Test Pattern

(1001CMD300120002) *1001CMD300120002*
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET(UG)
MINOR
(Academic Session : 2020- 2021) 10-05-2020
PRE-MEDICAL : NURTURE COURSE (PHASE : I)
This Booklet contains 22 pages.

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2. The test is of 40 Minute duration and this Test Booklet contains 40 questions. Each question
carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect
response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 160.

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Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation

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Topic : BASIC MATHS
1. Which of two following graph is the best 4. Velocity of a particle is V = (t2 + 2) m/sec what
representation for the given equation.
is the ratio of acceleration at t = 1 sec and t = 4
y = 2x – 1
sec :-
(1)  1 : 3  (2)  3 : 1 
(1) (2) (3) 1 : 4  (4) 4 : 1
5. 1
If sinθ =  then tan θ = ?
3
1 –
(1) – (2) 2√2
2√2
– 1
(3) (4) 2√2 (4)
(3)
3 3

6. If velocity v varies with time t as v = 2t2, then

2. Value of cos 1° is :- the plot between v and t2 will be given as :
π
(1) 180
(2) 1
(3) 0 (4) ∞ (1) (2)
2
3. x2 y
For ellipse  +  = 1, the co-ordinates of
16 9
points A & B are respectively :-
                                                                      
(3) (4)

7. Range of cos θ will be :-

(1) (0, 3) and (4, 0) (1) –1 ≤ cos θ ≤ 0

(2) (3, 0) and (0, 4) (2) 1 ≤ cos θ ≤ –1
(3) (4, 0) and (0, 3) (3) –1 ≤ cos θ ≤ 1
(4) (16, 0) and (0, 9) (4) –∞ ≤ cos θ ≤ ∞

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8. Find out possible equation for given graph : 12. Which is correct :-
(1) sin 300° =   1
2
(2) tan (180° + θ) = –tanθ
(3) cos (270° – θ) = –sinθ
(4) All are correct 
(1) y = x + 3   (2) y = x – 3
13. The radius of circle whose equation is :-
(3) y = –x – 3  (4) y = –x + 3
x2 y2
+ = 1
9. If y = a(1–cos x) where a is constant :- 25 25
dy (1) 5 (2) 10
find  = ?
dx
(3) 20 (4) 25
(1) a (1+ sin x) (2) a. sin x 14. d
The value of  (e100) is equal to :-
(3) –a cos x (4) a (cos2 x) dx
(1) e100   (2) 0
10. Maximu value of 3 cosθ–4sinθ is:-
(3) 100e99  (4) 1
(1) 3 (2) 4 dy
15. If y = sin2x + cos2x then find  :-
(3) 7 (4) 5 dx

11. Find the equation of line from the figure :- (1) 4 sinx cosx (2) 2 sin 2x
(3) 1 (4) 0
16. If y = x2 + 2x – 3, y–x graph is :-

(1) (2)

(1) 6x + 8y = 15
(2) 4x + 3y = 18
(3) 2y + 6x = 7 (3) (4)
(4) 3y + 4x = 24

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17. π 22. A person moves 10m along north direction,
If θ1 + θ2 =   and θ1 = 2θ2, then value
2
2 2 then moves 40m along east direction and
of sin θ1 + cos θ2 is :-
finally moves 20m along north direction then
1 magnitude of displacement is :-
(1) (2) 1
2
3
(1) 70 m (2) 50 m
(3) (4) 2
2 (3) 10 √−−
17 m (4) None
18. Intercept on x-axis for y = –5x + 7 is :- 23. Position-time graph of a particle is shown :-
(1) –5 (2) 7 
(3) 7/5 (4) –7/5
19. 1 dy
If y =  (x + )  then  is :
x dx
1 − 1
(1) (2)
x2 x2
Find point at which speed is maximum ?
1 1
(3) 1− (4) 1+ (1) A (2) B
x2 x2
20. The co-ordinates of a particle moving in xy- (3) C (4) D
plane vary with time as x = at2; y = bt. The 24. Find maximum value of y = –x2 + 5x –  25 :-
4
locus of the particle is :
25 25
(1) (2)
(1) Parabola (2) Circle 4 2
(3) Straight line (4) Ellipse (3) 0 (4) None
21. Graph of equation 3x – 2y + 4 = 0 is– 25. Sin (+2°) is equal to :-
π π
(1) 180
(2) 90

(1) (2) (3) 2 (4) 1

26. The length of string between a kite and a point
on the ground is 55 m. If the string makes an
angle of 53° from level ground and there is no
slack in string, then height of kite is :-
(3) (4) (1) 55 m (2) 44 m 
(3) 33 m (4) 11 m

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27. 9π 32. The values of sinθ1, cos2θ2 and tanθ3 are given
Degree measure corresponding to  radian is:
5
as 1/2, –1/2 and 3 (not in order), for some
(1) 350° (2) 380° 
angles θ1, θ2 and θ3. Choose incorrect
(3) 324° (4) None
statement.
28. Two points (3, 4) and (–4, –3) are at _______
distance from each other (approximate) :- (1) The value of tanθ3 could be –1/2

(1) 10 m (2) 7 m (2) The value of sinθ1 can not be 3.

