1

1. Slats installed on the leading edge of a wing will ……………….. the stall
a) delay
b) promote
c) not affect

2. At low speeds near the stalling angle, high Thrust from the propeller sends a slipstream over the,
a) elevator
b) rudder
c) both

3. Rolling is the angular motion about the ………………. Axis running through the CG
a) Longitudinal axis
b) Lateral axis
c) Normal axis

4. Drag would always act,

a) along and opposite to the flight path
b) along and opposite to the lift component
c) along and opposite to the weight

5. At constant temperature what is the effect of Pressure on Density?

a) It is inversely proportional to the pressure
b) It is directly proportional to the pressure
c) Density is always constant to the pressure

6. The force produced by the wings and which supports the aeroplane in flight is called,
a) Thrust
b) Drag
c) Lift

7. Directional Stability is improved with a …………………. Fin or ………………. stabilizer

a) Large, Horizontal
b) Small , Vertical
c) Large , Vertical

8. The term „ Lift / Drag ‟ ratio :

a) can be used to describe the aerodynamic efficiency of the wing
b) is the ratio of the Lift produced from an aerofoil compared to the Drag produced from the Aerofoil
c) all the above statements are correct

9. Climb performance at sea level is …………………. Than climb performance at high altitudes
a) better
b) normal
c) worse\
10. Turbulent flow upsets the formation of the areas of low …………………….. so necessary to production of
……………………
a) Dynamic Pressure, Lift
b) Static Pressure, Drag
c) Static Pressure, Lift
 2

11. The four main forces acting on an aeroplane in-flight are balanced by an aerodynamic force generated by
a) the flaps
b) the horizontal stabilizer
c) the fin

12. In 60 degree level banked turn, the required Lift is twice that in straight and level flight. The load factor is,
a) 6
b) 4
c) 2

13. If the weight of an aeroplane was increased in-flight, say by the formation of ice, it‟s stalling speed would
a) decrease
b) increase
c) it wouldn‟t stall at all

14. For operating at very high airspeeds and low RPM, the most efficient propeller would have,
a) A fine pitch
b) A coarse pitch
c) A fixed pitch

15. …………………… is the angle between the relative wind and ……………………..
a) Angle of incidence, chord line
b) Angle of attack, chord line
c) Pitch angle ,chord line

16. At normal flight speeds for the right wing to rise, the aileron will,
a) be stable
b) rise
c) go down

17. The lift is always perpendicular to the,

a)Flight path
b)Thrust
c)Relative airflow

18. At high speeds and low angles of attack, because of the greater ……………….. Drag, the Thrust requirement is
……………………..
a) Parasite Drag , greater
b) Induced Drag , greater
c) Parasite Drag , less

19. If power is added, the descent becomes

a) steeper
b) shallower
c) stays the same

20. A wing with a Low Aspect Ratio will stall,

a) Faster
b) Slower
c) Would not stall at all
 3

21. The airflow over the wing, the static pressure will,
a) Decrease and the velocity will increase, and air flow below the wing will have lesser velocity and
increased pressure.
b) Decrease and the velocity will increase, and air flow below the wing will have lesser velocity and
decreased pressure.
c) Increase and the velocity will also increase

22. A symmetrical aerofoil (whose upper and lower surfaces are the same shape) at zero angle attack will have similar
airflows over both upper and lower surfaces. Therefore at zero angle of attack, the Lift generated by a symmetrical
aerofoil will be,
a) Positive
b) Zero
c) Negative

23. The Coefficient of Lift represents the shape of the aerofoil and,
a) Angle of Attack
b) Angle of Pitch
c) Angle of Incidence

24. In most training aeroplanes, the Centre of Pressure is ……………... the Centre of Gravity and the tail plane
produces ……………. force
a) ahead of , downward
b) behind , a zero
c) behind, downward force

25. If the stabilator is moved in the pre-flight external inspection, then the anti- balance tab should,
a) Move in the same direction
b) Move in the opposite direction
c) Not move

26. As the forward speed of an aeroplane with a fixed pitch propeller increases, what happens to the angle of attack of
the propeller blades if the RPM remains constant ?
a) Angle of attack decreases as forward speed increases
b) Angle of attack increases as forward speed increases
c) None of these

27. Wing Loading is ,

a) Weight of Aircraft / Wing Area
b) Wing Span / Wing Chord
c) Weight of Aircraft / Wing Span

