PMBOK 6th Edition Questions

PMP Questions - 1

Question 1:
An assessment of your project's situation suggest that the current market place
conditions, suppliers and unique local requirements will have a significant
influence the project's Procurement Management Plan that you are in the
process of developing. These factors are collectively called:

A. Project constraints.
B. External environmental factors.
C. Enterprize environment factors.
D. Risks and assumptions.

Question 2:
Key project management skills include all of the following except:

A. Leading
B. Technical expertise
C. Communicating
D. Negotiating

Question 3:
Senior management’s role on a project is best described as:

A. Developing the project plan.

B. Helping to prevent unnecessary changes to project objectives.
C. Identifying unnecessary project constraints.
D. Assisting in risk assessment and mitigation.

Question 4:
The "halo effect" (or the effect of the "Peter Principle") refers to the tendency to:

A. Move people into project management because they have project

management qualifications.
B. Move people into project management because they are good in their
technical field.
C. Hire people from leading educational institutions because they are seen to the
best.
D. Promote from within.

Question 5:
In a discussion between two team members you notice one of them is making
positive gestures, nodding in agreement and asking questions.
This is commonly called ______________ and it constitutes ____% of
communication.

A. Active listening, 30%.

B. Non verbal, 50% to 60%.
C. Para lingual communication, 40%. 
D. Feedback, 20%.

Question 6:
The processes used to create the project's deliverables and meet the project's
defined objectives fall into two general categories:

A. Planning processes and Execution processes.

B. Project Management processes and product-oriented or service-oriented
processes.
C. Project Management processes and production processes.
D. Soft processes and hard processes.

Question 7:
Which of the following is not an output from the Control Scope process?
A. Scope changes.
B. Corrective action.
C. Lessons learned. 
D. Work performance information.

Question 8:
An organisation's culture?

A. Is indesribable and variable.

B. Should be ignored when implementing PMBOK processes.
C. Often has a direct influence on the project.
D. Is unlikely to impact the project.

Question 9:
All of the following are true about resource levelling expect:
A. It can change the critical path.
B. It is used to improve the accuracy of the WBS.
C. It frequently results is increased project duration.
D. It can be used to prevent the usage of selected resource exceeding specified
levels.
Question 10:
Which of the following statements is not true?

A. Standards and regulations are mandatory.

B. According to ISO, standards are not mandatory, but regulations are.
C. Standards often begin as guidelines that are not mandatory. With later
widespread adoption, they can become de facto regulations.
D. Standards and regulations are socio-economic influences on a project.

Question 11:
Data gathering and group creativity techniques can include all of the following
expect:

A. Root cause analysis.

B. Nominal group technique.
C. Affinity diagrams.
D. Multi criteria decision analysis.

Question 12:
Which type of leadership is best for optimizing a project team's performance?

A. Democratic leadership
B. Participative leadership
C. Autocratic leadership
D. Benevolent authoritative leadership

Question 13:
There is a significant amount of activity on your project and lots of interactions
between team members from a range of organisations. You notice there is a
verbal communication block between two key team members. The most likely
barrier is:

A. A hostile attitude displayed by one or both of the people

B. The fact they are not co-located
C. A partition between desks
D. The phone, which keeps ringing
Question 14:
What are 'workarounds' in project management?

A. Workarounds are essentially the same as rework

B. Workarounds are alternative strategies
C. Workarounds are unplanned responses to emerging risks that were previously
either unidentified or accepted
D. Workarounds are activities performed according to applicable contingency
plans

Question 15:
You have to determine the most important project related to the upgrade of your
organisational intranet system. The four options are: Server upgrade, Network
upgrade, Storage upgrade and improved backup and recovery. Which technique
is likely to be the most effective for prioritizing these projects?

A. Develop numeric weightings

B. Pairwise comparison
C. Monte Carlo Simulation
D. Regression analysis

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PMP PRACTICE QUESTIONS 3
Question 1:
Sam is the project manager recently appointed to the IntelX project. While she was
creating her project management plan, she found that the project business case contains
some wrong information and should be updated. She decided to change this document
and inform her sponsor and concerned stakeholders about the change. What is your
advice to Sam?

A. I will advise her to execute the required change to the business case and inform the
concerned management
B. I will advise her to review the change with the project sponsor before she
communicates the change to the other concerned stakeholders
C. I will advise her not to change the business case document as it is not one of the
project documents that she is authorized to change
D. I will advise her to review the change with the PMO before she communicates the
change to the other concerned stakeholders

Question 2:
James started to execute the Manage Quality process and he was looking for the
acceptable level of project and product quality and how to ensure this level of quality in
its deliverables and processes. Which document should James review?

