Practice Test Chapter 12 and 13
Practice Test Chapter 12 and 13
Practice Test Chapter 12 and 13
____ 1. Which of the following pure liquids is the best solvent for carbon disulfide?
A) C6H6(l)
B) NH3(l)
C) CH3OH(l)
D) H2O(l)
E) HBr(l)
____ 2. How does the solubility of a gas in a solvent depend on pressure and temperature?
A) Increasing the partial pressure of the gas while increasing the temperature
increases the solubility of the gas.
B) Decreasing the partial pressure of the gas while decreasing the temperature
increases the solubility of the gas.
C) Increasing the partial pressure of the gas while decreasing the temperature
increases the solubility of the gas.
D) Decreasing the partial pressure of the gas while increasing the temperature
increases the solubility of the gas.
E) Gas solubility is unaffected by pressure or temperature.
____ 3. A concentrated perchloric acid solution has a density of 1.67 g/mL at 25°C and is 11.7 M. What is
the percent by mass of HClO4 in the solution?
A) 70.4% HClO4 by mass
B) 0.702% HClO4 by mass
C) 1.42% HClO4 by mass
D) 0.699% HClO4 by mass
E) 60.2% HClO4 by mass
____ 4. If 12.7 g of naphthalene, C10H8, is dissolved in 104.6 g of chloroform, CHCl3, what is the molality
of the solution?
A) 0.0992 m
B) 14.5 m
C) 0.949 m
D) 0.108 m
E) 0.113 m
____ 5. What is the molality of a 20.0% by mass hydrochloric acid solution? The density of the solution
is 1.0980 g/mL.
A) 0.0220 m
B) 6.86 m
C) 0.200 m
D) 5.68 m
E) 6.02 m
____ 6. What is the vapor pressure at 20°C of an ideal solution prepared by the addition of 8.87 g of the
nonvolatile solute urea, CO(NH2)2, to 57.6 g of methanol, CH3OH? The vapor pressure of pure
methanol at 20°C is 89.0 mmHg.
A) 6.75 mmHg
B) 69.1 mmHg
C) 77.1 mmHg
D) 82.2 mmHg
E) 19.9 mmHg
____ 7. What is the boiling-point change for a solution containing 0.432 mol of naphthalene (a nonvolatile,
nonionizing compound) in 250. g of liquid benzene? (Kb = 2.53°C/m for benzene)
A) 4.37 °C
B) 5.86 °C
C) 0.273 °C
D) 1.46 °C
E) 1.093 °C
____ 8. For a dilute solution of (NH4)3PO4, the van’t Hoff factor (i) would be approximately
A) 4.
B) 2.
C) 3.
D) 1.
E) 5.
____ 9. For the hypothetical reaction A + 2B 2C + D, the initial rate of disappearance of A is 2.0 10–2
mol/(Ls). What is the initial rate of disappearance of B?
A) 8.0 10–2 mol/(Ls)
B) 4.0 10–2 mol/(Ls)
C) 1.4 10–1 mol/(Ls)
D) 4.0 10–4 mol/(Ls)
E) 1.4 10–2 mol/(Ls)
____ 10. Consider the reaction
aA + bB dD + eE C = catalyst
The rate law is
Rate = k[A]q[B]r[C]s
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A) The exponents q and r are always equal to the coefficients a and b, respectively.
B) The overall reaction order is q + r + s.
C) The exponent s must be determined experimentally.
D) The symbol k represents the rate constant.
E) The exponents q, r, and s are often integers.
____ 11. For a second-order reaction, what are the possible units of the rate constant?
A) L–1s–1
B) molL–1s–1
C) s
D) L.mol–1s–1
E) molL–1
____ 12. The rate law for the chemical reaction
5Br–(aq) + BrO3–(aq) + 6H+(aq) 3Br2(aq) + 3H2O(l)
has been determined experimentally to be Rate = k[Br–][BrO3–][H+]2. What is the overall order of
the reaction?
A) 3
B) 5
C) 4
D) 2
E) 1
____ 13. For a certain reaction of the general form aA products, the experimental data plotted as 1/[A]
versus time is linear. The slope of this plot must equal
A) –1.
B) the rate constant.
C) one over the rate constant.
