1.

The decision to replace an existing amalgam restoration should be made as soon as the
restoration exhibits
A- Creep
B- Recurrent caries
C- Corrosion and tarnish
D- Ditching around occlusal margins

2. A child’s behavior problem can be managed by desensitization if the basis of the problem is
A- Pain
B- Fear
C- Emotional
D- The parents

3. A 9 year old presents with acute gingival pain of four days duration. There are small, round
ulcers on the interproximal gingival and buccal mucosa. Which of the following is the most likely
diagnosis?
A- Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
B- Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
C- Aphthous stomatitis
D- Gingival abscess

4. Which of the following has been most strongly implicated in the cause of aphthous stomatitis?
A- Cytomegalovirus
B- Allergy to tomatoes
C- Herpes simplex virus
D- Staphylococcal organisms
E- Human leukocyte antigens

5. Which of the following premolars is most likely to have three canals?

A- Maxillary first
B- Maxillary second
C- Mandibular first
D- Mandibular second

6. One advantage of using a fiber-reinforced post for restoring an endodontically treated tooth is
that it
A- Has a modulus of elasticity similar to stainless steel
B- Has a modulus of elasticity similar to dentin
C- Is highly radiopaque and easy to visualize on a radiograph
D- Is stronger and more resistant to fracture than a cast metal post
7. A patient with Stage I medication related osteonecrosis of the jaw (MRONJ) with exposed bone
in the maxilla is best treated with
A- Radiation therapy
B- Hyperbaric oxygen
C- Debridement of the area
D- Chlorhexidine rinses

8. If a particular test is to correctly identify 95 out of 100 existing disease cases, then that test
would have a
A- Specificity of 95%
B- Sensitivity of 95%
C- Positive predictive value of 95%
D- Validity of 95%

9. What percent of hydrogen peroxide should be used for debriding and intraoral wound?
A- 3 percent
B- 10 percent
C- 20 percent
D- 37 percent

10. Disadvantages of oral sedation include which of the following?

A- Multiple drugs needed for proper sedation
B- High incidence and severity of adverse reactions
C- Unpredictable absorption of drugs from the GI tract
D- Short duration of action

11. Auxiliary resistance from features in fixed dental prostheses such as boxes and grooves should
ideally be located?
A- Facially
B- Lingually
C- Occlusally
D- Proximally

12. Which of the following factors does NOT impact the development of xerostomia in an aging
population?
A- Chronological age
B- Medications
C- Radiation therapy to the head and neck
D- Systemic disease

13. Informed consent reflects which of the following ethical principles?

A- Justice
B- Autonomy
C- Beneficence
D- Nonmaleficense
14. Which of the following type(s) of amalgam alloy provide the best clinical durability?
A- High copper spherical only
B- Conventional spherical only
C- High cooper admixture and high cooper spherical
D- High cooper admixture and conventional spherical

15. Drug-induced hypnosis can be produced by depressing which of the following?

A- Cerebellum
B- Hypothalamus
C- limbic system
D- Reticular activating system

16. Mandibular hypoplasia, coloboma of the lower eyelid, and malformations of the prinna of the ear
are fracture of which of the following diseases?
A- Apert Syndrome
B- Cleidocranial dysplasia
C- Mandibulofacial dysostosis (Treacher Collins Syndrome)
D- Crouzon syndrome (craniofacial dysostosis)

17. Which permanent teeth are least often congenitally missing?

A- Lateral incisors
B- Canines
C- Premolars
D- Third molars

18. The water supply of a community has 0.28 ppm fluoride. Which of the following procedures is
appropiate for a 4-year-old child exhibiting moderate caries risk?
A- Prescribing a fluoride mouthrinse
B- Prescribing a systemic fluoride supplement
C- Applying fluoride topically at each visit
D- Additional fluoride is unnecessary

19. Phenytoin is most often recommended for controlling which of the following seizures?
A- Status epilepticus
B- Tonic-clonic (grand mal)
C- Absence epilepsy (petit mal)
D- Myoclonic seizure in childhood

20. Which of the following is a interference during working movements for a posterior complete
crown restoration?
A- The lingual inclines of mandibular teeth contact the buccal inclines of maxillary teeth
B- The lingual inclines of mandibular teeth contact the lingual inclines of maxillary teeth
C- The buccal inclines of mandibular teeth contact the buccal inclines of maxillary teeth
D- The buccal inclines of mandibular teeth contact the lingual inclines of maxillary teeth
21. The purpose of scaling is to remove acquired deposits on the teeth.
Scaling can be performed on both enamel and root surfaces
A- Both statements are true
B- Both statements are false
C- The first statement is true, the second is false
D- The first statement is false, the second is true