(3) 14 m (4) 5 m (3) The value of cos2θ2 can't be –1/2
29. dy (4) The value of cos2θ2 could be 3.
If y = x2 – 6x + 5 then  at x = 2 is :-
dx 33. If x2 + y2 = 16, the curve between x2 and y2 is:- 
(1) 2 (2) 1 (1) Straight Line
(3) –2 (4) None of these (2) Parabola
30. Graph of exponential function y = ae– x
is
(3) Circle
shown in figure. Then value of a is :-
(4) Ellipse
34. If y = 2sin (wx + ϕ) where w and ϕ are
dy
constants then  is :-
dx
(1) 4w cos (wx + ϕ)
(1) 1 (2) 4
(2) 2w cos (x + ϕ) 
(3) 2  (4) 0
(3) 2w cos (wx + ϕ)
31. From the figure the equation of parabola can be
:- (4) 2 cos (wx + ϕ) 
35. If area of a circle depends upon time as A = 3t2
+ 2t then rate of change of area at t = 2 sec is :- 
(1) 14 units (2) 12 units
(1) (y – 4) = x2 (3) 6 units (4) 2 units
(2) y = x2 + 4 36. Find √−−−
101 (approx) :-

(3) y = –(x + 4)2 (1) 10.5 (2) 10.05

(4) (y + 4) = –x2 (3) 10.1 (4) None

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37. If y = 5 (sin100º cos27º + cos100º sin27º) the 42. 5
Find the value of tanθ if sinθ = 
value of y is :- 13
12 12
(1) 5 (2) 10 (1) (2)
5 13
(3) 4 (4) 3 13 5
(3) (4)
38. If the distance between two points (–8, 4) and 12 12
(–2,a) is 10. Then possible values of a will be 43. Graph of y = 9sin(3πx) is as shown the
(all values are in same units) :- numerical value of A(B+C)
(1) 4 and 12
(2) – 4 and 12
(3) – 4 and – 12

(4) 4 and – 12 (1) 5 (2) 3

39. 2
If v = (t – 4t) m/sec where t is in second. Find (3) 9 (4) 6
acceleration of t = 1 sec :-
44. 4
(1) 0 (2) 2m/sec 2 Given that y = sin 3x + cos 3x . What is the
3
(3) –2 m/sec2 (4) NOTA maximum rate of change in y with respect to
x?
40. Slope of given graph at point P is :-
5
(1)
3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) None of these
(1) 1 (2) 2 45. The moon’s distance from the earth is 360000
(3) 4 (4) 8 km and its diameter subtends an angle of 42' at
the eye of the observer. The diameter of the
41. The slope of tangent to the curve y = log (sin x)
π
moon is
at x =  is :-
4 (1) 4400 km
(1) 1 (2)  –1  (2) 1000 km
1 −1 (3) 3600 km
(3) – (4) –
√2 √2
(4) 8800 km
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Topic : MOLE CONCEPT

46. Number of electrons present in 1.6 gm. 51. Which of the following correctly
methane would be :- represents 180 g of water ?
(1) 1.6 NA (2) 0.1 NA (i) 5 moles of water    
(3) NA (4) 16 NA (ii) 10 moles of water
47. 1L of a gas at STP weighs 1.25 g. it can (iii) 6.023 × 1023 molecules of water
possibly be :- (iv) 6.023 × 1024 molecules of water
(1) C2H2 (2) CO (1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i) and (iv)
(3) O2  (4) CH4 (3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iii)
48. Molecular weight of NH3 is :- 52. No. of electrons present in 11.2 litre ammonia
(1) 17 g (2) 17 amu     at STP is :-
(3) 17 kg (4) 1.66 × 10–24 g (1) 10 NA (2) 5 NA 
49. Which of following contains greatest number (3) 2.5 NA  (4) 15 NA
of oxygen atoms ? 53. If the vapour density of a diatomic gas is 16
(1) 16 g of O then atomic weight of gas will be :-
(2) 16 g of O2     (1) 32 (2) 24
(3) 16 g of O3     (3) 16 (4) 64
(4) All have same no. of atoms 54. Volume of 1.7 g NH3 gas at 1 atm and 0°C is :-
(1) 22.4 L (2) 2.24 L
50. In the reaction, 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) → 4NO(g) +
(3) 22.4 mL (4) 2.24 mL
6H2O(g), when 1 mole of ammonia and 1 mole
55. Gram-atomic mass of C is :-
of O2 are made to react to completion : (1) 12 g (2) 12 amu
(1) 1.0 mole of H2O is produced (3) 6 g/mol (4) 6amu
(2) 1.0 mole of NO will be produced 56. Which has the greatest mass % of hydrogen ?
(3) All the oxygen will be consumed (1) CH4 (2) C2H6
(4) All the ammonia will be consumed (3) C3H8 (4) C4H10

