Source : http://itildumps.blogspot.

com/

ITIL V3 Sample Paper 1

1. Which of the following is NOT a step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI)
model?

a) What is the vision?

b) Did we get there?

c) Is there budget?

d) Where are we now?

2. What is the RACI model used for?

a) Documenting the roles and relationships of stakeholders in a process or activity

b) Defining requirements for a new service or process

c) Analyzing the business impact of an incident

d) Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of Service Management

3. What is the main reason for establishing a baseline?

a) To standardize operation

b) For knowing the cost of services provided

c) For roles and responsibility to be clear

d) For later comparison

4. Which of the following is NOT an objective of Service Operation?

a) Through testing, to ensure that services are designed to meet business needs

b) To deliver and support IT services

c) To manage the technology used to deliver services

d) To monitor the performance of technology and processes

5. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about patterns of demand generated
by the customer’s business?

a) They are driven by patterns of business activity

b) It is impossible to predict how they behave

c) It is impossible to influence demand patterns

d) They are driven by the delivery schedule generated by capacity management

6. Which of the following is NOT one of the ITIL core publications?

a) Service Optimization

b) Service Transition

c) Service Design

d) Service Strategy

7. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

1. Only one person can be responsible for an activity

2. Only one person can be accountable for an activity

a) All of the above

b) 1 only

c) 2 only

d) None of the above

8. Which is the correct sequence of events in the selection of a technology tool?

a) Select Product, Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Product

b) Selection Criteria, Requirements, Evaluate Product, Select Product

c) Requirements, Selection Criteria, Select Product, Evaluate Product

d) Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Product, Select Product

9. Which of the following are the three main types of metrics as defined in Continual
Service Improvement (CSI)?

1. Process Metrics

2. Supplier Metrics

3. Service Metrics

4. Technology Metrics

5. Business Metrics

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 2, 4 and 5

c) 1, 3 and 4

d) 1, 2 and 4

10. The priority of an Incident refers to?

a) The relative importance of the Incident based on impact and urgency

b) The speed with which the Incident needs to be resolved

c) The number of staff that will be assigned to work on the Incident so that it is resolved in
time

d) The escalation path that will be followed to ensure resolution of the incident

11. The goal of Service Asset and Configuration Management is to?

a) Account for all financial assets of the organization

b) Provide a logical model of the IT infrastructure, correlating IT services and different

IT components needed to deliver the services

c) Build service models to justify the ITIL implementations

d) Implement ITIL across the organization

12. Which are the missing Service Operation processes from the following?

1. Incident Management

2. Problem Management
3. Access Management

4. ?

5. ?

a) Event management and Request Fulfillment

b) Event Management and Service Desk

c) Facilities Management and Event Management

d) Change Management and Service Level Management

13. Which of the following identifies two Service Portfolio components within the
Service Lifecycle?

a) Requirements Portfolio and Service Catalogue

b) Service Knowledge Management System and Service Catalogue

c) Service Knowledge Management System and Requirements Portfolio

d) Requirements Portfolio and Configuration Management System

14. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service
Design phase of the Lifecycle?

1. Hardware and Software design

2. Environmental design

3. Process design

4. Data design

a) 1, 3 and 4 only

b) 1, 2 and 3 only

c) All of the above

d) 2, 3 and 4 only

15. Business drivers and requirements for a new service should be considered during?

a) Review of the router operating system patches

b) Review of the current capabilities of IT service delivery

c) The Post Implementation Review (PIR) of a change

d) Decommissioning legacy servers

16. The BEST definition of an event is?

a) An occurrence where a performance threshold has been exceeded and an agreed Service
Level has already been impacted

b) An occurrence that is significant for the management of the IT infrastructure or

delivery of services

c) A known system defect that generates multiple incident reports

d) A planned meeting of customers and IT staff to announce a new service or improvement

program

17. What does the Service V model represent?

a) A strategy for the successful completion of all Service Management projects

b) The path to Service Delivery and Service Support for efficient and effective
utilization of resources

c) Levels of Configuration and testing required to deliver a Service Capability

d) The business perspective as perceived by the customer and the user of services

18. Technical Management is NOT responsible for?

a) Maintenance of the technical infrastructure

b) Documenting and maintaining the technical skills required to manage and support the IT
infrastructure

c) Defining the Operational Level Agreements for the technical teams

d) Diagnosis of, and recovery from, technical failures

19. The following options are considered within which process?

1. Big bang vs. Phased

2. Push and Pull

3. Automated vs. Manual

a) Incident Management

b) Release and Deployment Management

c) Service Asset and Configuration Management

d) Service Catalogue Management

20. Which of the following activities is Service Level Management responsible for?

a) Design the configuration management system from a business perspective

b) Create technology metrics to align with customer needs

c) Create a customer facing service catalogue

d) Train service desk on how to deal with customer complaints about service

21. When analyzing an outcome for creation of value for customers, what attributes of
the service should be considered?

a) Objectives, Metric, Desired outcome

b) Business Objectives, IT objectives, Process metrics

c) Desired outcome, Supplier metrics, IT objectives

d) People, Products, Technology

22. Setting policies and objectives is the primary concern of which of the following
elements of the Service Lifecycle?

a) Service Strategy

b) Service Strategy and Continual Service Improvement

c) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation

d) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual
Service Improvement
23. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of Event Management?

