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750 views255 pages

GRE Book Edited

Book for GRE

Uploaded by

Вероніка Буйновська

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1. ANALYTICAL WRITING
- ISSUE TASK…………………………………………………………………...3
- ARGUMENT TASK…………………………………………………………..11

2. VERBAL REASONING
-QUESTION TYPES ........................................................................................24
-Practice Set
Test 1…................................................................................................ 27
Test 2…................................................................................................ 34
Test 3…................................................................................................ 42
Test 4…................................................................................................ 50
Test 5…................................................................................................ 57
Test 6…................................................................................................ 65
Test 7…................................................................................................ 72
Test 8…................................................................................................ 79
Test 9…................................................................................................ 87
Test 10.................................................................................................. 94

3. QUANTITATIVE REASONING
- Glossary of GRE Math Terms…………………………………………………102
- MATH REFERENCES………………………………………………………...110
- QUESTION TYPES ........................................................................................130
- Practice set……………………………………………………………………..135
- Test 1
- Test 2
- Test 3
- Test 4
- Test 5
- Test 6
- Test 7
- Test 8
- Test 9
- Test 10

4. WORDS

1
ANALYTICAL WRITING
Linking words
To State the Reasons _ Likewise _ Instead
_ There are different reasons _ As in/as with/as was/etc. _ In contrast
why To Show Cause/Reason and _ On the one hand
_ There are several explanations Effect/Result _ On the other hand
for _ Consequently _ However
_There are many _ Because (of) _ In spite of
positive/negative reasons for _ Due to _ Despite
_ There are some/more/fewer _ Thanks to _ Unlike
benefits/disadvantages to _ If this occurs, then _ On the contrary
To Give an Opinion _ To this end _ Yet
_ (Why) I believe _ Since _ Rather than
_ I would like to explain why _ For this reason _ Either
_ Personally _ As a result _ Or/ Nor
_ I would prefer _ Caused by _ Neither
_ I believe To Summarize/Conclude _ Either . . . or
_ In my opinion _ In conclusion _ Neither . . . nor
_ As far as I am concerned _ Finally _ Nevertheless
_ It seems to me _ As a result (of) _ Nonetheless
_ I suggest _ In summary _ Sometimes
To Set Up a Condition _ Therefore _ Once in a while
_ Even if _ To sum up _ Occasionally
_ If I could _ In other words _ Some…other(s)
_ Whether (or not) _ To summarize _ None
_ . . .may/might _ In brief To Emphasize
_ . . .can be _ On the whole _ Above all
To Further the Argument _ To conclude _ Obviously
_ First (of all)…/ _ As we have seen _ Clearly
Secondly…/Thirdly _ As has been said _ Evidently
_ In addition To Show Time Relationships _ Actually
_ There are three reasons why _ Immediately _ In fact
_ Similarly _ Later _ Certainly
_ Furthermore _ Afterwards _ Definitely
_ Moreover _ After _ Extremely
_ Further _ Before _ Indeed
_ As an example _ While _ Absolutely
_ For instance _ During _ Positively
_ What is more _ As soon as _ Surprisingly
_ Not only . . . but also _ Sometimes _ Unquestionably
_ . . . including _ Last _ Without a doubt
_ More than _ Frequently _ Objectively
_ Also _ When To Show Evidence/Give an
_ . . . coupled with _ Once Example
_ Both . . . and _ Oftentimes _ As evidence of
To Restate or Repeat an To State the Options _ Such as
Argument _ One option is _ For example
_ To put it differently _ The other option is _ A few of these are
_ To repeat To Generalize _ In the case of
_ Namely _ Overall _ In addition
_ That is _ For the most part _ For one thing . . . for another
_ In other words _ In general
To Show Purpose _ Generally speaking
_ In order to _ By and large To State the Problem
_ For To Show Contrast/Make an _ The problem is (how)
_ So that Exception _ The question is
_ So as to _ Some may argue that _ What is being
To Show Similarity _ Although asked/challenged
_ As . . . as _ Even though
_ In the same way _ Whereas
_ Similarly

2
ISSUE TASK

The directions for Issue essays will look like this:

You have 30 minutes to plan and compose a response in which you evaluate the argument passage that
appears below. A response to any other argument will receive a score of zero. Make sure that you respond
according to the specific instructions and support your evaluation with relevant reasons and/or examples.

The Issue essay prompts:

• Write your own response to the recommendation in which you discuss why you either agree or disagree with
it. Support your response with evidence and/or examples. Use a hypothetical set of circumstances to illustrate
the consequences of accepting or rejecting the recommendation and explain how this informs your thinking.
• Develop a response to the claim in which you discuss whether or not you agree with it. Focus specifically on
the most powerful or compelling examples that could be used to refute your position.
• Write a response in which you determine which view bears the closest resemblance to your own. In
justifying your reasoning and supporting your position, be sure to include your reaction to both of the views
presented.
• Develop a response to the claim in which you discuss whether or not you agree with it. Focus specifically on
whether or not you agree with the reason upon which the claim is based.
• Write a response discussing your reaction to the policy stated above. Justify your reasoning for the position
you take. Explain the potential consequences or implications for implementing such a policy and how this
informs your position.

Structure of an essay
Introduction
1. Problem
2. Points of view
3. Your opinion

Main body
1. Reason
a. Explanation
b. Example
2. Reason
a. Explanation
b. Example
3. Reason
a. Explanation
b. Example

Conclusion
1. Summary
2. Future predictions

Method for Analytical Writing

STEP 1 Take the issue apart.

STEP 2 Select the points you will make.
STEP 3 Organize, using essay templates.
STEP 4 Type your essay.
STEP 5 Proofread your work.

3
SAMPLE

“The drawbacks to the use of nuclear power mean that it is not a long-term solution to the problem of meeting
ever-increasing energy needs.”

Write a response in which you examine your own position on the statement. Explore the extent to which you
either agree or disagree with it and support your reasoning with evidence and/or examples. Be sure to reflect
on ways in which the statement might or might not be true and how this informs your thinking on the subject.

Step 1
Take the issue apart.
Your first step is to dissect the issue. Take notes on your scratch paper. Start by restating the issue in your
own words: “Although we have a need for alternate sources of energy, we cannot count on nuclear energy as
a solution because of its major drawbacks.” Now, consider the other side of the issue—in your own words,
this might be “Nuclear power is safe and effective and does not have such serious drawbacks as this statement
would suggest.”

Step 2
Select the points you will make.
Your job, as stated in the directions, is to decide whether or not you agree with the statement and then to
explain your decision. Some would argue that the use of nuclear power is too dangerous, while others would
say that we can’t afford not to use it. Which side do you take?
Remember, this isn’t about showing the graders what your deep-seated beliefs about energy policy are—it’s
about showing that you can formulate an argument and communicate it clearly. The position you choose to
take for the Issue essay does not have to be one you actually believe in.
Quickly jot down on your scratch paper the pros and cons of each side and choose the side for which you
have the most relevant things to say. For this topic, that process might go something like this:

Arguments for the use of nuclear power:

• It is inexpensive compared to other forms of energy.
• Fossil fuels will eventually be depleted.
• Solar power is still too problematic and expensive.

Arguments against the use of nuclear power:

• It is harmful to the environment.
• It is dangerous to mankind.
• Safer alternatives already exist.
• Better alternatives may lie undiscovered.

Again, it doesn’t matter which side you take. Strictly speaking, there is no right answer as far as the testmaker
is concerned. Let’s say that in this case, you decide to argue against nuclear power. Remember, the prompt
asks you to argue why the cons of nuclear power outweigh the pros—the inadequacy of this power source is
the end toward which you’re arguing, so don’t list it as a supporting argument.

Step 3
Organize, using essay template.
You should have already begun to think out your arguments—that’s how you picked the side you did in the
first place. Now’s the time to write your arguments out, including those that weaken the opposing side. This
step involves your own note taking, so feel free to use abbreviations.

Paragraph 1: Nuclear power is not a viable alternative to other energy sources.

Paragraph 2: Nuclear power creates radioactive waste.

4
Paragraph 3: Nuclear energy is an industry with related costs to consumers.
Paragraph 4: There are other, more environmentally friendly energy sources.
Paragraph 5: Further investment in nuclear power would be a waste of time and money.

Step 4
Type your essay.

Sample Issue Essay

Proponents of nuclear energy as “the power source for the future” have long touted its relative economy,
“clean-burning” technology, and virtually inexhaustible fuel supply. However, a close examination of the
issue reveals that nuclear energy proves more problematic and dangerous than other forms of energy
production and thus is not an acceptable solution to the problem of meeting ever-increasing energy needs.
First and foremost, nuclear power production presents the problem of radioactive waste storage. Fuel
byproducts from nuclear fission remain toxic for thousands of years, and the spills and leaks from existing
storage sites have been hazardous and costly to clean up. This remains true despite careful regulation and
even under the best of circumstances. Even more appalling is the looming threat of accidents at the reactor
itself: Incidents at the Three Mile Island and Chernobyl power plants and at other production sites have
warned us that the consequences of a nuclear meltdown can be catastrophic and felt worldwide.
However, beyond the enormous long-term environmental problems and short-term health risks, the
bottom-line issue for the production of energy is one of economics. Power production in our society is a
business just like any other, and the large companies that produce this country’s electricity and gas claim
they are unable to make alternatives such as solar power affordable. Yet—largely due to incentives from the
federal government—there already exist homes heated by solar power and cars fueled by the sun. If the
limited resources devoted to date to such energy alternatives have already produced working models, a more
intensive, broadly based and supported effort is likely to make those alternatives less expensive and
problematic.
Besides the benefits in terms of both cost and safety, renewable resources such as solar and hydroelectric
power represent far better options in the long run for development. These options require money only for the
materials needed to harvest the renewable resources. While sunlight and water are free, the innovative
technologies and industrial strategies devised to harness them have created a geometric progression of spin-
offs affecting fields as diverse as agriculture, real estate, space exploration, and social policy. These options
also repeatedly produced secondary economic and social benefits, such as the large recreational and
irrigation reservoirs created in the American Southwest behind large hydroelectric dams like the Hoover and
Grand Coulee.
While it may now be clear that the drawbacks to the use of nuclear power are too great, it should also be
apparent that the long-term benefits of renewable resources would reward investment. If these alternatives
are explored more seriously than they have been in the past, safer and less expensive sources of power will
undoubtedly live up to their promise. With limited resources at our disposal and a burgeoning global
population to consider, further investment in nuclear power would mark an unconscionable and unnecessary
waste of time and money.

Step 5
Proofread your work.
Take the last couple of minutes to catch any glaring errors.

5
Issue Essay Practice Set

Issue Essay 1
30 Minutes
Length: 300 words

Directions: You will be given a statement that presents an issue you need to respond to, along with detailed
instructions on how to respond to the statement. You have 30 minutes to plan and compose a response in
which you develop an argument according to the instructions. A response to any other issue results in a score
of zero.

“The perceived greatness of any political leader has more to do with the challenges faced by that leader than
with any of his or her inherent skills and abilities.”

Issue Essay 2
30 Minutes
Length: 300 words

Directions:
You will be given a statement that presents an issue you need to respond to, along with detailed instructions
on how to respond to the statement. You have 30 minutes to plan and compose a response in which you
develop an argument according to the instructions. A response to any other issue results in a score of zero.

“Progress should be the aim of any great society. People too often cling unnecessarily to obsolete ways of
thinking and acting because of both a high comfort level and a fear of the unknown.”

Write a response in which you examine your own position on the statement. Explore the extent to which you
either agree or disagree with it and support your reasoning with evidence or examples. Be sure to reflect on
ways in which the statement might or might not be true and how this informs your thinking on the subject.

6
Sample Issue Essay 1

Perceptions of greatness in national and political leaders are largely determined by the seriousness of the
problems that they face during their terms in office. Most national histories principally highlight individuals
in the context of significant events in which the leaders played important roles. Most political leaders need to
have large stores of inherent skill and ability just in order to become a political leader. However, history
remembers those who lived in great times more fondly than those who did not. Examples of this are numerous
and include the histories of Abraham Lincoln, Woodrow Wilson, and Winston Churchill—all men who are
perceived as great leaders largely because of the times in which they lived.
Abraham Lincoln is often considered the greatest of all the American Presidents. He graces two units of
the currency and has one of the largest monuments built in his honor in Washington D.C. However, Lincoln is
considered great largely because he faced a great challenge—the civil war between the North and the South
in the 1860s. Lincoln led the United States to victory over the rebels and reunited the country and is therefore
considered great. This is not to say that Lincoln was not skilled. Many know that he was born in a log cabin
and progressed to law school and eventually to the presidency. He was also a skilled orator. However
another man, James Buchanan, also was born in a log cabin, went to law school, gave good speeches and
ascended to the presidency. However there are no monuments to Buchanan in the capital or pictures of his
face on the five-dollar bill.
Woodrow Wilson was another talented man who ascended to the presidency of the United States. However
his talents are not what make his perceived greatness. In this age, few remember if Wilson was particularly
smart, a very good speechmaker, or a good arbitrator. Most remember that he led the United States to victory
in the first World War and therefore perceive him as great. At the time, however, Wilson was rather
unpopular. In fact, he had so little sway with Congress that he was unable to get the United States to join the
League of Nations—a fact that many claim helped lead to the second World War.
Winston Churchill was another man that history views favorably because of the incredible challenges that
he faced. However, Churchill was not very popular before the war. When Franklin Roosevelt first met
Churchill before either was the leader of his respective country, Roosevelt wrote in his diary that Churchill
was full of himself and far too talkative. Early in his term as Prime Minister, Churchill even faced a no-
confidence vote in Parliament. However, the events of World War II accorded him the perception of greatness
in the eyes of history. Many might argue that these men and other men and women were already great before
history gave them great challenges. While it is impossible to definitely disprove this assertion and it may be
true that they had great skill and ability, otherwise they would not have been political leaders, most examples
point to the fact that the times make the man or woman. If the presidencies of Buchanan and Lincoln were
switched, we would very likely have the Buchanan memorial instead.
In summary, it is true that the perceived greatness of a political leader is more due to great challenges
than great inherent ability. The historical examples of Lincoln, Wilson, and Churchill bear this out. All were
talented, but so too are all political leaders. Only the leaders that live in eventful times are remembered as
great.

Sample Issue Essay 2

Keeping up with global progress is, doubtless, a desirable attribute of any society. However, to purport
that the reasons certain societies may not progress at the same rate as “great” societies are their reluctance
to break from their comfort zones and a fear of the unknown is to present an overly simplistic view. Such a
view does not take into consideration the set of economic, political, and cultural constraints that affect every
society’s ability to progress on a global scale.
Before exploring these constraints, it would be useful to examine the use of the word “great” in the above
context. The concept of what makes a society great is highly subjective; some may equate greatness with
military might or economic dominance, while others would emphasize cultural achievement or progress in
care for less privileged citizens. Whatever one’s definition of greatness, however, it is ludicrous to suggest
that any society actively rejects the desire to be great. Many societies face the seemingly insurmountable
struggle to maintain societal structure in the face of economic need and/or political upheaval; the desire for
greatness can only come when a society’s basic structure is intact.
Societies facing severe economic challenges are virtually unable to progress in areas like medicine,
militia, and agriculture even if they want to do so. Countries like Bolivia use a majority of their limited
resources to maintain an agricultural status quo. Bolivian farmers are not afraid of the unknown or passively
content with their current situation, but are using all of their resources to maintain a functional economic
7
climate and structure. Given this situation, the luxury of advancements in medicine, economics and military
power is simply not possible.
Also, societies embroiled in political upheaval, such as Bangladesh, are unable to send its young and
talented members to university where they can spearhead progress; the most viable sectors of the population
are required to serve in the military and/or to care for their families through difficult economic and political
times. Maintaining a societal structure amid chaotic conditions engenders a lack of globally accepted
progress, but as we have seen throughout time, episodes of great drama in any given society can yield
important works of art, one such example being Albert Camus’ The Stranger, written during the French
Resistance.
Another point to consider is that, in some cases, an entire society’s cultural history, including its artistic
contributions, is preserved only through its living members’ rich oral tradition and their active rejecting of
progress in the worlds of technology, medicine, and science. This is evident when considering such so-called
“primitive” societies as the African Masai or certain Native American tribes. The introduction of technology
into the world of the Masai would inarguably lead to the demise of the entire society.
In conclusion, to devalue a society that isn’t among the most progressive in the world is to discount the
contributions a so-called “unprogressive” society can provide, such as artistic and cultural phenomena
unique to a given society. Progress is a valuable tool for the advancement of a society, but blindly reaching
for greatness can lead to a society’s downfall just as much as ignoring it altogether can. The balance between
accepting a society’s constraints and highlighting its strengths is what will ultimately lead to a society’s

8
LIST OF ISSUE TASKS
1. "Leaders should focus more on the needs of the majority than on the needs of the minority."
2. "The study of mathematics has value only to the extent that it is relevant in our daily lives."
3. "All college students should be required to take math courses, even if the students have no interest
in math."
4. "The government should provide funding for school music programs so that music can flourish
and be available to all members of the community."
5. “Progress is accomplished only through trial and error.”
6. “Communication through technology should replace all other forms of communication in
contemporary society.”
7. “The highest goal for life or career is not striving to compete, but learning to cooperate.”
8. “While it is easy to give positive feedback to another person or group, it is far more worthwhile
to be critical of the work of others.”
9. “Both the development of technological tools and the uses to which humanity has put
them have created modern civilizations in which loneliness is ever increasing.”
10. “Our declining environment may bring the people of the world together as no politician,
philosopher, or war ever could. Environmental problems are global in scope and respect no
nation’s boundaries. Therefore, people are faced with the choice of unity and cooperation on
the one hand or disunity and a common tragedy on the other.”
11. “There is little need for books today because one can learn just as much or more from television.”
12. “Many of today’s technological conveniences were developed to save time. Ironically, these
developments have created an even more hurried, fast-paced society, where people actually
have less leisure time.”
13. “Character is created in a crisis.”
14. “People should pursue careers that provide financial security even if they do not enjoy the work.”
15. “The idea that individuals should focus on personal self-improvement assumes that
there is something inherently wrong with people.”
16. Public figures should expect their private lives to be scrutinized.
17. “It is necessary for a leader to compromise his principles if compromising them is favorable to a
greater number of people.”
18. “Parents must be involved in their children’s education in order to make them successful.”
19. "As adults, we prefer to define ourselves more by our occupation than by our affiliation with social
groups."
20. "No business should sacrifice the quality of its products or services for the sake of maximizing
profits."
21. "Most great achievements are the result of careful planning and a long, sustained effort rather
than of sudden bursts of creativity or insight."
22. "In any field of endeavor, an Individual's best critics are the Individual’s own colleagues or
other peers in that field."
23. "Most people are actually happier when they have fewer goods and services from which to
choose; this is especially true today, when we are deluged with advertising as never before
and from more sources than ever before."
24. Is moderation in all things poor advice?
25. Do people prefer constrains on freedom?
26. Governments duty is to preserve cultural tradition
27. Our duty to disobey unjust laws
28. What should be the focus of Media?
29. Imaginative works vs. financial accounting
30. What is required to become ‘truly educated’?
31. Pragmatism vs. idealism
32. Is history relevant to our daily lives?
33. Has technology failed to help humanity progress?
34. Are mistakes necessary for discovery and progress?
35. Must we choose between tradition and modernization?
36. Will humans be always superior to machines?
37. From whom do our leading voices come?
9
38. Are war and crime products of the human condition?
39. The function and value of art and science?
40. Is it mistake to theorize without data?
41. “In raising a child, love is important, but discipline is most important of all.”
42. “Health care in the United States should be free for all citizens, fully financed by the government.”
43. “When high-profile celebrities speak out in favor of a certain politician, that politician’s
reputation is generally damaged.”
44. “Schools should be responsible not only for teaching academic skills but also for teaching
ethical and social values.”
45. “To truly succeed in life, a person must assert his or her individuality rather than
conforming to the expectations of others.”
46. “The greatest responsibility of a leader—whether in politics, business, or the military—is to
serve the interests of his or her followers.”
47. “The best way to ensure protection and preservation of our natural environment is through
governmental regulatory measures. We cannot rely on the voluntary efforts of individuals and
private businesses to achieve these objectives.”
48. “The best way to ensure protection and preservation of our natural environment is through
governmental regulatory measures. We cannot rely on the voluntary efforts of individuals and
private businesses to achieve these objectives.”
49. “Large businesses should focus on teamwork as the primary means of achieving success.”
50. “The study of mathematics has value only to the extent that it is relevant in our daily lives.”

10
ARGUMENT TASK

The directions for an Argument essay will look like this:

The Argument essay prompts:

• Write a response in which you explore the assumptions, both implicit and explicit, in the author’s argument.
Explain how the argument hinges on these assumptions and what the implications are if the assumptions
prove unfounded.
• Write a response in which you explain what information would be necessary in order to decide whether the
recommendation and the argument on which it is based are reasonable. Be sure to explain how the answers to
these questions or pieces of information would help to evaluate the recommendation.
• Write a response in which you discuss what questions would need to be answered to decide how likely the
stated recommendation is to yield the predicted result. Be sure to explain how the answers to these questions
would help to evaluate the recommendation.
• Write a response in which you discuss what questions would need to be answered in order to assess the
reasonableness of both the prediction and the argument upon which it is based. Be sure to explain how the
answers to these questions would help to evaluate the prediction.
• Write a response in which you discuss one or more viable alternatives to the proposed explanation. Justify,
with support, why your explanation could rival the proposed explanation and explain how your explanation(s)
can plausibly account for the facts presented in the argument.

Common Reasoning Flaws

In a typical GRE Argument statement, you can find three or four distinct points for critique. Here are the
most common types of flaws in GRE Argument statements.

• Confusing cause-and-effect with mere correlation or time sequence

• Drawing a weak analogy between two objects, causes, or ideas
• Relying on a potentially unrepresentative statistical sample
• Relying on a potentially unreliable survey or poll
• Assuming that a certain condition is necessary and/or sufficient for a specific outcome
• Assuming that characteristics of a group apply to each group member (or assuming the reverse: that
characteristics of one group member apply to all members)
• Assuming that all things remain unchanged over time
• Assuming that two courses of action are mutually exclusive
• Relying on undefined, vague, or ambiguous terms
• Relying on ambiguous or conflicting evidence
• Drawing an overly broad conclusion
• Arguing simultaneously for competing objectives
• Engaging in circular reasoning

11
Useful Phrases for Argument Task
Introduction
 The argument presented, while interesting, makes several errors in reasoning that undermine its
effectiveness. For this argument to be considered valid, it must….
 The argument presented above is generally a good one. However, there are some ways it could be
improved.
 The argument is nor persuasive for several reasons.
 The argument presented lacks any serious support, and fails to consider some problems that ….
 The argument as it now stands is unconvincing because it is missing evidence that would make
the argument more well reasonable.
 It also suffers from poorly defined vocabulary, which makes the argument less easy to
understand.
 The argument contains self-contradictory reasoning, which needs to be untangled before the
argument will be truly convincing.
Main body
 The most striking feature of this argument is its sweeping assumptions.
 The author assumes that…
 The argument presupposes that…
 Many of the more significant assumptions made in this argument are those which….
 The argument also ignores the fact that …..
 In addition, the argument fails to make a valid comparison between ….
 Also, the argument does not cover…
 Last, it contains self-contradictory reasoning, which ….
 As evidence to back up an assertion, the author notes that…
 The author of the argument attempts to argue that ….
 However, the author does not indicate why
 The argument does not specify the….., nor does it estimate…….
 Many of the more significant assumptions made in this argument are those which assume …...
Conclusion
 It could be easily concluded that….
 In short, this is a good start, but the author needs to…
 All in all, the argument lacks merit due to …..
 Therefore, I believe that the argument is not sufficient and does not completely answer all the
questions necessary to make a good decision.

Method for Analytical Writing

STEP 1 Take the issue/argument apart.

STEP 2 Select the points you will make.
STEP 3 Organize, using essay templates.
STEP 4 Type your essay.
STEP 5 Proofread your work.

12
SAMPLE

“The commercial airline industry in the country of Freedonia has experienced impressive growth in the past
three years. This trend will surely continue in the years to come, since the airline industry will benefit from
recent changes in Freedonian society: incomes are rising; most employees now receive more vacation time;
and interest in travel is rising, as shown by an increase in media attention devoted to foreign cultures and
tourist attractions.”

Write a response that examines this argument’s unstated assumptions. Make sure you explain how this
argument depends on those assumptions and what the implications are if the assumptions are wrong.

Step 1
Take the argument apart.

Conclusion (the point the argument’s trying to make): The upward trend of growth in Freedonia’s airline
industry will continue.
Evidence (basis offered to support the conclusion): Incomes are rising. Employees have more vacation time.
Interest in travel is rising, as shown by increased media attention devoted to foreign cultures and tourist
attractions.
Assumptions (unspoken conditions or beliefs necessary for the conclusion to make sense in light of the
evidence):
• Incomes will continue to rise in the future.
• Employees will want to spend their vacation time abroad and not at home.
• Those who do wish to travel will want to go somewhere requiring air travel.
• The increased media attention on foreign cultures and tourist attractions is due
to public interest in travel.
• The airline industry will directly benefit from these changes.

Step 2
Select the points you will make.

Analyze the use of evidence in the argument. Determine whether there’s anything
relevant that’s not discussed, such as the following:
• What actually caused the growth in the airline industry?
• The fact that employees may want to spend their increased disposable income and vacation time doing other
things
• Whether the increased media attention on foreign cultures is due to other factors besides increased public
interest in travel.

Also determine what types of evidence would make the argument stronger or more logically sound. In this
case, we need some new evidence to support the assumptions, such as the following:
• Evidence verifying that the positive economic changes in Freedonian society
will continue
• Evidence suggesting the cause of the increased media coverage of foreign
cultures is in fact due to an interest in travel

Step 3
Organize, using essay template.

For an essay on this topic, your opening sentence might look like this:
The author believes that the recent growth in Freedonia’s commercial airline industry will continue for
years to come.
13
Paragraph 1: The conclusion is that the positive growth in Freedonia’s commercial airline industry will
continue. The evidence is that income, vacation time, and interest in travel are all on the rise.

Paragraph 2: The author assumes that the favorable economic conditions will continue. However, the cause of
these conditions is not explained, and neither is the economy’s relation to the airline industry.

Paragraph 3: The argument would be strengthened if we knew what caused the media attention and growth in
the commercial airline industry.

Paragraph 4: What is the source of the economic conditions, and how do they relate to the airline industry?

Paragraph 5: If the author’s assumptions are wrong, Freedonia’s airline industry might experience trouble in
the future.

Then use your notes as a working outline. In Argument essays, you’ll primarily address the ways in which the
assumptions seem unsupported. You might also recommend new evidence you’d like to see and explain why.
Remember to lead with your best arguments.

Step 4
Type your essay.
Sample Argument Essay

The author concludes that the positive growth in Freedonia’s commercial airline industry will continue for
years to come. The evidence is that incomes, vacation time, and interest in travel are all on the rise. While
this argument may seem tenable at first glance, the conclusion relies on assumptions for which there is no
clear evidence and on undefined terms.
First, the writer assumes that the favorable economic conditions in Freedonia will continue. It is entirely
possible that they will not, and that employees will have neither the money nor the vacation time necessary to
pay for expensive foreign vacations. Suppose, for example, that incomes do not continue to rise. People would
not have the money to spend on expensive vacations.
Secondly, do we really know that the citizens of Freedonia will want to spend their money on vacations?
Also, how do we know they will want to visit places that necessitate air travel? The argument would be
strengthened considerably if the author provided evidence of a direct relationship between the increased
media attention on foreign cultures and tourist attractions and the genuine desire to spend disposable income
and vacation time traveling. The author does not explain where this interest comes from. Also, even if people
are interested, it does not necessarily follow that they will be either willing or able to indulge that interest
with extravagant holidays.
Furthermore, the writer does not explain the source of these economic conditions, nor what relation, if
any, they have to the airline industry. What if the changes in Freedonian society that have led to higher
incomes and more vacation time do not help the airline industry? Perhaps the economic changes are the
result of protective tariffs and trade policies that make it harder for Freedonians to conduct business
internationally. Perhaps the government is limiting imports and exports. These possibilities could shrink the
growth of the airline industry.
If the writer is wrong about the assumptions he has made regarding Freedonian society, the implications
for the commercial airline industry in Freedonia are less rosy. It would mean that there will be less income
and no less interest in foreign travel.

Step 5
Proofread your work.

Take the last couple of minutes to catch any glaring errors.

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Argument Essay Practice Set
Argument Essay 1
30 Minutes
Length: 300 words

Directions
You will be given a brief passage that presents an argument, or an argument you need to complete, along with
detailed instructions on how to respond to the passage. You have 30 minutes to plan and compose a response
in which you analyze the passage according to the instructions. A response to any other argument results in a
score of zero.

Note
You are not being asked to present your opinions on the subject. Make sure you respond to the instructions
and support your analysis with pertinent reasons and/ or examples. Feel free to take a few minutes to consider
the argument and instructions, and to plan your response, before you begin to write. Be certain your analysis
is fully developed and logically organized, and make sure you leave enough time to review and revise what
you’ve written.

The following appeared in the City Council Proceedings section of the local newspaper in Smithville:
“The city council of Smithville has instituted changes to police procedures to improve the visibility
of the police force. These changes require that the town hire more police officers, budget more
funds for police overtime, and direct officers to patrol significantly more often on foot rather than
from their patrol cars. These improvements in visibility will significantly lower the crime rate in
Smithville and make its citizens feel safer.”

Write a response in which you discuss what questions would need to be answered to decide how likely the
stated recommendation is to yield the predicted result. Be sure to explain how the answers to these questions
would help to evaluate the recommendation.

15
Argument Essay 2
30 Minutes
Length: 300 words

“Tusk University should build a new recreational facility, both to attract new students and to better
serve the needs of our current student body. Tusk projects that enrollment will double over the next 10
years, based on current trends. The new student body is expected to reflect a much higher percentage
of commuter students than we currently enroll. This will make the existing facilities inadequate.
Moreover, the cost of health and recreation club membership in our community has increased rapidly
in recent years. Thus, students will find it much more advantageous to make use of the facilities on
campus. Finally, an attractive new recreation center would make prospective students, especially
athletically gifted ones, more likely to enroll at Tusk.”

Write a response that examines this argument’s unstated assumptions. Make sure you explain how this
argument depends on those assumptions and what the implications are if the assumptions are wrong.

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Sample Essay 1

The city council of Smithville believes that increasing the visibility of its police force will reduce crime and
increase the safety of its citizens. However, the memo provides no evidence to support this argument, and the city
council may not be taking other variables, alternative solutions, or the citizens’ desires into consideration.
The Smithville city council assumes that crime persists because the city’s police force has too low a profile, but
the memo never cites evidence to support this position. The council could do something as simple yet effective as
asking the town librarian to review published studies to see if a parallel exists between a high police presence and
reduced crime rates. It could also hire an independent research firm to see if a correlation exists between
Smithville crime scenes and a lack of police activity.
The council should consider other factors that might account for the current crime rate. The police force may
be under-trained or poorly managed. If so, adding more officers or encouraging officers to work longer hours
could actually compound the problem. Here again, research could be a vital ally in the council’s case: What have
other towns with similar problems identified as causal factors? What training do their police forces receive? How
are they deployed, on foot or in patrol cars? Answering questions like these might help clarify a solution to the
town’s problem. The council should also research historic solutions to the problem: How have towns like theirs
reduced a growing crime rate? This research could bolster the council’s position or provide alternative, less costly
solutions that have successfully fought crime.
The council also assumes that a higher police presence automatically reduces citizen concerns over crime, but
it doesn’t take into consideration the relationship between the residents and the police. Some communities regard
police officers with a great deal of distrust, and that attitude may be pronounced in a community where the police
force is perceived as unable to cope with crime. Has the community itself, through its elected leaders, the police
chief, op-ed pieces in the newspaper, or community groups, expressed a need for a stronger police force? The
memo never says.
As it currently stands, the Smithville city council’s memo announces a decision that appears to have been made
in a vacuum. To convince citizens that bolstering the police force and changing patrol procedures is the way to
fight crime, the memo needs to state how the council arrived at this decision. Only then can citizens feel that the
council is taking the right course of action.

Sample Essay 2

The author contends that Tusk University should build a new recreational facility to attract new students, and
to better serve the needs of its current students. The argument also asserts that this will lead to greater enrollment
over the next ten years. While it may prove to be a worthy project, the argument appears to rely on assumptions
that lack conclusive supporting evidence. The writer would be well advised to address these issues to make the
point of the argument more cogent and convincing.
First and foremost, the writer assumes, without providing any evidence, that recreational facilities will be a
significant factor in attracting and serving students interested in Tusk. This begs the question of the role of
recreation and/or athletic facilities in the matriculation and retention of students in institutions of higher learning.
In the absence of any reference to the academic mission of the University, or even of the role that the facility might
have in attracting, retaining, or helping to fund areas more central to that mission, the writer’s conclusion appears
unsupported.
Secondly, the writer assumes, again without citing specific evidence, that the projected doubling of enrollment
will by itself lead to an increase in demand for the new recreational facilities proposed. Even if the facilities would
indeed be attractive relative to those available off campus, the author has provided no proof that a substantial part
of the increased or even current enrollment would be inclined to consider the new facilities an asset to their
education. Suppose for a moment that this enlarged commuter-based enrollment turns out to be largely made up of
part-time students with jobs and family demands away from the campus. Would such a student body see the new
facility as a priority? Would the schedules of such students allow them to take advantage of the improvement?
Finally, the author fails to describe what specific services, programs, and amenities the proposed new facility
will provide, how and at what cost relative to facilities available elsewhere these will be made available to the
university community, and how the financial burden of both building and operating the new center will be offset.
Beyond these issues endemic to the campus setting, the writer presents no overview of the environmental, social,
and public relations aspects of the project in a larger context, either intra- or extra-collegiate.
The issues raised here could easily be addressed by providing evidence that backs up the author’s claim. By
assembling sufficient and specific demographic and economic evidence to support the argument’s questionable
assumptions, the writer may not only be able to overcome the limitations of the current argument, but provide a
rationale for the proposal beyond the terms offered here.

17
LIST OF ANALYTICAL TASKS

1.The following appeared in a memo from the president of Bower Builders, a company that constructs new homes.

"A nationwide survey reveals that the two most-desired home features are a large family room and a large, well-
appointed kitchen. A number of homes in our area built by our competitor Domus Construction have such features and
have sold much faster and at significantly higher prices than the national average. To boost sales and profits, we
should increase the size of the family rooms and kitchens in all the homes we build and should make state-of-the-art
kitchens a standard feature. Moreover, our larger family rooms and kitchens can come at the expense of the dining
room, since many of our recent buyers say they do not need a separate dining room for family meals."

Write a response in which you examine the stated and/or unstated assumptions of the argument. Be sure to explain how
the argument depends on these assumptions and what the implications are for the argument if the assumptions prove
unwarranted.

2.The following appeared in a letter from a firm providing investment advice for a client.

"Most homes in the northeastern United States, where winters are typically cold, have traditionally used oil as their
major fuel for heating. Last heating season that region experienced 90 days with below-normal temperatures, and
climate forecasters predict that this weather pattern will continue for several more years. Furthermore, many new homes
are being built in the region in response to recent population growth. Because of these trends, we predict an increased
demand for heating oil and recommend investment in Consolidated Industries, one of whose major business operations
is the retail sale of home heating oil."

3.The following appeared in an article in the Grandview Beacon.

"For many years the city of Grandview has provided annual funding for the Grandview Symphony. Last year, however,
private contributions to the symphony increased by 200 percent and attendance at the symphony's concerts-in-the-park
series doubled. The symphony has also announced an increase in ticket prices for next year. Given such developments,
some city commissioners argue that the symphony can now be fully self-supporting, and they recommend that funding for
the symphony be eliminated from next year's budget."

Write a response in which you discuss what questions would need to be answered in order to decide whether the
recommendation and the argument on which it is based are reasonable. Be sure to explain how the answers to these
questions would help to evaluate the recommendation.

4.The following appeared in a memo from the director of a large group of hospitals.

"In a laboratory study of liquid antibacterial hand soaps, a concentrated solution of UltraClean produced a 40 percent
greater reduction in the bacteria population than did the liquid hand soaps currently used in our hospitals. During a
subsequent test of UltraClean at our hospital in Workby, that hospital reported significantly fewer cases of patient
infection than did any of the other hospitals in our group. Therefore, to prevent serious patient infections, we should
supply UltraClean at all hand-washing stations throughout our hospital system."

5.The following appeared in a letter to the editor of the Parkville Daily newspaper.

"Throughout the country last year, as more and more children below the age of nine participated in youth-league sports,
over 40,000 of these young players suffered injuries. When interviewed for a recent study, youth-league soccer players in
several major cities also reported psychological pressure exerted by coaches and parents to win games. Furthermore,
education experts say that long practice sessions for these sports take away time that could be used for academic
activities. Since the disadvantages outweigh any advantages, we in Parkville should discontinue organized athletic
competition for children under nine."

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Write a response in which you examine the stated and/or unstated assumptions of the argument. Be sure to explain how
the argument depends on these assumptions and what the implications are for the argument if the assumptions prove
unwarranted.

6. When Stanley Park first opened, it was the largest, most heavily used public park in town. It is still the largest park,
but it is no longer heavily used. Video cameras mounted in the park's parking lots last month revealed the park's drop
in popularity: the recordings showed an average of only 50 cars per day. In contrast, tiny Carlton Park in the heart of
the business district is visited by more than 150 people on a typical weekday. An obvious difference is that Carlton
Park, unlike Stanley Park, provides ample seating. Thus, if Stanley Park is ever to be as popular with our citizens as
Carlton Park, the town will obviously need to provide more benches, thereby converting some of the unused open areas
into spaces suitable for socializing.

7.The following appeared in a memo from the owner of a chain of cheese stores located throughout the United States.

"For many years all the stores in our chain have stocked a wide variety of both domestic and imported cheeses. Last
year, however, all of the five best-selling cheeses at our newest store were domestic cheddar cheeses from Wisconsin.
Furthermore, a recent survey by Cheeses of the World magazine indicates an increasing preference for domestic cheeses
among its subscribers. Since our company can reduce expenses by limiting inventory, the best way to improve profits in
all of our stores is to discontinue stocking many of our varieties of imported cheese and concentrate primarily on
domestic cheeses."

Write a response in which you discuss what questions would need to be answered in order to decide whether the
recommendation is likely to have the predicted result. Be sure to explain how the answers to these questions would help
to evaluate the recommendation.

8. The following appeared as part of a business plan developed by the manager of the Rialto Movie Theater.

"Despite its downtown location, the Rialto Movie Theater, a local institution for five decades, must make big changes or
close its doors forever. It should follow the example of the new Apex Theater in the mall outside of town. When the Apex
opened last year, it featured a video arcade, plush carpeting and seats, and a state-of-the-art sound system.
Furthermore, in a recent survey, over 85 percent of respondents reported that the high price of newly released movies
prevents them from going to the movies more than five times per year. Thus, if the Rialto intends to hold on to its share
of a decreasing pool of moviegoers, it must offer the same features as Apex."

9. A recent study reported that pet owners have longer, healthier lives on average than do people who own no pets.
Specifically, dog owners tend to have a lower incidence of heart disease. In light of these findings, Sherwood Hospital
should form a partnership with Sherwood Animal Shelter to institute an adopt-a-dog program. The program would
encourage dog ownership for patients recovering from heart disease, which should reduce these patients' chance of
experiencing continuing heart problems and also reduce their need for ongoing treatment. As a further benefit, the
publicity about the program would encourage more people to adopt pets from the shelter. And that will reduce the
incidence of heart disease in the general population.

10. The following appeared in a memo from a vice president of a large, highly diversified company.

"Ten years ago our company had two new office buildings constructed as regional headquarters for two regions. The
buildings were erected by different construction companies — Alpha and Zeta. Although the two buildings had identical
floor plans, the building constructed by Zeta cost 30 percent more to build. However, that building's expenses for
maintenance last year were only half those of Alpha's. In addition, the energy consumption of the Zeta building has been
lower than that of the Alpha building every year since its construction. Given these data, plus the fact that Zeta has a

19
stable workforce with little employee turnover, we recommend using Zeta rather than Alpha for our new building
project, even though Alpha's bid promises lower construction costs."

11. The following appeared in a memo from a vice president of a large, highly diversified company.

"Ten years ago our company had two new office buildings constructed as regional headquarters for two regions. The
buildings were erected by different construction companies — Alpha and Zeta. Although the two buildings had identical
floor plans, the building constructed by Zeta cost 30 percent more to build. However, that building's expenses for
maintenance last year were only half those of Alpha's. Furthermore, the energy consumption of the Zeta building has
been lower than that of the Alpha building every year since its construction. Such data indicate that we should use Zeta
rather than Alpha for our contemplated new building project, even though Alpha's bid promises lower construction
costs."

Write a response in which you discuss what specific evidence is needed to evaluate the argument and explain how the
evidence would weaken or strengthen the argument.

12. The following is a letter to the editor of the Waymarsh Times.

"Traffic here in Waymarsh is becoming a problem. Although just three years ago a state traffic survey showed that the
typical driving commuter took 20 minutes to get to work, the commute now takes closer to 40 minutes, according to the
survey just completed. Members of the town council already have suggested more road building to address the problem,
but as well as being expensive, the new construction will surely disrupt some of our residential neighborhoods. It would
be better to follow the example of the nearby city of Garville. Last year Garville implemented a policy that rewards
people who share rides to work, giving them coupons for free gas. Pollution levels in Garville have dropped since the
policy was implemented, and people from Garville tell me that commuting times have fallen considerably. There is no
reason why a policy like Garville's shouldn't work equally well in Waymarsh."

Write a response in which you discuss what specific evidence is needed to evaluate the argument and explain how the
evidence would weaken or strengthen the argument.

13. The following appeared as a letter to the editor of a national newspaper.

"Your recent article on corporate downsizing* in Elthyria maintains that the majority of competent workers who have
lost jobs as a result of downsizing face serious economic hardship, often for years, before finding other suitable
employment. But this claim is undermined by a recent report on the Elthyrian economy, which found that since 1999 far
more jobs have been created than have been eliminated, bringing the unemployment rate in Elthyria to its lowest level in
decades. Moreover, two-thirds of these newly created jobs have been in industries that tend to pay above-average wages,
and the vast majority of these jobs are full-time."

*Downsizing is the process whereby corporations deliberately make themselves smaller, reducing the number of their
employees.

Write a response in which you discuss what specific evidence is needed to evaluate the argument and explain how the
evidence would weaken or strengthen the argument.

14. The following is a recommendation from the business manager of Monarch Books.

"Since its opening in Collegeville twenty years ago, Monarch Books has developed a large customer base due to its
reader-friendly atmosphere and wide selection of books on all subjects. Last month, Book and Bean, a combination
bookstore and coffee shop, announced its intention to open a Collegeville store. Monarch Books should open its own in-
store café in the space currently devoted to children's books. Given recent national census data indicating a significant
decline in the percentage of the population under age ten, sales of children's books are likely to decline. By replacing its
children's books section with a café, Monarch Books can increase profits and ward off competition from Book and
Bean."

Write a response in which you discuss what specific evidence is needed to evaluate the argument and explain how the
evidence would weaken or strengthen the argument.

20
15. The following was written as a part of an application for a small-business loan by a group of developers in the
city of Monroe.

"Jazz music is extremely popular in the city of Monroe: over 100,000 people attended Monroe's annual jazz festival last
summer, and the highest-rated radio program in Monroe is 'Jazz Nightly,' which airs every weeknight. Also, a number of
well-known jazz musicians own homes in Monroe. Nevertheless, the nearest jazz club is over an hour away. Given the
popularity of jazz in Monroe and a recent nationwide study indicating that the typical jazz fan spends close to $1,000 per
year on jazz entertainment, a jazz music club in Monroe would be tremendously profitable."

16. There is now evidence that the relaxed pace of life in small towns promotes better health and greater
longevity than does the hectic pace of life in big cities. Businesses in the small town of Leeville report fewer days of sick
leave taken by individual workers than do businesses in the nearby large city of Masonton. Furthermore, Leeville has
only one physician for its one thousand residents, but in Masonton the proportion of physicians to residents is five times
as high. Finally, the average age of Leeville residents is significantly higher than that of Masonton residents. These
findings suggest that people seeking longer and healthier lives should consider moving to small communities.

17. The following appeared in a memo from the Board of Directors of Butler Manufacturing.

"During the past year, workers at Butler Manufacturing reported 30 percent more on-the-job accidents than workers at
nearby Panoply Industries, where the work shifts are one hour shorter than ours. A recent government study reports that
fatigue and sleep deprivation among workers are significant contributing factors in many on-the-job accidents.
Therefore, we recommend that Butler Manufacturing shorten each of its work shifts by one hour. Shorter shifts will
allow Butler to improve its safety record by ensuring that its employees are adequately rested."

18. The following appeared in a memo from the business manager of a chain of cheese stores located throughout
the United States.

19. The following appeared in a memo from the owner of a chain of cheese stores located throughout the United
States.

Write a response in which you discuss what specific evidence is needed to evaluate the argument and explain how the
evidence would weaken or strengthen the argument.
21
20. The following appeared in a memorandum from the general manager of KNOW radio station.

"Several factors indicate that radio station KNOW should shift its programming from rock-and-roll music to a
continuous news format. Consider, for example, that the number of people in our listening area over fifty years of age
has increased dramatically, while our total number of listeners has declined. Also, music stores in our area report
decreased sales of recorded music. Finally, continuous news stations in neighboring cities have been very successful.
The switch from rock-and-roll music to 24-hour news will attract older listeners and secure KNOW radio's future."

21. The following appeared in a memo from the vice president of a food distribution company with food storage
warehouses in several cities.

"Recently, we signed a contract with the Fly-Away Pest Control Company to provide pest control services at our
warehouse in Palm City, but last month we discovered that over $20,000 worth of food there had been destroyed by pest
damage. Meanwhile, the Buzzoff Pest Control Company, which we have used for many years in Palm City, continued to
service our warehouse in Wintervale, and last month only $10,000 worth of the food stored there had been destroyed by
pest damage. Even though the price charged by Fly-Away is considerably lower, our best means of saving money is to
return to Buzzoff for all our pest control services."

22. The following appeared in a memo from the vice president of a food distribution company with food storage
warehouses in several cities.

"Recently, we signed a contract with the Fly-Away Pest Control Company to provide pest control services at our
warehouse in Palm City, but last month we discovered that over $20,000 worth of food there had been destroyed by pest
damage. Meanwhile, the Buzzoff Pest Control Company, which we have used for many years in Palm City, continued to
service our warehouse in Wintervale, and last month only $10,000 worth of the food stored there had been destroyed by
pest damage. This difference in pest damage is best explained by the negligence of Fly-Away."

Write a response in which you discuss one or more alternative explanations that could rival the proposed explanation and
explain how your explanation(s) can plausibly account for the facts presented in the argument.

23. The following appeared as part of an article in a business magazine.

"A recent study rating 300 male and female advertising executives according to the average number of hours they sleep
per night showed an association between the amount of sleep the executives need and the success of their firms. Of the
advertising firms studied, those whose executives reported needing no more than six hours of sleep per night had higher
profit margins and faster growth. On the basis of this study, we recommend that businesses hire only people who need
less than six hours of sleep per night."

24. Several years ago, Groveton College adopted an honor code, which calls for students to agree not to cheat in
their academic endeavors and to notify a faculty member if they suspect that others have cheated. Groveton's honor code
replaced a system in which teachers closely monitored students. Under that system, teachers reported an average of
thirty cases of cheating per year. The honor code has proven far more successful: in the first year it was in place,
students reported twenty-one cases of cheating; five years later, this figure had dropped to fourteen. Moreover, in a
recent survey, a majority of Groveton students said that they would be less likely to cheat with an honor code in place
than without. Such evidence suggests that all colleges and universities should adopt honor codes similar to Groveton's.
This change is sure to result in a dramatic decline in cheating among college students.

"In a controlled laboratory study of liquid hand soaps, a concentrated solution of extra strength UltraClean hand soap
produced a 40 percent greater reduction in harmful bacteria than did the liquid hand soaps currently used in our
hospitals. During our recent test of regular-strength UltraClean with doctors, nurses, and visitors at our hospital in
Worktown, the hospital reported significantly fewer cases of patient infection (a 20 percent reduction) than did any of
the other hospitals in our group. Therefore, to prevent serious patient infections, we should supply UltraClean at all
hand-washing stations, including those used by visitors, throughout our hospital system."

26. The following appeared in a letter from the owner of the Sunnyside Towers apartment complex to its
manager.

"One month ago, all the showerheads in the first three buildings of the Sunnyside Towers complex were modified to
restrict maximum water flow to one-third of what it used to be. Although actual readings of water usage before and after
the adjustment are not yet available, the change will obviously result in a considerable savings for Sunnyside
Corporation, since the corporation must pay for water each month. Except for a few complaints about low water
pressure, no problems with showers have been reported since the adjustment. Clearly, modifying showerheads to restrict
water flow throughout all twelve buildings in the Sunnyside Towers complex will increase our profits further."

Write a response in which you discuss what specific evidence is needed to evaluate the argument and explain how the
evidence would weaken or strengthen the argument.

23
VERBAL REASONING QUESTION TYPES
TEXT COMPLETION PRACTICE SET
If you're up to the challenge, time yourself; on test day, you'll want to spend only 1 to 1.5 minutes on each
question, depending on the number of blanks.
1. The young man always had to have the last word; he would rather be disliked than .
A gainsaid
B selfish
C remembered
D praised
E different

2. The giant squid's massive body, adapted for deep-sea life, breaks apart in the
reduced pressures of higher ocean elevations, making the search for an intact
specimen one of the most quests in all of marine biology.
A meaningful
B elusive
C popular
D expensive
E profitable

3. Although situated in the same neighborhood, the little brick house seemed
(i) compared to the ornate, almost (ii) new house beside it.
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
A impressive D translucent
B dilapidated E diminutive
C desirable F ostentatious

4. The (i) gave such an impassioned speech that the crowd seemed moved to (ii)
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
A orator D despair
B miscreant E duress
C interloper F ebullience

5. His explosive, rude remarks convinced many that he was (i) and of(ii) character,
suddenly making his future as a politician seem(iii)
Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii)
A indifferent D courageous G guaranteed
B charming E virtuous H precarious
c volatile F ignoble I facetious

SENTENCE EQUIVALENCE PRACTICE SET

If you're up to the challenge, time yourself; on test day, you'll want to spend only about one minute on
each question.
1. She was unable to move her arm after the stroke; in addition, the stroke her ability to speak.
A appeased
B satisfied
C impeded
D helped
E hindered
F assisted

2. Although the lab assistant openly apologized for allowing the samples to spoil,
her did not appease the research head, and she was let go.
A insincerity
B frankness

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C falsehoods
D candor
E inexperience
F hesitation

3. Afterwards, the late man's wife could not stop crying; similarly, his daughter was very
A overjoyed
B morose
C abashed
D lucid
E nonplussed
F doleful

4. Her last-minute vacation was compared to her usual trips, which are planned down
to the last detail.
A expensive
B spontaneous
C predictable
D satisfying
E impulsive
F atrocious

5. After staying up all night she felt extremely ; however, she still ran three miles with her friends.
A apprehensive
B lethargic
C controversial
D sluggish
E vigorous
F energetic

READING COMPREHENSION PRACTICE SET

If you're up to the challenge, time yourself; on test day, you'll want to spend only 1-3 minutes reading
each passage and 1 minute on each question.
Questions 1 and 2 are based on the passage below.
The idea of medical nanotechnology often conjures up the potentially troubling image of tiny
machines and devices that both exist and operate far outside the scope of unmagnified human
vision. Yet much of what constitutes nanotechnology is purely biological in form and function. For
example, strands of DNA and the proteins that make up its structure are mere nanometers thick.
Many of the basic functions of life occur on the nanoscale level. Efforts to understand or affect these
functions are among the primary fields of nanotechnology. Gene study and gene therapy, two by-
products of medical nanotechnology, have already proven useful for identifying and treating a
number of different diseases, sometimes even before symptoms of those diseases present themselves.
Even so, genetic nanotechnology and treatments can give as much cause for concern as the idea
of microscopic machines at work in the body. The possibility of altering an organism's genetic
structure has been a subject of much debate as to what extent such an alteration would be both safe
and ethical.