22. Which of the following would be LEAST likely to lead to the development of root surface
caries on facial surfaces?
A- Low salivary flow
B- Elevated levels of sucrose consumption
C- Streptococcus sanguis dominating adjacent plaque
D- History of head/neck radiation therapy

23. A patient’s mandibular canal is positioned lingually to her mandibular third molar. In what
direction would the canal appear to move on a radiograph, if the X-ray tube were moved inferiorly
(i.e., if the x-ray beam were pointing superiorly)?
A- Apically
B- Mesially
C- Distally
D- Occusally

24. Dental phobia is classified as a personality disorder

Dental anxiety can result from the pairing of previously innocuous stimuli with an unpleasant
experience
A- Both statements are true
B- Both statements are false
C- The first statement is true, the second is false
D- The first statement is false, the second is true

25. What is the easiest method for examining a 12-month-old child?

A- Child in the dental chair and parent at chairside
B- Parent in the dental chair and the child sitting on parent’s lap
C- Dentist and parent in a knee-to-knee position whit the child’s head on dentist’s lap
D- Dentist and parent in a knee-to-knee position with the child’s head on parent’s lap

26. Each of the following is a common cause of denture gagging EXCEPT one. Which is the
EXCEPTION?
E- Inadequate posterior palatal seal
F- Excessive vertical dimension
G- Bulkiness of denture
A- Excessive anterior guidance
27. Which of the following will allow transillumination of the light throughout the crown?
A- Crack extending into denting
B- Crown-to-root fracture
C- Craze line
D- Split tooth

28. Plaque microorganisms produce extra-cellular substances that separate one bacterial cell from
another and that form a matrix for further plaque accumulation. This “matrix” is made up of
dextrans and
A- Levans
B- Mucoproteins
C- Disaccharides
D- Monosaccharides

29. What is the most common side effect when administering nitrous oxide and oxygen?
A- Allergic reaction
B- Respiratory depression
C- Tachycardia
D- Nausea

30. A displaced fracture of the mandible courses from the angle to the third molar. This fracture
is potencially difficult to treat with a closed reduction because of
A- Injury to the neurovascular bundle
B- Malocclusion secondary to the injury
C- Compromise of the blood supply to the mandible
D- Distraction of the fracture segments by muscle pull

31. Each of the following is a common cause of denture gagging EXCEPT one. Which is the
EXCEPTION?
A- Inadequate posterior palatal seal
B- Excessive vertical dimension
C- Bulkiness of denture
D- Excessive anterior guidance

32. What is the minimum amount of bone needed between 2 adjacent implants?
A- 1mm
B- 2mm
C- 3mm
D- 4mm
33. Which of the following statements is true about setting expansion of plaster, stone, and
improved stone (Type IV)?
A- The setting expansion of improved stone is the highest
B- Increasing the spatulation decreases expansion
C- Increasing the water/power ratio decreases the setting expansion
D- Adding water to surface during setting decreases expansion

34. Which of the following represents the best way to increase a patient’s pain tolerance?
A- Stress that pain does not signify damage
B- Tell the patient that the procedure will be completed soon
C- Tell the patient that he/she should be able to tolerate the pain
D- Increase the patient’s sense of control over the denture of the pain

35. Which of the following explains why the fovea palatini are not used as landmarks for
determining the precise posterior border of maxillary denture base?
A- They have no relation to the vibrating line area
B- They are inconsistent in their relationship to the vibrating line
C- They are opening of mucous glands that should not be covered y the denture border
D- They are located on the horizontal hard palate

36. Which of the following is the most reliable method for determining the pulp responsiveness of
a tooth with a full coverage crown?
A- Radiographic examination
B- Electric pulp test
C- Thermal test
D- Palpation

37. Which of the following is an indication for removal of a maxillary torus to fabrication of a
maxillary denture?
A- Inadequate inter-arch space exists
B- Tissue covering torus is thin
C- It interferes with posterior palatal seal
D- Denture is to be placed immediately

38. A new patient presents with severe chronic periodontitis and has a history of two heart
attacks. The patient is not sure when the heart attacks occurred or the severity. The dentist’s
next step in treatment should be to
A- Complete gross scaling to decrease the bacterial load
B- Have the patient rinse with chlorhexidine gluconate (Peridex)
C- Request a consult from the patient’s physician prior to any treatment
D- Confine the treatment to simple restorative procedures
39. Which hematologic disorder represents a malignancy of plasma cell origin?
A- Burkitt lymphoma
B- Hemophilia
C- Thalassemia
D- Multiple myeloma

