CHAPTER 1

PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS AND

PERIODICITY
1. The number of shells in an element reflects its:
(a) Period number (b) Group number (c) Both (d) None
2. The number of electrons in valence shell of an element reflects its:
(a) Period number (b) Group number (c) Both (d) None
3. Generally metals form oxides:
(a) Acidic (b) Basic (c) Amphoteric (d) None
4. Variable valency is shown by:
(a) Group 1A (b) Group IIA
(c) Group VIIA (d) Group IB
5. Hydrogen can be placed above the groups of the periodic table:
(a) IA, IVA and VIIA elements (b) VIIA Elements
(c) IIIA, IVA and VA elements (d) IIA, IIIA and VIIA elements
6. Members of group IA are called:
(a) Alkali metals (b) Alkaline earth metals
(c) Halogens (d) Noble gases
7. Members of group IB are called:
(a) Alkali metals (b) Alkaline earth metals
(c) Halogens (d) Coinage metals
8. Keeping in view the sizes of atoms, which order is the correct one:
(a) Mg>Sr (b) Ba > Mg (c) Be>Mg (d) Ra>Ba
9. Which one of the following oxides is Amphoteric in nature:
(a) MgO (b) Na2O (c) SO2 (d) ZnO
10. According to Newland’s arrangement of elements recurrence (periodicity) of properties
take place at every:
(a) 8th element (b) 10th element (c) 18th element (d) None
11. Atomic number was discovered by Mosley in:
(a) 1913 (b) 1914 (c) 1915 (d) 1916
12. Total groups in modern periodic table:
(a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 18
13. Non-metals usually exist as:
(a) Liquids (b) Gases
(c) Liquids or gases (d) Waxy solids
14. The Ionization energy of Sodium is:
(a) 500 K.J mol-1 (b) 513 K.J mol-1
(c) 496 K.J mol -1
(d) 480 K.J mol-1
15. SnCl4 is a:
(a) Co-ordinate Covalent Compound (b) Ionic compound
(c) Covalent Compound (d) None of these
16. Ga has oxidation state:
(a) +3 (b) +2 (c) +4 (d) +1
17. Hydrides can be classified into:
(a) Two types (b) Three types
(c) Four types (d) Five types
18. Which of the following represents elements in order of increasing atomic radii:
(a) I>Br> Cl (b) Li>Na>K (c) He>Ne>Ar (d) None
19. The decrease in nuclear force on valence electrons, because of the increase in number
of shells containing electrons and layering above is known as:
(a) Resonance effect (b) Shielding effect
(c) Inductive effect (d) None
20. Number of elements present in the 5th period of periodic table is:
(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 18 (d) 32
21. Which element has the largest first ionization energy:
(a) Li (b) Na (c) K (d) Rb
22. Which of the following pairs are chemically dissimilar:
(a) Na and K (b) Ba and Sr
(c) Zr and Hf (d) Ca and Zn
23. Which of the following elements is most electronegative:
(a) Oxygen (b) Chlorine (c) Nitrogen (d) Fluorine
24. Which of the following has greatest metallic character:
(a) Mg (b) Ca (c) Al (d) Cs
25. Highest Hydration energy is shown by:
(a) Na+ (b) Mg+2 (c) Al+3 (d) Ga+3
26. Which of the following has highest value of Ionization Energy:
(a) Na+ (b) Al+ (c) Al+2 (d) Al+3
27. 2 5
The valence shell electronic structure of an element is ns np . The element will belong
to the group:
(a) IA (b) IIA (c) VA (d) VIIA
28. Which of the following pair of atomic numbers represents IIA elements:
(a) 3, 11 (b) 3, 12 (c) 4, 20 (d) 3, 20
29. Among the following elements the highest value of electron affinity is shown by:
(a) F (b) Cl (c) Br (d) I
30. The force of attraction of an element on shared pair of electron is known as:
(a) Covalent bond (b) Ionization potential
(c) Electron affinity (d) Electronegativity
31. Alkali metals in each period have:
(a) Smallest size (b) Lowest Ionization Energy
(c) Highest Ionization Energy (d) Lowest atomic radius
32. The correct order of electron affinity among the following is:
(a) F > Cl > Br (b) Br > Cl > F
(c) Cl > F > Br (d) F > Br > Cl
33. Which of the following does not exhibit the “periodicity” in properties of the elements:
(a) Ionization energy (b) n/p ratio
(c) Electronegativity (d) Atomic radius
34. Polymeric (Intermediate) hydride shall be formed by:
(a) Na (b) K (c) Be (d) C
35. The highest acidity is shown by:
(a) Mn2O7 (b) Mn2O3 (c) MnO2 (d) MnO
36. The covalent hydrides are usually:
(a) Liquids (b) Gases
(c) Volatile Liquids or gases (d) Waxy solids
37. Which of the following is not iso-electronic with others:
(a) Na+ (b) Mg2+ (c) O2 (d) Cl
38. Which of the following oxides is Amphoteric in character:
(a) CaO (b) CO2 (c) SiO2 (d) Sb2O3
39. The melting point is lowest for:
(a) Be (b) Mg (c) Ca (d) Sr
 40. Which of the following in not true for metalloids:
(a) They are borderline elements that exhibit both metallic and non-metallic properties
(b) They usually act as electron donors to non-metals
(c) They usually act as electron acceptors from metals
(d) They are good conductor of heat and electricity
41. Among the pure ionic compounds, the ------- have the highest lattice energies:
(a) Fluorides (b) Chlorides (c) Bromides (d) Iodides
42. Which electronic sub-shell in lanthanides is incompletely filled:
(a) 4f (b) 5f (c) 6f (d) All
43. The number of elements in fourth period of periodic table is: (GRW 2011)
(a) 32 (b) 18 (c) 10 (d) 8
44. The basis of modern periodic law is: (FSD, BWP, GRW 2012)
(a) Electron affinity (b) atomic mass
(c) Ionization energy (d) atomic number
45. The highest ionization energy is possessed by: (GRW 2011)
(a) Nitrogen (b) Phosphorous
(c) Bismuth (d) Antimony
46. The decrease in atomic sizes is much prominent across rows containing elements of:
(a) s & p-block (b) d-block
(c) f-block (d) All
47. Mark the correct statement:
(a) All lanthanides are present in the same group
(b) All halogens are present in the same period
(c) All the alkali metals are present in the same group
(d) All the noble gases are present in the same period.
48. Encircle the correct statement:
(a) Metallic character increases down the group
(b) Metallic character increases along a period
(c) Metallic character remains the same along a period
(d) Metallic character remains the same down the group
49. In Potassium super oxide (KO2) oxidation state of O is:
(a) -1 (b) -2 (c) -1/2 (d) -4
50. Hydrogen can be placed with the element of group (IV-A) because both:
(a) Act as strong oxidizing agent (b) Act as strong reducing agent
(c) Possess the property of catenation (d) Form neutral oxides

ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
a b b d a a d b d a
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
a d c c c a b a b c
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
a d d d c a d c b d
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
b c b c a c d d b a
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
a a b d a a c a c b
 CHAPTER 2

S-BLOCK ELEMENTS

1. Which of the following sulphates is not soluble in water:

(a) Sodium sulphate (b) Potassium sulphate
(c) Zinc sulphate (d) Barium sulphate
2. Chile Salt peter has the chemical formula:
(a) NaNO3 (b) KNO3
(c) Na2B4O7 (d) Na2CO3.H2O
3. Which one of the following compounds when dissolved in water reacts with CO 2:
(a) Calcium chloride (b) Sodium chloride
(c) Calcium Sulphate (d) Calcium hydroxide
4. The main product of the reaction of potassium with oxygen is
(a) KOH (b) K2O2 (c) KO2 (d) K2O
5. The alkali metal whose carbonate is relatively less stable to heat and decomposes on
heating, giving its oxides is:
(a) Li (b) Ba (c) K (d) Rb
6. Which of the following compounds has a per oxide linkage:
(a) BaO2 (b) CO2 (c) PbO2 (d) SiO2
7. Which of the following does not belong to alkaline earth metals:
(a) Be (b) Mg (c) Ra (d) Rb
8. Which does not belong to alkali metals:
(a) Cs (b) Fr (c) Na (d) Ca
9. The oxides of beryllium are:
(a) Acidic (b) Neutral
(c) Basic (d) Amphoteric
10. Nelson’s cell is used to prepare:
(a) Sodium hydroxide (b) Sodium carbonate
(c) Sodium metal (d) Sodium bicarbonate
11. What is deposited at the cathode during the electrolysis of brine:
(a) Na (b) H2 (c) Cl2 (d) OH
12. Which of the following is a rare radioactive element:
(a) Fr (b) Cs (c) Ra (d) Rb
13. The chemical formula of Magnesite is:
(a) MgCl2 (b) Mg (ClO3)2
(c) MgCO3 (d) None of these
14. Which carbonate of alkali metals is insoluble in water:
(a) Na2Co3 (b) K2CO3 (c) Li2CO3 (d) Cs2CO3
15. Ga has most common oxidation state of:
(a) +3 (b) +2 (c) +4 (d) +1
16. Alkali metals form:
(a) Ionic compounds (b) Covalent compounds
(c) Coordinate covalent compounds (d) None of these
17. Li2O is:
(a) Orange yellow solid (b) White solid
(c) Greenish solid (d) Pale yellow solid
18. Melting point of pure sodium chloride is:
(a) 600 oC (b) 775 oC (c) 750 oC (d) 801 oC
19. Lime (CaO) is obtained by thermal decomposition of:
(a) Ca(OH)2 (b) CaCO3 (c) CaHCO3 (d) None
20. The element necessary for normal “leaf” development is:
(a) Phosphorus (b) Sulphur
(c) Calcium (d) Magnesium
21. Lime is often used as:
(a) Reducing Agent (b) Oxidizing Agent
(c) Dehydrating Agent (d) Catalytic Agent
22. Sodium metal can be stored in:
(a) Alcohol (b) Kerosene oil (c) H2O (d) All
23. Which of the following alkali metal hydroxide is the strongest base:
(a) LiOH (b) NaOH (c) KOH (d) CsOH
24. Washing soda has the formula:
(a) Na2CO3.7H2O (b) Na2CO3.10 H2O (c) Na2CO3.3H2O (d) Na2CO3
25. Which halide has the highest melting point:
(a) NaCl (b) NaBr (c) NaF (d) Nal
26. The alkali metal that reacts with nitrogen directly to form Nitride is:
(a) Li (b) Na (c) K (d) Rb
27. The electronic configuration of metal (M) is 1s 2, 2s2, 3s1. The formula of its oxide would
be :
(a) MO (b) M2O (c) M2O3 (d) MO2
28. An aqueous solution of sodium carbonate is alkaline because sodium carbonate is a salt
of:
(a) Weak acid and weak base (b) Strong acid and weak base
(c) Weak acid and strong base (d) Strong acid and strong base
29. Which of the following is a man-made element?
(a) Ra (b) Fr (c) Rn (d) Cs
30. Dolomite has the composition
(a) KCl.MgCl2.6H2O (b) Na3AlF6
(c) CaCO3.MgCO3 (d) CaCl2.MgCl2.6H2O
31. Epsom salt is:
(a) Magnesium sulphate (b) Ferrous ammonium sulphate
(c) Magnesium ammonium phosphate (d) Calcium sulphate
32. Plaster of Paris is a hydrate of:
(a) BaSO4 (b) CaSO4 (c) MgSO4 (d) ZnSO4
33. Which of the following on heating above 100C gives plaster of Paris:
(a) Borax (b) Gypsum (c) Alum (d) Calomel
34. On heating quick lime with coke in an electric furnace, we get:
(a) Ca and CO2 (b) CaCO3 (c) Ca+CO (d) CaC2
35. The substance not likely to contain CaCO 3 is :
(a) Dolomite (b) Marble
(c) Gypsum (d) Sea shells
36. The oxide of Beryllium is:
(a) Acidic (b) Basic
(c) Amphoteric (d) None of these
37. Point out the ore of potassium:
(a) Dolomite (b) Cryolite
(c) Bauxite (d) Carnallite
38. Dolomite is an ore of:
(a) Strontium (b) Magnesium
(c) Barium (d) Potassium
39. Which is not an alkali metal?
(a) Francium (b) Cesium (c) Rubidium (d) Radium
40. Chile salt peter has the chemical formula:
(a) NaNO3 (b) KNO3
(c) Na2Br4O7 (d) Na2CO3 .H2O
41. The milk of magnesia is used for the treatment of:
(a) Acidity (b) Basicity
(c) Rancidity (d) Jaundice
42. Cement contains gypsum: (LHR 2012)
(a) 3% (b) 2% (c) 0.2% (d) 0.3%
43. Dolomite is: (LHR 08,12)
(a) CaCO3 (b) MgCO3.CaCO3 (c) MgCO3 (d) Na2CO3
44. Chemical formula of Magnesite is: (FSD 2009)
(a) CaMg3(SiO3)4 (b) MgCO3 (c) MgSO4 (d) MgCl2
45. Which one does not belong to alkaline earth metals?
(MTN 08,15, FSD 09,15, RWP 12, GRW 14,15)
(a) Be (b) Ra (c) Ba (d) Rn
46. The substance deposited at the cathode during electrolysis of brine in diaphragm cell:
(FSD 10,14, BWP 10, LHR 14)
(a) Na (b) H2 (c) Cl2 (d) O2
47. The ore CaSO4.2H2O has general name: (BWP 14, FSD 11,13)
(a) Gypsum (b) Dolomite
(c) Calcite (d) Epsom salt
48. The only alkaline earth metal which forms peroxide is: (SGD 2010)
(a) Beryllium (b) Magnesium (c) Calcium (d) Barium
49. The sulphate compound insoluble in water is: (SGD 2010)
(a) Barium sulphate (b) Sodium sulphate
(c) Potassium sulphate (d) Zinc sulphate
50. CaCl2 is added to NaCl in Down’s cell to: (SGD 2011)
(a) Decrease solubility (b) Decrease dissociation
(c) Decrease Melting point (d) Decrease conductivity

ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
d a d c a a d d d a
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
b c c c a a b d b c
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
c b d b c a b c b c
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
a b b d c c d b d a
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
a b b b d b a d a c
 CHAPTER 3

