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MOCK BOARD EXAMINATION

CRIME DETECTION, INVESTIGATION AND PREVENTION

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Write
the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided.

1. An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible in a court of

law if it was made in the presence of a counsel of his own choice and must be in
a. the presence of a fiscal b. the presence of a police investigator
c. writing d. front of a judge
2. Fiscals and Prosecutors are under the control and supervision of the…
a. National Bureau of Investigation
b. Department of the Interior and Local Government
c. Supreme Court
d. Department of Justice
3. The questioning of a person in a formal and systematic way and is most often
used to question criminal suspects to determine their probable guilt or innocence.
a. inquiry b. interview
c. polygraph examination d. interrogation
4. A form of investigation in which the investigator assume a different and
unofficial identity.
a. tailing b. casing
c. espionage d. undercover work
5. A type of surveillance in which extreme precautions and actions are taken in not
losing the subject.
a. loose tail b. casing
c. pony tail d. close tail
6. A type of shadowing employed when a general impression of the subject’s habits
and associates is required.
a. loose tail b. casing
c. pony tail d. close tail
7. A surveillance activity for the purpose of waiting the anticipated arrival of a
suspect or observing his actions from a fixed location.
a. casing b. tailing
c. stake out d. espionage
8. An examination of an individual’s person, houses, or effects or a building, or
premises with the purpose of discovering contrabands or personal properties
connected in a crime.
a. search b. raid
c. investigation d. seizure
9. A kind of evidence that tends to prove additional evidence of a different
character to the same point.
a. corroborative evidence b. circumstantial evidence
c. direct evidence d. real evidence
10. The process of bringing together in a in logical manner all evidence collected
during the investigation and present it to the prosecutor.
a. case preparation b. order maintenance
c. crime prevention d. public service

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11. Ways and means are resorted for the purpose of trapping and capturing the law
breaker during the execution of a criminal act.
a. instigation b. inducement
c. buy bust operation d. entrapment
12. A special qualification for an undercover agent.
a. excellent built b. excellent eyesight
c. excellent looks d. excellent memory

13. The discreet observation of places, persons and vehicles for the purpose of
obtaining information concerning the identities or activities of suspects.
a. close observation b. espionage
c. tailing d. surveillance
14. The questioning of a person by law enforcement officers after that person has
been taken into custody.
a. preliminary investigation b. interrogation
b. custodial investigation d. cross examination
15. As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can be served at…
a. day time
b. night time
c. any day and at any time of the day or night
d. weekdays
16. Measures through which police seek to detect crimes, or attempts to be present
when they are committed, through the use of the undercover agents, electronic
devices for wiretapping or bugging, and stakeouts.
a. preventive measures b. countermeasures
c. pro-active measures d. tape measures
17. A police activity directed toward the identification and apprehension of alleged
criminals and the accumulation, preservation, and presentation of evidence
regarding their alleged crimes.
a. police patrol b. police intelligence
c. criminal procedure d. criminal investigation
18. An extension, or continuation of the preliminary investigation.
a. initial investigation b. custodial investigation
c. secondary investigation d. follow-up investigation
19. To obtain admission and confession of guilt is the primary purpose of…
a. interview b. surveillance
c. investigation d. interrogation
20. Such facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably discreet and prudent
man to believe that an offense has been committed and that the object sought in
connection with the offense are in the place sought to be searched.
a. prima facie evidence b. probable cause
c. prejudicial question d. res ipsa loquitur
21. A search warrant shall be valid for _____ days from its date. Thereafter, it shall
be void.
a. 10 b. 15
c. 30 d. 45
22. It means that a specific crime was committed at a specified time, date and place,
and that the person named in his report committed the crime.
a. corpus delicti b. sufficiency of evidence
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 c. stare decisis d. pares patriae
23. Police seek to prevent crime by being present in places where crimes might be
committed and by alerting citizens to refrain from practices that make them or
their property vulnerable.
a. opportunity denial b. order maintenance
c. criminal investigation d. police intelligence
24. A statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his guilt.
a. admission b. confession
c. deposition d. accusation
25. It may be a direct acknowledgement of the truth of the guilty fact as charge or of
some essential part of the commission of the criminal act itself.
a. admission b. confession
c. deposition d. accusation
26. It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling short of an
acknowledgement of guilt.
a. admission b. confession
c. deposition d. accusation