40. Which of the following might precipitate an asthma attack?

A- Narcotic analgesics
B- Nonsteroidal antiinflamatory drugs
C- Corticosteroids
D- Sympathomimetic amines

41. Which of the following most closely resembles normal parotid gland histologically?
A- Pleomorphic adenoma
B- Monomorphic adenoma
C- Acinic cell carcinoma
D- Adenoid cystic carcinoma

42. The most dominant emotional factor in management of 4-to-6-year-old children is fear of
A- Pain
B- The unknown
C- The dentist
D- Being separated from parents

43. Gingivectomy is NOT indicated when the base of the pocket is located
A- Apical to the alveolar crest
B- Below the free gingival groove
C- Coronal to the cementoenamel junction
D- Apical to the cervical convexity of the tooth crown

44. Which of the following neuralgias is correctly associated with its cranial nerve?
A- Tic douloureux – XII
B- Bell palsy – VII
C- Auriculotemporal syndrome – VI
D- Eagle syndrome – X

45. A furcation radiolucency in a 5-year-old child’s primary molar is most due to

A- Trauma
B- Pulpal necrosis
C- Normal anatomy
D- Eruption of a premolar
46. In which of the following mandibular fracture cases should the intermaxillary fixation be
released earliest?
A- A high condylar fracture
B- A fracture through the site of an impacted third molar
C- An angle fracture and contralateral parasymphyseal fracture
D- A jaw in which the treatment has been delayed by the management of other injuries

47. A dental office employee wishes to verify that instruments have been sterilized. Which of the
following methods is most accurate?
A- Place indicator tape on the instruments
B- Use biological monitors
C- Examine the sterilizer packages for color changes
D- Observe the temperature gauge on the sterilizing unit

48. A normal unstimulated salivary flow rate for an adult dentate patient should be
A- 0.01 mL per minute
B- 0.1 mL per minute
C- 1.0 mL per minute
D- 10.0 mL per minute

49. Which of the following represents a common side effect of the alkylating-type anticancer
drugs such as mechlorethamine (Mustargen)?
A- Ototoxicity
B- Nephrotoxicity
C- Bone marrow depression
D- Accumulation of uric acid

50. Which of the following directly image the TMJ disc?

A- TMJ tomography
B- TMJ arthrography
C- Panoramic radiography
D- Transcranial radiography
E- Magnetic resonance imaging

51. Excessive trituration of amalgam should be avoided because it will

A- Cause excessive expansion
B- Cause the amalgam to set prematurely
C- Remain soft for too long
D- Cause the amalgam to lose its anatomy in 24 hours
52. Which of the following is most likely the major consideration prior to performing a
gingivectomy?
A- Amount of attachment loss
B- Measurement probe depth
C- Level of the alveolar crest
D- Width of the attached gingiva

53. Regeneration of the periodontal attachment apparatus include

A- Cementum, bone, and periodontal ligament
B- Dentin, cementum, and periodontal ligament
C- Cementum, junctional epitelium, and bone
D- Junctional epithelium, gingival fibers, and periodontal ligament

54. A dentist will make impressions for a patient who has an excessive salivary flow. To decrease
the flow, this dentist might appropriately prescribe which of the following drugs?
A- Propantheline (Pro-Banthine)
B- Salsalate (Disalcid)
C- Pilocarpine (Salagen)
D- Neostigmine (Prostigmin)

55. At 90 kVp and 15mA at a BID distance of inches, the exposure time for a film is 0.5 seconds.
In the same situation, which of the following should represent the exposure time at 16 inches?
A- 0.25 seconds
B- 1.0 second
C- 2.0 seconds
D- 4.0 seconds

56. Which of the following study designs is the best suited to control for both known and unknown
confounders?
A- Case-control study
B- Cross-sectional study
C- Cohort study
D- Randomized clinical trial

57. A dentist has planned in-office-bleaching and porcelain laminate veneers for a patient’s
maxillary anterior teeth. What would be the best sequence of treatment?
A- Bleaching, 2 week delay, tooth preparation, bonding procedures
B- Bleaching and tooth preparation, 2-5 day delay, bonding procedures
C- Tooth preparation, 2 week delay, bleaching, and bonding procedures
D- Tooth preparation, 2 week delay, bonding, and then bleaching procedures
58. A 14-year-old female has gingival tissues that bleed easily on gentle probing. The color of the
gingiva ranges from light red to magenta. Probing depths range from 1 - 3mm. Some of the
interdental papillae are swollen. Which of the following represents the most likely diagnosis?
A- Gingivitis
B- Localized aggressive periodontitis
C- Herpetic gingivostomatitis
D- Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