1. In the passage above, what roles do the boldfaced sentences serve?

A The first sentence is the main idea, and the second sentence restates the main idea.
B The first sentence makes the central argument of the passage, and the second sentence supports
the argument.
C The first sentence provides the primary argument, and the second sentence is the secondary
argument.
D The first sentence is a secondary argument and the second sentence is evidence against
that argument.
E The first sentence introduces the topic and the second sentence is the conclusion.

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2. According to the passage, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT:
A Medical nanotechnology is a field of nanotechnology that is 100 percent biological in practice.
B Nanotechnology has already led to medical practices that are currently in use.
C There are valid concerns regarding the use of nanotechnology.
D Most of what happens on the nanoscale is naturally occurring.
E Gene therapy would not be possible without medical nanotechnology.

Questions 3 through 5 are based on the passage below.

Although it is an imperfect model for describing a complex market, the theory of supply and demand
is a reasonably accurate method of explaining, describing, and predicting how the quantity and price
of goods fluctuate within a market. Economists define supply as the amount of a particular good that
producers are willing to sell at a certain price. For example, a manufacturer might be willing to sell
7,000 sprockets if each one sells for $0.45, but would be willing to sell substantially more sprockets,
perhaps 12,000, for a higher price of $0.82. Conversely, demand represents the quantity of a given
item that consumers will purchase at a set price; in the most efficient market, all buyers pay the
lowest price available, and all sellers charge the highest price they are able. The intersection of these
occurrences is graphically represented in supply and demand curves that show the prices at which a
product becomes too expensive or too readily available.

3. Which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?
A explaining why buyers in a given market tend to seek the lowest price on available goods
B offering a dissenting perspective on an obsolete economic model
C persuading readers that the model of supply and demand is the best method for understanding
market forces
D providing an explanation of the two primary elements of an economic model and how they intersect
E analyzing the fluctuation of supply and demand within a market

Consider each of the following choices separately and select all that apply.
4. If the producer of sprockets nearly doubles its prices as described in the passage, it follows that
A buyers in the market will be likely to purchase more of the sprockets being sold.
B the price of sprockets will continue to increase.
C buyers in the market will be likely to purchase fewer of the sprockets being sold.

5. Select the sentence in the passage that illustrates an abstract concept presented by the author.

26
VERBAL REASONING TESTS
TEST 1
Section 1
Choose the word or set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
1. St. Elmo's fire is a weather phenomenon that, (i) documented from ancient times,
was not (ii) it has been until recently.
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
A because D incinerated
B since E reported
C although F understood

2. Although Thomas Paine was most (i) his political pamphlets, he was in fact (ii) writer on many
different subjects.
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
A inimical to D an abstruse
B condemned for E a prolific
C famous for F a terrible

3. (i). its many difficult and mature themes, Hamlet remains a . (ii) choice
for introducing teenagers to Shakespeare.
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
A Due to D neglected
B Despite E popular
C Because of F spurned

4. Because she was so , Mary rarely spoke in groups of people.

A reticent
B congenial
C brusque
D gregarious
E scurrilous

5. The patterns of the stock market seem to many beginners, but they can be
decoded with dedication and patience.
A unwelcoming
B arcane
C harmonious
D shocking
E lucid

For the following questions, select the two answer choices that, when inserted into the sentence, fit the
meaning of the sentence as a whole and yield complete sentences that are similar in meaning.
6. Known to all as having a silver tongue, the orator easily distracts audiences from the meaning of his
words with his speech.
A mellifluous
B flowing
C stumbling
D laconic
E euphonic
F strident- loud

7. When the underdogs so soundly beat the team favored to win, their victory the entire
sports world.
A horrified
B electrified
C shook
D bored
27
E alienated
F stunned

8. Despite the efforts made by the municipal government to increase public transportation usage, many
people of the city continued to drive their own vehicles, complaining that the bus schedules were
too to be relied upon.
A irregular
B exacting
C circuitous
D rigid
E isolated
F erratic

9. Word painting is a musical technique in which the progression of the notes the
meaning of the lyrics; a famous example of this can be found in Handel's Messiah in which the notes rise
with the mention of "mountains" and fall with the mention of "low."
A sustains
B mimics
C contrasts
D reflects
E opposes
F reinforces

10. After naturally occurring smallpox was eradicated, the World Health Organization chose
to the remaining samples of the virus in hopes that they may be later used in developing
means to combat other viruses.
A eliminate
B duplicate
C preserve
D retain
E extirpate
F cultivate

Questions 11 through 14 are based on the passage below.

The 1973 Endangered Species Act made into legal policy the concept that endangered species of wildlife
are precious as part of a natural ecosystem. The nearly unanimous passage of this act in the United States
Congress, reflecting the rising national popularity of environmentalism, masked a bitter debate. Affected
industries clung to the former wildlife policy of valuing individual species according to their economic
usefulness. They fought to minimize the law’s impact by limiting definitions of key terms, but they lost
on nearly every issue. The act defined “wildlife” as almost all kinds of animals— from large mammals to
invertebrates— and plants. “Taking” wildlife was defined broadly as any action that threatened an
endangered species: areas vital to a species’ survival could be federally protected as “critical habitats.”
Though these definitions legislated strong environmentalist goals, political compromises made in the
enforcement of the act were to determine just what economic interest would be set aside for the sake of
ecological stabilization.

11. According to the passage, which of the following does the Endangered Species Act define as a
"critical habitat"?
(A) A natural ecosystem that is threatened by imminent development
(B) An industrial or urban area in which wildlife species have almost ceased to live among humans
(C) A natural area that is crucial to the survival of a species and thus eligible for federal protection
(D) A wilderness area in which the “taking” of wildlife species is permitted rarely and only under strict
federal regulation
(E) A natural environment that is protected under law because its wildlife has a high economic value

12. According to the passage, which of the following is an explanation for the degree of support that the
Endangered Species Act received in Congress?
(A) Concern for the environment had gained increasing national popularity.
(B) Ecological research had created new economic opportunities dependent on the survival of certain
28
species.
(C) Congress had long wanted to change the existing wildlife policy.
(D) The growth of industry had endangered increasing numbers of wildlife species.
(E) Legislators did not anticipate that the act could be effectively enforced.

13. It can be inferred from the passage that if business interests had won the debate on provisions of the
1973 Endangered Species Act, which of the following would have resulted?
(A) Environmentalist concepts would not have become widely popular.
(B) The definitions of key terms of the act would have been more restricted.
(C) Enforcement of the act would have been more difficult.
(D) The act would have had stronger support from Congressional leaders.
(E) The public would have boycotted the industries that had the greatest impact in defining the act.

14. The author refers to the terms "wildlife" "taking", and "critical habitats" most likely in order to
(A) illustrate the misuse of scientific language and concepts in political processes
(B) emphasize the importance of selecting precise language in transforming scientific concepts into law
(C) represent terminology whose definition was crucial in writing environmentalist goals into law
(D) demonstrate the triviality of the issues debated by industries before Congress passed the Endangered
Species Act
(E) show that broad definitions of key terms in many types of laws resulted in ambiguity and thus left
room for disagreement about how the law should be enforced

Questions 15 through 18 are based on the passage below.

It has been commonly accepted for some time now that certain scenes in Shakespeare’s Macbeth are
interpolations from the writing of another author; act III, scene 5, and parts of act IV, scene 1, have been
determined to be the writing of one of his contemporaries, Thomas Middleton. This can be regarded as
both illuminating and problematic, depending upon how the play is being studied. It allows us to infer a
great deal about the conventions and practices of writing for the stage at the time. For example, playwriting
may have been more collaborative than previously thought, or perhaps Elizabethan notions of plagiarism
were different from ours. While historically significant, this does complicate our interpretation of the
characters in the play. It is more difficult to assess authorial intention with regard to a character’s
motives if the text has been redacted by multiple authors.

15. Select the statement or statements that are correct according to the passage.
(A) The author feels that Shakespeare is guilty of plagiarism.
(B) The interpolations found in plays such as Macbeth make the assessment of authorial intention more
straightforward.
(C) Our current understanding of plagiarism may have arisen after Shakespeare’s time.

16. Consider the following choices and select all that apply. Which of the following could aid in the
further study of the interpolations discussed in the above passage?
(A) an investigation into the existence and prevalence of collaborative writing partnerships during
Shakespeare’s time
(B) an examination of the themes and techniques of other writers contemporary with Shakespeare
(C) a search through legal documents of Shakespeare’s time for references to plagiarism or intellectual
property rights

17. Consider the following choices and select all that apply. Which CANNOT be inferred from
the passage?
(A) The example of interpolation discussed in the passage would be illegal today.
(B) Authors and playwrights in Shakespeare’s time might have recruited assistance when composing their
works.
(C) Shakespeare used Middleton’s writing without his consent

18. In the passage, the two highlighted statements play which of the following roles?
(A) The first explains a concept, and the second presents an example of that concept.

29
(B) The first presents an example of the main subject of the passage, and the second is a conclusion based
on that example.
(C) The first states the conclusion of the argument as a whole, and the second provides support for that
conclusion.
(D) The first provides evidence for a conclusion that the passage as a whole opposes, and the second
presents the objection to that conclusion.
(E) The first states the primary conclusion of the passage, and the second states the secondary conclusion.

Questions 19 through 20 are based on the passage below.

In the decades leading up to the 1970s, the primarily French-speaking Canadian province of Québec saw its
proportion of native French speakers diminish from year to year. The attrition of French was attributed to
the preeminence of English in the workplace, particularly in affluent, “whitecollar” jobs. The French-
speaking majority was economically marginalized within its own province, as it was left with the choice of
either working in lower-paying jobs or teaching its children English as a first language. The latter option
would further erase Québec’s cultural autonomy and singularity within a country that primarily spoke
English. Facing the risk of linguistic extinction, the province passed Loi 101 (Law 101): The Charter of the
French Language. It established French as the only official language of the province, established the
primacy of French in the workplace, and led to more economic equity. Since its passage in 1977, the
percentage of people in Québec who speak French as a first language has begun to rise.

19. Which of the following is suggested in the passage as a reason for the decline of French in
Québec?
(A) the disparity of economic opportunities available to French and English speakers
(B) an influx of English-speaking immigrants
(C) efforts of French Canadians to further integrate themselves with Canadian culture
(D) the emigration of French Canadians
(E) the outlawing of French in the other provinces

20. According to the passage, Loi 101 was significant in that it

(A) was a final, unsuccessful attempt at enforcing the usage of French in Québec
(B) curtailed the economic supremacy of English
(C) restricted the teaching of English in schools
(D) highlighted the distinctiveness of the cultural identity of Québec from that of the rest of Canada
(E) provided for bilingual education

TEST 1
Section 2
Choose the word or set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
1. The band s new album was universally panned by critics., with many their change to a
simpler sound.
A lauding
B ignorant of
C tolerating
D deriding
E apathetic to

2. Because he was convinced of his own , Adam never accepted criticism.

A genius
B acclamation
C shrewdness
D infallibility
E popularity

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3. She was appalled at the mayors policy, feeling he had the promises made during
his campaign.
A challenged
B exaggerated
C misunderstood
D hindered
E abjured

4. Much to his , he was forced to acknowledge the flaw in his reasoning; he

responded gracefully, however, and soon returned with a new defense of his argument.
A irritation
B befuddlement
C chagrin
D bemusement
E resentment

5. When Jen learned that her manager's nephew had been promoted over her, she became irate, claiming
that the company practiced
A altruism
B relativism
C malfeasance
D ingratitude
E nepotism

For the following questions, select the two answer choices that, when inserted into the sentence, fit the
meaning of the sentence as a whole and yield complete sentences that are similar in meaning.
6. The Magna Carta was one of the most political declarations of the Middle Ages
because it declared the monarch's powers to be limited by the law; although its practical effects were not
immediate, it is commonly seen as the genesis of constitutional law in England.
A remarkable
B immense
C pivotal
D recondite
E ancient
F momentous

7. Though filled the streets, people seemed unconcerned with the appearance of their city.
A detritus
B refuge
C gaudiness
D bedlam
E refuse
F barrenness

8. G. K. Chesterton's wit is exemplified in his often responses to his friend and rival
George Bernard Shaw.
A punctilious
B vociferous
C waggish
D vicious
E scathing
F Iighthearted

9. Electrotherapy has been used for over 150 years in various physical rehabilitation programs, even
though many of its precise effects remain
A ertain
B disputed
C disproved
D unstudied
31
E elusive
F precarious

10. Despite a long career at famous establishments, the noted croupier chose instead to join the new
casino, where he felt he was properly appreciated for his professional and efficiency at the table.
A articulation
B demeanor
C reputation
D history
E mien
F dexterity

Questions 11 through 13 are based on the passage below.

The advent of online education in the first decade of the 21st century was the result of and a response to a
number of factors that were both internal and external to the field of higher education. Traditional tertiary
institutions, especially those that were privately endowed, raised tuition rates far in excess of the rate of
inflation. This, in concert with a larger demand for postsecondary education for working adults, helped
facilitate the introduction of online learning. However, it should be acknowledged that the relative simplicity
of using the Internet as a platform, as well as its cost-effectiveness, was seized upon by entrepreneurs in the
private sector. Online education is largely in the hands of for-profit companies. The question now becomes
whether the democratization of higher education is worth the price of removing it from nonprofit, research-
based universities.

11. The passage is concerned primarily with

A the advent of online education
B adult-oriented educational systems
C the usefulness of the Internet in postsecondary education
D economic and technological factors that influenced the development and
current state of online education
E the advantages and disadvantages of online education

12. The author’s use of the term “seized upon” evokes an image of on the part of the entrepreneurs.
A accidental realization
B opportunistic tactics
C violent appropriation
D collusive behavior
E market manipulation

13. The highlighted section refers to

A the cost of online education
B the popularity of online courses
C making education available to a wider range of students
D the role of voting in class selection
E whether or not a democratic society should have online education

Questions 14 is based on the passage below.

Criticisms of the automaticity model of reading acquisition include a lack of focus on comprehension as the
ultimate goal of reading. Too much focus on fluency to the neglect of comprehension is a correlative
criticism. Miscue analysis, tracking students’ errors or “miscues,” has demonstrated that even early readers
use prediction as well as translation into dialect as they read, thereby using tools outside of those described in
the automaticity model. A third criticism is that dyslexic readers, because of the inherent decoding problems
they face, necessarily have trouble following the model and sustaining the reading rates recommended for
fluency.
14. The passage suggests that all the following are flaws in the automaticity model of reading
acquisition EXCEPT
A failure to consider all the methods commonly used by developing readers
B measuring reading ability by fluency
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C prioritizing efficiency in reading over understanding
D insufficient research
E its application in groups of readers who have difficulties decoding reading material

Questions 15–18 are based on the following passage.

There is an anthropological theory that states that societies may be divided into one of two broad categories
by their cultural motivators: shame or guilt. In a shame-based society, the ethical motivations are primarily
external; one’s behavior is governed based on potential effects on the social group (such as dishonoring
one’s family). By contrast, guilt-based societies rely more heavily on internal motivations; one’s behavior is
governed based on a set of internal guidelines. There is no society where one or the other is entirely absent,
but the distinction lies in that, based on the accepted values of the society, one will come to be dominant
over the other. It would seem that early Medieval Europe was primarily a shame-based society; indeed, the
forms of shame-based motivators in courtly society were extremely highly developed, with express social
laws governing various behaviors. This sort of shame may be seen to be divided into many forms, such as
positive and negative shame; that is, prospective and retrospective (knowledge of the honor one will accrue
or the shame one will avoid through future actions, and humiliation or other punishment after something
harmful has been done, respectively), ethical and nonethical (dealing with higher, such as theological and
abstract, concepts, and quotidian matters, respectively), and so on. These social structures may also be found
in the contemporary tales of the chivalric world. An example of such may be seen in the frequent plot device
of the knight committing adultery with the wife of his lord. Adultery with the wife of one’s lord is a matter
of treason and an explicit moral wrong, and yet the condemnation in these stories seems to focus on the
perpetrator’s violation of social norms (treason) rather than moral standards (adultery).

15. Read the following statements and select all that apply. Which of the following CANNOT be
inferred from the passage?
A Early Medieval Europe was unconcerned with moral codes.
B Some cultures are neither shame-based nor guilt-based.
C Guilt-based societies have few laws.

16. Select the sentence that describes the scope of the passage.

17. Consider the following choices and select all that apply. What can we infer about a society that
focuses primarily upon a moral code of right and wrong?
A It would be guilt-based.
B It would tolerate adultery.
C It would not have laws governing behavior.

18. Based on the passage, a society that prizes the harmony of the social group would most likely be
A guilt-based
B shame-based
C extremely permissive
D governed by a chivalric order
E bereft of citizens with an internal code of moral right and wrong

Questions 19–20 are based on the following passage.

At the atomic scale, all matter exhibits properties commonly associated with both waves and particles. The
classic experiment that demonstrates wavelike properties is the double-slit experiment, first performed by
Thomas Young at the beginning of the 19th century. If a beam of light passes through two narrow slits and is
projected onto a screen behind the slits, a pattern of light and dark fringes can be observed. The explanation
for this is based on an analogy with ripples in water. If we drop two stones some distance apart, the ripples
start to interfere with each other, sometimes amplifying when two crests or troughs meet, sometimes
canceling when a crest meets a trough. A similar explanation holds for interference effects with visible light;
the two slits act as independent sources in the same way as do the stones in water. This experiment provided
convincing evidence in support of Christian Huygen’s wave theory of light, which eventually supplanted the
older particle theory of Isaac Newton. However, in the 20th century, Einstein showed that Newton was not
entirely wrong. His analysis of the photoelectric effect showed that light could behave as a particle as well as
33
a wave. Surprisingly, electrons, which we tend to think of as particles, also demonstrate interference effects,
showing that they too are waves as well as particles.

19. Which of the following best summarizes the findings of Young’s experiment, as described in the
passage?
A The waves from independent light sources interact with one another in predictable patterns.
B Two light sources can cancel each other out, creating the observed dark fringes.
C Light exhibits properties of both particles and waves.
D Newton’s theory was permanently debunked.
E Newton’s theory was correct all along.

20. Based on the passage, what would we expect the light fringes in Young’s experiment to represent?
A the light particles from both slits landing on the screen
B the amplification created by the combination of both sets of waves of light
C the projection onto the screen where the light is not blocked out by the object with the slits
D the amplification created by light particles
E the projection onto the screen where the light is blocked by the object
with the slits

TEST 2
Section 1
Choose the word or set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
1. Historians often use the merciless Russian winter as for the failure of various military
invasions of Russia; they cite the armies of Charles XII of Sweden, Napoleon Bonaparte, and Adolf Hitler
as examples of forces that suffered heavy casualties due to the harsh conditions.
A a defense
B an excuse
C a justification
D an explanation
E a rationalization

2. Although he an image of anti-authoritarianism, Johnny Cash was a frequent visitor to

the White House and friends with several presidents during his life.
A advocated
B cultivated
C patronized
D supported
E snubbed

3. (i) mushrooms are popular in many cuisines; it is (ii) to eat those found in the

34
wild, as many frequently found mushrooms resemble edible mushrooms but are, in fact, (iii)
Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii)
A Considering D imprudent G poisonous
B While E cheaper H bland
C Because F ingenuous I toothsome

4. Considered one of his most (i) works, its incomplete status at the time of his death has
given Mozart's Requiem Mass in D Minor a certain (ii) in Western culture, and many (iii)
stories have arisen surrounding it; unfortunately, the truth is lost to us.
Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii)
A ignominious D obscurity G fraudulent
B inconspicuous E indifference H apocryphal
C famous F mystique I verified

5. The octopus is remarkable for its (i) , demonstrating exceptional problem solving
skills and memory, beyond its menial (ii) the octopus possesses exceptional physical
(iii) , allowing it to precisely manipulate objects.
Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii)
A physiology D acumen- wisdom G brilliant
B intelligence E acridity H genius
C creativity F trenchancy I dexterity

For the following questions, select the two answer choices that, when inserted into the sentence, fit the
meaning of the sentence as a whole and yield complete sentences that are similar in meaning.
6. Although the river itself had vanished, the banks and bed were years of erosion
from running water.
A a repudiation of
B witness to
C coarsened by
D an attestation to
E vindicated by
F recovered from

7. While he was still , the doctors advised Phillip to remain home, lest he was
contagious, even though his symptoms had receded.
A impaired
B ailing
C convalescing
D nauseous
E enfeebled
F recuperating

8. The advent of the Internet has created an unprecedented increase in communication

as it allows for the near-instant transmission of information.
A potential
B controversies
C theories
D litigation
E prospects
F revolutions

9. Although she did not approve of her father's smoking, she was forced to admit that the smell of
his pipe tobacco was her youth.
A reminiscent of
B redolent of
C salubrious for
D pungent with
E odorous with
F evocative of
35
10. Her fractured wrist made the aspiring flutist about her future career; however, her
doctor assured her it would heal without long-term damage.
A alarmed
B truculent
C panegyrical
D disquieted
E ebullient
F phlegmatic

Questions 11 through 14 are based on the passage below.

Writing of the Iroquois nation, Smith has argued that through the chiefs' council, tribal chiefs
traditionally maintained complete control over the political affairs of both the Iroquois tribal league
and the individual tribes belonging to the league, whereas the sole jurisdiction over religious affairs
resided with the shamans.
According to Smith, this division was maintained until the late nineteenth century, when the
dissolution of the chiefs' council and the consequent diminishment of the chiefs' political power
fostered their increasing involvement in religious affairs. However, Smith fails to recognize that
this division of power between the tribal chiefs and shamans was not actually rooted in Iroquois
tradition; rather, it resulted from the Iroquois' resettlement on reservations early in the nineteenth
century. Prior to resettlement, the chiefs' council controlled only the broad policy of the tribal league;
individual tribes had institutions? most important, the longhouse? to govern their own affairs. In the
longhouse, the tribe's chief influenced both political and religious affairs.

11. The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A) question the published conclusions of a scholar concerning the history of the Iroquois nation
(B) establish the relationship between an earlier scholar's work and new anthropological research
(C) summarize scholarly controversy concerning an incident from Iroquois history.
(D) trace two generations of scholarly opinion concerning Iroquois social institutions
(E) differentiate between Iroquois political practices and Iroquois religious practices

12. It can be inferred that the author of the passage regards Smith's argument as
(A) provocative and potentially useful, but flawed by poor organization
(B) eloquently presented, but needlessly inflammatory
(C) accurate in some of its particulars, but inaccurate with regard to an important point
(D) historically sound, but overly detailed and redundant
(E) persuasive in its time, but now largely outdated

13. The author of the passage implies that which of the following occurred after the Iroquois were
resettled on reservations early in the nineteenth century?
(A) Chiefs became more involved in their tribes' religious affairs.
(B) The authority of the chiefs' council over the affairs of individual tribes increased.
(C) The political influence of the Iroquois shamans was diminished.
(D) Individual tribes coalesced into the Iroquois tribal league.
(E) The longhouse because a political rather than a religious institution.

14. Which of the following best expresses an opinion presented by the author of the passage?
(A) Smith has overstated the importance of the political role played by Iroquois tribal chiefs in the
nineteenth century.
(B) Smith has overlooked the fact that the Iroquois rarely allowed their shamans to exercise political
authority.
(C) Smith has failed to explain why the chiefs' council was dissolved late in the nineteenth century.
(D) Smith has failed to acknowledge the role prior to the nineteenth century of the Iroquois tribal chiefs in
religious affairs.
(E) Smith has failed to recognize that the very structure of Iroquois social institutions reflects religious
beliefs.

36
Questions 15 through 17 are based on the passage below.
As of the late 1980's neither theorists nor large scale computer climate models could accurately predict
whether cloud systems would help or hurt a warming globe. Some studies suggested that a four percent
increase in stratocumulus clouds over the ocean could compensate for a doubling in atmospheric carbon
dioxide, preventing a potentially disastrous planet wide temperature increase. On the other hand, an
increase in cirrus clouds could increase global warming.
That clouds represented the weakest element in climate models was illustrated by a study of fourteen such
models. Comparing climate forecasts for a world with double the current amount of carbon dioxide,
researchers found that the models agreed quite well if clouds were not included. But when clouds were
incorporated, a wide range of forecasts was produced. With such discrepancies plaguing the models,
scientists could not easily predict how quickly the world's climate would change, nor could they tell
which regions would face dustier droughts or deadlier monsoons.

15. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with

(A) confirming a theory
(B) supporting a statement
(C) presenting new information
(D) predicting future discoveries
(E) reconciling discrepant findings

16. It can be inferred that the primary purpose of the models included in the study discussed in the second
paragraph of the passage was to
(A) predict future changes in the world's climate
(B) predict the effects of cloud systems on the world's climate
(C) find a way to prevent a disastrous planet wide temperature increase
(D) assess the percentage of the Earth's surface covered by cloud systems
(E) estimate by how much the amount of carbon dioxide in the Earth's atmosphere will increase

17. The information in the passage suggests that scientists would have to answer which of the following
questions in order to predict the effect of clouds on the warming of the globe?
(A) What kinds of cloud systems will form over the Earth?
(B) How can cloud systems be encouraged to form over the ocean?
(C) What are the causes of the projected planet wide temperature increase?
(D) What proportion of cloud systems are currently composed of cirrus of clouds?
(E) What proportion of the clouds in the atmosphere form over land masses?

Questions 18 through 20 are based on the passage below.

Toward the end of the 19th century, many scientists thought that all the great scientific discoveries had
already been made and that there was not much left to do beyond some “tidying up.” Max Planck, born in
1858, turned this notion upside down with his study of black-body radiation. Even in a vacuum, a hot body
will tend to come to thermal equilibrium with a colder body by radiative heat transfer. This is the principle
by which we derive energy from the sun. However, measurement of black-body radiation frequencies across
a range of temperatures resulted in a parabolic curve, which theory in Planck’s time could not explain. After
many years of work devoted to this problem, Planck succeeded in quantitatively explaining the experimental
data; his key insight was that energy comes in small, discrete packets, called quanta. His theory was the
birth of what is called quantum mechanics, the revolutionary theory of matter that is fundamental to the
modern understanding of physics, chemistry, and molecular biology.

18. Select the sentence that best describes the importance of Max Planck’s work to modern science, as
described in the passage.

19. Which of the following would best paraphrase the opening sentence?
A By the late 1800s, much of the scientific community felt it had completed the majority of its work and
minor revisions were its only remaining task.
B By 1900, few scientists were still making significant discoveries, and most projects were revising current
theories.
C At the end of the 19th century, scientists were concerned that they had run out of discoveries to make and
could only perfect already proven theories.
37
D By 1900, the scientific community had declared that it had come to understand the natural laws of the
universe.
E At the end of the 19th century, scientists ceased trying to formulate new theories.

20. Which of the following best describes the relationship between the highlighted portions of the
passage?
A topic and scope
B theory and debunking
C problem and solution
D hypothesis and analysis
E thesis and synthesis

TEST 2
Section 2
Choose the word or set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
1. Unwilling to admit that they had been in error, the researchers tried to their case with more data
obtained from dubious sources.
A. ascertain
B. buttress
C. refute
D. absolve
E. dispute
2. Archaeology is a poor profession; modest sums are available for excavating sites and even more
(i) amounts for preserving the excavations. As a result many sites that are still to reveal even a
fraction of their potentially vital information have been (ii) and left to the
forces of Nature. Re-opening such sites in the future will be all but (iii) .
Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii)
A. paltry D. abandoned G. trivial
B. controversial E. overworked H. impossible
C. abundant F. denuded I. rewarding

3. The student was extremely foolhardy; he had the to question the senior professor's judgment.
A. wisdom
B. temerity
C. interest
D. trepidation
E. condescension

4. The formerly (i) waters of the lake have become (ii) . So even though the waters are teeming
with life, fish are no longer visible from the surface.
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
murky tranquil
stagnant verdant
pellucid turbid

5. After the accident, the nerves to her arm were damaged and so the muscles through disuse.
A. atrophied
B. contracted
C. elongated
D. invigorated
E. dwindled
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For the following questions, select the two answer choices that, when inserted into the sentence, fit the
meaning of the sentence as a whole and yield complete sentences that are similar in meaning.
6. Although English is the de facto language of the United States of America, its being made the
official language is given the diversity of the population, in particular the rapid rise in the
Spanish-speaking demographic.
A feasible
B unlikely
C improbable
D impossible
E plausible
F preposterous

7. As excited as he was to have been chosen for the reality television show, he was
about involving his family, particularly his children, whom he felt would not understand the situation
fully.
A thrilled
B timorous
C vacillating
D horrified
E resigned
F wavering

8. Because the architect had found evidence of decay in a supporting wall, her official
report the structural integrity of the building as a likely cause of the accident. A proposed
B validated
C rejected
D advanced
E deplored
F condemned

9. Max's repertoire of cooking techniques was remarkably broad, allowing him to draw upon many
culinary traditions to create dishes.
A artful
B catholic
C dilettantish
D eclectic
E savory
F ambrosial

10. The space shuttle is an

_____of human creativity and
engineering, unparalleled in its
complexity and ingenuity.
A expression
B apogee
C encroachment
D assertion
E excess
F apex- top

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11. He visiting Blarney Castle, fearing the summer tourist crowds, and chose a quieter
destination for himself.
A contemplated
B eschewed
C deprecated
D considered
E forwent
F discouraged

Questions 12 through 15 are based on the passage below.

The origins of the English language can be traced back to the Saxon and other Germanic settlers in Britain
beginning in the 5th century CE. The English language’s unusual nature can be attributed to the diverse
linguistic origins of the groups that contributed to its development and their role in English society.
Although English belongs to the Germanic language family and its grammatical and syntactical rules reflect
this, English vocabulary can be seen to be from multiple origins. In fact, a large part of the vocabulary was
not derived from the Germanic languages at all but is rather of Latin origin. This can be explained by the
influence on Old English of Old French and Latin during the Norman Invasion in the 11 th century. By the
time of the Norman Invasion, Old English was already a language, with both its grammar and vocabulary
based in the Germanic language family. However, the establishment of a ruling class who spoke a Romance
language caused significant changes in the indigenous tongue. It is also interesting to note that there is a
distinct correlation between the length of a word and its origin—most of the shorter words in the English
language are derived from the Germanic languages, whereas the longer words are from a Latin background.
One theory to explain this is that these more elaborate and complex words were primarily used by the elite
after the Norman Invasion—who would have favored a Latin-based (or Romance) vocabulary—whereas
words with the same meaning in the Old English were used primarily by the lower classes and thus fell into
disuse. Modern English words, then, concerning more complex and theoretical rather than utilitarian ideas
(astronomy, poetry, and epistemology), can generally be found to be of Romance origin, whereas more
mundane words, such as pronouns and auxiliary verbs, can be traced back to a Germanic origin.

12. Which of the following is implied by the passage?

A English was more heavily influenced by Germanic languages than by Romance languages.
B In the 11th century, English speakers of the lower classes did not discuss abstract, theoretical topics.
C No auxiliary verbs in English can be traced back to a Latin-based origin.
D English owes some of its abnormality to the Norman Invasion.
E Fewer words in English are derived from Latin than from the Germanic languages.

13. Read the following answer choices and select all that apply. The passage suggests that the word
“they,” a pronoun, would most likely have which of the following origins?
A Germanic
B Romance
C Norse

14. Based on the passage, what is a likely reason why English has not been reclassified as a Romance
language?
A It developed as a Germanic language in its first incarnation, Old English.
B The core of the language, its grammar and syntax, is still Germanic.
C A larger portion of the English vocabulary is Germanic rather than
Romance.
D The Normans felt an affinity for the local tongue, which was Germanic.
E Neither linguistic heritage has a claim to preeminence.

15. Read the following choices and select all that apply. Which of the following can be inferred from
the passage?
A Searching for meaning based on the Latin root of a word is less likely to be useful in shorter words.
B The language spoken by the Saxon and Germanic settlers entirely supplanted the indigenous tongue of
5th-century Britain.
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C The discussion of complex ideas during the Norman era in England was primarily the domain of the
ruling class.

Questions 16 through 18 are based on the passage below.

When literary periods are defined on the basis of men's writing women's writing must be forcibly
assimilated into an irrelevant grid: a Renaissance that is not a renaissance for women, a Romantic period
in which women played very little part, a modernism with which women conflict. Simultaneously, the
history of women's writing has been suppressed, leaving large, mysterious gaps in accounts of the
development of various genres. Feminist criticism is beginning to correct this situation. Margaret Anne
Doody, for example, suggests that during "the period between the death of Richardson and the appearance
of the novels of Scott and Austen," which has "been regarded as a dead period." Late-eighteenth-century
women writers actually developed "the paradigm for women's fiction of the nineteenth century—
something hardly less then the paradigm of the nineteenth-century novel itself." Feminist critics have also
pointed out that the twentieth-century writer Virginia Woolf belonged to a tradition other than modernism
and that this tradition surfaces in her work precisely where criticism has hitherto found obscurities
evasions, implausibilities, and imperfections.

16. It can be infected from the passage that the author views the division of literature into periods based
on men's writing as an approach that
(A) makes distinctions among literary periods ambiguous
(B) is appropriate for evaluating only premodern literature
(C) was misunderstood until the advent of feminist criticism
(D) provides a valuable basis from which feminist criticism has evolved
(E) obscures women's contributions to literature
17. The author quotes Doody most probably in order to illustrate
(A) a contribution that feminist criticism can make to literary criticism
(B) a modernist approach that conflicts with women's writing
(C) writing by a woman which had previously been ignored
(D) the hitherto overlooked significance of Scott’s and Austen’s novels
(E) a standard system of defining literary periods

18. The passage provides information that answers which of the following questions?
(A) In what tradition do feminist critics usually place Virginia Woolf?
(B) What are the main themes of women's fiction of the nineteenth century?
(C) What events motivated the feminist reinterpretation of literary history?
(D) How has the period between Richardson's death and Scott's and Ansten's novels traditionally been
regarded by critics?
(E) How was the development of the nine tenth century novel by women’s fiction in the same century?

Questions 19 through 20 are based on the passage below.

The term teleology refers to the doctrine that things in nature have a final purpose. Thus, an eye is for seeing,
a walk for health, a house for shelter, and a book for reading. Little t teleology so conceived, though, mustn’t
be confused with big t Teleology, according to which the whole of nature is either progressing, by virtue of
some world-historical or cosmic force, toward some overarching purpose or is already the embodiment of
some divine plan. That teleology needn’t entail Teleology is a cornerstone of evolutionary theory. From the
moment that organic life first appeared on Earth some 4.5 billion years ago, natural selection has been an
inexorable, unceasing, and entirely mindless process of winnowing and sifting through a set of design plans.
The geological record is littered with plant and animal species falling extinct under the pressures of climatic
and geographical changes. Only those designs that natural selection has blindly hit upon and that have
worked, designs that are well adapted to the specific environment and that therefore confer upon certain
organisms or certain species some ostensible advantage, will be inheritable by their progeny. This implies that
there is no Higher End, no Higher Purpose that governs the actions of intelligent and unintelligent life, only
local purposes fitting into the materialist picture of “selfish genes” seeking to pass on genetic information to
their descendants ad infinitum. There is therefore no Teleology from on high, only teleology all the way
down.

41
19. According to the passage, the principal difference between teleology and Teleology could be
understood in terms of the difference between
A quality and quantity
B example and concept
C property and object
D cause and effect
E part and whole

20. The primary purpose of the passage is to show how

A new species come into being through a process called natural selection
B evolution represents a change in our comprehension of all forms of life
C evolution through a set of randomly generated, rather than intentional, procedures is possible
D intelligent and sentient creatures are the inevitable results of natural
selection
E absolute ignorance works to create living beings much in the same way that absolute wisdom does

TEST 3
Section 1
Select one answer choice for the blank. Fill in the blank in such a way that it best completes the text.
1. Sarah's towards her sister only grew as they got older. Her sister was always the center of
attention, and therefore Sarah hated and resented her.
A. gratification
B. enmity
C. despondency
D. benignity
E. concern

2. Matthew was very conscious of his appearance. Every morning he would iron his shirts and pants.
Most people thought of him as a dresser.
A. imprudent
B. boorish
C. dull
D. natty
E. petite

3. Oscar Wilde might be more famous for his countless witty than for any of his plays.
A. epitaphs
B. epigraphs
C. epigrams
D. expostulations
E. excavations

For each blank select an answer choice from the corresponding column of choices. Fill all blanks in such
a way that they best complete the text.
4. After the loud (i) between her two daughters, the mother tried to (ii) their feelings by
giving them ice cream.
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
A. catalyst D. temper
B. altercation E. elucidate
C. F. underestimate

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5. In the 1980’s, Milton developed a reputation at the newspaper for being thoughtful and thorough, based
on his weekly (i) on current events. By 2011, though, with the rise of blogs and Twitter, most
readers considered his slow, reflective columns to be (ii) .
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
A. ruminations D. sloppy
B. summaries E. outmoded
C. embellishments F. revolutionary

6. The rumors about Edna’s affair started out as just a (i) of gossip, but soon it seemed like
everyone was talking about it. Eventually, these rumors reached her husband, but when he confronted her,
she claimed that the whole story was nonsense, a (ii) lie started by a woman at the salon who had a
grudge against her. Nevertheless, the rumors had (iii) the foundation of trust in Edna’s marriage,
and her husband soon filed for divorce.
Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii)
A. trickle D. venal G. vindicated
B. torrent E. vindictive H. fortified
C. deluge F. valid I. eroded

Question 7-9 are based on the passage below.

John Finnis developed his theory of natural law based on the structure that Thomas Aquinas provided, filling
in areas where he felt that Aquinas’s theory was lacking; he also amended other aspects of the theory to
respond to a world much more culturally diverse than the one in which Aquinas lived. Unlike Aquinas, who
gives only a vague account of the first precepts of the natural law, Finnis locates a specific number of basic
human goods. Finnis avoids the charge that his theory falls into the “naturalistic fallacy” by asserting that
these goods are not moral in themselves but become moral through human participation in them. In addition,
these goods are not hierarchical, which allows a much greater range of freedom in choosing actions. Finally,
Finnis’s theory does not require the presence of God. Though curiosity about the nature of the universe is one
of his basic human goods, the actual existence of God is not required by his theory. Finnis’s theory raises as
many questions as it answers. While formulating an interesting answer to the “is/ought” problem and giving a
much more robust definition of human volition than Aquinas, his solutions create their own problems. His
account of the goods is stripped of any method for evaluation. The boundaries of each good are difficult to
discern. Further, by asserting that each good is self-evident and equal to all the others, Finnis makes any
action taken in furtherance of any of them equivalent morally. Finally, by removing the precepts of natural
law from our natural habits and inclinations, placing them instead in self-evident goods, Finnis seems not to
be describing our nature at all.

7. Based on the passage, what is the most likely meaning of “good” according to Finnis?
A a physical object, such as foodstuffs or textiles
B morally correct action as determined by God
C an action that helps us achieve a desirable, material end
D something self-evident that we ought to strive to embrace
E something that is naturally occurring

8. Based on the passage, the existence of which of the following would most likely undermine Finnis’s
definition of “goods”?
A proof of the existence of God
B goods that demand opposing actions
C the demands of our natural desires
D the definition of additional goods
E a method for evaluating goods

9. Read the following answer choices carefully and select all that apply.
According to the passage, which of the following is NOT an improvement of Finnis’s theory of natural
law over Aquinas’s?
A avoiding the “naturalistic fallacy”
B removing the necessity of God in his definition of “good”
C curtailing freedom in human actions

43
Questions 10 and 13 are based on the passage below.
Shakespeare's England was an agricultural country of four or five million inhabitants. It fed itself, except
when poor harvests compelled the importation of grain, and it supplemented agriculture by grazing,
fishing, and commerce, chiefly with the Netherlands, but growing in many directions. The forests were
becoming thin, but the houses were still of timber; the roads were poor, the large towns mostly seaports.
The dialects spoken were various, but the speech of the midland counties had become established in
London, at the universities, and in printed books, and was rapidly increasing its dominance. The
monasteries and religious orders were gone, but feudalism still held sway, and the people were divided
into classes,—the various ranks of the nobility, the gentry, the yeomen, the burgesses, and the common
people. But changes from one class to another were numerous; for many lords were losing their
inheritances by extravagance, while many business men were putting their profits into land. In spite of
persecutions, occasional insurrections, and the plague which devastated the unsanitary towns, it was a
time of peace and prosperity. The coinage was reformed, roads were improved, taxes were not
burdensome, and life in the country was more comfortable and secure than it had been. Books and
education were spreading. Numerous grammar schools taught Latin, the universities made provision for
poor students, and there were now many careers besides that of the church open to the educated man.

10. From this paragraph, we can infer that Shakespeare grew up in a time of:
A. Monetary variance and class conflict. The divide between the rich and the poor became a
significant division throughout Shakespeare’s life.
B. Agricultural hardships, but progressive and growing educational opportunities.
C. Religious war.
D. Growth, harmony, and affluence.
E. Strife and struggle between the nobility and peasant class.

11. The phrase “for many lords were losing their inheritances by extravagance” most likely means:
A. The lords lost their inheritances in great numbers.
B. The lords lost their inheritances due to excessive spending.
C. The lords lost their inheritances due to their inappropriate speech and actions.
D. The lords lost their inheritances due to their great need for frugality.
E. The lords lost their inheritances because of the change in land values.

12. The word compelled in the second sentence of the paragraph most likely means:
A. To necessitate
B. To secure
C. To delay
D. To intimidate
E. To embolden

13. We can infer from this passage that the larger work from which this passage was taken is most likely
about:
A. England’s agricultural growth
B. The burgeoning middle class, and their struggles
C. Feudalism in England
D. The various ranks and classes of English nobility
E. Shakespeare’s life and experiences

For the following questions, select the two answer choices that, when inserted into the sentence, fit the
meaning of the sentence as a whole and yield complete sentences that are similar in meaning.
14. Completing the new bridge had long been a goal of the mayor’s, but the technical difficulties proved
.
A. cathartic
B. insuperable
C. vivacious
D. irrelevant
E. infantile
F. insurmountable

44
15. Brenda’s new dietary restrictions, based on her desire to adopt a healthier lifestyle, struck Walter as
.
A. austere
B. lacerating
C. cavalier
D. extravagant
E. excessive
F. abstemious

16. Bill knew he could not afford to ; his boss needed the project finished within the hour.
A. procrastinated
B. lollygag
C. dawdle
D. consolidate
E. expedite
F. pirouette

17. In contrast to the colors of Elizabeth’s wardrobe, Andrew preferred clothes that were bright
and flamboyant.
A. garish
B. outlandish
C. extravagant
D. muted
E. voracious
F. understated

Question 18 is based on the passage below.

The same truth is now known about crime; but the understanding and the application of it are just opening
upon us. The old and still dominant thought is, as to cause, that a crime is caused by the inscrutable moral
free will of the human being, doing or not doing the crime, just as it pleases; absolutely free in advance, at
any moment of time, to choose or not to choose the criminal act, and therefore in itself the sole and
ultimate cause of crime. As to treatment, there still are just two traditional measures — jail, or a fine (for
death is now employed in rare cases only). But modern science, here as in medicine, recognizes that crime
also (like disease) has natural causes. It need not be asserted for one moment that crime is a disease. But it
does have natural causes. And as to treatment, modern science recognizes that penal or remedial treatment
cannot possibly be indiscriminate and machine- like, but must be adapted to the causes, and to the man as
affected by those causes.
Select all of the choices that are correct answers to the question. Consider each of the choices separately.
18. The author believes which of the following?
A. The dominant thought lies in the fact that crime is caused by free will
B. Free will is the only cause of crime
C. Crime is not a disease

Questions 19- 20 are based on the passage below.

A serious critic has to comprehend the particular content, unique structure, and special meaning of a work of
art. And here she faces a dilemma. The critic must recognize the artistic element of uniqueness that requires
subjective reaction; yet she must not be unduly prejudiced by such reactions. Her likes and dislikes are less
important than what the work itself communicates, and her preferences may blind her to certain qualities of
the work and thereby prevent an adequate understanding of it. Hence, it is necessary that a critic develop a
sensibility informed by familiarity with the history of art and aesthetic theory. On the other hand, it is
insufficient to treat the artwork solely historically, in relation to a fixed set of ideas or values. The critic’s
knowledge and training are, rather, a preparation of the cognitive and emotional abilities needed for an
adequate personal response to an artwork’s own particular qualities.

1. According to the author, a serious art critic may avoid being prejudiced by her subjective reactions if she
(A) treats an artwork in relation to a fixed set of ideas and values

45
(B) brings to her observation a knowledge of art history and aesthetic theory
(C) allows more time for the observation of each artwork
(D) takes into account the preferences of other art critics
(E) limits herself to that art with which she has adequate familiarity

2. The author implies that it is insufficient to treat a work of art solely historically because
(A) doing so would lead the critic into a dilemma
(B) doing so can blind the critic to some of the artwork’s unique qualities
(C) doing so can insulate the critic from personally held beliefs
(D) subjective reactions can produce a biased response
(E) critics are not sufficiently familiar with art history

TEST 3
Section 2
Select one answer choice for the blank. Fill in the blank in such a way that it best completes the text.
1. The Cure’s best work to date remains “Disintegration,” a song that sounds so much like its title that
any further description would be .
A. exquisite
B. requisite
C. superfluous
D. noxious
E. perfunctory

2. His virtues were much talked about, and in fact he was praised for once having walked 12
miles just to return a cup of flour that he had borrowed.
A. lowly
B. surreptitious
C. resplendent
D. pithy
E. homely

For each blank select an answer choice from the corresponding column of choices. Fill all blanks in such
a way that they best complete the text.
3. My grandmother and I ascended the (i) , and we were rewarded with a nice view of the city and
its surrounding .
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
A. nadir D. suburbs
B. hummock E. urchin
C. reprise F. plumage

4. Laura decided it was time for a new haircut. She told the hairstylist she wanted shorter bangs, and
maybe a subtle (i) of red added to her blond hair. Yet as soon as the hairstylist started (ii)
away with the scissors, Laura began to have second thoughts.
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
A. D. snipping
B. dint E. sniping
C. tint F.

5. Thomas Pynchon’s unconventional and groundbreaking masterpiece Gravity’s Rainbow (i)

experimental fiction of the second half of the twentieth century. His narrative weaves together elements
of science fiction, Broadway musicals, and picaresque comedy. His esoteric references to pop culture,
history, and science are so wide-ranging and complex that many critics complain that the novel is too
(ii) to be fully understood or enjoyed. But then writers considered experimental and (iii)
often face a long and arduous journey toward a wider acceptance and appreciation.

46
Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii)
A. exemplifies D. arcane G. banal
B. unadorns E. obvious H. avant-garde
C. beatifies F. celibate I. artisan

6. To anyone watching the interview, it was clear that the reporter was (i) on portraying the
senator as corrupt and dishonest. He quoted several of the senator’s opponents, who said that the senator
had taken bribes. He even made an (ii) that the senator was having an extramarital affair. Only two
days later, after being chastised by both his network and his viewers for making biased and
unsubstantiated claims, did the reporter take to the air to (iii) his opinions.
Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii)
A. bent D. obfuscation G. temper
B. founded E. approbation H. aggravate
C. undecided F. insinuation I. contort

Questions 7 and 9 are based on the passage below.

Currently, the paramount problem in the field of biomaterials, the science of replacing diseased tissue with
human-made implants, is control over the interface, or surface, between implanted biomaterials and living
tissues. The physical properties of most tissues can be matched by careful selection of raw materials:
metals, ceramics, or several varieties of polymer materials. Even the requirement that biomaterials
processed from these materials be nontoxic to host tissue can be met by techniques derived from studying
the reactions of tissue cultures to biomaterials or from short-term implants. But achieving necessary
matches in physical properties across interfaces between living and non-living matter requires knowledge
of which molecules control the bonding of cells to each other—an area that we have not yet explored
thoroughly. Although recent research has allowed us to stabilize the tissue-biomaterial interface by
controlling either the chemical reactions or the microstructure of the biomaterial, our fundamental
understanding of how implant devices adhere to tissues remains woefully incomplete.

7. According to the passage, the major problem currently facing scientists in the field of biomaterials is
(A) assessing and regulating the bonding between host tissue and implants
(B) controlling the transfer of potentially toxic materials across the interface of tissue and implant
(C) discovering new materials from which to construct implant devices
(D) deciding in what situations implants are needed
(E) determining the importance of short-term implants to long-term stability of tissue-implant interfaces
8. The passage suggests which of the following about the recent research?
(A) It has solved one set of problems but has created another.
(B) It has concentrated on secondary concerns but has ignored primary concerns.
(C) It has improved practical applications of biomaterial technology without providing a complete
theoretical explanation of that improvement.
(D) It has thoroughly investigated properties of biomaterials but has paid little attention to relevant
characteristics of human tissue.
(E) It has provided considerable information on short-term implant technology but little on long-term
implant technology.
9. The author’s primary purpose is to
(A) answer a theoretical question in the field of biomaterials
(B) discuss the current state of technology in the field of biomaterials
(C) resolve a research dispute in the field of biomaterial
(D) predict an ethical crisis for biomaterials researchers
(E) suggest some practical benefits of biomaterial implants

Questions 10 and 11 are based on the passage below.

