)

III. 4×1=4

8.

9.

10.

11.

RF + RR(A)-1030
CCE RF + RR 3 61-H

IV. 11 × 2 = 22

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

V. 4 × 3 = 12

23.

24.

25.

26.

RF + RR(A)-1030 [ Turn over

61-H 4 CCE RF + RR

VI. 1×4=4

27.

28. 4

VII.
8×1=8

29. –

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

30. –

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

RF + RR(A)-1030
CCE RF + RR 5 61-H

31. –

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

32. –

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

33. –

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

34. –

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

35.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

36.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)
RF + RR(A)-1030 [ Turn over
61-H 6 CCE RF + RR

VIII. 4×1=4

37.

38.

39.

40.

IX. 4×1=4

41.

42.

43.

44.

X.

45.

1×4=4

RF + RR(A)-1030
CCE RF + RR 7 61-H

XI. 46. 15 - 20
1×4=4
















RF + RR(A)-1030 [ Turn over

61-H 8 CCE RF + RR

RF + RR(A)-1030
 SL. No. : FF

: 58 ]
CCE PF [ :8
Total No. of Questions : 58 ] [ Total No. of Printed Pages : 8
REVISED
: 61-H Code No. : 61-H
—
Subject : Third Language — HINDI
( / New Syllabus )
( / Private Fresh )

: 04. 04. 2018 ] [ Date : 04. 04. 2018

: 9-30 12-15 ] [ Time : 9-30 A.M. to 12-15 P.M.
: 100 ] [ Max. Marks : 100

TEAR HERE TO OPEN THE QUESTION PAPER

1. 58

2.

3.

4.

5.

15
Tear here

PF-5007 [ Turn over

61-H 2 CCE PF

I. 9×1=9

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

II. 10. 5×1=5

i)

ii)

iii)

iv)

v)

vi)

vii)

viii)

PF-5007
 CCE PF 3 61-H

III. 5×1=5

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

IV. 14 × 2 = 28

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

PF-5007 [ Turn over

61-H 4 CCE PF

V. 5 × 3 = 15

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

VI. 1×4=4

35.

36. 4

PF-5007
CCE PF 5 61-H

VII.
10 × 1 = 10

37. –
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

38. –
(A) (B)

(C) (D)
39. –
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

40. –
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

41.

–
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

42.

–
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

43. –
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

PF-5007 [ Turn over

61-H 6 CCE PF

44. –
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

45. –
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

46. –
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

VIII. 5×1=5

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

PF-5007
CCE PF 7 61-H

IX. 5×1=5

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

X. 57.
1×5=5

2,000

XI. 58. 15 - 20
1×5=5
















PF-5007 [ Turn over

61-H 8 CCE PF

PF-5007
 A SL. No. : P

BΔ«M•⁄ O⁄}⁄°¬“
Jlflo Æ⁄√ÀÊ-V⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 40 ] [ Jlflo »⁄flfl¶√}⁄ Æ⁄‚¥lV⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 12
Total No. of Questions : 40 ] CCE RF [ Total No. of Printed Pages : 12

—⁄MOÊfi}⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 81-E REVISED Code No. : 81-E

…Œ⁄æ⁄fl : V⁄{}⁄
Subject : MATHEMATICS
( BMW«ŒÈ ∫¤Œ¤M}⁄¡⁄ / English Version )
( ‘ʇ—⁄ Æ⁄p⁄¿O⁄√»⁄fl / New Syllabus )

( À¤≈¤ @∫⁄¥¿£% / Regular Fresh )

TEAR HERE TO OPEN THE QUESTION PAPER

¶´¤MO⁄ : 25. 03. 2019 ] [ Date : 25. 03. 2019

Æ⁄√ÀÊ-Æ⁄~√OÊæ⁄fl´⁄fl-}Ê¡Êæ⁄flƒfl BΔ« O⁄}⁄°¬“

—⁄»⁄flæ⁄fl : ∑Ê◊⁄VÊX 9-30 ¬M•⁄ »⁄fl®¤¿‘⁄-12-30 ¡⁄»⁄¡ÊVÊ ] [ Time : 9-30 A.M. to 12-30 P.M.
V⁄¬Œ⁄r @MO⁄V⁄◊⁄fl : 80 ] [ Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions to the Candidate :

1. This Question Paper consists of 40 objective and subjective types of

questions.