GROUP III A AND GROUP IV A ELEMENTS

1. Gibbsite contain ____ water molecules:

(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 3
2. Sindur used by Indian women is chemically:
(a) PbO (b) PbO2 (c) Pb3O4 (d) PbCO3
3. Corundum is:
(a) Al2O3 (b) Na3AIF6
(c) Al2O3.2H2O (d) Al2O3.3H2O
4. Which one of the following is not an ore of Aluminum:
(a) Corundum (b) Bauxite (c) Colemanite (d) Kaolin
5. Which one of the following is not a use of boric acid:
(a) Antiseptic (b) Glaze
(c) Stiffening agent for candle wick (d) Lubricant
6. Which of the following reactions of Al is used in a photo flash:
(a) 2 Al + 3 H2 →2AlH3 (b) 4 Al + 3 O2 →2Al2O3
(c) 2 Al + N2 →2AlN (d) 2 Al + 3Cl2 →2AICI3
7. Two elements frequently used for making transistors are:
(a) C and Si (b) Ga and In
(c) P and As (d) Si and Ge
8. Which one of the following is not a use of red lead, Pb3O4:
(a) Red Pigment (b) Flint Glass
(c) Ceramic glazes (d) Semiconductor
9. In the dried up lakes of Tibet and California _____ is found:
(a) Boric acid (b) Colemanite (c) Borax (d) All
10. What is the formula of Kaolin (Clay):
(a) Al2O3.SiO4 (b) Al2O3
(c) Al2O3 .2H2O (d) Al2O3, 2SiO2 .2H2O
11. Boric acid is formed when borax reacts with:
(a) NaCl (b) NaOH (c) HCl (d) H2CO3
12. Ethyl borate is formed when boric acid is reacted with:
(a) Elhyl Choride (b) Ethyl Bormide
(c) Ethyl Alcohol (d) Ethyl Acetate
13. Which of the following is a weak acid:
(a) Na2SO4 (b) HCl
(c) Boric Acid (d) None of these
14. Talc is used in:
(a) Talcum powders (b) Face powders
(c) Making of house hold articles (d) All
15. The Chemical formula of Lead sub oxide:
(a) PbO (b) Pb2O (c) Pb2O3 (d) Pb3O4
16. The Chemical formula for white lead is:
(a) PbCO3 (b) Pb3O4 (c) 2PbCO3.Pb(OH)2 (d) Pb2O3
17. Which metal is protected by a layer of its own oxide:
(a) Al (b) Zn (c) Sn (d) Pb
18. Inert pair effect plays an important role in case of:
(a) F (b) Al (c) Si (d) Pb
19. Alum is not used:
(a) To jam Radar (b) To insulate buildings
(c) Construction of ships (d) Making milk storage tanks
20. Al is badly corroded by:
(a) Pure water (b) Salt solutions
(c) Dil.H2SO4 (d) Dil.HNO3
21. B2H6 is an example of:
(a) Ionic hydride (b) Molecular addition compound
(c) Good oxidizing agent (d) None
22. Aluminium reacts with caustic soda to form:
(a) Aluminium hydroxide (b) Aluminium oxide
(c) Sodium aluminium hydroxide (d) None
23. Compounds of Boron behave as Lewis acids because of:
(a) Electron donation (b) Electron deficiency of Boron
(c) Non-metallic nature of Boron (d) Small size of Boron
24. BF3 acts as acid according to the concept of:
(a) Lewis (b) Bronsted-Lowry
(c) Arrhenius (d) None
25. The non-polar oxide is:
(a) H2O (b) CO2 (c) CO (d) All
26. The semiconductor material among following is:
(a) Si (b) Ge (c) PbS (d) All
27. In Borax bead test, when borax is heated with cobalt oxide it forms bead of:
(a) Black colour (b) Blue colour
(c) Red colour (d) Green colour
28. Chemical composition of Colemanite is: (SGD 14, GRW 06, BWP 12)
(a) Ca2B6O11.5H2O (b) CaB4H7.4H2O
(c) CaNaB5O9.8H2O (d) Na2B4O7.4H2O
29. Basic lead chromate is formed when lead chromate is boiled with:
(a) Dilute alkali hydroxide (b) Dilute acid
(c) Strong alkali hydroxide (d) Strong acid
30. Which of the following is used in making fire proof clothes? (LHR 2011)
(a) Water glass (b) Borax glass
(c) Kaolin (d) Asbestos
31. Orthoboric acid when heated to red hot gives: (GRW 2011)
(a) Boric anhydride (b) Pyroboric acid
(c) Metaboric acid (d) Tetraboric acid
32. S, Se, Te and Po are called: (FSD 2009)
(a) Coinage metals (b) Alkali metals
(c) Chalcogens (d) Halogens
33. Aluminum oxide is: (BWR, RWP, MTN 15, LHR 14,15, FSD 09,13)
(a) Acidic oxide (b) Basic oxide
(c) Amphoteric oxide (d) None of these
34. Boric acid reacts with caustic soda to produce: (FSD 2010)
(a) NaBO2 (b) NaH2BO3 (c) Na2B4O7 (d) Na3BO3
35. Ordinary glass is: (FSD 2011)
(a) Potassium silicate (b) Calcium silicate
(c) Sodium silicate (d) Calcium and sodium silicate
36. The compound which forms the bead in Borax bead test is: (LHR 08, SGD 09)
(a) Metal oxide (b) Metal boride
(c) Metal borate (d) Metal metaborate
37. The metal which does not give borax bead test is: (SGD 2010)
(a) Cu (b) Cr (c) Ni (d) Al
38. The aqueous solution of borax is: (SWL 15, SGD 11)
(a) Acidic (b) Neutral
(c) Basic (d) Corrosive
39. Which one is more stable? (RWP 2008)
(a) H3BO3 (b) HBO2 (c) H2B2O2 (d) H6B3O9
40. Nitric acid can be transported in a container made up of: (RWP-09)
(a) Al (b) Zn
(c) Cu (d) none of these
41. Valence shell electronic configuration of the elements of group IIIA is: (RWP 2011)
(a) ns1,np2 (b) ns2,np3 (c) ns0,np3 (d) ns2,np1
42. The chief ore of aluminum is:
(a) NaAlF3 (b) Al2O3.2H2O
(c) Al2O3 (d) Al2O3.H2O
43. The only metal in group IIIA is:
(a) Ar (b) Ga (c) B (d) In
44. C+SnO2 Sn + CO2: In this reaction carbon acts as a:
(a) Reducing agent (b) Oxidizing agent
(c) Dehydrating agent (d) none of these
45. The chemical formula of clay is:
(a) Al2O3SiF4 (b) Na3AlF6
(c) Al2O3 (d) Al2O3.2SiO2.2H2O
46. Which naturally occurring substance is SiO2?
(a) Haematite (b) Lime (c) Cryolite (d) Quartz
47. The highly rigid under cooled liquid silica is called:
(a) Silicone (b) Quartz
(c) Water glass (d) Vitreous silica
48. Which one of the given is amphoteric in nature?
(a) MgO (b) Na2O (c) SO2 (d) ZnO
49. When H3BO3 reacts with NaOH, the salt mostly formed is? (DGK 2009)
(a) Na3BO3 (b) Na2B4O7 (c) NaH2BO3 (d) NaBO2
50. Which element forms and ion with charge +3?
(a) Carbon (b) Silicone
(c) Aluminum (d) Beryllium

ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10
d c a c d c d d c d
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
c c c d b c a d c b
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
b c b a b d b a c d
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
a c c c d d d c a a
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
d b c a d d d d b c
 CHAPTER 4

GROUP V A AND IV A ELEMENTS

1. The % by volume of N2 in air is:
(a) 98 (b) 88 (c) 78 (d) 68
2. Which one of the following is an amphoteric oxide:
(a) SO2 (b) SO3 (c) CO2 (d) Al2O3
3. In Pyrite burner, the gas produced is:
(a) SO3 (b) SO2 (c) CO2 (d) NO
4. In which substance nitrogen is not present:
(a) Urea (b) Protein (c) Salt peter (d) Galena
5. Oxidation of NO in air produces:
(a) N2O (b) N2O3 (c) NO2 (d) NO
6. Which of the following is not correct about Phosphorous? (LHR 2008)
(a) It means light bearing (b) Does not exist free in nature
(c) Bone ash is its rich source (d) has no allotropic forms
7. Molecular formula of white phosphorous is: (LHR 2009)
(a) P4 (b) P (c) P3 (d) P2
8. At 18 ͦC the specific gravity of H2SO4 is: (LHR 2010)
(a) 1.891 (b) 2.101 (c) 1.834 (d) 1.740
9. Which of the following elements is most metallic:
(a) Bi (b) Sb (c) As (d) P
10. The anhydride of nitric acid is:
(a) N2O4 (b) N2O3 (c) N2O5 (d) NO
11. Nitrous acid is a:
(a) Reducing agent (b) Oxidizing agent (c) Both a and b (d) None of
these
12. Which of the following is a white hygroscopic powder:
(a) P2O3 (b) P2O5 (c) P2O2 (d) P2O4
13. Aqua Regia is:
(a) 3 volumes of HCl+ 1Volume of HNO2 (b) 3 Volumes of HCl+ 1Volume of HNO3
(c) 3 volumes of HNO3+ 1Volume of HCl (d) 3 Volumes of HCl+ 1Volume of H2SO4
14. Which one of the following elements occur free in nature:
(a) N (b) P (c) As (d) Sb
15. Red phosphorous can be obtained from white Phosphorous by:
(a) Heating it with Iodine catalyst in vacuum at 250 oC
(b) Distilling it in an inert atmosphere
(c) Dissolving it in CS2 and crystallizing
(d) Melting it and pouring the liquid into water
16. Phosphorus pentoxide is used as:
(a) A cleansing agent (b) A reducing agent
(c) A bleaching agent (d) A dehydrating agent
17. The structure of white phosphorus is:
(a) Square planar (b) Pyramidal
(c) Tetrahedral (d) Trigonal planer
18. Which of the following phosphorus is most reactive:
(a) Red phosphorus (b) White phosphorus
(c) Scarlet phosphorus (d) Violet phosphorous
19. Orthophosphoric acid is:
(a) Monobasic (b) Dibasic
(c) Tribasic (d) Tetrabasic
20. HNO2 acts as an/a:
(a) Acid (b) Oxidizing agent
(c) Reducing agent (d) All the three
21. P2O5 is heated with water to get:
(a) Hypophosphorous acid (b) Phosphorous acid
(c) Hypophosphoric acid (d) Orthophosphoric acid
22. Ozone is not:
(a) An allotrope (b) A powerful oxidizing agent
(c) Paramagnetic species (d) A bent molecule
23. Oleum is:
(a) H2SO3 (b) H2SO4 (c) H2S2O7 (d) None
24. SO3 is not directly dissolved in water to get Sulphuric acid because:
(a) The reaction does not go to completion (b) The reaction is quite slow
(c) The reaction is highly exothermic (d) SO3 is insoluble in water
25. In group VA the most electronegative element is:
(a) N (b) P (c) As (d) Sb
26. Cinnabar is:
(a) HgS (b) ZnS (c) PbS (d) FeS2
27. The element whose inorganic minerals are not much abundant in earth crust:
(LHR 2011)
(a) Li (b) N (c) Na (d) O
28. Gold dissolves in aqua regia to form: (BWP 09, FSD 10)
(a) AuCl3 (b) AuI3
(c) AuI2 (d) Au2(SO4)3
29. Arsenic oxides are removed during manufacture of H2SO4 by passing through:
(SGD 2010)
(a) Ferric hydroxide (b) Sodium hydroxide
(c) Calcium hydroxide (d) Potassium hydroxide
30. The compound N2O causes: (RWP 2011)
(a) Cancer (b) Sleeping sickness (c) Hysterical laughter (d) Tumor
31. H2SO4 has great affinity for water because: (MTN 2008)
(a) it decomposes the acid (b) it hydrolyses the acid
(c) acid decomposes water (d) acid forms hydrate with water
32. Atomic number of Te is: (MTN 2009)
(a) 52 (b) 60 (c) 65 (d) 80
33. Nitric acid, Sulphuric acid and Caustic soda can be transported in a container made up
of: (MTN 2009)
(a) Aluminum (b) Copper (c) Zinc (d) Teflon
34. Which of the following elements does not show the phenomena of allotropy?
(MTN 2009,10)
(a) As (b) N (c) Sb (d) all of these
35. The gas emitted when Zn reduces Conc. HNO3 is: (MTN 2010)
(a) N2O (b) NO (c) NO2 (d) N2O5
36. When sugar is treated with conc. H2SO4 the sugar becomes black due to:
(LHR 13, BWP 08)
(a) Oxidation (b) Reduction
(c) Dehydration (d) Combustion
37. The catalyst used in manufacturing of H2SO4 by Contact process is:
(DGK, BWP 10, GRW 12)
(a) V2O5 (b) Fe2O3 (c) Ni (d) Pt
38. The given element gives NO gas with dil HNO3: (BWP 2011)
(a) Zn (b) Cu (c) Mg (d) Sn
39. Which of the following statement is incorrect? (DGK 2009)
(a) H2SO4 acts as a strong oxidizing agent (b) H2SO4 acts as a dehydrating agent
(c) H2SO4 acts as a strong reducing agent (d) H2SO4 acts as a sulphonating agent
40. Bone ash contains: (DGK 2009)
(a) 80% P (b) 90% P
(c) 80% Ca3(PO4)2 (d) 90% Ca3(PO4)2
41. NO2 is called: (DGK 2011)
(a) Nitrogen peroxide (b) Nitrous oxide
(c) Nitric oxide (d) Nitric anhydride
42. Which of the following metal reacts with HNO 3: (BWP 2012)
(a) Titanium (b) Iridium
(c) Platinum (d) Magnesiu
43. Ortho-phosphoric acid has melting point: (LHR 2012)
(a) 49 ͦC (b) 45 ͦC (c) 41 ͦC (d) 50 ͦC
44. Which of the following gas is evolved when copper reacts with dil. HNO 3?
(RWP 2009)
(a) N2O (b) NO
(c) NO2 (d) none of these
45. Which of the following gives brown ring with FeSO4? (LHR 2014)
(a) NO2 (b) NO (c) N2O3 (d) NO3
46. Which metal is rendered passive by HNO3? (SGD 2014)
(a) Pt (b) Co (c) Sn (d) Mn
47. Which of the following shows phosphorescence? (LHR 2008)
(a) Yellow phosphorous (b) white phosphorous
(c) black phosphorous (d) red phosphorous

ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10
c d b d c d a c a c
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
c b b a a d c b a d
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
d d c c a a b a a c
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
d a d b c c a b c b
41 42 43 44 45 46 47
a d c b b b b
 CHAPTER 5

