Objective type Question Bank

On

Subject-Thermal Power Engineering

(Subject code-ES-EE401)

Group-A ----Multiple Choice type Q uestions (Each of 01 mark)

1. A device used to increase the temperature of saturated steam without raising its pressure
is called a) blow off cock b) fusible plug c) economiser d*) superheater.

2. In economiser, gas side heat transfer co-efficient is hg and waterside heat transfer co-
efficient is hw.Then a) hg >> hw b*) hw >> hg c) hw = hg d) hw = hg/2.

3. Orsat meter is used for a) gravimetric analysis of flue gas b) mass flow of flue gas c*)
volumetric analysis of flue gas d) measuring smoke density of flue gas.

4. The modern steam turbines are a) impulse turbine b) reaction turbine c*) impulse-
reaction turbine d) none of these.

5. If a coal sample selected for use at a power plant has a grindability index 50, it would
require the grinding power of the standard coal as a) same b*) twice c) half d) thrice.

6. For excess amount of air supplied the value of the dilution coefficient (d) is a*) d > 1 b) d
< 1 c) d = 1.

7. In forced draught fan the blade geometry is given as a) forward curved b*) backward
curved c) either forward curved or backward curved.

8. In a circulation system if D1 be the diameter of the riser tubes and D2 be the diameter of
the down comers, then a) D1 = D2 b) D1 < D2 d*) D1 > D2.

9. If the power plant unit output ranging from 125 MW to 1300 MW, then the steam
capacity range of modern utility steam generators is a) 100-120 kg/s b*) 120-1300 kg/s c)
80-100 kg/s d) 1300-2000kg/s.

10.In a boiler, various heat losses take place. The biggest loss is due to a) moisture in fuel
b*) dry flue gases c) steam formation d) unburnt carbon.
11.Circulation ratio (CR) is equal to a) TDF b*) (TDF)-1 c) (TDF)0.5 d) there is no relation
between CR and TDF.

12.Economiser is used to heat a) air b*) feed water c) flue gas d) all of these.
13.Primary air is the air used to a) reduce the flame length b) increase the flame length c*)
transport and dry the coal d) provide O2 around the burner.

14.The basic purpose of drum in boiler is to a) serve as storage of steam b) serve as storage
of feed water for water wall c) remove salts from water d*) separate steam from water.

15.The draught is produced by (a) mechanical fan (b*) chimney (c) steam jet (d) all of these
(e) none of these.

16.Water required for attemperation is taken from (a*) boiler drum (b) economizer (c) feed
pump (d) any one of (a) & (b).

17.The circulation ratio of once through boiler is (a*) unity (b) half (c) 3 to 10 (d) 4 to 30.
18.The main function of condenser is to (a) create vacuum (b) maintain vacuum (c*)
condense steam to water for reuse (d) all of these (e) none of these.

19.Supercritical boilers are (a) fire tube boilers (b) water tube boilers (c) a combination of
the above two (d*) once-through boilers.

20.Natural circulation type boiler runs on the principle of (a*) differential density of hot and
cold water (b) differential density of hot and cold gases at the chimney (c) natural draught
system with chimney (d) none of these.

21.An economizer in a boiler: (a) increases steam pressure (b) increases steam flow (c*)
decreases fuel consumption (d) increases the life of boiler.

22.Which of the following types of boiling is desired in riser of power-plant boiler (a) film
boiling (b) nucleate boiling (c*) both (a) & (b) (d) none of these.

23.Balanced draught is created by (a) chimney (b*) induced and forced draught fan (c)
correct air-fuel ratio (d) velocity of steam.

24.The amount of water evaporated in kg/kg of fuel burnt is called (a*) equivalent
evaporation from and at 1000C (b) evaporation capacity of a boiler (c) boiler efficiency
(d) none of these.

25.Which of the following as referred to steam boiler are defined as mountings (a*) fusible
plug (b) pre heater (c) super heater (d) economizer?
26.Function of blow-down cock in boiler is (a) to maintain water level by draining excess
water (b) to empty the water drums of the boiler (c*) to remove slugs and sediments
collected in drums (d) to blow off steam to maintain safe pressure.