About a century ago, after, the American and French Revolutions and the Napoleonic wars, the present
industrial era opened, and brought with it a new governing class, as every considerable change in human
environment must bring with it a governing class to give it expression. Perhaps, for lack of a recognized
name, I may describe this class as the industrial capitalistic class, composed in the main of administrators
and bankers. As nothing in the universe is stationary, ruling classes have their rise, culmination, and
47
decline, and I conjecture that this class attained to its acme of popularity and power, at least in America,
toward the close of the third quarter of the nineteenth century. I draw this inference from the fact that in
the next quarter resistance to capitalistic methods began to take shape in such legislation as the Interstate
Commerce Law and the Sherman Act, and almost at the opening of the present century a progressively
rigorous opposition found for its mouthpiece the President of the Union himself. History may not be a
very practical study, but it teaches some useful lessons, one of which is that nothing is accidental, and that
if men move in a given direction, they do so in obedience to an impulsion as automatic as is the impulsion
of gravitation.
Select all of the choices that are correct answers to the question. Consider each of the choices separately.
10. Drawing from this passage, we can infer that the author believes the following:
A. Nothing is constant
B. Everything is accidental
C. Revolution always brings change

11. In the phrase, “this class attained to its acme of popularity and power,” the word “acme” most likely
means:
A. business
B. flow
C. nadir
D. highest point of achievement
E. succession

For the following questions, select the two answer choices that, when inserted into the sentence, fit the
meaning of the sentence as a whole and yield complete sentences that are similar in meaning.
12. Most critics agreed that the latest superhero blockbuster was boring and suffered from
writing and acting.
A. virtuosic
B. unenthusiastic
C. galvanizing
D. breathtaking
E. perfunctory
F. jocose

13. With the globalization and international scope of modern business, many companies prefer to hire
employees.
A. nationalistic
B. polyglot
C. chimerical
D. multilingual
E. endomorphic
F. petite

14. Because Vera did not say what she wanted for her birthday, her parents weren’t sure what
to get her for a present.
A. unequivocally
B. ambiguously
C. coarsely
D. explicitly
E. gently
F. ambivalently

15. After the famous author’s sudden death, many of his fans hoped that the final novel in his trilogy
would be published posthumously. Upon examination of his notes, however, his editor reported some
disappointing news: the novel was nowhere near finished, and most of what existed amounted to a chaotic
of notes and scribblings.
A. serendipity
B. welter
C. organization
48
D. jalopy
E. mess
F. conduit

16. Unlike the other children in his school, Raymond displayed a talent for writing, producing
three entire novels and one epic poem by the age of ten.
A. restrained
B. highly advanced
C. common
D. precocious
E. fairly ordinary
F. commendable

Questions 17 and 18 are based on the passage below.

The American frontier is sharply distinguished from the European frontier -- a fortified boundary line
running through dense populations. The most significant thing about the American frontier is, that it lies
at the hither edge of free land. In the census reports it is treated as the margin of that settlement which has
a density of two or more to the square mile. The term is an elastic one, and for our purposes does not need
sharp definition. We shall consider the whole frontier belt, including the Indian country and the outer
margin of the "settled area" of the census reports. This paper will make no attempt to treat the subject
exhaustively; its aim is simply to call attention to the frontier as a fertile field for investigation, and to
suggest some of the problems which arise in connection with it.
Select all of the choices that are correct answers to the question. Consider each of the choices separately.
17. It can be inferred that the phrase "elastic one" suggests which of the following?
A. The American frontier’s boundaries are more fluid than static
B. The ways in which we define the American frontier differ and are multifarious
C. The American frontier can be defined in very specific and distinct terms
18. We can infer that the larger essay from which the passage is take focuses mainly on
A. The differences between the American frontier and the European frontier
B. The European settlements on the American frontier
C. The positive and negative effects of the American frontier
D. The importance of census reports
E. The fluctuation of population groups on the American frontier

Questions 19 and 20 are based on the passage below.

New York City, in 1776, lay at the end of Manhattan Island, in shape somewhat like an arrow-head, with
its point turned towards the sea and its barbs extended at uneven lengths along the East and Hudson
rivers. It occupied no more space than is now included within the five lower and smallest of its twenty-
four wards. Excepting a limited district laid out on the east side, in part as far as Grand street, the entire
town stood below the line of the present Chambers street, and covered an area less than one mile square.
Then, as now, Broadway was its principal thoroughfare. Shaded with rows of trees, and lined mainly with
residences, churches, and public-houses, it stretched something more than a mile to the grounds of the old
City Hospital, near Duane street. Its starting-point was the Battery at the end of the island, but not the
Battery of to-day; for, under the system of "harbor encroachments," the latter has more than trebled in
size, and is changed both in its shape and its uses. The city defences at that time occupied the site. Here at
the foot of Broadway old Fort George had been erected upon the base of the older Fort Amsterdam, to
guard the entrance to the rivers, and with its outworks was the only protection against an attack by sea. It
was a square bastioned affair, with walls of stone, each face eighty feet in length, and within it stood
magazines, barracks, and, until destroyed by fire, the mansion of the colonial governors. For additional
security, about the time of the French war, an extensive stone battery, with merlons of cedar joists, had
been built just below the fort along the water's edge, enclosing the point from river to river, and pierced
for ninety-one pieces of cannon.

19. We can infer that the larger work from which this passage was taken is most likely about:
A. The geography of New York
B. The battles over the control of New York City
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C. Seventeenth century New York
D. Changes on Manhattan Island
E. The old City Hospital

20. According to the author, what part of New York has stayed the same?
A. Broadway
B. Battery
C. Fort George
D. Fort Amsterdam
E. Morningside Heights

TEST 4
Section 1
Select one answer choice for the blank. Fill in the blank in such a way that it best completes the text.
1. The protesters outside the courthouse were determined to stay until their demands were met, and no
amount of from the police would sway them otherwise.
A. expostulation
B. acquiescence
C. coagulation
D. condemnation
E. resilience

2. With her teasing winks and smile, Wendy was considered a shameless flirt by most of her friends.
A. coquettish
B. rancorous
C. prim
D. smug
E. condescending
3. The environmentalist scolded me because I do not recycle, although she drives a gas-guzzling truck.
A. sanctimonious
B. resilient
C. quixotic
D. placid
E. jubilant

For each blank select an answer choice from the corresponding column of choices. Fill all blanks in such
a way that they best complete the text.
4. The (i) army officer was proven guilty for stealing and selling military equipment from other
officers in his (ii)

50
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
A. perfidious D.
B. principled E. gang
C. stealthy F.

5. Brian considered himself an existentialist. He believed neither in God nor an afterlife, and that any
happiness or success in this life was (i) and transitory. In his view, this very impermanence made
the good things in life all the more precious. His father, however, who believed that God and an eternal
afterlife were necessary for our lives to have meaning, found Brian’s viewpoint to be (ii) .
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
A. effervescent D.
B. ephemeral E. morbid
C. endless F. mordant

6. Years after his retirement, Michael Jordan still has the reputation of being perhaps the most
accomplished, unique, and (i) professional basketball player in history. His athletic and (ii)
style of play changed the game for a generation. And in the way he manage to translate his celebrity on
the basketball court into a worldwide marketing force, he has no (iii) ; no black athlete had ever
before achieved such widespread admiration and recognition.
Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii)
A. inimitable D. lackadaisical G. emulators
B. typical E. dynamic H. consequences
C. rivaled F. soporific I. precursor

7. During one of our tours in Africa, we were surprised to see and hear a huge (i) of elephants
coming towards our vehicle. Our tour guide immediately sped out of the way, and as the elephants
passed, we could feel the (ii) of wind from their flight.
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
A. herd D. gusts
B. stampede E. tads
C. circle F. breeze

8. Molly had always been loud, rude, and offensive, but with her behavior at Betty’s wedding, she had
taken her (i) to a new level. Faced with the unanimous (ii) by her disapproving friends, she
wrote a long apology to Betty.
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
A. magnanimity D. censorship
B. deceitfulness E. censor
C. obnoxiousness F. censure

For the following questions, select the two answer choices that, when inserted into the sentence, fit the
meaning of the sentence as a whole and yield complete sentences that are similar in meaning.
9. The chef became extremely nervous when she learned that two were having dinner at her
restaurant; she truly wanted to impress them.
A. gastronomes
B. epicures
C. eruditions
D. danseuses
E. armadillos
F. cherubs

10. It was Andrew’s opinion that crying, or some other kind of , was preferable to keeping one’s
feelings repressed, in the event of a parent’s death.
A. courtesy
B. release
C. deception
D. catharsis
E. acrimony
F. slyness
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11. Everyone invited Sara to their dinner parties. She was known for her fabulous dresses, her generosity
of spirit, and, especially, her sense of humor.
A. scintillating
B. conniving
C. banal
D. lugubrious
E. sparkling
F. bewildering

12. He was a sarcastic, witty writer; he was known for his style.
A. humorous
B. satirical
C. dramatic
D. ironic
E. gloomy
F. passionate

Questions 13 and 15 are based on the passage below.

Echolocating bats emit sounds in patterns—characteristic of each species—that contain both frequency-
modulated (FM) and constant-frequency (CF) signals. The broadband FM signals and the narrowband CF
signals travel out to a target, reflect from it, and return to the hunting bat. In this process of transmission and
reflection, the sounds are changed, and the changes in the echoes enable the bat to perceive features of the
target.
The FM signals report information about target characteristics that modify the timing and the fine frequency
structure, or spectrum, of echoes—for example, the target’s size, shape, texture, surface structure, and
direction in space. Because of their narrow bandwidth, CF signals portray only the target’s presence and, in
the case of some bat species, its motion relative to the bat’s. Responding to changes in the CF echo’s
frequency, bats of some species correct in flight for the direction and velocity of their moving prey.

13. According to the passage, the information provided to the bat by CF echoes differs from
that provided by FM echoes in which of the following ways?
(A) Only CF echoes alert the bat to moving targets.
(B) Only CF echoes identify the range of widely spaced targets.
(C) Only CF echoes report the target’s presence to the bat.
(D) In some species, CF echoes enable the bat to judge whether it is closing in on its target.
(E) In some species, CF echoes enable the bat to discriminate the size of its target and the
direction in which the target is moving.
14. According to the passage, the configuration of the target is reported to the echolocating bat
by changes in the
(A) echo spectrum of CF signals
(B) echo spectrum of FM signals
(C) direction and velocity of the FM echoes
(D) delay between transmission and reflection of the CF signals
(E) relative frequencies of the FM and the CF echoes
15. The author presents the information concerning bat sonar in a manner that could be best
described as
(A) argumentative
(B) commendatory
(C) critical
(D) disbelieving
(E) objective
16. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
(A) A fact is stated, a process is outlined, and specific details of the process are described.
(B) A fact is stated, and examples suggesting that a distinction needs correction are considered.
(C) A fact is stated, a theory is presented to explain that fact, and additional facts are introduced
to validate the theory.
52
(D) A fact is stated, and two theories are compared in light of their explanations of this fact.
(E) A fact is stated, a process is described, and examples of still another process are illustrated
in detail.

Questions 16 and 20 are based on the passage below.

Typically the queen honeybee is mother to all the bees in a hive; after mating with several male drones from
other colonies, she lays fertilized eggs that develop into all-female worker bees and lays unfertilized eggs that
become all-male drones. When a queen dies, workers often lay unfertilized eggs that hatch into drones. Yet
workers rarely reproduce while a queen reigns.
According to natural selection theory, a worker would enhance her fitness—or ability to propagate her
genes—by hatching her own eggs in addition to or in place of the queen’s. But a typical worker’s fitness
would be diminished if other workers’ sons, who have less genetic material in common with the worker,
supplanted the queen’s sons (the worker’s brothers). Researchers, testing the hypothesis that workers usually
somehow block each other’s attempts to reproduce, put unfertilized eggs laid by workers and by the queen
into a hive. Other workers quickly devoured the workers’ eggs while leaving the queen’s eggs alone.

17. The author refers to the experiment in order to

(A) explain how worker bees are prevented from mating with drones
(B) explain how worker bees hatch and nurture the queen’s young
(C) demonstrate the universality of natural selection
(D) show that worker bees are capable of thwarting each other’s attempts to reproduce
(E) provide a model of daily life in a typical honeybee hive
18. The inner workings in a honeybee hive that regulate reproduction, as they are described in the
passage, are most similar to which of the following types of human societies?
(A) A totalitarian society in which citizens’ “policing” of each other’s actions helps to maintain the status
quo.
(B) A pacifist state in which the individuals are strongly opposed to the use of violence or aggression to
settle disputes.
(C) A democratic society in which the voice of the majority rules.
(D) A parliamentary society in which a few members, organized as a cabinet wield executive power.
(E) An anarchic state in which order and stable social structures are lacking.
19. The passage best supports which of the following inferences about the fitness of honeybees?
(A) Reproduction diminishes any individual honeybee’s fitness.
(B) An individual worker’s fitness can be maintained without the individual herself reproducing.
(C) A hierarchy of stronger and weaker individuals among the worker bees determines which individuals
will reproduce when a queen dies.
(D) While a queen reigns, the fitness of the worker bees is increased and that of the drones is diminished.
(E) Fitness encourages worker bees to hatch honeybee eggs without regard for the relatedness of the young
to the “parent.”
20. The passage suggests which of the following about the eggs laid by worker bees?
(A) One of the eggs hatches into the next queen.
(B) The eggs are invariably destroyed by other worker bees.
(C) Each worker tries to hide her eggs from the other worker bees.
(D) The eggs hatch only if the worker has mated with a drone from another hive.
(E) The eggs are less likely to be harmed by other workers if the queen is dead.

53
TEST 4
Section 2
Select one answer choice for the blank. Fill in the blank in such a way that it best completes the text.
1. The sun found in the dense foliage of the trees and rendered brilliant patterns on the needle-
strewn forest floor.
A. occlusions
B. gibberish
C. countenance
D. interstices
E. inlays

2. The historian was overjoyed to have found the among the rubble in the ancient tomb; judging
from its contents, he would be able to ascertain whether the ancient people had prayed to a supreme
being.
A. defilade
B. reliquary
C. habiliments
D. sestina
E. macarism

For each blank select an answer choice from the corresponding column of choices. Fill all blanks in such
a way that they best complete the text.
3. While Deborah was (i) her toenails, she got distracted and ended up cutting into the flesh of her
toe. Immediately, she made an appointment with the (ii) to have her foot looked at.
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
A. biting D chemist
B. clicking E dermatologist
C. clipping F podiatrist

4. During the invasion, the army was a disciplined and lawful force, protecting innocent life and
respecting local customs as much as possible. However, one rogue (i) proved a violent exception
to this rule, and (ii) terrible havoc across the countryside. They killed civilians with reckless
abandon and (iii) every town in their path, keeping the loot for themselves.
Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii)
A. soldier D wreaked G liberated
B. navy E thwarted H pillaged
C. battalion F beatified I salvaged

5. Among horror movie monsters, the bloodsucking (i) has always been one of the most
(ii) to audiences. Often they are charming and physically beautiful, in marked contrast to their
(iii) and sinister inner natures.
Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii)
A. Frankenstein D repulsive G magnanimous
B. werewolf E elegant H macabre
C. vampire F beguiling I mortifying

6. For many people, riding on a roller coaster is a thrilling and (i) experience. Others feel sick and
(ii) just at the thought of those vertiginous heights and step, (iii) plunges.
Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii)
A. euphoric D exultant G ascendant
B. ambivalent E queasy H slight
C. erratic F indifferent I precipitous

7. Because Allie was always so quiet and shy, many mistook her (i) personality as a (ii)
and depressed character trait. People were always asking her if she was sad, when she really was just
introverted.
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
A. boastful D melancholic
54
fatigued E
demented

9. After the candidate had lost the election, it was clear that he was bitter and resentful; everyone could
hear the in his closing speech.
A. indebtedness
B. acerbity
C. dolefulness
D. acridity
E. endearment
F. torment

10. Instead of using a hose and increasing his water bill, Jacob used of rainwater to water his
garden.
A. cisterns
B. remains
C. packets
D. coffers
E. shoots
F. tanks

11. I knew Sarah had just gotten back from an extraneous run, as her hair looked and all over the
place.
A. immaculate
B. messy
C. begrimed
D. disheveled
E. aseptic
F. unhinged

12. Ted told himself he needed to move away from the city; he was certainly suffering from ,
having lived in the same place so long.
A. renewal
B. ennui
C. amnesia
D. boredom
E. euphoria
F. desolation

Questions 13 and 17 are based on the passage below.

While it is true that living organisms are profoundly affected by their environment, it is equally important to
remember that many organisms are also capable of altering their habitat significantly, sometimes limiting
their own growth. The influence of the biological component of an ecosystem is often greater in fresh waters
than that in marine or terrestrial systems, because of the small size of many freshwater bodies. Many of the
important effects of organisms are related to their physiology, especially growth and respiration. By their
growth many species can deplete essential nutrients within the system, thus limiting their own growth or that
of other species. Lund has demonstrated that in Lake Windermere the alga Asterionella is unable to grow in
conditions that it itself has created. Once a year, in the spring, this plant starts to grow rapidly in the lake,

55
using up so much silica from the water that by late spring there is no longer enough to maintain its own
growth. The population decreases dramatically as a result.

13. Which of the following is an example of the type of organism described in the first sentence?
(A) A kind of ant that feeds on the sweet juice exuded by the twigs of a species of thorn tree that grows in dry
areas.
(B) A kind of fish that, after growing to maturity in the ocean, returns to fresh water.
(C) A kind of flower that has markings distinctly perceptible in ultraviolet light to the species of bee that
pollinates the flower.
(D) A kind of tree with seeds that germinate readily only in a sunny spot and then develop into mature trees
that shade the area below them.
(E) A kind of butterfly, itself nonpoisonous, with the same markings as a kind of butterfly that birds refuse to
eat because it is poisonous.
14. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the followings is true about Asterionella plants in
Lake Windermere?
(A) They are not present except in early spring.
(B) They contribute silica to the waters as they grow.
(C) They are food for other organisms.
(D) They form a silica-rich layer on the lake bottom.
(E) Their growth peaks in the spring.
15. The passage indicates that organisms frequently have the strongest effects on their environment in
(A) oceans, since oceans contain the largest organisms living on Earth
(B) oceans, since oceans provide habitats for many different kinds of species
(C) freshwater bodies, since such effects become pronounced in relatively small spaces
(D) freshwater lakes, since nutrients in freshwater lakes are present only in small amounts
(E) land areas, since there exist major influences of climate on the kinds of small organisms supported in land
areas
16. The primary topic of the passage is the way in which
(A) organisms are affected by the amount of nutrients available
(B) organisms can change their own surroundings
(C) elements of freshwater habitats impede the growth of small organisms
(D) the reproduction of organisms is controlled by factors in the environment
(E) plant matter in a given locale can increase up to a limit

Questions 17 and 20 are based on the passage below.

Diamonds, an occasional component of rare igneous rocks called lamproites and kimberlites, have never been
dated satisfactorily. However, some diamonds contain minute inclusions of silicate minerals, commonly
olivine, pyroxene, and garnet. These minerals can be dated by radioactive decay techniques because of the
very small quantities of radioactive trace elements they, in turn, contain. Usually, it is possible to conclude
that the inclusions are older than their diamond hosts, but with little indication of the time interval involved.
Sometimes, however, the crystal form of the silicate inclusions is observed to resemble more closely the
internal structure of diamond than that of other silicate minerals. It is not known how rare this resemblance is,
or whether it is most often seen in inclusions of silicates such as garnet, whose crystallography is generally
somewhat similar to that of diamond; but when present, the resemblance is regarded as compelling evidence
that the diamonds and inclusions are truly cogenetic.

17. The author implies that silicate inclusions were most often formed
(A) with small diamonds inside of them
(B) with trace elements derived from their host minerals
(C) by the radioactive decay of rare igneous rocks
(D) at an earlier period than were their host minerals
(E) from the crystallization of rare igneous material
18. According to the passage, the age of silicate minerals included in diamonds can be determined due
to a feature of the
(A) trace elements in the diamond hosts

56
(B) trace elements in the rock surrounding the diamonds
(C) trace elements in the silicate minerals
(D) silicate minerals’ crystal structure
(E) host diamonds’ crystal structure
19. The author states that which of the following generally has a crystal structure similar to that of
diamond?
(A) Lamproite
(B) Kimberlite
(C) Olivine
(D) Pyroxene
(E) Garnet
20. The main purpose of the passage is to
(A) explain why it has not been possible to determine the age of diamonds
(B) explain how it might be possible to date some diamonds
(C) compare two alternative approaches to determining the age of diamonds
(D) compare a method of dating diamonds with a method used to date certain silicate minerals
(E) compare the age of diamonds with that of certain silicate minerals contained within them

TEST 5
Section 1
For the following questions, select the two answer choices that, when inserted into the sentence, fit the
meaning of the sentence as a whole and yield complete sentences that are similar in meaning.
1. The prize competition was as a showcase for new technology, but instead the competition was
marred by disqualifications and disputes.
A. disappointing
B. conceived
C. touted
D. heralded
E. promising
F. required

2. The new institute provides intensive postgraduate teaching to a wide range of students, in the hope that
these students will use their knowledge to boost the country's economy.
A. languishing
B. emerging
C. booming
D. domestic
E. bankrupt
F. flagging

3. Like other metaphors, the "book of Nature" has two facets: it is but if taken literally, it may
mislead.
A. heuristic
B. perceptive
C. poetic
D. insightful
E. prosaic
F. iconoclastic

57
4. The increasing interactivity emerging in the latest computer systems means that the traditional view of
the computer as a of information now unduly limiting.
A. gleaner
B. transformer
C. processor
D. producer
E. repository
F. cache

5. Turing’s life exerts a powerful and effect on writers – the combination of the highly intellectual
and the personally dramatic is hard to resist.
A. abiding
B. pervasive
C. perennial
D. irresistible
E. unmitigated
F. multifaceted

Select one answer choice for the blank. Fill in the blank in such a way that it best completes the text.
6. Science advances (i) as (ii) change abruptly and we are forced to stop and reorient ourselves
to view old information in new ways.
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
exponentially paradigms
inexorably axioms
jerkily continuities

7. The game of chess is an example of a information system: the pieces sit inertly on the board until
the players move them according to known rules.
A. interactive
B. passive
C. cybernetic
D. disruptive
E. logistic

8. A highly intelligent person often thinks (i) ; a few snippets of information can trigger a (ii)
conclusion that might not stand up to closer, and (iii) , scrutiny.
Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii)
A. too deeply D. firm G. slower
B. too warily E. labored H. precipitous
C. too quickly F. hasty I. overt

9. Major philosophical (i) about morality, identity and rationality, for example, can often be (ii)
by thought experiments: short and simple expositions that pose an abstract and complex problem in a
concrete manner with all the (iii) factors removed.
Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii)
A. certitudes D. mimicked G. extraneous
B. dilemmas E. illuminated H. inherent
C. dogmas F. evoked I. pivotal

10. All good comic writers use humor to , not to side-step the problems of human behavior.
A. amuse
B. avert
C. juxtapose
D. confront
E. solve

58
Questions 11 and 12 are based on this passage.
According to the conventional view, serfdom in nineteenth-century Russia inhibited economic growth. In
this view Russian peasants’ status as serfs kept them poor through burdensome taxes in cash, in labor, and
in kind; through restrictions on mobility; and through various forms of coercion. Melton, however, argues
that serfdom was perfectly compatible with economic growth, because many Russian serfs were able to
get around landlords’ rules and regulations. If serfs could pay for passports, they were usually
granted permission to leave the estate. If they could pay the fine, they could establish a separate
household; and if they had the resources, they could hire laborers to cultivate the communal lands, while
they themselves engaged in trade or worked as migrant laborers in cities.

For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.
11. It can be inferred from the passage that the “rules and regulations” affecting serfdom in Russia
involved
A responsibility for the work needed to accomplish certain defined tasks
B restrictions on freedom of movement
C limitations on the ability to set up an independent household
For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.
12. The sentence “If serfs … estate” has which of the following functions in the passage?
A It provides support for an argument presented in the preceding sentence.
B It provides evidence that helps undermine a view introduced in the first sentence.
C It raises a question that the succeeding sentence will resolve.

Question 13 is based on this passage.

Rain-soaked soil contains less oxygen than does drier soil. The roots of melon plants perform less
efficiently under the low-oxygen conditions present in rainsoaked soil. When the efficiency of melon
roots is impaired, the roots do not supply sufficient amounts of the proper nutrients for the plants to
perform photosynthesis at their usual levels. It follows that melon plants have a lower-than-usual rate of
photosynthesis when their roots are in rain-soaked soil. When the photosynthesis of the plants slows,
sugar stored in the fruits is drawn off to supply the plants with energy. Therefore, ripe melons harvested
after a prolonged period of heavy rain should be less sweet than other ripe melons.

13. In the argument given, the two portions in boldface play which of the following roles?
A The first states the conclusion of the argument as a whole; the second provides support for that
conclusion.
B The first provides support for the conclusion of the argument as a whole; the second provides evidence
that supports an objection to that conclusion.
C The first provides support for an intermediate conclusion that supports a further conclusion stated in the
argument; the second states that intermediate conclusion.
D The first serves as an intermediate conclusion that supports a further conclusion stated in the argument;
the second states the position that the argument as a whole opposes.
E The first states the position that the argument as a whole opposes; the second supports the conclusion of
the argument.

Questions 14 to 16 are based on this passage.

In the 1980s, neuroscientists studying the brain processes underlying our sense of conscious will
compared subjects’ judgments regarding their subjective will to move (W) and actual movement (M) with
objective electroencephalographic activity called readiness potential, or RP. As expected, W preceded M:
subjects consciously perceived the intention to move as preceding a conscious experience of actually
moving. This might seem to suggest an appropriate correspondence between the sequence of subjective
experiences and the sequence of the underlying events in the brain. But researchers actually found a
surprising temporal relation between subjective experience and objectively measured neural events: in
direct contradiction of the classical conception of free will, neural preparation to move (RP) preceded
conscious awareness of the intention to move (W) by hundreds of milliseconds.

14. Based on information contained in the passage, which of the following chains of events would most
closely conform to the classical conception of free will?

59
A W followed by RP followed by M
B RP followed by W followed by M
C M followed by W followed by RP
D RP followed by M followed by W
E RP followed by W and M simultaneously

15. In the context in which it appears, “temporal” most nearly means

A secular
B mundane
C numerical
D physiological
E chronological

16. The author of the passage mentions the classical conception of free will primarily in order to
A argue that earlier theories regarding certain brain processes were based on false assumptions
B suggest a possible flaw in the reasoning of neuroscientists conducting the study discussed in the
passage
C provide a possible explanation for the unexpected results obtained by neuroscientists
D cast doubt on neuroscientists’ conclusions regarding the temporal sequence of brain processes
E indicate the reason that the results of the neuroscientists’ study were surprising
Questions 17 to 20 are based on this passage.
Recent studies of sediment in the North Atlantic’s deep waters reveal possible cyclical patterns in the
history of Earth’s climate. The rock fragments in these sediments are too large to have been transported
there by ocean currents; they must have reached their present locations by traveling in large icebergs that
floated long distances from their point of origin before melting. Geologist Gerard Bond noticed that some
of the sediment grains were stained with iron oxide, evidence that they originated in locales where
glaciers had overrun outcrops of red sandstone.
Bond’s detailed analysis of deep-water sediment cores showed changes in the mix of sediment sources
over time: the proportion of these red-stained grains fluctuated back and forth from lows of 5 percent to
highs of about 17 percent, and these fluctuations occurred in a nearly regular 1,500-year cycle. Bond
hypothesized that the alternating cycles might be evidence of changes in ocean-water circulation and
therefore in Earth’s climate. He knew that the sources of the red-stained grains were generally closer to
the North Pole than were the places yielding a high proportion of “clean” grains. At certain times,
apparently, more icebergs from the Arctic Ocean in the far north were traveling south well into the North
Atlantic before melting and shedding their sediment.
Ocean waters are constantly moving, and water temperature is both a cause and an effect of this
movement. As water cools, it becomes denser and sinks to the ocean’s bottom. During some periods, the
bottom layer of the world’s oceans comes from cold, dense water sinking in the far North Atlantic. This
causes the warm surface waters of the Gulf Stream to be pulled northward. Bond realized that during such
periods, the influx of these warm surface waters into northern regions could cause a large proportion of
the icebergs that bear red grains to melt before traveling very far into the North Atlantic. But sometimes
the ocean’s dynamic changes, and waters from the Gulf Stream do not travel northward in this way.
During these periods, surface waters in the North Atlantic would generally be colder, permitting icebergs
bearing red-stained grains to travel farther south in the North Atlantic before melting and depositing their
sediment.
The onset of the so-called Little Ice Age (1300-1860), which followed the Medieval Warm Period of
the eighth through tenth centuries, may represent the most recent time that the ocean’s dynamic changed
in this way. If ongoing climate-history studies support Bond’s hypothesis of
1,500-year cycles, scientists may establish a major natural rhythm in Earth’s temperatures that could then
be extrapolated into the future. Because the midpoint of the Medieval Warm Period was about A.D. 850,
an extension of Bond’s cycles would place the midpoint of the next warm interval in the twenty-fourth
century.

17. According to the passage, which of the following is true of the rock fragments contained in the
sediments studied by Bond?
A The majority of them are composed of red sandstone.
B They must have reached their present location over 1,500 years ago.
C They were carried by icebergs to their present location.
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D Most of them were carried to their present location during a warm period in Earth’s climatic history.
E They are unlikely to have been carried to their present location during the Little Ice Age.

18. In the final paragraph of the passage, the author is concerned primarily with
A answering a question about Earth’s climatic history
B pointing out a potential flaw in Bond’s hypothesis
C suggesting a new focus for the study of ocean sediments
D tracing the general history of Earth’s climate
E discussing possible implications of Bond’s hypothesis

19. According to the passage, Bond hypothesized that which of the following circumstances would allow
red-stained sediment grains to reach more southerly latitudes?
A Warm waters being pulled northward from the Gulf Stream
B Climatic conditions causing icebergs to melt relatively quickly
C Icebergs containing a higher proportion of iron oxide than usual
D The formation of more icebergs than usual in the far north
E The presence of cold surface waters in the North Atlantic

20. It can be inferred from the passage that in sediment cores from the North Atlantic’s deep waters, the
portions that correspond to the Little Ice Age
A differ very little in composition from the portions that correspond to the MedievalWarm Period
B fluctuate significantly in composition between the portions corresponding to the 1300s and the portions
corresponding to the 1700s
C would be likely to contain a proportion of red-stained grains closer to 17 percent than to 5 percent
D show a much higher proportion of red-stained grains in cores extracted from the far north of the North
Atlantic than in cores extracted from further south
E were formed in part as a result of Gulf Stream waters having been pulled northward

TEST 5
Section 2
Select one answer choice for the blank. Fill in the blank in such a way that it best completes the text.
1. With his sub-four minute mile Bannister broke a psychological barrier, and inspired thousands of
others to attempt to overcome seemingly hurdles.
A. insurmountable
B. inane
C. trivial
D. traumatic
E. ineffable

2. Ricks has written extensively not only on the poetry of such (i) figures in English poetry as Milton
and Housman, but also on the less obviously (ii) lyrics of Bob Dylan.
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
obscurantist canonical
arcane popular
established judicious

3. People who seek advice from (i) often find that what they are told can seem true, because these
seekers of information attribute significance to some predictions and ignore others. The mind seeks to
make sense of predictions that, in themselves, have no (ii) value, and thus it becomes difficult to
prove that the forecasts are (iii) .
Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii)
A. experts D. special G. genuine
B. philosophers E. general H. specious
C. clairvoyants F. legal I. accurate

4. Stress-induced amnesia is a rare and (i) phenomenon; it strikes the patient apparently without
warning and the memory loss can be as (i) as that induced by (iii)_____ trauma.

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Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii)
A. devastating D. generic G. unexpected
B. venial E. limited H. mental
C. pervasive F. complete I. physical

5. The publishers, unwilling to (i) the entire risk, insisted that the author pay half the cost of the
initial print run of his (ii) new book.
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
hedge unexceptionable
shoulder controversial
mitigate jaundiced

For the following questions, select the two answer choices that, when inserted into the sentence, fit the
meaning of the sentence as a whole and yield complete sentences that are similar in meaning.
6. As a result of his regimented upbringing, that left him unable to see the nuances of complex situations,
he was often accused of being .
A. indecisive
B. tyrannical
C. obtuse
D. boorish
E. xenophobic
F. imperceptive
7. It is paradoxical that String Theory inspires such widespread respect when it is so that few could
ever hope to master its claims.
A. intractable
B. confusing
C. elevated
D. arcane
E. obscure
F. rigorous

8. Those with a reputation for behavior seldom inspire respect: unwavering adherence to a
viewpoint is more admired than flexibility.
A. capricious
B. bombastic
C. dogmatic
D. fickle
E. honorable
F. stalwart

9. The courtiers of the time had to be in order to survive in an atmosphere where the least sign of
rebellion could lead to banishment or worse.
A. taciturn
B. fawning
C. docile
D. self-serving
E. upright
F. servile

10. Forgiveness was fine in theory, but she had trouble in accepting a religion that would allow evil-
doers access to heaven.
A. repentant
B. contrite
C. blatant
D. venial
E. pardoned
F. recalcitrant

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Questions 11 and 12 are based on this passage.
In early-twentieth-century England, it was fashionable to claim that only a completely new style of
writing could address a world undergoing unprecedented transformation— just as one literary critic
recently claimed that only the new “aesthetic of exploratory excess” can address a world undergoing….
well, you know. Yet in early-twentieth century England, T. S. Eliot, a man fascinated by the “presence”
of the past, wrote the most innovative poetry of his time. The lesson for today’s literary community seems
obvious: a reorientation toward tradition would benefit writers no less than readers. But if our writers and
critics indeed respect the novel’s rich tradition (as they claim to), then why do they disdain the urge to tell
an exciting story?

11. The author of the passage suggests that present-day readers would particularly benefit from which of
the following changes on the part of present-day writers and critics?
A An increased focus on the importance of engaging the audience in a narrative
B Modernization of the traditional novelistic elements already familiar to readers
C Embracing aspects of fiction that are generally peripheral to the interest of readers
D A greater recognition of how the tradition of the novel has changed over time
E A better understanding of how certain poets such as Eliot have influenced fiction of the present time

12. In the context of the passage as a whole, “address” is closest in meaning to

A reveal
B belie
C speak to
D direct attention toward
E attempt to remediate

Question 13 is based on this passage.

Electric washing machines, first introduced in the United States in 1925, significantly reduced the amount
of time spent washing a given amount of clothes, yet the average amount of time households spent
washing clothes increased after 1925. This increase is partially accounted for by the fact that many urban
households had previously sent their clothes to professional laundries. But the average amount of time
spent washing clothes also increased for rural households with no access to professional laundries.

13. Which of the following, if true, most helps to explain why the time spent washing clothes increased in
rural areas?
A People with access to an electric washing machine typically wore their clothes many fewer times
before washing them than did people without access to electric washing machines.
B Households that had sent their clothes to professional laundries before 1925 were more likely than
other households to purchase an electric washing machine when they became available.
C People living in urban households that had previously sent their clothes to professional laundries
typically owned more clothes than did people living in rural households.
D The earliest electric washing machines required the user to spend much more time beside the machine
than do modern electric washing machines.
E In the 1920s and 1930s the proportion of rural households with electricity was smaller than the
proportion of urban households with electricity.

Questions 14 and 15 are based on this passage.

The nearly circular orbits of planets in our solar system led scientists to expect that planets around other
stars would also reside in circular orbits. However, most known extrasolar planets reside in highly
elongated, not circular, orbits. Why? The best clue comes from comets in our solar system. Comets
formed in circular orbits but were gravitationally flung into their present-day elliptical orbits when they
ventured too close to planets. Astronomers suspect that pairs of planets also engage in this slingshot
activity, leaving them in disturbed, elliptical orbits. If two planets form in close orbits, one will be
scattered inward (toward its star), the other outward. They will likely then travel close enough to
neighboring planets to disturb their orbits also.

For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.
14. According to the passage, which of the following factors help account for the elliptical shape of the
orbits of extrasolar planets?
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A The planets’ formation in close proximity to other planets
B The gravitational influence of planets whose original orbits have been disturbed
C The gravitational influence of comets

For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.
15. The passage suggests that two planets formed in close orbits that engaged in “slingshot activity”
would be likely to
A deflect away from each other
B change the shape of each other’s orbit
C affect the orbits of any neighboring planets

Question 16 is based on this passage.

Even after numerous products made with artificial sweeteners became available, sugar consumption per
capita continued to rise. Now manufacturers are introducing fat-free versions of various foods that they
claim have the taste and texture of the traditional high-fat versions. Even if the manufacturers’ claim is
true, given that the availability of sugar-free foods did not reduce sugar consumption, it is unlikely that
the availability of these fat-free foods will reduce fat consumption.

16. Which of the following, if true, most seriously undermines the argument?
A Several kinds of fat substitute are available to manufacturers, each of which gives a noticeably different
taste and texture to products that contain it.
B The products made with artificial sweeteners did not taste like products made with sugar.
C The foods brought out in sugar-free versions did not generally have reduced levels of fat, but many of
the fat-free versions about to be introduced are low in sugar.
D People who regularly consume products containing artificial sweeteners are more likely than others to
consume fat-free foods.
E Not all foods containing fat can be produced in fat-free versions.

Questions 17 to 19 are based on this passage.

While the influence of British magazines in shaping public opinion predates the nineteenth century, it was
during the 1800s that mass distribution became possible and an explosion in periodical readership
occurred, vastly increasing magazines’ opinion-shaping powers. The role of magazines as arbiters of
nineteenth-century taste is seen in their depictions of the London theater. The magazines accorded some
legitimacy to East End working-class theaters that mirrored the format of the fashionable West End
theaters serving middle- and upper-class audiences. However, the magazines also depicted music halls—
which competed for patronage with all theaters—as places where crass entertainment corrupted
spectators’ taste and morals. Finally, they suggested that popular demand for substandard fare created a
market unfriendly to higher expressions of dramatic art.

17. The author of the passage attributes the influence of British periodicals in shaping public opinion in
the nineteenth century in part to
A a growing public interest in reading opinion pieces
B an increase in the relative number of readers from the middle and upper classes
C changes in the way in which magazines were distributed
D magazines’ increased coverage of theater and popular entertainment
E changes in magazine format that attracted a wider readership

18. The author of the passage mentions East End working-class theaters primarily in order to
A illustrate a point about the ability of magazines to sway public opinion
B contrast the kinds of entertainment presented in East End andWest End theaters
C make a point about how spectators’ tastes influenced the offerings at different kinds of theaters
D explain how magazines chose which kinds of entertainment to cover
E identify factors that helped make certain theaters fashionable

19. In the context in which it appears, “accorded” most nearly means

A reconciled
B revealed
C granted
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D verified
E maintained

Question 20 is based on this passage.

As an example of the devastation wrought on music publishers by the photocopier, one executive noted
that for a recent choral festival with 1,200 singers, the festival’s organizing committee purchased only 12
copies of the music published by her company that was performed as part of the festival.

20. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the support the example lends to the
executive’s contention that music publishers have been devastated by the photocopier?
A Only a third of the 1,200 singers were involved in performing the music published by the executive’s
company.
B Half of the singers at the festival had already heard the music they were to perform before they began
to practice for the festival.
C Because of shortages in funding, the organizing committee of the choral festival required singers to
purchase their own copies of the music performed at the festival.
D Each copy of music that was performed at the festival was shared by two singers.
E As a result of publicity generated by its performance at the festival, the type of music performed at the
festival became more widely known.
TEST 6
Section 1
For the following questions, select the two answer choices that, when inserted into the sentence, fit the
meaning of the sentence as a whole and yield complete sentences that are similar in meaning.
1. The Countess dressed with a (an) elegance which seemed to proclaim to the world just how
distinguished she was.
A. studied
B. pronounced
C. ingenuous
D. understated
E. mannered
F. rococo

2. It is a waste of time to someone so dimwitted; he is too dull to recognize your barbs.

A. disparage
B. ridicule
C. lampoon
D. laud
E. enlighten
F. train

3. The teacher was so abstracted that she gave a evaluation of what was really an interesting solution
to the problem she had set.
A. philosophical
B. cursory
C. detailed
D. considered
E. perfunctory
F. tangential

4. Punishment for transgressions of the law ceases to have a deterrent effect if the punishment is
frequently .
A. arbitrary
B. changed
C. waived
D. lenient
E. commuted
F. applied

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5. Not only love affects the eye of the beholder; other emotions also the interpretation of the events
that we witness.
A. cloud
B. trigger
C. devalue
D. color
E. objectify
F. impact

Select one answer choice for the blank. Fill in the blank in such a way that it best completes the text.
6. An artist’s preliminary sketches are often a of a subject; on the basis of these sketches the artist
makes a decision on his or her approach to the final painting.
A. reconnaissance
B. caricature
C. vignette
D. pastiche
E. cameo

7. Taking antibiotics for a viral infection may, it is true, be ; however, in certain cases a course of
these drugs can actually ward off opportunistic bacterial infections.
A. justified
B. enough
C. recommended
D. ineffective
E. curative

8. Rock music has often been credited with (or decried for) containing (i) messages, purportedly to
influence the minds of (ii) listeners.
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
criminal preordained
overt unsuspecting
subliminal covert

9. It cannot be denied that without creative reasoning it would not have been possible to (i) of
classical physics. Yet classical physics has no contribution to make to the understanding of (ii) .
This kind of (iii) is surprisingly common in logic as well as in life.
Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii)
A. dispute the value D. creative reasoning G. circular reasoning
B. lay the foundations E. other sciences H. inflexibility
C. understand the basics F. the arts I. symmetry

10. During a decade of (i) , social scientists sought to (ii) the idea of the family as a healthy and
stabilizing force, and replace it with the view that the family was (iii) .
Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii)
A. moderation D. promote G. moribund
B. conservatism E. debunk H. progressive
C. iconoclasm F. iconize I. paramount
Questions 11 to 13 are based on this passage.
Reviving the practice of using elements of popular music in classical composition, an approach that had
been in hibernation in the United States during the 1960s, composer Philip Glass (born 1937) embraced
the ethos of popular music without imitating it. Glass based two symphonies on music by rock musicians
David Bowie and Brian Eno, but the symphonies' sound is distinctively his. Popular elements do not
appear out of place in Glass's classical music, which from its early days has shared certain harmonies and
rhythms with rock music. Yet this use of popular elements has not made Glass a composer of popular
music. His music is not a version of popular music packaged to attract classical listeners; it is high art for
listeners steeped in rock rather than the classics.

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Select only one answer choice.
11. The passage addresses which of the following issues related to Glass's use of popular elements in his
classical compositions?
A. How it is regarded by listeners who prefer rock to the classics
B. How it has affected the commercial success of Glass's music
C. Whether it has contributed to a revival of interest among other composers in using popular
elements in their compositions
D. Whether it has had a detrimental effect on Glass's reputation as a composer of classical music
E. Whether it has caused certain of Glass's works to be derivative in quality

12. Consider each of the three choices separately and select all that apply.
The passage suggests that Glass's work displays which of the following qualities?
A. A return to the use of popular music in classical compositions
B. An attempt to elevate rock music to an artistic status more closely approximating that of classical
music
C. A long-standing tendency to incorporate elements from two apparently disparate musical styles

13. Select the sentence that distinguishes two ways of integrating rock and classical music.

Questions 14 to 16 are based on this passage.

It is now established that the Milky Way is far more extended and of much greater mass than was hitherto
thought. However, all that is visible of the constituents of the Milky Way’s corona (outer edge), where much
of the galaxy’s mass must be located, is a tiny fraction of the corona’s mass. Thus, most of the Milky Way’s
outlying matter must be dark.
Why? Three facts are salient. First, dwarf galaxies and globular clusters, into which most of the stars of the
Milky Way’s corona are probably bound, consist mainly of old stars. Second, old stars are not highly
luminous. Third, no one has detected in the corona the clouds of gaseous matter such as hydrogen and carbon
monoxide that are characteristic of the bright parts of a galaxy. At present, therefore, the best explanation—
though still quite tentative—for the darkness of the corona is that the corona is composed mainly of old,
burned-out stars.
14. The passage as a whole is primarily concerned with
(A) analyzing a current debate
(B) criticizing a well-established theory
(C) showing how new facts support a previously dismissed hypothesis
(D) stating a conclusion and adducing evidence that may justify it
(E) contrasting two types of phenomena and showing how they are related
15. According to the passage, a bright part of a galaxy typically includes
(A) dwarf galaxies and clusters of stars
(B) a balanced mixture of old and new stars
(C) a large portion of the galaxy’s mass
(D) part of the corona of the galaxy
(E) gases such as hydrogen and carbon monoxide
16. It can be inferred from the passage that, compared with what they now think, until fairly recently
astronomers believed that the Milky Way
(A) was much darker
(B) was much smaller
(C) was moving much more slowly
(D) had a much larger corona
(E) had much less gaseous matter

Questions 17 to 20 are based on this passage.

Analyzing the physics of dance can add fundamentally to a dancer’s skill. Although dancers seldom see
themselves totally in physical terms—as body mass moving through space under the influence of well-known
forces and obeying physical laws—neither can they afford to ignore the physics of movement. For example,
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no matter how much a dancer wishes to leap off the floor and then start turning, the law of conservation of
angular momentum absolutely prevents such a movement.
Some movements involving primarily vertical or horizontal motions of the body as a whole, in which
rotations can be ignored, can be studied using simple equations of linear motion in three dimensions.
However, rotational motions require more complex approaches that involve analyses of the way the body’s
mass is distributed, the axes of rotation involved in different types of movement, and the sources of the forces
that produce the rotational movement.
17. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) initiate a debate over two approaches to analyzing a field of study
(B) describe how one field of knowledge can be applied to another field
(C) point out the contradictions between two distinct theories
(D) define and elaborate on an accepted scientific principle
(E) discuss the application of a new theory within a new setting
18. The author mentions all of the following as contributing to an understanding of the physics of dance
EXCEPT:
(A) the law of conservation of angular momentum
(B) analyses of the way in which the body’s mass is distributed
(C) equations of linear motion in three dimensions
(D) analyses of the sources that produce rotational motions
(E) the technical terms for movements such as leaps and turns
19. The author implies that dancers can become more skilled by doing which of the following?
(A) Ignoring rotational movements
(B) Understanding the forces that permit various movements
(C) Solving simple linear equations
(D) Learning the technical terms utilized by choreographers
(E) Circumventing the law of conservation of angular momentum
20. Analysis of which of the following would require the kind of complex approach described in lines
14-19?
(A) A long leap across space
(B) A short jump upward with a return to the same place
(C) A sustained and controlled turn in place
(D) Short, rapid steps forward and then backward without turning
(E) Quick sidesteps in a diagonal line

TEST 6
Section 2
Select one answer choice for the blank. Fill in the blank in such a way that it best completes the text.
1. When staying in a hotel, Bernard would arrange for his valet to bring him his newspaper in the dining
room so that everyone would realize that he had a manservant; this (i) embarrassed his nephew who,
though equally rich, preferred a more (ii) life-style.
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
ostentation opulent
arrogance libertine
dissimulation understated

2. Although he was finally (i) , the years of (ii) tore apart his social circle, ruined his health and
(iii) his mind.

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Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii)
A. incriminated D. dedication G. sharpened
B. vindicated E. self-doubt H. deranged
C. acclaimed F. suspicion I. mellowed

3. As Gerard (i) the (ii) that greeted his work, he became increasingly smug.
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
A. repudiated D. accolades

4. It is a common complaint that people today have a short attention span. But is it that people are (i)
if the television camera (ii) a view, or is it that the (iii) from one angle to another has trained the
viewer to expect variety?
Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii)
A. satisfied D. lingers over G. constant shift
B. fascinated E. cuts short H. delay in moving
C. impatient F. rapidly changes I. inability to move

5. The (i) and virtuosity required of a jazz player make jazz seem to lack (ii) ; this apparently
amorphous flow can make it hard for people with traditional expectations of musical stability to acquire a
taste for this genre.

For the following questions, select the two answer choices that, when inserted into the sentence, fit the
meaning of the sentence as a whole and yield complete sentences that are similar in meaning.
6. The human mind can often reject the most data in favor of something that, though valueless, at
least sounds familiar.
A. anomalous
B. inconsequential
C. peripheral
D. pertinent
E. germane
F. visible

7. behavior never has the effect its practitioners hope for; the attempt to hide only draws attention to
what is hidden.
A. Misogynistic
B. Puritanical
C. Covert
D. Miserly
E. Prudish
F. Camouflaging

8. He completed the work with unusual ; his need to get out of the office overcame his habitual
torpor.
A. dispatch
B. grace
C. effectiveness
D. slovenliness
E. carelessness
F. celerity

9. When Smithers took over as chairperson, her colleagues were looking forward to a less confrontational
time on the board of governors, since they reasoned that no one else was likely to be as as her
predecessor.
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A. mordant
B. aggressive
C. flexible
D. bellicose
E. complaisant
F. jaundiced
10. When faced with an urgent problem for which there is no immediately obvious solution, we tend to
welcome any suggestion, however , that might throw light on the dilemma.
A. unusual
B. hackneyed
C. tentative
D. outrageous
E. illuminating
F. flimsy

Questions 11 and 12 are based on this passage.

A tall tree can transport a hundred gallons of water a day from its roots deep underground to the treetop.
Is this movement propelled by pulling the water from above or pushing it from below? The pull
mechanism has long been favored by most scientists. First proposed in the late 1800s, the theory relies on
a property of water not commonly associated with fluids:its tensile strength. Instead of making a clean
break, water evaporating from treetops tugs on the remaining water molecules, with that tug extending
from molecule to molecule all the way down to the roots. The tree itself does not actually push or pull; all
the energy for lifting water comes from the sun’s evaporative power.
For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.
11. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
A The pull theory is not universally accepted by scientists.
B The pull theory depends on one of water’s physical properties.
C The pull theory originated earlier than did the push theory.

12. The passage provides information on each of the following EXCEPT

A when the pull theory originated
B the amount of water a tall tree can transport
C the significance of water’s tensile strength in the pull theory
D the role of the sun in the pull theory
E the mechanism underlying water’s tensile strength

Questions 13 and 16 are based on this passage.

The Earth’s magnetic field is generated as the molten iron of the Earth’s outer core revolves around its solid
inner core. When surges in the molten iron occur, magnetic tempests are created. At the Earth’s surface, these
tempests can be detected by changes in the strength of the Earth’s magnetic field. For reasons not fully
understood, the field itself reverses periodically every million years or so . During the past million years, for
instance, the magnetic north pole has migrated between the Antarctic and the Arctic.
Clearly, geophysicists who seek to explain and forecast changes in the field must understand what happens in
the outer core. Unlike meteorologists, however, they cannot rely on observations made in their own lifetimes.
Whereas atmospheric storms arise in a matter of hours and last for days, magnetic tempests develop over
decades and persist for centuries. Fortunately scientists have been recording changes in the Earth’s magnetic
field for more than 300 years.
13. In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with
(A) analyzing a complicated scientific phenomenon and its impact on the Earth’s surface features
(B) describing a natural phenomenon and the challenges its study presents to researchers
(C) discussing a scientific field of research and the gaps in researchers’ methodological approaches to it
(D) comparing two distinct fields of physical science and the different research methods employed in each
(E) proposing an explanation for a geophysical phenomenon and an experiment that could help confirm that
explanation
14. The passage suggests which of the following about surges in the Earth’s outer core?
(A) They occur cyclically every few decades.
(B) They can be predicted by changes in the Earth’s inner core.
(C) They are detected through indirect means.

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(D) They are linked to disturbances in the Earth’s atmosphere.
(E) They last for periods of about 1 million years.
15. It can be inferred from the passage that geophysicists seeking to explain magnetic tempests ought to
conduct research on the Earth’s outer core because the Earth’s outer core
(A) is more fully understood than the Earth’s magnetic field
(B) is more easily observed than the Earth’s magnetic field
(C) has been the subject of extensive scientific observation for 300 years
(D) is involved in generating the Earth’s magnetic field
(E) reflects changes in the inner core caused by magnetic tempests
16. In the second paragraph, the author is primarily concerned with
(A) stating a limitation that helps determine a research methodology
(B) making a comparative analysis of two different research methodologies
(C) assessing the amount of empirical data in the field of physical science
(D) suggesting an optimistic way of viewing a widely feared phenomenon
(E) describing a fundamental issue and discussing its future impact on society

Questions 17 and 19 are based on this passage.