THE HALOGENS AND THE NOBLE GAES

1. Halogen acid in gaseous state found as equilibrium mixture of monomers and hexamers
is:
(a) HF (b) HCl (c) HBr (d) HI
2. Color of which halogen is not correctly related:
(a) F2 Colorless gas (b) Cl2 greenish yellow gas
(c) Br2 Reddish brown liquid (d) I2 grayish black solid
3. Mark the element, which can displace three halogens from their compounds:
(a) F2 (b) Cl2 (c) Br2 (d) I2
4. The chemical formula of iodic acid is:
(a) HI (b) HIO (c) HIO2 (d) HIO3
5. The most inert element in noble gas group is:
(a) He (b) Ne (c) Ar (d) Kr
6. In which compound, the oxidation state of xenon is not +6:
(a) XeOF2 (b) XeOF4 (c) XeO3 (d) XeF6
7. Radon is formed by the removal of alpha particles from:
(a) Radium (b) Rhenium
(c) Rhodium (d) Rutherfordium
8. Which of the following gases is used in radio therapy for cancer treatment and
earthquake predictions?
(a) Ar (b) Ne (c) Xe (d) Rn
9. Chlorine heptaoxide (Cl2O7) reacts with water to form: (SGD 14, GRW 08, BWP 09)
(a) hypochlorous acid (b) perchloric acid
(c) chloric acid (d) chlorine and oxygen
10. The anhydride of HClO4 is:
(a) Cl2O7 (b) Cl2O5 (c) ClO3 (d) ClO2
11. Silver bromide is used in: (LHR 2010)
(a) Paints (b) Photography (c) Ceramics (d)
Gasoline
12. Which of the following acid is used for etching of glass:
(a) HF (b) HCl (c) HBr (d) HI
13. Oxidation state of chlorine in HClO4 is:
(a) -7 (b) +7 (c) -1 (d) +1
14. Which is used for making unshrinkable wool:
(a) HBr (b) I2 (c) Bleaching powder (d) HCI
15. _________ is used for earthquake prediction
(a) Rn (b) Kr (c) Xe (d) Ar
16. Which of the following compound is Carnallite:
(a) KCl. Mg (OH)2. 6H2O (b) KOH. MgCl2 6H2O
(c) KOH. Mg(OH)2 . 6H2O (d) KCl. MgCl2 .6H2O
17. Chlorine dioxide is a:
(a) Red gas (b) Pale yellow gas
(c) Orange gas (d) Green gas
18. Iodine pentoxide acts as a :
(a) Reducing Agent (b) Oxidizing Agent
(c) Dehydrating Agent (d) None of these
19. The Chemical formula of Perchloric acid is :
(a) HClO (b) HClO3 (c) HClO4 (d) HClO2
20. The oxidation states of Xe in its compounds range from:
(a) +2 to +8 (b) +3 to +5
(c) +11 to +8 (d) +3 to +7
21. The compounds of Xe are:
(a) Saturated (b) Unsaturated
(c) Stable (d) Unstable
22. Which of the following is used to fill fluorescent tubes:
(a) Krypton (b) Argon (c) Xenon (d) Neon
23. Which is the strongest acid:
(a) HI (b) HCl (c) HBr (d) HF
24. Which of the following halogens does not form oxyacids:
(a) Fluorine (b) Chlorine (c) Bromine (d) Iodine
25. Which amongst the following is the smallest atom?
(a) F (b) Cl (c) Br (d) I
26. Fluorine does not have positive oxidation states due to the absence of
(a) d-orbital (b) s-orbital (c) p-orbital (d) None
27. Which of the following has greatest reducing power:
(a) HI (b) HBr (c) HCl (d) HI
28. Which of the following elements show only one oxidation state in its compounds:
(a) F (b) Cl (c) Br (d) I
29. Which halogen is most electropositive:
(a) F (b) Cl (c) Br (d) I
30. Fluorine is a stronger oxidizing agent than chlorine in aqueous solution. This is
attributed to many factors except:
(a) Heat of dissociation (b) Electron affinity
(c) Ionization potential (d) Heat of hydration
31. Bleaching powder reacts with a few drops of conc. HCl to give:
(a) Chlorine (b) Hypochlorous acid (c) Calcium oxide (d) Oxygen
32. The bleaching action of chlorine is due to:
(a) Reduction (b) Hydrogenation
(c) Chlorination (d) Oxidation
33. Elements of which of the following groups will form anions most readily:
(a) Oxygen family (b) Nitrogen family
(c) Halogens (d) Alkali metals
34. The halogen that is most easily reduced:
(a) F2 (b) Cl2 (c) Br2 (d) I2
35. Which of the following is most volatile:
(a) HI (b) HBr (c) HCl (d) HF
36. Sodium chloride when heated with conc. H2SO4 and solid potassium dichromate gives:
(a) Chromic chloride (b) Chromyl chloride
(c) Chromous chloride (d) None of these
37. Which of the following is monoatomic gas:
(a) Oxygen (b) Neon
(c) Fluorine (d) Nitrogen
38. Which of the following fluorides of xenon is impossible?
(a) XeF2 (b) XeF3 (c) XeF4 (d) XeF6
39. The following shows zero oxidation state:
(a) Kr (b) Be (c) Al (d) Na
40. Which of the following noble gas is not present in atmosphere:
(a) He (b) Ne (c) Ar (d) Rn
41. The noble gas which was discovered first on the Sun and then on the earth:
(a) Argon (b) Xenon (c) Neon (d) Helium
42. The last member of the family of inert gases is:
(a) Argon (b) Radon (c) Xenon (d) Neon
43. XeF6 on partial hydrolysis produces:
(a) XeF2 (b) XeOF2 (c) XeOF4 (d) XeO3
44. Which of the following noble gases does not have an octet of electrons in its outermost
shell:
(a) Neon (b) Radon (c) Argon (d) Helium
45. The value of ionization potential for inert gases is:
(a) Zero (b) Low (c) High (d)
Negative
46. The lowest boiling point of helium is due to:
(a) Inertness
(b) Gaseous nature
(c) High polarizability
(d) Weak Van-der Waal’s forces between atoms
47. Which of the following statement is correct?
(LHR 2014)
(a) Bond energy of F2 is less than Cl2 (b) Bond energy of F2 is less than I2
(c) Bond energy of Cl2 is less than F2 (d) Bond energy of Cl2 is less than Br2
48. Goiter is caused due to the deficiency of:
(a) Flourine (b) Bromine (c) Chlorine (d) Iodine
49. Which hydrogen halide is the weakest acid in solution?
(BWP 14, FSD, LHR 13, GRW 13,14)
(a) HF (b) HBr (c) HI (d) HCl
50. The compound which causes burn to skin that heels slowly: 11 (LHR 2011)
(a) F2 (b) Cl2 (c) Br2 (d) Acid
ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
a a d a a a a d b a
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
c a b c a d b d c a
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
c b a a a a d a d c
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
a d c a d b b b a a
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
d b c d c d a d a c
 CHAPTER 6

TRANSITION ELEMENTS
1. Coordination number of Fe in [Fe(CN)6]-4 ion is:
(GRW 2010)
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) -4
2. In [Co(NH3)6]+3 the coordination number of cobalt is:
(a) Zero (b) Two (c) Four (d) Six
3. Which one of the following correctly explains the structure of [Cu(NH3)4]4+
(a) Square planar (b) Tetrahedral (c) Octahedral (d) Linear
4. Which one of the following compounds has oxidation state of chromium other than +6:
(a) K4CrO4 (b) K2Cr2O4 (c) Cr2O6 (d) CrCl3
5. In acidic medium, potassium dichromate acts as:
(a) Oxidizing agent (b) Reducing agent (c) An Acid (d) A base
6. Interstitial compounds are formed by:
(a) Fe (b) Ni (c) Co (d) All
7. Which element is always present with iron in steel:
(a) Aluminium (b) Copper (c) Carbon (d) Nickle
8. Which of the following transition elements show highest oxidation state:
(a) Mn (b) Cr (c) Cr (d) Zn
9. Following property of transition elements does not vary with a regular pattern:
(LHR 2011)
(a) Binding energy (b) Covalent radius
(c) Melting point (d) Cationic radius
10. The coordination number of transition element in [Co(NO2)3(NH3)3] is:
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 0
11. Group IB of transition elements contains:
(a) Zn, Cd, Hg (b) Cu, Au, Ag
(c) Fe, Ru, Os (d) Cr, Mo, w
12. The strength of binding energy of transition elements depends upon: (LHR 13, GRW
13,14, SGD 11)
(a) Number of electron pairs (b) Number of unpaired electrons
(c) Number of Neutrons (d) Number of protons
13. First transition series starts with:
(a) Y (b) Sc (c) Zn (d) Cd
14. Group IIB of transition elements contains
(a) Zn, Cd, Hg (b) Cu,Au, Ag
(c) Fe, Ru, Os (d) Cr, Mo, W
15. The shape of ions containing dsp3 hybridization is :
(a) Tetrahedral (b) Trigonal bipyramidal
(c) Octahedral (d) Square planar
16. Coordination number of iron in K3 [Fe(CN)6] is:
(a) 6 (b) 4 (c) 1 (d) 2
17. The paramagnetic behavior is the strongest for
(a) Fe and Mn (b) Fe3+ and Mn2+
(c) Fe and Mn
2+ 3+
(d) Fe2+ and Mn2+
18. The ore of iron:
(a) Fe3O4 (b) Fe2O2 (c) FeO (d) Fe(OH)2
19. The Chemical formula of Slag is:
(a) MnSiO (b) MnSiO2 (c) MnSiO3 (d) Mn2SiO2
20. Chromates are salts of:
(a) HCrO3 (b) H2CrO4 (c) HCr2O7 (d) H2CrO6
21. The color of all the chromates is:
(a) White (b) Red (c) Blue (d) Yellow
22. Which of the following can also be prepared by Stadeler’s process:
(a) H2SO4 (b) K2SO4 (c) KMnO4 (d) H2S
23. Medium carbon steel is used in making:
(a) Castings (b) Hammer
(c) Tubes (d) All of above
24. Which of following is a very powerful oxidant :
(a) Sulphates (b) Dichromates
(c) Nitrates (d) Chromates
25. Which of the following transition metal ions will have definite value of magnetic
moment:
(a) Sc3+ (b) Ti3+ (c) Cu+ (d) Zn2+
26. Which of the following metal exhibits more than one oxidation states:
(a) Na (b) Mg (c) Fe (d) Al
27. The equilibrium Cr2O72- ↔ 2CrO42- is shifted to right in:
(a) An acidic medium (b) A basic medium
(c) A neutral medium (d) It does not exist
28. Bessemer converter is used in the manufacture of:
(a) Pig iron (b) Steel
(c) Wrought iron (d) Cast iron
29. The number of unpaired electrons in Ferrous ion (Z = 26) is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 5
30. Corrosion of iron can be prevented by coating the surface with:
(a) Zn (b) Sn
(c) Ni (d) Any of the above
31. Choose the correct answer about transition elements:
(a) Transition elements have low melting points
(b) Transition elements do not have catalytic activity
(c) Transition elements exhibit variable oxidation states
(d) Transition elements exhibit inert pair effect
32. The total number of inner transition elements in the periodic table is:
(a) 10 (b) 14 (c) 28 (d) 30
33. The number of unpaired electrons in Mn2+(Z=25) is:
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2
34. The number of unpaired electrons in Fe3+ (Z = 26) are
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 4
35. In the manufacture of steel by open hearth process, the slag obtained is:
(a) CaSiO3 (b) FeSiO3 (c) MnSiO3 (d) All
36. Which of the following is not an element:
(a) Graphite (b) Diamond
(c) 22-Carat gold (d) Rhombic sulphur
37. How many moles of acidified FeSO4 solution can be completely oxidized by one mole of
KMnO4:
(a) 10 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 2
38. An element in +3 oxidation state has the electronic configuration (Ar) 3d 3. Its atomic
number is:
(a) 24 (b) 23 (c) 22 (d) 21
39. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired d-electrons?
(a) Zn (b) Fe2+ (c) Ni3+ (d) Cu+
40. Group VI B of transition elements contains:
(a) Zn,Cd,Hg (b) Fe, Fu, Os
(c) Cr, Mo, W (d) Mn, Te, Re
41. Formula of chromyl chloride is: (RWP 08, SGD 12)
(a) Cr2OCl2 (b) CrO2Cl2 (c) Cr2OCl3 (d) CrOCl2
42. The geometrical shape of PCl5 is: (RWP 2009)
(a) Octahedral (b) Square planar
(c) Tetrahedral (d) Trigonal bipyramidal
43. Coinage metals are present in the periodic table in group: (MTN 2008)
(a) I-A (b) I-B (c) II-A (d) II-B
44. PCl5 has hybridization: (MTN 2009)
(a) sp (b) dsp2 (c) spd2 (d) dsp3
45. The chemical formula of hematite is: (MTN 09, BWP 12)
(a) Fe2O3 (b) Fe3O4
(c) FeO (d) Fe2O3.3H2O
46. There are ____ types of ligands in [PtCl(NO2)(NH3)4]-2 (MTN 2010)
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 7
47. Which of the following elements is paramagnetic: (BWP 2010)
(a) Zinc (b) Iron (c) Scandium (d) Copper
48. The purest form of iron is: (BWP 2011)
(a) Wrought iron (b) Pig iron (c) Cast iron (d) Steel
49. The central metal atom along with ligand is called: (DGK 2008)
(a) Coordination number (b) Coordination sphere
(c) Chelates (d) none of these
50. Mild steel contains carbon: (LHR 2012)
(a) 0.1 to 0.2% (b) 0.2 to 0.7%
(c) 0.2 to 0.6% (d) 0.1 to 0.6%
51. Percentage of carbon in steel is: (RWP 2012)
(a) 0.25 to 2.5% (b) 0.12 to 0.20%
(c) 3.0 to 4.5% (d) 2.0 to 4.5%
52. Which of the following species has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?
(SGD,GRW 2015)
(a) O2 (b) O2+ (c) O2- (d) O2-2
53. Which of the following species has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?
(DGK,BWP 2014)
(a) Fe (b) Fe+2 (c) Mn+2 (d) Cr+3
54. Coordination number of Cu in [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 is: (LHR 2014)
(a) Zero (b) Two (c) Four (d) Six
 ANSWER KEY

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
c d a b a d c a d c
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
b b b a b a b a c b
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
d c a b b c b b c d
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
c c a a d d b a b c
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 48 50
b c b d a a b a b a
51 52 53 54
a a c c
 CHAPTER 7