59. A 65-year-old white male smokes 2 packs of cigarretes per day. He had a heart attack six
weeks ago and continues to have chest pains even while at rest. He is transported to the office by
wheelchair because be becomes extremely short of breath with even mild exertion. The physical
status that best describes the above patients is
A- P.S.I
B- P.S.II
C- P.S.III
D- P.S.IV

60. Which of the following substances is contraindicated for a patient taking ginseng?
A- Penicillin
B- Digitalis
C- Aspirin
D- Alcohol

61. What is the indicated treatment for a primary molar with a carious pulp exposure and a
furcation radiolucency?
A- Formocresol pulpotomy
B- Indirect pulp cap
C- Extraction
D- Direct pulp cap

62. The pathogenic microorganisms of chronic periodontitis includes each of the following EXCEPT
one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A- Porphyromonas gingivalis
B- Prevotella intermedia
C- Tannerella forsythensis
D- Actinomyces viscosus

63. Compared with high noble alloys for metal-ceramic restorations, base metal alloys are best
used for which of the following?
A- Optimum esthetics
B- Single crowns
C- Long-span bridges
D- Patients with allergies to metals
64. Adolescents undergoing orthodontic treatment often have problems with home oral hygiene
regimens. The MOST effective management plan is to
A- Educate the patient about the importance of oral hygiene when wearing braces
B- Develop a plan of contingent reinforcement for brushing and flossing
C- Refuse to continue treatment unless oral hygiene improves
D- Have parents remind adolescents to brush
E- Provide limited praise for small progress made at each visit

65. In attempting to correct a single tooth anterior crossbite with a removable appliance, Which of
the following is the most important for the dentist to consider?
A- Making periodic adjustments
B- Incorporating maximum retention
C- Patient’s overbite
D- Making sure there is adequate space

66. Patients with low health literacy are

A- Less likely to ask questions during their dental visits
B- More likely to fail to show for dental appointments
C- Likely to look over written materials and say they don’t understand
D- High school graduates

67. Which of the following represents the most significant finding regarding ectodermal dysplasia?
A- Multiple osteomas
B- Supernumerary teeth
C- Multiple impacted teeth
D- Sparse hair

68. Surgical flap access therapy is indicated and most beneficial when used
A- For those early to moderate defects not resolved with initial therapy
B- As the initial treatment for patients having extremely heavy subgingival calculus
C- To eliminate pocketing more rapidly so the patient can proceed with treatment
D- To improve plaque control effectiveness in patients having difficult achieving good plaque
control

69. Which of the following is NOT true regarding paraphrasing?

A- Paraphrasing is restating the patient’s views in one’s own words
B- Paraphrasing is agreeing with and accepting the other person’s position
C- The secret to good paraphrasing is voicing patient values
D- Paraphrasing is attempt to understand and acknowledge another’s perspective
70. The mother of an 8-year-old patient insists on staying in the room during treatment. In the
past, she seemed to be very overprotective of her child with her body language and comments.
Which were disruptive to treatment. How could the dentist best address this patient’s mother?
A- “You seem really concerned, perhaps you need to be talking with someone about this”
B- I know you care, however you are causing your child to be more upset, no less”
C- “I’m sorry, but I need you to stay in the waiting room so we can get his work done”
D- “I know you are concerned. Please stay in the room, and try to be as positive and quiet as
possible”

71. A ‘W” in front of the rubber dam clamp number indicates that the rubber dam clamp
A- Is made from work-hardened metal
B- Has a non-reflective surface
C- Has a wing
D- Is wingless

72. Subgingival margin of crown is indicated when

A- Surrounding soft tissue is thick bio-type
B- Porcelain laminate veneer is planned
C- An all-ceramic crown is planned
D- Cemental hypersensitive is suspected

73. Most dens invaginatus defects are found in which of the following types of teeth?
A- Maxillary central incisor
B- Maxillary lateral incisor
C- Mandibular first premolar
D- Maxillary first premolar