2. This question paper has been sealed by reverse jacket. You have to cut on
the right side to open the paper at the time of commencement of the
examination. Check whether all the pages of the question paper are intact.

3. Follow the instructions given against both the objective and subjective
types of questions.

4. Figures in the right hand margin indicate maximum marks for the
questions.

5. The maximum time to answer the paper is given at the top of the question
paper. It includes 15 minutes for reading the question paper.
Tear here

RF(A)-1008 [ Turn over

81-E 2 CCE RF

I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the correct
alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter of alphabet.

8×1=8
1. If the n-th term of an arithmetic progression a n = 24 − 3n , then its 2nd

term is

(A) 18 (B) 15

(C) 0 (D) 2

2. The lines represented by 2x + 3y – 9 = 0 and 4x + 6y – 18 = 0 are

(A) Intersecting lines

(B) Perpendicular lines to each other

(C) Parallel lines

(D) Coincident lines

3. A straight line which passes through two points on a circle is

(A) a chord (B) a secant

(C) a tangent (D) the radius

4. If the area of a circle is 49π sq.units then its perimeter is

(A) 7 π units (B) 9 π units

(C) 14 π units (D) 49 π units

5. “The product of two consecutive positive integers is 30.” This can be

expressed algebraically as

(A) x ( x + 2 ) = 30

(B) x ( x – 2 ) = 30

(C) x ( x – 3 ) = 30

(D) x ( x + 1 ) = 30

RF(A)-1008
CCE RF 3 81-E

6. If a and b are any two positive integers then HCF ( a, b ) × LCM ( a, b ) is

equal to

(A) a+b (B) a–b

(C) a×b (D) a ÷ b

7. The value of cos 48° – sin 42° is

1
(A) 0 (B)
4
1
(C) (D) 1
2

8. If P ( A ) = 0·05 then P ( A ) is

(A) 0·59 (B) 0·95

(C) 1 (D) 1·05

II. Answer the following : 6×1=6

9. The given graph represents a pair of linear equations in two variables.

Write how many solutions these pair of equations have.

RF(A)-1008 [ Turn over

81-E 4 CCE RF

10. 17 = 6 × 2 + 5 is compared with Euclid’s Division lemma a = bq + r, then

which number is representing the remainder ?

11. Find the zeroes of the polynomial P ( x ) = x 2 – 3.

12. Write the degree of the polynomial P ( x ) = 2x 2 – x 3 + 5.

13. Find the value of the discriminant of the quadratic equation

2x 2 – 4x + 3 = 0.

14. Write the formula to calculate the curved surface area of the frustum of a

cone.

III. Answer the following :

15. Find the sum of first twenty terms of Arithmetic series 2 + 7 + 12 + ...

using suitable formula. 2

16. In Δ ABC, AD ⊥ BC and AD2 = BD × CD. Prove that

AB 2 + AC 2 = ( BD + CD ) 2 . 2

RF(A)-1008
CCE RF 5 81-E

17. In Δ ABC, DE || BC. If AD = 5 cm, BD = 7 cm and AC = 18 cm, find the

length of AE. 2

OR

In the given figure if PQ || RS, prove that Δ POQ ~ Δ SOR.

18. Solve the following pair of linear equations by any suitable method : 2

x+y = 5

2x – 3y = 5.