27. The simplest type of interview which concerns with the gathering of information
regarding the personal circumstances of a person who is the subject of
investigation.
a. background interview b. personal interview
c. intimate interview d. pre-game interview
28. It means method of operation.
a. corpus delicti b. parens patriae
c. stare decisis d. modus operandi
29. It is one which induces the criminal to act and need not be shown in order to
obtain conviction.
a. intent b. motive
c. opportunity d. inducement
30. The three tools in criminal investigation, whereby their application varies in
proportion on their necessity to establish the guilt of the accused in a criminal
case.
a. information, interrogation, instrumentation
b. detection, apprehension, conviction ‘
c. inquiry, observation, conclusion
d. magnifying glass, pencil, tape measure
31. The simple questioning of a person who is cooperating in the investigation.
a. interview b. inquiry
c. interrogation d. instrumentation
32. It involves a number of persons who might have handled evidence between the
time of the commission of the alleged offense and the disposition of the case,
should be kept to a minimum.
a. chain of command b. chain of custody
c. evidence tracking d. tracing evidence
33. A kind of evidence which may link the suspect to the crime scene or offense.
Examples are fingerprints, impressions, blood etc.
a. physical evidence b. associative evidence
c. tracing evidence d. factual evidence
34. Articles and materials which are found in connection with an investigation and
which help in establishing the identity of the perpetrator or the circumstances
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 under which the crime was committed or which in general, assist in the
prosecution of the criminal.
a. physical evidence b. documentary evidence
c. tracing evidence d. testimonial evidence
35. The following are different techniques in interrogation except one:
a. sympathetic approach b. emotional appeal
c. financial assistance d. friendliness
36. This may be applicable to a crime scene which is approximately circular or oval.
The searchers gather at the center and proceed outward along radii or spokes.
a. strip method b. wheel method
c. spiral method d. zone method
37. The area to be searched is divided into quadrants and each searcher is assigned
to one quadrant.
a. strip method b. wheel method
c. spiral method d. zone method
38. The searchers follow each other in the path of a crime scene beginning in the
outside and circling around a central point.
a. strip method b. wheel method
c. spiral method d. zone method
39. A kind of gathering information whereby a subject is being followed.
a. convoy b. caravan
c. tailing d. surveillance
40. Another term for tailing.
a. impersonating b. backing
c. supporting d. shadowing
41. A person who gives necessary information to the investigator. He may give the
information openly and even offer to be a witness or he may inform the
investigator surreptitiously and request to remain anonymous.
a. witness b. expert witness
c. hostile witness d. informant
42. The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly conversations of
other people.
a. bugging b. dubbing
c. mimicking d. tapping
43. The questioning of persons not suspected of being involved in a crime, but who
knows about the crime or individuals involved in it.
a. interrogation b. rumor mongering
c. interview d. inquiry
44. An objective of criminal invstigation.
a. determine the motive b. identify criminals
c. rehabilitate criminals d. prevent crimes
45. A term used to describe a transition which occur in the development of a fire,
when, for example, most of all the combustible surfaces within a room are heated
above their ignition temperature at the same time.
a. intensity b. ignition
c. flash over d. starter
46. A term of the start of the combustion, its detailed process of a solid is very
complicated, since the proportion of different flammable vapours vary from one
material to another and contact with oxygen must take place before combustion
can begin.
a. intensity b. ignition
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 c. flash over d. starter
47. The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum in a similar way
to that of light.
a. ignition b. convection
c. radiation d. conduction
48. The transfer of heat within a solid material from hotter to cooler parts.
a. ignition b. convection
c. radiation d. conduction
49. The greatest concern of the firemen at the fire/crime scene is to….
a. interview witnesses
b. view the site of the crime
c. preserve the fire/crime scene
d. phot opportunity in the fire/crime scene
50. Most malicious fires are set by individuals secretly, it is either set for revenge or
self aggrandizing; or set by psychotic fire setter, or for sexual gratification.
a. group fire setter b. arson for profit
c. fire starter d. solitary fire setter
51. It is, in most cases, the initial step for obtaining information to determine the
origin and cause of fire.
a. evidence collection b. laboratory examination of evidence
c. interview witnesses d. interrogation of suspects
52. The primary course of action in case of a fire.
a. pack up and flee b. run for your life
c. call an ambulance d. raise the alarm
53. The main product of the combustion of carbon. It is not poisonous but is an
asphyxiant which lowers the proportion of oxygen available for breathing.
a. carbon oxide b. carbon monoxide
c. carbon paper d. carbon dioxide
54. A normal product of combustion, and is poisonous, especially when the air
supply to the fire is restricted.
a. carbon oxide b. carbon monoxide
c. carbon paper d. carbon dioxide
55. The fire resisting property of structural elements and the behavior of a building
material in a fire, it is used to predict how long it will resist the effect of a fire
before it fails.
a. fire resistance b. fire duration
c. fire proof d. fire strength
56. A type of fire that is the result of the combustion of certain metals in finely
divided forms; magnesium, potassium, zinc, etc….
a. class A b. class B
c. class C d. class D
57. A type of fire which results from burning of wood, paper, textiles, and other
carbonaceous materials. Extinguishment of this fire is by quenching and cooling.
a. class A b. class B
c. class C d. class D
58. The following are components of fire except one:
a. gas b. fuel
c. oxygen d. heat
59. It is observed in structural fires and can be an indicator of the fire travel and point
of origin.
a. charring b. alligatoring
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 c. V pattern d. pour pattern
60. A pattern or network of fine, irregular lines in glass and wood.
a. crazing b. spalling
c. light bulbs d. charring
61. A tool employed by an arsonist to delay the start of the fire and allow him to
establish an alibi.
a. accelerants b. delaying tactic
c. timing device d. stopper
62. It can be readily identified by their distinctive odors, and the most common
examples are gasoline, turpentine and kerosene.
a. accelerants b. trailers
c. timing device d. stopper
63. This catalytic combustion device is the most common means employed to detect
flammable vapors.
a. accelerant b. sniffer
c. timing device d. stopper
64. The irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire and experience gratification
and satisfaction from it.
a. fire starter syndrome b. pyrotechnic disease
c. pyromania d. pyrophobia
65. It is known as the “Fire Code of the Philippines.”
a. PD 1108 b. PD 1017
c. PD 1081 d. PD 1185
66. Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used to set off
explosives.
a. blasting agent b. blasting cap
c. gun powder c. explosive primer
67. These are description of materials or compounds that are easily set on fire
except one:
a. combustible b. corrosive
c. flammable d. inflammable
68. Any material having a flash point at or above 37.80 degree Celsius or 100
degree Fahrenheit.
a. combustible liquid b. flammable liquid
c. inflammable liquid d. corrosive liquid
69. Any liquid that causes fire when in contact with organic matter.
a. combustible liquid b. flammable liquid
c. inflammable liquid d. corrosive liquid

