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Esophageal atresia.
Duodenal atresia.
Pyloric atresia.
* Hirschsprung's disease.
In neonates with congenital diaphragmatic hernia, which of the following statements is true?
Septic shock.
The treatment of choice for neonates with uncomplicated meconium ileus is:
Observation.
Epigastric omphalocele.
Sternal cleft.
Intracardiac defect.
* Pericardial cyst.
Ectopia cordis.
In infants with duodenal atresia all the following statements are true except:
It may occur in infants with situs inversus, malrotation, annular pancreas, and anterior portal vein.
The initial treatment of choice for a 2.5-kg. infant with a 20.0-cm. long proximal jejunal atresia and
8.0 cm. of distal ileum is:
Laparotomy, nasogastric suction, proximal dilatation to lengthen the atretic jejunum, total
parenteral nutrition, and delayed anastomosis.
Laparotomy and double-barrel enterostomy (jejunum and ileum), with refeeding of jejunal contents
into distal ileum and delayed anastomosis.
A 2.8-kg. neonate with excessive salivation develops respiratory distress. Attempts to pass an
orogastric catheter fail because the catheter coils in the back of the throat. A chest film is obtained
and shows right upper lobe atelectasis and a gasless abdomen. The most likely diagnosis is:
“H-type” TE fistula
Neonates with NEC may demonstrate all of the following findings on abdominal films except:
Pneumatosis intestinalis.
Pneumoperitoneum.
* Colovesical fistula.
75:1.
100:1.
50:1.
* 150:1.
25:1.
All of the following conditions are derived from the primitive embryonic foregut except:
Bronchogenic cyst.
Gastric duplication.
* Mesenteric cyst.
Pulmonary sequestration.
For a 22-kg infant, the maintenance daily fluid requirement is approximately which of the following?
1100 ml
1250 ml
* 1550 ml
1700 ml
1850 ml
A term infant 48 hours of age suddenly develops hypoxemia, irritability, and glucose and
temperature instability. Which of the following statements are true?
* Empiric antibiotic coverage for b-hemolytic Streptococci and Escherichia coli should be initiated
*Endogenous surfactant deficiency is the key physiologic problem in preterm infants with the infant
respiratory distress syndrome
Exogenous surfactant replacement has been shown to reduce mortality in preterm infants with the
infant respiratory distress syndrome
Prematurity is defined by the World Health Organization as birth prior to 35 weeks gestation
Infants with intrauterine growth retardation have physiologic problems which are more dependent
on the birth weight than the gestational age
Preterm infants are at increased risk for hypocalcemia and hypoglycemia when compared to term
infants
Other than the history and physical exam, which of the following tests is considered an essential
feature of the preoperative evaluation of a patient with a suspected thyroglossal duct cyst?
Cervical ultrasound
Thyroid scan
Needle aspiration
Staphylococcus aureus
*Streptococcal organisms
Cat scratch
Branchial cleft remnants most often present with which of the following clinical problems?
* Infection
Airway obstruction
Hemorrhage
Malignant degeneration
Pain
Proximity to which of the following structures places it at risk during surgical excision of a second
branchial cleft remnant?
Hypoglossal nerve
Тracheostomy
Which of the following statements regarding congenital diaphragmatic hernia are true?
* Malrotation is to be expected
Left-to-right shunting via a patent ductus arteriosus is a serious but expected physiologic
consequence of pulmonary hypoplasia
Of the following cystic malformations of the tracheobronchial tree, which is most likely to be
asymptomatic when discovered?
Infants with a double aortic arch most commonly present with which of the following problems?
Dysphagia
Which of the following is most common after primary esophagostomy for esophageal atresia with a
distal tracheoesophageal fistula?
Anastomotic leak
Esophageal stricture
* Gastroesophageal reflux
Which of the following is the most common primary lung tumor in infants and children?
Pulmonary blastoma
* Endobronchial carcinoid
Leiomyoma
Which of the following statements regarding congenital chest wall deformities are true?
*Children with pectus excavatum deformities typically have physiologically insignificant limitation of
exercise tolerance
The rate of recurrence after operative repair of a pectus excavatum deformity is between 5% and
10%
The definitive evaluation of a child with a suspected congenital cystic abnormality of the
tracheobronchial tree is best done using which of the following?
Rigid bronchoscopy
Chest x-ray
Angiography
Barium esophagogram
A newborn infant develops coughing, choking and cyanosis with his first feeding. He is noted to have
excessive drooling. What are the important associated anomalies that must be screened for prior to
surgical intervention?
Hydrocephalus
* Genitourinary obstruction
Which of the following ventilation strategies is the best initial approach for a neonate with a left
congenital diaphragmatic hernia and the following post ductal arterial blood gases: PaO2 50 mm Hg,
PaCO2 60 mm Hg, pH 7.35?
There is an emerging consensus that the surgical repair for congenital diaphragmatic hernia is best
done:
Emergently at the bedside, eliminating the risks of transporting an unstable neonate
Meckel’s diverticulum may present with which of the following signs or symptoms?
Hemorrhage
* Intussusception
Volvulus
A 3-week old infant has a barium upper gastrointestinal series to evaluate vomiting. The
duodenojejunal flexure is found to be to the right of the midline as well as more caudal and anterior
than a normal ligament of Treitz. The child is seen to reflux barium spontaneously to the level of the
mid-thoracic esophagus. You would recommend which of the following?