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57. An unknown compound has 3.5% of nitrogen 63. A compound contains 40% calcium 12%
(N). The minimum molar mass of compound is :-  carbon and 48% oxygen by mass, its empirical
(1) 400 (2) 800 (3) 200 (4) 100 formula will be :-
58. The simplest formula of a compound (1) CaC2O2 (2) Ca2CO3
containing 50% of element X (atomic mass 10) (3) CaCO2 (4) CaCO3
and 50% of element Y (atomic mass 20) is -
64. 10 g of hydrogen and 64 g oxygen were filled
(1) XY (2) X2Y  in a steel vessel and exploded. Amount of water
(3) XY2 (4) X2Y3 produced in this reaction will be :-
59. 3.011 × 1022 atoms of an element weight 1.4 g. (1) 2 mole (2) 3 mole
The atomic weight of the element is :-
(3) 4 mole (4) 1 mole
(1) 10 amu (2) 23 amu
65. 8L mixture of CH4 and C3H8 mixture produces
(3) 35.5 amu (4) 28 amu
14L CO2 on complete combustion, then find
60. Haemoglobin contain 0.33% of iron by mass. volume of CH4 and C3H8 in mixture :-
The molecular mass of haemoglobin is
approximately 67200. The number of iron (1) 1L, 7L (2) 2L, 6L
atoms (At. mass of Fe=56) present in one (3) 5L, 3L (4) 4L, 4L
molecule of haemoglobin are :-
66. In the reaction : 2A + 4B → 3C + 4D when 5
(1) 6 (2) 1 moles of A reacts with 6 moles of B then
(3) 4 (4) 2 calculate amount of C formed :-
61. 27g of Al will react completely with how many (1) 6.5 mole (2) 4.5 mole
grams of oxygen according to reaction   (3) 5 mole (4) 6 mole
3
2Al +  O → Al2O3   67. Equal weight of ‘X’ (At-wt. = 36) and ‘Y’ (at.
2 2
(1) 8g (2) 16g wt. = 24) are reacted to form the compound
X2Y3, then :
(3) 32g (4) 24g
62. How many moles of CO2 will be formed by (1) X is limiting reagent
decomposition of 50g CaCO3 :- (2) Y is limiting reagent
CaCO3 → CaO + CO2  (3) No reactant is left over and mass of X2Y3
(1) 2 mol (2) 1 mol formed is double the mass of ‘X’ taken
(3) 0.5 mol (4) 1.5 mol (4) None of these