19. In the figure, ABCD is a square of side 14 cm. A, B, C and D are the centres
of four congruent circles such that each circle touches externally two of the

remaining three circles. Find the area of the shaded region. 2

RF(A)-1008 [ Turn over

81-E 6 CCE RF

20. Draw a circle of radius 4 cm and construct a pair of tangents such that the

angle between them is 60°. 2

21. Find the co-ordinates of point which divides the line segment joining the

points A ( 4, – 3 ) and B ( 8, 5 ) in the ratio 3 : 1 internally. 2

22. Prove that 3 + 5 is an irrational number. 2

23. The sum and product of the zeroes of a quadratic polynomial

P ( x ) = ax 2 + bx + c are – 3 and 2 respectively. Show that b + c = 5a.

24. Find the quotient and the remainder when P ( x ) = 3x 3 + x 2 + 2x + 5 is

divided by g ( x ) = x 2 + 2x + 1. 2

25. Solve 2x 2 – 5x + 3 = 0 by using formula. 2

26. The length of a rectangular field is 3 times its breadth. If the area of the

field is 147 sq.m, find its length and breadth. 2

12
27. If sin θ = , find the values of cos θ and tan θ. 2
13

OR

If 3 tan θ = 1 and θ is acute, find the value of sin 3θ + cos 2θ.

RF(A)-1008
CCE RF 7 81-E

⎛ 1 + cos θ ⎞ 2
28. Prove that ⎜⎜ 1 − cos θ ⎟⎟ = ( cosec θ + cot θ ) . 2
⎝ ⎠

29. A cubical die numbered from 1 to 6 is rolled twice. Find the probability of

getting the sum of numbers on its faces is 10. 2

30. The radii of two circular ends of a frustum of a cone shaped dustbin are

15 cm and 8 cm. If its depth is 63 cm, find the volume of the dustbin. 2

IV. Answer the following :

31. Prove that “the lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle

are equal”. 3

OR

In the given figure PQ and RS are two parallel tangents to a circle with

centre O and another tangent AB with point of contact C intersecting PQ at

A and RS at B. Prove that AOB = 90°.

RF(A)-1008 [ Turn over

81-E 8 CCE RF

32. Calculate the median of the following frequency distribution table : 3

Class-interval Frequency ( f i )

1—4 6
4—7 30
7 — 10 40
10 — 13 16
13 — 16 4
16 — 19 4
∑ f i = 100

OR
Calculate the mode for the following frequency distribution table.

Class-interval Frequency ( f i )

10 — 25 2
25 — 40 3
40 — 55 7
55 — 70 6
70 — 85 6
85 — 100 6
∑ f i = 30

33. During the medical check-up of 35 students of a class, their weights were
recorded as follows. Draw a less than type of ogive for the given data : 3

Weight ( in kg ) Number of
students
Less than 38 0
Less than 40 3
Less than 42 5
Less than 44 9
Less than 46 14
Less than 48 28
Less than 50 32
Less than 52 35

RF(A)-1008
CCE RF 9 81-E

34. The seventh term of an Arithmetic progression is four times its second

term and twelfth term is 2 more than three times of its fourth term. Find

the progression. 3

OR

A line segment is divided into four parts forming an Arithmetic progression.

The sum of the lengths of 3rd and 4th parts is three times the sum of the

lengths of first two parts. If the length of fourth part is 14 cm, find the total

length of the line segment.

35. The vertices of a Δ ABC are A ( – 3, 2 ), B ( – 1, – 4 ) and C ( 5, 2 ). If M

and N are the mid-points of AB and AC respectively, show that 2 MN = BC.

OR

The vertices of a Δ ABC are A ( – 5, – 1 ), B ( 3, – 5 ), C ( 5, 2 ). Show

that the area of the Δ ABC is four times the area of the triangle formed by

joining the mid-points of the sides of the triangle ABC.