Barium enema
* Emergency laparotomy
When associated with an annular pancreas, division of the pancreas at the site of obstruction is
curative
Вilious vomiting is typical because the obstruction is usually distal to the ampulla of Vater
The child should have a nasogastric tube placed, broad spectrum intravenous antibiotics begun, and
sequential abdominal films obtained.
The most common cause of pyogenic liver abscess in children today is which of the following?
Perforated appendicitis
* Immunocompromised host
Omphalitis
Which of the followings statements regarding an infant with meconium ileus are true?
* The average life expectancy is approximately 26 to 28 years for this infant at present
The finding illustrated below on plain film is an absolute operative indication (Figure 103-23A)
You are asked to recommend therapy for an asymptomatic 2 year old who swallowed a small
alkaline watch battery 4 hours ago. A plain film shows the intact battery in the intestine beyond the
stomach. The best course of therapy is?
* Cathartics and a follow-up plain film in 48 hours if the child remains asymptomatic
A jaundiced 6 week old infant has biliary atresia. Which of the following statements are true?
Primary liver transplantation using either a reduced sized cadaveric graft or a living related graft is
now the procedure of choice
* Approximately two-thirds of patients managed with portoenterostomy will develop chronic liver
disease sufficient to indicate liver transplantation
Because biliary atresia has pathogenic components of acute and chronic inflammation,
antiinflammatory therapy is known to delay onset of liver failure
Of the following, which is the most likely cause of hemodynamically significant lower gastrointestinal
bleeding in a 6 month old male child?
Meckel diverticulum
Henoch-Schonlein purpura
* Intussusception
Crohn’s colitis
Suction rectal biopsy is virtually always diagnostic if the specimen includes submucosa
Ninety percent or more of patients have an excellent or good functional result following
reconstructive surgery
The operative procedure of choice for managing the most common type of choledochal cyst is
which of the following?
Cyst gastrostomy
Cyst jejunostomy
* Excision with Roux-en-Y hepaticojejunostomy
Transduodenal marsupialization
Endoscopic sphincterotomy
* Hepatoblastoma
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Mesenchymal hamaratoma
The risk of biliary tract adenocarcinoma developing in a patient with a choledochal cyst left in situ is
approximately which of the following?
Less than 1%
* 3% to 5%
10% to 15%
The most common cause of acute pancreatitis in childhood is which of the following?
Pancreas divisum
Cholelithiasis
* Trauma
Valproic acid
Annular pancreas
Primary fascial closure can be achieved in only about 25% of these infants
Intussusception
* Meconium ileus
Hirschprung’s disease
Meckel’s diverticulum
Incarcerated hernia
A 6-week-old child presents with generalized seizures, a serum glucose of 30 mg/dL and concurrent
hyperinsulinemia. This child’s first priority is which of the following?
Computerized tomographic scan of the abdomen to look for an islet cell adenoma
At what age is surgical orchiopexy recommended for a child with a unilateral undescended testis?
* 1 year
5 to 6 years
An infant is noted to have a left flank mass shortly after birth and an ultrasound examination
demonstrates left hydronephrosis. The most common cause of this finding is which of the following?
Vesicoureteral reflux
The medical indications for circumcision include which of the following?
Hypospadias
Phimosis
Enuresis
Vesicoureteral reflux
years
N-myc oncogene copy number in neuroblastoma tissue is inversely related to survival probability
Which of the following are considered low risk features for neuroblastoma patients?
A one month old female infant is brought to you for evaluation of afriable polypoid mass prolapsing
through the vaginal introitus. Your presumptive diagnosis is which of the following?
Ectopic ureterocele
Rectal prolapse
*Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
Which of the following approaches is considered standard care for most Wilms’ tumor patients in
the United States today?
Needle biopsy followed by either chemotherapy or resection depending upon the histology
Surgical resection of the primary tumor results in cure of approximately 80 to 90% of all patients
Patients with Wilms’ tumors most frequently present with which of the following?
An extrarenal primary
Hepatoblastomas are childhood liver tumors characterized by which of the following features?
Multicentricity
Jaundice
Common sites of neuroblastoma metastasis are which of the following?
Lung
* Bone marrow
Cortical bone
Liver
Which of the following statements regarding renal tumors of childhood and adolescence are true?
Clear cell sarcoma is presently considered a variant of Wilms’ tumor with a poor prognosis
* Clear cell sarcoma of the kidney has a high rate of metastasis to bone
Which of the following syndromes are associated with the development of Wilms’ tumor?