28. Bernoulli‟s Principle describes the natural effect that in a in a streamline flow ,
a) The total energy varies with the square of the speed
b) The total energy varies inversely as the square of the speed
c) The total energy remains constant

29. The climb performance of a heavy aeroplane compared to when it is light is ,

a) better
b) worse
c) the same
 4

30. Winglets are made to reduce ……………….. and are located at the …………………
a) Parasite Drag, Wing Root
b) Induced Drag , Wing Tip
c) Skin Friction Drag, Trailing Edge of the Wing

31. The steeper the turn, the stalling speed would,

a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain the same

32. The spanwise flow of air on the lower surface of the wing is,
a) Inwards towards the wing root
b) Inwards towards the wing tip
c) Outwards towards the wing tip

33. The most important factor contributing to Longitudinal Stability is,

a) The tail plane
b) The wing
c) The vertical stabilizer

34. The percentage increase in Drag usually exceeds that in Lift when the flaps are extended, therefore the Lift/Drag
ratio is,
a) More
b) Less
c) Stays the same

35. When increasing the surface area of the wing, Drag would,
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Stays constant

36. What components which acts through the Center of Pressure ?

a) Thrust and Drag
b) Lift and Drag
c) Thrust and Lift

37. A mass balance is used to :

a) stop flutter of the control surface when the aeroplane is parked
b) prevent control surface flutter in flight
c) relieve control pressures on the Pilot

38. During a turn which force would act away from a turn ?
a) Centripetal Force
b) Centrifugal Force
c) Drag Force

39. The Drag produced as a by-product in the generation of Lift is called

a) Induced Drag
b) Parasite Drag
c) Skin Friction Drag
 5

40. The Drag produced as a by-product in the generation of Lift is called

a) Lift is equal to Weight, and Thrust is equal to Drag
b) Lift is less than Weight, and Thrust is greater than Drag
c) Lift is less than Weight, and Thrust is less than to Drag

41. The weight of an aeroplane can be considered as a single force acting through,
a) Centre of Pressure
b) Centre of Gravity
c) Centre of Thrust

42. If the airspeed of an aeroplane fitted with a fixed pitch propeller is increased at constant power ( say by a dive ) ,the
rpm will ,
a) Remains constant
b) increase
c) decrease
43. The restoring moment arm of the tailplane is greatest when the Centre of Gravity is
a) aft
b) mid position
c) well forward

44. If flaps increase the lifting ability of a wing, then the required Lift can be generated at,
a) a lower airspeed
b) a higher airspeed
c) a cruising airspeed

45. If you have RoD of 500 fpm, how long will it take you to descend 3,000 ft in a 20 kt headwind?
a) 12 minutes
b) 8.5 minutes
c) 06 minutes

46. When power is applied in an aeroplane fitted with a propeller that turns clockwise when viewed from behind, the
aeroplane will tend to roll to the …………… and yaw to the ……………………
a) Left , left
b) Right , left
c) Left , right

47. To generate the same Lift in straight and level flight at a high altitude fly at the same ,
a) Indicated Air Speed
b) Calibrated Air Speed
c) True Air Speed

48. The Total Drag is at a minimum at ………………….

a) High speed
b) At a speed Parasite Drag and Induced Drag are equal
c) Low Speed

49. The force that causes turning is called,

a) Centripetal Force
b) Centrifugal Force
c) Torque Force
 6

50. Lowering flap in a glide will …………………….. the descent angle through the air
a) Not alter
b) Flatten
c) Steepen

51. The force produced by the wings which supports the aeroplane in flight is called :
a) weight
b) lift , thrust
c) lift

52. The force that resists the motion of the aeroplane through the air is called the :
a) lift
b) drag
c) weight

53. Under International Standard Atmospheric ( ISA) condition prescribed by the ICAO, the temperature and pressure at
Mean Sea Level is,
a) +15º Celsius and 14.7 pounds/ square inch ( lbs/inch2)
b) -15º Celsius and 29.92 inches of mercury
c) +32º Fahrenheit and 14.7 pounds / square inch ( lbs/inch2)

54. What happens to the Density with height?

a) It increases with the increase of height
b) Remain constant at all altitudes
c) Decreases with the increase of height

55. The weight of an aeroplane can be considered as a single force acting through the :
a) Centre of pressure
b) Both centre of pressure and centre of gravity
c) Centre of gravity

56. If velocity increases, static pressure :

a) increases
b) remain constant
c) decreases

57. At constant temperature what is the effect of pressure on Density?

a) It is inversely proportional to the pressure
b) It directly proportional to the pressure
c) Density is always constant to the pressure