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68. 4 g of hydrogen are ignited with 4 g of oxygen. 72. When 4 moles of C react with 2 moles of
The weight of water formed is - oxygen to form carbon monoxide, What will be
(1) 0.5 g (2) 3.5 g volume of the gas formed at 273 K and 1 atm ?
(3) 4.5 g (4) 2.5 g (1) 67.2 L (2) 89.6 L
69. How many moles of lead (II) chloride will be (3) 22.4 L (4) 44.8 L
formed from a reaction between 6.5 g of PbO
73. The volume of air needed for complete
and 3.2 g of HCl ? (Molar mass of PbO =
combustion of 200 mL of C2H2 will be :-
223.2)
[PbO + 2HCl → PbCl2 + H2O] (1) 500 mL (2) 100 mL
(1) 0.011 (2) 0.029     (3) 2500 mL  (4) 1250 mL
(3) 0.044 (4) 0.333 74. One amu is equal to :-
70. In a reaction container, 100g of hydrogen (1) 1.57 × 10–24 kg (2) 1.66 × 10–24 kg
and  100 g of Cl2 are mixed for the formation (3) 1.99 × 10–23 kg (4) 1.66 × 10–27 kg
of  HCl gas. What is the limiting reagent and
how much HCl is formed in the reaction ? 75. Vapour density of two gases are in the ratio of
1 : 3. Their molecular masses are in the ratio
(1) H2 is limiting reagent and 36.5 g of HCl
are formed  of :-
(2) Cl2 is limiting reagent and 102.8 g of HCl (1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 2
are formed  (3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 1
(3) H2 is limiting reagent and 142 g of HCl are 76. How many protons are present in 1.8g NH4+ :-
formed 
(1) NA (2) 1.2 NA
(4) Cl2 is limiting reagent and 73 g of HCl are
(3) 1.1 NA (4) 11 NA
formed 
77. A compound contains 11.5% by mass of sodium.
71. Calculate how many methane molecules & how
Its minimum molecular weight will be :-
many carbon and hydrogen atoms are there in
25.0 g of methane ? (1) 80 amu (2) 200 amu
(1) 9.41 × 1023, 9.41 × 1023, 37.64 × 1023 (3) 250 amu     (4) 300 amu
(2) 9.41 × 1023, 37.64 × 1020, 2.4 × 1022 78. Empirical formula of acetic acid is :-
(3) 9.41 × 1023, 2.37 × 1023, 37.64 × 1023 (1) C2H4O2 (2) CH2O
(4) None of the above (3) CHO (4) CH3COOH

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79. What weight of CaCO3 must be decomposed to 84. If a hydrocarbon having 80% carbon and
produce the sufficient quantity of carbon vapour density of compound is 30. What is the
dioxide to convert 21.2 kg of Na2CO3 molecular formula is the compound ? 
completely into NaHCO3 : (1) CH3 (2) C2H6
CaCO3 —→ CaO + CO2 (3) C4H12 (4) All 
Na2CO3 + CO2 + H2O —→ 2NaHCO3
85. What is the empirical formula of glucose ?
(1) 100 kg (2) 20 kg
(1) CHO (2) CH2O
(3) 120 kg (4) 30 kg
(3) C2HO (4) CHO2
80. For the reaction N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3, 28 g N2
and 67.2L of H2 at NTP are reacted. Calculate 86. Number of carbon atom in 60 g CH3COOH is :-
the volume of NH3 formed at NTP. (1) 6 × 1023 (2) 12 × 1022
(1) 22.4 L (2) 44.8 L (3) 12 × 1023 (4) 9 × 1023
(3) 34 L (4) 89.6 L 87. Volume of O2 required at STP for complete
81. In a closed vessel 50 ml of A2B3 completely combustion of 3 g C2H6 will be -
reacts with 200 ml of C2 according to the (1) 78.4 litre (2) 7.84 litre
following equation  (3) 2.78 litre (4) 6.23 litre
2A2B3(g) + 5C2(g) → 3C3B2(g) + CA4(g)
88. CaCO3 is 90% pure. Volume of CO2 collected
The composition of gaseous mixture in the
at STP when 10 g of CaCO3 is decomposed is -
system will be :-
(1) 2.016 L (2) 1.008 L
(1) 100 ml C2, 50 ml C3B2, 50 ml CA4    
(3) 10.08 L (4) 20.16 L
(2) 25 ml C2, 75 ml C3B2, 25 ml CA4
89. Which of the following is an example of
(3) 75 ml C2, 75 ml C3B2, 25 ml CA4     compound :-
(4) 10 ml C2, 25 ml C3B2, 100 ml CA4 (1) Salty water (2) Air
82. Number of molecules present in 8g O2 is same (3) Acetic acid (4) Oxygen gas
as those present in  :-
90. 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O2 in a
(1) 7g CO (2) 7g N2 closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess
(3) 11g CO2 (4) All of the above and how much :-
83. How many moles of H2 must react with N2 to (At. wt. Mg = 24 ; O = 16)
produce 4 moles of ammonia ? (1) Mg, 0.44 g (2) O2, 0.28 g
(1) 3 mol  (2) 6 mol  (3) 4 mol (4) 2 mol (3) Mg, 0.16 g (4) O2, 0.16 g