Neurofibromatosis
Gonadal dysgenesis
What is the kind of pain can be in case of stone in the intramural part of ureter
with urodynamics disorders?
aching
stupid
*acute
constant aching
Choose the localization and irradiation of pain in case of a stone of the intramural ureter
with urodynamics disorders:
lumbar region without irradiation
hypochondrium with irradiation under the scapula
the lateral abdomen with radiation to the lumbar region
inguinal region with irradiation to the thigh
* the lumbar region with radiation to the inguinal region, the inner thigh and genitals
In acute parenchymal prostatitis pain is…
constant aching
paroxysmal
* intense, up to pulsating
stupid
acute
In acute parenchymal prostatitis pain is localized …
above the bosom
in the lumbar region
in the lumbosacral spine
* in the perineum and sacrum
in the perineum
Dysuria does not occur with …
ureteral stone
bladder tumors
bladder stone
cystitis
* orchitis
Stranguria does not occur with …
foreign bodies of the urethra
bladder stone
* ureteral stone
acute prostatitis
prostate adenoma
Nocturia does not occur with …
heart failure
* diabetes mellitus
chronic renal failure
chronic glomerulonephritis
prostate adenoma
Pollakiuria is …
increase in urine output
* b) increased urination of day and night
c) increased urination at night
d) increased daily urination
d) an increase in nighttime urine output
Oliguria is …
delayed urination
rare urination
* decrease in the amount of urine
an increase in the amount of
urine
the amount of urine is less than 300 ml per day
Oliguria does not occur …
in heart failure
with the defeat of vegetative centers of water-salt metabolism
with acute pyelonephritis
with chronic pyelonephritis
* with diabetes
Urinary retention is …
lack of urine output by the kidneys
* the impossibility of self-emptying the bladder
the absence of urine in the bladder during
catheterization lack of self-urination in a horizontal
position paradoxical ischuria
Urinary retention does not occur when …
atresia of the external opening of the urethra
neurogenic bladder dysfunction
* ureteral obstruction
prostate adenomas
sclerosis of the bladder neck
Urinary retention occurs with all of the above, except …
prostate cancer
* acute renal failure
urethral stricture
urethral stone
phimosis
Paradoxical Ishuria is …
the impossibility of self-urination
chronic urinary retention
* a combination of urinary retention and urinary
incontinence urinary incontinence
a combination of a delay of urination withhold urine
Urinary incontinence is …
involuntary urination without urge
imperative urination
* involuntary urination as a result of imperative
urge involuntary urination
involuntary discharge of urine in an upright position
The normal urine reaction (pH) is varied …
within 3.0-5.0
within 5.0-6.0
* within 7.0-9.0
within 6.0-8.0
within 2.0-4.0
How much protein should be in urine for proteinuria presence
traces
less than 0.03 g / l
* more than 0.03 g / l
more than 0.06 g / l
more than 0.09 g / l
The renal proteinuria occurs …
with nephropathy of pregnant women
with renal amyloidosis
in newborns
in adolescents
* in all these cases
Hematuria is …
the presence in the urine of a blood pigment of hemoglobin
the allocation of blood from the urethra
* urinary blood excretion
the presence of porphyrin in the urine
erythrocyturia
The terminal hematuria does not occur with …
stones or tumors of the bladder neck
the varicose expansion of veins in the neck of the bladder
* chronic glomerulonephritis
colliculitis
acute cystitis
It is customary to talk about leukocyturia when the content of leukocytes in the field of view of the microscope
…
more than 2
more than 4
* more than 6
more than 8
more than 10
It is customary to talk about leukocyturia with the content of leukocytes in 1 ml of urine…
more than 500
more than 1000
more than 2000
* more than 4000
more than 6000
Indications for catheterization of the ureters are not …
for separate urine from each kidney
when conducting retrograde pyelography and ureterography
with obstructive anuria
in the differential diagnosis of secretory and obstructive anuria
* with secretory anuria
Complications of urethra bougienage are all listed, except
urethral fever
acute prostatitis
urethrorrorgy
* fornical bleeding
acute epididymitis
Contraindications to urethral bougienage are not the presence of
prostate adenomas
acute epididymitis
acute cystitis and prostatitis
* chronic prostatitis and cystitis
acute urethritis
Dry urethroscopy is used for examination
prostate gland
the bladder
kidneys
ureters
* seminal colliculus
Irrigation urethroscopy is used for examination
the front of the urethra
* posterior urethra
seed tubercle
ureters
kidneys
Contraindications to chromocystoscopy are
acute renal failure
chronic prostatitis
chronic renal failure
renal hepatic failure
* bladder capacity less than 50 ml
Indigo carmine is normally secreted from the orifices of the ureters when administered intravenously through
15-20 min
8-10 min
* 3-5 min
1-2 min
10-12 min
Indigo carmine is normally secreted from the orifices of the ureters when administered intramuscularly through
3-5 min
5-7 minutes
7-8 minutes
* 0-15 min
20-25 min
A positive symptom of diaphanoscopy is characteristic
for a testicular tumor
for acute orchoepididymitis
* for dropsy of testicular
membranes for inguinal-scrotal
hernia
for chronic epididymitis
Indications for uroflowmetry are not the presence of
urethral stricture, urethral valve
prostate adenomas
prostate cancer
* acute prostatitis
neurogenic bladder dysfunction