58. How would you classify aircrafts?

a) By the weight, fuselage and undercarriages
b) By the wings , number of engines and undercarriages
c) By the struts, thrust configurations and propeller type

59. The lift generated by an aerofoil is :

a) Proportional to the square of the Velocity of the relative airflow
b) Inversely proportional to the air density
c) Inversely proportional to the surface area
 7

60. The fuselage is,

a) The central tailplane which houses the elevators and rudders
b) The central body of the aircraft, which accommodates the crew, payload and parts of the aircraft
c) The central body of the aircraft, which accommodates the crew, payload and not the parts of the
aircraft

B C
A D

F E
61. In the above diagram the chord Line is,
a) Is the Straight line which runs from the Leading edge to the Trailing edge
b) Is the curved line which runs equidistance from the Leading edge to the Trailing edge
c) Is the straight line which runs from the wing root to the wing tip

62. Considering the above diagram opened in to relative airflow what where will be the stagnation point will be?
a) D
b) E
c) A

63. The Camber Line is the line,

a) Which divides the Upper chamber from the Lower chamber
b) Which is straight and runs equidistance from the Leading Edge to Trailing Edge
c) Which is curved and runs parallel from the Leading Edge to Trailing Edge

64. Drag acts …………….. the relative airflow :

a) At 90º to
b) Parallel to
c) In the same direction of

65. As the aeroplane flies faster, parasite drag :

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remain unchanged

66. What would determine the airflow around the wing; stalling angle of attack and cruise performance ?
a) The wing area
b) The aspect ratio
c) The wing plan

67. A wing with a High Aspect Ratio will stall.

a) Faster
b) Slower
c) Would not stall at all
 8

68. The Aspect Ratio is determined by the

a) Wing span to Chord Line
b) Wing span to Chord
c) Wing area to Chord

69. The angle of attack that gives the best L/D ratio is the ………. efficient angle of attack :
a) Least
b) Most
c) None of the above

70. As the forward speed of an aeroplane with a fixed – pitch propeller increases, what happens to the angle of attack of
the propeller blades if the rpm remains constant ;
a) Angle of attack decreases as forward speed increases
b) Angle of attack increases as forward speed increases
c) None of these

71. If the airspeed of an aeroplane with fixed – pitch propeller is increased at a constant power during a dive, the rpm
will
a) Remain constant
b) Increase
c) Decrease

72. For an aeroplane to be in equilibrium in level flight :

a) Lift exceed weight.. and thrust equals drag
b) Lift equals weight.. and thrust equals drag
c) Lift equals drag and thrust exceed weight

73. The most important factor contributing to longitudinal stability is the :

a) Tailplane
b) Horizontal stabilizer
c) None of the above

74. Spoilers are used to…

a) Decrease the speed of the air craft and assist in roll control of the aircraft
b) Increase the speed of the air craft and assist in roll control of the aircraft
c) Decrease the speed of the air craft

75. Air Brakes are used.

a) To spoil the lift and transfer the weight of the aircraft to the wheels for breaking
b) To spoil the drag and transfer the weight of the air craft to the wheels for breaking
c) To increase the lift and transfer the weight of the air craft to the wheels for breaking

76. The Tail Plane is,

a) An airfoil placed at the rear end of the fuselage (Horizontal Stabilizer ) for Longitudinal Stability
b) An airfoil placed at the front of the fuselage (Vertical Stabilizer ) for Directional Stability
c) An airfoil placed at mid fuselage ( Wing) for Lateral Stability
 9

77. To raise the nose, the pilot exerts back-wards pressure on the control column. The elevators move so that the tail of
the aeroplane goes :
a) Up
b) Down
c) No movement

78. A Stabilator is
a) A balancing weight
b) A vertical fin
c) A movable horizontal stabilizer

79. What kind of tab would relieve the pilot of excessive pressure on the controls and would be a control surface?
a) Balance tab
b) Vertical fin
c) Trim tab

80. What force is always perpendicular to the flight path ?

a) Drag
b) Lift
c) Weight

81. What components, which act through the Center of Pressure ?

a) Thrust and Drag
b) Lift and Drag
c) Thrust and Lift

82. Movement of the flight control surface is:

a) Limited by air loads
b) Limited by mechanical stops
c) No limited

83. During a turn which force would act away from a turn ?
a) Centripetal Force
b) Centrifugal Force
c) Drag Force

84. Aerodynamic balance designed to assist a pilot in deflecting a flight control surface may be :
a) A balance tab or some part of the surface placed ahead of the hinge line
b) A trim tab
c) An anti-balance tab