a) The ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine the appropriate
control action

b) The ability to implement monitoring tools

c) The ability to monitor and control the activities of technical staff

d) The ability to report on the successful delivery of services by checking the uptime of
infrastructure devices

24. Consider the following statements:

1. CSI provides guidance on how to improve process efficiency and effectiveness

2. CSI provides guidance on how to improve services

3. CSI provides guidance on the improvement of all phases of the service lifecycle

4. CSI provides guidance on the measurement of processes and services

Which of the above statements is CORRECT?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 1, 2 and 3 only

d) All of the above

25. Which of the following statements are CORRECT about Functions?

1. They provide structure and stability to organizations

2. They are self-contained units with their own capabilities and resources

3. They rely on processes for cross-functional coordination and control

4. They are costlier to implement compared to processes

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 1, 2 and 4 only

c) All of the above

d) None of the above

26. If an organization is able to become more proactive in its ITSM processes, what is
likely to happen to support costs?

a) They are likely to increase gradually

b) They are likely to increase dramatically

c) They are likely to gradually reduce

d) They are likely to reduce initially and then gradually return to current level

27. Which of the following statements about Supplier Management is INCORRECT?

a) Supplier Management negotiates internal and external agreements to support the

delivery of services

b) Supplier Management ensures that suppliers meet business expectations

c) Supplier Management maintains information in a Supplier and Contracts Database

d) Supplier Management should be involved in all stages of the service lifecycle, from
Strategy through Design and Transition to Operations and Improvement

28. Which of the following BEST describes a Local Service Desk structure?

a) A Service Desk that also provides onsite technical support to its users

b) A Service Desk where analysts only speak one language

c) A Service Desk that is situated in the same location as the users it serves

d) A Service Desk that could be in any physical location but uses telecommunications and IT
systems to make it appear that they are in the same location

29. What is the role of the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)?

a) To assist the Change Manager in ensuring that no urgent changes are made during
particularly volatile business periods

b) To assist the Change Manager in implementing emergency changes

c) To assist the Change Manager in evaluating emergency changes and to decide

whether the change should be approved
d) To assist the Change Manager in speeding up the emergency change process so that no
unacceptable delays occur.

30. Which of the following is a good use of a baseline?

a) The desired end state of a project

b) A marker or starting point for later comparison

c) The current desktop models in use

d) The type of testing to be done for a release

31. The main objective of Availability Management is?

a) To monitor and report availability of services and components

b) To ensure that all targets in Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are met

c) To guarantee availability levels for services and components

d) To ensure that service availability matches or exceeds the agreed needs of the
business

32. Operations Control refers to?

a) The managers of the Technical and Applications Management functions

b) Overseeing the execution and monitoring of IT operational events and activities

c) The tools used to monitor and display the status of the IT Infrastructure and Applications

d) The situation where the Service Desk is required to monitor the status of the infrastructure
when Operators are not available

33. Which off the following is a characteristic of every process?

1. It is measurable

2. It is timely

3. It delivers a specific result

4. It responds to a specific event

5. It delivers its primary result to a customer or stakeholder

a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only

d) All of the above

34. Which of the following is NOT an example of a Service Request?

a) A user calls the Service Desk to order a toner cartridge

b) A user calls the Service Desk because they would like to change the functionality of
an application

c) A Manager submits a request for a new employee to be given access to an application

d) A user logs onto an internal website to download a licensed copy of software from a list of
approved options

35. A Service Level Package is best described as?

a) A definite level of utility and warranty associated with a core service package

b) A description of customer requirements used to negotiate a Service Level Agreement

c) A description of the value that the customer wants and for which they are willing to pay

d) A document showing the Service Levels achieved during an agreed reporting period

36. Incident Management has a value to the business by?

a) Helping to control infrastructure cost of adding new technology

b) Enabling users to resolve Problems

c) Helping to align people and process for the delivery of service

d) Contributing to the reduction of impact

37. A Service owner is responsible for which of the following?

a) Recommending improvements

b) Designing and documenting a Service

c) Carrying out the Service Operations activities needed to support a Service

d) Producing a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of all Services

38. The four stages of the Deming Cycle are?

a) Plan, Measure, Monitor, Report

b) Plan, Check, Re-Act, Implement

c) Plan, Do, Act, Audit

d) Plan, Do, Check, Act

39. What is the CORRECT order of the first four activities in the 7 Step Improvement
Process?

a) Define what you should measure, define what you can measure, gather data and
process data

b) Gather data, process data, analyze data and present data

c) What is the vision, where are we now, what do we want to be, how do we get there?

d) Gather data, process data, define what you should measure and define what you can
measure

40. Which of the following statements is CORRECT for all processes?

a) They define activities, roles, responsibilities, functions and metrics

b) They create value for stakeholders

c) They are carried out by a Service Provider in support of a Customer

d) They are units of organizations responsible for specific outcomes

Free ITIL Dumps Exam Questions Version-3 Paper 2

1. The ITIL V3 core is best described as?

a) An Operations Lifecycle

b) An IT Management Lifecycle

c) A Service Lifecycle

d) An Infrastructure Lifecycle

2. Which aspect of Service Design is missing from the list below?

1. The design of services

2. The design of Service Management systems and tools

3. The design of technology architecture and management systems

4. The design of the processes required

5. ?

a) The design of Functions

b) The design of Service Level Agreements

c) The design of applications

d) The design of measurement systems, methods and metrics

3. Which of the following Roles is responsible for identifying opportunities for

improvement?

