Anatomy MCQS

29. Which one of the following vessels is located just deep to platysma? a. External jugular
vein.
b. External carotid artery.
c. Common carotid artery.
d. Internal carotid artery.
e. Internal jugular vein.
A

30. The platysma is innervated by the ____ nerve: a. Facial

b. Accessory
c. Trigeminal
d. Glossopharyngeal
e. Transverse cervical
D

31. Which one of the following ligaments is a thickened part of investing layer of the deep
cervical fascia? a. Thyrohyoid.
b. Spuraspinous.
c. Cricothyroid.
d. Stylomandibular.
e. Ligamentum flaveum.
A

32. Sternocleidomastoid muscle is completely surrounded by the: a. Carotid sheath.

b. Investing layer.
c. Superficial fascia.
d. Pretracheal fascia.
e. Prevertebral fascia.
E

33. The ligament that suspends the hyoid bone to digastric muscle is derived from ______? a.
Carotid sheath.
b. Superficial fascia.
c. Pretracheal fascia.
d. Prevertebral fascia.
e. Thyrohyoid membrane.
C

34. Which one of the following ligaments of the neck limits hyperextension? a. Nuchal
ligament.
b. Ligamentum flavum.
 c. Interspinous ligaments.
d. Intertransverse ligaments.
e. Anterior longitudinal ligament.
A

35. What is the layer that overlies the phrenic nerve? a. Platysma.
b. Superficial fascia.
c. Pretracheal fascia.
d. Prevertebral fascia.
e. Investing layer of deep fascia.
A

36. Pus in _____ pace of the neck passes as downward as the superior mediastinum. a.
Submental.
b. Prevertebral.
c. Submandibular.
d. Parapharyngeal.
e. Reteropharyngeal.
E

37. Moving the head so that the face looks upwards and to the left is a movement produced by
the: a. Platysma.
b. Left trapezius only.
c. Right geniohyoid only.
d. Right sternocleidomastoid.
e. Posterior belly of digastric.
D

38. The neck is divided into anterior and posterior triangles using ____ muscle as land mark:
a. Trapezius.
b. Sternohyoid.
c. Scalenus anterior
d. Sternocleidomastoid.
e. Anterior belly of digastric.
D

39. The _______ triangle of the neck lies between the anterior bellies of digastric muscles. a.
Occipital.
b. Posterior.
c. Muscular.
d. Submental.
e. Submandibular.
 D

40. The posterior triangle is divided into two triangles by the ___ muscle: a. Digastric.
b. Trapezius.
c. Omohyoid.
d. Mylohyoid.
e. Sternohyoid.
C

41. Stab wound directed into submandibular triangle may lead to: a. Ptosis of the eye.
b. Drop of the shoulder.
c. Deviation of the mouth.
d. Deviation of the tongue.
e. Tilting of the head to the same side.
E

42. Roots of cervical plexus pass anterior to ______ muscle. a. Scalenus medius.
b. Scalenus anterior.
c. Scalenus posterior.
d. Semispinalis capitis.
e. Sternocleidomastoid.
E

43. The nerve point of the neck is at the middle of the posterior border of the ______ muscle.
a. Trapezius.
b. Omohyoid.
c. Sternohyoid.
d. Sternothyroid.
e. Sternocleidomastoid.
A

44. What is the cutaneous branch of the cervical plexus that crosses over the
sternocleidomastoid muscle? a. Phrenic.
b. Great auricular.
c. Supraclavicular.
d. Lesser occipital.
e. Transverse cervical.
A

45. The branch from the hypoglossal nerve that supplies thyrohyoid muscle is actually
derived from _____ a. C1.
b. C2.
c. C3.
 d. C4.
e. C5.
A

46. Inferior root of Ansa hypoglossi is derived from: a. C1.

b. C2 and C3.
c. C4 and C5.
d. C6 and C7.
e. C8.
B

47. The inferior root of ansa cervicalis spirals around the: a. Subclavian artery.
b. Internal jugular vein.
c. External jugular vein.
d. Internal carotid artery.
e. External carotid artery.
B