36. Construct a triangle with sides 5 cm, 6 cm and 7 cm and then construct
7
another triangle whose sides are of the corresponding sides of the first
5

triangle. 3

RF(A)-1008 [ Turn over

81-E 10 CCE RF

V. Answer the following :

37. Find the solution of the following pairs of linear equation by the graphical

method : 4

2x + y = 6

2x – y = 2

38. The angles of elevation of the top of a tower from two points at a distance of

4 m and 9 m from the base of the tower and in the same straight line with

it are complementary. Find the height of the tower. 4

39. The bottom of a right cylindrical shaped vessel made from metallic sheet

is closed by a cone shaped vessel as shown in the figure. The radius of

the circular base of the cylinder and radius of the circular base of the cone

are each is equal to 7 cm. If the height of the cylinder is 20 cm and height

of cone is 3 cm, calculate the cost of milk to fill completely this vessel at

the rate of Rs. 20 per litre. 4

OR

RF(A)-1008
CCE RF 11 81-E

A hemispherical vessel of radius 14 cm is fully filled with sand. This sand

is poured on a level ground. The heap of sand forms a cone shape of height

7 cm. Calculate the area of ground occupied by the circular base of the

heap of the sand.

40. Prove that “the ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal to the

square of the ratio of their corresponding sides”. 4

RF(A)-1008 [ Turn over

81-E 12 CCE RF

RF(A)-1008
 A SL. No. : Q

BΔ«M•⁄ O⁄}⁄°¬“
Jlflo Æ⁄√ÀÊ-V⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 42 ] [ Jlflo »⁄flfl¶√}⁄ Æ⁄‚¥lV⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 12
Total No. of Questions : 42 ] CCE RF [ Total No. of Printed Pages : 12

—⁄MOÊfi}⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 83-E REVISED Code No. : 83-E

…Œ⁄æ⁄fl : …e¤k´⁄
Subject : SCIENCE
( ∫Ë}⁄À¤—⁄°, ¡⁄—¤æ⁄fl´⁄À¤—⁄° »⁄fl}⁄fl° ffi»⁄À¤—⁄° / Physics, Chemistry & Biology )
( BMW«ŒÈ ∫¤Œ¤M}⁄¡⁄ / English Version )

( ‘ʇ—⁄ Æ⁄p⁄¿O⁄√»⁄fl / New Syllabus )

TEAR HERE TO OPEN THE QUESTION PAPER

( À¤≈¤ @∫⁄¥¿£% / Regular Fresh )

Æ⁄√ÀÊ-Æ⁄~√OÊæ⁄fl´⁄fl-}Ê¡Êæ⁄flƒfl BΔ« O⁄}⁄°¬“

¶´¤MO⁄ : 02. 04. 2019 ] [ Date : 02. 04. 2019
—⁄»⁄flæ⁄fl : ∑Ê◊⁄VÊX 9-30 ¬M•⁄ »⁄fl®¤¿‘⁄-12-30 ¡⁄»⁄¡ÊVÊ ] [ Time : 9-30 A.M. to 12-30 P.M.
V⁄¬Œ⁄r @MO⁄V⁄◊⁄fl : 80 ] [ Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions to the Candidate :

1. This Question Paper consists of 42 objective and subjective types of

questions.

2. This question paper has been sealed by reverse jacket. You have to cut on
the right side to open the paper at the time of commencement of the
examination. Check whether all the pages of the question paper are intact.

3. Follow the instructions given against both the objective and subjective
types of questions.

4. Figures in the right hand margin indicate maximum marks for the
questions.
5. The maximum time to answer the paper is given at the top of the question
paper. It includes 15 minutes for reading the question paper.
Tear here

RF(A)-1024 [ Turn over

83-E 2 CCE RF

Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete

statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the correct

alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter of alphabet.