FUNDAMENTAL PRICIPLES OF ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

1. The total coal resources of Pakistan estimated by geological survey are:

(a) 184 billion tonnes (b) 184 million tonnes
(c) 841 billion tonnes (d) 184 tonnes
2. How many isomers are possible for C6H14:
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
3. Which one of the following is an isomer of Dimetly ether:
(a) (CH3)2 CHOH (b) CH3CH2OH (c) CHO-CHO (d) None
4. The hardest form of coal is:
(a) Bituminous (b) Sub-bituminous coal (c) Anthracite (d) Lignite
5. Which one of the following compounds is heterocyclic?
(a) Anthracene (b) Phenol (c) Pyridine (d) Aniline
6. Which molecule has a tetrahedral shape?
(a) CH3-CH3 (b) CH2=CH2 (c) CHΞCH (d) None
7. The formula of aniline is:
(a) C6H5 (b) C6H5-NH-C6H5
(c) C6H5-NH2 (d) C6H5-NO2
8. The formula of cyclopropane is:
(a) C3H8 (b) C3H4 (c) C3H5 (d) C3H6
9. The Octane number is 100 for:
(a) n-Octane (b) n-Heptane
(c) Iso-Octane (d) n-Hexane
10. Homologues of alkanes differ from each other by:
(a) CH2 group (b) CH3 group
(c) CH4 group (d) CH group
11. The major components of coal gas are:
(a) H2 and CH4 (b) Ethane and CO
(c) H2 and CO (d) H2, CH4 and CO
12. The compound in which two alkyl groups are attached to carbonyl group is called:
(a) Ether (b) Alcohol
(c) Ketone (d) Aldehyde
13. Carbonyl group is present in:
(a) Aldehyde (b) Ketone
(c) Alcohols (d) both a and b
14. The Chemical formula of urea is:
(a) (NH4)2CO (b) (NH2)4C
(c) (NH2)2CO (d) (NH4)2CO3
15. The fractional distillation of petroleum yields only:
(a) 20% Gasoline (b) 30% Gasoline
(c) 15% Gasoline (d) 10% Gasoline
16. Antiknocking agent is:
(a) (C2H5)2Pb (b) (C2H5)4Pb
(c) (C2H5)3Pb (d) (C2H5)4Pd
17. Father of Organic Chemistry is:
(a) Faraday (b) Hoffman
(c) F. Wohler (d) Democritus
18. The example of sp hybridization is:
(a) Methane (b) Benzene (c) Ethene (d) Ethyne
19. The number of chain isomers of Pentane are:
(a) Three (b) Two (c) One (d) Zero
20. Metamerism is only shown by:
(a) Ethers (b) Ketones
(c) Both a and b (d) every organic family
21. Octane number 100 is given to:
(a) n – octane (b) n – Heptane
(c) 2,2,4 – Trimethylpentane (Iso-octane) (d) 2,2,4 – Trimethyl octane
22. The type of hybridization of carbon atom in methane is:
(a) sp (b) sp2
(c) sp 3
(d) None of these
23. The boiling point range of petroleum ether is: (GRW 2007)
(a) 5 – 20oC (b) 10 – 30oC
(c) 20 – 60oC (d) 30 – 90oC
24. Which one of the following is not a heterocyclic compound? (LHR 2008)
(a) Thiophene (b) Anthracene (c) Furan (d) Pyrrol
25. The state of hybridization of carbon atom in ethane is: (GRW 2008,12)
(a) sp3 (b) sp2 (c) sp (d) dsp2
26. Geometric isomerism is present in: (GRW 2010)
(a) Methane (b) Ethane
(c) Propane (d) 2-Butene
27. Double bond consists of:
(a) Two sigma bonds (b) One sigma one pi bond
(c) One sigma and two pi bonds (d) Two pi bonds
28. Which set of hybrid orbitals has planar triangular shape?
(a) sp3 (b) sp (c) sp2 (d) dsp2
29. The type of hybridization of carbon atom in methane is: (LHR 2007,09)
(a) sp3 (b) sp (c) sp2 (d) dsp2
30. The chemist who synthesized urea from ammonium cyanate was: (FSD 2014)
(a) G.N. Lewis (b) Fredrick Wohler
(c) Kolbe (d) Berzelius
31. The process used to improve the quality of gasoline is called: (LHR 2014)
(a) Thermal cracking (b) Reforming
(c) Steam cracking (d) Combustion
32. An isomer of C2H5OH is: (SGD, GRW 2015)
(a) CH3OH (b) (C2H5)2O
(c) CH3OCH3 (d) CH3COCH3
33. Linear shape is associated with which set of hybrid orbitals?
(MTN 08,13, SGD, FSD 09, GRW, BWP 09,15)
(a) sp3 (b) sp (c) sp2 (d) dsp2
34. Ethers show the phenomena of: (SGD 14, LHR 14,15, FSD 11)
(a) Metamerism (b) Functional group isomerism
(c) Position isomerism (d) cis-trans isomerism
35. Carbon atom in following is sp2 hybridized (LHR 2011)
(a) CH3CN (b) CHΞCH (c) HCOOH (d) CH2Cl2
36. The isomerism shown by alkanes is: (LHR 2011)
(a) Skeletal (b) Position
(c) Geometric (d) Metamerism
37. Hybridization of carbon in carbonyl group is: (FSD, SGD 15, RWP 10)
(a) sp3 (b) sp (c) sp2 (d) dsp2
38. How many isomers are there in pentane? (FSD 09, LHR 12, GRW 11)
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 2
39. Vital force theory was rejected by: (LHR 2012,14)
(a) G.N. Lewis (b) F.Wholer
(c) Greek Philosophers (d) Scientists of 20th century
40. Select one which shows cis-trans isomerism.
(FSD 2010)
(a) Cl2C=CCl2 (b) CH2=CH2
(c) ClCH=CHCl (d) Br2C=CBr2
41. Which of the following compound may exist as cis-trans isomer?
(a) 1-butene (b) 2-butene (c) Cyclopropane (d) Acetone
42. Urea belongs to which class of compounds? (RWP 2009)
(a) Imides (b) Amines
(c) Amides (d) carboxylic acid
43. In ethane, each carbon atom is: (GRW, FSD 12, LHR 10, DGK 09)
(a) sp3 hybridized (b) sp2 hybridized
(c) sp hybridized (d) unhybridized
44. The hybridization of carbon atom in HCHO is: (MTN, RWP 2011)
(a) sp (b) sp2 (c) sp3 (d) dsp
45. Geometric isomerism in alkenes is due to: (MTN 2008)
(a) Oscillation of H atoms between two polyvalent carbon atoms
(b) Optical rotation due to multiple bonds
(c) Free rotation about C=C bond
(d) Restricted rotation about C=C bond
46. Metamerism is shown by:
(a) Amines (b) Ethers
(c) neither a nor b (d) Both a and b
47. Dimethyl ether and Ethyl alcohol are called: (MTN 2009)
(a) Metamers (b) Functional group isomers
(c) Position isomers (d) cis-trans isomers
48. The self-linking property of elements is: (MTN 2009)
(a) Aromatization (b) Polymerization (c) Association
(d) Catenation
49. The carbon atoms in propene are: (MTN 2010)
(a) sp (b) sp2
(c) sp3 and sp2 (d) sp2 and sp
50. Peat before conversion into coal is converted into: (BWP 2008)
(a) Anthracite (b) Asphalt
(c) Lignite (d) all of these
51. Tetra methyl lead is added to petrol to: (BWP 2010)
(a) Prevent its freezing point (b) Increase its boiling point
(c) Prevent knocking (d) Increase its viscosity
52. The crude petroleum is separated in fractions by: (DGK 2008)
(a) Filtration (b) Fractional distillation
(c) Steam distillation (d) Fractions sublimation
53. Carbon atom in Dimethyl ether is: (DGK 2009)
(a) sp3 hybridized (b) sp2 hybridized
(c) sp hybridized (d) unhybridized
54. Number of isomers of C4H10 is: (DGK 2010)
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
55. In t-butyl alcohol, the tertiary carbon is bonded to: (MTN, SGD 2015)
(a) Three hydrogen atoms (b) Two hydrogen atoms
(c) One hydrogen atom (d) No hydrogen atom
 ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10
a a b c c a c d c a
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
d c d c a b c d a c
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
c c c b a d b c a b
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
b c b a c a b 3 b c
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
b c a b d b b d c c
51 52 53 54 55
c b b b d
 CHAPTER 8

ALIPHATIC HYDROCARBONS

1. An Aldehyde is reduced to Alkane with:

(a) KOH+N2H4 (b) NaOH
(c) CaO and NaOH (d) Co(OH)2
2. Which of the following compound will not form Metal alkynide:
(a) Ethyne (b) Propyne
(c) 1- Butyne (d) 2-Butyne
3. When a mixture of Ethene and air is passed over heated silver under pressure we get:
(a) Superoxide (b) Epoxide
(c) Ozonide (d) Benzene
4. Ethyl chloride when boiled with alcoholic KOH gives:
(a) Acetylene (b) Ethylene
(c) Ether (d) Ethyl alcohol
5. What type of reaction occurs between Ethene and hydrogen:
(a) Addition (b) Substitution
(c) Oxidation (d) Dehydration
6. Which ion is most stable:
(a) CH3+ (b) CH3-CH2+
(c) (CH3)2CH +
(d) (CH3)3C+
7. Mustard gas is:
(a) Highly viscous liquid (b) Low boiling liquid
(c) High boiling liquid (d) Colourless gas
8. Select the compound which has acidic hydrogen:
(a) Methane (b) Ethene
(c) Butadiene (d) Acetylene
9. The characteristic reactions of alkanes are:
(a) Polymerization (b) Addition
(c) Elimination (d) Substitution
10. Polymerization of three molecules of acetylene while passing through Cu tube at 300 oC
gives:
(a) Benzene (b) n-Hexane
(c) Naphthalene (d) Cyclohexane
11. The characteristic reactions of alkenes are:
(a) Polymerization (b) Addition
(c) Elimination (d) Substitution
12. The presence of pi bond in a molecule is the sign of :
(a) Unsaturation (b) Inertness
(c) Stabilty (d) Saturation
13. Vinyl acetylene combines with HCl to yield:
(a) Neoprene rubber (b) Chloroprene
(c) Poly vinyl acetylene (d) White ppt.
14. CH3 is an example of:
(a) Alkenyl group (b) Alkane series
(c) Alkyl group (d) None of these
15. When Sodium Salts of fatty acid are heated with Sodalime, we get alkane along with:
(a) Na4C (b) H2O
(c) CO2+ N2 (d) Na2CO3
16. For each double bond, the heat of hydrogenation of Alkene is:
(a) 110 K.J mol-1 (b) 130 K.J mol-1
(c) 115 K.J mol -1
(d) 120 K.J mol-1
17. The alkenes react with aqueous solution of halogen acid to form:
(a) Alcohols (b) Aldehyde
(c) Alkanes (d) Alky halides
18. Which of following is used as a general anesthetic:
(a) Ethane (b) Propane
(c) Ethenol (d) Ethene
19. Alkyl halides on treatment with active metals like Zn yield:
(a) Alkene (b) Alkyne
(c) AIkane (d) Alcohol
20. Which of following is prepared by oxidation of Ethane:
(a) Acetone (b) Ethyl alcohol
(c) Formic acid (d) None
21. Acetylene gives:
(a) White ppt. with ammonical AgNO3 and red ppt. with ammonical Cu(NO3)2
(b) With ppt. with ammonical AgNO3 and red ppt. with ammonical Cu2Cl2
(c) White. ppt. with both
(d) Red ppt. with both
22. The order of reactivity of halogens in aliphatic substitution reactions:
(a) Br2 > Cl2>F2 (b) Cl2 > Br2 >F2
(c) F2 > Cl2>Br2 (d) F2 > Br2 >CI2
23. The IUPAC name of the compound having the formula (CH3)3 C – CH = CH2 is:
(a) 1, 1 – Dimethyl-3-butene (b) 1, 1, 1 – Trimethyl-3 propene
(c) 3, 3 – Dimethyl-1-butene (d) 3, 3,3 – Trimethyl-1-propene
24. For preparing a symmetrical alkane, a concentrated aqueous solution of sodium or
potassium salt of saturated carboxylic acid is subjected to:
(a) Hydrolysis (b) Oxidation
(c) Hydrogenation (d) Electrolysis
25. The reaction/method that does not give an alkane is
(a) Catalytic hydrogenation of Alkene (b) Wurtz reaction
(c) Hydrolysis of alkyl magnesium bromide (d) Dehydrohalogenation of an alkyl halide
26. A fuel has the same knocking property as a mixture of 70% Iso-octane (2, 2, 4-
Trimethylpentane) and 30% n-Heptane by volume, the octane number of that fuel is:
(a) 100 (b) 70
(c) 50 (d) 40
27. Hydrocarbon which is liquid at room temperature is:
(a) Hexane (b) Butane
(c) Ethane (d) Propane
28. Marsh gas was the name given to:
(a) Methane (b) Ethane
(c) Propane (d) Butane
29. Each different compound should have a different name” was published by IUPAC
system of nomenclature in:
(a) 1892 (b) 1830
(c) 1947 (d) 1979
30. Write the name of following Alkene CH2 = CH- CH = CH2
(a) 1, 3-Butadiene (b) Buta -1 , 3 diene
(c) Both a & b (d) None
31. CnH2n is the general formula of:
(a) Alkanes (b) Alkenes
(c) Alkynes (d) None of above
32. An Alkane is produced when an Alkyl halide reacts with Zinc in the presence of a
catalyst; the reaction is called:
(a) Sabatier-Sendern’s reaction (b) Wurtz Synthesis
(c) Frankland’s Reaction (d) Clemmenson’s reduction
33. The method in which alkane is prepared by Alkyl halide in the presence of Palladium
charcoal, is:
(a) Hydrolysis (b) Electrolysis
(c) Hydrogenation (d) Hydrogenolysis
34. Kolbe’s method is not useful for the production of:
(a) Methane (b) Ethane
(c) Butane (d) Hexane
35. Kolbe’s method has limited synthetic applications due to:
(a) Use of electrical energy (b) Slow reaction
(c) Number of side products (d) Salts used are very expensive
36. The reaction in which a Ketone is reduced to the alkane is called:
(a) Kolbe’s electrolysis (b) Clemmensen’s reduction
(c) Cannizzaro (d) None
37. Alkanes containing carbons C-18 onwards are:
(a) Gases (b) Liquids
(c) Waxy solids (d) Solids
38. Alkanes are soluble in all except:
(a) Benzene (b) Ether
(c) Water (d) Carbon tetra chloride
39. The property of an alkane which does not increase with increase in molar mass:
(a) Boiling point (b) Melting point
(c) Density (d) Solubility
40. The low reactivity of alkanes is based upon:
(a) Inertness of sigma-bond (b) Non-polarity of the bonds
(c) Both a and b (d) None of above
41. Complete combustion of alkane yields:
(a) CO2 +H2O (b) CO2 + Heat
(c) CO2 +H2O + CO (d) CO2 +H2O + Heat
42. The major reaction occurring in the engines of automobiles is:
(a) Oxidation (b) Reduction
(c) Combustion (d) Decomposition
43. Incomplete oxidation of alkanes yields:
(a) CO2 & carbon black (b) CO2 +CO
(c) CO+H2O+carbon black (d) CO2 +heat
44. The order of reactivity of halogen acids towards alkenes:
(a) HCl > HBr >HI (b) HBr >HCl>HI
(c) HCl > HBr>HF (d) HI > HBr >HCl
45. Raney – Nickel is the alloy of Ni with:
(a) Pt (b) Al
(c) Cu (d) Pd
46. Polymerization of Ethene to Polyethylene take place at pressure of 100 atm and a
temperature of:
(a) 200OC (b) 400OC
(c) 600 C
O
(d) 800OC
47. During the preparation of alkynes the active metals that reacts with Tetrahalo-alkane
is:
(a) Zn (b) Mg
(c) Both a and b (d) None
48. Alkynes are colorless & odorless except:
(a) Acetylene (b) Propyne
(c) Butyne (d) Pentyne
49. An Alkyne having Carbon atoms =15 is most probably a:
(a) Gas (b) Liquid
(c) Solid (d) Waxy solid
50. The reaction of Acetylene with water in H2SO4 and HgSO4 yields:
(a) Vinyl alcohol (b) Acetaldehyde
(c) Mixture of both a and b (d) None
51. The gas used for illumination:
(a) Methane (b) Ethene
(c) Ethyne (d) None
52. The Alkynides are used for the ----------of alkynes
(a) Preparation (b) Purification
(c) Separation (d) All of above
53. Formula of chloroform is:
(a) CH3Cl (b) CH2Cl2
(c) CHCl3 (d) CCl4

ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10
a d b b a d c d d a
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
b a b c d d d d c b
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
b c c d d b a a c c
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
b c d a c b c c d c
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
d c c d b b c a c c
51 52 53
a d c
 CHAPTER 9