Democratic institutions are devices for reconciling social order with individual freedom and initiative,
and for making the immediate power of a country's rulers subject to the ultimate power of the ruled. The
fact that, in Western Europe and America, these devices have worked, all things considered, not too
badly is proof enough that the eighteenth century optimists were not entirely wrong. Given a fair chance, I
repeat; for the fair chance is an indispensable prerequisite. No people that pass abruptly from a state of
subservience under the rule of a despot to the completely unfamiliar state of political independence can be
said to have a fair chance of being able to govern itself democratically. Liberalism flourishes in an
atmosphere of prosperity and declines as declining prosperity makes it necessary for the government to
intervene ever more frequently and drastically in the affairs of its subjects. Over-population and over-
organization are two conditions which ... deprive a society of a fair chance of making democratic
institutions work effectively. We see, then, that there are certain historical, economic, demographic and
technological conditions which make it very hard for Jefferson's rational animals, endowed by nature with
inalienable rights and an innate sense of justice, to exercise their reason, claim their rights and act justly
within a democratically organized society. We in the West have been supremely fortunate in having been
given a fair chance of making the great experiment in self-government. Unfortunately, it now looks as
though, owing to recent changes in our circumstances, this infinitely precious fair chance were being,
little by little, taken away from us.

17. The author’s primary purpose is apparently to

A. Explain a requirement and introduce a warning about that requirement
B. Argue for the limitation of a certain form of government
C. Define the conditions for social order
D. Advocate liberalism in government of a certain era
E. Credit certain thinkers with foresight

18. The ‘infinitely precious fair chance’ highlighted in the last sentence, according to the author is
A. Unlikely to emerge in an atmosphere of liberalism
B. Incompatible with Jefferson’s views
C. Vitiated in an atmosphere of prosperity
D. An essential precondition for the success of democracy
E. Only possible in a large, advanced and highly organised society

19. The author’s attitude to the way democratic institutions have functioned in Western Europe and
America can best be described as
A. Deliberate neutrality
B. Cautious approval
C. Qualified disapproval
D. Wholehearted endorsement
E. Mocking disdain

71
Questions 19 and 20 are based on this passage.

Many philosophers disagree over the definition of morality, but most disputants fall into one of two
categories: egocentrics, who define morality as the pursuit of self-fulfillment, and sociocentrics, who define
morality as an individual’s obligations to society. Where does the truth lie? Fortunately, the stem of the word
“morality” provides some clues. The word “mores” originally referred to the customs of preliterate cultures.
Mores, which embodied each culture’s ideal principles for governing every citizen, were developed in the
belief that the foundation of a community lies in the cultivation of individual powers to be placed in service to
the community. These mores were concerned with such skills as food-gathering and warfare as well as an
individual’s relationships with others. Thus, I submit (intransitive senses: to defer to or consent to abide by
the opinion or authority of another), “morality” must be concerned with what is honored by the community at
large. However, self-fulfillment is important to morality because unfulfilled citizens, no matter how virtuous,
cannot perform the duties morality assigns them.

20. The primary purpose of this passage is to

(A) summarize an argument
(B) resolve a dispute
(C) trace a word’s origin
(D) prove a hypothesis
(E) initiate a debate

TEST 7
Section 1
For the following questions, select the two answer choices that, when inserted into the sentence, fit the
meaning of the sentence as a whole and yield complete sentences that are similar in meaning.
1. Mannering's personal diary, a record of preoccupations and domestic details, belies the depth of
thought for which he was renowned in the academic world.
A. philosophical
B. mundane
C. petty
D. weighty
E. erudite
F. untoward

2. Animal welfare charities have found that extensive advertising, especially over the Christmas period,
can actually drive down the volume of donations as people who view images of maltreated pets more than
a few times rapidly become .
A. inured
B. miserly
C. disgusted
D. hardened
E. bored
F. overwrought

3. The study’s conclusion is that during the first half of the 20th Century improved standards of
personal hygiene reduced the risk of an individual’s contracting poliomyelitis, yet tended to make the
disease more lethal to communities.
A. exciting
B. paradoxical
C. unwarranted
D. long-awaited
E. anomalous
F. interim

4. The devotion to the syllabus and testing regime has become so extreme that most school students close
their minds to anything to the needs of the examination.
A. related
B. catering
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C. extraneous
D. similar
E. helpful
F. peripheral
5. The tone of the biography is entirely unexpected since both the biographer in her previous works
and her subject in all that he has written have valued levity over solemnity.
A. lugubrious
B. jaunty
C. jocose
D. frivolous
E. ironic
F. melancholy

Select one answer choice for the blank. Fill in the blank in such a way that it best completes the text.
6. The revolutionaries working to improve the lives of the peasants faced an (i) task; the peasants
were the least (ii) of all people, bound by tradition and (iii) by superstitions.
Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii)
A. unwarranted D. free G. rejected
B. uphill E. reactionary H. obscured
C. unacceptable F. enthralled I. fettered

7. Many people at that time believed that spices help preserve food; however, Hall found that many
marketed spices were bacteria, moulds and yeasts.
A. devoid of
B. teeming with
C. improved by
D. destroyed by
E. active against

8. If there is nothing to absorb the energy of sound waves, they travel on (i) , but their intensity
(ii) as they travel further from their source.
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
indefinitely alleviates
erratically diminishes
slowly mitigates

9. This recent evaluation of two artists whose works even experts find difficult to (i) , reveals a
surprising (ii) in their temperaments: Palmer was reserved and courteous, Frazer (iii) _ and
boastful.
Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii)
A. evaluate D. similarity G. choleric
B. distinguish E. difference H. tractable
C. critique F. constraint I. phlegmatic

10. The intellectual flexibility inherent in a multicultural nation has been (i) in classrooms where
emphasis on British-American literature has not reflected the cultural (ii) of our country.
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
inculcated unanimity
encouraged diversity
stifled aspirations

Questions 11 and 14 are based on this passage.

The belief that art originates in intuitive rather than rational faculties was worked out historically and
philosophically in the somewhat wearisome volumes of Benedetto Croce, who is usually considered the
originator of a new aesthetic. Croce was, in fact, expressing a very old idea. Long before the Romantics
stressed intuition and self-expression, the frenzy of inspiration was regarded as fundamental to art, but
philosophers had always assumed it must be controlled by law and by the intellectual power of putting things
into harmonious order. This general philosophic concept of art was supported by technical necessities. It was

73
necessary to master certain laws and to use intellect in order to build Gothic cathedrals, or set up the stained
glass windows of Chartres. When this bracing element of craftsmanship ceased to dominate artists’ outlook,
new technical elements had to be adopted to maintain the intellectual element in art. Such were linear
perspective and anatomy.
11. The passage suggests that which of the following would most likely have occurred if linear
perspective and anatomy had not come to influence artistic endeavor?
(A) The craftsmanship that shaped Gothic architecture would have continued to dominate artists’ outlooks.
(B) Some other technical elements would have been adopted to discipline artistic inspiration.
(C) Intellectual control over artistic inspiration would not have influenced painting as it did architecture.
(D) The role of intuitive inspiration would not have remained fundamental to theories of artistic creation.
(E) The assumptions of aesthetic philosophers before Croce would have been invalidated.
12. The passage supplies information for answering which of the following questions?
(A) Does Romantic art exhibit the triumph of intuition over intellect?
(B) Did an emphasis on linear perspective and anatomy dominate Romantic art?
(C) Are the intellectual and intuitive faculties harmoniously balanced in post-Romantic art?
(D) Are the effects of the rational control of artistic inspiration evident in the great works of pre-Romantic
eras?
(E) Was the artistic craftsmanship displayed in Gothic cathedrals also an element in paintings of this period?
13. The passage implies that which of the following was a traditional assumption of aesthetic
philosophers?
(A) Intellectual elements in art exert a necessary control over artistic inspiration.
(B) Architecture has never again reached the artistic greatness of the Gothic cathedrals.
(C) Aesthetic philosophy is determined by the technical necessities of art.
(D) Artistic craftsmanship is more important in architectural art than in pictorial art.
(E) Paintings lacked the intellectual element before the invention of linear perspective and anatomy.
14. The author mentions “linear perspective and anatomy” in the last sentence in order to do which of
the following?
(A) Expand his argument to include painting as well as architecture
(B) Indicate his disagreement with Croce’s theory of the origins of art
(C) Support his point that rational order of some kind has often seemed to discipline artistic inspiration
(D) Explain the rational elements in Gothic painting that corresponded to craftsmanship in Gothic
architecture
(E) Show the increasing sophistication of artists after the Gothic period

Question 15-20 are based on this passage.

Roger Rosenblatt’s book Black Fiction, in attempting to apply literary rather than sociopolitical criteria to its
subject, successfully alters the approach taken by most previous studies. As Rosenblatt notes, criticism of
Black writing has often served as a pretext for expounding on Black history. Addison Gayle’s recent work,
for example, judges the value of Black fiction by overtly political standards, rating each work according to the
notions of Black identity which it propounds.
Although fiction assuredly springs from political circumstances, its authors react to those circumstances in
ways other than ideological, and talking about novels and stories primarily as instruments of ideology
circumvents much of the fictional enterprise. Rosenblatt’s literary analysis discloses affinities and
connections among works of Black fiction which solely political studies have overlooked or ignored.
Writing acceptable criticism of Black fiction, however, presupposes giving satisfactory answers to a number
of questions. First of all, is there a sufficient reason, other than the racial identity of the authors, to group
together works by Black authors? Second, how does Black fiction make itself distinct from other modern
fiction with which it is largely contemporaneous? Rosenblatt shows that Black fiction constitutes a distinct
body of writing that has an identifiable, coherent literary tradition. Looking at novels written by Blacks over
the last eighty years, he discovers recurring concerns and designs independent of chronology. These
structures are thematic, and they spring, not surprisingly, from the central fact that the Black characters in
these novels exist in a predominantly White culture, whether they try to conform to that culture of rebel
against it.
Black Fiction does leave some aesthetic questions open. Rosenblatt’s thematic analysis permits considerable
objectivity; he even explicitly states that it is not his intention to judge the merit of the various works—yet his
reluctance seems misplaced, especially since an attempt to appraise might have led to interesting results. For
instance, some of the novels appear to be structurally diffuse. Is this a defect, or are the authors working out
of, or trying to forge, a different kind of aesthetic? In addition, the style of some Black novels, like Jean
74
Toomer’s Cane, verges on expressionism or surrealism; does this technique provide a counterpoint to the
prevalent theme that portrays the fate against which Black heroes are pitted, a theme usually conveyed by
more naturalistic modes of expression?
In spite of such omissions, what Rosenblatt does include in his discussion makes for an astute and worthwhile
study. Black Fiction surveys a wide variety of novels, bringing to our attention in the process some
fascinating and little-known works like James Weldon Johnson’s Autobiography of an Ex-Colored Man. Its
argument is tightly constructed, and its forthright, lucid style exemplifies levelheaded and penetrating
criticism.
15. The author of the passage objects to criticism of Black fiction like that by Addison Gayle because it
(A) emphasizes purely literary aspects of such fiction
(B) misinterprets the ideological content of such fiction
(C) misunderstands the notions of Black identity contained in such fiction
(D) substitutes political for literary criteria in evaluating such fiction
(E) ignores the interplay between Black history and Black identity displayed in such fiction
16. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with
(A) evaluating the soundness of a work of criticism
(B) comparing various critical approaches to a subject
(C) discussing the limitations of a particular kind of criticism
(D) summarizing the major points made in a work of criticism
(E) explaining the theoretical background of a certain kind of criticism
17. The author of the passage believes that Black Fiction would have been improved had Rosenblatt
(A) evaluated more carefully the ideological and historical aspects of Black fiction
(B) attempted to be more objective in his approach to novels and stories by Black authors
(C) explored in greater detail the recurrent thematic concerns of Black fiction throughout its history
(D) established a basis for placing Black fiction within its own unique literary tradition
(E) assessed the relative literary merit of the novels he analyzes thematically
18. The author’s discussion of Black Fiction can be best described as
(A) pedantic and contentious
(B) critical but admiring
(C) ironic and deprecating
(D) argumentative but unfocused
(E) stilted and insincere
19. It can be inferred that the author of the passage would be LEAST likely to approve of which of the
following?
(A) An analysis of the influence of political events on the personal ideology of Black writes
(B) A critical study that applies sociopolitical criteria to autobiographies by Black authors
(C) A literary study of Black poetry that appraises the merits of poems according to the political
acceptability of their themes
(D) An examination of the growth of a distinct Black literary tradition within the context of Black history
(E) A literary study that attempts to isolate aesthetic qualities unique to Black fiction
20. The author of the passage uses all of the following in the discussion of Rosenblatt’s book EXCEPT
(A) rhetorical questions
(B) specific examples
(C) comparison and contrast
(D) definition of terms
(E) personal opinion

75
TEST 7
Section 2
Select one answer choice for the blank. Fill in the blank in such a way that it best completes the text.
1. Today Wegener's theory is (i) ; however, he died an outsider treated with (ii) by the scientific
establishment.
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
unsupported reverence
unchallenged disdain
undervalued impartiality

2. The revolution in art has not lost its steam; it on as fiercely as ever.
A. trudges
B. meanders
C. edges
D. ambles
E. rages

3. Each occupation has its own ; bankers, lawyers and computer professionals, for example, all use
among themselves language which outsiders have difficulty following.
A. merits
B. disadvantages
C. rewards
D. jargon
E. problems

4. by nature, Jones spoke very little even to his own family members.
A. garrulous
B. equivocal
C. taciturn
D. arrogant
E. gregarious

5. Biological clocks are of such (i) adaptive value to living organisms, that we would expect most
organisms to (ii) them, and, indeed, we find that such clocks are virtually (iii) .
Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii)
A. meager D. eschew G. ubiquitous
B. ambivalent E. possess H. unknown
C. clear F. select I. compulsory

For the following questions, select the two answer choices that, when inserted into the sentence, fit the
meaning of the sentence as a whole and yield complete sentences that are similar in meaning.
6. After hours of acrimonious arguments the negotiations reached a(n) ; neither side was willing
tocompromise.
A. solution
B. impasse
C. conclusion
D. end
E. deadlock
F. resolution

7. This new staging of King Lear is not a production in which every aspect falls neatly into place
throughout; however, the drama does at certain points to give the audience memorable and thought-
provoking moments.
A. coalesce
B. crystallize
C. triumph
D. flower
E. dissolve
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F. transcend

8. The teacher’s mercurial mood changes and approach to grading made the students uneasy; they
never knew what would please him or what would earn good marks.
A. tardy
B. authoritarian
C. strict
D. ambivalent
E. whimsical
F. hidebound

9. The book is an attempt on the part of the eminent scholar to reconcile the experience and
theoretical underpinnings of certain everyday phenomena.
A. philosophical
B. empirical
C. arcane
D. practical
E. superficial
F. obtuse

10. The last candidate interviewed conducted herself with commendable even when badgered with
questions that had drawn unseemly outbursts from all the other interviewees.
A. pertinacity
B. adroitness
C. alacrity
D. decorum
E. propriety
F. presence of mind

Questions 11 and 14 are based on this passage.

Of Homer’s two epic poems, the Odyssey has always been more popular than the Iliad, perhaps because it
includes more features of mythology that are accessible to readers. Its subject (to use Maynard Mack’s
categories) is “life-as-spectacle,” for readers, diverted by its various incidents, observe its hero Odysseus
primarily from without; the tragic Iliad, however, presents “life-as-experience”: readers are asked to identify
with the mind of Achilles, whose motivations render him a not particularly likable hero. In addition, the Iliad,
more than the Odyssey, suggests the complexity of the gods’ involvement in human actions, and to the extent
that modern readers find this complexity a needless complication, the Iliad is less satisfying than the Odyssey,
with its simpler scheme of divine justice. Finally, since the Iliad presents a historically verifiable action,
Troy’s siege, the poem raises historical questions that are absent from the Odyssey’s blithely imaginative
world.
11. The author uses Mack’s “categories” most probably in order to
(A) argue that the Iliad should replace the Odyssey as the more popular poem
(B) indicate Mack’s importance as a commentator on the Iliad and the Odyssey
(C) suggest one way in which the Iliad and the Odyssey can be distinguished
(D) point out some of the difficulties faced by readers of the Iliad and the Odyssey
(E) demonstrate that the Iliad and the Odyssey can best be distinguished by comparing their respective
heroes
12. The author suggests that the variety of incidents in the Odyssey is likely to deter the reader from
(A) concentrating on the poem’s mythological features
(B) concentrating on the psychological states of the poem’s central character
(C) accepting the explanation that have been offered for the poem’s popularity
(D) accepting the poem’s scheme of divine justice
(E) accepting Maynard Mack’s theory that the poem’s subject is “life-as-spectacle”
13. The passage is primarily concerned with
(A) distinguishing arguments
(B) applying classifications
(C) initiating a debate
(D) resolving a dispute

77
(E) developing a contrast
14. It can be inferred from the passage that a reader of the Iliad is likely to have trouble identifying with
the poem’s hero for which of the following reasons?
(A) The hero is eventually revealed to be unheroic.
(B) The hero can be observed by the reader only from without.
(C) The hero’s psychology is not historically verifiable.
(D) The hero’s emotions often do not seem appealing to the reader.
(E) The hero’s emotions are not sufficiently various to engage the reader’s attention.

Questions 15 and 20 are based on this passage.

Ragtime is a musical form that synthesizes folk melodies and musical techniques into a brief quadrille-like
structure, designed to be played—exactly as written—on the piano. A strong analogy exists between
European composers like Ralph Vaughan Williams, Edvard Grieg, and Anton Dvorak who combined folk
tunes and their own original materials in larger compositions and the pioneer ragtime composers in the United
States. Composers like Scott Joplin and James Scott were in a sense collectors or musicologists, collecting
dance and folk music in Black communities and consciously shaping it into brief suites or anthologies called
piano rags.
It has sometimes been charged that ragtime is mechanical. For instance, Wilfred Mellers comments, “rags
were transferred to the pianola roll and, even if not played by a machine, should be played like a machine,
with meticulous precision.” However, there is no reason to assume that ragtime is inherently mechanical
simply because commercial manufacturers applied a mechanical recording method to ragtime, the only way to
record pianos at that date. Ragtime’s is not a mechanical precision, and it is not precision limited to the style
of performance. It arises from ragtime’s following a well-defined form and obeying simple rules within that
form.
The classic formula for the piano rag disposes three to five themes in sixteen-bar strains, often organized with
repeats. The rag opens with a bright, memorable strain or theme, followed by a similar theme, leading to a trio
of marked lyrical character, with the structure concluded by a lyrical strain that parallels the rhythmic
developments of the earlier themes. The aim of the structure is to rise from one theme to another in a stair-
step manner, ending on a note of triumph or exhilaration. Typically, each strain is divided into two 8-bar
segments that are essentially alike, so the rhythmic-melodic unit of ragtime is only eight bars of 2/4 measure.
Therefore, themes must be brief with clear, sharp melodic figures. Not concerned with development of
musical themes, the ragtime composer instead sets a theme down intact, in finished form, and links it to
various related themes. Tension in ragtime compositions arises from a polarity between two basic ingredients:
a continuous bass—called by jazz musicians a boom-chick bass—in the pianist’s left hand, and its melodic,
syncopated counterpart in the right hand.
Ragtime remains distinct from jazz both as an instrumental style and as a genre. Ragtime style stresses a
pattern of repeated rhythms, not the constant inventions and variations of jazz. As a genre, ragtime requires
strict attention to structure, not inventiveness or virtuosity. It exists as a tradition, a set of conventions, a body
of written scores, separate from the individual players associated with it. In this sense ragtime is more akin to
folk music of the nineteenth century than to jazz.
15. Which of the following best describes the main purpose of the passage?
(A) To contrast ragtime music and jazz
(B) To acknowledge and counter significant adverse criticisms of ragtime music
(C) To define ragtime music as an art form and describe its structural characteristics
(D) To review the history of ragtime music and analyze ragtime’s effect on listeners
(E) To explore the similarities between ragtime music and certain European musical compositions
16. According to the passage, each of the following is a characteristic of ragtime compositions that
follow the classic ragtime formula EXCEPT:
(A) syncopation
(B) well-defined melodic figures
(C) rising rhythmic-melodic intensity
(D) full development of musical themes
(E) a bass line distinct from the melodic line
17. According to the passage, Ralph Vaughan Williams, Anton Dvorak, and Scott Joplin are similar in
that they all
(A) conducted research into musicological history
78
(B) wrote original compositions based on folk tunes
(C) collected and recorded abbreviated piano suites
(D) created intricate sonata-like musical structures
(E) explored the relations between Black music and continental folk music
18. The author rejects the argument that ragtime is a mechanical music because that argument
(A) overlooks the precision required of the ragtime player
(B) does not accurately describe the sound of ragtime pianola music
(C) confuses the means of recording and the essential character of the music
(D) exaggerates the influence of the performance style of professional ragtime players on the reputation of
the genre
(E) improperly identifies commercial ragtime music with the subtler classic ragtime style
19. It can be inferred that the author of the passage believes that the most important feature of ragtime
music is its
(A) commercial success
(B) formal structure
(C) emotional range
(D) improvisational opportunities
(E) role as a forerunner of jazz
20. It can be inferred from the passage that the essential nature of ragtime has been obscured by
commentaries based on
(A) the way ragtime music was first recorded
(B) interpretations of ragtime by jazz musicians
(C) the dance fashions that were contemporary with ragtime
(D) early reviewers’ accounts of characteristic structure
(E) the musical sources used by Scott Joplin and James Scott
.

TEST 8
Section 1
Choose the word or set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
1. With the rise of automated support, technical support workers feel that their services are
being ; technical support, they argue, is not something that can be provided in a predictable
manner but rather is a case-by-case effort that requires a skill set built upon training and experience.
A devalued
B tarnished
C ridiculed
D vituperated
E impaired

2. The spice saffron is made from the stigma of the Crocus sativus plant; the (i) number of
blossoms required to produce saffron and the (ii) of the flower makes the spice the most
expensive in the world.
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
A vast C unique
D color D hardiness
B meager E delicacy

3. The field of cryptozoology is the search for animals unknown to science and those for which we have
no scientific attestation; (i) physical evidence, it relies upon (ii) sightings for
proof of creatures such as the Loch Ness Monster.
79
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
A ignoring C imagined
D anecdotal D needing
B lacking E nominal

4. The humor of Oscar Wilde remains a classic example of. wit; his terse remarks and
deadpan delivery belied an acerbic sarcasm and brilliant insight into the world around him.
A ostentatious
B pointed
C brusque
D orotund
E laconic

5. The neglect of the old theater was (i) in the extreme (ii) of the building,
which was no longer safe to enter.
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
A hinted at D dilapidation
B suggested E manifest
C depilation F radiance

6. The Battle of Thermopylae has been one of the most (i) battles in history and has
become so surrounded in anecdotes and exaggerations that it is often difficult to tell what is history and
what is re-created; nevertheless, its cultural impact on the Western world cannot be (ii)
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
A sensationalized D doubted
B intriguing E supported
C sanguine F arrogated

For the following questions, select the two answer choices that, when inserted into the sentence, fit the
meaning of the sentence as a whole and yield complete sentences that are similar in meaning.
7. As modern scholarship continues to dim the possibility that Homer was a single historic figure, the
question of authorship of his works has been raised; although we might never know who wrote them,
scholars still need some way to refer to the author or authors of the Iliad and Odyssey, so the term
"Homeric tradition" has been as a possible new terminology.
A selected
B established
C appropriated
D bestowed
E suggested
F proposed

8. commercial arsenic usage has diminished, its ongoing presence in water and soil
continues to be a major public health concern, given the extremely high toxicity of the substance.
A After
B Whereas
C Inasmuch as
D Considering
E While
F Because

9. Early sewing machines were poorly received by textile workers, who feared the technology
would the demand for their skills; despite their protests, the sewing machine became popular
both in the factory and in the home.
A overwhelm
B diminish

80
C obviate
D mitigate
E eliminate
F belittle

10. The protest march quickly turned into a riot, and in the response by police, several people on either
side were killed and dozens more wounded; it would later be remembered by both sides as a
tragic accident, and no blame would be assigned.
A indignantly
B mournfully
C spitefully D
bitterly
E soberly
F melancholically

11. Regardless of his limited success, the philosopher was in his search for understanding and continued to th
A content
B disaffected
C dogged
D triumphant
E persévérant
F isolated
F proscribe

81
Questions 12 through 15 are based on the passage below.
Present-day philosophers usually envision their discipline as an endeavor that has been, since antiquity,
distinct from and superior to any particular intellectual discipline, such as theology or science. Such
philosophical concerns as the mind-body problem or, more generally, the nature of human knowledge, they
believe, are basic human questions whose tentative philosophical solutions have served as the necessary
foundations on which all other intellectual speculation has rested.
The basis for this view, however, lies in a serious misinterpretation of the past, a projection of modern
concerns onto past events. The idea of an autonomous discipline called “philosophy,” distinct from and sitting
in judgment on such pursuits as theology and science turns out, on close examination, to be of quite recent
origin. When, in the seventeenth century, Descartes and Hobbes rejected medieval philosophy, they did not
think of themselves, as modern philosophers do, as proposing a new and better philosophy, but rather as
furthering “the warfare between science and theology.” They were fighting, albeit discreetly, to open the
intellectual world to the new science and to liberate intellectual life from ecclesiastical philosophy and
envisioned their work as contributing to the growth, not of philosophy, but of research in mathematics and
physics. This link between philosophical interests and scientific practice persisted until the nineteenth
century, when decline in ecclesiastical power over scholarship and changes in the nature of science provoked
the final separation of philosophy from both.
The demarcation of philosophy from science was facilitated by the development in the early nineteenth
century of a new notion, that philosophy’s core interest should be epistemology, the general explanation of
what it means to know something. Modern philosophers now trace that notion back at least to Descartes and
Spinoza, but it was not explicitly articulated until the late eighteenth century, by Kant, and did not become
built into the structure of academic institutions and the standard self-descriptions of philosophy professors
until the late nineteenth century. Without the idea of epistemology, the survival of philosophy in an age of
modern science is hard to imagine. Metaphysics, philosophy’s traditional core—considered as the most
general description of how the heavens and the earth are put together—had been rendered almost completely
meaningless by the spectacular progress of physics. Kant, however, by focusing philosophy on the problem of
knowledge, managed to replace metaphysics with epistemology, and thus to transform the notion of
philosophy as “queen of sciences” into the new notion of philosophy as a separate, foundational discipline.
Philosophy became “primary” no longer in the sense of “highest” but in the sense of “underlying”. After
Kant, philosophers were able to reinterpret seventeenth-and eighteenth-century thinkers as attempting to
discover “How is our knowledge possible?” and to project this question back even on the ancients.
12. Which of the following best expresses the author’s main point?
(A) Philosophy’s overriding interest in basic human questions is a legacy primarily of the work of Kant.
(B) Philosophy was deeply involved in the seventeenth-century warfare between science and religion.
(C) The set of problems of primary importance to philosophers has remained relatively constant since
antiquity.
(D) The status of philosophy as an independent intellectual pursuit is a relatively recent development.
(E) The role of philosophy in guiding intellectual speculation has gradually been usurped by science.
13. According to the passage, present-day philosophers believe that the mind-body problem is an issue
that
(A) has implications primarily for philosophers
(B) may be affected by recent advances in science
(C) has shaped recent work in epistemology
(D) has little relevance to present-day philosophy
(E) has served as a basis for intellectual speculation since antiquity
14. According to the author, philosophy became distinct from science and theology during the
(A) ancient period
(B) medieval period
(C) seventeenth century
(D) nineteenth century
(E) twentieth century
15. The author suggests that Descartes’ support for the new science of the seventeenth century can be
characterized as
(A) pragmatic and hypocritical
(B) cautious and inconsistent
(C) daring and opportunistic
(D) intense but fleeting
82
(E) strong but prudent
16. The author of the passage implies which of the following in discussing the development of
philosophy during the nineteenth century?
(A) Nineteenth-century philosophy took science as its model for understanding the bases of knowledge.
(B) The role of academic institutions in shaping metaphysical philosophy grew enormously during the
nineteenth century.
(C) Nineteenth-century philosophers carried out a program of investigation explicitly laid out by Descartes
and Spinoza.
(D) Kant had an overwhelming impact on the direction of nineteenth-century philosophy.
(E) Nineteenth-century philosophy made major advances in understanding the nature of knowledge.
17. With which of the following statements concerning the writing of history would the author of the
passage be most likely to agree?
(A) History should not emphasize the role played by ideas over the role played by individuals.
(B) History should not be distorted by attributing present-day consciousness to historical figures.
(C) History should not be focused primarily on those past events most relevant to the present.
(D) History should be concerned with describing those aspects of the past that differ most from those of the
present.
(E) History should be examined for the lessons it can provide in understanding current problems.
18. The primary function of the passage as a whole is to
(A) compare two competing models
(B) analyze a difficult theory
(C) present new evidence for a theory
(D) correct an erroneous belief by describing its origins
(E) resolve a long-standing theoretical controversy

Questions 19 through 20 are based on the passage below.

This is not to deny that the Black gospel music of the early twentieth century differed in important ways from
the slave spirituals. Whereas spirituals were created and disseminated in folk fashion, gospel music was
composed, published, copyrighted, and sold by professionals. Nevertheless, improvisation remained central to
gospel music. One has only to listen to the recorded repertoire of gospel songs to realize that Black gospel
singers rarely sang a song precisely the same way twice and never according to its exact musical notation (a
system of characters, symbols, or abbreviated expressions used in an art or science or in mathematics or logic
to express technical facts or quantities). They performed what jazz musicians call “head arrangements”
proceeding from their own feelings and from the way “the spirit” moved them at the time. This improvisatory
element was reflected in the manner in which gospel music was published. Black gospel composers scored
the music intended for White singing groups fully, indicating the various vocal parts and the accompaniment,
but the music produced for Black singers included only a vocal line and piano accompaniment.
19. Which of the following best describes “head arrangement” as the term is used in line 11?
(A) A published version of a gospel song produced for use by Black singers
(B) A gospel song based on a slave spiritual
(C) A musical score shared by a gospel singer and a jazz musician
(D) An informally written composition intended for use by a gospel singer
(E) An improvised performance inspired by the singer’s emotions
20. The author mentions “folk fashion” most likely in order to
(A) counter an assertion about the role of improvisation in music created by Black people
(B) compare early gospel music with gospel music written later in the twentieth century
(C) make a distinction between gospel music and slave spirituals
(D) introduce a discussion about the dissemination of slave spirituals
(E) describe a similarity between gospel music and slave spirituals

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TEST 8
Section 2
Choose the word or set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
1. (i) _ property insurance, he (ii) _do little when the earthquake struck but accept his losses and move on.
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
A Due to D cared to
B Lacking E could
C Protected by F disdained to

2. Stonehenge is arguably the most widely recognized megalithic site in the world, and, despite many
popular images, was completed more than a millennium before the Celtic druids arrived in Britain; the (i)
_________ can likely be traced to William Stukeley, a pioneer of British archaeology who
(ii) the druids in his writings about megalithic sites.
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
A revelation D ignored
B proof E blamed
C misconception F credited

3. Meteorologists predict temperatures for this summer and caution against over exposure to
the heat without adequate protection and hydration.
A muggy
B brisk
C torrid
D crisp
E unusual

4. The Book of Kells is one of the most magnificent and famous extant illuminated manuscripts of the
Middle Ages; combining masterful artwork and superb calligraphy, it is truly artifact of the past.
A a mythical
B an august
C an infamous
D an underappreciated
E a quaint

5. Although many developments have been made in the burgeoning field of artificial intelligence,
the ultimate goal of matching human intelligence remains elusive, and its actual remains unknown.
A morality
B popularity
C feasibility
D ideal
E price

6. Their friendship has been tested many times without fracturing, and today I can see that they
are each other.
A inseparable from
B estranged from
C distanced from
D acrimonious to
E ambivalent to

7. The modern apartment building can be traced back to the insulae of ancient Rome, where the
stories above business establishments were the lower classes who could not afford to own
their own residences.
A squatted in
B sold to
C given to
D leased to
E inhabited by

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For the following questions, select the two answer choices that, when inserted into the sentence, fit the
meaning of the sentence as a whole and yield complete sentences that are similar in meaning.
8. The ascent of Mount Everest was first conquered nearly sixty years ago, but it nevertheless remains a
symbol of struggle in the popular psyche, demanding incredible determination and
physical endurance.
A arduous
B Daedalean
C colossal
D adamant
E Herculean
F Gordian

9. Carl enjoyed the music and culture surrounding the opera house, but, possessing
a attention span, he secretly wished the performances could be slightly truncated.
A limited
B interminable
C picayune
D finite
E paltry
F infinitesimal

10. Facing the pressure of an impending deadline, Sarah was afflicted with a case
of writer's block; she could not think of a single word to write.
A middling
B thorough
C consummate
D unmitigated
E customary
F egregious

11. "Leaf viewing" is a popular outing in New England, where one can behold magnificent fall colors
when the leaves change; this remarkable sight can be attributed to the of green chlorophyll in
leaves, which allows the carotenoids to show through.
A expulsion
B consumption
C abatement
D irradiation
E ebbing
F nourishment

12. Building trust is a crucial yet difficult aspect of friendship; trust can take years to
be but only moments to be broken.
A forged
B established
C fostered
D acquiesced
E capitulated
F undertaken

Questions 13 through 16 are based on the passage below.

Traditional research has confronted only Mexican and United States interpretations of Mexican-American
culture. Now we must also examine the culture as we Mexican Americans have experienced it, passing from a
sovereign people to compatriots with newly arriving settlers to, finally, a conquered people—a charter (a
grant or guarantee of rights, franchises, or privileges from the sovereign power of a state or country) minority
on our own land.
When the Spanish first came to Mexico, they intermarried with and absorbed the culture of the indigenous
Indians. This policy of colonization through acculturation was continued when Mexico acquired Texas in the
early 1800’s and brought the indigenous Indians into Mexican life and government. In the 1820’s, United
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States citizens migrated to Texas, attracted by land suitable for cotton. As their numbers became more
substantial, their policy of acquiring land by subduing native populations began to dominate. The two
ideologies clashed repeatedly, culminating in a military conflict that led to victory for the United States. Thus,
suddenly deprived of our parent culture, we had to evolve uniquely Mexican-American modes of thought and
action in order to survive.
13. The author’s purpose in writing this passage is primarily to
(A) suggest the motives behind Mexican and United States intervention in Texas
(B) document certain early objectives of Mexican-American society
(C) provide a historical perspective for a new analysis of Mexican-American culture
(D) appeal to both Mexican and United States scholars to give greater consideration to economic
interpretations of history
(E) bring to light previously overlooked research on Mexican Americans
14. The author most probably uses the phrase “charter minority” (lines 6-7) to reinforce the idea that
Mexican Americans
(A) are a native rather than an immigrant group in the United States
(B) played an active political role when Texas first became part of the United States
(C) recognized very early in the nineteenth century the need for official confirmation of their rights of
citizenship
(D) have been misunderstood by scholars trying to interpret their culture
(E) identify more closely with their Indian heritage than with their Spanish heritage
15. According to the passage, a major difference between the colonization policy of the United States
and that of Mexico in Texas in the 1800’s was the
(A) degree to which policies were based on tradition
(B) form of economic interdependency between different cultural groups
(C) number of people who came to settle new areas
(D) treatment of the native inhabitants
(E) relationship between the military and the settlers
16. Which of the following statements most clearly contradicts the information in this passage?
(A) In the early 1800’s, the Spanish committed more resources to settling California than to developing
Texas.
(B) While Texas was under Mexican control, the population of Texas quadrupled, in spite of the fact that
Mexico discouraged immigration from the United States.
(C) By the time Mexico acquired Texas, many Indians had already married people of Spanish heritage.
(D) Many Mexicans living in Texas returned to Mexico after Texas was annexed by the United States.
(E) Most Indians living in Texas resisted Spanish acculturation and were either killed or enslaved.

Questions 17 through 20 are based on the passage below.

Throughout human history there have been many stringent taboos concerning watching other people eat or
eating in the presence of others. There have been attempts to explain these taboos in terms of inappropriate
social relationships either between those who are involved and those who are not simultaneously involved in
the satisfaction of a bodily need, or between those already satiated and those who appear to be shamelessly
gorging. Undoubtedly such elements exist in the taboos, but there is an additional element with a much more
fundamental importance. In prehistoric times, when food was so precious and the on-lookers so hungry, not to
offer half of the little food one had was unthinkable, since every glance was a plea for life. Further, during
those times, people existed in nuclear or extended family groups, and the sharing of food was quite literally
supporting one’s family or, by extension, preserving one’s self.
17. If the argument in the passage is valid, taboos against eating in the presence of others who are not
also eating would be LEAST likely in a society that
(A) had always had a plentiful supply of food
(B) emphasized the need to share worldly goods
(C) had a nomadic rather than an agricultural way of life
(D) emphasized the value of privacy
(E) discouraged overindulgence
18. The author’s hypothesis concerning the origin of taboos against watching other people eat
emphasizes the
(A) general palatability of food
(B) religious significance of food
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(C) limited availability of food
(D) various sources of food
(E) nutritional value of food
19. According to the passage, the author believes that past attempts to explain some taboos concerning
eating are
(A) unimaginative
(B) implausible
(C) inelegant
(D) incomplete
(E) unclear
20. In developing the main idea of the passage, the author does which of the following?
(A) Downplays earlier attempts to explain the origins of a social prohibition.
(B) Adapts a scientific theory and applies it to a spiritual relationship.
(C) Simplifies a complex biological phenomenon by explaining it in terms of social needs.
(D) Reorganizes a system designed to guide personal behavior.
(E) Codifies earlier, unsystematized conjectures about family life.

TEST 9
Section 1
Choose the word or set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
1. Tired of being by her family, she left home at an early age in order to become more independent.
A neglected
B cosseted
C chastised
D overlooked
E mollified

2. Although unfinished at the time of his death, Chretien de Troyes's Perceval was an immediate success
in medieval literature, a fascination in the knightly quest for the Holy Grail, which it
introduced to the European imagination.
A continuing
B renewing
C advancing
D igniting
E demonstrating

3. Her personality made her an effective organizer, but it sometimes left her uncomfortable in
informal social situations because she expected others to choose their words as carefully as she did.
A punctual
B reticent
C meticulous
D efficient
E sophisticated

4. As we seek alternative energy sources, one of the most is the use of photovoltaic material
on the exterior of buildings, which can provide an affordable energy source for residential, commercial,
and other structures.
A costly
B advanced
C environmental
D economical
E conscientious

5. The countless (i) days left everyone (ii) for the sudden downpour; the
deluge brought traffic to a halt as it (iii) the roads.
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Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii)
A arid D waiting G inundated
B calm E unprepared H soaked
C humid F anxious I sprayed
For the following questions, select the two answer choices that, when inserted into the sentence, fit the
meaning of the sentence as a whole and yield complete sentences that are similar in meaning.

6. James that his efforts in the project had earned him a prolonged vacation, but
when his boss rejected the idea, James returned to work without complaint.
A professed
B contended
C ventured
D insisted
E averred
F opined

7. The doctor's handwriting was entirely , much to the frustration of the other staff of the
hospital, but some wondered whether it was not intentionally so in order to prevent forgery of
prescriptions.
A rudimentary
B indecipherable
C lucid
D hieroglyphic
E unprofessional
F rustic

8. While all the coworkers participated in attempting to merge their company with a rival, after their
proposal collapsed, Dustin was the one as a scapegoat in the resulting chaos and was forced to
leave the company.
A blamed
B ostracized
C elected
D designated
E excommunicated
F chosen

9. Although the stems of the rhubarb plant have various culinary and medicinal uses, the leaves are in fact
poisonous, making it a plant best grown only by those familiar with both its and dangers.
A benefits
B treatments
C purposes
D contingencies
E utilities
F exigencies

10. Because William had left no will, after the funeral, arose among his children over
ownership of the family heirlooms; it was tragic to see such bitterness among the family in a time of
mourning.
A a conflagration
B repudiation
C dissension
D contention
E a Rubicon
F a squall

88
Questions 11 through 14 are based on the passage below.
Although the development of new infrastructure (such public facilities as power plants, schools, and bridges)
is usually determined by governmental planning, sometimes this development can be planned more flexibly
and realistically by private investors who anticipate profit from the collection of user fees. Such profits can
contribute to the financing of more infrastructure if demand proves great enough, whereas the reluctance of
developers to invest in such projects can signal that additional infrastructure is not needed. During the
economic boom of the 1980’s, for example, the state of Virginia authorized private developers to build a $300
million toll road . These developers obtained the needed right-of-way from property owners, but by 1993 they
still had not raised the necessary financing. The unwillingness of investors to finance this project does not
negate the viability of privately financed roads; rather, it illustrates a virtue of private financing. If a road
appears unlikely to attract enough future traffic to pay for the road, then it should not be built.
11. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) build a case for increasing the development of new infrastructure
(B) advocate an alternative to government financing of infrastructure
(C) explain the failure of a privately financed venture
(D) suggest the types of infrastructure most appropriate for private financing
(E) argue against government restrictions on developing new infrastructure
12. The passage implies that the “governmental planning” may lead to which of the following
problems?
(A) Improper use of profits derived from user fees
(B) Unduly slow development of necessary new infrastructure
(C) Unrealistic decisions about developing new infrastructure
(D) Incorrect predictions about profits to be gained from user fees
(E) Obstruction of private financing for the development of new infrastructure
13. According to the passage, which of the following is true of the toll road?
(A) After it was built, it attracted too little traffic to pay for its construction.
(B) It was partially financed by the state of Virginia.
(C) Its development was authorized during an economic boom.
(D) Its construction was controversial among local residents.
(E) Its developers were discouraged by governmental restrictions on acquiring the necessary land.
14. The passage suggests that which of the following would occur if a privately financed bridge that
proved to be profitable failed after a number of years to meet the demands of traffic?
(A) Private developers who financed the bridge would rely on governmental authorities to develop new
infrastructure.
(B) User fees would be increased so that usage would become more costly.
(C) Governmental authorities would be reluctant to rely on private contractors to develop a new bridge.
(D) The success of the project would be jeopardized by public dissatisfaction with the project’s adequacy.
(E) Profits generated by user fees would be used to help finance the construction of new infrastructure to
alleviate the traffic problem.

Questions 15 and 20 are based on the passage below.

The age at which young children begin to make moral discriminations about harmful actions committed
against themselves or others has been the focus of recent research into the moral development of children.
Until recently, child psychologists supported pioneer developmentalist Jean. Piaget in his hypothesis that
because of their immaturity, children under age seven do not take into account the intentions of a person
committing accidental or deliberate harm, but rather simply assign punishment for transgressions on the basis
the magnitude of the negative consequences caused. According to Piaget, children under age seven occupy
the first stage of moral development, which is characterized by moral absolutism (rules made by authorities
must be obeyed) and imminent justice (if rules are broken, punishment will be meted (to give out by measure:
DOLE usually used without “mete out punishment”) out). Until young children mature, their moral judgments
are based entirely on the effect rather than the cause of a transgression. However, in recent research, Keasey
found that six-year-old children not only distinguish between accidental and intentional harm, but also judge
intentional harm as naughtier, regardless of the amount of damage produced. Both of these findings seem to
indicate that children, at an earlier age than Piaget claimed, advance into the second stage of moral
development, moral autonomy, in which they accept social rules but view them as more arbitrary than do
children in the first stage.

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Keasey’s research raises two key questions for developmental psychologists about children under age seven:
do they recognize justifications for harmful actions, and do they make distinctions between harmful acts that
are preventable and those acts that have unforeseen harmful consequences? Studies indicate that justifications
excusing harmful actions might include public duty, self-defense, and provocation. For example, Nesdale and
Rule concluded that children were capable of considering whether or not an aggressor’s action was justified
by public duty: five year olds reacted very differently to “Bonnie wrecks Ann’s pretend house” depending on
whether Bonnie did it “so somebody won’t fall over it” or because Bonnie wanted “to make Ann feel bad.”
Thus, a child of five begins to understand that certain harmful actions, though intentional, can be justified; the
constraints of moral absolutism no longer solely guide their judgments.
Psychologists have determined that during kindergarten children learn to make subtle distinctions involving
harm. Darley observed that among acts involving unintentional harm, six-year-old children just entering
kindergarten could not differentiate between foreseeable, and thus preventable, harm and unforeseeable harm
for which the perpetrator cannot be blamed. Seven months later, however, Darley found that these same
children could make both distinctions, thus demonstrating that they had become morally autonomous.
15. Which of the following best describes the passage as a whole?
(A) An outline for future research
(B) An expanded definition of commonly misunderstood terms
(C) An analysis of a dispute between two theorists
(D) A discussion of research findings in an ongoing inquiry
(E) A confirmation of an established authority’s theory
16. According to the passage, Darley found that after seven months of kindergarten six year olds
acquired which of the following abilities?
(A) Differentiating between foreseeable and unforeseeable harm
(B) Identifying with the perpetrator of a harmful action
(C) Justifying harmful actions that result from provocation
(D) Evaluating the magnitude of negative consequences resulting from the breaking of rules
(E) Recognizing the difference between moral absolutism and moral autonomy
17. According to the passage, Piaget and Keasey would not have agreed on which of the following
points?
(A) The kinds of excuses children give for harmful acts they commit
(B) The age at which children begin to discriminate between intentional and unintentional harm
(C) The intentions children have in perpetrating harm
(D) The circumstances under which children punish harmful acts
(E) The justifications children recognize for mitigating punishment for harmful acts
18. It can be inferred that the term “public duty” (line 33) in the context of the passage means which of
the following?
(A) The necessity to apprehend perpetrators.
(B) The responsibility to punish transgressors
(C) An obligation to prevent harm to another
(D) The assignment of punishment for harmful action
(E) A justification for punishing transgressions
19. According to the passage, Keasey’s findings support which of the following conclusions about six-
year-old children?
(A) They have the ability to make autonomous moral judgments.
(B) They regard moral absolutism as a threat to their moral autonomy.
(C) They do not understand the concept of public duty.
(D) They accept moral judgment made by their peers more easily than do older children.
(E) They make arbitrary moral judgments.

20. It can be inferred from the passage that Piaget would be likely to agree with which of the following
statements about the punishment that children under seven assign to wrongdoing?
(A) The severity of the assigned punishment is determined by the perceived magnitude of negative
consequences more than by any other factor.
(B) The punishment is to be administered immediately following the transgression.
(C) The children assign punishment less arbitrarily than they do when they reach the age of moral
autonomy.
(D) The punishment for acts of unintentional harm is less severe than it is for acts involving accidental
harm.
(E) The more developmentally immature a child, the more severe the punishment that the child will assign.
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TEST 9
Section 2
Choose the word or set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
1. They(i) the scientist's (ii) , suspecting his had affected the study, and he
was later found to have tampered with the data so that they better fit his (iii) desired results.
Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii)
A decried D objectivity G biases
B discounted E challenged H guile
C dedication F rhetoric I conduct
2. Although (i) small amounts of seawater is not dangerous to humans, the high salinity of
the water makes it (ii) to consume in large quantities; from this comes the (iii)
lamented by the narrator of The Rime of the Ancient Mariner: "Water, water,
everywhere,/Nor any drop to drink."
Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii)
A guzzling D harsh G setting
B quaffing E difficult H quandary
C imbibing F inadvisable I tragedy
3. In spite of its popularity, The Merchant of Venice remains a (i) play, with many critics
(ii) the extent of Shakespeare's anti-Semitism.
Blank(i) Blank(ii)
A controversial D assuaging
B celebrated E augmenting
C histrionic F debating

4. The cotton gin played a (i) role in advancing the textile industry,
(ii) its negative effects can be seen in the rapid development of slavery as the economic
base of the American South.
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
A controversial D although
B crucial E so
C trivial F plus

5. Although Thomas Paine was (i) his political pamphlets, he was in fact (ii) writer
on many different subjects.
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
A inimical to D an abstruse
B condemned for E a prolific
C famous for F a terrible

For the following questions, select the two answer choices that, when inserted into the sentence, fit the
meaning of the sentence as a whole and yield complete sentences that are similar in meaning.
6. Seeing that the student had clearly rushed through the assignment at the last minute, the professor
returned the paper with a failing grade and cautioned the student to dedicate more time to his studies and
to avoid handing in such work in the future.
A jaunty
B sloppy
C pithy
D burnished
E slipshod
F blithe

7. The difficulty one has in describing its unique flavor, as well as its slogan "Love it or hate it,"
makes Marmite a perfect example of taste.
A a refined
B an idiosyncratic
C an acquired
D a novel
E an endowed
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F a mediocre

8. Given his long history of penny-pinching behavior, we could not help but feel that his refusal to
donate to the charity only reinforced his image.
A parsimonious
B avaricious
C covetous
D penuriousselfish
E rapacious

9. Although we are constantly beset by stories of exploitation and abuse during widespread catastrophes, it
is important also to the good Samaritans who may be found in these same times of crisis.
A commend
B recall
C exploit
D remember
E promote
F proscribe

Questions 10 and 13 are based on the passage below.

Since the Hawaiian Islands have never been connected to other land masses, the great variety of plants in
Hawaii must be a result of the long-distance dispersal of seeds, a process that requires both a method of
transport and an equivalence between the ecology of the source area and that of the recipient area.
There is some dispute about the method of transport involved. Some biologists argue that ocean and air
currents are responsible for the transport of plant seeds to Hawaii. Yet the results of flotation experiments and
the low temperatures of air currents cast doubt on these hypotheses. More probable is bird transport, either
externally, by accidental attachment of the seeds to feathers, or internally, by the swallowing of fruit and
subsequent excretion of the seeds. While it is likely that fewer varieties of plant seeds have reached Hawaii
externally than internally, more varieties are known to be adapted to external than to internal transport.
10. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with
(A) discussing different approaches biologists have taken to testing theories about the distribution of plants in
Hawaii
(B) discussing different theories about the transport of plant seeds to Hawaii
(C) discussing the extent to which air currents are responsible for the dispersal of plant seeds to Hawaii
(D) resolving a dispute about the adaptability of plant seeds to bird transport
(E) resolving a dispute about the ability of birds to carry plant seeds long distances
11. The author mentions the results of flotation experiments on plant seeds (lines 10-12) most probably
in order to
(A) support the claim that the distribution of plants in Hawaii is the result of the long-distance dispersal of
seeds
(B) lend credibility to the thesis that air currents provide a method of transport for plant seeds to Hawaii
(C) suggest that the long-distance dispersal of seeds is a process that requires long periods of time
(D) challenge the claim that ocean currents are responsible for the transport of plant seeds to Hawaii
(E) refute the claim that Hawaiian flora evolved independently from flora in other parts of the world
12. It can be inferred from information in the passage that the existence in alpine regions of Hawaii of a
plant species that also grows in the southwestern United States would justify which of the following
conclusions?
(A) The ecology of the southwestern United States is similar in important respects to the ecology of alpine
regions of Hawaii.
(B) There are ocean currents that flow from the southwestern United States to Hawaii.
(C) The plant species discovered in Hawaii must have traveled from the southwestern United States only very
recently.
(D) The plant species discovered in Hawaii reached there by attaching to the feathers of birds migrating from
the southwestern United States.
(E) The plant species discovered in Hawaii is especially well adapted to transport over long distances.
13. The passage supplies information for answering which of the following questions?
(A) Why does successful long-distance dispersal of plant seeds require an equivalence between the ecology of
the source area and that of the recipient area?