The uroflowmetric index (average volumetric rate of urination) is normally equal to
4-5 ml / s
6-8 ml / sec
9-15 ml / s
* 15-24 ml / s
25-40 ml / s
Intravesical pressure is normal when filling the bladder with 300-400 ml of fluid is
up to 5 cm of water . with t
up to 10 cm of water . with t
up to 15-20 cm of water . with t
up to 20-25 cm of water . with t
* up to 30-40 cm of water . with t
The percentage of detection of prostate cancer with a puncture biopsy is
100%
* 90%
80%
70%
60%
The presence of Sternheimer Malbin cells and active white blood cells in the urine sediment is typical for
acute glomerulonephritis
chronic glomerulonephritis
* acute pyelonephritis
chronic pyelonephritis in remission
kidney tuberculosis
The secret of the prostate gland normally contains
* white blood cells (not more than 10), single red blood
cells macrophages and amyloid bodies
bacteria
epithelial and giant cells
mucus
The fructose in the ejaculate is equaled to …
100 mg%
150 mg%
200 mg%
* 250 mg% or more
1000 mg%
With the introduction of radiopaque substances does not happen
headache and dizziness
sensations of heat
metallic taste in the mouth
* macrohematuria
drops in blood pressure within 20 mm RT. Art., shock
An indication for vesiculography is not
suspected tumor of seminal vesicles
prostate cancer
tuberculosis of seminal vesicles and prostate gland
tumors of the bottom and neck of the bladder
* testicular tumors
Indications for epididymography are
orchitis
impotence
testicular tumor
* infertility
In pelvic venography the contrast agent is predominantly administered
in the femoral vein
in the large saphenous vein
* in the pubic bones
in the deep and superficial veins of the penis
in the ilium
The substance introduced for the radioindication of a particular organ of a person is called
radioactive drug
* radiopharmaceutical
labeled compounds
isotope preparation
short-lived drug
To prepare the patient for a radioisotope study,
cleansing enema
dry eating
* normal drinking and food regimen
the introduction of a test dose of the drug
hunger on the eve of the study
When conducting renography, the most convenient position for the patient is
* sitting, with the location of sensors (detectors) from the
back sitting, with the location of the sensors from the abdomen
lying, with the location of the sensors from the back
lying, with the location of the sensors from the abdomen
lying, with the location of the sensors on the area of the bladder
Contraindications for renography are
individual intolerance to iodine-containing contrast agents
* there are practically no
contraindications renal failure
liver failure
hyperthyroidism
Ultrasonic signs of a simple kidney cyst
volumetric round formation
volumetric formation of a rounded form of hypoechoic structure
solid (tissue) formation of a rounded shape
solid formation of rounded shape with smooth contours
* volumetric formation of a rounded shape, hypoechoic structure with the phenomenon of distal
amplification of an echo signal
Ultrasonic signs of kidney cancer
volumetric round formation
forming volume ovoid shape
thin-walled volumetric formation of hypoechoic structure
* volumetric formation of a round shape of a solid echostructure
hypoechoic volume formation with a capsule of 2-3 mm
During ultrasound scanning the kidneys of an adult are determined in the form of an ovoid shape, the
longitudinal size of which is …
2-4 cm
5-6 cm
7-9 cm
* 10-12 cm
20-30 cm
During ultrasound scanning, the kidneys of an adult are determined in the form of an ovoid shape, the transverse
size of which is
3.5-4.0 cm
* 4.5-6.5 cm
6.5-7.5 cm
8.5-9.5 cm
8.5-9.5 cm
The thickness of the renal parenchyma during ultrasound scanning is
0.8-1.0 cm
1.0-1.2 cm
1.0-1.6 cm
* 1.8-1.9 cm
1.5-3.2 cm
Among the joint surface relationships, the following disorders are distinguished, except
Congenital dislocation
Pathological dislocation
*Fracture.
Dysplasia
Subluxation.
Uneven bone growth and limb shortening in children is due to all of the above, except
Epifiseolysis
Osteoepyphysis.
*Diaphyseal fracture
Metaepyphilic osteomyelitis
*Presternum
Suprasternum
Poststernum
Infrasternum
Stern-acromic
Stern-clavicle
Clavicle-coracoid
Coraco-acromial
*Acromial-clavicle
Coracoid-stern
Maximum recommended pneumatic harness pressure on the upper third of the arm during
operations on the upper extremities:
120 mmHg
150 mmHg
190 mmHg
220 mmHg
*250 mmHg
Ununion
Wound inflammation
Osteomyelitis
Refracture.
1-2 weeks
2-3 weeks.
Two months.
2-3 weeks
3-4 weeks.
*4-6 weeks.
Eight to nine weeks.
Ten weeks.
Dislocation of clavicle
*humerus dislocation
Hip dislocation.
Lung injury
*Heart bruise
Rib fracture.
A clavicle fracture.
Block-shaped
*Cylindrical
Spherical
Flat
The condyle
2
3
*5
Open fracture
*Brain injury
In order to verify the diagnosis and choose the treatment tactics for scapular fracture, it is necessary
to carry out a diagnostic study:
Radiography
*Computer tomography
Ultrasound scapulae
Craniography
The most frequent fracture in the structure of the humerus fractures is:
Elbow nerve
Middle nerve.
*Radial nerve
Axillary nerve
Supraspinatus
Infraspinatus
Teres minor
*Suprascapularis
Subscapularis
Janelidze
Kokher
Motha
Hypocrat
*Riche-Hooter
Colles
Jones.
*Smith.
Brechta
Lefor
Jones.
Smith.
Brechta
Lefora
Fracture of the ulnar bone in the proximal metaphysis in combination with traumatic dislocation of
the head of the radius is known as:
Galeazzi
Montage
Lefor
*Brecht
Jones.
A fracture of the elbow diaphysis combined with a traumatic dislocation of the radius head is known
as:
Galeazzi
*Montage
Lefor
Brecht
Jones.