27.The draught which a chimney produces is called (a) induced draught (b*) natural draught
(c) forced draught (d) balanced draught.

28.For a forced draught system, the function of chimney is mainly (a) to produce draught to
accelerate the combustion of fuel (b*) to discharge gases high up in the atmosphere to
avoid hazard (d) to reduce the temperature of the hot gases discharged (d) none of the
above.

29.Artificial draught is produced by (a) induced fan (b) forced fan (c) chimney (d *) all of
the above.

30.For the same draught produced the power of induced draught fan as compared to forced
draught fan is (a) less (b*) more (c) same (d) not predictable.

31.In the fire tube boilers (a) the water passes through the tubes and hot gases surround the
tubes (b*) the hot gases pass through tubes and water surrounds the tubes (c) fire
surrounds the tubes and water passes in the tubes (d) all of these.

32.The main function of drum in steam generator with single drum (a*) is to separate steam
from water in the drum (b) is to store steam in drum (c) is to store water in drum (d) is to
remove salt from water in the drum.

33.Water tube boilers have (a) hot gases passing through tubes and water surrounding them
(b) always forced circulation of water through tubes (c*) water passing through tubes and
hot gases surrounding them (d) none of these.

34.The function of the following fitting in a boiler is to prevent the pressure exceeding the
fixed maximum limit: (a) feed check valve (b) blow off cock (c*) safety valve (d) fusible
plug.

35.For the induced draught the fan is located (a*) near bottom of chimney (b) near bottom of
furnace (c) at the top of the chimney (d) anywhere permissible.

36.The pressure at the furnace is least in case of (a) forced draught system (b) induced
draught system (c*) balanced draught system (d) natural draught system.

37.Which of the following as referred to steam boiler are defined as accessories? (a*)
Economizer (b) water level indicator (c) safety valve (d) stop valve.
 h  f
 hm
h h
38.Degree of reaction as referred to steam turbine is defined as a) b) m f
c)
h f
h m

d*) h
h h   h
m f m
. f

39.The ratio of work done on the blades per kg of steam to the energy supplied to the blades
is called a) diagram or blading efficiency b) nozzle efficiency c*) gross or stage
efficiency d) mechanical efficiency.

40.In case of reaction steam turbine a*) there is enthalpy drop both in fixed and moving
blades b) there is enthalpy drop only in fixed blades c) there is enthalpy drop only in
moving blades d) none of these.

41.Curtis turbine is a) reaction steam turbine b*) pressure velocity compounded steam
turbine c) pressure compounded impulse steam turbine d) velocity compounded impulse
steam turbine.

42.For a Parson’s reaction turbine, the degree of reaction is a) 0.75 b) 1.0 c*) 0.5 d) 0.25.
43.The Parson’s reaction turbine has a) only moving blades b) only fixed blades c*) identical
fixed and moving blades d) fixed and moving blades of different shape.

44.Velocity compounding involves a) expansion of steam in stages b*) recovery of kinetic

energy of steam leaving first set of blades in subsequent row of blades c) velocity and
pressure equalization at different stages d) increased velocity after each stage due to
expansion of steam.

45.The dryness fraction of steam in a turbine is limited to 85% to 95% to prevent a) fall in
thermal efficiency b) corrosion of blades c*) erosion of blades d) overloading of
condenser.

46.Supersaturated flow through steam nozzle leads to a) decrease in available enthalpy drop
b) increase in available enthalpy drop c*) decrease in temperature compared to that for
stable flow d) increase in temperature compared to that for stable flow.

47.For multistage steam turbine, reheat factor is defined as a) ηstage x ηnozzle b) cumulative
enthalpy drop x ηnozzle c*) cumulative enthalpy drop/ ideal enthalpy drop d) isentropic
enthalpy drop / cumulative actual enthalpy drop.

48.The maximum efficiency of a De-Laval turbine is a) sin2α b*) cos2α c) tan2α d) cot2α e)
none of these.
 49.The purpose of governing in a steam turbine is to a) reduce relative heat drop b) reheat
the steam and improve its quality c) completely balance against end thrust d*) maintain
the speed of the turbine.