92
(B) Why are more varieties of plant seeds adapted to external rather than to internal bird transport?
(C) What varieties of plant seeds are birds that fly long distances most likely to swallow?
(D) What is a reason for accepting the long-distance dispersal of plant seeds as an explanation for the origin
of Hawaiian flora?
(E) What evidence do biologists cite to argue that ocean and air currents are responsible for the transport of
plant seeds to Hawaii?

Questions 14 through 20 are based on the passage below.

Viruses, infectious particles consisting of nucleic acid packaged in a protein coat (the capsid), are difficult to
resist. Unable to reproduce outside a living cell, viruses reproduce only by subverting the genetic mechanisms
of a host cell. In one kind of viral life cycle, the virus first binds to the cell’s surface, then penetrates the cell
and sheds its capsid. The exposed viral nucleic acid produces new viruses from the contents of the cell.
Finally, the cell releases the viral progeny, and a new cell cycle of infection begins. The human body
responds to a viral infection by producing antibodies: complex, highly specific proteins that selectively bind
to foreign molecules such as viruses. An antibody can either interfere with a virus’s ability to bind to a cell, or
can prevent it from releasing its nucleic acid.
Unfortunately, the common cold, produced most often by rhinoviruses, is intractable to antiviral defense.
Humans have difficulty resisting colds because rhinoviruses are so diverse, including at least 100 strains. The
strains differ most in the molecular structure of the proteins in their capsids. Since disease-fighting antibodies
bind to the capsid, an antibody developed to protect against one rhinovirus strain is useless against other
strains. Different antibodies must be produced for each strain.
A defense against rhinoviruses might nonetheless succeed by exploiting hidden similarities among the
rhinovirus strains. For example, most rhinovirus strains bind to the same kind of molecule (delta-receptors) on
a cell’s surface when they attack human cells. Colonno, taking advantage of these common receptors, devised
a strategy for blocking the attachment of rhinoviruses to their appropriate receptors. Rather than fruitlessly
searching for an antibody that would bind to all rhinoviruses, Colonno realized that an antibody binding to the
common receptors of a human cell would prevent rhinoviruses from initiating an infection. Because human
cells normally do not develop antibodies to components of their own cells, Colonno injected human cells into
mice, which did produce an antibody to the common receptor. In isolated human cells, this antibody proved to
be extraordinarily effective at thwarting the rhinovirus. Moreover, when the antibody was given to
chimpanzees, it inhibited rhinoviral growth, and in humans it lessened both the severity and duration of cold
symptoms.
Another possible defense against rhinoviruses was proposed by Rossman, who described rhinoviruses’
detailed molecular structure. Rossman showed that protein sequences common to all rhinovirus strains lie at
the base of a deep “canyon” scoring (score: to mark with lines, grooves, scratches, or notches) each face of
the capsid. The narrow opening of this canyon possibly prevents the relatively large antibody molecules from
binding to the common sequence, but smaller molecules might reach it. Among these smaller, nonantibody
molecules, some might bind to the common sequence, lock the nucleic acid in its coat, and thereby prevent
the virus from reproducing.
14. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) discuss viral mechanisms and possible ways of circumventing certain kinds of those mechanisms
(B) challenge recent research on how rhinoviruses bind to receptors on the surfaces of cells
(C) suggest future research on rhinoviral growth in chimpanzees
(D) defend a controversial research program whose purpose is to discover the molecular structure of
rhinovirus capsids
(E) evaluate a dispute between advocates of two theories about the rhinovirus life cycle
15. It can be inferred from the passage that the protein sequences of the capsid that vary most among
strains of rhinovirus are those
(A) at the base of the “canyon”
(B) outside of the “canyon”
(C) responsible for producing nucleic acid
(D) responsible for preventing the formation of delta-receptors
(E) preventing the capsid from releasing its nucleic acid
16. It can be inferred from the passage that a cell lacking delta-receptors will be
(A) unable to prevent the rhinoviral nucleic acid from shedding its capsid
(B) defenseless against most strains of rhinovirus
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(C) unable to release the viral progeny it develops after infection
(D) protected from new infections by antibodies to the rhinovirus
(E) resistant to infection by most strains of rhinovirus
17. Which of the following research strategies for developing a defense against the common cold would
the author be likely to find most promising?
(A) Continuing to look for a general antirhinoviral antibody
(B) Searching for common cell-surface receptors in humans and mice
(C) Continuing to look for similarities among the various strains of rhinovirus
(D) Discovering how the human body produces antibodies in response to a rhinoviral infection
(E) Determining the detailed molecular structure of the nucleic acid of a rhinovirus
18. It can be inferred from the passage that the purpose of Colonno’s experiments was to determine
whether
(A) chimpanzees and humans can both be infected by rhinoviruses
(B) chimpanzees can produce antibodies to human cell-surface receptors
(C) a rhinovirus’ nucleic acid might be locked in its protein coat
(D) binding antibodies to common receptors could produce a possible defense against rhinoviruses
(E) rhinoviruses are vulnerable to human antibodies
19. According to the passage, Rossman’s research suggests that
(A) a defense against rhinoviruses might exploit structural similarities among the strains of rhinovirus
(B) human cells normally do not develop antibodies to components of their own cells
(C) the various strains of rhinovirus differ in their ability to bind to the surface of a host cell
(D) rhinovirus versatility can work to the benefit of researchers trying to find a useful antibody
(E) Colonno’s research findings are probably invalid
20. According to the passage, in order for a given antibody to bind to a given rhinoviral capsid, which
of the following must be true?
(A) The capsid must have a deep “canyon” on each of its faces.
(B) The antibody must be specific to the molecular structure of the particular capsid.
(C) The capsid must separate from its nucleic acid before binding to an antibody.
(D) The antibody must bind to a particular cell-surface receptor before it can bind to a rhinovirus.
(E) The antibody must first enter a cell containing the particular rhinovirus.

TEST 10
Section 1
Choose the word or set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
1. Some critics maintain that Tennyson's poetry is uneven, ranging from the (i) to the (ii) .
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
succinct laconic
trite sonorous
sublime inspired

2. The immune system is capable of distinguishing self from other at the cellular level. After grafting,
unless the immune system is effectively (i) , there is a (ii) of lymphocytes in the lymph glands;
the newly produced lymphocytes then move in to (iii)
the foreign tissue.
Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii)
A. primed D. reduction G. stimulate
B. suppressed E. proliferation H. regenerate
C. activated F. stasis I. attack

3. One (i) of the new scheme is that it might actually (ii) just those applicants that it was
intended to encourage.
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
attraction induce
highlight daunt
drawback attract

4. Corruption is (i) our society; the integrity of even senior officials is (ii) .
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Blank (i) Blank (ii)
rife in suspect
endangered throughout intact
alien to unquestioned

5. In their day to day decision making, many senior managers do not follow the apparently (i) model
favored by orthodox management experts, but rather rely on intuitive processes that often appear (ii)
and (iii) .
Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii)
A. conscientious D. thoughtful G. logical
B. normal E. cerebral H. iconoclastic
C. rational F. capricious I. deliberate

For the following questions, select the two answer choices that, when inserted into the sentence, fit the
meaning of the sentence as a whole and yield complete sentences that are similar in meaning.
6. adherence to outdated political ideas and defunct sects characterized the last years of a man who
had, surprisingly, been one of the most flexible thinkers of the 1920s.
A. Intransigent
B. Vacillating
C. Sectarian
D. Confused
E. Frantic
F. Dogged

7. The effects of constant noise drove Natasha to seek refuge in a more salubrious spot until she
recovered her mental equilibrium.
A. stimulating
B. debilitating
C. deafening
D. enervating
E. soporific
F. precipitating

8. Grandfather liked us children to learn self-discipline, and, unlike many others of his generation, seldom
us even for those actions that we felt deserved censure.
A. rewarded
B. consoled
C. upbraided
D. applauded
E. cherished
F. chided

9. To the layman, a philosopher who attempts to elucidate a complex moral dilemma by reducing it to a
simple yet apparently ridiculous test case seems rather to the issue.
A. ridicule
B. obfuscate
C. over-simplify
D. denigrate
E. becloud
F. attenuate

10. Fraser taught by example: he long-windedness in his own lectures and berated his students for
any tendency toward circumlocution.
A. eschewed
B. epitomized
C. accentuated
D. embraced
E. welcomed
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F. shunned

Questions 11 through 14 are based on the passage below.

Zooplankton, tiny animals adapted to an existence in the ocean, have evolved clever mechanisms for
obtaining their food, miniscule phytoplankton (plant plankton). A very specialized feeding adaptation in
zooplankton is that of the tadpolelike appendicularian who lives in a walnut-sized (or smaller) balloon of
mucus equipped with filters that capture and concentrate phytoplankton. The balloon, a transparent structure
that varies in design according to the type of appendicularian in habiting it, also protects the animal and helps
to keep it afloat. Water containing phytoplankton is pumped by the appendicularian’s muscular tail into the
balloon’s incurrent filters, passes through the feeding filter where the appendicularian sucks the food into its
mouth, and then goes through an exit passage. Found in all the oceans of the world, including the Arctic
Ocean, appendicularians tend to remain near the water’s surface where the density of phytoplankton is
greatest.
11. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is true of appendicularians?
(A) They are exclusively carnivorous.
(B) They have more than one method of obtaining food.
(C) They can tolerate frigid water.
(D) They can disguise themselves by secreting mucus.
(E) They are more sensitive to light than are other zooplankton.
12. The author is primarily concerned with
(A) explaining how appendicularians obtain food
(B) examining the flotation methods of appendicularians
(C) mapping the distribution of appendicularians around the world
(D) describing how appendicularians differ from other zooplankton
(E) comparing the various types of balloons formed by appendicularians
13. According to the passage, all of the following are descriptive of appendicularians EXCEPT:
(A) tailed
(B) vegetarian
(C) small-sized
(D) single-celled
(E) ocean-dwelling
14. The passage suggests that appendicularians tend to remain in surface waters because they
(A) prefer the warmer water near the surface
(B) are unable to secrete mucus at the lower levels of the ocean
(C) use the contrast of light and shadow at the surface to hide from predators
(D) live in balloons that cannot withstand he water pressure deeper in the ocean
(E) eat food that grows more profusely near the surface

Questions 15 through 20 are based on the passage below.

The two claws of the mature American lobster are decidedly different from each other. The crusher claw is
short and stout; the cutter claw is long and slender. Such bilateral asymmetry, in which the right side of the
body is, in all other respects, a mirror image of the left side, is not unlike handedness in humans. But where
the majority of humans are right-handed, in lobsters the crusher claw appears with equal probability on either
the right or left side of the body.
Bilateral asymmetry of the claws comes about gradually. In the juvenile fourth and fifth stages of
development, the paired claws are symmetrical and cutterlike. Asymmetry begins to appear in the juvenile
sixth stage of development, and the paired claws further diverge toward well-defined cutter and crusher claws
during succeeding stages. An intriguing aspect of this development was discovered by Victor Emmel. He
found that if one of the paired claws is removed during the fourth or fifth stage, the intact claw invariably
becomes a crusher, while the regenerated claw becomes a cutter. Removal of a claw during a later juvenile
stage or during adulthood, when asymmetry is present, does not alter the asymmetry; the intact and the
regenerate claws retain their original structures.
These observations indicate that the conditions that trigger differentiation must operate in a random manner
when the paired claws are intact but in a nonrandom manner when one of the claws is lost. One possible
explanation is that differential use of the claws determines their asymmetry. Perhaps the claw that is used
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more becomes the crusher. This would explain why, when one of the claws is missing during the fourth or
fifth stage, the intact claw always becomes a crusher. With two intact claws, initial use of one claw might
prompt the animal to use it more than the other throughout the juvenile fourth and fifth stages, causing it to
become a crusher.
To test this hypothesis, researchers raised lobsters in the juvenile fourth and fifth stages of development in a
laboratory environment in which the lobsters could manipulate oyster chips. (Not coincidentally, at this stage
of development lobsters typically change from a habitat where they drift passively, to the ocean floor where
they have the opportunity to be more active by burrowing in the substrate.) Under these conditions, the
lobsters developed asymmetric claws, half with crusher claws on the left, and half with crusher claws on the
right. In contrast, when juvenile lobsters were reared in a smooth tank without the oyster chips, the majority
developed two cutter claws. This unusual configuration of symmetrical cutter claws did not change when the
lobsters were subsequently placed in a manipulatable environment or when they lost and regenerated one or
both claws.

15. The passage is primarily concerned with

(A) drawing an analogy between asymmetry in lobsters and handedness in humans
(B) developing a method for predicting whether crusher claws in lobsters will appear on the left or right side
(C) explaining differences between lobsters’ crusher claws and cutter claws
(D) discussing a possible explanation for the way bilateral asymmetry is determined in lobsters
(E) summarizing the stages of development of the lobster
16. Each of the following statements about the development of a lobster’s crusher claw is supported by
information in the passage EXCEPT:
(A) It can be stopped on one side and begun on the other after the juvenile sixth stage.
(B) It occurs gradually over a number of stages.
(C) It is initially apparent in the juvenile sixth stage.
(D) It can occur even when a prospective crusher claw is removed in the juvenile sixth stage.
(E) It is less likely in the absence of a manipulatable environment.
17. Which of the following experimental results, if observed, would most clearly contradict the findings
of Victor Emmel?
(A) A left cutterlike claw is removed in the fifth stage and a crusher claw develops on the right side.
(B) A left cutterlike claw is removed in the fourth stage and a crusher claw develops on the left side.
(C) A left cutterlike claw is removed in the sixth stage and a crusher claw develops on the right side.
(D) Both cutterlike claws are removed in the fifth stage and a crusher claw develops on the left side.
(E) Both cutterlike claws are removed in the fourth stage and a crusher claw develops on the right side.
18. It can be inferred that of the two laboratory environments mentioned in the passage, the one with
oyster chips was designed to
(A) prove that the presence of oyster chips was not necessary for the development of a crusher claw
(B) prove that the relative length of time that the lobsters were exposed to the oyster-chip environment had
little impact on the development of a crusher claw
(C) eliminate the environment as a possible influence in the development of a crusher claw
(D) control on which side the crusher claw develops
(E) simulate the conditions that lobsters encounter in their natural environment
19. It can be inferred from the passage that one difference between lobsters in the earlier stages of
development and those in the juvenile fourth and fifth stages is that lobsters in the early stages are
(A) likely to be less active
(B) likely to be less symmetrical
(C) more likely to lose a claw
(D) more likely to replace a crusher claw with a cutter claw
(E) more likely to regenerate a lost claw
20. Which of the following conditions does the passage suggest is a possible cause for the failure of a
lobster to develop a crusher claw?
(A) The loss of a claw during the third or earlier stage of development
(B) The loss of a claw during the fourth or fifth stage of development
(C) The loss of a claw during the sixth stage of development
(D) Development in an environment devoid of material that can be manipulated
(E) Development in an environment that changes frequently throughout the stages of development

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TEST 10
Section 2
Choose the word or set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
1. He was treated like a and cast out from his community.
A. ascetic
B. prodigy
C. prodigal
D. pariah
E. tyro

2. The teacher accused me of (i) because my essay was so similar to that of another student. Once I
was able to (ii) myself, the teacher viewed the other student’s denials with more (iii) .
Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii)
A. plagiarism D. vindicate G. credulity
B. procrastination E. inculpate H. cognizance
C. decorum F. reprieve I. skepticism

3. We live in a age; everyone thinks that maximizing pleasure is the point of life.
A. ubiquitous
B. propitious
C. sporadic
D. corrupt
E. hedonistic

4. After having subjected the patient to an aggressive course of treatment that in itself could be (i) ,
the doctor was thankful that the disease had gone into (ii) . He was able to tell the patient that
symptoms might (iii) for many years.
Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii)
A. refulgent D. remission G. not recur
B. life-enhancing E. quarantine H. persist
C. life-threatening F. sequestration I. malinger

5. People from all over the world are sent by their doctors to breathe the pure, (i) air in this mountain
region to counteract the (ii) effects of their urban existence.
Blank (i) Blank (ii)
insalubrious deracinating
soporific stimulating
invigorating debilitating

For the following questions, select the two answer choices that, when inserted into the sentence, fit the
meaning of the sentence as a whole and yield complete sentences that are similar in meaning.
6. If he had not had the to follow his own iconoclastic theories in the face of the apparently
unassailable conclusion of the accepted experts in the field, progress would have been inestimably slower
in this area of knowledge.
A. incentive
B. audacity
C. temerity
D. incapacity
E. unwillingness
F. wisdom

7. With an abiding interest in Medieval poetry, Boris found it difficult to relate to his peers in school
whose ran to nothing even remotely literary.
A. predilections
B. successes
C. inclinations
D. backgrounds
E. achievements

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F. amities

8. The novel is admittedly not the finest example of its genre, but I object to the preface written by a
supposed expert on detective fiction from whom we might have expected at least one or two perceptive
comments.
A. egregious
B. inane
C. pretentious
D. subliminal
E. vacuous
F. unexamined

9. It is not only the poor and uneducated that fall prey to ; desperate or unhappy individuals from
any walk of life or social background can be duped.
A. mavericks
B. malcontents
C. quacks
D. charlatans
E. agitators
F. hypochondriacs

10. The director, accustomed to unquestioning loyalty, was chagrined when she discovered that her
directions had been by the chief executive.
A. underscored
B. misinterpreted
C. undermined
D. misplaced
E. substantiated
F. subverted

Questions 11 through 14 are based on the passage below.

Although the hormone adrenaline is known to regulate memory storage, it does not pass from the blood into
brain cells. We are faced with an apparent paradox: how can a hormone that does not act directly on the brain
have such a large effect on brain function?
Recently, we tested the possibility that one of the hormone’s actions outside the brain might be responsible.
Since one consequence of adrenaline release in an animal is an increase in blood glucose levels, we examined
the effects of glucose on memory in rats. We found that glucose injected immediately after training enhances
memory tested the next day. Additional evidence was provided by negative findings: drugs called adrenergic
antagonists, which block peripheral adrenaline receptors, disrupted adrenaline’s ability to regulate memory
but did not affect memory enhancements produced by glucose that was not stimulated by adrenaline. These
results are as they should be if adrenaline affects memory modulation by increasing blood glucose levels.
11. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) reconcile two opposing theories
(B) compare two different explanations for a phenomenon
(C) describe experimental research that appears to support an unpopular theory
(D) present evidence that may help to resolve an apparent contradiction
(E) describe a hypothesis that has cause a controversy
12. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would most likely describe the “additional
evidence” (line 12) provided by experiments with adrenergic antagonists as
(A) revolutionary
(B) disappointing
(C) incomplete
(D) unexpected
(E) corroborative
13. The passage provides information about which of the following topics?
(A) The mechanism by which glucose affects memory storage
(B) The evidence that prompted scientist to test the effects of adrenaline on memory regulation
(C) The reason that the effects of glucose on memory were tested
(D) The ways that memory storage modifies the structure of the brain
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(E) The kinds of training used to test memory enhancement in rats
14. The author refers to the results of the experiment using adrenergic antagonists as “negative
findings” (line 13) most likely because the adrenergic antagonists
(A) failed to disrupt adrenaline’s effect on memory
(B) did not affect glucose’s ability to enhance memory
(C) did not block adrenaline’s ability to increase blood glucose levels
(D) only partially affected adrenaline’s ability to enhance memory
(E) disrupted both adrenaline’s and glucose’s effect on memory

Questions 15 through 20 are based on the passage below.

Classical physics defines the vacuum as a state of absence: a vacuum is said to exist in a region of space if
there is nothing in it. In the quantum field theories that describe the physics of elementary particles, the
vacuum becomes somewhat more complicated. Even in empty space, particles can appear spontaneously as a
result of fluctuations of the vacuum. For example, an electron and a positron, or antielectron, can be created
out of the void. Particles created in this way have only a fleeting existence; they are annihilated almost as
soon as they appear, and their presence can never be detected directly. They are called virtual particles in
order to distinguish them from real particles, whose lifetimes are not constrained in the same way, and which
can be detected. Thus it is still possible to define that vacuum as a space that has no real particles in it.
One might expect that the vacuum would always be the state of lowest possible energy for a given region of
space. If an area is initially empty and a real particle is put into it, the total energy, it seems, should be raised
by at least the energy equivalent of the mass of the added particle. A surprising result of some recent
theoretical investigations is that this assumption is not invariably true. There are conditions under which the
introduction of a real particle of finite mass into an empty region of space can reduce the total energy. If the
reduction in energy is great enough, an electron and a positron will be spontaneously created. Under these
conditions the electron and positron are not a result of vacuum fluctuations but are real particles, which exist
indefinitely and can be detected. In other words, under these conditions the vacuum is an unstable state and
can decay into a state of lower energy; i.e., one in which real particles are created.
The essential condition for the decay of the vacuum is the presence of an intense electric field. As a result of
the decay of the vacuum, the space permeated by such a field can be said to acquire an electric charge, and it
can be called a charged vacuum. The particles that materialize in the space make the charge manifest. An
electric field of sufficient intensity to create a charged vacuum is likely to be found in only one place: in the
immediate vicinity of a superheavy atomic nucleus, one with about twice as many protons as the heaviest
natural nuclei known. A nucleus that large cannot be stable, but it might be possible to assemble one next to a
vacuum for long enough to observe the decay of the vacuum. Experiments attempting to achieve this are now
under way.
15. Which of the following titles best describes the passage as a whole?
(A) The Vacuum: Its Fluctuations and Decay
(B) The Vacuum: Its Creation and Instability
(C) The Vacuum: A State of Absence
(D) Particles That Materialize in the Vacuum
(E) Classical Physics and the Vacuum
16. According to the passage, the assumption that the introduction of a real particle into a vacuum
raises the total energy of that region of space has been cast into doubt by which of the following?
(A) Findings from laboratory experiments
(B) Findings from observational field experiments
(C) Accidental observations made during other experiments
(D) Discovery of several erroneous propositions in accepted theories
(E) Predictions based on theoretical work
17. It can be inferred from the passage that scientists are currently making efforts to observe which of
the following events?
(A) The decay of a vacuum in the presence of virtual particles
(B) The decay of a vacuum next to a superheavy atomic nucleus
(C) The creation of a superheavy atomic nucleus next to an intense electric field
(D) The creation of a virtual electron and a virtual positron as a result of fluctuations of a vacuum
(E) The creation of a charged vacuum in which only real electrons can be created in the vacuum’s region of
space

100
18. Physicists’ recent investigations of the decay of the vacuum, as described in the passage, most
closely resemble which of the following hypothetical events in other disciplines?
(A) On the basis of data gathered in a carefully controlled laboratory experiment, a chemist predicts and
then demonstrates the physical properties of a newly synthesized polymer.
(B) On the basis of manipulations of macroeconomic theory, an economist predicts that, contrary to
accepted economic theory, inflation and unemployment will both decline under conditions of rapid
economic growth.
(C) On the basis of a rereading of the texts of Jane Austen’s novels, a literary critic suggests that, contrary to
accepted literary interpretations. Austen’s plots were actually metaphors for political events in early
nineteenth-century England.
(D) On the basis of data gathered in carefully planned observations of several species of birds, a biologist
proposes a modification in the accepted theory of interspecies competition.
(E) On the basis of a study of observations incidentally recorded in ethnographers’ descriptions of non-
Western societies, an anthropologist proposes a new theory of kinship relations.
19. According to the passage, the author considers the reduction of energy in an empty region of space
to which a real particle has been added to be
(A) a well-known process
(B) a frequent occurrence
(C) a fleeting aberration
(D) an unimportant event
(E) an unexpected outcome

20. The author’s assertions concerning the conditions that lead to the decay of the vacuum would be
most weakened if which of the following occurred?
(A) Scientists created an electric field next to a vacuum, but found that the electric field was not intense
enough to create a charged vacuum.
(B) Scientists assembled a superheavy atomic nucleus next to a vacuum, but found that no virtual particles
were created in the vacuum’s region of space.
(C) Scientists assembled a superheavy atomic nucleus next to a vacuum, but found that they could not then
detect any real particles in the vacuum’s region of space.
(D) Scientists introduced a virtual electron and a virtual positron into a vacuum’s region of space, but found
that the vacuum did not then fluctuate.
(E) Scientists introduced a real electron and a real positron into a vacuum’s region of space, but found that
the total energy of the space increased by the energy equivalent of the mass of the particles

101
QUANTITATIVE REASONING
Glossary of GRE Math Terms
A
Absolute Value A number’s distance on the number line from 0, without considering which direction from 0 the
number lies. Therefore, absolute value will always be positive.

Acute Angle An angle less than 90 degrees.

Adjacent Angle Either of two angles having a common side and common vertex. For example, in the following
figure, angles a and b are adjacent angles:

Arc A portion of the circumference of a circle, as shown in the following figure:

The complete arc of a circle has 360°.

Area The number of square units that covers the shape or figure. Following are the formulas for the area of some
common figures:
• Square: side (s) squared (s2 )
• Rectangle: length (l) times width (w) (l * w)
• Circle: pi (π) times the radius (r) squared (πr2)
• Triangle: one half the base (b) times the height (h) ( 1/2b *h)

Arithmetic Mean (see Average) The average of a group of values. Calculate the arithmetic mean by dividing the
sum of all of the values in the group by the total count of values in the group. For example, the average of the 3 test
scores 82%, 83%, and 87% is equivalent to (82 + 83 + 87) divided by 3; 252 / 3 =
84.

Associative Property A mathematical property whereby the grouping of numbers being added or multiplied can be
changed without changing the sum or the product. The associative property of multiplication can be expressed as (a
*b) * c = a *(b *c). Likewise, the associative property of addition can be expressed as (a + b) + c = a + (b + c).

Average (see Arithmetic Mean) The arithmetic mean of a group of values.

Calculate the average by dividing the sum of all of the values in the group by the total count of values in the group.
For example, the average of the 3 test scores 82%, 83%, and 87% is equivalent to (82 + 83 + 87) divided by 3; 252 / 3
= 84.

B–C
Base In geometry, the bottom of a plane figure. For example, in the right triangle that follows, AC is the base:

102
In algebra, the base is the number that is raised to various powers. For example, 23 indicates a base of 2 raised to the
power of 3.

Circumference The distance around a circle. The circumference of a circle is equal to pi times the diameter (πd). The
formula for the circumference of a circle can also be expressed as 2πr, because the diameter, d, is twice the radius, r.

Collinear A term referring to points that pass through or lie on the same straight line.

Commutative Property A mathematical property whereby the order of numbers being added or multiplied can be
changed without changing the sum or the product. The commutative property of addition is expressed as a +b =b + a.
Likewise, the commutative property of multiplication is expressed as a * b = b *a, or ab = ba.

Complementary Angles Two angles for which the sum is 90 degrees.

Congruent A term describing any shapes or figures, including line segments and angles, that have the same size or
measure. For example, in the triangle below, sides AB and BC are congruent, and angles A and C are congruent:

Coordinate Plane A plane, typically defined with the coordinates x and y, where the two axes are at right angles to each
other. The horizontal axis is the x-axis, and the vertical axis is the y-axis, as shown in the following figure:

You can locate any point (x,y) on the coordinate plane by an ordered pair of numbers. The ordered pair (0,0), where the x
and y axes meet, is the origin.
The coordinate plane is divided into four quadrants, as shown in the following figure:

103
D
Decimal The point that separates values less than 1 from those greater than 1. In our number system, digits can be
placed to the left and right of a decimal point. Place value refers to the value of a digit in a number relative to its
position. Starting from the left of the decimal point, the values of the digits are ones, tens, hundreds, and so on.
Starting to the right of the decimal point, the values of the digits are tenths, hundredths, thousandths, and so on.

Denominator The bottom part of a fraction. For example, in the fraction _ 43_ , 4 is the denominator.

Diagonal A line segment that connects two nonadjacent vertices in any polygon. In the following rectangle, AC and
BD are diagonals:

Diameter A line segment that joins two points on a circle and passes through the center of the circle, as shown in the

following figure, where AB is the diameter:

Distributive Property A mathematical property observed when an expression involves both addition and
multiplication. The distributive property is expressed as a(b + c) = ab + ac, where the variable a is distributed to the
variables b and c.

Divisible Capable of being divided, usually with no remainder. For example, 6 is divisible by 2, because when 6 is
divided by 2, the result is 3 with no remainder.

E–F
Equilateral Triangle A triangle in which all of the sides are congruent and each of the angles equals 60 degrees.

Exponent A number that indicates the operation of repeated multiplication. A number with an exponent is said to be
“raised to the power” of that exponent. For example, 23 indicates 2 raised to the power of 3, which translates into 2 *
2 * 2. In this instance, 3 is the exponent.

Factor One of two or more expressions that are multiplied together to get a product. For example, in the equation 2 *
3 = 6, 2 and 3 are factors of 6. Likewise, in the equation x2 + 5x + 6, (x + 2) and (x + 3) are factors.

FOIL Method A method of multiplying two binomials, such as (x _ 2) and (x _ 3), according to the following steps:
Multiply the FIRST terms together: (x)(x) = x2
Multiply the OUTSIDE terms together: (x)(3) = 3x Multiply the INSIDE terms together: (2)(x) = 2x Multiply the
LAST terms together: (2)(3) = 6 Now, combine like terms to get x2 + 5x + 6

Fraction An expression that indicates the quotient of two quantities.

For example, 2/3 is a fraction, where 2 is the numerator and 3 is the denominator.

Frequency Distribution The frequency with which a data value occurs in any given set of data.

Function A set of ordered pairs where no two of the ordered pairs has the same x-value. In a function, each input (x-
value) has exactly one output (y-value). For example, f(x) =2x _ 3. If x + 3, then f(x) = 9. For every x, only one f(x), or y,
exists.

G–H–I
Greatest Common Factor (GCF) The largest number that will divide evenly into any two or more numbers. For
example, 1, 2, 4, and 8 are all factors of 8; likewise, 1, 2, 3, and 6 are all factors of 6. Therefore, the greatest common
factor of 8 and 6 is 2.

Hexagon A six-sided figure, shown below:

Hypotenuse The leg of a right triangle that is opposite the right angle. For example, in the right triangle in the following
figure, BC is the hypotenuse:

The hypotenuse is always the longest leg of a right triangle.

Improper Fraction An integer combined with a fraction. For example, 2½ is an improper fraction (see also Mixed
Number).

Inequality A mathematical expression that shows that two quantities are not equal. For example, 2x < 8 is an inequality
that means that 2x is less than 8. Likewise, 3a > 17 is an inequality that means that 3a is greater than 17.

Integer Integers include both positive and negative whole numbers. Zero is also considered an integer.

Interior Angle The angle inside two adjacent sides of a polygon. The sum of the interior angles in a triangle is always
180 degrees.

Irrational Number A number that cannot be exactly expressed as the ratio of two integers. For example, π(≈3.14) is an
irrational number.

Isosceles Triangle A triangle in which two sides have the same length.

J–L
Least Common Denominator (LCD) The smallest multiple of the denominators of two or more fractions. For example,
the least common denominator of 3/4 and 2/5 is 20.
Least Common Multiple (LCM) The smallest number that any two or more numbers will divide evenly into. For
example, the common multiples of 3 and 4 are 12, 24, and 36; 12 is the smallest multiple, and is, therefore, the least
common multiple of 3 and 4.

Like Terms Terms that contain the same variable raised to the same power. For example, 3x2 and 10x2 are like
terms that can be combined to get 13x 2. Also, -x and 4x are like terms that can be combined to get 3x.

Line A straight set of points that extends into infinity in both directions, as shown in the following figure:

Line Segment A figure representing two points on a line and all of the points in between, as shown in the following
figure:

M–N

Median The middle value of a series of numbers when those numbers are in either ascending or descending order.
In the series (2, 4, 6, 8, 10) the median is 6. To find the median in an even set of data, find the average of the middle
two numbers. In the series (3, 4, 5, 6) the median is 4.5.

Midpoint The center point of a line segment.

Improper Fractions; 1½ is a mixed number.

Mode The number that appears most frequently in a series of numbers. In the series (2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 3, 7) the mode is 3,
because 3 appears twice in the series and the other numbers each appear only once in the series.

Number Line The line on which every point represents a real number. On a number line, numbers that correspond
to points to the right of zero are positive, and numbers that correspond to points to the left of zero are negative. For
any two numbers on the number line, the number to the left is less than the number to the right.
Numerator The top part of a fraction. For example, in the fraction 3/4, 3 is the numerator.

O–P
Obtuse Angle An angle that measures greater than 90 degrees and less than 180 degrees.

Octagon An eight-sided figure, shown as follows:

Parallel A term that describes two distinct lines that lie in the same plane and do not intersect. Two lines are parallel
if and only if they have the same slope. For example, the two lines with equations 2y = 6x + 7 and y = 3x - 14 have
the same slope (3) (see Point-slope Form).
Parallelogram A quadrilateral in which the opposite sides are of equal length and the opposite angles are equal, as shown

below:
The sum of the angles in a parallelogram is always 360 degrees.

PEMDAS An acronym that describes the correct order in which to perform mathematical operations. The acronym
PEMDAS stands for Parentheses, Exponents, Multiplication, Division, Addition, and Subtraction. It should help you to
remember to do the operations in the correct order, as follows:
P First, do the operations within the parentheses, if any.
E Next, do the exponents, if any.
M, D Next, do the multiplication or division, if any.
A, S Next, do the addition or subtraction, in order from left to right, if any.

Pentagon A five-sided figure, shown as follows:

Percent A fraction whose denominator is 100. The fraction 25/100 is equal to 25% and can also be expressed as 0.25.

Perimeter The distance around any shape or object. Following are the formulas for the perimeter of some common
figures:
• The perimeter (P) of a rectangle is equivalent to 2l + 2w, where l is the length and w is the width.
• The perimeter (P) of a square is 4s, where s is the length of a side.
• The perimeter (P) of other polygons is the sum of the lengths of the sides.
• The perimeter (P) of a triangle is the sum of the lengths of the sides.

Perpendicular A term describing two distinct lines whose intersection creates a right angle. Two lines are perpendicular
if and only if the slope of one of the lines is the negative reciprocal of the slope of the other line. In other words, if line a
has a slope of 2, and line b has a slope of -½, then the two lines are perpendicular.

Point A location in a plane or in space that has no dimensions.

Point-slope Form The equation of a line in the form y = mx + b, where m is the slope and b is the y- intercept.

Polygon A closed plane figure made up of at least three line segments that are joined. For example, a triangle, a rectangle,
and an octagon are polygons.

Polynomial A mathematic expression consisting of more than two terms. 2x2 + 4x + 4 is a simple quadratic equation, and
also a polynomial.

Prime Number Any number that can only be divided by itself and 1. That is, 1 and number itself are the only factors of a
prime number. For example, 2, 3, 5, 7, and 11 are prime numbers.

Probability The likelihood that an event will occur. For example, Jeff has three striped and four solid ties in his closet;
therefore, he has a total of seven ties in his closet. He has three chances to grab a striped tie out of the seven total ties,
because he has three striped ties. So, the probability of Jeff grabbing a striped tie is 3 out of 7, which can also be
expressed as 3:7, or 3/7
Proportion A mathematical statement indicating that one ratio is equal to another ratio. For example, 1/5= x/20 is a
proportion.

Pythagorean Theorem This theorem applies only to finding the length of the sides in right triangles, and states that c2
= a2 + b2, where c is the hypotenuse (the side opposite the right angle) of a right triangle and a and b are the two other
sides of the triangle.

Q–R
Quadrilateral Any four-sided polygon with four angles. A parallelogram, a rectangle, a square, and a trapezoid are all
examples of quadrilaterals.

Quotient The result of division.

Radius The distance from the center of a circle to any point on the circle, as shown below in the following circle with

center C:
Ratio A mathematical comparison between two quantities. A ratio of 1 to 5, for example, is written as either 1/5 or 1:5.

Rational Number A fraction whose numerator and denominator are both integers and the denominator does not equal
0.

Real Number Any rational or irrational number, used to express quantities, lengths, amounts, and the like. All real
numbers correspond to points on the number line. All real numbers except zero are either positive or negative.

Reciprocal Given a number, n, the reciprocal is expressed as 1 over n, or 1/n . The product of a number and its
reciprocal is always 1. In other words, which is equivalent to 1.

Rectangle A polygon with four sides (two sets of congruent, or equal sides) and four right angles. All rectangles are
parallelograms.

Right Angle An angle that measures 90 degrees.

S–T
Sequence An arithmetic sequence is one in which the difference between one term and the next is the same. For
example, the following sequence is an arithmetic sequence because the difference between the terms is 2: 1, 3, 5, 7, 9.
A geometric sequence is one in which the ratio between two terms is constant. For example, the following sequence is a
geometric sequence because the ratio between the terms is 1/2: 16, 8, 4, 2, 1, 1/2.

Set A well-defined group of numbers or objects. For example, {2, 4, 6, 8} is the set of positive even whole numbers less
than 10.

Similar Triangles Triangles in which the measures of corresponding angles are equal and the corresponding sides are
in proportion, as shown in the following figure:
Slope-intercept Equation y = mx + b, where m is the slope of the line and b is the y-intercept (that is, the point at
which the graph of the line crosses the y-axis).

Special Triangles Triangles whose sides have special ratios. The following are angle measures and side lengths for
special right triangles:

Square A number multiplied by itself. Squaring a negative number yields a positive result. For example,
-22=4.

Square Root Given a number, √n, the square root is written as _ n , or the non-negative value a that fulfills the
expression a2 = n. For example, the square root of 5 is expressed as √5 , and (√5)2 = 5.

System of Equations A group of two or more equations with the same set of unknowns. In solving a system of
equations, try to find values for each of the unknowns that will satisfy every equation in the system.

Triangle A closed plane figure having three sides and three angles.

V–Z

Volume A measure of space or capacity of a three-dimensional object. The formula for the volume of a rectangular
solid is V _ lwh, where l _ length, w _ width, and h _ height. y-intercept The point at which a line crosses the y-axis
in the (x,y)–coordinate plane.
MATH REFERENCE
QUANTITATIVE REASONING QUESTION TYPES
1. PERCENTAGES PRACTICE SET
1. If a sweater sells for $48 after a 25% markdown, what was its original price?
A $56
B $60
C $64
D $68
E $72

2. A hardware store is selling a lawnmower for $300. If the store makes a 25% profit on the sale, what is the store's
cost for the lawnmower?
A $210
B $225
C $240
D $250
E $275

3. A retailer marked up the cost of a coat by 20% when she first displayed it in her store. After several weeks, she
reduced the selling price of the coat by 25%. If the retailer originally paid $50 for the coat, what will be her loss on
the coat at the final price?
A $0
B $5
C $10
D $15
E $20

2. SIMULTANEOUS EQUATIONS PRACTICE SET

1. If x + y = 8 and y — x = —2, then y=
A -2
B 3
C 5
D 8
E 10

2. If m - n = 5 and 2m + 3n = 15, then m + n =

A1
B 6
C 7
D 10
E 15

3. Which of the ordered pairs of numbers (c, d) satisfies the simultaneous equations shown?
c + 2d = 6
-3c - 6d= -18
A (-2,4)
B (-1,-3)
C (0,2)
D (2,1)
E (3,-9)

3. SYMBOLISM PRACTICE SET

C 0
D 8/3
E 1o/3
A -8
B -2
C 2
D 20
E 40

A -3
B 1/4
C 2/3
D 3/4
E 3

4. SPECIAL TRIANGLES PRACTICE SET

1. In triangle ABC, if AB = 4, then AC =

A 6
B 7
C 8
D 9
E 1o
B

A 6 C
2. If the perimeter of triangle ABC above is 16, what is its area?
A 8
B 9
C 10
D 12
E 15

3. A ladder 20 feet long is placed against a wall. If the distance on the ground from the wall to the ladder is 12 feet,
how many feet up the wall does the ladder reach?
A12
B 15
C 16
D 21
E 24

5. MULTIPLE AND ODDBALL FIGURES PRACTICE

F
1. What is the value of x in the figure above?
A4
B 3√3
C3√5
D 5√3
E9

2. In the figure above, square PQRS is inscribed in a circle. If the area of square PQRS is 4, what is the radius of the
circle?
Al
B √2
C2
D 2√2
E 4√2
B

3. In the figure above, the quarter circle with center D has a radius of 4 and rectangle ABCD has a perimeter of 20.
What is the perimeter of the shaded region?
A20 - 8π
B 10 + 2π
C 12 + 2π
D 12 + 4π
E4+8π

6. MEAN, MEDIAN, MODE, AND RANGE PRACTICE SET

1. The only test scores for the students in a certain class are 44, 30, 42, 30, x, 44, and 30. If x equals one of the
other scores and is a multiple of 5, what is the mode for the class?
A5
B6
C 15
D 30
E 44

2. If half the range of the increasing sequence {11, A, 23, B, C, 68, 73} is equal to its median, what is the
median of the sequence?
A 23
B 31
C 33
D 41
E 62

3. If the average (arithmetic mean) of x + 1, x + 2, and x + 3 is 0, then x -

A -2
B -l
C 0
D l
E 2

7. PROBABILITY PRACTICE SET

1. If 14 women and 10 men are employed in a certain office, what is the probability that one employee picked at
random will be a woman?

A 1/14
B 1/6
C 7/12
D1
E 7/5

2. A bag contains 6 red, 6 green, 8 yellow, and 5 white marbles. You pick one marble at random from the bag. What
is the probability that the marble chosen is not green or yellow?
A 14/20
B 13/20
C 11/25
D 14/25
E 11/14

3. If Tom flips a fair coin twice, what is the probability that at least one head will occur?
A¼
B 1/3
C½
D 2/3
E¾

8. QUANTITATIVE COMPARISON PRACTICE SET

Quantity A Quantity B
1. x2 + 2x - 2 x2 + 2x - 1
A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

x = 2y; y is a positive number.

Quantity A Quantity B
2. 42y 2X
A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

q, r, and s are positive numbers; qrs > 12.

Quantity A Quantity B
3. qr/5 3/s

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

In triangle XYZ, the measure of angle X equals the measure of angle Y.

Quantity A Quantity B
4. The degree measure of angle Z The degree measure of angle X
plus the degree measure of angle Y

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
square A square B
5. Quantity A Quantity B
Perimeter of square A Length of WY
Perimeter of square B Length of PR

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

9. PROBLEM SOLVING PRACTICE SET

1. If r = 3s, s = 5t, t = 2u, and u≠0, what is the value of rst/u^3?

A 30
B 60
C 150
D 300
E 600

2. In the diagram, l1 is parallel to l2. The measure of angle q is 40 degrees. What is the sum of the measures of the
acute angles shown in the diagram?

3. At Central Park Zoo, the ratio of sea lions to penguins is 4:11. If there are 84 more penguins than sea lions, how
many sea lions are there?
A 24
B 36
C 48
D 72
E 121

4. Which of the following are prime numbers between 5/2 and 43/5 ? Indicate all possible answers.
A 3
B 4
C 5
D 7
E 9

5. The figure above is made up of 3 squares having the same side length. If the perimeter of the figure is 40 units,
what is the area in square units?
A 50
B 75
C 120
D 150
E 200
Test 1
GRE Math Tests

Questions: 24
Time: 45 minutes

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

1. If 1 < p < 3, then which of the following could be true?
I. p2 < 2p
II. p2 = 2p
III. p2 > 2p
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) I, II, and III

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

2.
x + 2y = 7
Which of the following could the value of x be in the given equation?
(A) x=0
(B) x=2
(C) x=3
(D) x=5
(E) x=7

3. Column A Column B
The least positive integer The least positive integer that is
divisible by 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 a multiple of 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

16
Test 1—Questions

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

4. The product of which three of the following numbers is the greatest?

(A) –9
(B) –5
(C) –3
(D) 0
(E) 4
(F) 7
(G) 10

5. Column A Column B
The count of the numbers The count of the numbers
between 100 and 300 that are between 100 and 300 that are
divisible by both 5 and 6 divisible by either 5 or 6

6. Column A a and b are integers Column B

greater than zero.
a/b a2

17
GRE Math Tests

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choice Only]

7. From the figure, which of the following must be true?

(A) y=z
(B) y<z
(C) yz
(D) y>z
(E) y + z = 2x

y z
x 3x

[Numeric Entry Question]

8. In the figure, ABCD is a square, and OB is a radius of the circle. If BC is a tangent to the circle and
PC = 2, then what is the area of the square?

A B 3 O

D C

18
Test 1—Questions

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

9. In the figure, ABCD is a rectangle, and F and E are points on AB and BC, respectively. The area of
DFB is 9 and the area of BED is 24. What is the perimeter of the rectangle?

(A) 18
(B) 23
(C) 30
(D) 42
(E) 48
A F 2 B

D C

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

10. In the figure, ABCD is a square and BCP is an equilateral triangle. What is the measure of x?

(A) 7.5
(B) 15
(C) 30
(D) 45
(E) 60

A B

x° P

y°
D C

19
GRE Math Tests

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

11. After being marked down 20 percent, a calculator sells for $10. The original selling price was

(A) $20
(B) $12.5
(C) $12
(D) $9
(E) $7

12. Column A a2 + 7a < 0 Column B

a 0

13. Column A Column B

30 31 30
of
31 32 31

20
Test 1—Questions

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choice Only]

1 1
14. If (x + 5) + = 4 , then x =
x 5

(A) 1/5
(B) 1/2
(C) 1
(D) 5
(E) 10

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

15.

3x + 4y = c
kx + 12y = 36

In the system, if k = 9, c = 12, and x and y are integers, then which of the following could y be?

(A) –6
(B) 0
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 12

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

16. The ratio of the number of chickens to the number of pigs to the number of horses on Richard’s farm
is 33 : 17 : 21. What fraction of the animals are either pigs or horses?

(A) 16/53
(B) 17/54
(C) 38/71
(D) 25/31
(E) 38/33

21
GRE Math Tests

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

17. The ratio of the angles in ABC is 2 : 3 : 4. Which of the following triangles is similar to ABC ?

(A) DEF has angles in the ratio 4 : 3 : 2.

(B) PQR has angles in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3.
(C) LMN has angles in the ratio 1 : 1 : 1.
(D) STW has sides in the ratio 1 : 1 : 1.
(E) XYZ has sides in the ratio 4 : 3 : 2.
(F) MRQ has angles in the ratio 3 : 2 : 4.

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

32
18. If p = , then which one of the following equals p – 4?
2 +1

(A) 32
(B) 3+2
(C) 2
(D) 2 2 + 6 3 2
(E) 2 2 + 6 3 + 2

19. Column A The population of a country Column B

increases at a fixed percentage
each year.
Increase in population in the Increase in population in the
first decade 1980–1990 second decade 1990–2000

22
Test 1—Questions

20. Column A Patrick purchased 80 pencils and Column B

sold them at a loss that is equal to
the selling price of 20 pencils.
Cost of 80 pencils Selling price of 100 pencils

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

21. An off-season discount of 10% is being offered at a store for any purchase with list price above $500.
No other discounts are offered at the store. John purchased a computer from the store for $459. Which
of the following could be the list price (in dollars)?

(A) 459
(B) 465
(C) 479
(D) 510
(E) 525

22. Column A In a jar, 60% of the marbles are Column B

red and the rest are green.

40% of the red marbles in the 60% of the green marbles in the
jar jar

23
Test 2
GRE Math Tests

Questions: 24
Time: 45 minutes

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

1. Mr. Smith's average annual income in each of the years 2006 and 2007 is positive x dollars. His
average annual income in each of the years 2008, 2009, and 2010 is positive y dollars. He did earn at
least some money each year. Which of the following could be his average annual income for the four
continuous years 2006 through 2009?

(A) x/2
(B) x/2 + y/2
(C) x/2 + y
(D) x/2 + 3y/4
(E) x/2 + 3y/5
(F) 3x/5 + y/2

2. Column A For any positive integer n, (n) Column B

represents the number of factors
of n, inclusive of 1 and itself. a
and b are unequal prime numbers.
(a) + (b) (a b)

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

3. a and b are multiples of 20, b and c are multiples of 30, and a and c are multiples of 40. Which of the
following must be individually divisible by a, b, and c?

(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 30
(D) 40
(E) 120
(F) 240

34
Test 2—Questions

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

4. Which of the following could be the fraction of numbers that are divisible by both 7 and 10 in a set of
71 consecutive integers?

(A) 1/71
(B) 2/71
(C) 3/71
(D) 4/71
(E) 5/71

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

5. In the triangle, what is the value of x?

(A) 25
(B) 25 + y
(C) 25 – y
(D) 55
(E) 60

y° + x°

70° – y° 60° + x°

35
GRE Math Tests

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

6. In the figure, O is the center of the circle. Which of the following must be true about the perimeter of the
triangle shown?

(A) Less than 10

(B) Greater than 20
(C) Greater than 30
(D) Less than 40
(E) Less than 40 and greater than 20

B
A

36
Test 2—Questions

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

7. In the figure, ABCD is a rectangle inscribed in the circle shown. What is the length of the smaller arc
DC ?

(A) /4
(B) /3
(C) 2/3
(D) 3/4
(E) 4/3

A B

2
D C

37
GRE Math Tests

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

8. In the figure, y =

(A) –12
(B) –3
(C) 1
(D) 5 3
(E) 12
E

x°
4 + 2y

5+y

A x°
y 9–y C
D

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

9. In triangle ABC, CA = 4, and CB = 6. Which of the following could be the area of triangle ABC ?

(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) 12
(E) 15

38
Test 2—Questions

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

10. Suppose five circles, each 4 inches in diameter, are cut from a rectangular strip of paper 12 inches
long. If the least amount of paper is to be wasted, what is the width of the paper strip?

(A) 5
(B) 4+2 3
(C) 8
(D) (
4 1+ 3 )
(E) not enough information

11. Column A (4 – 5x)2 = 1 Column B

(4 – 5x) + (4 – 5x)2 1

12. Column A 0<x<y Column B

x + 1/x y + 1/y

39
GRE Math Tests

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

13. If x = a + 2 and b = x + 1, then which of the following must be false?

(A) a>b
(B) a<b
(C) a=b
(D) a = b2
(E) b = a2

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

14. The difference between two angles of a triangle is 24J. If all three angles are numerically double-digit
integers, then which of the following could be the measure of the third angle?

(A) 10J
(B) 12J
(C) 59J
(D) 74J
(E) 98J

15. Column A The monthly incomes of A and B Column B

are in the ratio 3 : 2, and the
monthly expenditures of the two
are in the ratio 4 : 3.