48. Which one of the following branches from the cervical plexus is mixed (motor and
sensory)? a. Phrenic.
b. Great auricular.
c. Supraclavicular.
d. Lesser occipital.
e. Transverse cervical.
C

49. The _____ nerve from the cervical plexus supplies the skin over the acromion process of
the scapula: a. Phrenic.
b. Supraclavicular.
c. Great auricular.
d. Lesser occipital.
e. Transverse cervical.
B

50. A patient had lost cutaneous sensation over the angle of the mandible, which nerve is most
likely damaged? a. Mandibular.
b. Ophthalmic.
c. Great auricular.
d. Auricotemporal.
e. Supra clavicular.
D

51. The thyroid gland moves with swallowing because it is tight by the ___ layer of deep
cervical fascia: a. Parotid.
 b. Carotid.
c. Investing.
d. Pretracheal.
e. Prevertebral.
D

52. The superior thyroid artery is closely related to the ____ nerve: a. Lingual.
b. Hypoglossal.
c. Internal laryngeal.
d. Glossopharyngeal.
e. Recurrent laryngeal.
E

53. Miosis in Horner’s syndrome is due to lack of innervation from the ______ ganglion: a.
Otic.
b. Ciliary.
c. Cervical.
d. Submandibular.
e. Pterygopalatine.
C

54. Ptosis in Horner’s syndrome is due to paralysis of the smooth muscle part of the _____
muscle: a. Superior rectus.
b. Superior oblique.
c. Depressor anguli oris.
d. Levator palpebrae superioris.
e. Levator labii superioris alaeque nasii.
B

55. Damage to ______ ganglion will cause xerophthalmia: a. Otic.

b. Ciliary.
c. Stellate.
d. Submandibular.
e. Pterygopalatine.
A

For Critical Thinking

Options: (Triangles) a. Carotid.
b. Occipital.
c. Muscular.
d. Submental.
 e. Submandibular.
f. Supraclavicular.

• For each structure of the neck mentioned below, select the correct triangle from the options
(above) that contains that structure, some of the options (Triangles) may be used more than once.
167. Facial vein. E
168. Vagus nerve. A
169. Accessory nerve.B
170. Subclavian artery. F
171. Thyrohyoid muscle. C
172. Sternohyoid muscle. C
173. Internal jugular vein.E
174. Anterior jugular vein. D