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Topic : PLANT DIVERSITY
91. Read the following characters/features of living 96. Among the following which can be a common
find out how many are defining features :- feature exhibited by both living and non-living?
Growth, Reproduction, Metabolism, Cellular (1) Growth
organization, Consciousness.  (2) Consciousness
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Metabolism
(3) Four (4) Five (4) Cellular organsation
92. Which of the following is a defining property 97. Reproduction is a character of living organisms
of living organism :-  but it cannot be regarded as defining property
because:-
(1) Reproduction (1) Asexual reproduction involves only single
(2) Growth parent
(3) Consciosness (2) Lower organism do not reproduce under
stressful environment
(4) Tissue organisation
(3) All living beings do not have the capacity
93. Which of the following pair does not contain to reproduce
defining properties of all living organisms ? (4) For lower plants, growth and reproduction
(1) Metabolism and cellular organisation are not mutually exclusive phenomena
(2) Response to stimuli and consciousness 98. Which of the following is a character of living
organisms but not a defining character of living
(3) Self consciousness and reproduction
organisms ?
(4) All of these (1) Cellular organisation
94. Which of following is not a defining feature of (2) Metabolism
living organisms ?
(3) Consciousness
(1) Reproduction
(4) Growth
(2) Metabolism 99. Which of the following statement is wrong ?
(3) Consciousness (1) Reproduction can not be all-inclusive
(4) Cellular organisation defining characteristic of living organisms
95. Two organisms of same division but different (2) Metabolism is a defining feature of all
order will be kept under the same :- living organisms
(1) Family (2) Genus (3) Growth can be taken as a defining
property of living organisms
(3) Species (4) Class (4) Consciousness is the defining property of
living organisms
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100. Which of the following is the most obvious and 102. Read the following statements. Find out which
technically complicated feature of all living
one is incorrect :- 
beings? 
(1) In multi cellular organisms reproduction is
(1) Reproduction
synonymous with growth.
(2) Growth
(2) All living organisms are made up of many
(3) Consciousness chemicals.
(4) Metabolism (3) All plants, animals, fungi and microbes
101. Match column I & column II :- exhibit metabolism.
Column I Column II (4) The fungi, filamentous algae, the
protonema of mosses multiply by
Growth fragmentation.
(A) Intrinsic growth (I) from
outside 103. Read the following statements carefully, select
Growth incorrect statement :-
occurs
(1) Regeneration is a process in which all
(B) Extrinsic growth (II) only
parts of body can be repaired 
upto
certain age (2) Biology is a story of evolution of living
organism on earth 
Growth
(3) Increase in mass and increase in number of
(C) Indeterminate growth (III) from
individuals are twin character of growth 
inside
(4) All chemical reactions occuring in our
Growth body are called metabolism 
occur
(D) Determinate growth (IV) 104. Five kingdom system of classification was
throughout
life span given by :-
(1) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II (1) Aristotle
(2) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV (2) Theophrastus
(3) A–III, B–I, C–II, D–IV (3) R.H. Whittaker
(4) A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III (4) Linnaeus

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105. Which type of reproduction is found in 109. Which scientist is called 'The Darwin of the
Planaria? 20th century' ?
(1) Fragmentation (1) Ernst Mayr
(2) True regeneration (2) Katherine Esau
(3) By endospore formation (3) G. N. Ramachandran
(4) Melvin Calvin
(4) Both 1 & 2
110. Find out which statement is incorrect :-
106. Read the following statements :
(A) Photoperiod affects reproduction in (1) Living organism are self replicating,
seasonal breeders and in both plants and evolving and self regulating.
animals. (2) Adaptation and homeostasis are very
(B) Increase in body mass is considered as important characters of livings.
reproduction.
(3) Brain dead coma patient has self
(C) Metabolism is a defining feature of all
consciousness.
living organism without exception.
(D) Self consciousness is a defining property of (4) Consciousness is most obvious and
every living organism. technically complicated feature of all
living organism.
Choose the correct statements :-
111. Word species was given by John Ray. Which
(1) A and B (2) B and C concept of species can be applied in the
(3) A and C (4) B and D organisms which do not reproduce sexually :-
107. The number of species that are known and (1) Biological concept
described range between :- (2) Taxonomic concept
(1) 7 million (3) Both 1 and 2
(2) 7.1 – 8.1 million (4) Concept based on Inter breeding capacity 
(3) 10 million 112. Which of the following is not correct :
(4) 1.7 – 1.8 million (1) Taxonomists have to do intensive lab work
and field work
108. Presence of cell wall, true nucleus and
autotrophic nature are the characters of (2) During training a taxonomist is trained
members of : about taxonomical aids also
(1) Animalia (2) Fungi (3) Taxonomic keys are used in both plants
and animals
(3) Plantae (4) Monera
(4) Herbaria are made for animals
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113. Name of author / scientist who gave the name 117. Three domain theory was based on :-
of the plant is written :-
(1) r-RNA sequence
(1) After specific epithet
(2) After generic name (2) Complexity of cell
(3) After generic epithet (3) Life style
(4) Before specific epithet (4) Mode of nutrition
114. All living organisms of present, past and future 118. Scientific names are printed in........and are
are related to each other because :- derived from............
(1) They are formed by the process of  (1) Bold and English
evolution. (2) Italics and Latin
(2) They have same type cell wall.
(3) Italics and German
(3) They can reproduce freely.
(4) They can show self consciousness. (4) Italics and French
115. I can perform 119. Nomenclature is very must in taxonomy which
of the following is not correct about scientific
nomenclature ?
(1) They ensure that each organism has only
one name 
(2) They also ensure that such a name has not
been used for any other known organism
(1) A virus (noncellular organism) (3) Scientific nomenclature is a standardised
(2) A living bacterium only naming system
(3) A living animal only (4) Different countries of the world use
(4) May be any living entity different kinds of scientific nomenclature
system
116. ICZN stands for
120. Floral features are commonly used for
(1) Indian code of Zoological Nomenclature identification of angiosperms because :
(2) International code of Zoidogamus (1) Flowers have various colours
plants' Nomenclature
(2) Flowers can be safely preserved
(3) International code of Botanical
Nomenclature (3) Reproductive characters are more
conservative
(4) International code of Zoological
Nomenclature (4) Flowers are nice to work with