D) the negative of the rate constant.
E) 1.
____ 14. Which of the following changes will affect the activation energy of a reaction?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 1 and 2
E) 2 and 3
____ 15. When the concentrations of the reactants are increased, the rate of the reaction increases. This is
best explained by
A) an increase in the fraction of molecules that have enough energy to react.
B) an increase in the rate constant.
C) an increase in the average potential energy of the molecules.
D) an increase in the frequency of the molecular collisions.
E) an increase in the kinetic energy of the molecules.
____ 16. The potential-energy diagram below describes the hypothetical reaction A + B C + D.
Assuming the y-axis label refers to the enthalpy(H) per mol, which of the following statements
concerning this reaction coordinate is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 1 and 3
E) 1, 2, and 3
____ 17. Which of the following is not a postulate of collision theory?
A) Reactant molecules must collide to react.
B) Reactant molecules must collide with a certain minimum energy in order to form
products.
C) Reactant molecules must collide with the correct orientation in order to form
products.
D) The rate constant is directly proportional to the energy of activation.
E) The maximum in the potential energy curve, the activation energy, is determined
by the structure of the activated complex or transition state.
____ 18. For the first-order reaction
1/2 N2O4(g) NO2(g); H = 28.6 kJ
the activation energy is 53.7 kJ/mol. What is the activation energy for the reverse reaction?
A) 15.2 kJ/mol
B) 82.3 kJ/mol
C) –53.7 kJ/mol
D) 25.1 kJ/mol
E) 53.7 kJ/mol
____ 19. The acid-catalyzed reaction of acetone, CH3COCH3, with iodine can be represented by the
equation
CH3COCH3 + I2 CH2ICOCH3 + H+ + I–
It is found experimentally that the reaction is first-order with respect to both acetone and the
hydrogen ion. The rate of the reaction is independent of the iodine concentration. Which of the
following conclusions could be drawn from the experimental results?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 1 and 3
E) 1, 2, and 3
____ 20. In a chemical reaction at constant temperature, the addition of a catalyst
A) provides an alternative reaction pathway with a different activation energy.
B) increases the concentration of the products at equilibrium.
C) affects the equilibrium constant.
D) increases the fraction of molecules with more than a given kinetic energy.
E) decreases the energy released in the chemical reaction.
____ 21. Two substances A and B react with each other in such a way that one-half of A remains after 25
min and one-fourth of A remains after 50 min. Doubling the concentration of B while keeping the
concentration of A fixed doubles the rate of the reaction. This reaction is
A) first-order in both A and B.
B) zero-order in both A and B.
C) second-order in A and first-order in B.
D) first-order in A and second-order in B.
E) second-order in both A and B.
The following problems are representative of the types of problems you will be asked to solve on
part II.
22. What is the molar mass of an aromatic hydrocarbon if 0.85 g of the compound depresses the
freezing point of 128 g of benzene by 0.37°C? (Kf for benzene is 5.12°C/m.)
23. A compound containing carbon and nitrogen has a composition of 46.16% carbon and 53.84%
nitrogen by mass. A solution prepared by dissolving 1.542 g of this compound in 30.00 g of carbon
tetrachloride, CCl4, produces a solution that boils at 81.69°C. What is the molecular formula of the
compound? (Kb for CCl4 is 5.03°C/m, and pure CCl4 has a freezing point of 76.72°C.)
24. Calculate the molecular weight of a small protein if a 0.24-g sample dissolved in 108 mL of water
has an osmotic pressure of 9.5 mmHg at 22°C. (R = 0.0821 L · atm/(K · mol))
25. The nuclide 188W decays by a first-order process with a rate constant of 1.0 10–2 d–1. How long
will it take for 91% of the initial amount of 188W to be consumed?
26. A first-order chemical reaction is observed to have a rate constant of 25 min–1. What is the
corresponding half-life for the reaction?
27. The rate constants for the first-order decomposition of a compound are 6.19 10–4 s–1 at 43°C and
2.71 10–3 s–1 at 65°C. What is the value of the activation energy for this reaction?
(R = 8.31 J/(mol · K))
28. A suggested mechanism for the decomposition of ozone is as follows:
O3 O2 + O fast equilibrium
Rate =