74. A panoramic radiograph of a 55-year-old female reveals generalized widening of the

periodontal ligament space and bilateral resorption of the mandibular angles. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A- Fibrous dysplasia
B- Progressive systemic sclerosis
C- Osteosarcoma
D- Marfan syndrome

75. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a modified Widman Flap procedure?
A- Submarginal incision
B- Replaced flap
C- Inverse bevel incision
D- Flap margin placement at the osseous crest
76. A developmentally-disabled patient should be treated with
A- Flattery
B- Deference
C- Consistency
D- Permissiveness

77. Which of the following is the best choice to avoid the effect of metamerism?
A- Select a porcelain shade using light only
B- Select the shade that looks optimal under multiple light sources
C- Avoid fluorescent lighting when selecting a porcelain shade
D- Add additional layer of opaque porcelain prior to placing body porcelain

78. A 55-year-old male patient, who is currently prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) 5 mg daily,
requires surgical therapy. What is the most appropiate pre-surgical laboratory test?
A- Fibrinogen time
B- Partial thromboplastin time
C- International normalized ratio
D- Bleeding time

79. Which term refers to a physician or dentist performing an operation for which there was no
consent?
A- Assault
B- Nonmaleficence
C- Disclosure
D- Battery

80. Blocking the synthesis of prostaglandins does NOT produce which of the following conditions?
A- Antipyresis
B- Increased gastric mucous production
C- Decreased platelet aggregation
D- Decreased renal blood flow

81. Leukemia is suspected when a patient demonstrates which of the following sighs or symptoms?
A- Red sclera
B- Pale conjuntiva
C- Splinter hemorrhage under the finger nails
D- Spontaneous gingival bleeding

82. During clinical evaluation of a complete crown on a mandibular right first molar, a premature
contact causes the mandible to deviate to the patient’s left. One would expect to see the
interfering contact marked on which surfaces of the crown?
A- Mesial marginal ridge
B- Buccal inclines
C- Mesial inclines
D- Lingual inclines
83. The best time perform oral surgery on a patient receiving dialysis 3 times per week is
A- Day of dialysis
B- 1 day before dialysis
C- 1 day after dialysis
D- 2 days after dialysis

84. Infections arising from the periapical region of the mandibular first premolars perforate
through the lingual cortex to the
A- Pterygomaxillary space
B- Submental space
C- Sublingual space
D- Submandibular space

85. Which of the following represents the 3 essential factors for the initiation of the carious
lesion?
A- Bacteria, polysaccharides, and enamel
B- Bacteria, suitable carbohydrate, and susceptible tooth
C- Lactobacilli, easily fermentable carbohydrate, and susceptible tooth
D- Lactobacilli, suitable substrate, and enamel

86. Causality (cause and effect) may NOT be inferred from which of the following studies?
A- Cross-sectional
B- Cohort
C- Case-control
D- Clinical trial

87. Which teeth are the most susceptible to recurrence of periodontal disease after active
periodontal treatment is completed?
A- Maxillary premolars because of lateral occlusal forces
B- Mandibular premolars because of non-working interferences
C- Maxillary molars becauses of anatomy of their furcations
D- Mandibular molars because of increased number of cervical enamel projections

88. What is the LEAST likely reason for postoperative sensitivity after a Class I occlusal
composite restoration is placed?
A- Gap formation which allows bacterial penetration into the dentin tubules
B- Gap formation which allows an outward flow of fluid from through the dentin tubules
C- Direct toxic effects of a 15 second acid etc on the pulp
D- Cuspal deformation due to contraction forces of polymerization shrinkage
89. Which area of the mouth has the LEAST amount of keratinized tissue on the buccal aspect?
A- Maxillary incisors
B- Maxillary premolars
C- Mandibular incisors
D- Mandibular premolars

90. Pain referred to the ear derives most often from which teeth?
A- Maxillary molars
B- Maxillary premolars
C- Mandibular molars
D- Mandibular premolars

91. During a routing examination, the dentist sees a large radiolucency at the apex of the maxillary
right first premolar. The tooth is not painful, does not respond to pulp testing, and has no evidence
of a sinus tract. The most probable diagnosis is
A- Asymptomatic apical periodontitis
B- Symptomatic apical periodontitis
C- Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis
D- Chronic apical abscess

92. A 32-year-old male patient reports a history of having been hospitalized for psychiatric
evaluation, and is currently taking taking lithium carbonate on a daily basis. Which of the following
diseases does this patient most likely have?
A- Parkinsonism
B- Schizophrenia
C- Bipolar disorder
D- Psychotic depression
E- Paranoia with delusions