PHYSIOLOGY MCQS
1) The SA node is the normal pacemaker because of its :
a) rate of impulse discharge
b) location in the atrium
c) neural control
d) muscular structure
e) relative position to the A.V node.
A
2) The SA node is the normal pace maker because :
a) is the most rapidly discharging part
b) is the most richly supplied by nerve endings .
c) located in the atrium .
d) all of the above
D
3) Regarding the S-A node :
a) cells within the S-A node act as heart pace maker because their
membrane depolarized to threshold and initiate an action
potential .
b) acetyl choline increases the slope of the pace - maker potential .
c) sympathetic stimulation decreases the slope of the pace - maker
potential .
d) the pace - maker cells within the S-A node are neurons rather than
myocytes
A.
4) About the cardiac muscle all the following are true except :
a) It has low electric resistance of the membrane at the intercalated discs
b)It forms true syncytium .
c) It obeys the all or none law .
d) there is almost a special capillary for each muscle fiber
D.
5) The cardiac muscle fibers :
a) are unstriated muscle fibers
b) form true syncytium
c) are poor in mitochondria
d) have low resistance bridges & tight gap junctions
B.
6) In the heart , all the following are true except :
a) the pericardium limits sudden dilatation of the ventricles
b) the left ventricle gives an aid to the right ventricle
c) the left atrium is the first part to contract .
d) the left side of the intervent . septum is depolarized before the
right side .
B
7) The fibers of the A-V bundle & its branches :
a) conduct impulses very slowly
b) are highly contractile
c) are modified muscle fibers
d) are nerve fibers
C.
8) The cardiac tissue with the slowest rhythmicity is the :
a) S.A node without vagal tone
b) S.A node with vagal tome .
c) ventricular muscle .
d) AV node.
e) purkinje fibers
E
9) The action potential of cardiac muscle differs from that
of skeletal muscles in:
a) it is propagated more slowly .
b) it is shorter in duration
c) it has a higher amplitude
d) it has no plateau .
e) all of the above
B
10) In the heart all the following are true except :
a) the right ventricle is thicker than the left ventricle
b) the excitation wave cannot spread directly from the atria to the
ventricles
c) contraction normally begins in the right atrium
d) the ventricles contract almost stimultaneously
e) the S.A node is the normal pacemaker
A.
11) When the bundle of His is completely interrupted,the:
a) ventricles contract at a rate of 30-40 beats / minutes .
b) atria beat irregularly
c) QRS complexes vary in shape from beat to beat .
d) P-R interval remains constant from beat to beat
e) S.A node stops discharging.
C
12) About the purkinje tissue ,all the following are true except :
a) they are modified myocardial cells
b) they are confined to the ventricles
c) they are primitive nerve tissue
d) they conduct impulses as some nerves
e) they excite the interventricular septum before the ventricular walls .
C
13) The S.A node :
a) but not the A.V node receives a parasympathetic nerve supply
b) is connected by a thin band of purkinje fibers to the A.V node
c) has a faster rate of diastolic depolarization during vagal activity
d) has a faster rate of diastolic depolarization at 39 C than at 37 C
e) is a secondary cardiac pacemaker
C.
14) The left vent . has a thicker wall than the right ventricle because :
a) it is richer in blood supply
b) it ejects blood through a narrower orifice
c) it ejects a greater cardiac output .
d) it ejects blood against a higher pressure
e) it contracts at a higher rate .
D
15) The atrio-ventricular valves :
a) have three cusps for each valve
b) their closure is initiated when the ventricular pressure exceeds atrial pressure
c) open by contraction of papillary muscles .
d) none of the above .
B
16) All the following are correct except :
a) the left atrial wall is about the same thickness as the right atrium
b) the left ventricle is separated from the left atrium by a bicuspid valve .
c) Purkinje system allows the excitation of all ventricular muscle fibers
to occur at nearly the same time .
d) the right heart receives oxygenated blood from the four pulmonary veins
D
17) The action potential of the cardiac muscle is characterized by
the presence of plateau which:
a) in the ventricular muscle it reached 100 m sec
b) in the artial muscle, it reached 300 m sec
c) it result from a balance between Ca++ influx and K+ efflux .
d) it result from an inflow of Cl- and outflow of bicarbonate ions .
C
18) It is impossible to tetanize a heart because :
a) there is a long mechanical refractory period