10 × 1 = 10

1. The change that occurs in the eye to see the distant objects clearly is

(A) focal length of the eye lens decreases

(B) curvature of the eye lens increases

(C) focal length of the eye lens increases

(D) ciliary muscles of the eye contract

2. The functional groups present in propanol and propanal respectively are

(A) — OH and — CHO

(B) — OH and — COOH

(C) — CHO and — COOH

(D) — CHO and — CO

3. The correct path of the movement of nerve impulses in the following diagram is

(A) Q → S → R → P

(B) P → Q → R → S

(C) S → R → Q → P

(D) P → R → S → Q

RF(A)-1024
CCE RF 3 83-E

4. The resistance of a conductor is 27 Ω . If it is cut into three equal parts and

connected in parallel, then its total resistance is

(A) 6Ω (B) 3Ω

(C) 9Ω (D) 27 Ω

5. The chemical equation that represents neutralization reaction among the

following is

(A) BaCl 2 + H 2 SO 4 → BaSO 4 + 2HCl

(B) MnO 2 + 4 HCl → MnCl 2 + 2H 2 O + Cl 2

(C) 2 NaOH + H 2 SO 4 → Na 2 SO 4 + 2H 2 O

(D) AgNO 3 + HCl → AgCl + HNO 3

6. By constructing Khadin check-dams in level terrains,

(A) underground water level decreases

(B) underground water level increases

(C) vegetation in the nearby areas are destroyed due to excess moisture

(D) underground water gets polluted

7. To obtain a diminished image of an object from a concave mirror, position of the

object should be

( F = principal focus, C = centre of curvature, P = pole )

(A) between C and F (B) beyond C

(C) between P and F (D) at F

RF(A)-1024 [ Turn over

83-E 4 CCE RF

8. The electronic configuration of element X is 2, 8, 8, 1 and the electronic

configuration of element Y is 2, 8, 7. Then the type of bond formed between these

two elements is

(A) covalent bond

(B) hydrogen bond

(C) metallic bond

(D) ionic bond

9. Part of the flower that develops into fruit and part of the seed that develops into

root respectively are

(A) ovary and plumule

(B) plumule and radicle

(C) ovary and radicle

(D) ovary and ovule

10. A pure dominant pea plant producing round — yellow seeds is crossed with pure

recessive pea plant producing wrinkled — green seeds. The number of plants

bearing round — green seeds in the F 1 generation of Mendel’s experiment is

(A) 0 (B) 1

(C) 3 (D) 9

RF(A)-1024
CCE RF 5 83-E

11. The functions of hormones are given in Column-A and the names of the

hormones are given in Column-B. Match them and write the answer along with

its letters : 4×1=4

Column - A Column - B

(A) Prepares the body to deal (i) Growth hormone

with the situation

(B) Regulates metabolism for (ii) Testosterone

body growth

(C) Regulates blood sugar levels (iii) Adrenaline

(D) Regulates the growth and (iv) Progesterone

development of the body

(v) Insulin

(vi) Thyroxine

(vii) Oestrogen

Answer the following questions. 7×1=7

12. Name the acid present in the stinging hair of nettle leaves.

13. What are fossils ?

14. Convex mirror is commonly used as rear-view mirror in vehicles. Why ?

15. What is roasting in metallurgy ?

RF(A)-1024 [ Turn over

83-E 6 CCE RF

16. Observe the given figure. Name the eye defect indicated in the figure and also

mention the lens used to correct this defect.

17. What is Tyndall effect ?

18. Under what condition lactic acid is produced in the muscle cells ?

Answer the following questions. 16 × 2 = 32

19. Draw the diagram of an electric circuit in which the resistors R 1 , R 2 and R 3

are connected in parallel including an ammeter and a voltmeter and mark the

direction of the current.

20. Name the brown fumes liberated when lead nitrate is heated. Write the balanced

chemical equation for this reaction.

21. Explain the process of translocation of food materials in plants.

OR

Explain the process of digestion in the small intestine of man.

22. Draw the diagram of a simple electric motor. Label the following parts :

(i) Split rings (ii) Brushes.

23. What are structural isomers ? Name the first member of alkanes that shows

structural isomerism.

RF(A)-1024
CCE RF 7 83-E

24. Draw the diagram showing the longitudinal section of a flower.

Label the following parts :

(i) Style (ii) Anther.

25. Draw the diagram of arrangement of apparatus used to show the reaction of zinc

granules with dilute sulphuric acid and testing hydrogen gas by burning.

Label the following parts.

(i) Soap solution

(ii) Delivery tube.