1. Service Owner

2. Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Manager

3. Process Owner

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) All of the above

d) 2 and 3 only

4. Learning and improvement is the primary concern of which of the following elements of
the Service Lifecycle?

a) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual
Service Improvement

b) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation

c) Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement

d) Continual Service Improvement

5. Which of the following is the most appropriate approach to carrying out Service
Operations?

a) The internal IT view is most important as Service Operations has to monitor and manage
the infrastructure

b) Service Operations should maintain a balance between an internal IT view and an

external business view

c) The external business view is most important as Service Operations is the place where
value is realized and the customer obtains the benefit of the services

d) IT Operations does not take an internal or external view as they execute processes
defined by Service Design

6. Which of the following statements about the Service Desk are CORRECT?

1. The Service Desk is a function that provides a means of communication between IT and its
users for all operational issues

2. The Service Desk is always the owner of the Incident Management process

a) 2 only

b) 1 only

c) All of the above

d) None of the above

7. How does an organization use Resources and Capabilities in creating value?

a) They are used to create value in the form of output for production management

b) They are used to create value in the form of goods and services

c) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Support

d) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Delivery

8. In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of the following?

1. Service Portfolio Management

2. Demand Management

3. Financial Management

a) Service Operations

b) Service Strategy

c) Service Transition

d) Continual Service Improvement

9. Which of the following statements BEST describes the role of Communication during
Service Operation?

a) Communication is defined as part of all processes and is executed in Service Operation

b) Communication is a separate process that needs to be defined and executed with Service
Operation

c) Good communication is essential for successful Service Operation, just as it is for any
other phase of the Lifecycle

d) Communication is more important in Service Operation than in any other stage of the
Service Lifecycle
10. A Process owner is responsible for which of the following?

a) Purchasing tools to support the Process

b) Ensuring that targets specified in an SLA are met

c) Carrying out activities defined in the Process

d) Monitoring and improving the Process

11. Demand Management is primarily used to?

a) Increase customer value

b) Eliminate excess capacity needs

c) Increase the value of IT

d) Align business with IT cost

12. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of organizing Continual Service

Improvement (CSI) using the RACI model?

a) Facilitates clear communication and workflow practice across all parties involved in the
CSI program

b) Clarifies the roles and responsibilities of individual in the CSI program which could
otherwise be overlapping and confusing

c) Identifies where internal Service Level Agreements (SLAs) can be established to

implement CSI

d) Provides a clear focus for matching the CSI processes to financial planning

13. Which of the following are objectives of the Release and Deployment Management
process?

1. To ensure there are clear release and deployment plans

2. To ensure that skills and knowledge are transferred to operations and support staff

3. To ensure there is minimal unpredicted impact on production services

4. To provide cost justifiable IT capacity that is matched to the needs of the business

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) All of the above

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 3 and 4 only

14. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Service Portfolio Management?

a) How should our resources and capabilities be allocated?

b) What opportunities are there in the market?

c) Why should a customer buy these services?

d) What are the pricing or chargeback models?

15. Which of the following statements are NOT included in Access Management?

1. Verifying the identity of users requesting access to services

2. Setting the rights or privileges of systems to allow access to authorized users

3. Defining security policies for system access

4. Monitoring the availability of systems that users should have access to

a) 3 and 4 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1 and 2 only

16. Application Management is NOT responsible for?

a) Documenting and maintaining the technical skills required to manage and support
Applications
b) Managing applications through their lifecycle

c) Assisting in the decision to build or buy new software

d) Developing operational functionality required by the business

17. If something cannot be measured, it should not be documented within which of the
following?

a) The Glossary of Terms

b) A Service Level Agreement

c) An Incident Management record

d) A Configuration Item (CI)

18. What is the purpose of the Request Fulfillment Process?

a) Dealing with Service Requests from the users

b) Making sure all requests within an IT Organization is fulfilled

c) Ensuring fulfillment of Change Requests

d) Making sure the Service Level Agreement is met

19. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service
Transition phase of the lifecycle?