93. To achieve ideal overjet and overbite in an adult patient with a 16 mm pretreatment overjet,
orthodontic treatment would most likely require
A- Orthodontic tooth movement only
B- Orthognatic surgical treatment only
C- Combined orthodontic/surgical treatment
D- Premolar extraction therapy only

94. A patient has only the mandibular anterior teeth remaining. The treatment plan calls for a
maxillary complete denture and mandibular removable partial denture. Which of the following is
desirable in the occlusal scheme?
A- Bilateral simultaneous contact of anterior and posterior teeth in centric relation position
B- Canine guidance with posterior disclusion during excursive movements
C- Bilateral balanced contact during excursive movements
D- Unilateral group function during excursive movements
95. An edentulous patient is to be treated using maxillary and mandibular complete dentures. The
patient is healthy and the ridges are well healed. A maxillary torus is present and extends beyond
the area of the proposed posterior palatal seal. Which of the following represents the treatment
of choice?
A- Removal of torus, followed by fabrication of maxillary and mandibular complete dentures
B- Extension of maxillary denture base onto the moveable soft palate to achieve adequate seal
C- Fabrication of a maxillary denture with an open/horshoe palate which avoids the torus
D- The use of relief over the area of the torus during maxillary and mandibular denture fabrication

96. The patient should sign the informed consent for surgery
A- At the time of filling out history and insurance forms
B- After medical history and physical examination
C- After formulation by dentist of a surgical treatment plan
D- After a full discussuion of the surgical treatment plan

97. Which of the following is the single most important factor affecting pulpal response to tooth
preparation?
A- Heat
B- Remaining dentin thickness
C- Desiccation
D- Invasion of bacteria

98. Metastatic disease to the oral region is most likely to occur in Which of the following
locations?
A- Tongue
B- Posterior maxilla
C- Posterior mandible
D- Floor of the mouth

99. Glossitis and angular cheilitis are oral manifestations of what type of nutrient deficiency?
A- Calcium
B- Vitamin D
C- Iron
D- Zinc

100. Distinctly blue color of the sclera is a feature of Which of the following conditions?
A- Gardner syndrome
B- Osteogenesis imperfecta
C- Hypohydrotic ectodermal dysplasia
D- Stuge-weber angiomatosis
101. A 16-year-old patient has a long history of mild pain in the area of the mandibular left first
molar. Radiographs reveal deep caries in the tooth with an irregular radiopaque lesion apical to the
mesial root. Which of the following represents the most likely diagnosis?
A- Periradicular granuloma
B- Condensing osteitis
C- Asymptomatic apical periodontitis
D- Periapical cyst

102. Diagnostic radiology is based on which of the following interactions of X-radiation with
matter?
A- Thompson effect
B- Pair production
C- Photoelectric effect
D- Photonuclear disintegration

103. Each of the following would be included in a differential diagnosis of the palatal pigmentation
EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A- Lentigo
B- Melanotic macula
C- Melanocytic nevus
D- Melanotic neuroectodermal tumor

104. Paresthesia of the inferior alveolar nerve is most often seen after the fracture of which area
of the mandible?
A- Angle 
B- Condyle
C- Symphysis
D- Coronoid process
105. A patient says, “I have been avoiding coming to see you because there is an ugly, red sor spot
on the roof of my mouth”. Which of the following responses by the dentist best exemplifies a
reflective response?
A- “Has you diet changed lately”
B- “You really shouldn’t worry about it”
C- “Don’t be afraid, I’ll take a careful look” 
D- “You should have had something like that looked at right away”
E- ‘It sounds as if you’re quite concerned about this condition”

106. Which of the following is related to reciprocal anchorage in orthodontic therapy?

A- Tipping a tooth
B- Extraoral force
C- Equal and opposite forces 
D- Bodily movement of a tooth

107. Diazepam-mediated effects include

A- Peripherally-acting muscle relaxation
B- Lowering seizure Threshold
C- Anterograde amnesia 
D- Analgesia

108. What is the maximum recommended dose of acetaminophen that can be prescribed in a 24
hour time period?
A- 2.5 grams
B- 3 grams 
C- 3.5 grams
D- 4 grams

109. Although the results of a diagnosis test are NOT necessarily accurate, they are consistent.
This test has high
A- Generalizability
B- Specificity 
C- Reliability 
D- Validity