The income of both is greater than

the expenditures, and the Savings
from income is defined as the
Income – Expenditure.
Savings of A Savings of B

40
Test 2—Questions

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

16. If x – 3 = 10/x and x> 0, then x could equal which of the following?

(A) –2
(B) –1
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 10

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

17. If r and s are two positive numbers and r is 25% greater than s, what is the value of the ratio r/s ?

(A) 0.75
(B) 0.8
(C) 1
(D) 1.2
(E) 1.25

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

xy
18. If 1/x + 1/y = 1/3, then =
x+y

(A) 1/5
(B) 1/3
(C) 1
(D) 3
(E) 5

41
GRE Math Tests

19. Column A A stores sells Brand A items and Column B

Brand B items at 75% and 80%,
respectively, of list prices. During
festival season, discounts of 20%
and 25%, on Brand A and Brand
B, respectively, are offered.
Spinach tins of Brand A and
Brand B have the same list price.
Cost of spinach tins of Brand A Cost of spinach tins of Brand B
during festival season during festival season

[Numeric Entry Question]

20. 2ab5 is a four-digit number divisible by 25. If the number ab formed from the two digits a and b is a
multiple of 13, then the three-digit number 2ab =

42
Test 3
GRE Math Tests

Questions: 24
Time: 45 minutes

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

1. Which of the following equals the product of the smallest prime number greater than 21 and the
largest prime number less than 16?

(A) 13 16
(B) 13 29
(C) 11 23
(D) 15 23
(E) 16 21

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

2. How many 3-digit numbers do not have an even digit or a zero?

(A) 50
(B) 60
(C) 75
(D) 100
(E) 125

3. Column A ABC and DEF are right triangles. Column B

Each side of ABC is twice the
length of the corresponding side
of DEF.
The area of DEF 1/2
The area of ABC

56
Test 3—Questions

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

4. In the figure, ABCD is a rectangle and AF is parallel to BE. If x = 5, and y = 10, then what is the area
of AFD ?

(A) 2.5
(B) 5
(C) 12.5
(D) 50
(E) 50 + 5y
A y B

D F C x E

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

5. In the figure, if AB = 8, BC = 6, AC = 10 and CD = 9, then AD =

(A) 12
(B) 13
(C) 15
(D) 17
(E) 24

8
10

B 6 C 9 D

57
GRE Math Tests

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

6. In the figure, which of the following are the two largest angles?

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) CDB

3 B
A

2
4 5

D 6
C

The figure is not drawn to scale.

58
Test 3—Questions

[Numeric Entry Question]

7. In the figure, if A = C, then x =

y°/2

x° O
C
y°
D

B
The dimensions in the figure may be different from what they appear to be.

59
GRE Math Tests

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

8. If x2 + 4x + 3 is odd, then which of the following could be the value of x ?

(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 13
(E) 16

9. Column A Mike and Fritz ran a 30-mile Column B

Marathon. Mike ran 10 miles at 10
mph and the remaining 20 miles at
5 mph. Fritz ran one-third (by
time) of the Marathon at 10 mph
and the remaining two-thirds at 5
mph.
Average speed of Mike Average speed of Fritz

60
Test 3—Questions

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

10. In the coordinate system shown, if (b, a) lies in Quadrant III, then in which quadrant can the point (a, b)
lie?

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) IV only
(E) Origin

y-axis

Quadrant II 100 Quadrant I

–100 100 x-axis

A(b, a)

Quadrant III Quadrant IV

–100

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

11. If x > 2 and x < 3, then which of the following must be positive?

(I) (x – 2)(x – 3)
(II) (2 – x)(x – 3)
(III) (2 – x)(3 – x)

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) I and III only

61
GRE Math Tests

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

12. Water is poured into an empty cylindrical tank at a constant rate. In 10 minutes, the height of the
water increased by 7 feet. The radius of the tank is 10 feet. What is the rate at which the water is
poured?

(A) 11/8 cubic feet per minute.

(B) 11/3 cubic feet per minute.
(C) 7/60 cubic feet per minute.
(D) 11 cubic feet per minute.
(E) 70 cubic feet per minute.

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

13. The selling price of 15 items equals the cost of 20 items. What is the percentage profit earned by the
seller?

(A) 15
(B) 20
(C) 25
(D) 33.3
(E) 40

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

14. If 4p is equal to 6q, then 2p – 3q equals which one of the following?

(A) 0
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6

62
Test 3—Questions

15. Let <x> denote the greatest

Column A integer less than or equal to x. Column B
<3.1> + <–3.1> 0

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

16. In what proportion must rice at $0.8 per pound be mixed with rice at $0.9 per pound so that the
mixture costs $0.825 per pound?

(A) 1:3
(B) 1:2
(C) 1:1
(D) 2:1
(E) 3:1

17. Column A Column B

12.5 + 12.5 25

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

18. Removing which of the following numbers from the set S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} would actually increase
the average of the set?

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
(F) 6

19. Column A Column B

45% of 90 90% of 45

63
Test 4
GRE Math Tests

Questions: 24
Time: 45 minutes

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

1. Which of the following could be an integer?

(A) The average of two consecutive integers

(B) The average of three consecutive integers
(C) The average of four consecutive integers
(D) The average of six consecutive integers
(E) The average of 6 and 9

2. Column A m and n are two positive integers. Column B

5m + 7n = 46.
m n

3. Column A The nth term of the sequence Column B

a1, a2, a3, ..., an is defined as
an = –(an – 1). The first term a1
equals –1.
a5 1

76
Test 4—Questions

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

4. ABCD is a square and one of its sides AB is also a chord of the circle as shown in the figure. What is
the area of the square?

(A) 3
(B) 9
(C) 12
(D) 12 2
(E) 18

A
D

C B

5. Column A Column B
The perimeter of ABC The circumference of the circle
A

O B

77
GRE Math Tests

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

6. In the figure, the areas of parallelograms EBFD and AECF are 3 and 2, respectively. What is the area
of rectangle ABCD ?

(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 4 3
(E) 7
A E B

D F C

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

7. The diagonal length of a square is 14.1 sq. units. What is the area of the square, rounded to the nearest
integer? ( 2 is approximately 1.41.)

(A) 96
(B) 97
(C) 98
(D) 99
(E) 100

78
Test 4—Questions

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

8. AB and CD are chords of the circle, and E and F are the midpoints of the chords, respectively. The
line EF passes through the center O of the circle. If EF = 17, then what is radius of the circle?
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D) 15
(E) 25

C
A

12
5
O
E F

B
D

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

E
y-axis
a°

B(6, 3)

a° C
A(0, 0) D(2, 0) x-axis

9. In the rectangular coordinate plane shown, what are the coordinates of point E ?
(A) (2, 0)
(B) (2, 3)
(C) (6, 2)
(D) (6, 6)
(E) (6, 8)

79
GRE Math Tests

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

10. In the game of chess, the Knight can make any of the
moves displayed in the diagram. If a Knight is the only
piece on the board, what is the greatest number of spaces
from which not all 8 moves are possible?
(A) 8
(B) 24
(C) 38
(D) 48
(E) 56

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

11. Which one of the following is nearest to 0.313233 ?
(A) 3/10
(B) 31/100
(C) 313/1000
(D) 3132/10000
(E) 31323/100000

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

12. If x2 – 4x + 3 equals 0, then what is the value of (x – 2)2 ?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) 4

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Or More Answer Choices]

13. If 2x = 2y + 1, then which of the following could be true?
(A) x>y
(B) x<y
(C) x=y
(D) x=y+1
(E) 9x + 12y = 36

80
Test 4—Questions

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

14. The average length of all the sides of a rectangle equals twice the width of the rectangle. If the area of
the rectangle is 18, what is its perimeter?

(A) 6 6
(B) 8 6
(C) 24
(D) 32
(E) 48

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Or More Answer Choices]

15. If Robert can assemble a model car in 30 minutes and Craig can assemble the same model car in 20
minutes, how long would it take them, working together, to assemble the model car?
(A) 12 minutes
(B) 13 minutes
(C) 14 minutes
(D) 15 minutes
(E) 16 minutes

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Or More Answer Choices]

16. The ratio of the number of chickens to the number of pigs to the number of horses on Richard’s farm
is 33 : 17 : 21. What fraction of the animals are either pigs or horses?

(A) 16/53
(B) 17/54
(C) 38/71
(D) 25/31
(E) 38/33

81
GRE Math Tests

17. Column A n equals 104 + (2 102) Column B

Number of zeros in n Number of zeros in n2

18. Column A Column B

(1111.0)2 – (999.0)2 (1111.5)2 – (999.5)2

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

19. Each person in a group of 110 investors has investments in either equities or securities or both.
Exactly 25% of the investors in equities have investments in securities, and exactly 40% of the
investors in securities have investments in equities. How many have investments in equities?

(A) 65
(B) 80
(C) 120
(D) 135
(E) 150

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

20. Katrina has a wheat business. She purchases wheat from a local wholesaler at a particular cost per
pound. The price of the wheat at her stores is $3 per pound. Her faulty spring balance reads 0.9
pounds for a pound. Also, in the festival season, she gives a 10% discount on the wheat. She found
that she made neither a profit nor a loss in the festival season. At what price did Katrina purchase the
wheat from the wholesaler?

(A) 2.43
(B) 2.5
(C) 2.7
(D) 3
(E) 3.3

82
Test 5
GRE Math Tests

Questions: 24
Time: 45 minutes

1. Column A Column B
ab2 a2b

Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

2. Which of the following are divisible by both 2 and 3? [Note: If an integer is divisible by 3, then the
sum of its digits is also divisible by 3.]

(A) 1005
(B) 1296
(C) 1351
(D) 1406
(E) 1414
(F) 3456

3. Column A The digits of a two-digit number X Column B

differ by 4.
The positive difference between 15
the squares of the digits of X

94
Test 5—Questions

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

4. What is the remainder when 37 is divided by 8?

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 7

5. Column A 0<x<1 Column B

x2 x

95
GRE Math Tests

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

6. From the figure, which of the following must be true?

(I) x + y = 90
(II) x is 35 units greater than y
(III) x is 35 units less than y

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) I and III only

35°

x° y°
m

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

7. Which one of the following is true regarding the triangle shown in figure?

(A) x>y>z
(B) x<y<z
(C) x=y=z
(D) 2x = 3y/2 = z
(E) x/2 = 2y/3 = z

z°

1 1/2 2

x° A 1 C y°

96
Test 5—Questions

8. Column A |a| is the distance point a is from Column B

the origin on the number line. x
0.
|x| + |–2| |x – 2|

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

9. Let u represent the sum of the integers from 1 through 20, and let v represent the sum of the integers
from 21 through 40. What is the value of v – u ?

(A) 21
(B) 39
(C) 200
(D) 320
(E) 400

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

10. Richard leaves to visit his friend who lives 200 miles down Interstate 10. One hour later his friend
Steve leaves to visit Richard via Interstate 10. If Richard drives at 60 mph and Steve drives at
40 mph, how many miles will Steve have driven when they cross paths?

(A) 56
(B) 58
(C) 60
(D) 65
(E) 80

97
GRE Math Tests

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

11. How many different ways can 3 cubes be painted if each cube is painted one color and only the 3
colors red, blue, and green are available? (Order is not considered, for example, green, green, blue is
considered the same as green, blue, green.)

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 9
(D) 10
(E) 27

12. Column A Column B

2/3 – 3/4 3/4 – 4/5

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

1
13. If x is not equal to 1 and y = , then which one of the following cannot be the value of y ?
x 1

(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) 4

98
Test 5—Questions

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

14. Which one of the following numbers is the greatest positive integer x such that 3x is a factor of 275 ?

(A) 5
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 15
(E) 19

15. Column A The arithmetic mean (average) of Column B

the numbers a and b is 17. The
geometric mean of the numbers a
and b is 8. The geometric mean of
two numbers is defined to be the
square root of their product.
a b

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

7x + 2y + 5z
16. If x = 10a, y = 3b, z = 7c, and x : y : z = 10 : 3 : 7, then =
8a + b + 3c

(A) 111/12
(B) 7/6
(C) 8/15
(D) 108/123
(E) 135/202

99
GRE Math Tests

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

17. A perfect square is a positive integer that is the result of squaring a positive integer. If N = 34 53 7,
then what is the biggest perfect square that is a factor of N ?

(A) 32
(B) 52
(C) 92
(D) (9 5)2
(E) (3 5 7)2

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

18. If 50% of x equals the sum of y and 20, then what is the value of x – 2y ?

(A) 20
(B) 40
(C) 60
(D) 80
(E) 100

19. Column A 1 Pound = 16 Ounces Column B

Weight of 16,000 ounces of Weight of 1,000 pounds of coal
rice

100
Test 5—Questions

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

20. An old man distributed all the gold coins he had to his two sons into two different numbers such that
the difference between the squares of the two numbers is 36 times the difference between the two
numbers. How many coins did the old man have?

(A) 24
(B) 26
(C) 30
(D) 36
(E) 40

21. Column A In a jar, 60% of the marbles are Column B

red and the rest are green.
40% of the red marbles in the 60% of the green marbles in the
jar jar

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

22. A prize of $200 is given to anyone who solves a hacker puzzle independently. The probability that
Tom will win the prize is 0.6, and the probability that John will win the prize is 0.7. What is the
probability that both will win the prize?

(A) 0.35
(B) 0.36
(C) 0.42
(D) 0.58
(E) 0.88

101
Test 6
GRE Math Tests

Questions: 24
Time: 45 minutes

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

1. If p and q are both positive integers such that p/9 + q/10 is also an integer, then which of the
following numbers could p equal?

(A) 3
(B) 9
(C) 15
(D) 27
(E) 35

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

2. If a, b, and c are positive prime integers such that (a + 1)(b + 2)(c + 3) equals the product of exactly
three prime numbers, then which of the following must be equal?

(A) a
(B) b
(C) a+1
(D) b+1
(E) c+1

3. Column A x is a two-digit number. The digits Column B

of the number differ by 6, and the
squares of the digits differ by 60.
x 60

110
Test 6—Questions

4. Column A The average of a set of six Column B

positive numbers is 30.
The average of the numbers in The average of the remaining
the set after replacing the numbers in the set after
smallest number in the set removing the smallest number
with 0 from the set

5. Column A q is an integer greater than 1. Let <q> Column B

stand for the smallest positive integer
factor of q that is greater than 1.
<q> <q3>

111
GRE Math Tests

[Numeric Entry Question]

6. In the figure, what is the value of a ?

2a° 3a°
a° 4a°
l

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

7. What is the area of the equilateral triangle if the base BC = 6?

(A) 9 3
(B) 18 3
(C) 26 3
(D) 30 3
(E) 36 3
A

C D B

112
Test 6—Questions

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

8. What is the perimeter of ABC shown in the figure?

(A) 2+4 2
(B) 4+2 2
(C) 8
(D) 4+4 2
(E) 4+4 3

2z°
A

z° y°
y° C B x°

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

9. A closed rectangular tank contains a certain amount of water. When the tank is placed on its 3 ft. by 4
ft. side, the height of the water in the tank is 5 ft. When the tank is placed on another side of
dimensions 4 ft. by 5 ft. what is the height, in feet, of the surface of the water above the ground?

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6

113
GRE Math Tests

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

10. In the figure, O is the center of the circle. If the area of the circle is 9, then the perimeter of the
sector PRQO is

(A) /2 – 6
(B) /2 + 6
(C) 3/4 + 6
(D) /2 + 18
(E) 3/4 + 18

P Q
R

11. Column A x/15 > y/25 Column B

6y + 5x 10x + 3y

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

12. If it is true that 1/55 < x < 1/22 and 1/33 < x < 1/11, then which of the following numbers could x
equal?

I. 1/54
II. 1/23
III. 1/12

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) II and III only

114
Test 6—Questions

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

13. There are 87 balls in a jar. Each ball is painted with at least one of two colors, red or green. It is
observed that 2/7 of the balls that have red color also have green color, while 3/7 of the balls that have
green color also have red color. What fraction of the balls in the jar have both red and green colors?

(A) 6/14
(B) 2/7
(C) 6/35
(D) 6/29
(E) 6/42

14. Column A x+y=1 Column B

x y

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

1 1
15. If (x + 5) ÷ + = 5, then x =
x 5

(A) –5
(B) 1/2
(C) 1
(D) 5
(E) 10

115
GRE Math Tests

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

16. A group of 30 employees of Cadre A has a mean age of 27. A different group of 70 employees of
Cadre B has a mean age of 23. What is the mean age of the employees of the two groups together?

(A) 23
(B) 24.2
(C) 25
(D) 26.8
(E) 27

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

17. In a set of three variables, the average of the first two variables is greater than 2, the average of the
last two variables is greater than or equal to 3, and the average of the first and the last variables is 4.
Which of the following could the average of the three numbers be?

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

18. Joseph bought two varieties of rice, costing 5 cents per ounce and 6 cents per ounce each, and mixed
them in some ratio. Then he sold the mixture at 7 cents per ounce, making a profit of 20 percent.
What was the ratio of the mixture?

(A) 1 : 10
(B) 1:5
(C) 2:7
(D) 3:8
(E) 5:7

116
Test 6—Questions

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

19. If (x – 2)2 = 1, then (x – 2)(x – 4) =

(A) –3
(B) –1
(C) 3
(D) 8
(E) 15

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

20. If x and y are both prime and greater than 2, then which one of the following CANNOT be a divisor of
xy?

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 11
(D) 15
(E) 17

21. Column A Mr. Chang sold 100 oranges to Column B

customers for $300 and earned a
profit.
The percentage of the profit The selling price of the oranges
that Chang got expressed as a percentage of the
cost

117
Test 7
GRE Math Tests

Questions: 24
Time: 45 minutes

1. Column A a<0 Column B

1/a a

2. Column A a b Column B
a *b = ,
b a
m>n>0
1 1 1 1
* *
m n n m

3. Column A Column B
Least common multiple of the mn
two positive integers m and n

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

4. A set has exactly five consecutive positive integers starting with 1. What is the percentage decrease in
the average of the numbers when the greatest one of the numbers is removed from the set?

(A) 5
(B) 8.5
(C) 12.5
(D) 15.2
(E) 16.66

126
Test 7—Questions

5. Column A 2x + 1 > 3x + 2 and Column B

5x + 2 > 4x
x 1

6. Column A In ABC, B = 72K Column B

A 72K

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

7. A, B, and C are three unequal faces of a rectangular tank. The tank contains a certain amount of water.
When the tank is based on the face A, the height of the water is half the height of the tank. The
dimensions of the side B are 3 ft 4 ft and the dimensions of side C are 4 ft 5 ft. What is the
measure of the height of the water in the tank in feet?

(A) 2
(B) 2.5
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

127
GRE Math Tests

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

8. In the figure, what is the value of x ?

(A) 10K
(B) K
(C) K
(D) K
(E) K

5 5

52
5
5

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

9. Which of the following indicates that ABC is right angled?

(I) The angles of ABC are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3.

(II) One of the angles of ABC equals the sum of the other two angles.
(III) ABC is similar to the right triangle DEF.

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) I, II, and III

128
Test 7—Questions

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

10. In the figure, the point A(m, n) lies in Quadrant II as shown. In which region is the point B(n, m) ?

(A) Quadrant I
(B) Quadrant II
(C) Quadrant II
(D) Quadrant IV
(E) On the x-axis

y-axis

Quadrant II 100 Quadrant I

A(m, n)

–100 100 x-axis

Quadrant III Quadrant IV

–100

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

11. If x5 + x2 < 0, then which one of the following must be true?

(A) x < –1
(B) x<0
(C) x>0
(D) x>1
(E) x4 < x2

129
GRE Math Tests

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

12. Three workers A, B, and C are hired for 4 days. The daily wages of the three workers are as follows:

A's first day wage is $4.

Each day, his wage increases by 2 dollars.

B's first day wage is $3.

Each day, his wage increases by 2 dollars.

C's first day wage is $1.

Each day, his wage increases by the prime numbers 2, 3, and 5 in that order.

Which one of the following is true about the wages earned by A, B, and C in the first 4 days?

(A) A>B>C
(B) C>B>A
(C) A>C>B
(D) B>A>C
(E) C>A>B

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

13. 3/8 of a number is what fraction of 2 times the number?

(A) 3/16
(B) 3/8
(C) 1/2
(D) 4/6
(E) 3/4

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

14. a, b, and c are three different numbers. None of the numbers equals the average of the other two. If
x y z
= = , then x + y + z =
a + b 2c b + c 2a c + a 2b

(A) 0
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6

130
Test 7—Questions

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

15. The difference between two angles of a CA80=6;48BK. The avera64>5C74B0<4CF>0=6;4B8BK.
Which one of the following is the value of the greatest angle of the triangle?

(A) K
(B) K
(C) K
(D) K
(E) K

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

16. If p and q are both positive integers such that 10p + 9q is a multiple of 90, then which of the
following numbers could q equal?

(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 18
(D) 20
(E) 28
(F) 30

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

17. If a is an integer, then which of the following are possible values for a + 3 ?
a+4
(A) 2/5
(B) 1/2
(C) 3/4
(D) 11/14
(F) 4/3

131
GRE Math Tests

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

18. If b = a + c and b = 3, then ab + bc =

(A) 3
(B) 3
(C) 3 3
(D) 9
(E) 27

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

19. In January, the value of a stock increased by 25%; and in February, it changed by 20%. In March, it
increased by 50%; and in April, it decreased by 40%. If Jack has invested $80 in the stock on January
1 and sold it at the end of April, which of the following could be the percentage change in the price of
the stock?

(A) 0%
(B) 5%
(C) 10%
(D) 25%
(E) 35%

20. Column A An off-season discount of 10% is Column B

being offered at a store for any
purchase with list price above
$500. No other discounts are
offered at the store. John
purchased a computer from the
store for $459.
The list price (in dollars) of the 500
computer that John purchased

132
Test 8
GRE Math Tests

Questions: 24
Time: 45 minutes

1. Column A Column B
x2 + 2 x3 – 2

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

2. A two-digit even number is such that reversing its digits creates an odd number greater than the
original number. Which one of the following cannot be the first digit of the original number?

(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 7
(E) 9

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

3. Which of the following choices does not equal any of the other choices?

(A) 5.43 + 4.63 – 3.24 – 2.32

(B) 5.53 + 4.73 – 3.34 – 2.42
(C) 5.53 + 4.53 – 3.342 – 2.22
(D) 5.43 + 4.73 – 3.24 – 2.42
(E) 5.49 + 4.78 – 3.10 – 2.21

144
Test 8—Questions

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

4. What is the remainder when 72 82 is divided by 6?

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

5. Column A x = 3.635 1016 Column B

x +1 x 1
x 1 x +1

6. Column A Line segments AB and Column B

CD are both parallel and
congruent. The mid-point
of AB is M.
The length of segment CM The length of segment DM

145
GRE Math Tests

7. Column A Column B
The perimeter of quadrilateral The circumference of the
ABCD circle
A B

O C

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice only]

8. In the figure, the area of rectangle ABCD is 100. What is the area of the square EFGH ?

(A) 256
(B) 275
(C) 309
(D) 399
(E) 401

E 2x + 5 F
A x+3 B
x+2

D C

H G

146
Test 8—Questions

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

9. In the figure, ABCD and PQRS are two rectangles inscribed in the circle as shown and AB = 4,
AD = 3, and QR = 4. What is the value of l ?
(A) 3/2
(B) 8/3
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

P Q

A B
4

l 4
3

D C

S R

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

10. In the figure, what is the area of ABC if EC/CD = 3 ?
(A) 12
(B) 24
(C) 81
(D) 121.5
(E) 143
E

B
x°

x°
A C
D

147
GRE Math Tests

[Numeric Entry Question]

11. In the figure, if y = 60, then what is the value of z ?

x°

z° y°

x°

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

12. If (x – y)3 > (x – y)2, then which one of the following must be true?

(A) x3 < y2
(B) x5 < y4
(C) x3 > y2
(D) x5 > y4
(E) x3 > y3

148
Test 8—Questions

13. Column A x < 1/y, and x and y are positive Column B

2+ x x 2
2y 2 + y 1
x y

14. Column A x+y=7 Column B

x2 + y2 = 25
x + y2 3 + 42

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

15. In quadrilateral ABCD, A measures 20 degrees more than the average of the other three angles of
the quadrilateral. Then A =

(A) 70°
(B) 85°
(C) 95°
(D) 105°
(E) 110°

149
GRE Math Tests

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

16. Bank X pays a simple interest of $80 on a principal of $1,000 annually. Bank Y pays a simple interest
of $140 on a principal of $1,000 annually. What is the ratio of the interest rates of Bank X to Bank Y ?

(A) 5:8
(B) 8:5
(C) 14 : 8
(D) 4:7
(E) 5:7

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

17. A perfect square is a number that becomes an integer when square rooting it. A, B, and C are three
positive integers. The ratio of the three numbers is 1 : 2 : 3, respectively. Which of the following
expressions must be a perfect square?

(A) A+B+C
(B) A2 + B2 + C2
(C) A3 + B3 + C3
(D) 3A2 + B 2 + C2
(E) 3A2 + 4B2 + 4C2
(F) 8A2 + 5B2 + 3C2
(G) A2 + 4B2 + C2

150
Test 8—Questions

[Numeric Entry]
18. If 2(22) + 32 + 23 = 5x, then x =

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

19. In an acoustics class, 120 students are male and 100 students are female. 25% of the male students
and 20% of the female students are engineering students. 20% of the male engineering students and
25% of the female engineering students passed the final exam. What percentage of engineering
students passed the exam?

(A) 5%
(B) 10%
(C) 16%
(D) 22%
(E) 25%

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

20. Selling 12 candies at a price of $10 yields a loss of a%. Selling 12 candies at a price of $12 yields a
profit of a%. What is the value of a?

(A) 11/1100
(B) 11/100
(C) 100/11
(D) 10
(E) 11

151
Test 9
GRE Math Tests

Questions: 24
Time: 45 minutes

1. Column A x=y0 Column B

0 x/y

[Numeric Entry Question]

2. Each of the two positive integers a and b ends with the digit 2. Enter the last two digits of (a – b)2 in
the grid below.

166
Test 9—Questions

[Numeric Entry Question]

3. In the figure, lines l and m are parallel. If y – z = 60, then what is the value of x ?

y° t°
l
z° s°

m
x°

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

4. If ABD shown must be a right triangle, then which of the following line-segments cannot be ruled
out as being the longest?

(A) AB
(B) AC
(C) AD
(D) CD
(E) BD
A

B 5 C D
The figure is not drawn to scale

167
GRE Math Tests

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

5. In the figure, ABCD is a rectangle, and the area of ACE is 10. What is the area of the rectangle?

(A) 18
(B) 22.5
(C) 36
(D) 44
(E) 45

A
B

D C

[Numeric Entry Question]

6. In the figure A, B and C are points on the circle. What is the value of x ?

B
x°

C
A
75° 35°

168
Test 9—Questions

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

7. In the figure shown, ABCDEF is a regular hexagon and AOF is an equilateral triangle. The perimeter
of AOF is 2a feet. What is the perimeter of the hexagon in feet?

(A) 2a
(B) 3a
(C) 4a
(D) 6a
(E) 12a

A B

F C
O

E D

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

8. In triangle ABC, AB = 5 and AC = 3. Which one of the following is the measure of the length of
side BC ?

(A) BC < 7
(B) BC = 7
(C) BC > 7
(D) BC 7
(E) It cannot be determined from the information given

169
GRE Math Tests

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

9. Let C and K be constants. If x2 + Kx + 5 factors into (x + 1)(x + C), the value of K is

(A) 0
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 8
(E) not enough information

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

10. The product of two numbers x and y is twice the sum of the numbers. What is the sum of the
reciprocals of x and y ?

(A) 1/8
(B) 1/4
(C) 1/2
(D) 2
(E) 4

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

11. If l + t = 4 and l + 3t = 9, then which one of the following equals l + 2t ?

(A) 13/2
(B) 19/2
(C) 15/2
(D) 17/3
(E) 21/4

170
Test 9—Questions

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

12. A system of equations is as shown below

x+l=6
x–m=5
x+p=4
x–q=3

What is the value of l + m + p + q ?

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

13. A precious stone if dropped breaks into pieces of equal size and weight. However, the stone is of a
rare kind and the price of the stone is always evaluated as a proportion of the square of its weight. A
stone can break in any number of pieces resulting in a new price per piece. Which of the following
ratios of the original stone price and the net price of pieces can the stone break into?

(A) 1:1
(B) 2:1
(C) 1:2
(D) 4:1
(E) 3:1
(F) 3:2
(G) 5:3

14. Column A a and b are positive. Column B

(a + 6) : (b + 6) = 5 : 6
b 1

171
GRE Math Tests

15. Column A x 3 and x 6 Column B

2
2x 72 2x 2 18
x6 x3

16. Column A 12 students from section A and 15 Column B

students from section B failed an
Anthropology exam. Thus, equal
percentage of attendees failed the
exam from the sections.
Number of attendees for the Number of attendees for the
exam from section A exam from section B

17. Column A The annual exports of the Column B

company NeuStar increased by
25% last year. This year, it
increased by 20%.
Increase in exports last year Increase in exports in the
current year

172
Test 9—Questions

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

18. The costs of equities of type A and type B (in dollars) are positive integers. If 4 equities of type A and
5 equities of type B together costs 27 dollars, what is the total cost of 2 equities of type A and 3
equities of type B in dollars?

(A) 15
(B) 24
(C) 35
(D) 42
(E) 55

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

19. In a sequence of positive integers, an, the nth term is defined as (an – 1 – 1)2. If 9 is one of the terms of
the sequence, then what are the two terms immediately next to 9?

(A) 4
(B) 9
(C) 63
(D) 64
(E) 632

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

20. In the town of Windsor, 250 families have at least one car while 60 families have at least two cars.
How many families have exactly one car?

(A) 30
(B) 190
(C) 280
(D) 310
(E) 420

173
Test 10
GRE Math Tests

Questions: 24
Time: 45 minutes

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

1. If (x – 3)(x + 2) = (x – 2)(x + 3), then x could be

(A) –3
(B) –2
(C) 0
(D) 2
(E) 3

[Quantitative Comparison Question]

2. Column A p and q are two positive integers Column B
and p/q = 7.5
q 15

[Numeric Entry Question]

3. The number 3072 is divisible by both 6 and 8. What is the first integer larger than 3072 that is also
divisible by both 6 and 8?

184
Test 10—Questions

[Quantitative Comparison Question]

4. Column A A palindrome number is a number Column B
that reads the same forward or
backward. For example, 787 is a
palindrome number.
Smallest palindrome number Smallest palindrome greater
greater than 233 than 239

[Quantitative Comparison Question]

5. Column A A set has exactly five consecutive Column B
positive integers.
The percentage decrease in the 20%
average of the numbers when
one of the numbers is dropped
from the set

[Quantitative Comparison Question]

Column A Column B

1
1 A 10-foot ladder is leaning against a vertical The distance the top of the
wall. The top of the ladder touches the wall ladder slides down the wall
at a point 8 feet above the ground. The base
of the ladder slips 1 foot away from the
wall.

185
GRE Math Tests

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

7. In the figure, lines l and m are parallel. Which of the following, if true, makes lines p and q parallel?

(A) a=b
(B) a=c
(C) a=d
(D) d=b
(E) b=c

p q

l a° b°

c° d°
m

186
Test 10—Questions

[Numeric Entry Question]

8. In the figure, the area of rectangle ABCD is 45. What is the area of the square EFGH in terms of the
same units?

E x F
A x+5 B
x–5

D C

H G

187
GRE Math Tests

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

9. If ABCD is a square and the area of AFG is 10, then what is the area of AEC ?

(A) 5
10
(B)
2
10
(C)
3
(D) 10
(E) 20

A B

F
4
G

C
D E 2

188
Test 10—Questions

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

10. Which of the following relations is true regarding the angles of the quadrilateral shown in the figure?

(A) A = C
(B) B > D
(C) A < C
(D) B = D
(E) A = B

3 B
A

4 5

D 6 C

The figure is not drawn to scale.

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

11. If x > y and x < 0, then which of the following must be true?

1 1
(I) <
x y
1 1
(II) <
x 1 y 1
1 1
(III) <
x +1 y +1

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) I and III only

189
GRE Math Tests

[Quantitative Comparison Question]

12. Column A Column B
1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + 1/16 1

[Numeric Entry Question]

2 x + 2 x1
13. What is the numerical value of the expression ?
2 x +1 2 x

190
Test 10—Questions

[Numeric Entry Question]

14. The sum of two numbers is 13, and their product is 30. What is the sum of the squares of the two
numbers?

[Numeric Entry Question]

15. At Stephen Stores, 3 pounds of cashews cost $8. What is the cost in cents of a bag weighing 9
ounces?

191
GRE Math Tests

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

16. The Savings of an employee equals Income minus Expenditure. If their Incomes ratio is 1 : 2 : 3 and
their Expenses ratio is 3 : 2 : 1, then what is the order of the employees A, B, and C in the increasing
order of the size of their savings?
(A) A>B>C
(B) A>C>B
(C) B>A>C
(D) B>C>A
(E) C>B>A

[Numeric Entry Question]

2x 2 72 2x 2 18
17. If x 3 and x 6, then =
x6 x 3

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One or More Answer Choices]

18. 8 is 4% of a, and 4 is 8% of b. c equals b/a. What is the value of c ?
(A) 1/32
(B) 1/4
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 32

192
Test 10—Questions

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

19. The total income of Mr. Teng in the years 2003, 2004, and 2005 was $36,400. His income increased
by 20% each year. What was his income in 2005?

(A) 5,600
(B) 8,800
(C) 10,000
(D) 12,000
(E) 14,400

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

20. Waugh jogged to a restaurant at x miles per hour, and jogged back home along the same route at y
miles per hour. He took 30 minutes for the whole trip. If the restaurant is 2 miles from home along the
route he took, what is the average speed in miles per hour at which he jogged for the whole trip?

(A) 0.13
(B) 0.5
(C) 2
(D) 4
(E) 8

[Multiple-choice Question – Select One Answer Choice Only]

21. When the price of oranges is lowered by 40%, 4 more oranges can be purchased for $12 than can be
purchased for the original price. How many oranges can be purchased for 24 dollars at the original
price?

(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 16
(D) 20
(E) 24

193
Cписок редких слов для GMAT, GRE, SAT www.testverbal.ru

Список составлен на основе лучших методических пособий по подготовке к тестам

GMAT, GRE, SAT (Kaplan, Barrons, Manhattan Prep) и специально адаптирован
для русскоязычных студентов. Из списка исключены слова, имеющие аналоги
в русском языке (например, banal - банальный, prosaic - прозаичный ). Некоторые слова
в списке имеют несколько значений; в этом случае приводятся значения, которые часто
используются в тестах.

На основе представленного списка 1500 редких слов разработана уникальная методика

развития лексики Vocabulary Advanced. Подробную информацию о возможностях
подготовки с использованием методики можно получить на сайте проекта TestVerbal
(www.testverbal.ru)

Список 1500 редких слов для подготовки к тестам GMAT, GRE, SAT
abash [ə'bæʃ] to humiliate смущать, конфузить
abate [ə'beɪt] to reduce, lessen уменьшать, ослаблять
abdicate ['æbdɪkeɪt] to give up power отрекаться (от власти)
aberrant [æ'ber(ə)nt] atypical, not normal сбившийся с пути, ненормальный
abet [ə'bet] to help, aid помогать, поощрять, содействовать
abeyance [ə'beɪən(t)s] temporary suppression or uncertainty состояние неопределенности
abhor [əb'hɔː] to hate ненавидеть, презирать
abject ['æbʤekt] mean, low, miserable подлый, низкий, ужасный
abjure [əb'ʤuə] to renounce отказываться, отрекаться
abnegation [ˌæbnɪ'geɪʃ(ə)n] denial, rejection отрицание, непринятие
abomination [əˌbɔmɪ'neɪʃ(ə)n] antipathy неприязнь, враждебность
abortive [ə'bɔːtɪv] fruitless, useless, failing бесплодный, бесполезный
abound [ə'baund] to exist in great numbers изобиловать
aboveboard [əˌbʌv'bɔːd] open, honest, upright открытый, честный, прямой
abridge [ə'brɪʤ] to diminish, condense сокращать, уменьшать, снижать
abrogate ['æbrəugeɪt] to abolish отменять, аннулировать
abrupt [ə'brʌpt] sudden внезапный, обрывистый, грубый
abscond [əb'skɔnd] to avoid избегать, уходить от
absolve [əb'zɔlv] to exonerate, free освобождать, прощать
abstemious [æb'stiːmɪəs] moderate in eating, drinking умеренный, скромный
abstruse [æb'struːs] obscure трудный для понимания, глубокий
abut [ə'bʌt] to adjoin, border примыкать, граничить
abysmal [ə'bɪzm(ə)l] bottomless, terrible низкий, отвратительный
acclaim [ə'kleɪm] to praise publicly приветствовать, объявлять
accolade ['ækəleɪd] honor, tribute похвала, одобрение
accomplice [ə'kɔmplɪs] associate in crime сообщник, соучастник
accost [ə'kɔst] to approach and speak to приставать, обращаться

TestVerbal - центр подготовки к тестам GMAT, GRE, SAT, SSAT, ACT, TOEFL
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Cписок редких слов для GMAT, GRE, SAT www.testverbal.ru

accretion [æ'kriːʃ(ə)n] increase, growth прирост, увеличение

acerbic [ə'sɜːb(ɪk)] sharp, bitter едкий, язвительный
acidulous [ə'sɪdjuləs] harsh in taste or manner едкий, язвительный, кисловатый
acme ['ækmɪ] summit, top кульминация
acolyte [ˈæk(ə)laɪt] assistant, follower помощник, последователь
acquiesce [ˌækwɪ'es] to agree, consent уступать, молча соглашаться
acquit [ə'kwɪt] to exonerate оправдывать
acrimonious [ˌækrɪ'məunɪəs] bitter язвительный
acumen ['ækjumen] wisdom, intuition проницательность
acute [ə'kjuːt] sharp, keen, smart острый, резкий, проницательный
adage ['ædɪʤ] well-known phrase афоризм, поговорка
adamant ['ædəmənt] inflexible, unyielding непреклонный, категоричный
adherent [əd'hɪər(ə)nt] backer, follower приверженец, адепт
adjunct ['æʤʌŋ(k)t] something added or attached дополнение, принадлежность
admonish [əd'mɔnɪʃ] to warn, to reprove предостерегать
adroit [ə'drɔɪt] skillful умелый, искусный
adulation [ˌædju'leɪʃ(ə)n] excessive admiration низкопоклонство, лесть
adulterate [ə'dʌlt(ə)reɪt] to corrupt портить примесями, ухудшать
advent ['ædvənt] arrival наступление, начало
adverse ['ædvɜːs] unfavorable, harmful неблагоприятный, враждебный
affinity [ə'fɪnətɪ] kinship, likeness близость, родство, симпатия
afflict [ə'flɪkt] to trouble greatly, distress причинять боль, страдания
affluent ['æfluənt] rich богатый, обильный
aggrandize [ə'grændaɪz] to improve status увеличивать, возвеличивать
alacrity [ə'lækrətɪ] briskness, lively action готовность, проворство
allay [ə'leɪ] to calm, soothe успокаивать, подавлять
alleged [ə'leʤ(ə)d] reported, supposed предполагаемый
alleviate [ə'liːvɪeɪt] to make less severe облегчать, смягчать
alloy ['ælɔɪ] mixture сплав, примесь
allude [ə'luːd] to make reference намекать, указывать
allure [ə'ljuə] charm, fascination очарование, привлекательность

Мнемоники - специальные приемы и способы, облегчающие запоминание

новых слов путем образования ассоциаций. Например, слову drudgery
(монотонная работа) можно найти смысловую ассоциацию с русским словом
другой: мы не хотим выполнять монотонную скучную работу, пусть ее делают
другие. Такие образы облегчают процесс освоения новой лексики. Мнемоники полезный
особенно полезны при работе с "проблемными" словами. совет

aloof [ə'luːf] distant, apart отчужденный, равнодушный

alter ['ɔːltə] to change изменять
altercate ['ɔːltəkeɪt] to argue препираться, ссорится
amalgamate [ə'mælgəmeɪt] to combine, merge объединять, смешивать
ambulatory ['æmbjələt(ə)rɪ] relating to walking ходячий, передвижной
ameliorate [ə'miːlɪ(ə)reɪt] to improve, relieve улучшать
amicable ['æmɪkəbl] friendly, peaceful дружелюбный
amorous ['æm(ə)rəs] full of love влюбленный, влюбчивый
ample ['æmpl] overflowing, abundant обильный, щедрый
amplify ['æmplɪfaɪ] to increase, expand расширять, увеличивать
amuck [ə'mʌk] wild, insane дикий, бешеный, неистовый
ancillary [æn'sɪlərɪ] helping, supplementary вспомогательный, добавочный
anguish [ˈæŋɡwɪʃ] suffering, agony мука, страдания
anodyne ['ænəudaɪn] something that calms pain болеутоляющее средство
antecedent [ˌæntɪ'siːd(ə)nt] forerunner, precursor предок, прародитель
antedate [ˌæntɪ'deɪt] to exist or happen before предшествовать
antediluvian [ˌæntɪdɪ'luːvɪən] prehistoric допотопный, старомодный
anterior [æn'tɪərɪə] situated before the front предшествующий, передний

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www.testverbal.ru (495) 236-74-47, 966-41-92 2
Cписок редких слов для GMAT, GRE, SAT www.testverbal.ru

apace [ə'peɪs] swift быстрый

aperture ['æpətjuə] opening, hole отверстие, дыра, щель
apex ['eɪpeks] highest point высшая точка
aplomb [ə'plɔm] calmness, self-control невозмутимость, самообладание
apocryphal [ə'pɔkrɪfəl] fictional, untrue недостоверный, сомнительный
apostasy [ə'pɔstəsɪ] refusal to accept отступничество, измена
apothegm ['æpəθem] saying, remark меткое изречение. апофегма
appalled [ə'pɔːld] shocked потрясенный, шокированный
appellation [ˌæpə'leɪʃ(ə)n] name имя, название
appendage [ə'pendɪʤ] appendix придаток, привесок, дополнение
apposite ['æpəzɪt] appropriate подходящий, уместный, удачный
appraise [ə'preɪz] to form opinion оценивать

overly overly very lively very gloomy,

superior submissive or happy sad, miserable

supercilious obsequious ebullient somber

word imperious servile vivacious forlorn
groups egotist fawning scintillating saturnine
disdain subservient jaunty dour
Группы слов с condescend menial blithe dolor
похожими
значениями docile sanguine doleful
jubilant

apprehension [ˌæprɪ'hen(t)ʃ(ə)n] anxiety, feeling of worries опасение, мрачное предчувствие

approbation [ˌæprə(u)'beɪʃ(ə)n] approval одобрение
aptitude ['æptɪt(j)uːd] appropriateness пригодность, склонность
arbitrary ['ɑːbɪtr(ə)rɪ] based on whim, dictatorial произвольный
arcadia [ɑː'keɪdɪə] place of perfection идиллия, утопия
arcane [ɑː'keɪn] puzzling, enigmatic загадочный, непонятный
ardent ['ɑːd(ə)nt] passionate, eager пылкий, горячий
ardor ['ɑːdə] fervor, enthusiasm пыл, страсть, рвение
arduous ['ɑːdjuəs] demanding трудный, тяжелый
arrant ['ær(ə)nt] downright, utter настоящий, отъявленный
array [ə'reɪ] arrangement, system набор, строй, количество
arriviste [ˌæriː'viːst] careerist карьерист, честолюбец, выскочка
artful ['ɑːtf(ə)l] skillful ловкий, хитрый
artifice ['ɑːtɪfɪs] trick, deceit уловка, трюк, прием
artless ['ɑːtləs] unsophisticated безвкусный, простой
ascend [ə'send] to rise подниматься, восходить
ascertain [ˌæsə'teɪn] to detect устанавливать, выявлять
ascetic [ə'setɪk] one who practices self-denial аскет
asinine ['æsɪnaɪn] silly глупый, неумный, неразумный
askance [əs'kæn(t)s] not straight наклонный, косой
asperity [æs'perɪtɪ] harshness суровость, лишения
aspersion [ə'spɜːʃ(ə)n] slander клевета
aspirant ['æs'pɪr(ə)nt] candidate for high position кандидат
aspire [əs'paɪə] to strive for стремиться к чему-либо
asset ['æset] valuable thing to have актив. Ценность
assiduous [ə'sɪdjuəs] devoted, attentive усердный, прилежный
assuage [ə'sweɪʤ] to calm, tone down смягчать, ослаблять
astringent [ə'strɪnʤənt] harsh, severe суровый, строгий
astute [ə'st(j)uːt] keen, shrewd хитрый, ловкий
attain [ə'teɪn] to reach, achieve достигать, добираться
attenuated [ə'tenjueɪtɪd] weakness, inactivity тонкий, ослабленный
attest [ə'test] to certify подтверждать

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au courant [ˌəuku'rɑːŋ] up-to-date своевременный

audacity [ɔː'dæsətɪ] boldness, daring смелость, дерзость
augment ['ɔːgmənt] to enlarge, increase усиливать, увеличивать, расширять
austere [ɔː'stɪə] simple, unadorned строгий, аскетический, суровый
avarice ['ævərɪs] greed, passion for riches алчность, жадность
aver [ə'vɜː] to claim, declare утверждать, заявлять
aversion [ə'vɜːʃ(ə)n] strong dislike, opposition отвращение
avid ['ævɪd] eager желающий, любящий
awry [ə'raɪ] incorrect, wrong кривой, искаженный
badger ['bæʤə] to annoy persistently докучать просьбами
bait [beɪt] temptation, enticement приманка, наживка, искушение
baleful ['beɪlf(ə)l] sinister, disastrous губительный, злобный
balk [bɔːk] to refuse to move артачиться, упираться
base [beɪs] dishonorable, improper низкий, низменный
beatific [ˌbiːə'tɪfɪk] blessed, saintly блаженный
bedizen [bɪ'daɪzn] to dress in a vulgar manner ярко украшать, наряжать
begrudge [bɪ'grʌʤ] to be reluctant жадничать, скупиться, завидовать
belabor [bɪ'leɪbə] to hit, beat лупить, бранить
belated [bɪ'leɪtɪd] late, delayed поздний, запоздалый
belie [bɪ'laɪ] to prove wrong or false давать неверное представление
belittle [bɪ'lɪtl] to make less important приуменьшать
bellicose ['belɪkəus] hostile, militant воинствующий, драчливый
belligerent bɪ'lɪʤər(ə)nt] warlike агрессивный, воинственный
bemusing [bɪ'mjuːz] confusing, puzzling ставящий в тупик, потрясающий
benevolent [bɪ'nevələnt] kind, charitable благожелательный, благосклонный
benighted [bɪ'naɪtɪd] ignorant, unenlightened невежественный, некультурный
benign [bɪ'naɪn] good, kind добрый, милостивый
benison [ˈbɛnɪz(ə)n] blessing, benediction благословение
berate [bɪ'reɪt] to rebuke, criticize бранить, ругать
bereft [bɪ'reft] deprived of лишенный
besiege [bɪ'siːʤ] to surround, hem in блокировать, осаждать
besmear [bɪ'smɪə] to smear мазать, пачкать, позорить
besmirch [bɪ'smɜːʧ] to damage reputation позорить, бесчестить
betoken [bɪ'təuk(ə)n] to mean, denote, signify значить, олицетворять
betray [bɪ'treɪ] to reveal secrets выдавать, открывать (тайну)
bewildering [bɪwɪ ̱ldərɪŋ] confusing сбивающий с толку
bias ['baɪəs] prejudice предвзятость
bicker ['bɪkə] small argument or fight перебранка, спор
bifurcate ['baɪfəkeɪt] to divide into two parts разделяться на две части
bigot ['bɪgət] narrow-minded person фанатик, недалекий человек
bilious ['bɪlɪəs] sickeningly unpleasant желчный, несдержанный
bizarre [bɪ'zɑː] strange странный, причудливый
blandishment ['blændɪʃmənt] flattery уговаривание, обольщение
blasé ['blɑːzeɪ] not responsive to excitement пресыщенный, уставший
blatant ['bleɪt(ə)nt] disagreeably loud or showy вопиющий, ужасный
bleak [bliːk] unwelcoming, dismal суровый, унылый, гнетущий
blinkered ['blɪŋkəd] narrow-minded ограниченный, зашторенный
bliss [blɪs] happiness, pleasure блаженство, счастье
blithe [blaɪð] happy, carefree веселый, беззаботный
blunt [blʌnt] plain spoken тупой, грубоватый
bluster ['blʌstə] to rage бушевать, шуметь, бесноваться
bogus ['bəugəs] fabricated поддельный, фальшивый
bold [bəuld] fearless before danger смелый, дерзкий
bolster ['bəulstə] to support поддерживать
bombastic [bɔm'bæstɪk] rhetoric, pompous напыщенный, помпезный
bona fide [ˌbəunə'faɪdɪ] genuine истинный, настоящий
boon [buːn] benefit, favor благо, благодеяние
boorish ['bɔːrɪʃ ] rude, impolite грубый, невоспитанный, неучтивый

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bovine ['bəuvaɪn] related to cows коровий, бычий

bowdlerize [ˈbaʊdləraɪz] to censor, edit цензурировать, редактировать
brash [bræʃ] imprudent дерзкий, нахальный
breach [briːʧ] to violate нарушать
brigand ['brɪgənd] robber, bandit бандит, разбойник
bristle ['brɪsl] to stiffen with fear or anger ощетиниться, озлобиться
bucolic [bjuː'kɔlɪk] rustic, pastoral сельский, пасторальный
buff [bʌf] fan, follower поклонник, фанат
bulwark ['bulwək] protection оплот, защита
bungler [ˈbʌŋɡlə] unskillful worker растяпа, плохой работник
burgeon ['bɜːʤ(ə)n] to flourish давать ростки, распускаться
burnish ['bɜːnɪʃ] to polish чистить, полировать
buttress ['bʌtrɪs] support опора, поддержка
bwana [ˈbwɑːnə] man of high position босс, начальник
cache [kæʃ] secret hiding place тайник, тайный запас
cacophony [kæ'kɔfənɪ] harsh sound какофония
cadaver [kə'dævə] corpse, body труп
cajole [kə'ʤəul] to coax склонять, заставить
calamitous [kə'læmɪtəs] fatal гибельный, пагубный
callous ['kæləs] unfeeling черствый, неотзывчивый
callow ['kæləu] youthful, inexperienced незрелый, неискушенный
calumny ['kæləmnɪ] false accusation клевета
canard ['kænɑːd] make -up story ложный слух, утка
candid ['kændɪd] frank, open честный, достоверный
candor ['kændə] frankness, honesty искренность, чистота, безупречность
canny ['kænɪ] prudent, clever осторожный, умный, практичный
cant [kænt] insincere, almost meaningless уклончивый
cantankerous [ˌkæn'tæŋk(ə)rəs] irritable вздорный, сварливый
capacious [kə'peɪʃəs] roomy, spacious просторный, вместительный
careen [kə'riːn] to sway from side to side наклоняться, крениться
carnage ['kɑːnɪʤ] slaughter резня, бойня
carnal ['kɑːn(ə)l] relating to flesh or body плотский
carping ['kɑːpɪŋ] finding faults придирчивый

brave, bold cautious or lack of energy energy and

reckless cowardly or interest passion

intrepid chary indolence zealous

word valiant vigilant impassivity fervid
groups dauntless diffident lassitude ardent
stalwart circumspect languid vehement
Группы слов с
похожими valor pusillanimous torpid vitality
значениями effrontery craven listlessness verve
audacity prostration
temerity enervate
imprudent

castigate ['kæstɪgeɪt] to correct by punishing наказывать

catholic ['kæθ(ə)lɪk] all-embracing исчерпывающий, всесторонний
caustic ['kɔːstɪk] sarcastic, biting едкий, язвительный
cavil ['kæv(ə)l] to complain, quibble находить недостатки, придираться
celerity [sə'lerətɪ] speed, rapidity быстрота, проворство, живость
celestial [sə'lestɪəl] heavenly, godlike небесный, божественный, неземной
censure ['sen(t)ʃə] to rebuke осуждать, критиковать
cessation [seˈsāSHən] stopping прекращение
chagrin ['ʃægrɪn] feeling of disappointment досада, разочарование