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121. Who gave the binomial nomenclature ? 126. How many taxa are given in following group
(1) Darwin  (2) Candolle Poales, Mangifera, flower, Leopard, Rice, leaf,
(3) Linnaeus (4) Lamark Mango, wood, dicotyledonae
122. Plant nomenclature refers to :- (1) Three (2) Two 
(1) Identification of plants according to (3) Four  (4) Six
known rules
(2) Inclusion of plants in families in a 127. Wheat, mango, potato, makoi, human,
definite    system
housefly, brinjal.
(3) A type of climate where particular plants
are found These are some names of organisms. How
(4) Correct identification and naming of the many species and genera are included
plants according to international rules respectively in these names.
123. According to binomial system name of species
consist of two words, these two words shows (1) 6, 7 (2) 7, 5
respectively : (3) 7, 7 (4) 7, 6
(1) Name of species and name of variety 128. The taxonomic unit 'Phylum' in the
(2) Specific epithet and name of genus classification of animals is equivalent to which
(3) Name of genus and name of variety hierarchial level in classification of plants ?
(4) Name of genus and specific epithet
(1) Class (2) Order
124. 'indica' is a particular species or specific
epithete of which genus among these for mango (3) Division (4) Family
plant? 129. Which of the following categories has least
(1) Solanum (2) Brassica similar characters ?
(3) Panthera (4) Mangifera (1) Genus     (2) Species    
125. Linnaeus proposed scientific nomenclature of (3) Family (4) Class
plants by using binomial system in his book
_______. It was published on ________. 130. Choose the correct from following :
(1) Species Plantarum ;    01 May 1758 (1) Mangifera  is a name of species
(2) Systema Naturae ;      01 May 1753 (2) Polymoniales is a name of family
(3) Species Plantarum ;    01 May 1753 (3) Dicotyledonae is a name of division
(4) Systema Naturae ;      01 Aug 1758 (4) Triticum is a name of Genus

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131. Select wrongly matched pair with respect to 136. In trinomial system the last word of the name
taxonomic aids – represents.
  Museum, (1) Genus (2) Species
(A)  Actual specimens –
Herbarium
(3) Sub species (4) Family
 Herbarium,
(B)  Live specimens – 137. Select the incorrect statement with respect to
 Museum, Zoo the taxon, ‘genus’ :-
  Preservation   Herbarium, (1) It is a group or assemblage of related
(C) –
techniques Museum species.
 Dissemination of (2) A genus essentially comprises more than
 Monograph,
(D)   taxonomic – one number of species always.
 Flora, Manuals
information (3) Lion, Tiger, Leopard  are closely related
species which have been placed in the
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
genus Panthera.
132. Which taxonomic aid is exclusively used for
(4) Solanum, Musca, Mangifera and Homo are
plant studies ?
the examples of genera.
(1) Taxonomic keys (2) Museum
138. Which of the following taxonomic aid mainly
(3) Herbarium (4) Zoological parks provides information for the identifying
133. Mammalia, insecta, dicotyledonae and characters of all species found in an area ?
monocotyledonae are :- (1) Monograph (2) Manual
(1) Orders (2) Families (3) Flora (4) Catalogue
(3) Classes (4) Division 139. Which of the following statements are correct?
134. What you call a process by which anything is (i) Species is basic unit of classification in
grouped into convenient categories on the basis taxonomy.
of similarities and dissimilarities ? (ii) There is no suffix for genus, species &
kingdom.
(1) Identification (2) Nomenclature
(iii) Domain is a super kingdom category.
(3) Classification (4) Taxonomy (iv) Family is placed between order and class in
135. Taxonomical aids that provide means of ex-situ taxonomic hierarchy.
conservation strategies are :- Options :-
(1) Herbarium (2) Zoological park (1) (i), (ii), (iii) (2) (ii), (iv)
(3) Botanical garden (4) Both 2 & 3 (3) (ii), (iii) (4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