50.Flow through the nozzle is regarded as a) Constant pressure flow b) Constant volume
flow c) Isenthalpic flow d*) Isentropic flow.

Group-B---------Objective Questions (Each of 02 mark)

1. In a simple gas turbine power plant operating on standard Brayton cycle power needed to
drive the compressor is 175 kW, rate of heat supplied during constant pressure heat addition
process is 675 kW. Turbine output obtained during expansion is 425 kW. What is the rate of heat
rejection during constant pressure heat rejection?

(a) 75 kW (b*) 425 kW (c) 500 kW (d) 925 kW

2. A gas turbine develops 120 kJ of work while the compressor absorbed 60 kJ of work and the
heat supplied is 100 kJ. If a regenerator which would recover 40% of the heat in the exhaust was
used, then the increase in the overall thermal efficiency would be:

(a*) 10.2% (b) 8.6% (c) 6.9% (d) 5.7%

3. A gas turbine plant working on Joule cycle produces 4000 kW of power. If its work ratio is
40%, what is the power consumed by the compressor?

(a) 2000 kW (b) 4000 kW (c*) 6000 kW (d) 8000 kW

4. A power plant consumes coal at the rate of 80 kg/s while the combustion air required is
11kg/kg of coal. What will be the power of the F.D. fan supplying the air, if its efficiency is 80%
and it develops a pressure of 1.2 m of water? (Assume density of air to be 1.2 kg/m3)

(a*) 10.97MW (b) 9.87MW (c) 9.21 MW (d) 8.78MW

5. Amount of oxygen needed to completely burn l1lg of methane (CH4) is

(a) 2 kg (b*) 4 kg (c) 16 kg (d) 22 kg

6. A double acting steam engine with a cylinder diameter of 19 cm and a stroke of 30 cm has a
cut-off of 0.35. The expansion ratio for this engine is nearly

(a) 1.05 (b*) 2.85 (c) 6.65 (d) 10.05

7. In order to burn 1 kilogram of CH4 completely, the minimum number of kilograms of oxygen
needed is (take atomic weight of H, C and O as 1, 12 and 16 respectively).
(a) 3 (b*) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6

8. The work output from a reaction turbine stage is 280 kW per kg/s of steam. If the nozzle
efficiency is 0.92 and rotor efficiency is 0.90, the isentropic static enthalpy drop will be

(a) 352 kW (b) 347 kW (c*) 338 kW (d) 332 kW

9. In a 50%, reaction turbine stage, the tangential component of absolute velocity at rotor inlet is
537 m/s and blade velocity is 454 m/s. The power output in kW of steam will be

(a) 302 (b*) 282 (c) 260 (d) 284

10. Steam enters the rotor of a reaction turbine with an absolute velocity of 236 m/s and the
relative velocity of 132 m/s. It leaves the rotor with a relative velocity of 232 m/s absolute
velocity of 126 m/s. The specific work output is

(a*) 38.1 kW (b) 40.1 kW (c) 43.8 kW (d) 47.4 kW

11. If in an impulse turbine designed for free vortex flow, tangential velocity of steam at the root
radius of 250 mm is 430 m/s and the blade height is 100 mm, then the tangential velocity of
steam at the tip will be

(a) 602 m/s (b) 504 m/s (c) 409 m/s (d*) 307 m/s

12. At a particular section of a reaction turbine, the diameter of the blade is 1.8 m, the velocity of
flow of steam is 49 m/s and the quantity of steam flow is 5.4 m3/s. The blade height at this
section will be approximately:

(a) 4 cm (b*) 2 cm (c) 1 cm (d) 0.5 cm

13. In a 50% reaction stage, absolute velocity angle at inlet is 45 o mean peripheral speed is 75
m/s and the absolute velocity at the exit is axial. The stage specific work is