85. The Flight Path is always parallel and opposite to the ,

a) Lift
b) Thrust
c) Relative airflow

86. ………………….. is the angle between the relative wind and ……………….
a) Angle of incidence, chord line
b) Angle of attack, chord line
c) Pitch angle, chord line
 10

87. If the elevator is moved in the pre-flight external inspection, then the balance tab should :
a) Move in the same direction
b) Move in the opposite direction
c) Not move

88. In a steady glide the aeroplane…………… in equilibrium :

a) Is
b) Is not
c) Can be

89. In a descent, a component of the weight acts along the flight path, counteracting the drag and contributing to the
aeroplane‟s forward speed.
a) True
b) False
c) May be

90. When increasing the surface area , Lift would,

a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Stays Constant

91. The Center of Pressure would decrease abruptly when the,

a) Laminar flow becomes turbulent
b) The Angle of Attack meets the critical Angle of Attack and stalls
c) When the pitch angle is less than the Angle of Attack

92. Stalling occurs at high angles of attack when the airflow around the aerofoil is unable to remain streamline,
separates from the aerofoil surface and becomes :
a) Turbulent
b) Laminar
c) First laminar then turbulent

93. Stalling first towards the inner section of the wing is preferable because :
a) It sends turbulent air over the tail-plane causing buffet which acts as a warning to the pilot before the
whole wing stalls
b) The tendency for the aeroplane to roll is less if one wing stalls ahead of the other
c) All of the above

94. Flaps……… the stalling speed

a) Lower
b) Increase
c) First lower than increase

95. Having an aircraft with flushed rivets

a) Will help reduce Induced Drag and increase Form Drag
b) Will help reduce Form Drag
c) Will help reduce skin Friction Drag

96. When you are banking to the right with a 30º bank angle. The axis about which you are turning is,
a) Lateral Axis
b) Longitudinal Axis
c) Normal Axis
 11

97. An aircraft with a horizontal stabilizer is used to compensate for longitudinal stability about the.
a) Normal Axis
b) Lateral Axis
c) Longitudinal Axis

98. When an aircraft exhibits greater directional stability and less lateral stability. What will the pilot experience when
flying the air craft?

a) A side slip
b) A spiral dive
c) A skid

99. The maximum rate of climb speed is achieved when the.

a) Greatest difference is between the Thrust Horse Power and the Break Horse Power Required
b) Greatest difference is between the Thrust Horse Power available and the Thrust Horse Power
Required
c) Greatest difference is between the Thrust Horse Power available and the reduced Thrust Horse Power
Required

100. The maximum distance covered with the available fuel is. When an aircraft is fling for
a) Endurance
b) Range
c) The best angle of climb

101. You have been cleared for takeoff by the Air Traffic Control. You give full power and rolled out from the runway.
What would be the initial behavior of the airplane after takeoff ?
a) A roll to the left and then a yaw
b) A yaw to the left and then a roll
c) A yaw to the right and then a roll

102. If an aircraft with strong lateral stability and weak directional stability suffers a lateral disturbance and enters a
sideslip, the aircraft will:

a) Go into a spiral dive.

b) Develop simultaneous oscillations in roll and yaw, known as Dutch roll.
c) Develop oscillations in pitch.
d) Develop an unchecked roll.

103. If the wing Aerodynamic Center is forward of the C of G:

a) Changes in lift produce a wing pitching moment which acts to reduce the change of lift.
b) Changes in lift produce a wing pitching moment which acts to increase the change of lift.
c) Changes in lift give no change in wing pitching moment.
d) When the aircraft sideslips, the C of G causes the nose to turn into the sideslip thus applying a
restoring moment.

104. When flaps are lowered the stalling angle of attack of the wing:

a) Remains the same, but CL MAX increases.

b) Increases and CL MAX increases.
c) Decreases, but CL MAX increases.
d) Decreases, but CL MAX remains the same.
 12

105. An aircraft has static directional stability. If it sideslips to the right:

a) The aircraft will initially try to roll to the left.

b) The aircraft will initially try to yaw to the left.
c) The aircraft will initially try to yaw to the right.
d) The nose will remain pointing forward.
106. What is the secondary effect of aileron?

a) Yaw in the direction of roll.

b) Pitch following the initial roll.
c) Pitch simultaneously with the roll.
d) Roll in the direction of yaw.

