1st Comprehensive Examination PHARMA

1st Comprehensive Examination
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Pharmacology
Prepared by:
Dr. Perfecto B. Soriano

Chair, Department of Pharmacology & Therapeutics
1st Comprehensive Examination - December 19, 2020
44. An agent which stimulate the production and function of neutrophils, important
cellular mediators of innate immune system that serve as the first line of defense
against infection?
D. Folacin
B. Epoetin alfa
C. Filgrastim
A. Oprelvekin
31. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs prevents sympathetic stimulation

and reduces renin secretion?
B. β-blockers
C. Calcium-channel blockers
D. ACE inhibitors
A. α-blockers
Clear selection
18. Which effect may lead to toxic reactions when a drug is taken continuously or
repeatedly?
C. Tolerance
A. Refractoriness
B. Cumulative effect
D. Tachyphylaxis
Clear selection
22. The term “chemical antagonism” means that:

A. two drugs combine with one another to form an inactive compound
D. two drugs combine with one another to form a more fat soluble compound
C. two drugs combine with one another to form a more water soluble compound
B. two drugs combine with one another to form a more active compound
Clear selection
45. Which is NOT an anticoagulant drugs?
B. Direct thrombin inhibitors
C. Aspirin
A. Heparins
D. Direct factor X inhibitors
Clear selection
50. Which is of the following agents is primarily indicated in acute gout?

D. Pegloticase
A. Allopurinol
C. Febuxostat
B. Colchicine
Clear selection
41. Which of the following diuretic agents is NOT a sulfonamide derivative?

B. Chlorthalidone
A. Thiazides
C. Metolazone
D. Spironolactone
20. What term is used to describe a decrease in responsiveness to a drug which

develops in a few minutes?
D. Tachyphylaxis
A. Refractoriness
C. Tolerance
Clear selection
24. Therapeutic index (TI) is:

C. A ratio used to evaluate the bioavailability of a drug
A. A ratio used to evaluate the safety and usefulness of a drug for indication
B. A ratio used to evaluate the effectiveness of a drug
D. A ratio used to evaluate the elimination of a drug
46. Which of the following agents competitively inhibits plasminogen activation?

B. Dipyridamole
C. Aminocaproic acid
D. ADP receptor antagonists
A. Factor VIII
29. Which of the following β-blockers has the longest elimination half-life?
B. Propranolol
C. Betaxolol
A. Nebivolol
D. Sotalol
Clear selection
26. Which of the following agents is indicated in the treatment of myastenia gravis?
A. Pilocarpine
C. Bethanecol
B. Edrophonium
D. Echothiophate
Clear selection
17. All of the following statements about efficacy and potency are true EXCEPT:
B. Efficacy is the maximum effect of a drug
C. Potency is a comparative measure, refers to the different doses of two drugs that are needed to produce
the same effect
D. The ED50 is a measure of drug’s efficacy
A. Efficacy is usually a more important clinical consideration than potency
Clear selection
4. The volume of distribution (Vd) relates:

A. Single to a daily dose of an administrated drug
D. The amount of a drug in the body to the concentration of a drug in plasma
B. An administrated dose to a body weight
C. An uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation
Clear selection
35. The following agents reduces preload and afterload; EXCEPT

A. Vasodilators
B. β-adrenoceptor agonists
C. Diuretics
D. ACE inhibitors
E. None of the above
7. Which of the following processes proceeds in the second phase of

biotransformation?
D. Hydrolysis
C. Oxidation
A. Acetylation
B. Reduction
14. Mechanisms of transmembrane signaling are the following EXCEPT:

D. Transmembrane receptor protein that stimulates a GTP-binding signal transducer protein (G-protein)
which in turn generates an intracellular second messenger
B. Gene replacement by the introduction of a therapeutic gene to correct a genetic effect
C. Ligand-gated ion channels that can be induced to open or close by binding a ligand
A. Transmembrane receptors that bind and stimulate a protein tyrosine kinase
1. The main mechanism of most drugs absorption in GI tract is:

C. Endocytosis and exocytosis
D. Passive diffusion (lipid diffusion)
A. Active transport (carrier-mediated diffusion)
B. Filtration (aqueous diffusion)
3. What does the term “bioavailability” mean?