1. Data mining and workflow tools

2. Measurement and reporting systems

3. Release and Deployment technology

4. Process Design

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 1, 3 and 4 only

c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above

20. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about ‘good practice’?

a) It can be used to drive an organization forward

b) It is something that is in wide industry use

c) It is always documented in international standards

d) It is always based on ITIL

21. Consider the following statements:

1. A Process should be traceable to a specific trigger

2. A characteristic of the “Process” is that it is performance driven and able to be measured

Which of the above statements are CORRECT?

a) 1 only

b) All of the above

c) None of the above

d) 2 only

22. “Warranty of a service” means which of the following?

a) The service is fit for purpose

b) There will be no failures in applications and infrastructure associated with the service

c) All service-related problems are fixed free of charge for a certain period of time

d) Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity, continuity and security
23. The objective of Service Asset and Configuration Management is most accurately
described as?

a) To understand the performance characteristics of assets and Configuration Items (CIs) in

order to maximize their contribution to service levels

b) To manage service assets and CIs from an operational perspective

c) To ensure that assets and CIs deliver the business outcomes they were designed to
achieve

d) To define and control the components of services and infrastructure and maintain
accurate configuration records

24. A Service Catalogue should contain which of the following?

a) The version information of all software

b) The organizational structure of the company

c) Asset information

d) Details of all operational services

25. Facilities Management refers to?

a) The Management of IT services that are viewed as “utilities”, such as printers or network
access

b) The Management of an outsourcing contract

c) The Management of the physical IT environment, such as a Data Center

d) The procurement and maintenance of tools that are used by IT operations staff to
maintain the infrastructure

26. When planning and implementing a Continual Service Improvement (CSI) initiative,
which of the following benefits is LEAST useful in supporting a business case?

a) Reduce technology investment by $5m due to more accurate capacity and performance
modeling processes
b) Reduce support manpower demand by 30% due to automated incident and problem
management processes

c) Improve employee morale and therefore create better relationships between IT and
business units

d) Reduce Problem resolution by 50% and minimize critical system outages

27. Which of the following would NOT be stored in the Definitive Media Library (DML)?

a) Master copies of software

b) Backups of application data

c) Software licenses

d) Master copies of controlled documentation

28. The objective of the Change Management process is most accurately described as?

a) Ensuring that all changes are recorded, managed, tested and implemented in a
controlled manner

b) Ensuring that changes to IT infrastructure are managed efficiently and effectively

c) Ensuring that all changes have appropriate back-out plans in the event of failure

d) Protecting services by not allowing changes to be made

29. Functions are best described as?

a) Without their own body of knowledge

b) Closed loop systems

c) Self-Contained units of organizations

d) Focusing on transformation to a goal

30. What is the best definition of an Incident Model?

a) The template used to define the Incident logging form used to report Incidents

b) A type of Incident involving a standard (or model) type of Configuration Item (CI)

c) A set of pre-defined steps to be followed when dealing with a known type of Incident

d) An Incident that is easy to solve

31. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY defines Insourcing and Outsourcing
delivery model options?

a) Insourcing relies on internal resources; outsourcing relies on external organization(s)

resources

b) Insourcing relies on external organization(s) resources; outsourcing relies on internal

resources

c) Insourcing relies on co-sourcing; outsourcing relies on partnerships

d) Insourcing relies on knowledge process outsourcing; outsourcing relies on application

service provisioning

32. Why should monitoring and measuring be used when trying to improve services?

a) To validate, direct, justify and intervene

b) To validate, measure, monitor and change

c) To validate, plan, act and improve

d) To validate, assign resources, purchase technology and train people

33. A benefit of using Service Design tools is?

a) To help ensure that standards and conventions are followed

b) To help ensure that events are detected as quickly as possible

c) To help enable different applications to work together

d) To help implement architectures that support the business strategy

34. Which of the following is the CORRECT description of the Four P’s of Service Design?

a) A four step process for the design of effective Service Management

b) A definition of the people and products required for successful design

c) A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing design specifications

d) The four major areas that need to be considered in the design of effective Service
Management

35. Consider the following statements:

1. Service Transition provides guidance on moving new and changed services into
production

2. Service Transition provides guidance on testing

3. Service Transition provides guidance on the transfer of services to or from an external

service provider

Which of the above statements is CORRECT?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 only

c) All of the above

d) 1 and 3 only

36. Which is the first activity of the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model?

a) Assess the current business situation

b) Understand high-level business requirements

c) Agree on priorities for improvement

d) Create and verify a plan

37. An Incident occurs when:

1. A user is unable to access a service during service hours

2. An authorized IT staff member is unable to access a service during service hours

3. A redundant network segment fails, and the user is not aware of any disruption to service

4. A user contacts the Service Desk about slow performance of an application

Which of the above statements is CORRECT?

a) All of the above

b) 1 and 4 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) None of the above

38. Which process reviews Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) on a regular basis?

a) Supplier Management

b) Service Level Management

c) Service Portfolio Management

d) Contract Management

39. The 7 Step Improvement Process can most accurately be described as?

a) The Seven P’s of Continual Service Improvement (CSI)

b) A service improvement methodology based on the Deming Cycle

c) A set of roles and responsibilities for managing service improvements

d) A process for defining what is to be measured, gathering the data, processing the data
and using it to take corrective action
40. The Information Security Policy should be available to which groups of people?

a) Senior business managers and all IT staff

b) Senior business managers, IT executives and the Security Manager

c) All customers, users and IT staff

d) Information Security Management staff only

ITIL Dumps Practice Paper 3

1. Which of the following best means Combination of Internal & External Sourcing?

A. Internal Sourcing-.

B. External Sourcing

C. Co-Sourcing

D. Managed Services

2. Major Incidents require?

A. Separate procedures

B. Less urgency

C. Longer timescales

D. Less documentation

3. Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?