A. Project documents
B. The project management plan
C. Organizational process assets
D. Enterprise environmental factors

Question 3:
Which of the following documents is created as a result of market demand?
A. Business Case
B. Project Charter
C. Benefits management plan
D. Project information document

Question 4:
Which of the following team can help in managing your project quality?
A. Project team
B. The customer
C. The project sponsor
D. All the above

Question 5:
John is appointed as a project manager for Xenon project to create an auto traffic
violation system in Yuro city. Currently, he started to gather the project requirements.
John is going to meet many people and review many documents to get the required
information. Who should he meet to get the project requirements?
A. The sponsor
B. The public community groups
C. The traffic police officers and representatives
D. All the above

Question 6:
John is appointed as a project manager for Xenon project to create an auto traffic
violation system in Yuro city. He has started to gather the project requirements. John is
going to meet many people and review many documents to get the required information.
Which of the following documents are qualified for the project requirements?
A. The project initial risk document
B. The documented needs and expectations of the sponsor, and other concerned
stakeholders
C. The project high-level schedule
D. All the above

Question 7:
Adam is about to close his project after 13 months of hard work. He started to review the
project management plan to:
A. Ensure that the accepted deliverables have its associated sign-off sheets
B. Ensure that the project management plan complies with the organization standards
C. Ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives
D. All the above
Question 9:
Which of the following Project Documents can be considered input to the Validate Scope
process?
A. Project communications
B. Requirements documentation
C. Team charter
D. All the above

Question 10:
You are the project manager for a software project. You are in the process of establishing
the policies, procedures and documentation for planning, developing, managing,
executing and controlling the project schedule. You may use all of the following Tools &
Techniques EXCEPT:
A. Expert judgment
B. Meetings
C. Decomposition
D. Data Analysis

Question 11:
The following are all examples of Organizational Process Assets EXCEPT:
A. Historical information
B. Organizational structure
C. Templates
D. Change control procedures

Question 12:
You are the project manager of a R400 million construction project. You, along with your
team, have identified and documented the specific actions to be performed to produce the
project deliverables. What would be your immediate next action be?
A. Develop Schedule
B. Collect Requirements
C. Sequence Activities
D. Select Sellers

Question 13:
Your project involves the construction of a temporary concrete road. The road is expected
to be in use for 6 months before it gets demolished. You have completed the laying of the
temporary concrete road. But, the customer specification states that you have to wait for
28 days before using the road.
Which of the following relationships most likely represents the relationship of the start of
the use of the road to the completion of the construction of the road?
A. Finish-to-start with a 28 days lead
B. Finish-to-finish with a 6 months lag
C. Finish-to-start with a 28 days lag
D. Start-to-finish with a 28 days lag

Question 14:
You are in the planning process of a R1b project. You realize that your schedule requires
more resources in certain months of the project than that are available to you. Your senior
management has clearly instructed that you will not be able to obtain additional resources
for the project. So, you instruct your planner to adjust the schedule to accommodate these
constraints. What are you instructing the planner to do?
A. Crashing
B. Resource levelling
C. Programme Evaluation and Review Technique
D. Fast tracking

Question 15:
Projects are a means of achieving objectives within an organization's strategic plan.
Which of the following statements is NOT true about projects?
A. Every project creates a unique product, service or result
B. The duration of the project is short
C. Repetitive elements may be present in some project deliverables and activities
D. A project can involve a single individual

Question 16:
The project charter contains high level information. Which of the following elements is
NOT typically found in a project charter?
A. Project purpose or justification
B. Summary milestone schedule
C. Work packages
D. Stakeholder list

Question 17:
The key benefit of performing quantitative risk analysis is that it produces quantitative
risk information to support decision making in order to reduce project uncertainty. Which
of the following is NOT a commonly used quantitative risk analysis and modelling
technique?
A. Tornado diagram
B. Decision tree diagram
C. Monte Carlo Technique
D. Delphi Technique
Question 18:
An organization invests certain amount of money into a project, which is worth R48,400
after 2 years. If the rate of return is 10%, how much money did the organization invest in
the project?
A. R44,000
B. R40,000
C. R47,921
D. R47,446

Question 19:
An organization is trying to choose between two projects. Project A has an estimated cost
of R400,000 and an estimated NPV of R90,000. Another project B has an estimated cost
of R360,000 and an estimated NPV of R110,000. If the senior management decides to go
ahead with project B, what would be the opportunity cost?
A. R40,000
B. R20,000
C. R90,000
D. R110,000

Question 20:
A key responsibility of the project manager is to manage stakeholder expectations. If
there is a conflict between some of the stakeholders, generally in whose favour should the
conflict be resolved?
A. No one - a compromise should be reached that has equal disadvantage to all.
B. The sponsor as the representative of the performing organisation.
C. The customer.
D. The project team.

Question 21:
Projects involving complex cross disciplinary efforts are most effectively managed by:
A. A strong traditional manager.
B. A functional organisation.
C. A strong matrix organisation.
D. SMEs and the Delphi technique

Question 22:
Risk quantification includes:
A. Enumerating sources of internal and external risk events.
B. Identifying potential risk events and their impact.
C. Developing contingency plans and fallback plans.
D. Evaluating probability and impact.
Question 23:
What are the 5 stages of team development?
A. Forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning.
B. Enthusiasm, hope, panic, solution, success.
C. Assignment, kickoff, training, communicating, succeeding.
D. Direction, motivation, cooperation, collaboration, close.