107. An aft center of gravity will give:

a) Increased longitudinal stability.

b) Heavy forces for control movements.
c) Increased elevator effectiveness when flaring.
d) Longer take off distances.

108. When an aircraft is disturbed from its established flight path by, for
Example, turbulence, it is said to have positive stability if it subsequently tends to :

a) Remain on the new flight path.

b) Re-establish its original flight path without any input from the pilot.
c) Become further displaced from its original flight path.
d) Continue to pitch in the disturbed direction until the displacement is resisted by opposing control forces.

109. Complete the following sentence in order to give the most satisfactory definition of stability.An aeroplane which is
inherently stable will:

a) Require less effort to control.

b) Be difficult to stall.
c) Not spin.
d) Have a built in tendency to return to its original state following the removal of any disturbing force.

110. A wing which is angled downwards from root to tip is said to have:

a) Washout.
b) Taper.
c) Sweep.
d) Anhedral.

111. Lowering the flaps during a landing approach:

a) Permits approaches at a higher indicated airspeed.

b) Decreases the angle of descent without increasing power.
c) Eliminates floating.
d) Increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
 13

112. Which of the following four options describes the consequences of taking off with the manufactures recommended
take off flap setting selected?

a) An increase in the length of the take off run compared to a non-flap take off.
b) A decrease in the length of the take off run compared to a non-flap take off.
c) A greater angle of climb.
d) Easier avoidance of obstacles at the end of a runway.

113. With a forward center of gravity, an aircraft will have:

a) Reduced longitudinal stability.

b) Lighter forces for control movements.
c) Decreased elevator effectiveness when flaring.
d) Shorter take off distances.

114. With the flaps lowered, the stalling speed will:

a) Increase.
b) Decrease.
c) Increase, but occur at a higher angle of attack.
d) Remain the same.

115. After a disturbance in pitch, an aircraft oscillates in pitch with increasing amplitude. It is:

a) Statically and dynamically unstable.

b) Statically stable but dynamically unstable.
c) Statically unstable but dynamically stable.
d) Statically and dynamically stable.

116. When an aircraft is disturbed from its trimmed altitude by, for example, turbulence, it is said to have neutral stability
if it subsequently:

a) Oscillates about its original attitude before settling back to that original attitude.
b) Immediately re-establishes its original attitude.
c) Remains in the new attitude.
d) Continues to move in the disturbed direction until the displacement is resisted by opposing control forces.
117. A high wing configuration with no dihedral, compared to a low wing configuration with no dihedral, will provide:

a) Greater longitudinal stability.

b) The same degree of longitudinal stability as any other configuration because dihedral gives longitudinal
stability.
c) Less lateral stability.
d) Greater lateral stability.

118. The tendency of an aircraft to develop forces which restore it to its original flight situation, when disturbed from a
condition of steady flight, is known as:

a) Maneuverability.
b) Controllability.
c) Stability.
d) Instability.
 14

119. If the center of gravity (C of G) of an aircraft is found to be within limits for take off:

a) The C of G will always be within limits for landing.

b) The C of G limits for landing must be checked, allowing for planned fuel consumption.
c) The C of G will not change during the flight.
d) The flight crew will always be certain of being able to adjust the C of G during flight in order to keep it
within acceptable limits for landing.

120. An aircraft is disturbed from its flight path by a gust of wind. If, over a short period of time, it tends to return to its
original flight path without pilot intervention, the aircraft is said to possess:

a) Instability.
b) Negative stability.
c) Neutral stability.
d) Positive stability.

121. The surface that gives an aircraft directional stability is:

a) The rudder.
b) The horizontal tailplane.
c) The rudder trim tab.
d) The fin.

122. The lateral axis of an aircraft is a line which:

a) Passes through the wing tips.

b) Passes through the center of pressure, at right angles to the direction of the airflow.
c) Passes through the quarter-chord point of the wing root, at right angles to the longitudinal axis.
d) Passes through the center of gravity, parallel to a line through the wing tips.

123. Yawing is a movement around the ________ axis.

a) Longitudinal.
b) Lateral.
c) Normal.
d) Horizontal.

124. In which of the following approach scenarios would you normally select full flap?

a) When commencing the final approach.

b) On going around.
c) When landing into a strong headwind.
d) In the later stages of the approach, when satisfied that you can safely touch down in the designated landing
area.