A. Knowledge

B. Information

C. Wisdom

D. Data

4. The spell check module of a word-processing software package contains a number of errors. The
Development department has corrected these errors in a new version. Which process is
responsible for ensuring this updated version is tested?

A. Configuration Management

B. Incident Management

C. Problem Management

D. Release Management

5. The Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle can be used to plan and implement Service Management
Processes:

How many times should each stage of the cycle be visited?

A. There should be a single Plan and Do, and then Check and Act should be carried out multiple
times to Implement Continual Improvement

B. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act

C. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to Implement Continual Improvement
D. There should be a single %n. then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to
Implement Continual improvement

6. Consider the following statements:

1. “Processes” should be implemented in such a way that the “Role” and “Function” in an
organization are defined

2. The RACI model Is beneficial to design Function”

Which of the above statements are CORRECT?

A. 1 Only

B. Both of the above

C. Neither of the above

D. 2 only

7. Which of the following is the process rather than a department?

A. Application Management

B. Operations Management

C. Service Desk

D. Availability Management

8. Which of the following statements fully describes the aim of Release and Deployment
Management?

A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design and
that will accomplish the stakeholders’ requirements and deliver the Intended objectives

B. To ensure that each release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of related assets
and service components that are compatible with each other

C. To ensure that all release and deployment packages can be tracked, installed, tested, verified,
and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriate

D. To record and manage deviations, risks, and issues related to the new or changed service

9. Which of the following may be defined in a process?

1. Roles

2. Activities

3. Functions

4. Guidelines

5. Standards

6. Governance Framework
A. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

B. All of the above

C. 1. 2, 5 and 6 only

D. 1, 2, 4, and 5 only

10. A Service Provider is?

A. An organization supplying services to one or more external customers

B. An organization supplying services to one or more internal customers or external customers

C. An organization supplying services to one or more internal customers

D. An organization supplying IT services

11. Which ITIL process has the objective of helping to monitor the IT services by maintaining a
logical model of the IT infrastructure and IT services?

A. Capacity Management

B. Change Management

C. Configuration Management

D. Financial Management for IT services

12. The Design Manager Is responsible for the overall coordination and deployment of quality
solution designs for services and processes. Which of the following are NOT responsibilities
included In this role?

A. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition Packages

B. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology
architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT
requirements of the organization

C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and
the service designs that are produced

D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of the Service Design and supporting processes

13. Of which ITIL process are Reliability, Serviceability and Maintainability components?

A. IT Service Continuity Management

B. Service Level Management

C. Problem Management

D. Availability Management

14. Which of the following statements is true about Access Management?

A. The Process responsible for allowing Users to make use of IT Services, data, or other Assets.
B. Access Management helps to protect the Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability of Assets by
ensuring that only authorized Users are able to access or modify the Assets.

C. Access Management is sometimes referred to as Rights Management or Identity Management.

D. All of above

15. What aspects would you not expect to see in a Service Level report designed for the customer?

A. The average utilization level of the Service Desk

B. The level of availability realized and the time not available per period

C. The percentage of incidents that was resolved within the target

D. The successful and reverted Changes during a specific period

16. Availability Management is responsible for availability of?

A. Services and Resources

B. Services and Business Processes

C. Resources and Business Processes

D. Services, Resources and Business Processes

17. What is the difference between a process and a project?

A. A process is continuous and has no end date, whereas a project has a finite lifespan.

B. A project is continuous and has no end date, whereas a process has a finite lifespan.

C. A process stops when the objective has been achieved, whereas a project does not stop when the
objective is met.

D. In a project the focus is not on the result, whereas with a process the result is important

18. Which of the following is the correct set of steps for the Continual Service improvement (CSI)
Model?

A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the Solution;
continually improve

B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived; How do we keep
the momentum going?

C. identifies the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the
plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; improve the solution

D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did
we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?

19. What is the meaning of the term Serviceability?

A. The degree of availability of the IT services that can be offered

B. The degree of support that the Service Desk provides to the customer

C. The degree to which the provision of IT services can be supported by maintenance contracts

D. The degree to which the services agreed in the Service Level Agreement (SLA) are complied with

20. A user reports a PC problem to the Service Desk. A Service Desk representative determines
that the PC is defective and indicates that according to the services catalogue, the PC will be
replaced within three hours. Which ITIL process is responsible for having this user's PC replaced
within three hours?