AROMATIC HYDROCARONS

1. Most common reactions of benzene and its derivatives are:

(a) Electrophilic addition reactions (b) Electrophilic substitution reactions
(c) Nucleophilic addition reactions (d) Nucleophilic substitution reactions
2. Benzene + Ozone →Y, in this sequence Y is:
(a) Benzene monozonide (b) Benzene diozonide
(c) Benzene triozonide (d) Succinic acid
3. Which species represents the electrophile in aromatic Nitration:
(a) NO2 (b) NO2+ (c) NO+ (d) NO3
4. Heating a mixture of Sodium benzoate and soda lime gives:
(a) Benzene (b) Methane
(c) Sodium benzoate (d) Calcium benzoate
5. Which of the following species participate in Sulphonation of benzene ring:
(a) SO3-2 (b) S2O3-2 (c) SO3 (d) SO2
6. The compound prepared by electrophilic substitution reaction of benzene is:
(a) Acetophenone (b) Glyoxal
(c) Cyclohexane (d) Hexabromo cyclohexane
7. The term ‘Aromatic’ was derived from:
(a) Greek word (b) Latin (c) Russian (d) English
8. Which compound was recognized as the parent member of aromatic compounds:
(a) Aniline (b) Phenol (c) Benzene (d) Toluene
9. Which one of the following is not monocyclic aromatic hydrocarbon:
(a) Benzaldehyde (b) Benzoic acid
(c) Benzene sulphonic acid (d) Anthracene
10. In which one of the following compound rings are not fused together at ortho positions:
(a) Phenanthrene (b) Naphthalene
(c) Diphenyemethane (d) Anthracene
11. Toluene is called:
(a) Hydroxyl benzene (b) Methyl benzene (c) Ethyl benzene (d) None
12. Substituted phenyl groups are called:
(a) Aryl groups (b) Phenyl groups
(c) Acyl groups (d) Alkyl groups
13. Benzene was discovered by Michael Faraday’s in:
(a) 1824 (b) 1825 (c) 1826 (d) 1827
14. The empirical formula of Benzene was determined by:
(a) IR spectra (b) U.V
(c) Elemental analysis (d) NMR spectra
15. How many molecules of chlorine add to benzene in the presence of sunlight:
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four
16. The bond angles in benzene ring are:
(a) 90o (b) 120O (c) 145O (d) None
17. All C-H bond lengths of benzene ring is:
(a) 1.07AO (b) 1.09AO (c) 1.08AO (d) None
18. A six membered ring containing one double bond is called:
(a) Cyclohexene (b) Cyclohexane (c) Benzene (d) None
19. Hybridization of each carbon atom in benzene ring is:
(a) sp (b) sp2 (c) sp3 (d) dsp2
20. The stability of aromatic compounds _____ with the increase in the number of its
resonance structures:
(a) Decreases (b) Increases
(c) Remains constant (d) partially decreases
21. Benzene is obtained from Benzene sulphonic acid by treating it with:
(a) HCl (b) NaOH (c) H2O (d) NaHCO3
22. Which Electrophilic substitution reaction is too vigorous to control:
(a) Chlorination (b) Bromination
(c) Iodination (d) Fluorination
23. Sulphuric acid generates nitronium ion by reacting it with:
(a) Nitric acid (b) Nitrogen gas
(c) Nitrous acid (d) Potassium nitrate
24. Benzene reacts with ozone and gives:
(a) Glycerin (b) Glyoxal
(c) Maleic anhydride (d) Benzoic acid
25. Alkyl benzene are readily oxidized by acidified:
(a) KMnO4 (b) K2CO3 (c) MnO2 (d) Mn
26. The electron releasing effect of Methyl group is significant and it makes the ring a good:
(a) Electrophilic (b) Nucleophilic
(c) Nucleophobic (d) Hydrophobic
27. Meta directing groups decrease the -------- of benzene ring:
(a) Melting point (b) Chemical reactivity (c) Density (d) None
28. Which class of compound is most reactive:
(a) Alkane (b) Alkene
(c) Alkyne (d) Benzene
29. Which of the following acid can be used as a catalyst in Friedel Craft’s reactions:
(a) AlCl3 (b) HNO3 (c) BeCl2 (d) NaCl
30. Aromatic hydrocarbons are the derivatives of:
(a) Normal series of paraffin (b) Alkenes (c) Benzene (d) None
31. Which one of the following is (m-xylene):
(a) 1,2-Dimethyl benzene (b) 1,3-Dimethyl benzene
(c) 1,5-Dimethyl benzene (d) 1,4-Dimethyl benzene
32. The Nitration of benzene takes place when it is heated with a mixture of conc. HNO3
and conc. H2SO4 at 50OC in ratio of :
(a) 1:2 (b) 1:1 (c) 1:3 (d) 2:1
33. The three alternate single and double bonds in the benzene ring are called:
(a) Conjugate bonds (b) Resonating bonds
(c) Both a and b (d) None of above
34. The difference between amount of heat actually released and the experimentally
calculated heat is called:
(a) Bond energy (b) Resonance energy
(c) Binding energy (d) None
35. All are ortho & Para directing groups except:
(a) -X (b) -OH (c) -NR3 (d) -NH2
36. Substitution of halogens in the benzene ring requires which catalyst?
(a) NaCl (b) FeCl3
(c) SiO2 (d) Organo - nickel
37. Which one of the following does not decolorize KMnO4?
(a) Alkene (b) Alkyne (c) Benzene (d) All
38. Benzene is prepared from n-Hexane in the presence of which catalyst?
(a) Cr2O3 (b) Al2O3
(c) SiO2 (d) Fused mixture of a, b and c
39. Benzene cannot undergo:
(a) Substitution reactions (b) Additional reaction
(c) Oxidation reaction (d) Elimination reaction
40. Ortho, para derivatives are obtained by halogenations of: (LHR 2011)
(a) Nitrobenzene (b) Toluene
(c) Benzaldehyde (d) Benzene
41. Benzene is prepared from Cyclohexane by the process called: (LHR 2008)
(a) Hydrogenation (b) Dehydration
(c) Dehydrogenation (d) None of these
42. The conversion of n-Hexane into benzene by heating in the presence of Pt is called:
(a) Isomerism (b) Aromatization
(c) Dealkylation (d) Rearrangement
43. Which compound is the most reactive one?
(a) Benzene (b) Ethene (c) Ethane (d) Ethyne
44. What is the molecular formula of TNT?
(a) C6H2(NO2)3CH3 (b) C6H2(NO2)3CH3
(c) C6H2(NO2)3C2H5 (d) C6H2(NO2)3C3H7
45. Molecule of benzene contain (GRW 2011,14)
(a) Three double bonds (b) Two double bonds
(c) One double bond (d) Delocalized л-electron charge
46. Nitration of Toluene takes place at:
(a) m-position (b) p-position
(c) 0-position (d) both ‘o’ and ‘p’ positions
47. Resonance energy of benzene is: (LHR 2012)
(a) 150.5 KJ/mol (b) 140.5 KJ/mol
(c) 155 KJ/mol (d) 145 KJ/mol
48. In which compound benzene rings are isolated?
(a) Diphenyl methane (b) Naphthalene
(c) Anthracene (d) Phenanthrene
49. Presence of double or triple bond is a sign of: (SGD 2011)
(a) Un-saturation (b) Saturation
(c) Addition (d) Substitution
50. Benzene reacts with alkyl and acyl halides in the presence of AlCl3. This reaction is:
(RWP 2008)
(a) Freidel Crafts reaction (b) Aldol condensation
(c) Halogenations reaction (d) Nitration reaction

ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
b c b a c a a c d c
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
b a b c c b b a b b
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
c d a b a b b b a c
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
b b c b c b c d d b
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
c b b a d d a a a a
 CHAPTER 10

ALKYL HALIDES

1. Electrophile amongst the following is:

(a) NH3 (b) H2O (c) BF3 (d) Cl2
2. SN2 mechanism involves:
(a) 1st order kinetics (b) 2nd order kinetics
(c) 3rd order kinetics (d) Zero order kinetics
3. Alkyl magnesium halide (Grignard’s reagent) when hydrolyzed yields:
(a) Alkane (b) Alkene (c) Alkyne (d) Alkyl
halide
4. Tertiary alcohols are obtained by treating Grignard’s reagent with:
(a) Aldehyde (b) Ketone (c) Water (d) Amine
5. Alkyl Halides are:
(a) Monohaloalkanes (b) Dihaloalkanes (c) Polyhaloalkanes (d) All
6. Which substance is used to convert Grignard’s reagent to alkane:
(a) H2O (b) NH3 (c) Ethyl alcohol (d) All of
these
7. For the reaction C2H5OH+ HX → C2H5-X + H2O the order of reactivity of HX is:
(a) HBr > Hl > HCl (b) HI > HCl > HBr
(c) HCl > HBr > Hl (d) HI > HBr > HCl
8. Carbanions are:
(a) Electrophiles (b) Nucleophiles (c) Group of atoms (d) Free
radical
9. Secondary alkyl halides follow
(a) First order kinetics (b) Second order kinetics
(c) Both a and b (d) none of these
10. (CH3)3CBr preferably undergoes:
(a) SN2 reactions (b) SN1 reactions
(c) both a and b (d) none of these
11. Ethyl chloride reacts with alcoholic KOH to give:
(a) C2H4 (b) C2H5OH (c) C2H6 (d) None of
these
12. When an alcohol reacts with SOCl2 an alkyl halide is formed what are two other
products:
(a) SO2 and HCl (b) SO2 and H2O
(c) HCl and H2O (d) H2S and HCl
13. Which of the following is not a nulceophile:
(a) OH- (b) NH3 (c) C2H5O- (d) Br+
14. Which of the following reactions is not shown by an alkyl halide:
(a) SN1 (b) SN2 (c) Addition (d) Elimination
15. In primary alkyl halides, the halogen atom is attached to a carbon which is further
attached to:
(a) One Carbon atoms (b) Two Carbon atoms
(c) Three Carbon atoms (d) Four Carbon atoms
16. Reaction of following with Grignard’s reagent can give primary alcohol: (LHR 2011,14)
(a) Epoxide (b) Peroxide (c) Super oxide (d) Hydrogen
17. SN1 reactions are easily given by: (LHR 2012)
(a) Primary alkyl halide (b) Secondary alkyl halide
(c) Secondary alcohols (d) Tertiary alkyl halides
18. Thionyl chloride reacts with alcohol to form:
(a) Mustard gas (b) Alkyl halide (c) Aldehyde (d) Alcohol
19. Which of the following is a Sodium Lead alloy:
(a) NaPb (b) Na2Pb (c) Na3Pb (d) Na4Pb
20. Secondary alcohol is formed when Grignard’s reagent reacts with:
(a) Propanone (b) Methanal
(c) Ethanal (d) Ethanoic acid
21. When Grignard reagent reacts with Epoxide, it forms:
(a) 1- Alkanal (b) 1- Alkanol (c) Carboxylic acid (d) None
22. Which of the following reagent cannot be used for preparing alkyl chloride from alcohol:
(a) HCl+ anhydrous ZnCl2 (b) NaCl (c) PCl5 (d) SOCl2
23. Carbon atom holding halogen in Alkyl halide is:
(a) sp2- hybridized (b) sp3-hybridized
(c) sp-hybridized (d) sp3d- hybridized
24. Which of the following does not give Iodoform test:
(a) Ethanol (b) Ethanal
(c) Acetophenone (d) Benzophenone
25. C-X bond is strongest in:
(a) CH3Cl (b) CH3Br (c) CH3F (d) CH3I
26. The alkyl halide is converted into an alcohol directly by:
(a) Addition (b) Substitution
(c) Dehydrohalogenation (d) Elimination
27. Iodoethane reacts with sodium in ether, the product formed is:
(a) Ethane (b) Ethene (c) Butene (d) Butane
28. 1, 3 – Dibromopropane reacts with metallic zinc to form:
(a) Propene (b) Propane (c) Cyclopropane (d) Hexane
29. Ethyl alcohol gives Ethyl chloride with the help of:
(a) SOCl2 (b) NaCl (c) Cl2 (d) KCl
30. Butane nitrile is formed by reaction of KCN with:
(a) Propyl alcohol (b) Butyl chloride (c) Butyl alcohol (d) Propyl
Chloride
31. Tetrabomoethane on treatment with alcoholic zinc gives:
(a) Ethyl bromide (b) Ethane (c) Ethane (d) Ethyne
32. SN1 reaction of Alkyl halides leads to:
(a) Retention of configuration (b) Inversion of configuration
(c) Both a and b (d) None of these
33. Which one of the following will have the maximum dipole moment:
(a) CH3F (b) CH3Cl (c) CH3Br (d) CH3l
34. The reaction of an Alkyl halide with RCOOAg produces:
(a) Ester (b) Ether
(c) Aldehyde (d) Carboxylic acid
35. The order of a typical SN2 reaction is: (FSD 2012)
(a) Primary alkyl halide (b) Secondary alkyl halide
(c) Secondary alcohols (d) Tertiary alkyl halides
36. Most reactive Alkyl halide towards SN1 reaction is:
(a) n-Butyl chloride (b) Sec-Butyl chloride
(c) ter-Butyl chloride (d) Allyl chloride
37. Which responds +vely towards Iodoform test:
(a) 1-Butene (b) Butanal
(c) Acetic acid (d) 2-Pentanone
38. Electrophile among the following is:
(a) NH3 (b) H2O (c) BF3 (d) Cl2
39. The order of a typical SN2 reaction is:
(FSD 2010)
(a) Zero (b) First (c) Second (d) Third
40. Which of the following is not a Nulceophile?
(a) H2O (b) H2S (c) BF3 (d) NH3
41. In which two mechanisms, the first step involved is same:
(a) E1 and E2 (b) E2 and SN2
(c) E1 and SN1 (d) SN1 and SN2
42. SN2 reactions are:
(a) Unimolecular (b) Bimolecular
(c) Trimolecular (d) Tetramolecular
43. Elimination bimolecular reaction involves kinetics: (LHR 2014)
(a) 1st order (b) 2nd order
(c) 3rd order (d) Zero order
44. In primary alkyl halides, the halogen atom attached to a carbon atom is further
attached to how many carbon atoms:
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) One (d) Four
45. Elimination bimolecular reaction involves:
(a) First order kinetics (b) Second order kinetics
(c) Third order kinetics (d) Zero order kinetics
46. Ethyl magnesium bromide reacts with water to form:
(a) Ethane (b) Methane
(c) Propane (d) n-butane
47. Primary alcohol is obtained by treating Grignard’s Regent with:
(a) HCHO (b) CH3CHO (c) CH3COCH3 (d) CO2
48. In SN2 mechanism, the hybridization of carbon atom changes from: (RWP 2009)
(a) sp (b) sp2
(c) dsp 2
(d) none of these
49. Tertiary alcohol is obtained by treating Grignard reagent with: (RWP 2009)
(a) HCHO (b) CH3CHO (c) CH3COCH3 (D) CO2
50. Order and molecularity of SN2 reaction of alkyl halide is: (RWP 2011)
(a) 1,2 (b) 2,1 (c) 2,2 (d) 0,1

ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
c b a b a d d b c b
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
a a d c a a d d b a
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
b b b b c b d c a d
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
d c a a d c d c c c
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
c b b c b a a d c c
 CHAPTER 11

ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS AND ETHERS

1. Which compound will have maximum repulsion with H2O?
(a) C6H6 (b) C2H5OH (c)
CH3CH2CH2OH (d) C6H5OH
2. When Ether is protonated, the conjugate acid formed is called:
(a) A Carbonion (b) Oxide ion
(c) An Oxonium ion (d) A Hydronium ion
3. When ethyl bromide is heated with Ag2O the product formed is:
(a) Ethanol (b) Ethene
(c) Ethanal (d) Diethyl ether
4. When diethyl ether is treated with PCl5 the product is:
(a) Ethanol (b) Triethyl phosphine
(c) Ethyl chloride (d) Oxonium ion
5. 2-Alkanol on oxidation forms:
(a) Ether (b) Aldehyde
(c) Ketone (d) Carboxylic acid
6. Which substance is used as an Antifreeze:
(a) Methanol (b) Ethanol
(c) Acetone (d) Acetic acid
7. Which of the following would you expect to give a yellow precipitate of CHl 3 when
heated with l2 in alkaline solution:
(a) CH3OH (b) C3H7OH
(c) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH2CH3 (d) CH3CH2OH
8. Alcohols on heating with ------give alkenes at high temperature:
(a) Oxygen (b) Conc. H2SO4
(c) PCl3 (d) Conc. HNO3
9. Carbolic acid is the other name of:
(a) Phenol (b) Biphenyl
(c) Picric acid (d) H2CO3
10. Alcohols and ------react to produce esters:
(a) Water (b) Ethers
(c) Carboxylic acid (d) Ketones
11. Oxidation of ------alcohol gives aldehyde:
(a) Primary (b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary (d) Quaternary
12. Which compound is more soluble in water?
(a) C2H5OH (b) CH3COCH3
(c) CH3OH (d) C6H5OH
13. Which compound shows maximum hydrogen bonding with water?
(a) CH3-O-CH3 (b) CH3-OH
(c) C2H5-OH (d) C6H5-OH
14. Which enzyme is not involved in fermentation of starch
(a) Diastase (b) Maltase
(c) Zymase (d) Urease
15. Methyl alcohol is used as:
(a) a drink (b) an anti freezing agent
(c) a preservative for biological specimen (d) a substitute for petrol
16. Only maximum------% alcohol is obtained by fermentation of molasses:
(a) 14 (b) 24
(c) 95 (d) 100
17. Ethene is formed when Ethyl alcohols reacts with conc. H2SO4 at
(a) 180oC (b) 150oC
o
(c) 120 C (d) 110oC
18. Dow’s method helps in preparation of:
(a) Biphenyl (b) Benzene
(c) Phenol (d) Ester
19. When phenol react with alkali it forms:
(a) Acid (b) Salt
(c) Base (d) None of these
20. Phenol reacts with zinc dust and forms:
(a) Benzene (b) Acetylene
(c) Molozonide (d) Ozonide
21. Bakelite is formed when phenol reacts with:
(a) Acetaldehyde (b) Farmaldehyde
(c) Propanoic acid (d) Butanoic acid
22. Ethers reacts with hydrogen iodide to give:
(a) Alcohol (b) Phenol
(c) Alcohol+ Alkyl halide (d) Aldehyde
23. Which one is primary alcohol:
(a) Buten-2-ol (b) Propan-2-ol
(c) Butan-1-ol (d) 2, 3- Dimethylhexane-4-ol
24. Ethyl alcohol is industrially prepared from ethylene by:
(a) Permanganate oxidation (b) Catalytic reduction
(c) Absorbing in H2SO4 followed by hydrolysis (d) Fermentation
25. Ethanol containing some quantity of methanol is called:
(a) Absolute spirit (b) Rectified spirit
(c) Wood spirit (d) Methylated spirit
26. Hydrolytic conversion of Sucrose into glucose and fructose in known as:
(a) Induction (b) Inversion
(c) Insertion (d) Inhibition
27. Alcohols of low molecular weight are:
(a) Soluble in water (b) Soluble in water on heating
(c) Insoluble in water (d) Insoluble in all solvents
28. Fermentation is a:
(a) Chemical process (b) Biochemical process
(c) Engineering process (d) Physical Process
29. Ethyl alcohol on oxidation with acidified K2Cr2O7 gives:
(a) Acetic Acid (b) Acetaldehyde
(c) Formaldehyde (d) Formic acid
30. C2H5OH can be differentiated from CH3OH by:
(a) Lucas Test (b) Baeyer’s Test
(c) Iodoform test (d) None
31. Ethyl alcohol on treating with Conc. H2SO4 at 140oC yields:
(a) Ethene (b) Diethyl Ether
(c) Ethyl acetate (d) Ethanoic acid
32. Which of the following statements is correct:
(a) Phenol is less acidic than Ethanol (b) Phenol is more acidic than Ethanol
(c) Phenol is more acidic than Acetic acid (d) None
33. Isopropyl alcohol on oxidation gives:
(a) Acetone (b) Ether
(c) Ethylene (d) Acetaldehyde
34. Which of the following is the most suitable method for removing the traces of water
from ethanol:
(a) Reacting with Na metal (b) Passing dry HCl through it
(c) Distilling in presence of CaO (d) Reacting with Mg
35. Na reacts with Ethanol to produce:
(a) H2 gas (b) Benzene
(c) CO2 gas (d) CO gas
36. Picric acid is:
(a) 2, 4, 6- Trinitrotoluene (b) 2, 4, 6-Tribromethanol
(c) 2, 4, 6-Trinitrophenol (d) Para-Nitrophenol
37. Organic acidic compound without a carboxylic acid group is:
(a) Ascorbic acid (b) Vinegar
(c) Oxalic acid (d) Picric acid
38. Methanol can be prepared from hydrogenation of: (LHR 2011)
(a) CH3CN (b) CH3Br
(c) HCHO (d) CH3CHO
39. Phenol reacts with acetyl chloride in the presence of a base to form an: (LHR 2008)
(a) acid (b) alcohol (c) aldehyde (d)
ester
40. Alcohol obtained by fermentation never exceeds: (LHR 2014)
(a) 10% (b) 16%
(c) 14% alcohol (d) 95% alcohol
41. Phenol reacts with acetyl chloride in the presence of a base to form an:
(a) Acid (b) Alcohol
(c) Aldehyde (d) Ester
42. 2 – Hydroxy propanoic acid is called:
(a) Oxalic acid (b) Lactic acid
(c) Citric acid (d) Aspartic acid
43. Methyl alcohol is not used: (GRW 2014)
(a) As a substitute for Ethanol in drinking (b) As a substitute for petrol
(c) For denaturing of ethyl alcohol (d) All
44. Which liquid is called wood spirit? (GRW 2011)
(a) CH3OH (b) C2H5OH
(c) CH3COOH (d) CH3OCH3
45. Order of reactivity of alcohols when C-O bond breaks is: (LHR 2012)
(a) Tertiary alcohol>Secondary alcohol>Primary alcohol
(b) Primary alcohol>Secondary alcohol>Tertiary alcohol
(c) Secondary alcohol>Primary alcohol>Tertiary alcohol
(d) Tertiary alcohol>Primary alcohol >Secondary alcohol
46. Which compound is called a universal solvent?
(a) H2O (b) CH3OH
(c) C2H5OH (d) CH3OCH3
47. Ethanol and methanol can be distinguished by (MTN 08, FSD 10)
(a) Iodoform test (b) Lucas Test
(c) Benedicts test (d) Tollen’s test
48. Ethers show the phenomena of:
(a) Position isomerism (b) Functional group isomerism
(c) Metamerism (d) Cis-trans isomerism
49. Which enzyme is not involved in fermentation of starch? (LHR 2014,15)
(a) Diastase (b) Zymase
(c) Urease (d) Invertase
50. Which of the following reagent will replace –OH group of alcohol by halogen atoms?
(a) HOCl (b) Br2 (c) SOCl2 (d) I2
 ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
a c d c c a d b a c
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
a c b d b a a b b a
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
b c c c d b a b b c
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
b b a c a c d c d c
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
d b b a a a a c c c
 CHAPTER 12

ALDEHYDES AND KETONES

1. Which one of the following undergoes Cannizzaro’s reaction in the presence of dilute
aqueous sodium hydroxide?
(a) HCHO (b) CH3CHO
(c) CH3-CH2-CHO (d) CH3-COCH3
2. Formaldehyde condenses with phenol in the presence of dilute base to yield:
(a) Nylon-6,6 (b) Urotropine
(c) Aniline-formaldehyde (d) Bakelite
3. Calcium acetate on dry heating yields:
(a) HCHO (b) CH3CHO
(c) CH3COCH3 (d) CH3COOH
4. Air oxidation of methanol produces:
(a) Ethanol (b) Methanal
(c) Mixture of Methanal and Ethanal (d) Methane
5. Acetone reacts with HCN to form cyanohydrin, It is an example of:
(a) Electrophilic addition (b) Electrophilic substitution
(c) Nucleophilic addition (d) Nuclearphilic substitution
6. Which of the following compounds will not give Iodoform:
(a) Acetaldehyde (b) Acetone
(c) Butanone (d) 3-Pentanone
7. Addition of alcohol in carbonyl compounds gives acetal; the geometry of acetal is:
(a) Linear (b) Trigonal
c) Tetrahedral (d) Planar
8. Which of the following compound will react with Tollen’s reagent:
(a) Acetone (b) Acetic acid
(c) Methyl ethyl ketone (d) Acetaldehyde
9. Which of the reagents will react with Ketones only:
(a) Sodium nitroprusside (b) Tollen’s reagent
(c) Fehling’s reagent (d) Benedict’s reagent
10. The Nucleophilic addition reactions of carbonyl compounds are catalyzed by:
(a) Acids (b) Bases
(c) Both a and b (d) None of these
11. Acetaldehyde is distinguished from other aldehydes by:
(a) Iodoform test (b) Tollen’s reagent
(c) Silver mirror test (d) all of these
12. Which is used in the preparation of throat lozenges:
(a) Formaldehyde (b) Acetaldehyde
(c) Menthol (d) Menthone
13. Which is used as an antiseptic inhalant:
(a) Formaldehyde (b) Acetaldehyde
(c) Formic acid (d) Acetic acid
14. Aldehyde forms acetal when they combine with alcohols in the presence of:
(a) Hydrogen Iodide (b) Hydrogen gas
(c) Hydrogen Chloride (d) Sodium Hydroxide
15. Which of the following groups does not show catalytic oxidation:
(a) Aldehyde (b) Alcohol
(c) Carboxylic acid (d) Ketone
16. Isopropyl alcohol on oxidation forms:
(a) Acetone (b) Ether
(c) Ethylene (d) Acetaldehyde
17. Which of the following reactions is used for detecting the presence of carbonyl group?
(a) Reaction with hydroxylamine (b) Ammonical cuprous oxide
(c) Ammonical silver bromide (d) Ammonical silver nitrate
18. Propyne on hydrolysis in presence of H2SO4 and HgSO4 gives:
(a) Acetaldehyde (b) Acetone
(c) Formaldehyde (d) None
19. On heating acetaldehyde with Ammonical silver nitrate solution, we get:
(a) CH3OH (b) Silver acetate
(c) HCHO (d) Silver mirror
20. At room temperature formaldehyde is:
(a) Gas (b) Liquid
(c) Solid (d) Rubber like solid
21. The compound obtained by the reduction of Propionaldehyde with amalgamated Zinc
and concentrated HCl is:
(a) Propanol (b) Propane
(c) Propane (d) All
22. Aromatic Aldehydes undergo disproportionation reaction in presence of sodium or
potassium hydroxide to give corresponding alcohol and acid. The reaction is known as:
(a) Wurtz reaction (b) Cannizzaro reaction
(c) Friedel-Craft reaction (d) None
23. Which of the following is used in formation of hypnotic drug:
(a) Chloral hydrate (b) Ethanol Tetramer
(c) Ethanol Trimer (d) both a and c
24. When vapors of Isopropyl alcohol are passed over heated copper, the major product
obtained is:
(a) Propane (b) Propylene
(c) Acetaldehyde (d) Acetone
25. A Nucleophilic regent will readily attack on:
(a) Ethylene (b) Ethanal
(c) Ethanol (d) Ethylamine
26. Which of the following does not react with phenyl hydrazine:
(a) Ethanol (b) Ethanal
(c) Acetone (d) Acetophenone
27. Self condensation of Acetaldehyde in the presence of dilute alkali gives:
(a) An acetal (b) An aldol
(c) Paraldehyde (d) Acetone
28. Which of the following does not give brick red ppt. with Fehling solution:
(a) Formalin (b) Acetaldehyde
(c) D-Glucose (d) Acetone
29. Formalin is 40% aqueous solution of:
(a) Furfural (b) Formaldehyde
(c) Formic acid (d) Methyl iodide
30. Acetone is oxidized with:
(a) Tollen’s reagent (b) Fehling solution
(c) Acidified dichromate solution (d) Benedicts solution
31. Concentrated Sodium hydroxide and Benzaldehyde reacts to produce:
(a) Benzyl alcohol (b) Hydrobenzamide
(c) Cinnamic acid (d) Benzophenone
32. Wolf-Kishner reduction is used for the reduction of.
(a) Nitro compounds (b) Carboxylic acids
(c) Carbonyl compounds (d) Olefins
33. C2H5CHO and (CH3)2CO can be distinguished by testing with:
(a) Phenyl hydrazine (b) Hydroxylamine
(c) Fehling solution (d) Sodium bisulphate
34. Clemmenson’s reduction of Ketones is carried out with:
(a) H2 with Pd catalyst (b) KOH+N2H4
(c) LiAlH4 in water (d) Zn-Hg with conc. HCl
35. Which of the following organic compounds exhibits positive Fehling test as well as
Iodoform test:
(a) Methanal (b) Ethanol
(c) Propanone (d) Ethanal
36. Which of the following reactants will render Tertiary butyl alcohol on reacting with
methyl magnesium iodide?
(a) HCHO (b) CH3CHO
(c) CH3COCH3 (d) CO2
37. Bisulphite adduct is:
(a) Yellow ppt (b) Crystalline white ppt
(c) Greenish Crystalline (d) Red solid
38. The IUPAC name of CH3COCH (CH3)2 is:
(a) 4-Methylisopropy ketone (b) 3-Methyl-2-butanone
(c) Isopropylmethyl ketone (d) 2- Methyl-2 butanone
39. Which of the following reagents will react with both Aldehydes and Ketones?
(a) Fehling’s reagent (b) Tollen’s reagent
(c) Grignard’s reagent (d) Benedicts reagent
40. Tollen’s regent is:
(a) Alkaline solution containing Potassium tartarate
(b) Alkaline solution containing Potassium citrate
(c) Ammonical AgNO3
(d) Ammonical Cu2Cl2
41. Which compounds will not give Iodoform test on treatment with I2/NaOH?
(a) Acetaldehyde (b) Acetone
(c) Butanone (d) 3 – Pentanone
42. The carbon atom of the carbonyl group is:
(a) sp hybridized (b) sp2 hybridized
(c) sp hybridized
3
(d) None of these
43. Ketones are prepared by the oxidation of:
(a) Primary alcohols (b) Secondary alcohols
(c) Tetiary alcohols (d) None
44. Acetone reacts with HCN to form cyanohydrin. It is an example of:
(a) Electrophilic addition (b) Electrophilic substation
(c) Nucleophilic addition (d) Nucleophlic substitution
45. Catalyst used for the laboratory preparation of formaldehyde is:
(a) ZnO (b) Al2O3 (c) Platinized Asbestos (d) None
46. Hybridization of carbon in carbonyl group is: (FSD 2010, GRW 2011)
(a) sp3 (b) sp2 (c) dsp2 (d) sp
47. Cannizzaro’s reaction is not given by: (GRW 13, 14, LHR 12, 13, BWP 15)
(a) Formaldehyde (b) Acetaldehyde
(c) Benzaldehyde (d) Trimethyl acetaldehyde
48. Ketones are always reduced to: (RWP 2008)
(a) Primary alcohol (b) Secondary alcohol
(c) Tertiary alcohol (d) None of these
49. Aldol product on heating undergoes: (RWP 2009)
(a) Decomposition (b) Dehydration
(c) Rearrangement (d) None of these
50. Acidified oxidizing agent for the laboratory preparation of acetaldehyde is:
(RWP 2010)
(a) K2Cr2O7+H2O (b) Na2Cr2O7+H2SO4
(c) K2Cr2O7+H2S (d) Na2Cr2O7+NO2

ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
a d c b c d c d a c
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
a a b c c a a b d a
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
b b d d b a a d b c
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
a c c d d c b b c c
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
d b b c c b b b b b
 CHAPTER 13