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140. Study the given statements carefully and give 143. Correct biological name of man is :-
the answer :- (1) Homo sapiens M
(A) A genus is a group of related species which (2) Homo sapiens F
has more characters in common in comparison (3) Homo sapiens
to species of other genera (4) Homo sapiens homo
(B) Families are characterised on the basis of 144. Taxonomically a species is :- 
both vegetative and reproductive features of (1) A group of individual organisms with
plants species. fundamental similarities
(C) Felidae and canidae are the families of cat (2) A group of individuals capable of
interbreeding
and dog respectively
(3) A group of individuals living together in a
(D) To detemine relations in higher taxa is habitat
more difficult in comparison to lower taxa.
(4) A group of individuals having same
How many statements are correct from them? morphology only
(1) One (2) Two 145. Now a days in which taxonomy mostly use the
(3) Three (4) Four chemical constituents of plants to resolve
141. How many are the examples of species in the confusions ?
list given below ? (1) Cytotaxonomy
Angiosperms, Wheat, Rice, Lion, Animals,
Dog, Cat, Mango, Reptiles, Amphibians, Man, (2) Numerical taxonomy
Diptera, Insecta, Convolvulaceae. (3) Chemotaxonomy
(1) Five (2) Six (4) Systematics
(3) Seven (4) Four 146. Study of diversity of organisms and their
142. Which character defines a species, but not evolutionary relations was referred to as :-
generally used in taxonomy :-
(1) Taxonomy 
(1) Morphological resemblance
(2) Systematics
(2) Biochemical resemblance
(3) Biology
(3) Anatomical characters
(4) Numerical taxonomy 
(4) Interbreeding

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147. In potato, brinjal, makoi what is same :- 153. Two plants can be conclusively said to belong
(1) Genus (2) Species to the same species if they :-
(3) Subspecies (4) Variety
(1) have more than 90 precent similar genes
148. In Lion, tiger, leopard and cat what is same ?
(2) look dissimilar but possess identical
(1) Genus (2) Species chemical constituents
(3) Family (4) Variety (3) can reproduce freely with each other
149. The group of similar organisms which are (4) have same number of chromosomes
capable of interbreeding and producing fertile 154. The scientist working in botanical garden is
offsprings is called:- known as :-
(1) Botanist    
(1) Species
(2) Zoologist
(2) Biological species
(3) Curator    
(3) Taxonomic species
(4) Specific epithet (4) Herbalist

150. Killing and pinning technique is specially used 155. Find the incorrect match in given column :-
 
for preservation of :-
  Column A Column B
(1) Herbs (2) All plants
(1) Solanum Genus
(3) Insects (4) Shrubs
(2) Dog Taxon
151. Division spermatophyte includes : 
(3) Sapindales Family
(1) Bryophyta & Pteredophyta
(4) Dicotyledonae   Class
(2) Dicotyledonae, gymnospermae  &
monocotyledonae 156. The number of species that is present on earth
(3) Thallophyta, bryophyta & pteredophyta ranges between.
(4) Only gymnosperm (1) 1.7 to 2.0 million
152. Three pairs of jointed legs is a character of :- (2) 1.7 to 1.8 million
(1) Mammalia (2) Amphibia (3) 7 to 8 million
(3) Insecta (4) Chordata (4) 0.8 to 2.7 million

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157. Practical significance of taxonomy :- 162. The earliest classifications were based on :-
(1) Identification of unknown organism (1) uses of organisms    
(2) Explain the origin of organisms (2) Internal structure of organism    
(3) To know the evolutionary process (3) Their phylogeny
(4) Identification of medicinal plant (4) Their gross morphology
158. Which taxonomic aids is used as quick referral 163. Which character is same in both monera and
system ?
protista
(1) Zoological park
(2) Key (1) Prokaryotic nature
(3) Herbarium (2) Eukartyotic nature