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chary ['ʧeərɪ] watchful предусмотрительный, осторожный

chasten ['ʧeɪs(ə)n] to punish наказывать
chastise [ʧæs'taɪz] to punish, reprimand наказывать, критиковать
check [ʧek] to limit останавливать, препятствовать
chicanery [ʃɪ'keɪn(ə)rɪ] trickery придирки, увиливание
chimerical [kaɪ'merɪk(ə)l] visionary, imaginary, unreal неосуществимый, невыполнимый
chivalry ['ʃɪv(ə)lrɪ] valor благородство, отвага
choleric ['kɔl(ə)rɪk] easily moved to anger раздражительный, холерический
chortle ['ʧɔːtl] to laugh сдавленно смеяться, фыркать
churlish ['ʧɜːlɪʃ] vulgar, rude грубый, неприветливый
circuitous [sə'kjuːɪtəs] winding, indirect окольный, обходной
circumscribe ['sɜːkəmskraɪb] to restrict, set boundaries ограничивать
circumspect ['sɜːkəmspekt] cautious осторожный, осмотрительный
circumvent [ˌsɜːkəm'vent] to avoid, eschew избегать
clairvoyant [ˌklɛəˈvɔɪənt] intuitive, telepathic провидческий, ясновидящий
clamor ['klæmə] to protest выдвигать требования, протестовать
clandestine [klæn'destɪn] secret, undercover тайный, секретный
cleavage ['kliːvɪʤ] split раскол, расхождение
clement ['klemənt] merciful, gentle милосердный, гуманный
clog [klɔg] to impede, block препятствовать, мешать
cloister ['klɔɪstə] to confine заточать, оградить (стеной)

Одним из эффективных методов запоминания новых слов является

составление словосочетаний, вызывающих определенные образы и
ассоциации. Например, слово inclement (суровый) лучше запомнится в фразе
inclement weather (суровая погода), а слово inveterate (заядлый,
отъявленный) можно запомнить в словосочетании inveterate lier полезный
(неисправимый лжец). совет

cloy [klɔɪ] to satiate пресыщать

coerce [kəu'ɜːs] to force заставлять, принуждать
cogent ['kəuʤ(ə)nt] forceful, convincing убедительный, неоспоримый
cogitate ['kɔʤɪteɪt] to think over обдумывать, размышлять
cognizant ['kɔgnɪz(ə)nt] aware знающий, осведомленный
cognoscente [ˌkɔnjə(u)'ʃentɪ ] expert знаток, ценитель
colloquy ['kɔləkwɪ] conversation, dialogue беседа, разговор
comely ['kʌmlɪ] beautiful, handsome миловидный, привлекательный
commensurate [kə'men(t)ʃ(ə)rət] corresponding соответственный, соразмерный
commodious [kə'məudɪəs] large просторный, свободный
commutation [ˌkɔmju'teɪʃ(ə)n] change, alteration изменение, смена
compassion [kəm'pæʃ(ə)n] sympathetic feeling жалость, сострадание, сочувствие
compendious [kəm'pendɪəs] laconic лаконичный, краткий
compendium [kəm'pendɪəm] abstract, summary краткое изложение, резюме
complacent [kəm'pleɪs(ə)nt] self-satisfied самодовольный
complicity [kəm'plɪsətɪ] partnership in wrongdoing соучастие
composure [kəm'pəuʒə] calmness, confidence спокойствие, хладнокровие
compound ['kɔmpaund] to increase or add to добавлять, прибавлять
comprehensive [ˌkɔmprɪ'hen(t)sɪv] thorough всесторонний, полный
compunction [kəm'pʌŋkʃ(ə)n] feeling of regret, hesitation терзания, угрызения совести
conceited [kənˈsiːtɪd] self-satisfied, egoistic самодовольный, самоуверенный
conceive [kən'siːv] to understand, to regard понимать, постигать
conciliatory [kən'sɪlɪət(ə)rɪ] appeasing примирительный
concoct [kən'kɔkt] to devise выдумывать, изобретать
concomitant [kən'kɔmɪt(ə)nt] accompanying, attending сопутствующий, сопровождающий
concur [kən'kɜː] to agree соглашаться
condescend [ˌkɔndɪ'send] to lower oneself, stoop снизойти, удостоить

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condolence [kən'dəulən(t)s] pity соболезнование

condone [kən'dəun] to allow мириться, попустительствовать
conducive [kən'djuːsɪv] leading, helpful способствующий
confidant ['kɔnfɪdænt] trusted person доверенный друг
conflagration [ˌkɔnflə'greɪʃ(ə)n] great fire пожар, насилие, конфликт
confound [kən'faund] to make surprised or confused смущать, ставить в тупик, разрушать
congenial [kən'ʤiːnɪəl] sympathetic, agreeable сходный, симпатизирующий
congregate ['kɔŋgrɪgeɪt] to accumulate or concentrate собираться, скопляться, сходиться
conjecture [kən'ʤekʧə] guess гипотеза, предположение
conjugal ['kɔnʤug(ə)l] relating to marriage супружеский
connoisseur [ˌkɔnə'sɜː] expert знаток, специалист
connubial [kə'njuːbɪəl] related to marriage супружеский
consecrate ['kɔn(t)sɪkreɪt] to declare sacred посвящать, освящать
consequential [ˌkɔn(t)sɪ'kwen(t)ʃ(ə)l]profound, important важный, весомый
consternation [ˌkɔn(t)stə'neɪʃ(ə)n] amazement or dismay ужас, оцепенение
constrictive [kɔ̃stʀiktiv] harsh, confining сдерживающий, ограничивающий
construe [kən'struː] to make a deduction делать вывод, толковать
consummate [kən'sʌmət ] complete, perfect превосходный, полный, отпетый
contaminate [kən'tæmɪneɪt] to pollute, taint загрязнять, отравлять
contemptuous [kənte̱mptʃuəs] arrogant высокомерный, презрительный
contend [kən'tend] to struggle for, fight бороться, сопротивляться, спорить
contention [kən'ten(t)ʃ(ə)n] controversy, dispute спор
contiguous [kən'tɪgjuəs] adjacent, touching соседний, граничащий
continence ['kɔntɪnən(t)s] self-control, temperance сдержанность, воздержание
contort [kən'tɔːt] to twist violently искривлять, деформировать
contract ['kɔntrækt] to become affected with заразиться, подхватить (болезнь)
contrite [kən'traɪt] regretful, penitent кающийся, раскаивающийся
conundrum [kə'nʌndrəm] puzzle загадка, головоломка
convert ['kɔnvɜːt] follower, adept новообращенный, неофит
convex [ˌkɔn'veks] curved outward выпуклый, выгнутый
convivial [kən'vɪvɪəl] friendly веселый, общительный
convoluted ['kɔnvəluːtɪd] complicated запутанный
copious ['kəupɪəs] ample, abundant обильный, богатый, обширный
corpulent ['kɔːpjulənt] fleshy, obese полный, тучный
corroborate [kə'rɔb(ə)reɪt] to confirm, support подтверждать, поддерживать
coterie ['kəut(ə)rɪ] small group группировка, кружок
countenance ['kaunt(ə)nən(t)s] to tolerate терпеть, допускать, разрешать
counterpart ['kauntəpɑːt] duplicate дубликат, двойник, аналог
coup [kuː] revolution переворот
coven ['kʌv(ə)n] group of people сборище, шабаш
covert ['kʌvət] secret, hidden секретный, скрытый
covet ['kʌvɪt] to want, envy сильно желать, домогаться
cow [kau] to intimidate, dispirit пугать, запугивать
cozen ['kʌz(ə)n] to deceive, cheat надувать, морочить, обманывать
crass [kræs] gross, dull, stupid грубый, глупый, приземленный
crave [kreɪv] to desire страстно хотеть
craven ['kreɪv(ə)n] coward трус
crumble ['krʌmbl] to fail гибнуть, терпеть крах
cryptic ['krɪptɪk] puzzling загадочный
culpable ['kʌlpəbl] deserving blame виновный, преступный
culprit ['kʌlprɪt] guilty person виновный
cumbersome ['kʌmbəsəm] burdensome громоздкий, объемный
cumulative ['kjuːmjələtɪv] accumulated совокупный
cupidity [kju'pɪdətɪ] greed алчность, жадность
curmudgeon [kɜː'mʌʤ(ə)n] person annoyed easily скряга, старый ворчун
curry ['kʌrɪ] to give flavor придать вкус, сделать интересным
cursory ['kɜːs(ə)rɪ] hasty, not thorough поверхностный, небрежный
curt [kɜːt] short, brief краткий, сжатый

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curtail [kɜː'teɪl] to cut short сокращать

dauntless ['dɔːntləs] resolute, confident неустрашимый, храбрый
dearth [dɜːθ] deficiency недостаток, нехватка
debacle [deɪ'bɑːkl] ruin, collapse разгром, полное поражение
debase [dɪ'beɪs] to degrade, adulterate ухудшать, обесценивать
debauchery [dɪbɔ͟ːtʃəri] corruption, wantonness невоздержанность, распутство
debilitate [dɪ'bɪlɪteɪt] to weaken ослаблять
debris ['deɪbriː] fragments, ruins осколки, обломки
debunk [ˌdiː'bʌŋk] to demystify, lay bare разоблачать, развенчивать
decamp [dɪ'kæmp] to leave, run away убегать, уходить
decapitate [dɪ'kæpɪteɪt] to cut off someone's head обезглавить
declaim [dɪ'kleɪm] to speak loudly читать с выражением
decorum [dɪ'kɔːrəm] politeness, correct behavior благопристойность, воспитанность
decrepit [dɪ'krepɪt] broken down, worn out дряхлый, немощный
deem [diːm] to believe, judge полагать, считать
defamatory [dɪ'fæmət(ə)rɪ] damaging reputation бесчестный, позорящий
defenestrate [dɪ'fenɪstreɪt] to throw out window выкидывать из окна
defile [dɪ'faɪl] to taint, spoil портить, оскорблять, делать грязным
defray [dɪ'freɪ] to pay, cover оплачивать, платить
defunct [dɪ'fʌŋkt] dead, extinct вымерший, исчезнувший
deity ['deɪɪtɪ ] god божество
deleterious [ˌdelɪ'tɪərɪəs] bad, harmful вредный, опасный
delineation [dɪˌlɪnɪ'eɪʃ(ə)n] sketch, description очерчивание, набросок, эскиз
delude [dɪ'luːd] to fool обманывать, надувать
deluge ['deljuːʤ] to flood наводнять
delusory [dɪ'luːs(ə)rɪ] deceitful обманчивый, иллюзорный
delve [delv] to study, do research изучать, тщательно исследовать
demean [dɪ'miːn] to degrade унижать, подрывать авторитет
demeanor [dɪ'miːnə] conduct, bearing поведение, манера
demise [dɪˈmaɪz] death, end гибель, кончина, потеря
demur [dɪ'mɜː] to object возражать, протестовать
demure [dɪ'mjuə] modest, shy скромный, спокойный, сдержанный
denigrate ['denɪgreɪt] to damage reputation клеветать, оговаривать
denizen ['denɪz(ə)n] inhabitant житель страны, обитатель
denote [dɪ'nəut] to indicate означать, обозначать
depict [dɪ'pɪkt] to describe clearly рисовать, изображать
deplorable [dɪ'plɔːrəbl] sad, pitiable плачевный, прискорбный
deploy [dɪ'plɔɪ] to position forces размещать (войска)
deprecate ['deprɪkeɪt] to express disapproval протестовать, осуждать, возражать
deride [dɪ'raɪd] to ridicule, scoff at высмеивать
derogatory [dɪ'rɔgət(ə)rɪ] belittling, disparaging умаляющий (заслуги), унизительный
descry [dɪ'skraɪ] to find out, detect разглядеть, обнаружить
desecrate ['desɪkreɪt] to spoil something special осквернять, позорить
desiccate ['desɪkeɪt] to dry сушить, высушивать
desist [dɪ'zɪst] to cease прекращать, воздерживаться
destitution [ˌdestɪ'tjuːʃ(ə)n] extreme poverty нужда, нищета
desultory ['des(ə)lt(ə)rɪ] disconnected несвязный, отрывочный
deter [dɪ'tɜː] to hinder удерживать, отпугивать
detractor [dɪ'træktə] slanderer инсинуатор, клеветник
detriment ['detrɪmənt] injury, harm, damage ущерб, вред
devout [dɪ'vaut] religious, sincere набожный, праведный
dexterity [ɪ'pɪtəmɪ] mental or physical skill ловкость, быстрота, сноровка
diaphanous [daɪ'æf(ə)nəs] transparent прозрачный, просвечивающий
diatribe ['daɪətraɪb] bitter criticism обличительная речь, критика
dichotomy [daɪ'kɔtəmɪ] division into two дихотомия, дуализм
didactic [dɪ'dæktɪk] moralistic нравоучительный, назидательный
diffident ['dɪfɪd(ə)nt] shy, modest застенчивый, неуверенный в себе
dilatory [ˈdɪlət(ə)rɪ] slow-going, tardy медленный, запоздалый

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diminutive [dɪ'mɪnjutɪv] minimal уменьшительный, маленький

din [dɪn] noise шум, грохот
dirge [dɜːʤ] requiem траурная месса, реквием
disabuse [ˌdɪsə'bjuːz] to correct, disillusion выводить из заблуждения
discern [dɪ'sɜːn] to perceive разглядывать, распознавать
disciple [dɪ'saɪpl] follower ученик, приверженец
discomfit [dɪs'kʌmfɪt] to make uneasy расстраивать, разрушать, смущать
disconsolate [dɪs'kɔn(t)s(ə)lət] unhappy безутешный, несчастный
discursive [dɪs'kɜːsɪv] not concise беспорядочный, хаотичный
disdain [dɪs'deɪn] contempt презрение
disgruntled [dɪs'grʌntld] unhappy рассерженный, недовольный
disheveled [diˈSHevəld] disorderly растрепанный
dismantle [dɪs'mæntl] to strip of covering разбирать, лишать, демонтировать
dismiss [dɪs'mɪs] to disband, dissolve отпускать, распускать, увольнять
disparage [dɪ'spærɪʤ] to discredit, belittle принижать, умолять достоинство
disparate ['dɪsp(ə)rət] different, unmatched несравненный, несопоставимый
dispel [dɪˈspɛl] to dismiss, disperse разгонять, рассеять
dispersed [dɪspɜː͟ (r)st] spread, scattered распределённый
dissect [dɪ'sekt] to cut into parts and analyze препарировать, анализировать
dissemble [dɪ'sembl] to hide your real thoughts маскировать, скрывать, притворяться
disseminate [dɪ'semɪneɪt] to circulate, spread рассеивать, распространять
dissent [dɪ'sent] to differ, disagree, protest быть в разногласии
dissipated ['dɪsɪpeɪtɪd] dispersed, scattered рассеянный, распространенный
dissuade [dɪ'sweɪd] to discourage отговаривать, разубеждать
distaff ['dɪstɑːf] female branch of family женская часть семьи
distend [dɪ'stend] to expand надувать, расширять
distraught [dɪ'strɔːt] mentally confused, crazed обезумевший
divest [daɪ'vest] to take away отнимать, лишать
divulge [daɪ'vʌlʤ] to disclose, reveal раскрывать, разглашать
docile ['dəusaɪl] easy to manage послушный, покорный
doddering ['dɔd(ə)rɪŋ] trembling, shaking неустойчивый, трясущийся
dog [dɔg] to pursue, track выслеживать, преследовать
doldrums ['dɔldrəmz] depression уныние, хандра, депрессия
doleful ['dəulf(ə)l] sad, melancholy скорбный, печальный
dolor ['dɔlə] grief, sorrow горе, печаль
domicile ['dɔmɪsaɪl] home место проживания
dormant ['dɔːmənt] inactive, latent дремлющий, скрытый
dour ['duə] very serious, not friendly непреклонный, строгий
dregs [dre̱gz] most worthless part отбросы
droll [drəul] humorous забавный, смешной
drudgery ['drʌʤ(ə)rɪ] dull work монотонная работа
dubious ['djuːbɪəs] doubtful сомнительный, неясный
dudgeon ['dʌʤ(ə)n] anger возмущение, обида, негодование
dulcet ['dʌlsɪt] sweet or melodious сладкий, приятный
dupe [djuːp] person easily tricked простак, дурак
duplicity [dju'plɪsətɪ] cunning, trickery лживость, двуличность
duress [dju'res] compulsion, force принуждение
dwindle [ˈdwɪndl] to decrease, reduce сокращаться, уменьшаться
earnest [ˈɜːnɪst] serious, intense, sincere серьезный, убежденный
ebb [eb] to lessen падать, уменьшать
ebullient [ɪ'bʌlɪənt] boiling, emotional взволнованный, кипящий
ecclesiastical [ɪˌkliːzɪ'æstɪk(ə)l ] relating to church духовный, церковный
edifice ['edɪfɪs] building здание, большой дом
effete [ef'iːt ] exhausted, wasted хилый, слабый, истощенный
effigy ['efɪʤɪ] likeness (of a hated person) изображение, сходство
effrontery [ɪ'frʌnt(ə)rɪ] boldness бесстыдство, наглость
effusive [ɪˈfjuːsɪv] overenthusiastic, pretended бурный, несдержанный
egotist ['iːgəutɪst] vain, conceited person человек с большим самомнением

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egregious [ɪ'griːʤəs] remarkably bad полный, вопиющий

elaborate [ɪ'læb(ə)rɪt] very detailed, complicated детальный, замысловатый
elapse [ɪ'læps] to slip by проходить, истекать
elegiac [ˌelɪ'ʤaɪək] expressing sadness грустный, элегический
elicit [ɪ'lɪsɪt] to draw forth вызывать, допытываться
eloquent ['eləkwənt] expressive, fluent красноречивый, выразительный
elucidate [ɪ'l(j)uːsɪdeɪt ] to make clear объяснять, разъяснять
elusive [ɪ'l(j)uːsɪv] hard to grasp неуловимый, ускользающий
emaciated [ɪ'meɪʃɪeɪtɪd] abnormally thin истощенный, чахлый
emanate ['eməneɪt] to give out, release выпускать, происходить
embellish [ɪm'belɪʃ] to adorn, touch up украшать, приукрашивать
embroiled [ɪmbrɔɪ͟ ld] confused вовлеченный, запутанный
eminent ['emɪnənt] outstanding знаменитый, известный
emissary ['emɪs(ə)rɪ] agent агент, эмиссар
emit [ɪ'mɪt] to give off испускать, выделять
emollient [ɪ'mɔlɪənt ] soothing, mollifying смягчающий, успокаивающий
emulate [ˈɛmjʊleɪt] to copy or rival подражать
enchanting [en'ʧɑːntɪŋ ] charming обаятельный, очаровательный
encomium [ɪn'kəumɪəm] eulogy, praise восхваление, панегирик
encumbrance [ɪn'kʌmbrən(t)s ] burden, handicap, load затруднение, помеха
endemic [ɛnˈdɛmɪk] native, local местный
enervate ['enəveɪt] to make weak слабеть
enfeeble [ɪn'fiːbl] to weaken ослаблять
enfranchisement [ɪn'frænʧɪzmənt ] empowerment in rights освобождение, признание прав
engender [ɪn'ʤendə ] to cause to exist порождать, вызывать
engrossed [ɪn'grəust] absorbed увлеченный чем-либо
enhance [ɪn'hɑːn(t)s] to intensify, heighten увеличивать, повышать
enjoin [ɪn'ʤɔɪn ] to order, prescribe предписывать, приказывать
ennui ['ɔnwiː] boredom скука, тоска
entice [ɪn'taɪs ] to seduce соблазнять, переманивать
entourage ['ɔnturɑːʒ] group of attendants окружение
entreaty [ɪn'triːtɪ] appeal to authority мольба, просьба
entrenched [ɪn'trenʧt ] rooted, ingrained укрепленный, укоренившийся
enunciate [ɪ'nʌn(t)sɪeɪt] to utter, proclaim провозглашать, отчетливо говорить
epitome [ɪ'pɪtəmɪ] embodiment типичный пример
equable ['ekwəbl ] steady постоянный
equanimity [ˌekwə'nɪmətɪ] evenness of mind невозмутимость, самообладание
equivocal [ɪ'kwɪvək(ə)l] vague, undefined двусмысленный
eradicate [ɪ'rædɪkeɪt] to wipe out искоренять
err [ɜː] to make mistake ошибаться, сбиваться с пути
errand ['erənd] instruction, commission поручение, задание
errant ['erənt] wandering заблудившийся, блуждающий
erratic [ɪ'rætɪk] unpredictable изменчивый, непостоянный
ersatz ['ɜːsæts] counterfeit, fake object заменитель, суррогат
eschew [ɪs'ʧuː] to avoid избегать
espouse [ɪs'pauz ] to support поддерживать, отдаваться (делу)
essay ['eseɪ] to test, try, attempt испытывать, пробовать
estrange [ɪs'treɪnʤ] to alienate отдалять, отчуждать
esurient [ɪ's(j)uərɪənt] very hungry or greedy голодный, жадный
eulogy ['juːləʤɪ] praise хвалебная речь, панегирик
euphemism ['juːfəmɪz(ə)m] less offensive term эвфемизм
euphonious [juː'fəunɪəs] harmonious, melodious благозвучный
evanescent [ˌiːvə'nes(ə)nt] fleeting, passing мимолетный, исчезающий
eventuate [ɪ'venʧueɪt] to result finally иметь результатом
evince [ɪ'vɪn(t)s] to show plainly, exhibit делать очевидным, объяснять
evocative [ɪ'vɔkətɪv] tending to call to mind вызывающий воспоминания
exacerbate [ɪg'zæsəbeɪt] to irritate, make worse обострять, ухудшать
exalted [ɪg'zɔːltɪd] illustrious возвышенный, благородный

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excoriate [ek'skɔːrɪeɪt] to criticize severely сдирать кожу

excruciating [ɪks'kruːʃɪeɪtɪŋ] agonizing, torturing мучительный
exculpate ['ekskʌlpeɪt] to forgive оправдывать, реабилитировать
execrable ['eksɪkrəbl] repulsive, detestable отвратительный, отталкивающий
exegesis [ˌeksɪ'ʤiːsɪs] explanation of text толкование текста
exemplary [ɪg'zempl(ə)rɪ ] excellent, model образцовый, показательный
exhort [ɪg'zɔːt ] to urge strongly, advise уговаривать, убеждать
exigency ['eksɪʤən(t)sɪ] necessity острая необходимость, потребность
exonerate [ɪg'zɔn(ə)reɪt] to free from guilt оправдывать, реабилитировать
exorbitant [ɪg'zɔːbɪt(ə)nt] excessive безмерный, непомерный
expansive [ɪk'spæn(t)sɪv] communicative, open разговорчивый, несдержанный
expedient [ɪk'spiːdɪənt] advisable, fit целесообразный, подходящий
expedite ['ekspɪdaɪt] to carry out promptly ускорять, быстро выполнять
expiate ['ekspɪeɪt] to compensate искупать (вину)
expound [ɪk'spaund] to explain объяснять, пояснять
expunge [ɪk'spʌnʤ ] to erase вычеркивать, удалять
expurgate ['ekspəgeɪt ] to remove parts вычеркивать, исключать
extant [ek'stænt] still existing сохранившийся
extenuate [ɪk'stenjueɪt ] to mitigate смягчать, уменьшать
extinct [ɪk'stɪŋkt] no longer existing потухший, угасший, вымерший
extirpation [ˌekstɜː'peɪʃ(ə)n] disposal of, killing уничтожение, удаление
extol [ɪk'stəul ] to praise highly восхвалять, превозносить, хвалить
extortion [ɪk'stɔːʃ(ə)n ] getting money by threats вымогательство
extraneous [ɪk'streɪnɪəs] foreign, not belonging внешний, чуждый, посторонний
extricate [ˈɛkstrɪkeɪt] to disentangle выйти из затруднения
extrinsic [ek'strɪn(t)sɪk] foreign, alien внешний, чуждый
exult [ɪg'zʌlt] to rejoice greatly ликовать, радоваться
facet ['fæsɪt] one side or aspect грань, аспект
facetious [fə'siːʃəs] comical, humorous шутливый, комичный
facile ['fæsaɪl] easily done or achieved легко доступный, неглубокий
factious ['fækʃəs] divisive, sectarian раскольнический, фракционный
factitious [fæk'tɪʃəs] artificial, false искусственный, поддельный
fallacious [fə'leɪʃəs] misleading ложный, ошибочный
fallow ['fæləu] uncultivated невспаханный, невозделанный
falter ['fɔːltə] to stumble спотыкаться, терпеть неудачу
farrago [fə'rɑːgəu] mixture, variety смесь, мешанина
fastidious [fæs'tɪdɪəs] particular, choosy привередливый, разборчивый
fatuous ['fætjuəs] foolish, insane бессмысленный, глупый, дурацкий
fawning ['fɔːnɪŋ] submissive раболепный, услужливый
fealty ['fiːltɪ] loyalty верность
feasible ['fiːzəbl] possible реальный, выполнимый
feckless ['fekləs] useless, unavailing слабый, беспомощный, бесполезный
fecund ['fekənd] fruitful плодовитый, плодоносный
feigned [feɪnd] fake, artificial поддельный, ложный, притворный
feint [feɪnt] false attack притворство
felicitous [fɪ'lɪsɪtəs ] happy, lucky удачный, счастливый
fell [fel] vicious лютый, свирепый, ужасный
feral [ 'fer(ə)l] existing in a wild state дикий, жестокий
ferment ['fɜːment] uproar, agitation брожение, возбуждение
fervid ['fɜːvɪd] intense, enthusiastic пылкий, горячий, страстный
fetid ['fetɪd] rotten зловонный, дурнопахнующий
fetter ['fetə] to hamper ограничивать, стеснять
feud [fjuːd] contention, fight вражда, междоусобица
fiat ['faɪæt] official order, a decree постановление, указ
fickle [ˈfɪkl] changeable, indecisive непостоянный, переменчивый
fidelity [ fɪ'delətɪ] loyalty верность, привязанность
filial ['fɪlɪəl] relating to son or daughter дочерний, филиальный
filibuster ['fɪlɪbʌstə] causing delays deliberately обструкция

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finesse [fɪ'nes] to trick, evade использовать ухищрения и уловки

fissure ['fɪʃə ] crack трещина, излом
flabbergasted [flæ̱ bə(r)gɑːstɪd] astounded изумленный, удивленный
flagging ['flægɪŋ] becoming weak слабеющий
flagrant ['fleɪgrənt] outrageous, glaringly bad ужасный, вопиющий
flamboyant [flæm'bɔɪənt] showy, colorful яркий, насыщенный
flay [fleɪ] to strip off skin разорять, резко критиковать
fledgling ['fleʤlɪŋ] newly developed молодой, неопытный, начинающий
fleece [fliːs] to cheat, strip обманывать, надувать
fling [flɪŋ] to dash, push бросаться, кидаться, ринуться
flippant ['flɪp(ə)nt] frivolous, not serious легкомысленный, несерьезный
flout [flaut] to show contempt, scoff высмеивать, презирать
fluster ['flʌstə] agitation беспокойство, возбуждение
foe [fəu] opponent, enemy враг, противник
foible ['fɔɪbl] weakness, fault слабость, недостаток
foist [fɔɪst] to force to accept or buy навязать, всучить
foment [fəu'ment] to instigate, provoke провоцировать, побуждать
forage ['fɔrɪʤ] to feed, provide добывать продовольствие
forestall [fɔː'stɔːl] to anticipate, prevent предвосхищать, опережать
forlorn [fə'lɔːn] miserable несчастный, жалкий
formidable ['fɔːmɪdəbl] terrible, tremendous грозный, чудовищный, огромный
forthwith [ˌfɔːθ'wɪθ] immediate немедленно
fortuitous [fɔː'tjuːɪtəs] accidental случайный, неожиданный
founder ['faundə] to sink, fail, collapse разрушиться, потерпеть неудачу
fracas ['frækɑː] noisy fight, brawl шумная ссора, скандал
fractious ['frækʃəs] quarrelsome капризный, раздражительный
frail [freɪl] delicate, weak ломкий, непрочный, хрупкий
fratricide ['frætrɪsaɪd] crime of killing brother братоубийство
fraudulent ['frɔːdjələnt] deceitful мошеннический, обманный
fraught [frɔːt] filled преисполненный, обремененный
fray [freɪ] fight ссора, злоключения
frenetic [frə'netɪk] frantic, frenzied буйный, неистовый
frenzy ['frenzɪ] wild fit безумие
fretful ['fretf(ə)l] worrisome, irritable капризный, раздражительный
froward ['frəuəd] stubbornly disobedient своевольный, упрямый
frugal ['fruːg(ə)l] thrifty бережливый, экономный
frustrate [frʌ'streɪt] to counteract, foil препятствовать, мешать
fulminate ['fulmɪneɪt] to denounce осуждать, резко обвинять
fulsome ['fulsəm] excessive, insincere чрезмерный
furtive ['fɜːtɪv] secret, stealthy скрытный, хитрый, коварный
futile ['fjuːtaɪl] fruitless бесплодный, бесполезный
gaffe [ɡæf] mistake, fault ошибка, промах
gainsay [ˌgeɪn'seɪ] to object возражать, отрицать
galvanize ['gælvənãɪz] to excite to activity оживлять, возбуждать
game [geɪm] adventurous, courageous отважный, храбрый, боевой
gamut ['gæmət] range гамма, диапазон
garbled [gɑː͟ (r)b(ə)ld] confused, mixed up искаженный, перепутанный
gargantuan [gɑː'gæntjuən] colossal, massive огромный, колоссальный
garrulous ['gær(ə)ləs ] talkative, wordy болтливый, говорливый
gaucherie [ˈgəʊʃ(ə)ri] awkwardness неловкость, неуклюжесть
gaudy ['gɔːdɪ] showy, flashy безвкусный, кричащий, яркий
gaunt [gɔːnt] thin, haggard худой, костлявый
germane [ʤɜː'meɪn] relevant, appropriate уместный, подходящий
ghastly ['gɑːstlɪ] horrible, terrible жуткий, ужасный
gibe [ʤaɪb] joke насмешка, издевка
gist [ʤɪst] essence, main point суть, сущность
glean [gliːn] to gather, collect собирать, подбирать (факты)
glib [glɪb] fluent бойкий, говорливый

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taking care superficial, skillful, clumsy,

over details not thorough agile unskillful
word fastidious perfunctory adroit inept
groups assiduous desultory nimble ponderous
sedulous cursory alacrity labored
Группы слов с
похожими industrious lackadaisical dexterity unwieldy
значениями meticulous slovenly
lax
remiss

glut [glʌt] excess избыток, излишек

goad [gəud] to stimulate побуждать, стимулировать
gossamer ['gɔsəmə] sheer, light and delicate очень тонкий или легкий
gouge [gauʤ] to cheat, extort обманывать, завышать цену
grandiloquent [græn'dɪləkwənt] unnecessarily formal высокопарный, напыщенный
gratuity [grə'tjuːɪtɪ] tip, reward подарок, вознаграждение
gregarious [grɪ'geərɪəs] sociable общительный, коммуникабельный
grouse [graus] to complain ворчать, жаловаться
guile [gaɪl] duplicity, craft обман, хитрость, коварство
guise [gaɪz] manner, appearance внешний вид, наружность
gullible ['gʌlɪbl] easily cheated or fooled доверчивый, легковерный
gustatory ['gʌstət(ə)rɪ] affecting the sense of taste вкусовой
gusto ['gʌstəu] enthusiasm, zest удовольствие, смак
habitat ['hæbɪtæt] natural environment родина, ареал обитания
hackney ['hæknɪ] to stereotype делать избитым, вульгаризировать
hail [heɪl] to salute, proclaim приветствовать, провозглашать
halcyon ['hælsɪən] peaceful, calm безмятежный, спокойный, тихий
hallowed ['hæləud] holy, sacred святой, освященный
hapless ['hæpləs] unfortunate несчастный
harangue [hə'ræŋ] speech, tirade речь, горячее обращение
harass [həˈræs] to trouble, torment беспокоить, надоедать
harbinger ['hɑːbɪnʤə] forerunner, advance notice предшественник
harrowing ['hærəuɪŋ] extremely distressing горестный, мучительный
haven ['heɪv(ə)n] place of safety гавань
havoc ['hævək] destruction опустошение, разорение
hazardous ['hæzədəs] dangerous опасный
headlong ['hedlɔŋ] reckless, impetuous безудержный, опрометчивый
hedge [heʤ] to defend from страховать себя от рисков
heinous ['heɪnəs] hatefully evil гнусный, отвратительный
herald ['herəld] to announce, proclaim возвещать, объявлять, предвещать
herbivorous [hɜː'bɪv(ə)rəs] eating plants травоядный
heterodox ['het(ə)rəudɔks] not widely accepted нетрадиционный, еретический
heyday ['heɪdeɪ] zenith, prime time зенит, рассвет
hiatus [haɪ'eɪtəs] empty space or pause отверстие, пробел
hidebound ['haɪdbaund] stubborn закоснелый
hirsute ['hɜːs(j)uːt] hairy косматый, лохматый
histrionics [ˌhɪstrɪ'ɔnɪks] display of emotions истерика, выходки
hoard [hɔːd] to store, accumulate, hide копить, запасать
hoary ['hɔːrɪ] ancient древний, старый
hoax [həuks] deception обман, мистификация
hodgepodge ['hɔʤpɔʤ] mixture, medley смесь, мешанина
homage [ˈhɒmɪdʒ] respect, tribute почитание, уважение
homily ['hɔmɪlɪ] tedious lecture проповедь, назидание
hound [haund] to chase преследовать, не оставлять

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humility [hjuː'mɪlətɪ] modesty сдержанность, скромность

hurdle ['hɜːdl] obstacle помеха, препятствие
iconoclast [aɪ'kɔnəklæst] image-breaker, rebel бунтарь, возмутитель спокойствия
idiosyncrasy [ˌɪdɪə'sɪŋkrəsɪ] peculiarity отличительная особенность
idle ['aɪdl] dormant, lazy бесполезный, бездействующий
idolatry [aɪ'dɔlətrɪ] worship of object or god культ, обожание, поклонение
igneous ['ɪgnɪəs] produced by fire, volcanic огненный, вулканический
ignominious [ˌɪgnə'mɪnɪəs] humiliating, disgraceful бесчестный, позорный
ilk [ɪlk] kind, sort сорт, тип
illustrious [ɪ'lʌstrɪəs] famous знаменитый, прославленный
imbibe [ɪm'baɪb] to drink впитывать, поглощать
imbroglio [ɪm'brəulɪəu] difficult or confusing situation путаница, недоразумение
imbue [ɪm'bjuː] to saturate пропитывать, окрашивать
immaculate [ɪ'mækjələt] faultless безупречный
immanent ['ɪmənənt] essential сущностный
immaterial [ˌɪmə'tɪərɪəl] not important, not relevant неважный, незначительный
imminent ['ɪmɪnənt] likely to happen неотвратимый, неизбежный
immure [ɪˈmjʊə] to seclude заточать, запирать
impart [ɪm'pɑːt] to inform, to reveal сообщать, разглашать
impasse [ˈæmpɑːs] dead end тупик, безвыходное положение
impassive [ɪm'pæsɪv] showing no emotions невозмутимый, спокойный
impeccable [ɪm'pekəbl] faultless безупречный
impecunious [ˌɪmpɪ'kjuːnɪəs] insolvent, poor бедный, бедствующий, нуждающийся
imperceptible [ˌɪmpə'septəbl] extremely slight or gradual незаметный, незначительный
imperious [ɪm'pɪərɪəs] dominating повелительный, властный
impermeable [ɪm'pɜːmɪəbl] impassable, impenetrable непроницаемый, непроходимый
impertinent [ɪm'pɜːtɪnənt] impudent, rude дерзкий, грубый, неуместный

liking for a deny or truth and telling lies and

tendency reject honesty being deceitful

predilection eschew candor mendacious

word penchant estrange candid furtive
groups propensity repudiate veracious artifice
proclivity repulse aboveboard guile
Группы слов с
похожими aptitude spurn probity dissemble
значениями duplicity
equivocal

imperturbable [ˌɪmpə'tɜːbəbl] calm, steady, serene невозмутимый, спокойный

impervious [ɪm'pɜːvɪəs] impossible to penetrate непроницаемый, непроходимый
impetuous [ɪmpe̱tʃuəs] impulsive импульсивный, пылкий
impetus [ˈɪmpɪtəs] impulse, incentive, stimulus толчок, стимул, побуждение
impinge [ɪm'pɪnʤ] to affect, intrude сталкиваться, вторгаться
impious ['ɪmpiːəs ] profane, lying нечестивый, неуважительный
implacable [ɪm'plækəbl] cannot be pacified неумолимый, непреклонный
implicit [ɪm'plɪsɪt] implied подразумеваемый, скрытый
implode [ɪm'pləud] to collapse inward взрывается
implore [ɪm'plɔː] to beg for help or mercy просить, умолять
imponderable [ɪm'pɔnd(ə)rəbl] unthinkable невообразимый, неощутимый
importune [ˌɪmpə'tjuːn] to ask urgently приставать с просьбами
imprecation [ˌɪmprɪ'keɪʃ(ə)n] curse проклятие
impromptu [ɪm'prɔmptjuː] spur of the moment экспромт, импровизация
imprudent [ɪm'pruːd(ə)nt] unwise, not careful опрометчивый, неосторожный
impugn [ɪm'pjuːn] to question, doubt ставить под сомнение, оспаривать
impunity [ɪm'pjuːnətɪ] freedom from punishment безнаказанность

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impute [ɪm'pjuːt] to attribute, credit with приписывать, вменять

inadvertent [ˌɪnəd'vɜːt(ə)nt] heedless, not attentive неосторожный, непреднамеренный
inane [ɪ'neɪn] foolish пустой, глупый
inanimate [ɪn'ænɪmət] lifeless неживой
incapacitated [ˌɪnkəˈpasɪteɪtɪd] disabled, made unfit нетрудоспособный
incarnate ['ɪnkɑːneɪt] to personify, embody воплощать, олицетворять
inchoate ['ɪnkəueɪt] in an early stage начальный, зарождающийся
incipient [ɪn'sɪpɪənt] just beginning to exist первоначальный, начинающий
incisive [ɪn'saɪsɪv] sharp, acute острый, резкий
inclement [ɪn'klemənt] unfavorable, stormy суровый
incoherent [ˌɪnkəu'hɪər(ə)nt] disjointed бессвязный
incompatibility [ˌɪnkəmˌpætə'bɪlətɪ] quality of being mismated несовместимость
incongruous [ɪn'kɔŋgruəs] inappropriate неуместный, несовместимый
incontrovertible [ˌɪnˌkɔntrə'vɜːtəbl] undeniable бесспорный
incredulous [ɪn'kredjuləs] skeptical недоверчивый, скептический
incremental [ˌɪŋkrɪ'ment(ə)l] increasing gradually нарастающий, увеличивающийся
incumbent [ɪn'kʌmbənt] morally required занимающий должность, требуемый
incursion [ɪn'kɜːʃ(ə)n] sudden invasion вторжение, нашествие
indict [ɪn'daɪt] to accuse обвинять, осуждать
indigenous [ɪn'dɪʤɪnəs] native местный, врожденный
indigent ['ɪndɪʤənt] poor, needy лишенный, нуждающийся
indignant [ɪn'dɪgnənt] angry, irate негодующий, возмущенный
indiscriminate [ˌɪndɪ'skrɪmɪnət] choosing at random неразборчивый
indoctrinate [ɪn'dɔktrɪneɪt] to teach certain principles обучать, знакомить с теорией
indolent ['ɪnd(ə)lənt] lazy ленивый, праздный, вялый
induce [ɪn'djuːs] to stimulate, persuade побуждать, склонять
indulgent [ɪnˈdʌldʒənt] permissive снисходительный, потакающий
indurate ['ɪndjureɪt] cold-blooded, thick-skinned хладнокровный, беспринципный
industrious [ɪn'dʌstrɪəs] diligent, hard-working прилежный, трудолюбивый
inebriated [ɪniː͟ brieɪtɪd] drunk, intoxicated опьяненный, пьяный
ineluctable [ˌɪnɪ'lʌktəbl] inevitable неизбежный
inept [ɪ'nept] clumsy, unskillful неумелый, некомпетентный
inexorable [ɪ'neks(ə)rəbl] inflexible, unrelenting неумолимый
infallible [ɪn'fæləbl] exempt from error, right безошибочный
infamous ['ɪnfəməs] having a bad reputation печально известный, позорный
infernal [ɪn'fɜːn(ə)l] detestable, devilish адский, отвратительный
inflammable [ɪn'flæməbl] burnable, irascible горючий, огнеопасный, вспыльчивый
infraction [ɪn'frækʃ(ə)n] violation нарушение (правил, законов)
ingenuous [ɪn'ʤenjuəs] naïve and trusting простодушный, открытый
ingrained [ɪn'greɪnd] rooted укоренившийся
ingratiate [ɪn'greɪʃɪeɪt] to win confidence втираться в доверие
inherent [ɪn'her(ə)nt] inborn врожденный
inhibition [ˌɪnhɪ'bɪʃ(ə)n] restraint подавление, сдерживание
inimical ɪ'nɪmɪk(ə)l] hostile враждебный
iniquity [ɪ'nɪkwətɪ] injustice, wickedness беззаконие, зло, несправедливость
innate [ɪ'neɪt] natural внутренне присущий, свойственный
innocuous [ɪ'nɔkjuəs] harmless, innocent безвредный, безобидный
inordinate [ɪ'nɔːdɪnət] excessive чрезмерный, неумеренный
inquisitive [ɪnˈkwɪzətɪv] curious, inquiring любознательный, пытливый
insatiable [ɪn'seɪʃəbl] cannot be satisfied ненасытный
inscrutable [ɪn'skruːtəbl] difficult to understand загадочный, необъяснимый
insensible [ɪn'sen(t)səbl] unconscious, unresponsive невосприимчивый, безразличный
insidious [ɪn'sɪdɪəs] sly, artful, deceitful хитрый, коварный, скрытный
insipid [ɪn'sɪpɪd] banal, boring неинтересный, пресный
insouciant [ɪn'suːsɪənt] indifferent, careless беззаботный, безразличней
insularity [ˌɪnsjə'lærətɪ] restraint, reserve замкнутость, сдержанность
insuperable ['hærəuɪŋ] unconquerable неодолимый, непреодолимый
insurgent [ɪn'sɜːʤ(ə)nt] rebel повстанец, бунтовщик, мятежник

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interdict ['ɪntədɪkt] to forbid запрещать, сдерживать

interject [ˌɪntə'ʤekt] to insert, interrupt прерывать, вставлять замечания
interloper ['ɪntəˌləupə] unauthorized person вмешивающийся в чужие дела
interminable [ɪn'tɜːmɪnəbl] unending бесконечный
internecine [ˌɪntə'niːsaɪn] inner and devastating междоусобный, разрушительный
interpolate [ɪn'tɜːpəleɪt] to insert вставлять слова, перебивать
interregnum [ˌɪntə'regnəm] gap in continuity интервал, перерыв, пауза
interrogate [ɪn'terəgeɪt] to question расспрашивать, допрашивать
intimidate [ɪn'tɪmɪdeɪt] to overawe пугать
intractable [ɪn'træktəbl] not easily managed упрямый, непокорный
intransigence [ɪn'træn(t)sɪʤ(ə)n(t)s]stubbornness непримиримость
intrepid [ɪn'trepɪd] brave смелый, отважный
intricate ['ɪntrɪkət] complicated, complex запутанный, сложный, замысловатый
intrinsic [ɪn'trɪnzɪk] essential, natural свойственный, существенный
inundate ['ɪnʌndeɪt] to flood наводнять
inured [ɪnjʊə͟ (r)d] hardened, accustomed привыкший
invalidate [ɪn'vælɪdeɪt] to deprive of legal force признавать недействительным
invective [ɪn'vektɪv] insulting, abusive speech обличительная речь, критика
inveigh [ɪn'veɪ] to attack for нападать, ругать
inveigle [ɪn'veɪgl] to entice, persuade прельщать, заманивать
inveterate [ɪn'vet(ə)rət] habitual, firmly established продолжительный, долгий
invidious [ɪn'vɪdɪəs] offensive, likely to provoke ill will враждебный, оскорбительный
inviolable [ɪn'vaɪələbl] safe from destruction нерушимый, непоколебимый
involved [ɪn'vɔlvd] complicated запутанный, сложный
irascible [ɪ'ræsəbl] irritable вспыльчивый, раздражительный
irate [aɪ'reɪt] angry, incensed рассерженный, взбешенный
irrevocable [ɪ'revəkəbl] final, definitive бесповоротный, окончательный
itinerant [aɪ'tɪn(ə)r(ə)nt] wandering переезжающий с места на место
jaundiced ['ʤɔːndɪst] distrustful, negative недовольный, ворчливый
jaunty ['ʤɔːntɪ] sprightly, gay бойкий, веселый, живой
jejune [ʤɪ'ʤuːn] childish, naïve неглубокий, ребяческий, наивный
jeopardize ['ʤepədaɪz] to endanger подвергать опасности, рисковать
jettison ['ʤetɪs(ə)n] to throw overboard, discard выбрасывать
jibe [ʤaɪb] to be in agreement согласоваться, соответствовать
jingoist ['ʤɪŋgəuɪst] extreme nationalist шовинист, ура-патриот
jittery ['ʤɪt(ə)rɪ] nervous, anxious беспокойный, нервный
jocose [ʤə'kəus] humorous, merry шутливый, остроумный
jocular ['ʤɔkjulə] humorous шутливый
jostle ['ʤɔsl] to shove hard толкаться
jovial [ˈdʒəʊvɪəl] cheerful веселый, общительный
jubilant ['ʤuːbɪlənt] joyful, in high spirits ликующий, торжествующий
juggernaut [ˈdʒʌgənɔːt] huge force идея, которой слепо поклоняются
juxtapose [ˌʤʌkstə'pəuz] to place side by side совмещать, помещать рядом
Kafkaesque [ˌkäfkəˈesk] complicated, confusing кафкианский, запутанный
kismet ['kɪzmet] fate, destiny рок, судьба
kowtow [ˌkau'tau] sign of respect поклон, выражение уважения
kudos ['kjuːdɔs] fame, glory, honor похвала, одобрение
labile ['leɪbaɪl] unstable, unsteady изменчивый, неустойчивый
labored ['leɪbəd] difficult, not natural затруднительный

uncertain or unchanging and important, unimportant,

changeable rigid outstanding trivial, banal

whimsical stolid moment picayune

chimerical ossified consequential paltry
mercurial monolithic salient prattle
erratic inexorable germane immaterial
vacillating irrevocable paramount truism
waver untoward singular platitude
protean adamant eminent
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uncertain or unchanging and important, unimportant,

changeable rigid outstanding trivial, banal

whimsical stolid moment picayune

word chimerical ossified consequential paltry
groups mercurial monolithic salient prattle
erratic inexorable germane immaterial
Группы слов с
похожими vacillating irrevocable paramount truism
значениями waver untoward singular platitude
protean adamant eminent

laceration [ˌlæs(ə)'reɪʃ(ə)n] jagged wound разрыв, рана

lackadaisical [ˌlækə'deɪzɪk(ə)l] listless апатичный, бездеятельный, вялый
lackluster ['lækˌlʌstə] dull пустой, тупой
lagniappe ['lænjæp] present given to customer символический подарок
lambaste [læm'beɪst] to trash or attack бить, нападать, критиковать
lament [lə'ment] to groan, moan стенать, сокрушаться, горевать
lampoon [læm'puːn] to ridicule осмеивать, писать пасквили
landmark ['lændmɑːk] turning point, milepost ориентир, веха
languid ['læŋgwɪd] slow, weak, relaxed слабый, безжизненный
languor ['læŋgə] weariness, lassitude, fatigue слабость, вялость, апатия
lapse [læps] omission, oversight упущение, оговорка
largess [lɑː'ʒes ] gift, gratuity щедрый дар, вознаграждение
lascivious [lə'sɪvɪəs] lustful, lewd похотливый, распутный
lassitude ['læsɪt(j)uːd] apathy усталость, апатия
laudable ['lɔːdəbl] praiseworthy похвальный
lax [læks] careless, negligent вялый, небрежный
legerdemain [ˌleʤədə'meɪn] deceptive adroitness быстрота и точность, ловкий обман
levity ['levətɪ] lightness of disposition ветреность, легкомыслие
libel ['laɪb(ə)l] degradation by writing клевета, пасквиль
libertine ['lɪbətiːn ] one without moral restraint распутник, развратник
libidinous [lɪ'bɪdɪnəs] lustful похотливый, распутный
licentious [laɪ'senʃəs] wicked, lustful безнравственный, распущенный
limn [lɪm] to draw, describe изображать, описывать
limpid ['lɪmpɪd] transparent прозрачный, простой, ясный
listlessness ['lɪstləsnəs] weariness, weakness апатия, бездеятельность
litany ['lɪt(ə)nɪ] lengthy recitation длинный перечень
literati [ˌlɪt(ə)'rɑːtiː] learned persons образованные люди
lithe [laɪð] easily bended or flexed гибкий, грациозный
litigation [ˌlɪtɪ'geɪʃ(ə)n] legal proceeding судебный процесс, тяжба
livid ['lɪvɪd] angry, pale разозленный, мертвенно-бледный
loath [ləuθ] unwilling, reluctant не склонный
loathe [ləuð] to hate ненавидеть, не любить
log [lɔg] record of daily activities регистрационная запись, журнал
longevity [lɔn'ʤevətɪ] long durable life долголетие
longwinded [ˌlɔŋ'wɪndɪd] talkative, wordy многословный, скучный
loquacious [ləu'kweɪʃəs] talkative, garrulous болтливый, говорливый
lucid ['luːsɪd] clear, smart ясный, здравый, вразумительны
lucrative ['luːkrətɪv] profitable выгодный, прибыльный
lugubrious [luː'guːbrɪəs] very sad скорбный, печальный
luminous ['luːmɪnəs] bright, brilliant, glowing яркий, ясный, светящийся
lurid ['l(j)uərɪd] sensational сенсационный
lush [lʌʃ] luxurious, elaborate пылкий, сочный, яркий
lustrous ['lʌstrəs] shining блестящий, яркий
Machiavellian [ˌmækɪə'velɪən] not principled вероломный, беспринципный
maelstrom ['meɪlstrɔm] whirlpool, turmoil водоворот, вихрь