(a) 2500 m2/s2 (b) 3270 m2/s2 (c) 4375 m2/s2 (d*) 5625 m2/s2

14. The following data refer to an axial flow turbine stage:

Relative velocity of steam at inlet to the rotor = 79.0 m/s., Relative velocity at the rotor exit =
152 m/s rotor mean peripheral velocity = 68.4 m/s, work output per kg of steam = 14100 J. What
is the approximate degree of reaction?
(a) 0.9 (b) 0.8 (c) 0.7 (d*) 0.6

15. A 4-row velocity compounded steam turbine develops total 6400 kW. What is the power
developed by the last row?

(a) 200 kW (b*) 400 kW (c) 800 kW (d) 1600 kW

16. A single-stage impulse turbine with a diameter of 120 cm runs at 3000 rpm. If the blade
speed ratio is 0.42 then, the inlet velocity of steam will be

(a) 79 m/s (b) 188m/s (c*) 450 m/s (d) 900 m/s

17. A steam turbine receives steam steadily at 10 bar with an enthalpy of 3000 kJ/kg and
discharges at 1 bar with an enthalpy of 2700 kJ/kg. The work output is 250 kJ/kg. The changes in
kinetic and potential energies are negligible. The heat transfer from the turbine casing to the
surroundings is equal to

(a) 0 kJ (b*) 50 kJ (c) 150 kJ (d) 250 kJ

18. The equivalent evaporation (kg/hr) of a boiler producing 2000 kg/hr of steam with enthalpy
content of 2426 kJ/kg from feed water at temperature 40°C (liquid enthalpy = 168 kJ/kg,
enthalpy of vaporization of water at 100°C = 2258 kJ/kg) is

(a*) 2000 (b) 2149 (c) 1682 (d) 1649

19. What is the efficiency of an ideal regenerative Rankine cycle power plant using saturated
steam at 327oC and pressure 135 bar at the inlet to the turbine, and condensing temperature of
27oC (corresponding saturation pressure of 3.6 kPa)?

(a) 92% (b) 33% (c*) 50% (d) 42%

20. A steam plant has the boiler efficiency of 92%, turbine efficiency (mechanical) of 94%,
generator efficiency of 95% and cycle efficiency of 44%. If 6% of the generated power is used to
run the auxiliaries, the overall plant efficiency is

(a*) 34% (b) 39% (c) 45% (d) 30%

21. A thermal power plant operates on a regenerative cycle with a single open feed water heater,
as shown in the figure. For the state points shown, the specific enthalpies are: h1 = 2800 kJ/kg
and h2 = 200 kJ/kg. The bleed to the feed water heater is 20% of the boiler steam generation rate.
The specific enthalpy at state 3 is

(a*) 720 kJ/kg (b) 2280 kJ/kg (c) 1500 kJ/kg (d) 3000kJ/kg
22. A thermal electric power plant produces 1000 MW of power. If the coal releases 900 x 10 7
kJ/h of energy, then what is the rate at which heat is rejected from the power plant?

(a) 500 MW (b) 1000 MW (c*) 1500 MW (d) 2000 MW

Common data for Q 23 to 26

In an air standard Otto cycle, the compression ratio is 7 and the compression begins at 35 oCand
0.1 MPa. The maximum temperature of the cycle is 1100 oC.

23. the heat supplied per kg of air

(a*) 500 kJ (b) 400 kJ (c) 600 kJ (d) 700 kJ

24. work done per kg of air

(a) 373 kJ (b*) 272 kJ (c) 172 kJ (d) 473 kJ

25. the cycle efficiency

(a) 34 % (b) 44% (c*) 54% (d) 64%

26. the MEP of the cycle

(a*) 360 kPa (b) 365 kPa (c) 370 kPa (d) 375 kPa

Common data for Q 27 to 32

In a Diesel cycle, the compression ratio is 15. Compression begins at 0.1 Mpa, 40 oC. The heat
added is 1.675 MJ/kg.