The fracture of the lower third of the radius combined with the traumatic dislocation of the elbow
head is known as:
*Galeazzi
Montage
Lefor
Brecht
Jones.
Position of the foot at gypsum immobilization of heel bone fracture after repositioning:
Middle-physiological
Neutral.
Rear bending.
Equinus-varus
*Solar flexion
Joint contour.
The lateral release of the 1st toe of the foot in Hallux valgus consists of:
The main ligament of the ankle joint is the "Key of the ankle joint", this:
*Deltoid ligament
Achill'stendon
Nonunion
Elipsoidal
*Spherical
Block-shaped.
Cylindrical.
Flat.
Arthrodesis
*Arthroplasty
Interversion osteotomy
*Distance between the centre of femoral head rotation and the femoral axis
How many degrees are the degrees of wedge-shaped deformation of the vertebral body divided by
the severity of compression fractures:
Five degrees.
Knee joint puncture resulted in exudate with neutrophils as the predominant cells, which indicates
the nature of the exudate:
Serous
Hemorrhagic
Chills.
*Purulent
Normal.
*Arthroscopy
CT scan
ULTRASOUND
Spiral CT scan
1 month
Two months.
*3 months.
Six weeks.
Five months.
Wheels
Smith.
Brecht
Montage
*Bennett.
*Kinbeck's disease
Nott's Disease
Price's disease
Clicking a joint
De Carven's disease
What nerve is located between the brachial and brachioradialis muscles in the region of the lower
third of the shoulder
ulnaris
medianus
brachialis
*radialis
Axillary.
Patient, 60 years old, fell in the yard of the house on his right side. Delivered to the trauma unit by
an ambulance. Complaints of pain in the area of the right hip joint, an attempt to stand up on his
own has not been successful. When examined, there is swelling in the right hip joint, palpation is
sharply painful. The symptom of a "stuck heel" is positive. Which method of diagnosis will be the
fastest and most informative?
*Radiography
CT scan
Doppler Screening
Ultrasound scan
Pain...
Hematoma
*Bone grafting
Swelling
Streptococcus
*Staphylococcus
Escherichia coli
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Koch's bacteria
Pubic symphysis
Acetabulum
Pubic bone
Acetabular fracture
*Fracture of the head below the fossa at the level of attachment of the round ligament of the femur.
The combination of a fracture of the bottom of the acetabulum with a central dislocation of the
femur.
Cementlessendoprosthetics
*Conservative
Femoral stem osteosynthesis
Cement arthroplasty
X-Ray
*Computed tomography
Arthroscopy
Ultrasonography
What operation is indicated for the instable shoulder (dislocation more than 20 times):
Operation Bankart
*Operation Laterge
Operation Bishop
Tenodez
Arthroplasty
What operation is indicated for a habitual dislocation of the shoulder (dislocation less than 5 times):
*Bankart
Laterge
Bishop
Tenodez
Arthroplasty
Patient, 52 years old. Entered on an emergency basis with a diagnosis of “Closed fracture of the
upper third of the right femur with displacement. On the 2nd day of hospitalization, the patient
experienced increased breathing, cyanosis of the skin and mucous membranes, and an increase in
body temperature to 39 ° C. There are scattered symptoms of damage to the cerebral cortex,
subcortical formations and the trunk: smoothness of the nasolabial folds, deviation of the tongue,
and swallowing disorder. Radiographs of the lungs show symptoms of edema - a picture of a
“snowstorm”.What is the patient’s complication ?:
Sepsis
Myocardial infarction
*Fat embolism
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
What damage is most often observed with anterior dislocation of the humerus?:
*Damage to the anterior edge of the articular lip of the articular process of the scapula
What treatment is indicated for damage to the anterior edge of the articular lip of the articular
process of the scapula ?:
Gypsum immobilization
Transposition of the tendon of the long head of the biceps of the shoulder.
The method of choosing surgical treatment for initially open fracture of the lower leg with a high risk
of purulent-inflammatory complications is:
Intramedullary Osteosynthesis
Gypsum immobilization
*Complete rupture of the PCB, damage to the medial collateral ligament, damage to the meniscus
Roentgenography
CT scan
Ultrasonography
X-Ray
CT scan
Ultrasonography
*Densitometry
Bolnoyrazlichaet 1. If only the first line of the table for determining the visual acuity
with the distance of 1 meter and , it has the visual acuity , equal to :
a) 0.1 ;
b) 0.05 ;
+ c) 0.02 ;
g) 0.01 ;
d) 0.04 .
2. What is the type of ametropia in which changes can occur in the fundus:
a) hyperopia ;
b) astigmatism ;
+ c) myopia ;
d) anisometropia ;
d ) aniseiconium .
5. If h abolevani and kako second part of the eye develops surface injection I :
+ a) conjunctiva ;
b) cornea ;
c) the iris and ciliary body ;
d) choroid ;
d) the retina .
11. The Distinctive aetsya iridocyclitis with hypertension from an acute attack of
glaucoma ?
a) in specific complaints ah ;
b) the depth of the anterior chamber;
c) the size of the pupil ;
d) the state of the m iris ;
+ d) presence precipitate s in the rear surface of the cornea .