(4) Botanical garden (3) Unicellular nature

159. In 5 – kingdom classification, the kingdom that (4) Presence of cell wall in all members
includes the BGA, symbiotic bacteria, 164. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the
archebacteria and nitrifying bacteria, is :- correct option from the codes given below  :-
(1) Plantae (2) Protista  
(3) Monera (4) Animalia
  Column-I   Column-II
160. Which of the following institute is situated at
Howrah (India) :- Binomial
A i A.P. De Candolle
(1) Central Drug Research Institute nomenclature
(2) Indian Botanical Garden B Father of Biology ii Aristotle
(3) Central Arid Zone Research Institute C Father of Botany iii Linnaeus
(4) Both 2 & '3'
D Word 'Taxonomy' iv Theopharastus
161. Linnaeus is related to :-
(1) Two kingdom classification (1) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
(2) Binomial nomenclature
(2) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
(3) Systema naturae
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(4) All 
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i

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165. Match the two columns (Column-I & column- 167. In Carl Woese classification, how many
II) kingdom have unicellular organisms :-
 
(1) Two kingdom
   Column–I    Column–II
(2) One kingdom
  A unit of
(a)  Class (i) classification made of (3) Three kingdom
related genera (4) Unicelluar organism are placed in domain
A unit of not in kingdom
 Zoological
(b) (ii) classification made of
park 168. In evolution most primitive are :-
related orders
  Only living animals (1) Thallophyta (2) Gymnosperms
  Botanical
(c) (iii) of taxonomic (3) Bryophyta (4) Pteridophyta
garden
importance in it
169. Which of the following group includes
  A unit of unicellular prokaryotes only ?
(d)  Family (iv) classification made of
related families (1) Monera (2) False fungi
 Only living plants of (3) Protista (4) Fungi
    (v) taxonomic 170. Which one of the following include both
importance in it autotrophs and heterotrophs ? 
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (1) Kingdom fungi (2) Kingdom-monera
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-v (3) Kingdom Protista (4) (2) & (3) both
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-v, d-iii 171. Linnaeus system of classification was based on
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-v, d-i (1) Gross morphology
166. Which statement is correct ? (2) Ecological character
(A)      R.H.Whittaker proposed phylogenetic (3) Reproductive characters
classification system. (4) Cytological chracters
(B)    In zoological parks wild animals are kept
172. Curator related to Royal Botanical Garden Kew
in protected environments
were :-
(C)    Keys are generally analytical in nature
(D)      Keys are based on the contrasting (1) George Bentham and J.D. Hooker
characters (2) RH Whittaker & Aristotle
(1) Only A, B (2) Only B, C (3) Linnaeus & Oswald Tippo
(4) Turill and Eichler
(3) Only C, D (4) A, B, C, D

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173. In 2-kingdom classification Euglena was placed 177. Match the column-I, II and III :-
in :-  
Column-I Column-II Column-III
(1) Plantae kingdom
Natural Founder of
(A) Linnaeus (a) (e)
(2) Animalia kingdom classification botany
(3) Protista kingdom  Two
Bentham
(B) (b) kingdom (f) Spermatophyta
& Hooker
(4) Position not fixed  classification
174. According to five kingdom classification of Five
Species
(C) Whittaker (c) kingdom (g)
R.H.Whittaker, producer are placed in ? plantarum
classification
(1) Monera, Protista, Plantae Historia
(D) Theophrastus (d) (h) Phylogeny
(2) Only plantae plantarum

(3) Protista and plantae (1) A-b,g; B-a,f; C-c,h; D-d,e

(4) Only higher plants (2) A-c,g; B-a,h; C-b,f; D-d,e
175. Which of the following criteria for five (3) A-b,h; B-a,g; C-c,f; D-d,e
kingdom classification was not used by R.H. (4) A-c,e; B-a,g; C-b,f; D-d,h
Whittaker ? 178. In nomenclature suffix are mostly used by :-
(1) Thallus organisation
(1) Plant scientists (2) Zoologists
(2) Mode of nutrition
(3) Bacteriologists (4) Virologists
(3) Phylogenetic relationship
179. ICBN stands for
(4) Types of ribosomes
(1) Indian Congress of Biological Name
176. A unicellular eukaryotic wall less microbe was
collected by a student from rain water. His International Code of Botanical
(2)
teacher grouped the organism in _____ Nomenclature 
kingdom according to Linnaeus system and (3) International Congress of Biological Name
_____ kingdom according to Whittaker's
(4) Indian Code of Bacterial Nomenclature
system.
(1) Animalia, Monera 180. Which taxonomic category was made on the
(2) Monera, plantae basis of rRNA sequence ?
(3) Plants, protista (1) Kingdom (2) Domain
(4) Animalia, Protista (3) Species (4) Order

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