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magnanimous [mæg'nænɪməs] generous, noble великодушный, благородный

maim [meɪm] to disable, cripple калечить, уродовать, ослаблять
mainstay ['meɪnsteɪ] backstone, support главная поддержка, опора
maladjusted [ˌmælə'ʤʌstɪd] poorly adjusted, disturbed не умеющий приспосабливаться
malady ['mælədɪ] disease болезнь, зло
malevolent [mə'lev(ə)lənt] ill-intentioned злобный, недоброжелательный
malfeasance [mæl'fiːz(ə)n(t)s] illegal action злодеяние, преступление
malice ['mælɪs] rage злоба, злой умысел
malign [mə'laɪn] to abuse, slander злословить, клеветать
malignant [mə'lɪgnənt] likely to cause death злобный, пагубный
malleable ['mælɪəbl] plastic ковкий, пластичный
mammoth ['mæməθ] huge гигантский
manifold ['mænɪfəuld] complex, many многообразный, всесторонний
martinet [ˌmɑːtɪ'net] strict disciplinarian придирчивый начальник
masticate ['mæstɪkeɪt] to chew up жевать, месить
maudlin ['mɔːdlɪn] sentimental сентиментальный, слезливый
maverick ['mæv(ə)rɪk] wanderer, nonconformist индивидуалист, диссидент
meager ['miːgə] small, insignificant недостаточный, скудный
medley ['medlɪ] mixture смесь, собрание
megalomania [me̱gələme͟ɪniə] abnormal desire for wealth мания величия
melee ['meleɪ] noisy confused fight схватка, острый спор
mellifluous [mə'lɪfluəs] honey-mouthed медоточивый, сладкозвучный
menagerie [mə'næʤ(ə)rɪ] variety of animals зверинец
mendacious [men'deɪʃəs] lying, untrue лживый, обманчивый
mendicant ['mendɪkənt] beggar нищий
menial ['miːnɪəl] humble, degrading услужливый, холопский
mercenary ['mɜːs(ə)n(ə)rɪ] motivated by money корыстный, наемный
mercurial [mɜː'kjuərɪəl] active, lively живой, подвижный, переменчивый
meretricious [ˌmerɪ'trɪʃəs] plausible but false показной, нарочито красивый
mesmerize ['mezm(ə)raɪz] to hypnotize гипнотизировать, очаровывать
metamorphosis [ˌmetə'mɔːfəsɪs] change преобразование, превращение
meteoric [ˌmiːtɪ'ɔrɪk] swift, speedy быстрый, головокружительный
meticulous [mə'tɪkjələs] careful дотошный, внимательный к деталям
mettle ['metl] determination, zeal темперамент, пыл, ретивость
mien [miːn] appearance, bearing вид, внешность, наружность
milieu ['miːljɜː] environment, setting окружение
militate ['mɪlɪteɪt] to work against препятствовать, мешать
minatory ['mɪnət(ə)rɪ] threatening, menacing угрожающий, грозный
minuscule ['mɪnəskjuːl] extremely small очень маленький, крошечный
minutia [mɪˈnjuːʃɪiː] petty details мелочи
miscellaneous [ˌmɪs(ə)'leɪnɪəs] dissimilar смешанный, разнородный
miscreant ['mɪskrɪənt] villain, criminal злодей. негодяй
misogynist [mɪ'sɔʤ(ə)nɪst] woman-hater женоненавистник
mnemonic [nɪ'mɔnɪk] assisting memory связанный с памятью
modicum ['mɔdɪkəm] limited quantity очень малое количество
mollify ['mɔlɪfaɪ] to pacify, appease ослаблять, смягчать
moment ['məumənt] importance важность, значимость
moot [muːt] disputable, questionable дискуссионный, спорный
mordant ['mɔːd(ə)nt] sharp, biting острый, едкий
moribund ['mɔrɪbʌnd] dying, at the point of death умирающий
morose [mə'rəus ] gloomy, somber мрачный, печальный, угрюмый
mortality [mɔː'tælətɪ] death смертность
mortify ['mɔːtɪfaɪ] to embarrass, humiliate подавлять, обижать
motley ['mɔtlɪ] consisting of many types пестрый, разносоставной
muddle ['mʌdl] confusion неразбериха, беспорядок
mulct [mʌlkt] fine, penalty штраф
mundane [mʌn'deɪn] worldly земной, мирской
munificent [mjuː'nɪfɪs(ə)nt] generous необычайно щедрый

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murky ['mɜːkɪ] dark, obscure мутный, темный

myriad ['mɪrɪəd] countless number несметное число
nabob ['neɪbɔb] person who became rich recently нувориш, выскочка
nadir ['neɪdɪə] lowest point упадок
nascent ['næs(ə)nt] beginning to exist or develop рождающийся, появляющийся
nebulous ['nebjələs] unclear, vague неопределенный, неясный
nefarious [nɪ'feərɪəs] villainous, vicious бесчестный, гнусный
negate [nɪ'geɪt] to nullify опровергать, отрицать
negligible ['neglɪʤəbl] slight незначительный
neophyte ['niːəfaɪt] beginner новичок, новобранец
nepotism ['nepətɪz(ə)m] favoritism семейственность, кумовство
nettle ['netl] to irritate раздражать
nexus ['neksəs] means of connection связь, узы
niggling ['nɪglɪŋ] petty, trifling мелочный, незначительный
nimble ['nɪmbl] skillful, quick ловкий, проворный
nomadic [nəu'mædɪk] wandering кочевой, бродячий
nondescript ['nɔndɪskrɪpt] without distinct qualities невзрачный, непримечательный
nonentity [ˌnɔn'entətɪ] one of no importance ничтожество, пустое место, забвение
nonplussed [ˌnɔn'plʌst] confused удивленный, смущенный
nostrum ['nɔstrəm] idea for solving problems панацея, лекарство от всех болезней
novitiate [nəu'vɪʃɪət] beginner ученик, послушник
noxious ['nɔkʃəs] harmful, bad вредный, ядовитый
nullify ['nʌlɪfaɪ] to abolish, cancel аннулировать, отменить
nurture ['nɜːʧə] to nourish, support вскармливать, поддерживать
nutritive ['njuːtrətɪv] providing substance for life питательный
obdurate ['ɔbdj(ə)rət] hardened in feeling черствый, неотзывчивый
obese [əu'biːs] fat тучный, толстый
obliterate [ə'blɪt(ə)reɪt] to erase, wipe out удалять, вычеркивать
obloquy ['ɔbləkwɪ] shame, disgrace бесчестье, позор
obscene [əb'siːn] indecent, outrageous непристойный, непотребный
obscure [əb'skjuə] unknown, unclear непонятный, неясный
obsequious [əb'siːkwɪəs] seeking favor, fawning раболепный, услужливый
obsess [əb'ses] to haunt, preoccupy мучать, овладевать (об идее)
obsolescence [ˌɔbsə'les(ə)n(t)s] process of wearing out устаревание, исчезновение
obstreperous [əb'strep(ə)rəs] loud, noisy шумный, беспокойный
obviate ['ɔbvɪeɪt] to do away with, eliminate устранять, избегать
occlude [ə'kluːd] to obstruct, conceal преграждать, закрывать, скрывать
odious ['əudɪəs] repulsive, hateful гнусный, противный
odium ['əudɪəm] feeling of hating ненависть, отвращение, позор
officious [ə'fɪʃəs] bothersome, meddlesome назойливый, навязчивый
offset ['ɔfset] to counteract, compensate возмещать, компенсировать
ointment ['ɔɪntmənt] curing cream мазь, средство для лечения
olfactory [ɒlˈfakt(ə)ri] relating to smell обонятельный
ominous ['ɔmɪnəs] threatening угрожающий
omnipotent [ɔm'nɪpət(ə)nt] almighty, powerful всемогущий, всесильный
omniscient [ɔm'nɪsɪənt] knowing everything всеведущий, всезнающий
omnivorous [ɔm'nɪv(ə)rəs] eating any kind of food всеядный, неразборчивый
onerous ['əun(ə)rəs] difficult, burdensome затруднительный, тягостный
opaque [ə'peɪk] unclear, murky непрозрачный, непроницаемый
opprobrium [ə'prəubrɪəm] shame, disgrace позор
opulence ['ɔpjulən(t)s] wealth, riches изобилие, богатство
orifice ['ɔrɪfɪs] hole, opening отверстие, вдох или выход
oscillate ['ɔsɪleɪt] to vibrate качаться, вибрировать
ossify ['ɔsɪfaɪ] to become hardened костенеть, черстветь
ostensible [ɔs'ten(t)sɪbl] outward, pretended, seeming мнимый, показной
ostentatious [ˌɔsten'teɪʃəs] showy показной
ostracize [ˈɒstrəsaɪz] to exclude, ignore игнорировать, изгонять
oust [aust] to drive out, eject вытеснять

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overt [ə(u)'vɜːt] open неприкрытый, откровенный

overweening [ˌəuvə'wiːnɪŋ] arrogant, haughty слишком самоуверенный
paean ['piːən] song of joy or triumph хвалебная песнь
painstaking ['peɪnzˌteɪkɪŋ] careful, diligent старательный, тщательный
pall [pɔːl] to darken затемнять, покрывать мраком
palliate ['pælɪeɪt] to reduce pain смягчать, ослаблять (боль)
pallid ['pælɪd] lacking color or liveliness бледный
palpable ['pælpəbl] tangible осязаемый, ощутимый
paltry ['pɔːltrɪ] trivial, meager, unimportant пустяковый, незначительный
panache [pəˈnæʃ] style, flair своеобразие, особый стиль
pandemonium [ˌpændə'məunɪəm] disorder, uproar ад, преисподняя, обитель демонов
panglossian [pæŋ'glɔsɪən] unrealistically optimistic наивно оптимистичный
paragon ['pærəgən] model of excellence образец, модель
paramount ['pærəmaunt] supreme, foremost высший, главный
pariah [pə'raɪə] social outcast пария, изгой, отверженный
parochial [pə'rəukɪəl] narrow-minded узкий, ограниченный, местнический
paroxysm ['pærəksɪz(ə)m] sudden outburst припадок, приступ
parry ['pærɪ] to counter парировать, отражать
parsimonious [ˌpɑːsɪ'məunɪəs] miserly бережливый, расчетливый
partisan [ˌpɑːtɪ'zæn] follower, supporter адепт, поборник, сторонник
parvenu ['pɑːvənjuː] nouveau riche выскочка, парвеню
passé [pæ'seɪ] outdated, old-fashioned старомодный, устаревший
pathetic [pə'θetɪk] sad, pitiful, distressing жалкий, абсурдный
patois ['pætwɑː] jargon, dialect местное наречие, говор
paucity ['pɔːsətɪ] scarcity нехватка, малое количество
pecuniary [pɪ'kjuːnj(ə)rɪ] financial денежный, финансовый
pellucid [pɪ'luːsɪd] transparent прозрачный, ясный, понятный
penance ['penən(t)s] atonement for sin покаяние, раскаяние
penchant ['pɑːŋʃɑːŋ] tendency склонность, любовь
penitent ['penɪt(ə)nt] regretful раскаивающийся
pensive ['pen(t)sɪv] thoughtful, reflective размышляющий, задумчивый
penury ['penjərɪ] poverty бедность, нищета, нужда
perceive [pə'siːv] to understand считать, воспринимать
peregrination [ˌperɪgrɪ'neɪʃ(ə)n] travel поездка, путешествие
peremptory [pə'rempt(ə)rɪ] absolute, compulsory догматический, безапелляционный
perennial [p(ə)'renɪəl] permanent, everlasting круглогодичный, многолетний
perfidious [pə'fɪdɪəs] treacherous, false коварный, предательский
perfunctory [pə'fʌŋkt(ə)rɪ] done without care небрежный, поверхностный
peripatetic [ˌperɪpə'tetɪk] travelling to different places странствующий
permeable ['pɜːmɪəbl] penetrable проницаемый, проходимый
permeate ['pɜːmɪeɪt] to spread through проникать, пронизывать
pernicious [pə'nɪʃəs] harmful, causing injury разрушительный, вредоносный
perpetrate ['pɜːpɪtreɪt] to commit совершать (преступление)
perpetuate [pə'peʧueɪt] to cause to continue сохранять навсегда
perplexing [pə'pleksɪŋ] ambivalent, unclear трудный, озадачивающий
persevere [ˌpɜːsɪ'vɪə] to persist упорно продолжать
perspicacious [ˌpɜːspɪ'keɪʃəs] clever, keen проницательный
pertinent ['pɜːtɪnənt] to the point уместный
perturb [pə'tɜːb] to disturb greatly возмущать спокойствие
peruse [pə'ruːz] to read carefully внимательно изучать
pervasive [pə'veɪsɪv ] spreading, all-encompassing распространяющийся, проникающий
perverse [pə'vɜːs] contrary, persisting in error неправильный
pesky ['peskɪ] annoying надоедливый, досадный
pestilential [ˌpestɪ'lenʃ(ə)l] harmful заразный, пагубный
petrify ['petrɪfaɪ] to harden, paralyze превращать в камень
pettish ['petɪʃ] touchy раздражительный, обидчивый
petulant ['petjələnt] moody, irritable раздражительный, обидчивый
philistine ['fɪlɪstaɪn] narrow-minded materialist мещанин, обыватель

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physiognomy [ˌfɪzɪ'ɔnəmɪ] facial features черты лица

picayune [ˌpɪkə'juːn] not important, insignificant пустяковый, незначительный
piddling ['pɪdlɪŋ] insignificant мелкий, незначительный
piety ['paɪətɪ] devotion верность, благочестие
pillory ['pɪl(ə)rɪ] means of punishment позорный столб
pinnacle ['pɪnəkl] top, summit вершина, пик
pique [piːk] resentment неприязнь, враждебность
pittance ['pɪt(ə)n(t)s] small amount небольшое количество
placard ['plækɑːd] poster плакат, афиша
placate [plə'keɪt] to ease умиротворять, унимать, успокаивать
placid ['plæsɪd] tranquil безмятежный, тихий
plaintiff ['pleɪntɪf] complaining party in court истец
platitude ['plætɪt(j)uːd ] commonplace or trivial remark банальность, пошлость
plaudits ['plɔːdɪt] applause, clapping аплодисменты, рукоплескания
plethora ['pleθ(ə)rə] excess множество, излишки
pliable ['plaɪəbl] flexible, yielding уступчивый, сговорчивый
plight [plaɪt] dangerous situation затруднительное положение
plumb [plʌm] to determine the depth проникать, постигать, погружаться
plummet ['plʌmɪt] to fall, throw падать, кидать
poignant ['pɔɪnjənt] painful to the feelings едкий, острый
Pollyannaish [ˌpɔlɪ'ænɪʃ] believing only in good will безудержно оптимистичный
ponder ['pɔndə] to consider carefully обдумывать (тщательно)
ponderous ['pɔnd(ə)rəs] massive, clumsy тяжеловесный, неповоротный
porous ['pɔːrəs] full of holes пористый, губчатый
portentous [pɔː'tentəs] unusual, significant необыкновенный, значительный
potable ['pəutəbl] drinkable годный для питья
potent ['pəut(ə)nt] powerful, strong могущественный, мощный
potentate ['pəut(ə)nteɪt] ruler, lord владыка, властелин, монарх
powwow ['pauwau] informal meeting, discussion неформальная встреча
prate [preɪt] to talk idly, chatter болтать, трепаться
prattle ['prætl] silly talk лепет, журчание, пустая болтовня
precarious [prɪ'keərɪəs] insecure, doubtful ненадежный, сомнительный
precept ['priːsept] law, principle правило, принцип
precipitate [prɪ'sɪpɪteɪt] to hasten ускорять, торопить
preclude [prɪ'kluːd] to prevent предотвращать, препятствовать
precocious [prɪ'kəuʃəs] appearing or developing early ранний, скороспелый
precursor [ˌprɪ'kɜːsə] predecessor предшественник, предвестник
predilection [ˌpriːdɪ'lekʃ(ə)n] tendency склонность, пристрастие
preemptive [priː'emptɪv] preventive упреждающий
prehensile [prɪ'hen(t)saɪl] capable of grasping хваткий, сообразительный
premise ['premɪs] grounds for a conclusion предположение, условие
premonition [ˌpremə'nɪʃ(ə)n] forewarning предостережение
presage ['presɪʤ] to foretell предвещать
pretentious [prɪ'tenʃəs] ornate, showy вычурный, претенциозный
pretext ['priːtekst] excuse повод, предлог
prevarication [prɪˌværɪ'keɪʃ(ə)n] deception, double-dealing увиливание, уклонение
primordial [praɪ'mɔːdɪəl] original изначальный, базовый
pristine ['prɪstiːn] looking very clean or pure чистый, нетронутый
privation [praɪ'veɪʃ(ə)n] lack of necessities нужда, лишения
probity ['prəubətɪ] honest way of behaving честность, неподкупность
proclivity [prə'klɪvətɪ] tendency склонность, предрасположенность
procrastinate [prə'kræstɪneɪt] to delay intentionally откладывать, мешкать
prodigal ['prɔdɪg(ə)l] generous щедрый, неэкономный
prodigy ['prɔdɪʤɪ] marvel, phenomenon чудо, дар
proffer ['prɔfə] to offer предлагать
profligate ['prɔflɪgət] wasteful расточительный, неэкономный
profusion [prə'fjuːʒ(ə)n] excess изобилие, большое количество
progeny ['prɔʤənɪ] descendants потомство

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prohibitive [prə'hɪbətɪv] so high as to prevent непомерно высокий

proliferate [prə'lɪf(ə)reɪt] to multiply распространяться, разрастаться
prolific [prə'lɪfɪk] producing abundantly плодовитый
prolix ['prəulɪks] talkative, verbose длительный, многословный
promulgate ['prɔm(ə)lgeɪt] to make known officially провозглашать
propagate ['prɔpəgeɪt] to produce, multiply размножать, распространять
propensity [prə'pen(t)sətɪ] disposition, inclination склонность, предрасположенность
propinquity [prə'pɪŋkwɪtɪ] nearness in time or place близость, соседство
propitious [prə'pɪʃəs] favorable благоприятный, подходящий
propriety [prə'praɪətɪ] timeliness, suitability правомерность, уместность
proscribe [prə'skraɪb] to outlaw, banish, reject объявлять вне закона, осуждать
prostration [präˈstrāSHən] weariness, fatigue упадок сил, подавленное состояние
protean [prəu'tiːən] changing, variable изменчивый, многообразный
provident ['prɔvɪd(ə)nt] prudent, frugal предвидящий, осмотрительный
proximity [prɔk'sɪmətɪ] nearness близость, соседство
prudent ͞
[ˈproodnt] wise, cautious благоразумный
puerile ['pjuəraɪl] immature, childish юношеский, незрелый
pugnacious [pʌg'neɪʃəs] quarrelsome драчливый
puissant ['pjuːɪs(ə)nt] powerful могущественный
pundit ['pʌndɪt] expert знаток, мудрец
pungent ['pʌnʤ(ə)nt] sharply stimulating, biting острый, колкий, резкий
puny ['pjuːnɪ] diminutive, inferior слабый, ничтожный
pusillanimous [ˌpjuːsɪ'lænɪməs] cowardly малодушный, трусливый
putrid ['pjuːtrɪd] rotten, stinking гнилой, вонючий
qualify ['kwɔlɪfaɪ] to limit, restrict уменьшать, ослаблять
qualm [kwɑːm ] concern or anxiety беспокойство, тревога
quandary ['kwɔnd(ə)rɪ] doubt, dilemma недоумение, затруднение
quarry ['kwɔrɪ] something hunted or pursued добыча, объект поиска или охоты
quell [kwel] to put an end to подавлять, успокаивать
querulous ['kweruləs] fretful, annoying капризный, ворчливый
query ['ʧɔːtl] question вопрос, сомнение
quibble ['kwɪbl] to argue or complain препираться, придираться
quiescent [kwɪ'es(ə)nt] still, inactive неподвижный, спокойный
quip [kwɪp] joke колкость, насмешка
quixotic [kwɪk'sɔtɪk] not practical, idealistic идеалистический, донкихотский
quotidian [kwəu'tɪdɪən] ordinary, banal каждодневный, банальный
rabid ['ræbɪd] fanatical, furious бешеный, неистовый, яростный
raconteur [ˌrækɔn'tɜː] skillful storyteller рассказчик
raft [rɑːft] range, amount множество, груда, масса
rail [reɪl] to scold, criticize ругать, бранить
raiment ['reɪmənt] dress, clothing одежда, наряд
ramification [ˌræmɪfɪ'keɪʃ(ə)n] effect, result, implication последствия, результат
rampant ['ræmpənt] unchecked, widespread необузданный
rancor ['ræŋkə] enmity злоба, ненависть
ransack ['rænsæk] to search искать, обыскивать
rapacious [rə'peɪʃəs] greedy, predatory хищный, жадный, алчный
rapport [ræ'pɔː] mutual understanding взаимопонимание
rarefied ['reərɪfaɪd] refined утонченный, изысканный
rash [ræʃ] too hasty, reckless поспешный
raucous ['rɔːkəs] harsh, shrill хриплый, шумный, беспорядочный
ravenous [ˈræv(ə)nəs] insatiable, greedy жадный, хищный, прожорливый
raze [reɪz] to ruin разрушать до основания
realm [relm] special field сфера, область
reap [riːp] to get results пожинать, получать результат
rebuke [rɪ'bjuːk] to criticize, reproach упрекать
recalcitrant [rɪ'kælsɪtrənt] unruly, resistant непокорный, упорный, прочный
recant [rɪ'kænt] to denounce отрекаться
recast [ˌriː'kɑːst] to change, redo изменять, переделывать

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Cписок редких слов для GMAT, GRE, SAT www.testverbal.ru

reciprocal [rɪ'sɪprək(ə)l] mutual, corresponding взаимный, обоюдный

recluse [rɪ'kluːs] loner, outsider затворник, отшельник
recoil [rɪ'kɔɪl] to draw back отскочить, отпрыгнуть
recondite ['rek(ə)ndaɪt] obscure, hidden трудный, сложный для понимания
recreant ['rekrɪənt] coward, traitor трус, изменник
redolent ['red(ə)lənt] fragrant благоухающий, приятный
redoubtable [rɪ'dautəbl] causing fear or great respect грозный, вызывающий уважение
redress [rɪ'dres] to right a wrong, remedy исправить, возместить
refractory [rɪ'frækt(ə)rɪ] unmanageable, stubborn непокоренный, упрямый
refulgent [rɪ'fʌlʤənt] bright, shining блестящий, сияющий
refute [rɪ'fjuːt] to prove wrong or false опровергать
relegate ['relɪgeɪt] to assign to an lower post принижать, низводить
relent [rɪ'lent] to give in, cease resistance сдаваться, уступать, ослабевать
relinquish [rɪˈlɪŋkwɪʃ] to abandon, surrender отступать, отказываться
relish [ˈrɛlɪʃ] to enjoy наслаждаться
remiss [rɪ'mɪs] careless, negligent невнимательный, беспечный
remonstrate ['remən(t)streɪt] to object or protest протестовать, возражать
remuneration [rɪˌmjuːn(ə)'reɪʃ(ə)n] reward, pay вознаграждение
renege [rɪ'niːg] to break promise изменять своему слову
renitent [reniˈtɛnt] rigid in structure or attitude непослушный, непокорный
repeal [rɪ'piːl] to annul, invalidate аннулировать, отменить
repent [rɪpe̱nt] to regret раскаиваться, каяться
repine [rɪ'paɪn] to fret, complain роптать, ворчать
replenish [rɪ'plenɪʃ] to fill again, to restock пополнять
replete [rɪ'pliːt] completely filled with насыщенный, полный
repose [rɪ'pəuz] state of rest отдых, передышка
reprehensible [ˌreprɪ'hen(t)səbl] worthy of blame достойный осуждения
reprimand ['reprɪmɑːnd] to show disapproval осуждать, не соглашаться
reprise [rɪ'priːz] repetition повторение
reproach [rɪ'prəuʧ] to rebuke бранить, критиковать
reprobate ['reprəbeɪt] villain негодяй, подлец, распутник
repudiate [rɪ'pjuːdɪeɪt] to reject, decline отрекаться
repugnant [rɪ'pʌgnənt] distasteful, repulsive противный, отвратительный
repulse [rɪ'pʌls] to drive back отражать
reputed [rɪ'pjuːtɪd] supposed, believed известный, имеющий репутацию
requisite ['rekwɪzɪt] necessary необходимый
rescind [rɪ'sɪnd] to annul отменять, аннулировать
resilient [rɪˈzɪlɪənt] elastic, durable эластичный, упругий, стойкий
respite ['respaɪt] interval of relief, delay передышка, отсрочка
restive ['restɪv] unruly своенравный, упрямый
retard [rɪˈtɑːd] to delay замедлять
reticent ['retɪs(ə)nt] silent молчаливый
retiring [rɪ'taɪərɪŋ] shy застенчивый, скромный
retort [rɪ'tɔːt] to reply, object резко возражать
reverberating [rɪ'vɜːb(ə)reɪtɪŋ] reechoing, resounding отражающийся, раскатистый
revere [rɪ'vɪə] to honor, respect уважать, чтить
revert [rɪ'vɜːt] to return возвращаться
reviled [rɪ'vaɪl] scolded оскорбляемый, критикуемый
ribald ['rɪb(ə)ld] rude, disrespectful неприличный, грубый
riddle ['rɪdl] enigma загадка
rife [raɪf] widespread, common обычный, обыкновенный
rift [rɪft] split, opening трещина, разлом
riposte [rɪ'pɔst ] retaliatory action or retort ответный удар
roil [rɔɪl] to annoy волноваться, мутить, раздражать
romp [rɔmp] to move in a lively manner весело играть, возиться
roster ['rɔstə] list of names перечень, реестр, расписание
rue [ruː] to regret сожалеть
ruminate ['ruːmɪneɪt] to ponder, reflect upon размышлять

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Cписок редких слов для GMAT, GRE, SAT www.testverbal.ru

rustic [rʌ̱stɪk] countrified, unpolished деревенский, сельский

sagacious [sə'geɪʃəs] acutely perceptive, shrewd проницательный, прозорливый
sage [seɪʤ] wise man, philosopher мудрец
salient ['seɪlɪənt] outstanding, prominent заметный, выдающийся
sally ['sælɪ] sudden rush forth внезапное появление, бросок
salubrious [sə'luːbrɪəs] healthful здоровый, полезный
salutary ['sæljət(ə)rɪ] expecting an improvement целительный, благотворный
salvation [sæl'veɪʃ(ə)n] deliverance from ruin избавление, спасение
sanctimonious [ˌsæŋ(k)tɪ'məunɪəs] hypocritical ханжеский, лицемерный
sanction ['sæŋ(k)ʃ(ə)n] to approve, allow разрешить, одобрить
sanctuary ['sæŋ(k)ʧuərɪ] shelter убежище
sangfroid [ˌsɑːŋ'frwɑː] self-assurance, confidence хладнокровнее, невозмутимость
sanguine ['sæŋgwɪn] optimistic оптимистичный
sardonic [sɑː'dɔnɪk] showing lack of respect злобный, сардонический
sartorial [sɑː'tɔːrɪəl] relating to clothes относящийся к одежде или моде
satiety [sə'taɪətɪ] surfeit, excess пресыщение
saturate ['sæʧ(ə)reɪt] to soak, fill up completely насыщать, пропитывать
saturnine ['sætənaɪn] looking serious and sad мрачный, угрюмый
savor ['seɪvə] to enjoy наслаждаться, смаковать
scantiness ['skæntɪnəs] insufficiency, lack скудность, недостаточность
schadenfreude ['ʃɑːd(ə)nˌfrɔɪdə] malicious joy злорадство
schism ['skɪzəm] split ересь, секта, раскол
scintillating ['sɪntɪleɪtɪŋ] sparkling, brilliant остроумный, искрометный
scion [ˈsʌɪən] child, descendant потомок
scoff [skɔf] to sneer at высмеивать
scotch [skɔʧ] to stop, prevent прекратить, пресечь
screed [skriːd] long boring speech длинная скучная речь или статья
scrutinize ['skruːtɪnaɪz] to examine closely исследовать
scurrilous ['skʌrələs] coarse грубый, оскорбительный
scurry ['skʌrɪ] to run hastily бегать, нестись
secluded [sɪ'kluːdɪd] hidden секретный, укромный
sedate [sɪ'deɪt] quiet, still, sober спокойный
sedentary ['sed(ə)nt(ə)rɪ] largely inactive сидячий, неподвижный
sedition [sɪ'dɪʃ(ə)n] behavior prompting rebelling мятеж, бунт
sedulous ['sedjuləs] hard-working прилежный, старательный
senescent [sɪ'nes(ə)nt] aging стареющий, дряхлеющий
senile ['siːnaɪl] infirm, weak from old age старческий, дряхлый
sententious [sen'ten(t)ʃəs] moralizing, mentoring нравоучительный, менторский
sentient ['sen(t)ʃ(ə)nt ] aware, conscious наделенный сознанием, разумный
serendipity [ˌser(ə)n'dɪpətɪ] wisdom, intuition прозорливость, интуиция, везение
serenity [sɪ'renɪtɪ] peaceful repose ясность, прозрачность
servile ['sɜːvaɪl] slavish рабский, холопский
shallow ['ʃæləu] superficial, not deep неглубокий, несерьезный
shibboleth ['ʃɪb(ə)leθ] pet phrase, slogan особенное слово
simian ['sɪmɪən] related to apes обезьяний, обезьяноподобный
simile ['sɪmɪlɪ] comparison сравнение
sinecure ['saɪnɪkjuə] soft job тепленькое местечко
singular ['sɪŋgjələ] extraordinary выдающийся
sinister ['sɪnɪstə] evil, ominous зловещий
sinuous ['sɪnjuəs] not straight извилистый, запутанный
skirmish ['skɜːmɪʃ] small fight, encounter стычка, перепалка
slacken ['slæk(ə)n] to weaken ослаблять
slake [sleɪk] to satisfy утолять, удовлетворять
slothful ['sləuθf(ə)l] lazy, inactive инертный, вялый, ленивый
slovenly ['slʌv(ə)nlɪ] disorderly, carelessly неопрятный, неаккуратный
sluggish ['slʌgɪʃ] slow, inert пассивный, вялый, медленный
snide [snaɪd] cunning, dishonest подлый, обманный
sobriety [sə'braɪɪtɪ] seriousness трезвость, умеренность

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sodden ['sɔd(ə)n] thoroughly soaked промокший, влажный

sojourn ['sɔʤɜːn] temporary stay временное пребывание
solace ['sɔləs] easing of grief утешение
solemn [ˈsɒləm] serious, grave, ritual серьезный, ритуальный, мрачный
solicit [sə'lɪsɪt] to beg, seek earnestly просить, умолять
soliloquy [sə'lɪləkwɪ] literary or dramatic speech монолог, речь
solvent ['sɔlvənt] financially creditworthy платежеспособный
somber ['sɔmbə] gloomy, sad мрачный
sonorous ['sɔn(ə)rəs] strong, loud, pleasant звонкий, звучный, гулкий
sophistry ['sɔfɪstrɪ] a false method of reasoning софистика, нелогичное суждение
sophomoric [ˌsɒfəˈmɒrɪk] immature, inexperienced неглубокий, незрелый
soporific [ˌsɔp(ə)'rɪfɪk] related to sleep, sedative усыпляющий, засыпающий
sordid ['sɔːdɪd] dirty, base грязный
spate [speɪt] sudden outburst внезапный порыв, вспышка
specious ['spiːʃəs] dishonest, fake неискренний, показной, ложный
spendthrift ['spendθrɪft] spending money recklessly неэкономный, расточительный
spew [spjuː] to throw up, vomit, eject рвать, блевать
sporadic [spə'rædɪk((ə)l)] occasional отдельный, единичный
spurious ['spjuərɪəs] false, counterfeit поддельный, фальшивый
spurn [spɜːn] to reject отвергать с презрением
squabble ['skwɔbl] to argue, brawl ссориться, скандалить
squalor ['skwɔlə] dirty or unpleasant conditions грязь, нищета, запустение
squeamish ['skwiːmɪʃ] easily shocked слабый, щепетильный
staggering ['stæg(ə)rɪŋ] shocking, striking ошеломляющий, потрясающий
staid [steɪd] serious and rather boring степенный, скучный
stalwart ['stɔːlwət] persistent, brave смелый, настойчивый
stanch [stɑːnʧ] to stop or check the flow останавливать, пресекать, утолять
staunch [stɔːnʧ] devoted, loyal, steadfast стойкий, непреклонный, верный
steadfast ['stedfɑːst] not changing opinions твердый, прочный, постоянный
steeped [stiːpt] soaked or saturated погруженный (во что-то)
stem [stem] to stop, restrict противиться, сопротивляться
stentorian [sten'tɔːrɪən] loud громкий
stigmatize ['stɪgmətaɪz] to mark with disgrace клеймить, позорить
stint [stɪnt] to limit, restrict ограничивать, урезать
stipulate ['stɪpjəleɪt] to specify a condition ставить условия, разъяснять
stolid ['stɔlɪd] calm, hard to excite спокойный, невозмутимый
stratified [stræ̱ tɪfaɪd] divided into layers слоистый
striated ['strɪeɪtɪd] marked with narrow channels полосатый
stricture ['strɪkʧə] something that restraints строгая критика, осуждение
strident ['straɪd(ə)nt] harsh, rough резкий, громкий
strife [straɪf] discord, disagreement несогласие, соперничество
strut [strʌt] to walk in a strange manner важная или неестественная походка
stultify ['stʌltɪfaɪ] to block, numb притуплять, препятствовать
stunted ['stʌntɪd] wasted away мелкий, низкий
stupefy ['stjuːpɪfaɪ] to dull the senses, astonish приводить в оцепенение, изумлять
stygian ['hærəuɪŋ] dark and gloomy мрачный, черный, адский
stymie ['staɪmɪ] to hinder, impede блокировать, заводить в тупик
subjugate ['sʌbʤəgeɪt] to conquer подчинять
sublime [sə'blaɪm] supreme, perfect возвышенный, безупречный
subpoena [səb'piːnə] court summons вызов в суд, повестка
substantiate [səb'stæn(t)ʃɪeɪt] to confirm, ratify обосновывать, доказывать
subsume [səb'sjuːm] to include, incorporate относить к категории
subterfuge [ˈsʌbtəfjuːdʒ] ruse, trick уловка, хитрость
subterranean [ˌsʌbt(ə)'reɪnɪən] underground подземный
succinct [sək'sɪŋ(k)t] brief, concise краткий, сжатый
succor ['sʌkə] to help помогать, поддерживать
succulent ['sʌkjələnt] juicy, fleshy сочный, мясистый
succumb [sə'kʌm] to give way, yield поддаваться, уступать

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suffrage ['sʌfrɪʤ] right to vote право голоса

sullen ['sʌlən] grim замкнутый, угрюмый
sully ['sʌlɪ] to impair, soil загрязнять, марать, пачкать
sultry [sʌ̱ltri] extremely hot and moist душный, жаркий
sumptuous ['sʌmpʧuəs] lavish роскошный, дорогостоящий
sundry ['sʌndrɪ] various различный, разный
supercilious [ˌs(j)uːpə'sɪlɪəs] arrogant, haughty высокомерный
superfluity [ˌs(j)uːpə'fluːətɪ] excess, surfeit избыток
superfluous [s(j)uː'pɜːfluəs] excessive, surplus излишний, ненужный
supersede [ˌs(j)uːpə'siːd] to substitute заменять, замещать, вытеснять
supine [ˈs(j)uːpʌɪn] lying on the back лежащий на спине
supplant [sə'plɑːnt] to replace выжить, вытеснить, занять место
supple ['sʌpl] flexible, lithe гибrкий, мягкий, эластичный
supplication [ˌsʌplɪ'keɪʃ(ə)n] earnest pray мольба, просьба
surfeit ['sɜːfɪt] excess, superabundance излишество
surge [sɜːʤ] to rush suddenly нахлынуть
surmise [sə'maɪz] guess догадка
surreptitious [ˌsʌrəp'tɪʃəs] stealthy, done by secret тайный
susceptible [sə'septəbl] easily affected восприимчивый, податливый
sustenance ['sʌstənən(t)s] nutrition средства к существованию
swarm [swɔːm] to move in a crowd, throng толпиться, роиться
swift [swɪft] quick быстрый, стремительный
sybarite ['sɪb(ə)raɪt] liking pleasure праздный, избалованный роскошью
sycophant [ˈsɪkəfænt] toady, flatterer льстец, подхалим
sylvan ['sɪlvən] relating to a forest лесной
syncretic [ˌsɪŋkr'ætɪk] combined, undivided неразделенный, слитный
synopsis [sɪ'nɔpsɪs] abstract, summary конспект, краткий обзор
tacit ['tæsɪt] silent or reserved молчаливый, подразумеваемый
taint [teɪnt] contamination, undesirable substance пятно, испорченность
tangential [tæn'ʤen(t)ʃ(ə)l] not straight, irrelevant наклонный, отклоняющийся
tangible ['tænʤəbl] having actual form осязаемый
tantalize ['tænt(ə)laɪz] to tease манить, соблазнять
tantamount ['tæntəmaunt] equivalent равносильный, эквивалентный
taunt [tɔːnt] to mock, deride насмехаться, высмеивать
taut [tɔːt] tense, keyed up упругий, подтянутый, в напряжении
taxonomy [tæk'sɔnəmɪ] classification систематика. классификация
teeter ['tiːtə] to stand or move unsteadily качать, раскачивать
telling ['telɪŋ] effective, important выразительный, эффектный
telltale ['telteɪl] to gossip, chatter болтать, сплетничать
temerity [tɪ'merətɪ] foolish boldness опрометчивость
temperate ['temp(ə)rət] moderate, frugal воздержанный, сделанный
tenable ['tenəbl] supportive, defendable прочный, крепкий, разумный
tenacious [tɪ'neɪʃəs] tough крепкий, прочный, уверенный
tenet ['tenɪt] belief, doctrine догмат, принцип
tenuous ['tenjuəs] weak and likely to change тонкий, слабый, скудный
termagant ['tɜːməgənt] scolding, annoying woman сварливая женщина, мегера
terminate ['tɜːmɪneɪt] to end заканчивать
terse [tɜːs] concise, brief, compact краткий
thespian ['θespɪən] actor, actress актер, актриса
thrall [θrɔːl] to enslave, subjugate покорять, порабощать
threnody ['θrenədɪ] sad poem, speech or song погребальная песнь, плач
throng [θrɔŋ] crowd толпа
thwart [θwɔːt] to hinder, defeat препятствовать, разрушать
timbre ['tæmbrə] characteristic of sound тембр
timorous ['tɪm(ə)rəs] fearful робкий, боязливый
tinge [tɪnʤ] slight degree оттенок, малоe количество
toady ['təudɪ] flatterer, yes-man подхалим, льстец
torpid ['tɔːpɪd] inactive онемевший, бездеятельный

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Cписок редких слов для GMAT, GRE, SAT www.testverbal.ru

torque [tɔːk] turning force вращение, крутящий момент

tortuous ['tɔːʧuəs] winding, not straight извилистый
tout [taut] to promote, praise рекламировать, навязывать
tractable ['træktəbl] easily manageable податливый
tranquil ['træŋkwɪl] quiet спокойный
transient ['trænzɪənt ] passing, short-lived мимолетный, кратковременный
translucent [trænz'l(j)uːs(ə)nt ] partly transparent просвечивающий, полупрозрачный
traugression [trænz'greʃ(ə)n] violation, breach проступок, нарушение закона
travail ['træveɪl] work труд, работа
treatise ['triːtɪz] composition трактат, научный труд
tremulous ['tremjələs] quivering дрожащий, робкий
trenchant ['tren(t)ʃənt] keen, incisive резкий, колкий, проницательный
trepidation [ˌtrepɪ'deɪʃ(ə)n] fear, anxiety страх, тревога, беспокойство
trite [traɪt] commonplace банальный, избитый
trounce [traun(t)s] to beat бить, пороть, наказывать
truculence [tʀykylɑ̃s] feisty state, aggressiveness свирепость, агрессивность
truism ['truːɪz(ə)m] unnecessary statement банальность
truncated [trʌŋ'keɪtɪd] cut short усеченный, искаженный
tryst [trɪst] secret meeting, date встреча, свидание
tumid ['t(j)uːmɪd] swollen, distended распухший, напыщенный
tumultuous [t(j)uː'mʌlʧuəs] unrestrained, riotous шумный, бурный, возбужденный
turgid ['tɜːʤɪd] swollen, pompous опухший, напыщенный, скучный
turpitude ['tɜːpɪt(j)uːd] evil wickedness подлость, порочность
tussle ['tʌsl] rough struggle борьба, драка
tutelary ['tjuːtələ(rɪ)] serving to protect охраняющий
tyro ['taɪərəu] neophyte, beginner новичок, начинающий
ubiquitous [juː'bɪkwɪtəs] existing everywhere повсеместный, вездесущий
ultimate ['ʌltɪmət] final окончательный
umbrage ['ʌmbrɪʤ] resentment, offense обида
unabated [ˌʌnə'beɪtɪd] without subsiding неутихающий
unanimity [ˌjuːnə'nɪmətɪ] complete agreement единодушие
unavowed [ˌʌnˈbaʊd] secret, not openly stated секретный, тайный
uncanny [ʌn'kænɪ] mysterious, strange сверхъестественный, странный
unconscionable [ʌn'kɔn(t)ʃ(ə)nəbl] unreasonable, dishonest бессовестный, нечестный
uncouth [ʌnˈkuːθ] rude, uncivilized грубый, неотёсанный
unctuous ['ʌŋkʧuəs ] too emotional, insincere скользкий, неестественный
undermine [ˌʌndə'maɪn] to weaken, damage подрывать, расшатывать, разрушать
underwrite [ˌʌnd(ə)r'aɪt] to agree to finance финансировать
undulating ['ʌndjəleɪtɪŋ] moving in waves волнистый
unhackneyed [ʌn'hæknɪd] not banal, not trivial оригинальный, нетривиальный
unkempt [ʌn'kem(p)t] untidy растрепанный, неопрятный
unmitigated [ʌn'mɪtɪgeɪtɪd] absolute неослабленный, абсолютный
unnerve [ʌn'nɜːv] to deprive of courage, strength ослаблять, лишать силы
unsavory [ʌn'seɪv(ə)rɪ] tasteless, unpleasant безвкусный, отталкивающий
unseemly [ʌn'siːmlɪ] inappropriate, indecent неподобающий, непристойный
unstinting [ʌn'stɪntɪŋ] generous, bountiful безграничный, безмерный
untoward [ˌʌntə'wɔːd] unruly, intractable упрямый, непокорный, неудачный
unwholesome [ʌn'həulsəm] unsound, filthy вредный, нездоровый, неполезный
unwieldy [ʌn'wiːldɪ] bulky, difficult to handle громоздкий, неуклюжий
upbraid [ʌp'breɪd] to criticize, scold ругать, бранить, упрекать
urbane [ɜː'beɪn] polished, witty вежливый, изысканный
vacillate ['væs(ə)leɪt] to hesitate, fluctuate колебаться, не решаться
vacuous ['vækjuəs] empty пустой, бессодержательный
vagary ['veɪg(ə)rɪ] caprice, whim каприз, причуда
vainness ['veɪnnəs] uselessness бесполезность, безуспешность
valedictory [ˌvælɪ'dɪkt(ə)rɪ] pertaining to farewell прощальный, напутственный
valiant ['vælɪənt] brave, courageous, heroic храбрый, отважный, героический
valor ['vælə] courage доблесть, отвага

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Cписок редких слов для GMAT, GRE, SAT www.testverbal.ru

vapid ['væpɪd] uninteresting, dull безвкусный, бессодержательный

variegated ['veərɪgeɪtɪd] multicolored разноцветный, пестрый
vaunt [vɔːnt] to boast, brag хвастаться
vehement ['viːəmənt] violent, eager сильный, неистовый, страстный
venal ['viːn(ə)l] corrupt, bribable продажный, корыстный
veneer [və'nɪə] thin covering внешний слой, оболочка
venerable ['ven(ə)rəbl] respected, worshiped уважаемый, почтенный
venial ['viːnɪəl] pardonable простительный
venom ['venəm] poison, spite, malice яд, злоба
veracious [və'reɪʃəs] honest, sincere правдивый, достоверный
verbose [vɜː'bəus] wordy, prolix многословный
vertigo ['vɜːtɪgəu] dizziness головокружение
verve [vɜːv] energy, vigor живость, сила, энергия
vestige ['vestɪʤ] trace, evidence частица, след, остаток
vexatious [vek'seɪʃəs] annoying раздражающий
viable ['vaɪəbl] practicable, workable жизнеспособный
vicarious [vɪ'keərɪəs] indirect, delegated чужой, не свой, замещающий
vicissitudes [vɪsɪ ̱sɪtjuːdz] difficulties сложности, превратности
vigil ['vɪʤɪl] wakeful watching бодрствование, дежурство
vigilant ['vɪʤɪlənt] watchful осторожный, бдительный
vilify ['vɪlɪfaɪ] to slander, malign чернить, поносить
vindicate ['vɪndɪkeɪt] to justify, absolve доказывать, защищать, отстаивать
vindictive [vɪn'dɪktɪv] not forgiving people мстительный, карательный
virago [vɪ'rɑːgəu] annoyed or angry woman сварливая женщина, мегера
virile ['vɪraɪl] masterful, manly зрелый, возмужалый
virulent ['vɪrul(ə)nt] full of hate, harmful опасный, злой
visage ['vɪzɪʤ] appearance, aspect лицо, внешний вид
viscous ['vɪskəs] sticky, adhesive вязкий, липкий, клейкий
vitality [vaɪ'tælətɪ] liveliness жизнеспособность, живость, энергия
vitiate ['vɪʃɪeɪt] to destroy the use or value портить, искажать
vitriolic [ˌvɪtrɪ'ɔlɪk] bitter, biting едкий, злой
vituperation [vɪˌtjuːp(ə)'reɪʃ(ə)n] blame, abuse брань, оскорбление
vivacious [vɪ'veɪʃəs] lively, gay живой, оживленный
vivisection [ˌvɪvɪ'sekʃ(ə)n] dissection, surgery подробное изучение, рассечение
vogue [vəug] fashion мода, популярность
volition [və'lɪʃ(ə)n] willpower, choice воля, волевой акт, сила воли
voluble ['vɔljəbl] talkative говорливый, многословный
voracious [və'reɪʃəs] desiring great quantities голодный, прожорливый
vortex ['vɔːteks] center of turbulence водоворот
vulnerable ['vʌln(ə)rəbl] easy to be injured ранимый, уязвимый
vying [va͟ɪɪŋ] competing конкурирующий, соперничающий
wan [wɔn] sickly pale болезненный, изнуренный
wane [weɪn] to decrease уменьшаться, ослабевать
wanting ['wɔntɪŋ] deficient, lacking недостающий, отсутствующий
wanton ['wɔntən] extravagant, unreasonable распутный, экстравагантный
waspish ['wɔspɪʃ] irritable, nasty злой, раздражительный
waver ['weɪvə] to hesitate, fluctuate колебаться, не решаться
wax [wæks] to grow увеличивать
welter ['weltə] variety of disordered things беспорядок, сумбур
wheedle ['(h)wiːdl] to coax, persuade выманивать, втягивать лестью
whet [wɛt] to stimulate, stir up возбуждать, провоцировать
whimsical ['(h)wɪmzɪk(ə)l] humorous, witty причудливый, необычный
wimpish ['wɪmpɪʃ] without character бесхарактерный
wince [wɪn(t)s] to shrink back (as of pain) вздрагивать, морщиться
wistful ['wɪstf(ə)l ] longing, pensive томящийся, желающий
withhold [wɪθ'həuld] to reject, hold back, deny воздерживаться, отказывать
woe [wəu] strong feeling of sadness горе, несчастье
wrangle ['ræŋgl] controversy спор, ссора

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Cписок редких слов для GMAT, GRE, SAT www.testverbal.ru

wrest [rest] to take by force выхватывать

wry [raɪ] incorrect, distorted искривленный
yearning ['jɜːnɪŋ] nostalgia, longing сильное желание, ностальгия
yen [jen] strong longing сильное желание
zealous ['zeləs] enthusiastic рьяный, страстный
zeitgeist [ˈzʌɪtgʌɪst] ideas typical of a time дух времени

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References:

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GRE Book Edited

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Table of Contents

The directions for Issue essays will look like this:

The Issue essay prompts:

Method for Analytical Writing

STEP 1 Take the issue apart.

Arguments for the use of nuclear power:

Arguments against the use of nuclear power:

Paragraph 1: Nuclear power is not a viable alternative to other energy sources.

Sample Issue Essay

Sample Issue Essay 2

The directions for an Argument essay will look like this:

The Argument essay prompts:

Common Reasoning Flaws

• Confusing cause-and-effect with mere correlation or time sequence

Method for Analytical Writing

STEP 1 Take the issue/argument apart.

Take the last couple of minutes to catch any glaring errors.

3.The following appeared in an article in the Grandview Beacon.

12. The following is a letter to the editor of the Waymarsh Times.

13. The following appeared as a letter to the editor of a national newspaper.

23. The following appeared as part of an article in a business magazine.

SENTENCE EQUIVALENCE PRACTICE SET

READING COMPREHENSION PRACTICE SET

1. In the passage above, what roles do the boldfaced sentences serve?

Questions 3 through 5 are based on the passage below.

4. Because she was so , Mary rarely spoke in groups of people.

Questions 11 through 14 are based on the passage below.

Questions 15 through 18 are based on the passage below.

Questions 19 through 20 are based on the passage below.

20. According to the passage, Loi 101 was significant in that it

2. Because he was convinced of his own , Adam never accepted criticism.

4. Much to his , he was forced to acknowledge the flaw in his reasoning; he

Questions 11 through 13 are based on the passage below.

11. The passage is concerned primarily with

13. The highlighted section refers to

Questions 14 is based on the passage below.

Questions 15–18 are based on the following passage.

Questions 19–20 are based on the following passage.

2. Although he an image of anti-authoritarianism, Johnny Cash was a frequent visitor to

8. The advent of the Internet has created an unprecedented increase in communication

Questions 11 through 14 are based on the passage below.

11. The primary purpose of the passage is to

15. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with

Questions 18 through 20 are based on the passage below.

10. The space shuttle is an

Questions 12 through 15 are based on the passage below.

12. Which of the following is implied by the passage?

Questions 16 through 18 are based on the passage below.

Questions 19 through 20 are based on the passage below.

20. The primary purpose of the passage is to show how

Question 7-9 are based on the passage below.

Question 18 is based on the passage below.

Questions 19- 20 are based on the passage below.

5. Thomas Pynchon’s unconventional and groundbreaking masterpiece Gravity’s Rainbow (i)

Questions 7 and 9 are based on the passage below.

Questions 10 and 11 are based on the passage below.

Questions 17 and 18 are based on the passage below.

Questions 19 and 20 are based on the passage below.

Questions 13 and 15 are based on the passage below.

Questions 16 and 20 are based on the passage below.

17. The author refers to the experiment in order to

Questions 13 and 17 are based on the passage below.

Questions 17 and 20 are based on the passage below.

Question 13 is based on this passage.

Questions 14 to 16 are based on this passage.

15. In the context in which it appears, “temporal” most nearly means

12. In the context of the passage as a whole, “address” is closest in meaning to

Question 13 is based on this passage.

Questions 14 and 15 are based on this passage.

Question 16 is based on this passage.

Questions 17 to 19 are based on this passage.

19. In the context in which it appears, “accorded” most nearly means

Question 20 is based on this passage.

2. It is a waste of time to someone so dimwitted; he is too dull to recognize your barbs.

Questions 14 to 16 are based on this passage.

Questions 17 to 20 are based on this passage.