70. An extremely hot luminous bridge formed by the passage of an electric current
across the space between two conductors.
a. electrical arc b. damper
c. duct system d. ember
71. The active principle of burning, characterized by the heat and light combustion.
a. explosion b. arson
c. combustion d. fire
72. A type of fire, of flammable liquid and gasses.
a. class A b. class B
c. class C d. class D

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73. A mass movement in a fluid, an example a liquid or a gas where fluid at one
temperature and density moves under the influence of gravity at different
temperatures.
a. conduction b. convection
c. radiation d. combustion
74. The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted to vapor.
a. burning point b. melting point
c. freezing point d. boiling point
75. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a collision course or to avoid
hazard.
a. point of no return b. point of no escape
c. start of evasive action d. final position
76. The movement of vehicles, and pedestrians in a road or highway.
a. traffic b. flight
c. trip d. journey

77. A method of locating a spot in the area by measurements from two or more
reference points.
a. traffic report b. spot report
c. triangulation d. accident investigation
78. The force that tends to pull all objects to the center of the earth.
a. inertia b. friction
c. energy d. gravity
79. Any motor vehicle accident that results in no death, but only injuries to one or
more persons.
a. fatal b. chronic
c. non fatal d. injurious
80. The “Traffic and Land Transportation Code of the Philippines>”
a. RA 7160 b. RA 8551
c. RA 6425 d. RA 4136
81. An occurrence in a sequence of events, which usually produces unintended
injury,
death or property damage.
a. traffic incidents b. traffic accidents
c. traffic hazards d. traffic events
82. Any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic way.
a. non motor vehicle traffic accident
b. non motor vehicle non-traffic accident
c. motor vehicle non-traffic accident
d. motor vehicle traffic accident
83. An order wherein a violator is commanded to appear in court, but without detaining him.
a. traffic citation b. traffic request
c. traffic warrant d. traffic violation
84. The first accidental touching of an object collision course or otherwise avoid a hazard.
a. primary contact b. secondary contact
c. disengagement d. initial contact
85. The following are the three E’s of Traffic Management and Operation except one:
a. Engineering b. Education
c. Enforcement d. Evaluation

86. The “Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.”

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 a. RA 9870 b. RA 9165
c. RA 1017 d. RA 6195
87. Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying emotional change, thought disruption
and ego distortion.
a. tranquillisers b. hallucinogens
c. stimulants d. depressants
88. Drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or dullness of the mind with
delusions.
a. stimulants b. narcotics
c. depressants d. hallucinogens
89. The practice or profession of having sexual intercourse for money or profit.
a. gynaecology b. prostitution
b. pornography d. sex business
90. The scientific name of marijuana.
a. cannabis sativa L b. pappaver somniferum
c. deoxyribonucleic acid d. methamphetamine
91. The original components of heroin and morphine.
a. codeine b. caffeine
c. opium d. methamphethamine
92. An inter department agency that enforce and carry out the law against illegal drugs.
a. Phil. Drug Enforcement Agency b. Bureau of Drugs
c. Dangerous Drug Board d. Food and Drug Administration
93. A harmful conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity, wickedness and
corruption of the mind and body.
a. vice b. abuse
c. addiction d. virtue
94. The most common form of stimulant.
a. heroin b. codeine
c. morphine d. shabu
95. It is scientifically known as methamphethamine hydrochloride.
a. heroin b. codeine
c. morphine d. shabu
96. A derivative of opium which is used a cough reliever.
a. codeine b. heroin
c. morphine d. caffeine
97. Any part of the plant of the papaver somniferum, including the seeds.
a. opium poppy b. marijuana
c. caffeine d. codeine
98. Another term for drug addiction.
a. drug use b. drug net
c. drug pushing d. drug dependence
99. Commercially produced drugs that can be legally sold or dispensed only by a
physician’s order.
a. illegal drugs b. prohibited drugs
c. regulated drugs d. prescription drugs
100. Any chemical substance that by virtue of its chemical nature alters the structure and
functioning of living organism.
a. alcohol b. poison
c. drug d. vice

**Nothing Follows**

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