125. To improve lateral stability certain features may be built into an aircraft. Which of the following lists of features
would best contribute to an aircrafts overall lateral stability?

a) High wing, dihedral, high keel surface, sweep back.

b) Dihedral, high keel surface, frise ailerons.
c) Wash-out, dihedral, frise ailerons.
d) Slats, dihedral, fowler flaps.
 15

126. By design, the center of pressure on a particular aircraft remains behind the aircrafts C of G. if the aircraft is
longitudinally stable and is displaced in pitch, nose down, by turbulence:

a) The tailplane will generate an increased upward force.

b) Neither an upward nor a downward force will be generated by the tailplane, as the aircraft will already be
in equilibrium.
c) The aircraft will maintain its nose-down attitude.
d) The tailplane will generate an increased downward force.

127. Which of the following components provides longitudinal stability?

a) Engines.
b) Wing.
c) Fuselage.
d) Horizontal stabilizer (tailplane).
128. A pilot lowers the flaps while keeping the airspeed constant. In order to maintain level flight, the angle of attack:

a) Must be reduced.
b) Must be increased.
c) Must be kept constant but power must be increased.
d) Must be kept constant and power required will be constant.

129. Stability about the normal axis:

a) Is increased if the keel surface behind the C of G is increased.

b) Is given by the lateral dihedral.
c) Depends on the longitudinal dihedral.
d) Is greater if the wing has no sweepback.

130. An aircraft is disturbed from its path by a gust of wind. The aircraft is neutrally stable if, with no intervention from
the pilot, it tends to:

a) Return to its original path without further deviation from its original path.
b) Return to its original path following further deviation from its original path.
c) Maintain the new path.
d) Continue to deviate from its original path.

131. Wing dihedral produces a stabilizing rolling moment by causing an increase in lift:

a) On the up-going wing when the aircraft rolls.

b) On the up-going wing when the aircraft is side slipping.
c) On the lower wing when the aircraft is side slipping.
d) On the lower wing whenever the aircraft is in a banked attitude.

132. The maximum speed at which the aircraft can be flown with flaps extended is called:

a) VYSE
b) VFE
c) VNE
d) VNO
 16

133. If a landing is to be made without flaps the landing speed must be:

a) Reduced.
b) Increased.
c) The same as for a landing with flaps.
d) The same as for a landing with flaps but with a steeper approach.

134. What is the secondary effect of rudder?

a) Yaw in the direction of roll.

b) Pitch following the initial taw.
c) Pitch simultaneously with the yaw.
d) Roll in the direction of yaw.

135. An aircraft wing is constructed with dihedral in order to give:

a) Lateral stability about the longitudinal axis.

b) Longitudinal stability about the lateral axis.
c) Lateral stability about the normal axis.
d) Directional stability about the normal axis.

136. An aeroplane is in straight and level flight and a gust causes one wing t drop. If the aeroplane tends to return towards
wings level without any intervention from the pilot:

a) The aircraft has neutral stability.

b) The aircraft is stable.
c) The aircraft is unstable.
d) The aircraft cannot return to wings level unless the pilot intervenes.

137. When the C of G is close to the forward limit:

a) Small forces are required on the control column to manoeuvre the aircraft in pitch.
b) Longitudinal stability is reduced.
c) High stick forces are required to manoeuvre the aircraft in pitch because the aircraft is very stable.
d) Stick forces are the same as for an aft C of G.

138. If a disturbing force causes an aircraft to roll:

a) Wing dihedral will cause a rolling moment which tends to correct the sideslip.
b) The fin will cause a yawing moment which reduces the sideslip.
c) Wing dihedral will cause a yawing moment which tends to correct the sideslip.
d) Wing dihedral will cause a nose up pitching moment.

139. Loading an aircraft so that the C of G exceeds the aft limits cloud result in:

a) Loss of longitudinal stability, and the nose tending to pitch up at slow speeds.
b) Excessive upward force on the tail, and the nose pitching down.
c) Excessive load factor in turns.
d) High stick forces.
 17

140. Movement of the aircraft about its normal (vertical) axis known as:

a) Yawing.
b) Rolling.
c) Pitching.
d) Side slipping.

141. The maximum gliding distance from 6000 feet, for an aircraft in clean configuration, with a lift/drag ratio of 8:1, is
approximately 8 nautical miles. If flaps are deployed:

a) The maximum gliding distance will increase.

b) The maximum gliding distance will be less.
c) Lift/drag ratio will be unaffected but will be achieved at a lower airspeed.
d) The maximum gliding distance will be unaffected.