CARBOXYLIC ACIDS

1. Which acid of the following is not a fatty acid?

(a) Propanoic acid (b) Phthalic acid
(c) Butanoic acid (d) Acetic acid
2. Which reagent is used to reduce a carboxylic group to an alcohol?
(a) H2/Ni (b) H2/Pt
(c) H2/Pd (d) LiAlH4
3. Sodium acetate and Acetyl chloride react to give:
(a) Acetic acid (b) Acetone
(c) Acetic anhydride (d) None
4. Acetic acid and formic acid, both exist as cyclic dimer in vapour state because of:
(a) Hydrogen bonding (b) Polymerization
(c) Condensation (d) Distillation
5. Nature of Glycine amino acid is:
(a) Neutral (b) Acidic
(c) Basic (d) None
6. Acetic acid is obtained when
(a) CH3OH is oxidized (b) Calcium acetate is distilled
(c) Ethanol is oxidized (d) Ammonium carbonate is heated
7. Which one of the following products is not formed when acetic acid reacts with PCl 5?
(a) CH3COCl (b) HCl
(c) POCl3 (d) CH3Cl
8. Which of following derivative cannot be prepared directly from acetic acid?
(a) Acetamide (b) Acetyl chloride
(c) Acetic anhydride (d) Ethyl acetate
9. Acetamide is prepared by:
(a) Heating ammonium acetate (b) Heating methyl cyanide
(c) Hydrazine (d) Mixture of NH4Cl and acetic acid
10. Which Ester is used for the flavor of Banana:
(a) Benzyl acetate (b) Amyl acetate
(c) Isobutyl formate (d) Ethyl butyrate
11. Freezing point of acetic acid is:
(a) -17oC (b) 17oC
(c) -118 C
o
(d) Room temperature
12. Glacial acetic acid is miscible in all proportions with:
(a) Water (b) Ether
(c) Alcohol (d) All of these
13. The carbon atom of a carbonyl group is:
(a) Unhybridized (b) sp hybridized
(c) sp2 hybridized (d) sp3 hybridized
14. The boiling points of the Carboxylic acid are:
(a) High (b) Low
(c) Extremely low (d) Extremely high
15. Carboxylic acids on reaction with Lithium hydride are reduced to:
(a) Aldehyde (b) Alkene
(c) Alcohol (d) Ester
16. Which of following is commonly known as vinegar:
(a) Formic acid (b) Butanoic acid
(c) Formaldehyde (d) Acetic acid
17. When Ethyl alcohol is oxidized with K2Cr2O7 and dilute H2SO4 , which of the following
is produced:
(a) Formaldehyde (b) Acetic acid
(c) Butanoic acid (d) Formic acid
18. Zwitterion is also called:
(a) Dipolar ion (b) Internal Salt (c) both a and b
(d) Non polar ion
19. Amino acids can be synthesized by reaction of α-Bromo acid with:
(a) Ammonia (b) Urea (c) Ammonium
Chloride (d) Formaldehyde
20. Reaction of acids with alcohols is known as:
(a) Esterification (b) Saponification (c)
Neutralization (d) None
21. Toluene can be oxidized to Benzoic acid by:
(a) KMnO4 (acidic medium) (b) K2Cr2O7 (acidic medium)
(c) Both a and b (d) None
22. When two moles of acetic acid are heated with P2O5 the product formed is:
(a) 2 moles of ethyl alcohol (b) Two moles of Acetone
(c) Acetic anhydride (d) Ethyl acetate ester
23. Of the following four reactions, formic acid and acetic acid differ in which respect?
(a) Replacement of hydrogen by sodium (b) Formation of ester with alcohol
(c) Reduction of Fehling solution (d) Blue litmus reaction
24. Glacial Acetic acid at 17oC is:
(a) Colourless liquid (b) Ice like solid
(c) Waxy solid (d) A gas
25. Weakest acid among the followings is:
(a) Acetic acid (b) Phenol
(c) Water (d) Acetylene
26. Ethyl alcohol reacts with acetyl chloride to form:
(a) Ethyl chloride (b) Acetic acid
(c) Methyleacetate (d) Ethyl acetate
27. Which of the following is the strongest acid:
(a) CF3COOH (b) CBr3COOH
(c) CH3COOH (d) CCl3COOH
28. HCOOH reacts with conc. H2SO4 to produce:
(a) CO+H2O (b) CO2+H2
(c) HCHO (d) None
29. Hydrolysis of an ester gives a carboxylic acid which on Kolbe’s electrolysis yields
ethane, the ester is
(a) Ethyl methonoate (b) Methyl ethanoate
(c) Ethyl acetate ester (d) None
30. Carboxylic acids are more acidic than phenol and alcohol because of:
(a) Intermolecular hydrogen bonding
(b) Formation of Dimers
(c) Highly acidic hydrogen
(d) Resonance stabilization of their conjugate base (Carboxylate ion)
31. Organic compounds having fruity smell are:
(a) Carboxylic acids (b) Alcohols
(c) Ethers (d) Esters
32. The solution of the acid used for seasoning of food is:
(a) Formic acid (b) Acetic acid
(c) Benzoic acid (d) Butanoic acid
33. Which of the following is not a fatty acid?
(a) Propanoic acid (b) Acetic acid
(c) Phthalic acid (d) Butanoic acid
34. Acetic acid was first isolated from:
(a) Butter (b) vinegar (c) Milk (d) Red
ant
35. Acetic acid was first isolated from:
(a) Butter (b) Vinegar (c) Milk (d) Red ant
36. The molecular mass of protein is:
(a) Less than 10,000 (b) Greater than 10,000
(c) Equal to 10,000 (d) Equal to 9,000
37. Amino acids are prepared by:
(a) Williamson’s synthesis (b) Strecker’s synthesis
(c) Wurtz’s synthesis (d) Perkin’s reaction
38. The molecular mass of protein is:
(a) Less than 10,000 (b) Greater than 10,000
(c) Equal to 10,000 (d) Equal to 9000
39. Molar mass of CH3COOH obtained by elevation of boiling point method is:
(LHR 2011)
(a) 30 (b) 60
(c) 120 (d) 180
40. Which compound is polyprotic acid?
(a) CH3COOH (b) C6H4(OH)COOH
(c) (COOH)2 (d) C6H5OH
41. Dipolar structure of zwitterions is also called:
(a) Double salt (b) Health salt
(c) Internal salt (d) External salt
42. The flavor of amyl acetate is:
(a) Orange (b) Apricot
(c) Pine apple (d) Banana
43. Acetic acid is manufactured by: (LHR 14, GRW 14,15, RWP 10)
(a) Distillation (b) Fermentation
(c) Ozonolysis (d) Esterification
44. The organic acid that does not have carboxyl group is:
(a) Formic acid (b) Picric acid
(c) Formaldehyde (d) Acetone
45. Tyrosine was first isolated from. (RWP 2008)
(a) Sugar (b) Cheese
(c) Butter (d) Milk
46. Phathalic acid is a: (RWP 2009)
(a) Monocarboxylic acid (b) Dicarboxylic acid
(c) Tricarboxylic acid (d) None of these
47. The reagent used to convert carboxylic acid directly to alkane is (RWP 2008)
(a) HI/P (b) NaBH4
(c) LiAlH4 (d) H2/Ni
48. Which acid is used in the manufacture of synthetic fiber? (MTN 2015)
(a) Formic acid (b) Oxalic acid
(c) Carbonic acid (d) Acetic acid
49. The amino acids which cannot be synthesized by our body are: (MTN 2008)
(a) 5 (b) 10
(c) 15 (d) 20
50. Which one of the following is an unsaturated carboxylic acid? (MTN 2009)
(a) Malonic acid (b) Oxalic acid
(c) Succinic acid (d) Maleic acid
 ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
b d c a a c d a a b
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
b d c a c d b c a a
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
c c c b c d a a c d
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
d b c b b b b b c c
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
c d b b b b a d b d
 CHAPTER 14

MACROMOLECULES
1. Which of these polymers is a synthetic polymer:
(a) Aminal fat (b) Starch
(c) Cellulose (d) Polyester
2. Which one of the following enzymes brings about the hydrolysis of fats:
(a) Urease (b) Maltase
(c) Zymase (d) Lipase
3. To which class of compounds cholesterol belongs:
(a) Steroids (b) Phospholipids
(c) Vitamins (d) Triglycerides
4. Which of the following is an ester:
(a) Soap (b) Starch
(c) PVC (d) Triglyceride
5. Which one of the following is an inorganic polymer:
(a) Graphite (b) Rubber
(c) DNA (d) Protein
6. The linear sequence of amino acids in a protein is called:
(a) Primary Structure (b) Secondary Structure
(c) Tertiary Structure (d) Quaternary structure
7. In which of these processes are small organic molecules made into macromolecule:
(a) The cracking of petroleum fractions (b) The fractional distillation of crude oil
(c) Formation of Polyethene (d) The hydrolysis of proteins
8. Which of these polymers is synthetic:
(a) Animal fat (b) Starch
(c) Cellulose (d) Polyester
9. Which Carbohydrate can be used for silvering of mirror:
(a) Glucose (b) Fructose
(c) Maltose (d) all
10. Monosaccharide contains ____ carbon atoms:
(a) 3 to 6 (b) 3 to 7
(c) 6-7 (d) 7-10
11. Which of the following is not obtained by condensation polymerization:
(a) Polyester (b) Nylon
(c) Polystyrene (d) None
12. Which of the following is a Polyamide:
(a) Polyester (b) Orlon
(c) Polystyrene (d) Nylon
13. Orlon is polymer of:
(a) T.F.E (b) Acrylonitrile
(c) Ethanoic acid (d) Benzene
14. The raw material used to from Nylon is ___
(a) Adipic acid (b) Butadiene
(c) Isoprene (d) Ethylene
15. The example of Copolymer:
(a) Polyester (b) Polystyrene
(c) Polyethene (d) None
16. Poly vinyl acetate is used as:
(a) Explosive material (b) Adhesive material
(c) Rubber (d) Filler
17. Polyamide resins are formed by condensation of poly amines with aliphatic:
(a) Carboxylic acid (b) Alcohol
(c) Aldehydes (d) Dicarboxylic acid
18. The Epoxy resin is made by condensation of Epichlorohydrin with:
(a) Diphenylol propane (b) Phenyl propane
(c) Phenyl acetate (d) Dicarboxylic acid
19. The table sugar is:
(a) Glucose (b) Sucrose
(c) Maltose (d) Lactose
20. Raffinose is an example of :
(a) Mono saccharide (b) Disaccharide
(c) Trisaccharide (d) None
21. The example of compound protein is:
(a) Phosphoprotein (b) Peptones
(c) Albumin (d) Globulins
22. The optimum PH of salivary amylase is from 6.4 to:
(a) 6.8 (b) 6.9
(c) 7.0 (d) None
23. The reagent which forms crystalline glucosazone derivative when treated with
glucose is:
(a) Fehling solution (b) Phenyl hydrazine
(c) Benedict solution (d) Hydroxyl amine
24. Ascorbic acid is a chemical name of:
(a) Vitamin D (b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin B6
25. The main structural feature of proteins is:
(a) An ester linkage (b) An ether linkage
(c) The peptide linkage (d) All
26. The fiber which is made from acrylonitrile as monomer is: (LHR-09)
(a) PVC (b) Rayon fiber
(c) Acrylic fiber (d) Polyester fiber
27. The disaccharide present in milk is:
(a) Sucrose (b) Maltose
(c) Lactose (d) Cellobiose
28. On hydrolysis of starch, we finally get:
(a) Glucose (b) Fructose
(c) Both a and b (d) Sucrose
29. Enzymes in the living systems:
(a) Provide energy (b) Provide immunity
(c) Transport oxygen (d) Catalyze biochemical processes
30. Bakelite is obtained from phenol by reacting with:
(a) Acetaldehyde (b) Acetal
(c) Formaldehyde (d) Chlorobenzene
31. Enzyme used for the treatment of blood cancer in children is: (GRW-10)
(a) Cellulose (b) Urease
(c) L-asparaginase (d) lactic dehydrogenase
32. Which of the following is not present in nucleotide:
(a) Guanine (b) Cytosine
(c) Adenine (d) Tyrosine
33. Which of the following has magnesium in its structure:
(a) Carbonic anhydrase (b) Haemocyanin
(c) Chlorophyll (d) Vitamin B12
34. The number of amino acids found in proteins that a human body can synthesize is
(a) 20 (b) 10
(c) 5 (d) 14
35. Which of the following is an example of Ketohexose:
(a) Glucose (b) Raffinose
(c) Maltose (d) Fructose
 36. The group linkage present in Carbohydrates:
(a) Peptide linkage (b) Ester linkage
(c) Glycosidic linkage (d) Diester linkage
37. Teflon, styrene and Neoprene are all:
(a) Copolymers (b) Condensation polymers
(c) Homopolymers (d) Monomers
38. Which of the following is fully fluorinated polymer?
(a) Neoprene (b) Teflon
(c) Thiokol (d) PVC
39. The degree of unsaturation of a fat or an oil is checked by its:
(a) Hydrogenation number (b) Iodine number
(c) Saponification number (d) Octane number
40. Starch is a polymer of:
(a) Fructose (b) -D-Glucose
(c) Sucrose (d) Lactose
41. Which one of the following enzymes brings about the hydrolysis of fats?
(a) Urease (b) Maltase
(c) Zymase (d) Lipase
42. Which of these polymers is an addition polymer?
(a) Nylon-6,6 (b) Polystyrene
(c) Terylene (d) Epoxy resin
43. Epoxy resins are fundamentally:
(a) Polyamide (b) Polyethers
(c) Polyesters (d) Polyvinyl
44. Which one of the following acid is used to prepare synthetic fiber?
(a) Carbonic acid (b) Formic acid
(c) Acetic acid (d) Butyric acid
45. Which statement about glucose and sucrose is incorrect?
(a) Both are soluble in water (b) Both occur naturally
(c) Both are carbohydrates (d) Both are disaccharides
46. The fiber which is made from acrylonitrile as monomer is:
(a) PVC (b) Rayon fiber (c) Acrylic Fiber (d) polyester
fiber
47. Which of these polymers is an addition polymer?
(a) Polystyrene (b) Nylon-6,6 (c) Polyester (d) Epoxy resin
48. Enzyme used for the treatment of blood cancer in children is:
(a) Cellulose (b) Urease
(c) L-Asparginase (d) Lactic dehydrogenase
49. Nylon-6,6 is obtained by heating hexa methylene diamine with: (FSD 2010)
(a) Adipic acid (b) Acetic acid
(c) Vinyl chloride (d) Acrylic acid
50. Polymerization of acrylonitrile give: (FSD 2011)

(a) PVC (b) Rayon Fiber

(c) Acrylic fiber (d) Polyester fiber
 ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
d d a d a a c d a b
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
c d c a a b d a b c
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
a b b c c c c a d c
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
c d c b d c c b b b
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
d b b c d c a c a c
 CHAPTER 15