b) the refractory period and the mechanical contractile
response are of almost equivalent duration .
c) the heart muscles do not contain Ca ++ .
d) the mechanical contractile event is usually shorter than the duration
of the electrical depolarization .
A
19) The absolute refractory period in the ventricle :
a) increases during sympathetic stimulation .
b) coincides with the phase of rapid depolarization and the plateau .
c) corresponds with the whole duration of action potential .
d) it is shorter than the ARP of skeletal muscle .
C
20) Under normal conditions , the capillaries :
a) contain about 25% of the total blood volume .
b) have a very rapid flow rate
c) have a higher pressure than that in the arterioles
d) are all opened at rest
e) contain about 5 % of the total blood volume .
A
21)About the cardiac conductivity, all the following are true except :
a) it is slowest in the A-v node
b) it is maximal in the purkinje fibers .
c) it is slowest in the ventricular ms.
d) it is decreased by vagal stimulation
e) it occurs through modified cardiac muscle fibers .
C
22)About the pacemaker potential, all the following are true except :
a) it's amplitude is - 80 to - 90 mv
b) it is unstable during rest .
c) its slope is decreased by increased permeability to K+
d) the firing level occurs at a potential difference of about - 45 mv .
e) repolarization is one slow phase .
B
23) The main function of the cardiac purkinje system is to :
a) prevent premature ventricular beats .
b) coordinate the valve movements with myocardial contraction
c) enable all parts of the ventricle to contract simultaneously
d) delay the systole until the ventricles fill .
C
24) Propagation of the action potential through the heart is
fastest in the :
a) SA node
b) atrial muscle
c) AV node
d) purkinje fibers
e) ventricular muscle .
A
25) Myocardial contractility is best correlated with the
intracellular concentration of:
a) Na+
b) K+
c) Ca++
d) Cl
C
26) The cardiac muscle is characterized by having all the following
except :
a) intercalated disk connecting ms.
b) A T system located at the Z line
c) The same refractory period characteristics as the skeletal ms.
d) Acts as a physiological syncytium
B
27) The greatest percentage of blood volume is found in the :
a) Heart
b) Aorta
c) Distributing arteries and arterioles
d) capillaries
e) venules and veins
C
38. Ventricular pressure is higher than the atrial pressure in all phases
of the cardiac cycle except in:
(A) isometric contraction phase.
(B) atrial systole phase.
(C) maximum ejection phase.
(D) reduced ejection phase.
B
39. Diacrotic notch is due to:
(A) sudden closure of AV valves.
(B) sudden closure of aortic valve.
(C) sudden decrease in aortic pressure.
(D) marked decrease in ventricular pressure.
B
40. All are involved in ventricular filling except:
(A) atrial systole phase.
(B) maximum ejection phase.
(C) maximum filling phase.
(D) reduced filling phase.
B
41. AV valves are opened in:
(A) isometric contraction phase.
(B) atrial systole phase.
(C) protodiastolic phase.
(D) maximum ejection phase.
B
42. The longest phase in cardiac cycle is:
(A) maximum ejection phase.
(B) reduced filling phase.
(C) maximum filling phase.
(D) protodiastolic phase.
B
43. Systolic pressure in right ventricle is:
(A) 35 mmHg.
(B) 25 mmHg.
(C) 15 mmHg.
(D) 45 mmHg.
A
44. All cardiac valves are opened in:
(A) isometric relaxation phase.
(B) isometric contraction phase.
(C) maximum filling phase.
(D) all of the above.
(E) non of the above.
C
45. C wave in jugular venous pulse occurs in:
(A) isometric contraction phase.
(B) isometric relaxation phase.
(C) maximum ejection phase.
(D) atrial systole phase.
A
46. Y wave in jugular venous pulse occurs in:
(A) isometric contraction phase.
(B) isometric relaxation phase.
(C) maximum filling phase.
(D) maximum ejection phase.
B
47. A-C interval is prolonged in:
(A) A-V nodal rhythm.
(B) first degree heart block.
(C) pulmonary hypertension.
(D) non of the above.
(E) all of the above.
B
48. Cannon waves appear in:
(A) Complete heart block.
(B) AV nodal rhythm.
(C) ventricular extrasystole.
(D) non of the above.
(E) all of the above.
A
53. P wave is due to:
(A) atrial depolarization.
(B) atrial repolarization.
(C) atrial systole.
(D) atrial diastole.
D
54. QRS complex lies in:
(A) isometric contraction phase.
(B) isometric relaxation phase.
(C) maximum filling phase.
(D) maximum ejection phase.
A
55. QRS complex is due to:
(A) ventricular repolarization.
(B) ventricular depolarization.
(C) atrial depolarization.
(D) atrial repolarization.
B
56. QRS complex begins before the mechanical ventricular response by:
(A) 0.01 sec.
(B) 0.15 sec.
(C) 0.02 sec.
(D) 0.03 sec.
B
57. P-R interval is prolonged in all the following cases except:
(A) A-V nodal rhythm.
(B) atrial hypertrophy.
(C) high vagal tone.
(D) first degree heart block.
B
58. P-R interval is present in these cases except:
(A) high vagal tone.
(B) complete heart block.
(C) sympathetic overactivity.
(D) atrial hypertrophy.
B
59. Prolonged a-c interval in jugular venous pulse indicates:
(A) first degree heart block.
(B) complete heart block.
(C) AV nodal rhythm.
(D) all of the above.
(E) non of the above.
C
60. The longest wave in ECG is:
(A) P wave.
(B) T wave.
(C) Q wave.
(D) R wave.
(E) S wave.
R
61. T wave is inverted in:
(A) muscular exercise.
(B) sympathetic overactivity.
(C) coronary ischemia.
(D) hyperthyroidism.
C
62. Abnormalities in T wave is usually linked to abnormalities in:
(A) Q-T interval.
(B) S-T segment.
(C) P-R interval.
(D) A-C interval.
A
76. The shortest phase in cardiac cycle is:
(A) maximum ejection phase.
(B) reduced ejection phase.
(C) maximum filling phase.
(D) reduced filling phase.
(E) protodiastolic phase.
B
77. The systolic pressure in the left ventricle is:
(A) 130 mmHg.
(B) 110 mmHg.
(C) 150 mmHg.
(D) 80 mmHg.
(E) 100 mmHg.
A
78. All cardiac valves are closed in what phase (phases) of the cardiac cycle:
(A) isometric relaxation phase.
(B) maximum filling phase.
(C) reduced filling phase.
(D) all of the above.
(E) non of the above.
A
79. As regard the standard limb leads of ECG, lead II represents:
(A) the potential difference between the left arm and the right arm.
(B) the potential difference between the left leg and the left arm.
(C) the potential difference between the left leg and the right arm.
(D) non of the above.
B
80. In augmented unipolar limb leads, it is obtained by connecting:
(A) the 3 limb electrodes (central terminal i.e. potential is zero)
against the exploring electrode which record the potential at the
point where it is placed.
(B) 2 limb electrodes (central terminal) against the 3rd one
(exploring electrode).
(C) one limb electrode (central terminal) against 2 limb electrodes
connected together as the exploring electrode.
(D) non of the above.
B
81. Einthoven’s triangle is an equilateral triangle, the sides of which represent:
(A) the 3 standard limb leads.
(B) the 3 unipolar limb leads.
(C) combination of both the standard and unipolar leads.
(D) the heart lies at the top of this triangle.
(E) non of the above.
A
82. The exploring electrode of V1 of unipolar chest leads of ECG is placed at:
(A) fourth intercostal space at left sternal border.
(B) fourth intercostal space at right sternal border.
(C) fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line.
(D) fifth intercostal space at anterior axillary line.
(E) fifth intercostal space at mid axillary line.
A
83. Einthoven’s law states that at any given movements the voltage in:
(A) lead I equals the sum of voltage in lead II and lead III.
(B) lead III equals the sum of LI and LII.
(C) lead II equals the sum of LI and LIII.
(D) lead I should equal lead III.
(E) lead II should equal lead III.
B
84. Which is determined by ECG:
(A) mechanical performance of the heart:
(B) cardiac output.
(C) systolic and diastolic information.
(D) effects due to changes in fluid electrolytes.
(E) venous return to heart.
C
ECG record gives valuable information about all of the following except:
(A) disturbance of rhythm and conduction.
(B) relative size of heart chamber.
(C) cardiac output.
(D) ischemic changes of the myocardium.
(E) the influence of same drugs.
B
90. The P-R interval of ECG:
(A) represents the conductivity of AV bundle.
(B) has a duration that varies from 0.25 to 0.3 second.
(C) is the interval from the beginning of P wave to the beginning of T waves.
(D) all of the above.
(E) non of the above.
D
91. Prolonged P-R interval occurs in the following conditions:
(A) 1st degree A-V heart block.
(B) high vagal tone.
(C) atrial hypertrophy.
(D) all of the above.
C
(E) non of the above.
92. T wave of ECG is inverted in:
(A) cardiac ischemia.
(B) ventricular hypertrophy.
(C) bundle branch block.
(D) all of the above.
(E) non of the above.
B
93. P wave of ECG is absent in:
(A) atrial hypertrophy.
(B) ventricular extrasystole.
(C) heart failure.
(D) supraventricular tachycardia.
(E) non of the above.
D

Anatomy Short Questions

Q1. What are the common possible causes of lump in the neck?
Q2: what are the common causes of swelling of parotid gland?
Q3: what are the boundaries of suboccipital triangle and also explain its contents?
Q4: write down relations of the carotid sheath?