A. Availability Management

B. Change Management

C. Configuration Management

D. Service Level Management

21. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

A The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)

B. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS

C. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS

D. The CMS is partof the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)

22. Information is regularly exchanged between Problem Management and Change Management.
What information is this?

A. Known Errors from Problem Management, on the basis of which Change Management can
generate Requests for Change (RFCs)

B. RFCs resulting from Known Errors

C. RFCs from the users that Problem Management passes on to Change Management

D. RFCs from the Service Desk that Problem Management passes on to Change Management

23. Which form of outsourcing provides domain based business expertise?

A. Application Service Provision

B. Business Process Outsourcing

C. Knowledge Process Outsourcing

D. Co-Sourcing

24. Where are activities documented with the aim of improving an IT service?

A. Service Catalogue

B. Service Improvement Program

C. Service Level Agreement (SLA)

D. Service Quality Plan (SQP)

25. Changes are divided into categories.

What criterion defines a category for a change?

A. The consequences of the change such as limited, substantial, significant, etc.

B. The speed with which the change is made

C. The sequence in which the change is made

D. The Request for Change number that the change is assigned

26. In IT Service Continuity Management various precautionary measures are taken, for example
using an emergency power provision.

Which of the following ITIL processes could also initiate this kind of measure?

A. Availability Management

B. Capacity management

C. Change Management

D. Incident Management

27. What is a request to replace something within the IT infrastructure called?

A. Replacement Request

B. Request for Change

C. Request for Release

D. Service Request

28. Which ITIL process manager requires a report specifying the duration of an interruption of a
Configuration Item?

A. Availability Manager

B. Incident Manager

C. Problem Manager

D. Service Level Manager

29. Which of the following steps from the continual improvement Model is missing?

1. What Is the vision?

2. Where are we now?

3. Where do we want to be?

4. How do we get there?

5. Did we get there?

6.?

A. What is the ROI

B. How much did it cost.

C. How do we keep the momentum going.

D. What is the VOI?

30. Which of the following best describes the goal of Information Security Management Process?

A. To align IT security with business security and ensure that information security is effectively
managed in all service and Service Management activities’.

B. To ensure that that the information security risks are appropriately managed and enterprise
information resources are used responsibly.

C. To provide a focus for all aspects of IT security and manage all IT security activities.

D. To provide the strategic direction for security activities and ensures objectives are achieved

31. Which of the following statements about Supplier and Contract Database (SCD) are correct?

1. A database or structured Document used to manage Supplier Contracts throughout their Lifecycle.

2. The SCD contains key Attributes of all Contracts with Suppliers

3. Its never part of the Service Knowledge Management System.

4. Maintaining it is responsibility of Supplier management process

A. 1 & 2 only

B. 1, 2 & 3

C. 1, 2 & 4

D. All of above

32. Which of the following will complete the Four P's of Service Design?

1. Perspectives

2. Positioning

3. Plan

4. ???

A. People

B. Product
C. Patterns

D. Partners

33. What does Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) mean?

A. Average uptime of a service

B. Average downtime of a service

C. Average time between two consecutive incidents

D. Average time of the breakdown-free period within a measured period

34. Which of the following statements is true about the term Event?

A. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT service.

B. The term Event is also used to mean an Alert or notification created by any IT Service,
configuration Item or Monitoring tool.

C. Events typically require IT Operations personnel to take actions, and often lead to Incidents being
logged

D. All of above

35. Which of the following is the best description of the contents of the Definitive Media Library
(DML)?

A. Copies of all software versions that are needed

B. Copies of all live software programs

C. Authorized versions of all software used on the infrastructure

D. Software awaiting user acceptance testing

36. Application Portfolio

1. A database or structured Document used to manage Applications throughout their Lifecycle.

2. The Application Portfolio contains key Attributes of all Applications.

3. The Application Portfolio is sometimes implemented as part of the Service Portfolio, or as part of
the Configuration Management System.

Which of the above statements is correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 & 3only

C. All of above

D. 1 & 2 only

37. Which of the following best describes Fault Tolerance?

A. The ability of an IT Service or Configuration Item to continue to operate correctly after Failure of
a Component part.

B. The ability of a third-party supplier to meet the terms of their contract. Often this contract will
include agreed levels of availability, reliability and/or maintainability for a supporting service or
component.

C. A measure of how quickly and effectively a service, component or CI can be restored to normal
working after a failure.

D. A measure of how long a service, component or CI can perform its agreed function without
interruption

38. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Capacity Plan?