B. Permeability through the brain-blood barrier
A. Plasma protein binding degree of substance
D. Amount of a substance in urine relative to the initial dose
C. Fraction of an uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation following any route administration
16. The increase of second messengers’ (cAMP, cGMP, Ca2+ etc.) concentration
leads to:
D. Antagonism with endogenous ligands
A. Inhibition of intracellular protein kinases and protein phosphorylation
B. Protein kinases activation and protein phosphorylation
C. Blocking of interaction between a receptor and an effector
37. Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs prolongs action potential and QT
interval, slows heart rate and AV conduction?
D. Verapamil
A. Lidocaine
C. Amiodarone
B. Flecainide
32. The metabolite of the agent opens potassium channels in the vascular smooth
muscle which causes vasodilation?
A. Clonidine
C. Minoxidil
D. Hydralazine
B. Diltiazem
19. What term is used to describe a more gradual decrease in responsiveness to a

drug, taking days or weeks to develop?
D. Tachyphylaxis
C. Tolerance
A. Refractoriness
Clear selection
33. The following statements are TRUE regarding the beneficial effects of nitrates in
the treatment of angina; EXCEPT
D. Decreased arterial pressure
A. Decreased ejection time
C. Improved subendothelial perfusion
B. Increased ventricular volume
27. It is a drug used to opposed the effects of cholinesterase inhibitors by regenerating

active acetylcholinesterase
B. Dicyclomine
A. Atropine
C. Pralidoxime
D. Scopolamine
9. An agonist is a substance that:

C. Increases concentration of another substance to produce effect
B. Interacts with the receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing various effects
D. Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce any effect
A. Interacts with the receptor without producing any effect
Clear selection
13. The substance binding to one receptor subtype as an agonist and to another as an
antagonist is called:
C. Agonist-antagonist
A. Competitive antagonist
D. Partial agonist
B. Irreversible antagonist
Clear selection
11. An antagonist is a substance that:

A. Binds to the receptors and initiates changes in cell function, producing maximal effect
D. Binds to the receptors without directly altering their functions
B. Binds to the receptors and initiates changes in cell function, producing submaximal effect
C. Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce any effect
Clear selection
40. Vasopressin antagonists acts on which segment of the nephron?

B. Thin descending limb of Henle’s loop
D. Medullary collecting duct
C. Distal convoluted tubule
A. Proximal tubule
Clear selection
5. The term “biotransformation” includes the following:
D. Process of physicochemical and biochemical alteration of a drug in the body
C. Accumulation of substances in a tissue
B. Binding of substances with plasma proteins
A. Accumulation of substances in a fat tissue
Clear selection
49. It is often the first-line agent for the treatment of chronic gout?
B. Allopurinol
C. Probenecid
D. Sulfinpyrazone
A. Febuxostat
Clear selection
39. An agent/s used in the treatment of digitalis-induced arrhythmias?

C. Potassium
B. Adenosine
A. Lidocaine
D. Propranolol
Clear selection
42. The following diuretic agents is NOT a potassium-sparing diuretics?

D. Spironolactone
A. Amiloride
C. Triamterene
B. Eplerenone
E. None of the above
34. Which of the following agents is NOT a positive inotroph?

D. Aldosterone antagonists
C. Bypyridines
A. Cardiac glycosides
B. β-adrenoceptor agonists
38. Which of the following agents is solely intravenous preparation indicated to

terminate ventricular tachycardias and prevents ventricular fibrillation?
C. Lidocaine
D. Procainamide
B. Amiodarone
A. Verapamil
43. Which of the following agents is the diuretic of choice in patients with poor renal
function?
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
A. Furosemide
C. Spironolactone
D. Acetazolamide
10. If an agonist can produce maximal effects and has high efficacy it’s called:
C. Agonist-antagonist
D. Full agonist
B. Antagonist
A. Partial agonist
8. Half life (t ½) is the time required to:

B. Metabolize a half of an introduced drug into the active metabolite
A. Change the amount of a drug in plasma by half during elimination
D. Bind a half of an introduced drug to plasma proteins
C. Absorb a half of an introduced drug
30. Which of the following α-blocking drugs irreversibly blocks α1 and α2 and causes
indirect baroreflex activation?
B. Phentolamine
C. Phenoxybenzamine
D. Prazocin
A. Tamsulosin
36. It is a drug used in heart failure which increases blood flow at lower doses
A. Furosemide
D. ACE inhibitors
C. Dobutamine
B. Dopamine
25. Activation of M3 receptors causes which of the following response/s?