15. First aid general practitioners in penetrating wounds of the eyeball with
iris prolapse is in :
a) reduction of precipitated shells ;
b) excision of precipitated membranes and sealing the wound ;
+ c) applying a sterile dressing and urgent transportation to an ophthalmological center ;
d) the organization of consultation of an ophthalmotraumatologist ;
d) the decision is individual .
16. The absolute indication for enucleation in relapsing post- traumatic serous uveitis is:
a) increased intraocular pressure;
b) total hemophthalmus ;
+ c) the risk of developing sympathetic ophthalmia ;
d) stab wound to the eyeball
e) double perforated eye injuries.
18. The patient has purulent crusts on the free edge of the eyelid. When they are
removed, numerous small bleeding sores are exposed. Your diagnosis :
+ a) ulcerative blepharitis ;
b) simple blepharitis
c) anular befaritis
g) meibomian blepharitis
e) tick-borne blepharitis
20. Patients with a second degree of burn of the cornea and conjunctiva should be
treated:
a) outpatient ;
+ b) in a hospital ;
c) no need for treatment;
d) any of the options is possible ;
e) an individual approach in each case .
2 2 . Endophthalmitis is
a) purulent inflammation of the conjunctiva;
b) purulent fusion of the cornea;
c) purulent iridocyclitis;
+ d) purulent vitreitis ;
e) purulent inflammation of all membranes .
23. Panophthalmitis is
a) purulent inflammation of the conjunctiva ;
b) purulent inflammation of the cornea ;
c) purulent iridocyclitis ;
d) purulent vitreitis ;
+ e) purulent inflammation of all membranes of the eye .
24. From what distance is visual acuity examined according to the Sivtsev table?
a) from 1 meter ;
b) from 2 meters ;
c) from 3 meters ;
d) from 4 meters ;
+ d) from 5 meters ;
26. On which side should the patient windows be located when examining visual acuity
according to the Sivtsev table?
a) in front;
b) on the right;
c) behind;
+ d) on the left;
e) does not matter.
27. What is the advantage of the projector for the study of visual acuity:
+ a) for the study of vision, distance does not matter;
b) a more accurate definition of vision;
c) simplicity of research;
g) the possibility of performing e research in the dark;
d ) the optotypes are different .
3 4 . Persons with ametropi her glasses designated for continuous wear , called :
a) monofocal ;
b) contact;
c) bifocal;
d) cylindrical;
+ e) multifocal.
3 5 . What is visual acuity equal to if the patient reads the 11th line of the Sivtsev table?
a) 0.1;
b) 0.5;
c) 1.0;
+ g) 1.5;
d) 2.0.
3 6 . What is the name of intraocular pressure (IOP) when it is measured in the morning
and evening?
a) true ;
+ b) daily allowance ;
c) target pressure ;
d) tolerant ;
e) tonometric .
3 7 . What infectious conjunctivitis are more common?
+ a) bacterial;
b) viral;
c) chlamydial ;
g) fungal;
e ) conflicts .
43 . What is the difference between the clinical picture of gonoblennore and in adults ?
a) profuse bloody discharge ;
+ b) the early development of purulent infiltration and corneal ulcers ;
c) sharp conjunctival hyperemia ;
d) dirty gray films ;
d) does not differ .
44 . Treatment of acute bacterial conjunctivitis ?
a) eye drops from dry eye syndrome ;
b) vitamin therapy ;
c) sulfonamides inside ;
g) desensitizing drug topically ;
+ d) topical antibacterial drugs .
46 . What day does a rash appear on the cornea with adenoviral keratoconjunctivitis ?
a) 3-4 days ;
b) 4-5 days ;
c) 5-6 days ;
+ g) 6-7 days ;
d) 7-8 .
48 . In a limited area along the edge of the eyelid, a painful inflammatory swelling
appeared with edema of the eyelids and conjunctiva . Your diagnosis.
+ a) barley ;
b) chalazion ;
c) atheroma ;
d) abscess ;
d) phlegmon .
49 . The patient has lacrimation and lacrimation . When pressure is applied to the area
of the lacrimal sac, purulent discharge is secreted from the lacrimal openings. Your
diagnosis.
a) acute conjunctivitis ;
b) dacryocystocele ;
c) acute dacryocystitis ;
g) chronic canaliculitis ;
+ d) chronic dacryocystitis .
Gallbladder Function:
+deposition and concentration of bile
synthesis and secretion of bile acids
creation of hypertension in the extrahepatic biliary tract
activation of cholesterol and bile acids
formation of bound bilirubin
Peritonitis is called
+acute or chronic inflammation of the parietal and visceral peritoneum
fluid in the abdominal cavity
damage to the integrity of the peritoneum
the introduction into the abdominal cavity of the infection without signs of inflammation
adhesive process in the abdominal cavity
Between the left edge of the wall of the esophagus and the bottom of the stomach is formed
pilorus
+his angle
cardia
Ligament of the Treitz
lumbar triangle
The place where the esophagus passes into the stomach is called
.
pylorus
His angle
+cardia
Tereitsa bunch
lumbar triangle
A patient with an inguinal hernia entered the hospital. with palpation of hernial protrusion, a
lobed structure of soft consistency is felt, and with percussion, dullness of percussion sound
is determined. Identify the contents of the hernial sac.
loops of the small intestine
cecum
+large oil seal
sigmoid colon
pancreas
What symptom of acute appendicitis is more common with retroperitoneal the location of the
appendix?