26. It is advantageous to connect electric devices in parallel instead of connecting

them in series. Why ?

OR

According to Joule’s law of heating, mention the factors on which heat produced

in a resistor depends. According to this law write the formula used to calculate

the heat produced.

27. List the disadvantages of using fossil fuels.

OR

List the advantages of ‘reduce’ and ‘reuse’ to save environment.

28. The focal length of a concave lens is 30 cm. At what distance should the object

be placed from the lens so that it forms an image at 20 cm from the lens ?

29. Draw the diagram of the apparatus used in the electrolysis of water. Label the

following parts.

(i) Graphite rod

(ii) Cathode.

RF(A)-1024 [ Turn over

83-E 8 CCE RF

30. Growth of thread like structures along with the gradual spoilage of tomato can be

observed when a cut tomato is kept aside for four days. Interpret the causes for

this change.

31. An electric refrigerator rated 400 W is used for 8 hours a day. An electric iron

box rated 750 W is used for 2 hours a day. Calculate the cost of using these

appliances for 30 days, if the cost of 1 kWh is Rs. 3/-.

32. There is no change in the colour of red litmus and blue litmus paper when

introduced into an aqueous solution of sodium chloride. After passing direct

current through the same solution, red litmus changes to blue colour. Which

product is responsible for this change ? Mention any two uses of this product.

33. A food chain in a polluted aquatic ecosystem is given. Observe it and answer the

following questions.

Fresh water → Algae → Fishes → Birds.

(i) Which organisms are disturbed more due to biomagnification ? Why ?

(ii) This ecosystem will be destroyed gradually due to biomagnification. Why ?

OR

A student places a piece of cucumber, a glass piece, a banana peel and a plastic

pen in a pit and closes it. What changes can be observed in these materials after

a month ? Give scientific reason for these changes.

RF(A)-1024
CCE RF 9 83-E

34. What is dispersion of light ? Mention the colour that bends the least and the

colour that bends the most when light undergoes dispersion through a prism.

OR

Mention any four phenomena that can be observed due to atmospheric refraction

of light on the earth.

Answer the following questions. 5 × 3 = 15

35. Draw the ray diagrams for the image formation in a convex lens when an object

is placed

(i) at focus F 1

(ii) beyond 2F 1 .

36. (i) Write the differences between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons.

(ii) Write the molecular formula and structural formula of an alkene having

five carbon atoms.

OR

(i) Carbon atom does not form C 4 − anion and C 4 + cation. Why ?

(ii) How can ethanol be converted into ethanoic acid ?

37. Draw the diagram showing the sectional view of the human heart. Label the

following parts.

(i) Aorta

(ii) Chamber of the heart that receives deoxygenated blood.

RF(A)-1024 [ Turn over

83-E 10 CCE RF

38. (i) Name the major constituent of biogas. Write the properties of biogas which

make it a good fuel.

(ii) Name the two devices that work using heat energy of the sun.

OR

(i) Write the advantages of solar cells.

(ii) Write any two hazards of nuclear power generation.

39. Observe the given table and answer the following question :

Elements A B C D E

Atomic number 11 4 2 7 19

Identify the two elements that belong to the same period and the two elements

that belong to the same group. Give reason for your conclusion.

Answer the following questions. 3 × 4 = 12

40. (i) How does overload and short-circuit occur in an electric circuit ? Explain.

What is the function of fuse during this situation ?

(ii) Mention two properties of magnetic field lines.

41. Give reason :

(i) Ionic compounds in solid state do not conduct electricity, whereas in

molten state are good conductors of electricity.

(ii) Silver articles when exposed to air gradually turn blackish.

(iii) Chemical reaction does not take place when copper is added to iron

sulphate solution.

OR

RF(A)-1024
CCE RF 11 83-E

Give reason :

(i) “Alloys of iron are more useful when compared to pure iron.”

(ii) Copper loses its brown layer gradually when exposed to air.

(iii) Aluminium oxide is called amphoteric oxide.