Question 24:
Project Management Process Groups have all of the following characteristics except:
A. The process groups include both product and project management related processes.
B. The process groups are typically repeated within each phase of a project, as well as for
the overall project.
C. The output of one process generally becomes the input to another.
D. The process groups are linked by the objectives they produce.

Question 25:
The project scope management plan provides guidance on all of the following except:
A. How project scope will be integrated with the project management plan.
B. How project scope will be managed and controlled.
C. How project scope will be defined and documented.
D. How project scope will be verified.

Question 26:
Which statement concerning the Planning Processes Group is not true?
A. The Planning Process Group contains more project management processes than
any other process group.
B. The feedback and refinement process should stop at a point defined by procedures set
by the organisation.
C. The interactions among the processes within the Process Planning Group are
dependent on the nature of the project.
D. The planning processes should be undertaken by experts from within the project team.

Question 27:
An external supplier contracted to deliver a $58,000 component for incorporation into
your engineering project is:
A. A vendor and therefore excluded from being a stakeholder.
B. Only considered a stakeholder if the contract is an alliance or a partnership.
C. Likely to be a negative stakeholder due to the adversity built into most contracts.
D. Also a project stakeholder
Question 28:
At the end of a project, the project manager determines that the project has delivered an
additional 6 areas of functionality in undocumented features and that the customer is
delighted with the results. What does this mean in terms of the success of the project?
A. The project was an unqualified success.
B. The project was only partially successful because the client could have been persuaded
to pay more.
C. The project was unsuccessful because the project was ‘gold plated’.
D. The project was successful because the team learned how to develop new functionality
and the customer was happy.

Question 29:
Based on information in the various business cases, project A has an IRR (internal rate of
return) of 20%, project B has an IRR of 7%, project C has an IRR of 18%, project D has
an IRR of 23%. Which of these would be the best project to select for further analysis?
A. Project A
B. Project B
C. Project C
D. Project D

Question 30:
Your process upgrade project has to sell a major piece of redundant equipment. The
income from the sale is an important part of the funding allocated to the overall project
and you have been asked to estimate the expected value of the sale to include in the
overall project budget. The cost of preparing the equipment for sale and running the sales
process has been quoted at $150,000. Your advisors assess the range of sales outcomes as
follows: There is a 15% probability of a low level of interest realising a sale price of
$130,000. There is a 55% probability of a normal level of interest realising a sale price of
$200,000
There is a 30% probability of a high level of interest realising a sale value of $280,000.
How much should you include in the budget?
A. $203,333.33
B. $63,500.00
C. $53,333.33
D. $213,500.00

Question 31:
As the project is nearing the end of a phase, a deliverable is completed and handed over
to the customer. However, the customer neither acknowledges the deliverable nor replies
to any of the Project Manager’s request for validation. What is the best thing to do?
A. Contact management for help
B. Document the situation
C. Stop work on the project
D. Continue work on the project

Question 32:
The most common elements within project management processes that cause conflict on
a project are:
A. Cost, budgets and personalities.
B. The client, senior management and functional managers.
C. Designs, costs and personalities.
D. Scheduling priorities, work styles and resources.

Question 33:
What is the duration of the critical path in the network below?
A. 17
B. 18
C. 19
D. 0

Question 34:

The network component joining C – E is best called a:

A. Link
B. Arrow
C. Dummy
D. Activity

Question 35:
Configuration management may be used to assist in:
A. Overall change control
B. Project plan execution
C. Software development
D. Scope planning.

Question 36:
Which type of cost is team induction and safety training organised specifically for the
project?
A. Fixed
B. NPV
C. Indirect
D. Direct

Question 37:
Scope changes are a major cause of project failure and your role as a project manager is
primarily aimed at:
A. Authorising scope changes if they are deemed to be beneficial to the project and
communicating these changes to stakeholders.
B. Minimising unnecessary scope changes through an adequately defined scope
statement, WBS and work authorities.
C. Developing a suitable change control system.
D. Updating the WBS when a scope change has been approved by the change control
board.

Question 38:
The tools and techniques used to monitor stakeholder engagement include:
A. Issues log, Meetings, Project Management Plan, Information management system and
Decision making.
B. Issues log, Meetings, Information management system and Expert judgement.
C. Project Management Plan, Issues log, Information management system and Expert
judgement.
D. Meetings, Interpersonal and team skills, and Decision making.

Question 39:
During a software project earned value analysis is performed and gives the following
results: earned value (EV) = 523,000; planned value (PV) = 623,000; actual cost (AC) =
643,000. Which results are correct?
A. CV: +120,000; SV: +100,000
B. CV: +100,000; SV: +120,000
C. CV: -100,000; SV: -120,000
D. CV: -120,000; SV: -100,000

Question 40:
The Project Scope is:
A. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features
and functions.
B. The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service.
C. A narrative description of work to be performed under contract.
D. A document that defines the characteristics of a pro duct and how they will be verified.

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