+Obraztsova
Rowzing
Sitkovsky
Bartomier-Michelson
Razdolsky
The surgeon's tactics after establishing the diagnosis of diffuse purulent peritonitis:
monitoring the patient in dynamics
conservative treatment in the surgical department
+emergency surgery
massive antibiotic therapy
hospitalize and perform an operation urgently
In the diagnosis of lung abscess, the main and mandatory method of research is an
bronchoscopy
bronchography
bacteriological examination of sputum
+x-ray examination
radioisotope research
Determine the stage of hemorrhoids, if the patient’s hemorrhoidal nodes fall out with little
physical exertion, the nodes themselves do not adjust, the patient adjusts them with his hand
subclinical stage
stage I
II stage
+III stage
decompensated stage
Patient R., 38 years old, is at the dispensary with a diagnosis of Obliterating Endarteritis>.
The patient complains of pain in both calf muscles, appearing after 1000 meters, which
disappear after stopping and resting. Identify the clinical stage of the disease.
subclinical
+functional compensation
subcompensation
decompensation
destructive changes
In a patient with umbilical hernia, palpation of hernial protrusion results in the formation of
an elastic consistency, and with percussion, a tympanic sound is determined. Identify the
contents of the hernial sac
bladder
+intestines
pancreas
large omentum
liver
A research method that allows you to clarify the cause of obstructive jaundice
ultrasonography
laparocentesis
+ERCP (Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography)
survey radiography of the abdominal cavity
Laparoscopy
What is the name of the third stage of a chemical burn of the esophagus?
period of acute corrosive esophagitis
period of chronic esophagitis
+period of stricture formation
period of late complication
period of perforation of the wall of the esophagus
What is the name of the fourth stage of a chemical burn of the esophagus? 1. period of acute
corrosive esophagitis
period of chronic esophagitis
period of stricture formation
period of organic narrowing of the esophagus
+period of late complications
Patient T., 40 years old, is at the dispensary with a diagnosis of Obliterating Endarteritis>.
The patient complains of pain in both calf muscles that appear after passing 200 meters,
which disappear after another stop and rest. Identify the clinical stage of the disease.
subclinical
functional compensation
+subcompensation
decompensation
destructive changes
Patient P., 39 years old, is in a dispensary with a diagnosis of Obliterating Endarteritis>. The
patient complains of constant pain in both lower limbs. Only 25-50 meters can go by itself.
Identify the clinical stage of the disease.
subclinical
functional compensation
subcompensation
+decompensation
destructive changes
In acute appendicitis, the Sitkovsky symptom is characterized by: 1.increased pain during
percussion over the right iliac region
moving pain from the umbilical region to the right iliac region
increased pain in the right iliac region when applying jerky movements in the left iliac region
when the patient is on his back
increased pain in the right iliac region during palpation of this region in the position of the
patient on the left side
+increased pain in the right iliac region when changing the position of the patient from the
back to the left side
In acute appendicitis, the Kyummel symptom is characterized by: 1.increased pain during
percussion over the right iliac region
+moving pain from the umbilical region to the right iliac region
moving pain from the epigastric region to the right iliac region
increased pain in the right iliac region when applying jerky movements in the left iliac region
when the patient is on his back
Acute obstructive cholecystitis develops as a result of increased pain in the right iliac region
during palpation of this region in the position of the patient on the left side
.
cancer of the large duodenal papilla
metabolic disorders in the liver
strictures of the terminal part of the common bile duct
+obstruction by the stone of the neck of the gallbladder
stagnation of bile in the gallbladder
Choledocholithiasis is called .
gallbladder deformity
acute inflammation of the wall of the common bile duct
chronic inflammation of the bile duct wall
+the presence of stones in the bile duct
stricture of the terminal part of the common bile duct
Preparations for oral administration in case of burns of the esophagus with caustic soda:
70% ethyl alcohol
+1.5% acetic acid
2% sodium bicarbonate solution
3% ammonia
3% hydrogen peroxide solution
The conditional period, which is considered a criterion for the transition of acute lung abscess
to chronic form
months
+2 months.
4 months
months
1 year
An unknown patient was admitted to the clinic in an unconscious state after a traffic
accident. him an emergency operation is performed .
by consent of the patient, after restoration of his consciousness
+by decision of the consultation
with the consent of his relatives, after they arrive
by decision of law enforcement agencies
by order of the head physician
Patient N., 2 years ago, revealed gallstone disease. Upon admission to the hospital complains
of pain in the right hypochondrium, discoloration of feces and darkening of the color of urine.