42. (i) Write the differences between homologous organs and analogous organs.

(ii) Write the differences between the sex chromosomes of man and sex

chromosomes of woman.

(iii) Sex of a child is determined by the father. How ?

RF(A)-1024 [ Turn over

83-E 12 CCE RF

RF(A)-1024
 A SL. No. : R

BΔ«M•⁄ O⁄}⁄°¬“
Jlflo Æ⁄√ÀÊ-V⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 47 ] [ Jlflo »⁄flfl¶√}⁄ Æ⁄‚¥lV⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 8
Total No. of Questions : 47 ]
CCE RF [ Total No. of Printed Pages : 8
REVISED
—⁄MOÊfi}⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 85-E Code No. : 85-E
…Œ⁄æ⁄fl : —⁄»⁄·¤d …e¤k´⁄
Subject : SOCIAL SCIENCE
( BMW«ŒÈ ∫¤Œ¤M}⁄¡⁄ / English Version )
( ‘ʇ—⁄ Æ⁄p⁄¿O⁄√»⁄fl / New Syllabus )

( À¤≈¤ @∫⁄¥¿£% / Regular Fresh )

TEAR HERE TO OPEN THE QUESTION PAPER

¶´¤MO⁄ : 29. 03. 2019 ] [ Date : 29. 03. 2019

Æ⁄√ÀÊ-Æ⁄~√OÊæ⁄fl´⁄fl-}Ê¡Êæ⁄flƒfl BΔ« O⁄}⁄°¬“

—⁄»⁄flæ⁄fl : ∑Ê◊⁄VÊX 9-30 ¬M•⁄ »⁄fl®¤¿‘⁄-12-30 ¡⁄»⁄¡ÊVÊ ] [ Time : 9-30 A.M. to 12-30 P.M.
V⁄¬Œ⁄r @MO⁄V⁄◊⁄fl : 80 ] [ Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions to the Candidate :

1. This Question Paper consists of 47 objective and subjective types of

questions.

2. This question paper has been sealed by reverse jacket. You have to cut on
the right side to open the paper at the time of commencement of the
examination. Check whether all the pages of the question paper are intact.

3. Follow the instructions given against both the objective and subjective
types of questions.

4. Figures in the right hand margin indicate maximum marks for the
questions.

5. The maximum time to answer the paper is given at the top of the question
paper. It includes 15 minutes for reading the question paper.
Tear here

RF(A)-1017 [ Turn over

85-E 2 CCE RF
I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the correct
alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter of alphabet.

10 × 1 = 10

1. The reason to create ‘Separate Electorate College’ in 1909 was to

(A) provide separate representation for Muslims

(B) create separate constituency for Europeans

(C) provide separate representation for Sikhs

(D) reserve some seats for Christians

2. The First Anglo-Mysore war ended with the

(A) Treaty of Mysore (B) Treaty of Madras

(C) Treaty of Mangalore (D) Treaty of Srirangapattana

3. The one who started the newspaper ‘New India’ is

(A) Raja Rammohan Roy (B) Mahatma Gandhi

(C) Annie Besant (D) Dayanand Saraswati

4. U.N.O. adopted the Human Rights Declaration in the year

(A) 1945 (B) 1950

(C) 1947 (D) 1948

5. The correct statement related to U.N.O. Security Council is

(A) it has 15 permanent members

(B) it is like a cabinet of U.N.O.

(C) it has its headquarters in Paris

(D) that India has got permanent membership recently

RF(A)-1017
CCE RF 3 85-E

6. Invisible hunger refers to

(A) nutrition (B) malnutrition

(C) hunger in rich people (D) balanced diet

7. Black soil is suitable for dry farming as it

(A) is formed in heavy rainfall region

(B) has less moisture retention capacity

(C) has high moisture retention capacity

(D) is formed from weathering of crystalline rocks

8. The construction of Damodar river project has resulted in

(A) Damodar as no more ‘Sorrow of Bengal’

(B) increasing landslides

(C) causing heavy earthquakes

(D) submerging many major industrial areas

9. An example for direct tax is

(A) Value added tax (B) Central excise duty

(C) Stamp duty (D) Service tax

10. A person has bought a car of worth Rs. 15 lakhs is now facing some

problems in it, but the car company is not responding to him. To which

agency can the person complain ?