27. the maximum temperature in the cycle

(a) 2512 K(b*) 2592 K (c) 1325 K (d) 232 K

28. work done per kg of air

(a) 902 kJ (b) 92 kJ (c*) 950 kJ (d) 219 kJ

29. the cycle efficiency

(a) 34 % (b) 44% (c*) 57% (d) 67%

30. the temperature at the end of the isentropic expansion

(a) 2512 K(b) 2592 K (c*) 1325 K (d) 232 K

31. the cut-off ratio

(a) 3.2 (b*) 2.8 (c) 1.2 (d) 5.6

32. the MEP of the cycle

(a) 1360 kPa (b*) 1132 kPa (c) 963 kPa (d) 754 kPa

Common data for Q 33 to 36

In a Brayton cycle based power plant, the air at the inlet is at 27 oC, 0.1 MPa. The pressure ratio
is 6.25and the maximum temperature is 800oC.

33. the compressor work per kg of air

(a) 353 kJ (b) 440 kJ (c*) 208 kJ (d) 243 kJ

34. the turbine work per kg or air

(a) 353 kJ (b*) 440 kJ (c) 208 kJ (d) 243 kJ

35. the heat supplied per kg of air

(a*) 570 kJ (b) 470 kJ (c) 670 kJ (d) 770 kJ

36. the cycle efficiency

(a) 31 % (b*) 41% (c) 51% (d) 61%

Common data for Q 37 to 39

A diesel engine has a compression ratio of 20:1with an inlet of 95 kPa, 290 K, with volume 0.5
L. The maximum cycle temperature is 1800 K

37. the maximum pressure

(a) 7298 kPa (b*) 6298 kPa (c) 5298 kPa (d) 4298 kPa

38. the net specific work

(a*) 550 kJ (b) 400 kJ (c) 650 kJ (d) 700 kJ

39. the thermal efficiency

(a) 35 % (b) 48% (c) 57% (d*) 65%

Common data for Q 40 to 45

In an impulse steam turbine, steam is accelerated through nozzle from rest. It enters the nozzle at
9.8 bar dry and saturated. The height of the blade is 10 cm and the nozzle angle is 15°. Mean
blade velocity is 144 m/s. The blade velocity ratio is 0.48 and blade velocity coefficient is 0.97.
40. Isentropic heat drop will be

(a) 58.9 kJ/kg (b*) 48.9 kJ/kg (c) 68.9 kJ/kg (d) 38.9 kJ/kg

41. Energy lost in the nozzles due to friction

(a) 2.9 kJ/kg (b*) 3.9 kJ/kg (c) 4.9 kJ/kg (d) 5.9 kJ/kg

42. Mass flow rate

(a) 123 kg/s (b*) 113 kg/s (c) 103 kg/s (d) 143 kg/s

43. Power developed per stage

(a) 5125 kW (b) 6135 kW (c*) 4682 kW (d) 5109 kW

44. Diagram efficiency

(a) 93.2 (b*) 92.2 (c) 91.2 (d) 95.6

45. Stage efficiency, Take: Nozzle efficiency = 92%

(a*) 84.8 (b) 82.2 (c) 81.2 (d) 85.6

Common data for Q 46 to 48

A quality governed four-stroke, single cylinder gas engine has a bore of 146 mm and a stroke of
280 mm. At 475 r.p.m. and full load the net load on the friction brake is 433 N, and the torque
arm is 0.45 m. The indicator diagram gives a net area of 578 mm2 and a length of 70 mm with a
spring rating of 0.815 bar/mm

46. The indicated power

(a*) 12.5 kW (b) 13.5 kW (c) 8.62 kW (d) 10.9 kW

47. Brake power

(a) 11.5 kW (b*) 9.7 kW (c) 8.6 kW (d) 10.9 kW

48. Mechanical efficiency

(a) 82.8 (b*) 77.6 (c) 71.2 (d) 65.4

Common data for Q 49 to 50

In an engine working on the Otto cycle, the measured suction temperature was 100°C and the
temperature at the end of compression was 300°C. Taking k for compression as 1.41, find

49. The ideal efficiency

(a) 44 (b*) 35 (c) 30 (d) 40

50. the compression ratio

(a*) 2.85 (b) 1.61 (c) 1.24 (d) 2.4