D. Relaxation of the ciliary muscle of the eyes
A. Contraction of the bladder wall
C. Relaxation of the bronchial smooth muscles
B. Increases contractility of the of the atria
Clear selection
12. A competitive antagonist is a substance that:

A. Interacts with receptors and produces submaximal effect
D. Binds to one receptor subtype as an agonist and to another as an antagonist
C. Binds to the nonspecific sites of tissue
B. Binds to the same receptor site and progressively inhibits the agonist response
Clear selection
6. Metabolic transformation (phase 1) is:

A. Acetylation and methylation of substances
B. Transformation of substances due to oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis
D. Binding to plasma proteins
C. Glucuronide formation
Clear selection
2. What kind of substances can’t permeate membranes by passive diffusion?

C. Hydrophobic substances
A. Lipid-soluble
D. Hydrophilic substances
B. Non-ionized substances
Clear selection
28. Which of the following statements regarding α1 agonists is most accurate?

A. It is used to reduce bladder tone
B. Inhibits adenyl cyclase and interacts with other intracellular pathways
D. Activates phospholipase C, resulting in increased intracellular calcium and vasoconstriction
C. Activates adenylyl cyclase resulting in increased calcium influx which exhibits inotropic effects
48. Which of the agent reduces intestinal uptake of cholesterol by inhibiting sterol
transporter?
B. Fibrates
A. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors
C. Ezetimibe
D. Niacin
Clear selection
47. The following statements is NOT associated with Niacin?

D. Prevents reabsorption of bile acids from the gastrointestinal tract
B. Increases HDL cholesterol
A. Reduces VLDL secretion from liver
C. It causes hyperuricemia
23. Characteristic unwanted reaction which isn’t related to a dose or to a

pharmacodynamic property of a drug is called:
B. Hypersensitivity
D. Teratogenic action
C. Tolerance
A. Idiosyncrasy
Clear selection
15. Which of the following is a second messenger of G-protein-coupled (metabotropic)

receptor:
D. cAMP
B. Sodium ions
A. Adenylyl cyclase
C. Phospholipase C
21. If two drugs with the same effect, taken together, produce an effect that is equal in
magnitude to the sum of the effects of the drugs given individually, it is called as:
A. Antagonism
B. Potentiation
C. Additive effect
D. None of the above
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1st Comprehensive Examination

Dr. Perfecto B. Soriano

31. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs prevents sympathetic stimulation

22. The term “chemical antagonism” means that:

50. Which is of the following agents is primarily indicated in acute gout?

41. Which of the following diuretic agents is NOT a sulfonamide derivative?

20. What term is used to describe a decrease in responsiveness to a drug which

24. Therapeutic index (TI) is:

46. Which of the following agents competitively inhibits plasminogen activation?

4. The volume of distribution (Vd) relates:

35. The following agents reduces preload and afterload; EXCEPT

7. Which of the following processes proceeds in the second phase of

14. Mechanisms of transmembrane signaling are the following EXCEPT:

1. The main mechanism of most drugs absorption in GI tract is:

3. What does the term “bioavailability” mean?

19. What term is used to describe a more gradual decrease in responsiveness to a

27. It is a drug used to opposed the effects of cholinesterase inhibitors by regenerating

9. An agonist is a substance that:

11. An antagonist is a substance that:

40. Vasopressin antagonists acts on which segment of the nephron?

39. An agent/s used in the treatment of digitalis-induced arrhythmias?

42. The following diuretic agents is NOT a potassium-sparing diuretics?

34. Which of the following agents is NOT a positive inotroph?

38. Which of the following agents is solely intravenous preparation indicated to

8. Half life (t ½) is the time required to:

25. Activation of M3 receptors causes which of the following response/s?

12. A competitive antagonist is a substance that:

6. Metabolic transformation (phase 1) is:

2. What kind of substances can’t permeate membranes by passive diffusion?

28. Which of the following statements regarding α1 agonists is most accurate?

47. The following statements is NOT associated with Niacin?

23. Characteristic unwanted reaction which isn’t related to a dose or to a

15. Which of the following is a second messenger of G-protein-coupled (metabotropic)

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