(A) District Consumer Forum

(B) The State Consumer Commission

(C) The National Consumer Commission

(D) Inter-State Consumer Forum

RF(A)-1017 [ Turn over

85-E 4 CCE RF

II. Answer the following questions in a sentence each : 14 × 1 = 14

11. Why was Shuddhi Movement started ?

12. Why did Indian soldiers oppose the use of Royal Enfield rifles / guns ?

13. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel is called ‘Iron Man of India’. Why ?

14. How did Government solve the Tibetan refugees problem ?

15. Output of Agriculture Sector dropped in America after First World War.

Why ?

16. What is Disarmament ?

17. Who wrote the book, ‘The Republic’ ?

18. Devadasi system is an inhuman practice. Why ?

19. Which state of India has the largest area under forests ?

20. Which are the forests found in river deltas of eastern coast of India ?

21. Why do the construction companies provide more demand for aluminium ?

22. What is density of population ?

23. Why was the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act enacted in 1993 ?

24. When is the ‘World Consumers’ Day’ celebrated ?

III. Answer the following questions in two to four sentences each : 15 × 2 = 30

25. The battle of Buxar had helped the British to get many benefits.

Substantiate.

26. How did Subsidiary Alliance control Indian provinces ?

27. The condition of Indian soldiers in the British army was very pathetic.

Justify.

RF(A)-1017
CCE RF 5 85-E

28. Answer the following questions related to the given picture :

a) Name the person in the given picture.

b) Name the book written by him.

29. What are the features of Fascism ?

OR

What are the achievements of Lenin as the President of Russia ?

30. India has been considered as one of the powerful countries of the world.

Why ?

31. In spite of the border dispute between India and China, how have they

strengthened their relationship ?

32. Why is Mob violence an anti-social activity ?

33. In the South Indian map, a physical division is marked. Name it and

mention any two economic importances of it.

RF(A)-1017 [ Turn over

85-E 6 CCE RF

34. Why does the climate of India vary from one region to another ?

35. How has agriculture helped in the development of Secondary and Tertiary

sectors ?

36. Energy crisis is a major problem of India in recent days. Why ?

37. Road Transport is better than Railway Transport. Substantiate.

38. The formulation of Human Development Index ( HDI ) was essential to

measure economic development. Explain.

39. Globalization affects food habit and health of the people. How ?

IV. Answer the following questions in six sentences each : 6 × 3 = 18

40. The 18th Century in Indian History was “the Century of Political Problems”.

Justify.

OR

The British education system created a new generation of Indians with

progressive attitudes. Justify.

41. Unemployment has become a huge problem in India. Why ?

OR

Explain the aims of United Nations Organization.

42. Explain the legal provisions brought to eradicate untouchability in India.

OR

Explain the characteristics of Organised Labour Sector.

43. Explain how the industries help in economic development of a country.

OR

Explain how both natural and human induced forces cause landslides.

RF(A)-1017
CCE RF 7 85-E

44. What are the functions of Reserve Bank of India ?

OR

What are the goals / objectives of public expenditure ?

45. List out the functions of an entrepreneur.

OR

List out the advantages of opening a bank account.

V. Answer the following question in about eight to ten sentences : 4

46. The protests organised by the farmers are important in National Freedom

Struggle. Explain.

VI. 47. Draw an outline map of India and mark the following : 1+3=4

a) Indira Col

b) River Kaveri

c) Delhi.

Alternative Question for Blind Candidates only : (In lieu of Q. No. 47)

What are the main objectives of Multi-purpose River Valley Projects ? 4

RF(A)-1017 [ Turn over

85-E 8 CCE RF

RF(A)-1017