110. Nitrous oxide/oxygen is contraindicated for patients

A- With anxiety
B- With special health care needs
C- With profound local anesthesia
D- In the first trimester of pregnancy
111. Which of the following does NOT produce a pharmacologic decrease in saliva production?
A- Atropine (AtroPen)
B- Scopolamine (Trasderm-Scop)
C- Pilocarpine (Salagen) 
D- Glycopyrrolate (Robinul)

112. A 6-year-old patient exhibits defiant behavior at a recall examination. Which of the following
techniques is indicated for the examination?
A- Conscious sedation
B- General anesthesia
C- Physical restraint
D- Voice control

113. Hypotensive effect and itching from oxycodone is due, in part, to its
A- Allergenicity
B- Release of histamine 
C- Antispasmodic effect
D- Cardiac depressant effect
E- Excitation of the chemoreceptor trigger zone

114. Xray shows caries on distal and mesial on one primary tooth, pulp is not involved, cannot detect
lesion clinically, how do you tx?
a) MOD amalgam
b) MO and DO composite
c) MOD composite
d) Stainless steel crown

115. What is the most common side effect when administering nitrous oxide and oxygen?
A- Allergic reaction
B- Respiratory depression
C- Tachycardia
D- Nausea

116. The prostaglandin analog misoprostol (Cytotec) is most commonly used in treating gastric
ulcers associated with
A- Chronic use of anti-inflamatory drug
B- Chronic use of tobacco products
C- Hypersecretory conditions such as Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
D- Hyperactivity of the gastrin-secreting chief cells
117. At 90 kVp and 15mA at a BID distance of 8 inches, the exposure time for a film is 0.5 seconds.
In the same situation, which of the following should represent the exposure time at 16 inches?
A- 0.25 seconds
B- 1.0 second 
C- 2.0 seconds
D- 4.0 seconds

118. A patient’s mandibular canal is positioned lingually to her mandibular third molar. In what
direction would the canal appear to move on a radiograph, if the X-ray tube were moved inferiorly
(i.e., if the x-ray beam were pointing superiorly)? 
A- Apically
B- Mesially
C- Distally
D- Occusally

119. Which of the following is diffivult to accomplish with extrinsic characterization of metal
ceramic restorations?
A- Increase chroma
B- Change hue
C- Decrease value
D- Increase value

120. Removal of amalgam overhangs should be accomplished as part of initial therapy.

Re-evaluation of the periodontal case should occur 4-6 weeks after the completion of the scaling
and root planning procedures.
A- Both statements are true 
B- Both statements are false
C- The first statement is true, the second is false
D- The first statement is false, the second is true.

121. Which of the following is responsible for creating a green discoloration in the marginal area of
the metal ceramic restoration?
A- Copper
B- Silver 
C- Cobalt
D- Palladium

122. A bimaxillary protusion occurs when

A- A large horizontal overlap with bilateral cross-bite exists
B- The maxillary dentition is forward with respect to basal bone
C- Both dental arches are forward with respect to basal bone 
D- There is increased overjet
123. The rubber dam does NOT protect patients from which of the following?
A- Exhaled nitrous oxide 
B- Unnecessary chemical exposure
C- Aspirating objects such as an inlay
D- Oral lacerations from dental instruments
E- Mercury vapors when removing old amalgams

124. The area that provides long-term maxillary denture support with minimal resorptive changes
include the posterior residual ridges and which of the following?
A- Rugae region
B- Horizontal hard palate
C- Posterior buccal flanges
D- Anterior residual ridge

125. Which of the following has the greatest impact on the success of a periodontal flap
procedure?
A- Type of initial incision
B- Position of the flap at closure
C- Level of postoperative plaque control
D- Postoperative width of attached gingival

126. Which of the following contributes most to a successful pulp capping procedure?
A- An isolated field
B- Absence of bleeding
C- An exposure of less than 0.75 mm
D- Use of calcium hydroxide

127. A patient has a severe tooth-size/arch-length discrepancy in the maxillary arch. Which of the
patient’s permanent maxillary teeth are most likely to be blocked out of the arch?
A- Canines
B- First premolars
C- Second premolars
D- Second molars

128. Beclomathasone (Beconase AQ) is used for bronchial asthma because it

A- Has a short duration of action
B- Stimulates beta adrenergic receptors in the lung
C- Produces little adrenal suppression when administered by inhalation
D- Is only effective orally
E- Is less potent than cortisol
129. It is unethical for a dentist to increase fees
A- For difficult patients
B- For patients enrolled in a particular dental benefits plan
C- On a yearly basis
D- Without a 6-month advance announcement to all patients