142. Longitudinal stability is given by:

a) The fin.
b) The wing dihedral.
c) The tailplane.
d) The ailerons.

143. Wing leading-edge devices such as slots, designed to allow flight at higher angles of attack, do so by:

a) Providing an extra lifting surface and hence increase the lift available.
b) Changing the shape and hence the lift characteristics of the wing.
c) Re-energising the airflow over the top of the wing, delaying separation.
d) Decreasing lift and hence induced drag.
144. The purpose of aerodynamic balance on a flying control surface is:

a) To bring the aircraft into balance.

b) To prevent flutter of the flying control surface.
c) To reduce the control load to zero.
d) To make it easier for the pilot to move the control surface in flight.

145. Roll is:

a) Due to aileron deflection and is motion about the lateral axis.

b) Rotation about the normal axis.
c) Rotation about the longitudinal axis due to speed brake selection.
d) Rotation about the longitudinal axis.

146. Controls are mass balance in order to:

a) Eliminate control flutter.

b) Aerodynamically assist the pilot in moving the controls.
c) Provide equal control forces on all three controls.
d) Return the control surface to neutral when the controls are released.
 18

147. What is the location of mass balance weights?

a) Always on the hinge line, irrespective of the type of aerodynamic balance.

b) On the hinge line if the control surface does not have an inset hinge.
c) On the hinge line if the control surface has an inset hinge.
d) In front of the hinge line.

148. The primary and secondary effects of the aileron control are:

a) Roll and pitch.

b) Pitch and yaw.
c) Roll and yaw.
d) Yaw and roll.

149. The primary and secondary effects of applying the left rudder alone are:

a) Left yaw and left roll.

b) Left yaw and right roll.
c) Right yaw and left roll.
d) Right yaw and right roll.

150. An aileron could be balanced aerodynamically by:

a) Making the up aileron move through a larger angle than the down aileron.
b) Attaching a weight to the control surface forward of the hinge.
c) Having the hinge set back behind the leading edge of the aileron.
d) Having springs in the control circuit to assist movement.

151. On an aircraft with a simple trim tab incorporated into a control surface, when the control surface is moved, the tab
remains in the same position relative to the:

a) Relative airflow.
b) Control surface.
c) Boundary layer airflow.
d) Aircraft horizontal plane.

152. The respective primary and secondary effects of the rudder control are:

a) Yaw and pitch.

b) Pitch and yaw.
c) Roll and yaw.
d) Yaw and roll.

153. The purpose of a trim tab is:

a) To assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls.

b) To zero the load on the pilots controls in the flight attitude required.
c) To provide feel to the controls at high speed.
d) To increase the effectiveness of the controls.
 19

154. If a flying control surface is aerodynamically balanced it has:

a) A weight on an arm which protrudes forward of it.

b) An area of its surface forward of the hinge line.
c) A fixed trim tab.
d) A moveable trim tab.

155. If the pilot moves the cockpit trim lever or wheel such that the trim tab on the elevator moves up relative to the
control surface, how has the aircrafts trim been altered?

a) It has not been altered.

b) More nose up.
c) More nose down.
d) More nose left.
156. To trim an aircraft which tends to fly nose heavy with hands off, the top of the elevator trim wheel should be:

a) Move forward to raise the nose and this would cause the elevator trim tab to move down, and the elevator
to move up.
b) Move backwards to raise the nose and this would cause the elevator trim tab to move down, and the
elevator to move up.
c) Move backwards to raise the nose and this would cause the elevator trim tab to move up, and the elevator to
move up.
d) Move backwards to raise the nose and this would cause the elevator trim tab to move up and cause the nose
to rise.

157. On an aircraft fitted with an elevator incorporating an anti-balance tab, pulling back on the control column will
cause the:

a) Elevator to move up and the tab to move up.

b) Elevator to move down and the tab to move down.
c) Elevator to move down and the tab to move up.
d) Elevator to move up and the tab to move down.

158. Which flying control surface(s) give(s) control about the aircrafts normal axis?

a) The rudder.
b) The ailerons.
c) The elevator.
d) The flaps.