In a bichymic blood test, the bilirubin level is 122.5 μmol / L. Determine the complication of
cholelithiasis in this patient.
cirrhosis
cancer of the large duodenal papilla
cancer of the gallbladder
+obstructive jaundice
cholemic bleeding
The main clinical sign of late complications of a chemical burn of the esophagus
acholia
hypersalivation
ascites
+dysphagia
Curvazier symptom
On what day do the early esophageal esophagus begin after chemical burns
1-2
2-3
3-5
5-8
+9-11
A patient, 34 years old, who is being hospitalized for lung abscess, suddenly had sharp pains
in his chest, shortness of breath. upon examination, the skin is covered with cold sweat,
acrocyanosis is noted. pulse - 96 beats. in 1 min., hell - 90/50 mmHg with percussion of the
chest in the upper sections, a box sound is determined, in the lower sections - dullness. with
auscultation, respiratory sounds are not carried out. What is the complication of lung abscess?
pulmonary hemorrhage
subcutaneous emphysema
sepsis
+pyopneumothorax
development of metastatic abscesses
When climbing stairs, the manifestation of the symptom of "intermittent claudication" and
the appearance of pain in the muscles of the lower back and thighs when walking are
characteristic of:
thrombophlebitis of superficial veins
obliterating endarteritis
obliterating atherosclerosis
+Leriche syndrome
varicose veins
To improve the evacuation of pancreatic enzymes into the lumen of the duodenum 12 in
acute pancreatitis,
+antispasmodics
antibiotics
analgesics
cytostatics
protease inhibitors
Indicate the stage of rectal prolapse, if the patient has bowel prolapse during an act
of defecation and heavy physical exertion, then the bowel is self-adjusting
subclinical stage
+stage I
II stage
III stage
decompensated stage
The most informative diagnostic method for atherosclerosis obliterans to determine the
localization, prevalence and degree of damage to arteries (stenosis, occlusion):
thermography
rheovasography
+angiography
ultrasound
phlebography
Pikovsky
Vishnevsky
+Shalimov
Fedorov
Keru
With a closed chest injury, a characteristic radiological sign of lung damage is:
+Pneumothorax
Hemothorax
Mediastinal displacement to the healthy side
Expansion of the lung root
Increased heart shadow
Indicate the stage of rectal prolapse, if the patient’s bowel falls out during bowel movements
and large physical exertion, doesn’t adjust on its own, patients themselves adjust them
subclinical stage
stage I
+II stage
III stage
decompensated stage
Which of these diseases are most difficult to carry out differential diagnosis in acute
appendicitis?
right-sided pleuropneumonia
restrained inguinal hernia
perforated duodenal ulcer
+Crohn's disease
acute pancreatitis
Type of intestinal obstruction, in which there is spotting from the anus in the form of
“raspberry jelly”
obstructive small bowel obstruction
inversion of the small intestine
paralytic obstruction
spastic obstruction
+intussusception
Which study is the most simple and affordable method for the final diagnosis of external
pancreatic fistula:
CT scan of the pancreas
Ultrasound of the pancreas
+fistulography
MRI scan
ERCP
Indicate the stage of rectal prolapse, if the patient’s intestine falls out with a little physical
exertion, the intestine does not adjust itself
subclinical stage
stage I
II stage
+III stage
decompensated stage
What is the most dangerous complication of deep vein thrombosis of the lower veins? limbs:
Acute thrombophlebitis
Obliterating thromboangitis
Phlebitis of varicose nodes
+pulmonary embolism
pyleophlebitis
What is the most common complication of acute appendicitis in individuals old and senile
age?
sepsis
pylephlebitis
peritonitis
+appendicular infiltrate
periappendicular abscess
Mussey-Georgievsky
Kera
Murphy
+Botkin
Kerte
The patient is 27 years old. Lung disease denied in the past. An hour ago, in full health,
suddenly there were severe pains in the left half of the chest, a feeling of lack of air. The
temperature is normal. Breathing over the left lung is not heard, with percussion - a boxed
sound. The mediastinum is percussion shifted to the right. Your diagnosis:
Exudative pleurisy
Myocardial infarction
Pulmonary tuberculosis
+Spontaneous pneumothorax
A restrained diaphragmatic hernia
A simultaneous operation is .
sequential execution of all stages of one operation
the execution of the steps of one operation at different times
an operation performed using endovascular surgical devices
+simultaneous performance of several operations to one patient
an operation performed under x-ray control
With infringement of the small intestine, the following type of acute intestinal obstruction
develops:
intussusception
paralytic intestinal obstruction
spastic intestinal obstruction
+strangulation intestinal obstruction
obstructive intestinal obstruction
X-ray examination of the colon, in which the contrast medium is injected through the rectum
passage of barium through the gastrointestinal tract
fibrocolonoscopy
+irrigoscopy
ERCP
Diaphanoscopy
In the first three days of the disease, acute pancreatitis is contraindicated in the use of:
Ultrasound
gastroscopy
+ERCP
fluoroscopy of the abdominal organs
laparoscopy
Endoscopic research method used to diagnose pathology of the stomach and duodenum
ERCP
fibrocolonoscopy
irrigoscopy
+FGDS
MRI
Hemorrhoids is called .
swelling of the rectal mucosa
swelling of the wall of the rectum
+expansion of the cavernous bodies of the rectum
fissure of the anus
Post-thrombophlebitic syndrome is .
a symptom complex developing after acute thrombophlebitis of superficial veins of the lower
extremities
+symptom complex developing after deep vein thrombosis of the lower extremities
The pathological process developing as a result of atherosclerosis of the terminal aorta and
iliac arteries
inflammation of the superficial veins of the lower extremities
the formation of a blood clot in the superficial veins of the lower extremities
Dietary table prescribed for diabetic angiopathy of the vessels of the lower extremities:
1
5
+9
15
4