130. Which of the following is difficult to accomplish with extrinsic characterization of metal
ceramic restorations?
A- Increase chroma
B- Change hue
C- Decrease value
D- Increase value

131. The restorability of a tooth requiring endodontic therapy should be determined?

A- When endodontic therapy is completed
B- With a panoramic radiograph
C- Prior to endodontic therapy
D- During endodontic therapy

132. The most common form of periodontal disease seen in school-aged children is
A- Aggressive periodontitis
B- Marginal gingivitis
C- Primary herpetic gigivostomatitis
D- Gingival hyperplasia

133. For a prominent maxillary frenun accompanied by large midline diastema, treatment should be
A- Immediate, when the problem is identified
B- Delayed until treatment centrals and laterals erupt
C- Delayed until centrals, laterals and canines have erupted
D- Started once all permanent teeth have erupted

134. The procedure of choice for vertical maxillary excess is

A- Sagittal split osteotomy
B- Genioplasty
C- Vertical ramus osteotomy
D- LeFort I osteotomy

135. If the 4 maxillary incisors were to be replaced by partial removable denture prosthesis,
Which of the following would be desirable?
A- Protrusive contact on the maxillary incisors only
B- Contact of the maxillary incisors in centric relation
C- Contact on the canines in lateral excursions
D- Balanced occlusion for stability of the prosthesis
1- The patient
A- Is at increased risk for bleeding
B- Is at increased risk for hepatocellular carcinoma
C- Is a potential carrier for hepatitis A
D- Had a disease that does not involve a bloodborne pathogen

2- Which side-effect of sertraline (Zoloft) has implications for the patient’s oral health?
A- Gingival inflammation
B- Salivary hypofunction
C- Tissue hyperplasia
D- Aphthous ulcers
3- The patient states that “all of my teeth are sensitive to hot and cold, and my gums bleed
whenever I brush my teeth”. The initial treatment should involve each of the following EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A- Full-mouth scalling and root planning
B- Prescription for a desensitizing toothpaste
C- 4 quadrants of periodontal surgery
D- Home care instruction, then follow up visit

4- The most likely cause of the V-shaped radiolucency between the roots of the teeth 2 and 4
would be
A- An idiopathic bone cavity
B- A maxillary sinus pseudocyst
C- Maxillary sinus
D- A radicular cyst

5- Which would NOT be included in a differential diagnosis of the right mandibular radiolucency?
A- Keratocystic odontogenic tumor
B- Ameloblastoma
C- Periapical (radicular) cyst
D- Lateral periodontal cyst

6- Which side-effect of sertraline (Zoloft) has implications for the patient’s oral health?
A- Gingival inflammation
B- Salivary hypofunction
C- Tissue hyperplasia
D- Aphthous ulcers

7- The best initial management for the mandibular radiolucency would be

A- Radiographic follow-up in 6 months
B- Endodontic therapy on tooth 31
C- Incisional biopsy
D- Block resection

8- The technique to image the lingual opacity was

A- An occlusal radiograph
B- A modified panoramic image
C- An axial plane cone beam CT
D- A modified periapical radiograph

9- What is the Angle Classification of the molar relationships?

A- Left Class I, Right Class II
B- Left Class I, Right Class III
C- Left Class II, Right Class I
D- Left Class II, Right Class III
E- Left Class III, Right Class I
10- An exaggerated curve of the occlusal plane and loss of the image clarity of the roots of the
anterior teeth is indicative of a
A- Normal finding
B- Panoramic positioning error
C- Film processing error
D- Developmental disorder

11- Preventive oral health behavior is influenced by each of the following factors EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A- Public policy
B- Social context
C- Psychological factors
D- Access to preventive measures

12- What is the most likely cause of the chalky-white appearance of the enamel of this patient’s
teeth?
A- Fluorosis
B- Ectodermal dysplasia
C- Amelogenesis imperfecta
D- Dentinogenesis imperfecta

13- Which is true about the position of tooth 27?

A- Missing premolar on the mandibular left has allowed more space for the left canine
B- Mandibular incisors have shifted to the right blocking out the right canine
C- Posterior teeth have drifted mesially more on the mandibular right than the left
D- Right canine has ankylosed whereas the left canine has undergone normal eruption

14- The lesion between teeth 30 and 31 is treated by enucleation and curettage. Each of the
following are risks with this procedure EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A- Devitalization of teeth 30 and 31
B- Damage to the lingual nerve
C- Post-operative infection
D- Damage to the inferior alveolar nerve
E- Lesion recurrence