A. Capacity Forecasts

B. Recommendations

C. Components and resource forecasts

D. Countermeasures for risks

39. How can an organization determine the effectiveness of the Service Level Management
process?

A. By checking contracts with suppliers

B. By measuring customer satisfaction

C. By defining service levels

D. By reporting on all incidents

40. What is the first activity when implementing a release?

A. Designing and building a release

B. Testing a release

C. Compiling the release schedule

D. Communicating and preparing the release

1. A customer-based Service Level Agreement structure includes:
A An SLA covering all Customer groups and all the services they use
B SLAs for each service that are Customer-focused and written in business language
C An SLA for each service type, covering all those Customer groups that use that
Service
D An SLA with each individual Customer group, covering all of the services they use
2. Which of the following would normally be included in a Capacity Plan?
1 Options
2 Management summary
3 Business workload forecasts
4 Backout plans
A 2, 3 and 4
B All of them
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and3
3. An IT department is seeking to set its prices to match those of external suppliers selling the
same services. Which one of the following is the best description of this approach?
A The going rate that is agreed with Customers
B Market rate
C Cost-plus
D Profitable
4. Which of the following is not an element of Availability Management?
A. Verification
B. Security
C. Reliability
D. Maintainability
 5. The extent of CI information held in the CMDB should:
A Be as detailed as possible so that frequent reports can be produced to avoid spending a lot of money
B Be as high level as possible
C Match the organisation’s requirement for information to be held
D Vary according to cost
6. To enable a new Service Desk management tool to be implemented, the capacity of the servers
has to be extended. Who is responsible for managing the request for additional capacity?
A Service Level Manager
B Capacity Manager
C Change Manager
D Financial Manager
7. Which one of the following is NOT necessarily a direct benefit of implementing a formal
Incident Management process?
A Improved user satisfaction
B Incident volume reduction
C Elimination of lost incidents
D Less disruption to both IT support staff and users
8. Configuration Management plans should be integrated with those of:
A Change & Release Management
B Service Level Management
C IT Service Financial & Continuity Management.
D Change & Capacity Management
9. Possible problems with Change Management include:
A Lack of ownership of impacted services
B Increased visibility and communication of changes
C Better alignment of IT services to actual business needs
D The ability to absorb a larger volume of change
10. Which of the following activities is NOT included in the Operational Management stage of
the Continuity Management Life-cycle?
A Develop Procedures and Initial Testing
B Education and Awareness
C Review, Audit and Assurance
D Ongoing Training and Testing
11. Which of the following are likely to be members of the CAB?
1 Problem Manager
2 Customer representatives
3 Change Manager
4 Senior IT technical managers
A 2 and 3 only
B All of them
C 1, 2 &4
D 1, 3 &4
12. Consider the following activities:
1 The analysis of raw data
2 The identification of trends
3 The definition of Service Management processes
4 The implementation of preventive measures
Which of the above should be easier after implementing a good IT Service Management
software tool?
A 1, 2 & 4
B2&3
C All of them
D None of them
 13. The activity that aims to identify the potential damage or loss to an organisation resulting
from disruption to critical business processes is:
A Root Cause Analysis
B Business Impact Analysis
C Service Outage Analysis
D Component Failure Impact Analysis
14. Intermediate Recovery is initially concerned with which of the following time periods?
A 4 to 24 hours
B More than 72 hours
C 24 to 72 hours
D 4 to 8 hours
15. What is SOA within Availability Management?
A System Optimisation Approach
B Systematic Operational Adjustment
C Serviceability of Applications
D Service Outage Analysis
16. Serviceability is an element of Availability Management. How is it best defined?
A The prevention of failure, and the ability to keep services and components operable
B The ability to restore services or components back to normal operation
C The percentage of the agreed service hours for which the service is available
D The support which external suppliers can be contracted to provide for parts of the IT infrastructure
Answer: D
17. Which one of the following statements is NOT FALSE?
A Depreciation is used to calculate how maintenance can be offset against tax
B Staff costs are capital costs because of their high value
C Cost centres are used to measure ROCE (Return on Capital Employed)
D Direct costs can be allocated to a single customer, service or activity
18. Which one of the following is NOT a major CI type?
A Documentation
B Software
C Purchase order
D Accommodation
19. Where would the information relating to software release components be stored?
A DSL
B CMDB
C AMDB
D CDB
20. The following activities are involved in implementing a Service Management function:
1 Tool selection
2 Tool specification
3 Process design
4 Functional requirements analysis
In which order should the above activities be taken?
A4213
B4321
C2143
D2134
 21. Which of the following best describes the goal of Service Level Management?
A To maintain and improve IT service quality in line with business requirements
B To provide IT services at the lowest possible cost by agreeing with Customers their minimum
requirements for service availability and ensuring performance does not exceed these targets.
C To provide the highest possible level of service to Customers and continuously
improve on this through ensuring all services operate at maximum availability.
D To ensure that IT delivers the same standard of service at the least cost
22. The process to implement SLAs comprises of the following activities in sequence:
A Draft SLAs, catalogue services, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLRs, negotiate, agree
SLAs
B Draft SLAs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, negotiate, catalogue services,