COMMON CHEMICAL INDUSTRIES IN PAKISTAN

1. The percentage of nitrogen in NH3 is:
(a) 46% (b) 60%
(c) 82% (d) 100%
2. Potassium fertilizers are useful for:
(a) Tobacco (b) Coffee
(c) Potato (d) all of these
3. Which one of the following raw materials is not used in the cement manufacture:
(a) Lime stone (b) Gypsum
(c) Blast furnace slag (d) Lead
4. White water is:
(a) Hard water
(b) Water obtained from a crystal by heating
(c) Water which is obtained from pulp, through screen at Fourdrinier table
(d) Water which is removed from amino acids when they from peptide bond
5. The % of Nitrogen in Ammonium Nitrate is: (GRW 2009)
(a) 46% (b) 82%
(c) 33% (d) 16%
6. Which is not a calcareous material? (SGD 14, MTN 11,13, LHR 14,15)
(a) lime (b) clay
(c) marble (d) marine shell
7. The nitrogenous fertilizer easily taken up by plants is: (LHR 2011)
(a) Urea (b) Ammonium nitrate
(c) Ammonia gas (d) Ammonia solution
8. Ammonium nitrate fertilizer is not used for which crops? (LHR 2010)
(a) Cotton (b) Wheat
(c) Sugarcane (d) Paddy rice
9. Point out raw material which is most suitable for manufacturing of urea:
(a) CO2, N2, H2 (b) N2, H2, CO
(c) CH4, N2, H2 (d) H2, N2
10. Which one of the following fertilizers has maximum manufacturing plants in Pakistan:
(a) Urea (b) Ammonia
(c) Ammonium phosphate (d) Ammonium nitrate
11. Phosphorous helps the growth of: (LHR 14, MTN, FSD, SWL 15)
(a) Root (b) Leave
(c) Stem (d) Seed
12. Which of the following nitrogen fertilizer contains more nitrogen:
(a) NaNO3 (b) KNO3
(c) NH4NO3 (d) Urea
13. Urea contains about
(a) 48% Nitrogen (b) 46% Nitrogen
(c) 44% Nitrogen (d) 42% Nitrogen
14. Potassium nitrate is prepared by direct reaction between potassium chloride and
(a) Nitric acid (b) Nitrosyl chloride
(c) Sodium nitrate (d) Nitrate ions
15. The total production of urea fertilizer in Pakistan is:
(a) 56,20,10 metric tons /annum (b) 56,25,100 metric tons/ annum
(c) 56, 23,100 metric tons/annum (d) 56, 30,100 metric tons /annum
16. For Chemical pulping, the principal methods used are:
(a) Five (b) Four
(c) Three (d) Two
17. During setting of cement, Tricalcium silicate and tri-calcium aluminate are get
hydrolyzed to produce calcium hydroxide and
(a) Ca(OH)2.2H2O (b) CaCO3.2H2O
(c) Al(OH)3 (d) CaCO2
18. For manufacture of Portland cement main materials are:
(a) Lime and Silica (b) Alumina and Magnesia
(c) Silica and FeO (d) Clay and Shale
19. In cement manufacture, 75% Lime stone is used to get:
(a) 62% Lime (b) 60% Lime
(c) 75% Lime (d) None
20. The natural fertilizer is called:
(a) Manure (b) Urea
(c) Super phosphate (d) Ammonium sulphate
21. Which of the following elements is not a micro nutrient? (RWP 2009)
(a) Cu (b) Fe (c) Mg (d) Mo
22. Macronutrients are required for an acre of land in quantity ranging from:
(SGD 14, RWP 10)
(a) 2-200Kg (b) 3-200Kg
(c) 4-200Kg (d) 5-200Kg
23. Calendar stock is the stage of paper making where?
(a) Paper is stored (b) Thickness is reduced
(c) water is removed (d) Stock is reduced to 1%
24. Which non-woody raw material is used for making pulp and paper?
(a) Fur (b) Rice/wheat straw (c) Eucalyptus (d) Poplar
25. The hottest zone in rotary kiln is: (MTN 2008)
(a) Drying (b) Pre-heating
(c) Burning (d) Decomposition
26. Which sequence of steps is correct for the manufacture of cement?
(a) Mixing, heating, grinding, crushing
(b) Crushing, heating, mixing, grinding
(c) Crushing, heating, mixing, grinding
(d) Crushing, grinding, mixing, heating
27. It is not used in paper and pulp industry: (MTN 2009)
(a) Bamboo (b) Cotton stalk (c) Poplar (d) He gas
28. A manure is: (MTN 2009)
(a) An organic compound (b) An inorganic compound
(c) A mixture of organic and inorganic compounds (d) A mixture of inorganic compounds
29. The fertilizer that contains largest amount of nitrogen nutrient is:
(a) Liquid nitrogen (b) Urea
(c) Liquid ammonia (d) Ammonium nitrate
30. Argillaceous material in the following is: (MTN 2011)
(a) Lime (b) Clay
(c) Marble (d) Marine shell
31. Which substance in cement has greater percentage? (BWP 2008)
(a) Silica (SiO2) (b) Lime (CaO)
(c) Iron Oxide (Fe2O3) (d) Alumina (Al2O3)
32. Which one is an organic fertilizer: (BWP 2009)
(a) Manure (b) Ammonium nitrate
(c) Urea (d) both a & c
33. Which one is a micronutrient? (BWP 2010)
(a) Boron (b) Nitrogen
(c) Phosphorous (d) Potassium
34. The fertilizer which contains 46% nitrogen is: (DGK 2009)
(a) Urea (b) Ammonia
(c) Ammonium nitrate (d) none of these
35. Argillaceous material used for the manufacture of cement provides
(a) Basic components (b) Amphoteric compounds
(c) Acidic components (d) both acidic and basic component
36. Diammonium Phosphate contains: (BWP 2012)
(a) 18% Nitrogen (b) 48% P2O5
(c) 88% plant nutrients (d) 10% Nitrogen
37. The % of lime (CaO) in Portland cement is: (SGD 2012)
(a) 1.0 (b) 2.5
(c) 62.0 (d) 60.0
38. The % of gypsum in Portland cement is: (LHR 2012)
(a) 4-5% (b) 9-4%
(c) 2-3% (d) 1-2%

ANSWER KEY

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
c d d c c b c d a a
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
b d b c d c c a a a
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
c d b b c d d a c b
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38
b d a a c b c a
 CHAPTER 16

ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY
1. Disinfection of water by chlorine is done by the production of: (LHR 2005)
(a) NH2Cl (b) NCl3
(c) HOCl (d) NHCl2
2. Following is better to disinfect water: (LHR 2011)
(a) Cl2 (b) O2
(c) O3 (d) KMnO4
3. In which layer of the atmosphere is Ozone present:
(a) Thermosphere (b) mesosphere
(c) Stratosphere (d) Troposphere
4. Which one of the following is not a pollutant:
(a) CO2 (b) NO2
(c) CO (d) SO2
5. The smog which has high contents of SO2 in it, is called:
(a) Reducing smog (b) Oxidizing smog
(c) Natural smog (d) Neutral smog
6. Which one of the following diseases is not eradicated by the pesticides:
(a) Sleeping sickness (b) Rickets
(c) Malaria (d) Yellow fever
7. C.O.D of water can be determined directly:
(a) Cr2O3-2 (b) CrO4-
(c) Cr +3
(d) Cr2O7-2
8. Cracking of Polyethene at high temperature gives:
(a) Allotropes (b) Isomorphs
(c) Polymers (d) Monomers
9. The residual ash after incineration of industrial waste is disposed off in a landfill,
which is lined with: (LHR 2011)
(a) Portland cement (b) Clay and plastic
(c) Stone-ware (d) Methyl silicone
10. The temperature in the non-rotating chamber in the incineration of industrial
hazardous waste process has a range: (DGK 09, GRW 08)
(a) 950 to 1300 ͦC (b) 900 to 1000 ͦC
(c) 250 to 500 ͦC (d) 500 to 900 ͦC
11. The thickness of atmosphere is: (BWP 2015)
(a) 1500 Km (b) 1000 Km
(c) 500 Km (d) 100 Km
12. The fresh water being used for domestic purpose is: (FSD-10, BWP-09)
(a) 8% (b) 23%
(c) 69% (d) 100%
13. The normal amount of overhead ozone is: (FSD-10, MTN-08,10, DGK-08)
(a) 300 Du (b) 350 Du
(c) 400 Du (d) 450 Du
14. The normal amount of overhead Ozone is about:
(a) 250 D.U (b) 300 D.U
(c) 350 D.U (d) 400 D.U
15. The mean residence time of methane in the atmosphere:
(a) 3-6 years (b) 3-5 years
(c) 3-7 years (d) 3-8 years
16. Photochemical smog consists of high concentration of:
(a) Oxidants (b) Reductants
(c) Acids (d) Bases
17. The boiling point of Ozone is very:
(a) High (b) Low
(c) 10 oC (d) -10 oC
18. In clean water, molecular oxygen ranges from:
(a) 4-7 ppm (b) 4-9 ppm
(c) 4-8 ppm (d) 4-10 ppm
19. The recycling of plastic involves:
(a) Re-processing (b) Depolymerization
(c) Transformation (d) All
20. Which of following is three times lighter than air:
(a) Carbon monoxide (b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Both a and b (d) None
21. Atmosphere of big/metropolitan cities is polluted most by:
(a) Automobile exhausts (b) Pesticide residue
(c) Household waste (d) Radio-active fall out
22. Chief air pollutant which is likely to deplete Ozone layer:
(a) Sulphur dioxide (b) Carbon monoxide
(c) Carbon dioxide (d) NOx + CFC’s
23. Pollutant of automobile exhausts that affects nervous system and produces mental
disease is:
(a) Mercury (b) Lead
(c) Nitrogen oxide (d) Sulphur oxide
24. SO2 and NO2 produce air pollution in the form of:
(a) Smog (b) Acidic Rain
(c) Both a and b (d) None
25. Carbon monoxide is a pollutant as it:
(a) Inactivates nerves (b) Inhibits glycolysis
(c) Combines with oxygen (d) Combines with hemoglobin
26. Acid rains are produced by:
(a) Excess NO2 and SO2 from burning fossil fuels
(b) Excess production of NH3 by industry and coal gas
(c) Excess release of carbon monoxide by incomplete combustion
(d) Excess formation of CO2 by combustion and animal respiration
27. Atmospheric pollutant is:
(a) CO2 (b) CO
(c) O2 (d) N2
28. Increased asthmatic attacks in certain seasons are related to :
(a) Inhalation of seasonal pollen (b) Eating of seasonal vegetables
(c) Low temperature (d) Wet and dry environment
29. Ozone depletion in stratosphere results in:
(a) Forest fires (b) Increased incidence of skin cancer
(c) Global warming (d) None
30. Pollution is:
(a) Removal of top soil
(b) Release of toxic/undesirable materials in environment
(c) Wastage of energy
(d) All of above
31. Which causes water pollution:
(a) Smoke (b) Automobile exhausts
(c) Pesticides (d) All
32. BOD is connected with:
(a) Organic matter (b) Microbes
(c) Microbes and organic matter (d) None
33. UV radiations bring about:
(a) Skin cancer (b) Mouth cancer
(c) Lung cancer (d) Liver cancer
34. BOD is:
(a) Biological oxygen deficit (b) Biosphere oxygen demand
(c) Biological oxygen demand (d) None of the above
35. Water pollution is mainly due to
(a) Sulphur dioxide (b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Carbon particles (d) Industrial discharges
36. Chlorofluorocarbon releases _____ harmful to ozone:
(a) Free radicals (b) -Ve ions
(c) +Ve ions (d) All
37. Increasing skin cancer and high mutation rate are due to:
(a) Acid rain (b) Ozone depletion
(c) CO (d) Smog
38. Ozone hole is largest over:
(a) Europe (b) Antarctica
(c) Asia (d) Africa
39. Ozone hole refers to:
(a) Physical hole in ozone layers
(b) Reduction in thickness of ozone layer in stratosphere
(c) Reduction of thickness of ozone in troposphere
(d) Increase concentration of ozone
40. Environmental pollution affects:
(a) Biotic components
(b) Plants only
(c) Man only
(d) Biotic and abiotic components of environment
41. Water is often treated with chlorine to:
(a) Increase oxygen content (b) Kill germs
(c) Remove hardness (d) Remove suspended particles
42. Result of ozone hole is
(a) Greenhouse effect (b) Global warming
(c) Acid rain (d) UV rays reach the earth
43. Co-ordination number of Fe in [Fe(CN)6]4:
(a) 4 (b) 2
(c) 6 (d) 4
44. Disinfection of water by chlorine is done by the production of:
(a) NH2Cl (b) NCl3 (c) HOCl (d) NHCl2
45. The residence time of NO in atmosphere is: (SGD 2010)
(a) 30 minutes (b) one day (c) Three days (d) Four days
46. In purification of potable water the coagulant used is: (BWP 11, LHR 13)
(a) Nickle sulphate (b) Copper sulphate
(c) Barrium sulphate (d) Alum
47. Atmosphere contains carbon dioxide:
(a) 0.01% (b) 0.02% (c) 0.03% (d) None
48. Biochemical oxygen demand is the capacity of organic matter in natural water to
consume oxygen with in a period of: (RWP 2008)
(a) 3 days (b) 4 days (c) 5 days (d) 6 days
49. Half of the mass of the atmosphere is concentrated in lower: (RWP 2009)
(a) 4.6 Km (b) 5.6 Km (c) 3.6 Km (d) 15 Km
50. Lithosphere extends in Earth up to the depth of: (RWP 2009)
(a) 50 Km (b) 100 Km (c) 150 Km (d) 30 Km
51. Chlorofluorocarbons play an effective role in removing O 3 in the:
(a) Troposphere (b) Stratosphere (c) Polar region (d) Equator
52. Lithosphere is mainly made up of 11 elements, the element found in highest
percentage is: (RWP 11, BWP 10)
(a) Sodium (b) Calcium (c) Carbon (d) Silicone
53. Which one of the following is not the affect of acid rain? (MTN 2008)
(a) It increases the percentage of CO2 in the atmosphere
(b) It leaches metal like aluminum, mercury and lead from soil
(c) It damages the buildings
(d) It decreases the pH of natural
54. How much Earth’s water is present in Oceans: (MTN 2008)
(a) 97% (b) 87% (c) 77% (d) 67%
55. Detergent greatly affects: (MTN 2009)
(a) Aquatic life (b) modern life
(c) Terrestrial life (d) plant’s life
56. The Ozone layer is:
(a) 25-28 Km high (b) 26-29 Km high
(c) 24-27 Km high (d) 20-28 Km high
57. The region of earth capable of supporting life is called: (BWP 2008)
(a) Atmosphere (b) Biosphere
(c) Lithosphere (d) Hydrosphere
58. The decrease in ozone concentration in overhead atmosphere is occurring due to
human activity. Half of the ozone over Antarctica has been depleted up to the year:
(a) 1960 (b) 1970
(c) 1980 (d) 1990
59. Component of environment which consists of all water bodies is:
(DGK 2010)
(a) Biosphere (b) Hydrosphere
(c) Lithosphere (d) Atmosphere
60. Newspaper can be recycled again and again for how many times? (LHR 12,15)
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
61. Which one is secondary pollutant?
(a) SO2 (b) H2CO3 (c) CO (d) CO2
62. Which one is most toxic? (LHR 2015)
(a) SO2 (b) NO2 (c) CO (d) CO2
63. The pH of unpolluted rain water should be: (LHR 2014)
(a) 5.00 (b) 5.60 (c) 6.50 (d) 7.00

ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
c c c a a b d d B a
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
b a b c c a b b d a
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
a d b c d a b a b b
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
c c a c d a b b b d
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
b d c c d d c c b b
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
c d a a a a b c b d
61 62 63
b c b