C Review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLAs, catalogue services, negotiate, agree SLAs
D Catalogue services, establish SLRs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs,
negotiate service levels, agree SLAs
23. Which of the following statements is true?
A An urgent release is always a delta release
B A full release may contain package and delta releases
C package release may contain full and delta releases
D A full release may contain several delta releases
24. Which of these best describes the purpose of Capacity Management?
A To reduce costs and performance levels to a minimum
B To ensure that there is always sufficient capacity available to meet all customer
demands
C To ensure that business demands are affordable and achievable
D To provide cost-effective IT capacity to meet agreed service levels
 25. A remote site has recently had its network upgraded. The users are now complaining of slow
responses and have heard that this is due to problems with capacity. Who should they contact
for assistance?
A Network Management
B The Service Desk
C Capacity Management
D Problem Management
26. Consider the following:
1 Incident diagnostic scripts
2 A knowledge base of previously recorded incidents
3 A Configuration Management Database covering the infrastructure supported
4 A Forward Schedule of Change
Which of the above should be available to the Service Desk?
A All four
B 1&2
C 3&4
D 1, 2 &3
27. Which of these is NOT a recognised Service Desk structure?
A Remedial Service Desk
B Virtual Service Desk
C Local Service Desk
D Central Service Desk
28. The wording of SLAs and OLAs should be:
A Technically focused, so that they may be understood by IT professionals
B A mixture of business, technical and legal language, so that they can be understood by everyone
C Clear and concise, leaving no room for ambiguity.
D Legally worded as they must be contractually binding
29. Consider the following list:
1 Modelling
2 Risk Analysis
3 Application Sizing
4 DSL maintenance
Which two from the above list are among the main responsibilities of Capacity Management?
A1&2
B1&3
C3&4
D2&4
30. At what point does an Incident turn into a Problem?
A When it is urgent
B When it is a Major Incident
C If the person reporting the incident is very senior
D Never
31. There are strong links between Service Level Management and:
1 Incident Management
2 Availability Management
3 Configuration Management
4 IT Service Continuity Management
5 Change Management
A 1, 3 & 5
B2&4
C 2, 3 & 5
D All of them
32. Does Problem Management depend entirely on having a mature Incident Management
process in place?
A Yes, because without a mature Incident Management process in place there is no
reliable information available
B No, because the quality of Incident Management information is of little importance to proactive
Problem Management
C No, because progress can still be made on solving long-standing Problems
D Yes, because trend analysis cannot be undertaken without a lot of accurate Incident Management
information
 33. The scope of a Release can best be defined by:
A The RFCs that it satisfies
B The number of updates to the OHS
C Service Level metrics
D The DSL configuration
34. For which of these activities is the Change Manager responsible?
A Chairing the CAB
B Establishing the root cause of a Capacity Incident which has led to an RFC being
raised
C Devising the backout plan for a significant Change
D Ensuring a Release has reached the target CIs
35. The Service Desk can act as the focal point for:
1 Receiving Incidents & Service Requests from users
2 Recording Change Requests from users
3 Handling complaints and queries
A 1 Only
B 2 Only
C1&3
D 1, 2 & 3
36. Which of these statements is true when deciding on the initial scope and depth of the
information to be held in a CMDB?
A You should try to capture as much information as possible about all types of CIs
B You shouldn’t collect detailed information about CIs that are not under Change Control
C You shouldn’t worry too much about Change Control; the main objective is to get the database loaded
D You should try to satisfy all the wishes of the IT staff
37. Within a CMDB, which relationships are most likely to exist between Incidents and
Problems?
1 One Incident to one Problem
2 One Incident to many Problems
3 Many Incidents to one Problem
A 1 & 2only
B 2 & 3 only
C 1 & 3 only
D All of them
38. Which of the following metrics is most relevant in determining the value added by Problem
Management to the Service Desk?
A The number of Problems raised
B The number of Known Errors identified
C The number of Problems correctly categorised
D The number of RFCs raised
39. Which of these is a DIRECT benefit of having a Service Desk?
A Customer Service Level Requirements are established
B Changes taking place are properly coordinated
C All the information in the CMDB is kept up to date.
D Technical support staff are less likely to be interrupted to deal with user’s calls
40. An ‘unabsorbed’ cost is best described as:
A A capital cost
B A type of charging policy
C An uplift to allocated costs
D A revenue stream
Visit www.MultipleChoiceSecrets.com to Learn More!
Multiple Choice Exam Papers
For The ITIL Foundation Exam
Multiple Choice Exam Papers contains five 40 question ITIL Foundation exam papers, with answers,
allowing you to practice for the ITIL Foundation examination. All these papers are written and verified by
ITIL consultants. Also included are 44 full color ITIL Flashcards that will help boost your memory’s
retention of key facts during revision. This new 103 page eBook also contains vital exam preparation
techniques – especially written to maximize your chances of passing the ITIL Foundation exam first
time. Each exam paper is complimented with tips and suggestions on how to improve your performance
as you practice each of the five papers.
‘Multiple Choice Exam Papers’ also includes:-
• Free Exam Success E-Tips sent to your in-box for 7 days (if activated)
• Bonus chapter on “How to successfully prepare for your exam”
• Answers to the top, most asked ITIL Foundation FAQs
• Special Bonus - ITSM downloads worth over $200

ITIL Foundation Sample Answer Question Answer

Paper – Answers Question
1 D 21 A
2 D 22 D
3 B 23 C
4 A 24 D
5 A 25 B
6 C 26 A
7 B 27 A
8 A 28 C
9 A 29 B
10 A 30 D
11 B 31 D
12 A 32 C
13 B 33 A
14 C 34 A
15 D 35 C
16 D 36 B
17 D 37 C
18 C 38 B
19 B 39 D
20 B 40 C