159. The purpose of a differential ailerons is to:

a) Increase the yawing moment which opposes a turn.

b) Reduce the opposite yawing moment when making a turn.
c) Induce a pitching moment to prevent the nose from dropping in the turn.
d) Improve the rate of roll.
 20

160. Following re-trimmed for straight and level flight, in an aircraft with a C of G near its forward limit, and an elevator
fitted with a conventional trim-tab:

a) Nose-up pitch authority will be reduced.

b) Nose-down pitch authority will be reduced.
c) Longitudinal stability will be reduced.
d) Tailplane down-load will be reduced.

161. Yawing is a rotation about:

a) The normal axis controlled by the rudder.

b) The lateral axis controlled by the rudder.
c) The longitudinal axis controlled by the ailerons.
d) The normal axis controlled by the elevator.

162. If the control column is moved to the right, a balance tab on the left aileron should:

a) Move up relative to the aileron.

b) Move down relative to the aileron.
c) Not move unless the aileron trim wheel is turned.
d) Move to the neutral position.

163. When the control column is pushed forward, a balance tab on the elevator:

a) Will move up relative to the control surface.

b) Will move down relative to the control surface.
c) Will only move if the trim wheel is operated.
d) Moves to the neutral position.

164. The purpose of a spring-bias trim system is:

a) To maintain a constant tension in the trim tab system.

b) To increase the feel in the control system.
c) To reduce to zero the effort required by the pilot to counter stick force, after making a control movement.
d) To compensate for temperature changes in cable tension.

165. Which flying control surface(s) give(s) longitudinal control?

a) The rudder.
b) The ailerons.
c) The elevator.
d) The flaps.

166. If mass balance is used to eliminate flutter, it should be attached to a control surface:

a) On the hinge.
b) Behind the hinge.
c) Above the hinge.
d) In front of the hinge.
 21

167. Ailerons give:

a) Lateral control about the lateral axis.

b) Longitudinal control about the lateral axis.
c) Directional control about the normal axis.
d) Lateral control about the longitudinal axis.

168. An aircrafts rudder is fitted with a balance tab. Movement of the rudder bar to the right, to yaw the aircraft to the
right, will:

a) Move the rudder to the left; the balance tab will move to the left.
b) Move the rudder to the right; the balance tab will move to the right.
c) Move the rudder to the left; the balance tab will move to the right.
d) Move the rudder to the right; the balance tab will move to the left.

169. The purpose of an anti-balance tab is to:

a) Trim the aircraft.

b) Reduce the load required to move the controls at all speeds.
c) Reduce the load required to move the controls at high speeds only.
d) Ensure that the pilot‟s physical control load increases with increase of control surface deflection.

170. A control surface may be mass balanced by:

a) Fitting a balance tab.

b) Attaching a weight acting forward of the hinge line.
c) Fitting an anti-balance tab.
d) Attaching a weight acting aft of the hinge line.

171. A fixed trim tab in an aileron should:

a) Be adjusted on the ground after a test flight to achieve laterally level flight.
b) Not be adjusted once it has been set by the manufacturer.
c) Be adjusted on the ground after a test flight to achieve longitudinally level flight.
d) Be adjusted from the cockpit to achieve laterally level flight.

172. Fixed trim tabs on ailerons:

a) Can be adjusted during flight.

b) Should never be adjusted.
c) Can be adjusted on the ground after a test flight to make wings-level flight easier.
d) Can be adjusted on the ground after a test flight to make turning easier.

173. The phenomenon of flutter is described as:

a) Rapid oscillatory motion involving only rotation of the control surfaces, associated with the shock waves
produced around the control surfaces.
b) Oscillatory motion of part or parts of the aircraft relative to the remainder of the structure.
c) Rapid movement of the airframe caused by vibration from the engines.
d) Reversal of the ailerons caused by wing torsional flexibility.
 22

174. A control surface may have a mass balance fitted to it, in order to:

a) Help prevent a rapid and uncontrolled oscillation which is called “flutter”.

b) Keep the control surface level.
c) Lighten the forces needed to control the surface.
d) Provide the pilot with “feel”.

175. Adverse yaw is partially counteracted by:

a) Fowler flaps.
b) A fixed aileron trim tab.
c) Aileron anti-balance tabs.
d) Differential ailerons.

176. If the control column is moved forward and to the left:

a) The left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator moves up.
b) The left aileron moves down, right aileron moves up, elevator moves down.
c) The left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator moves down.
d) The left aileron moves down, right aileron moves up, elevator moves up.

177. When displacing the ailerons from the neutral position:

a) The up-going aileron causes an increase in induced drag.

b) Induced drag remains the same, the up-going aileron causes a smaller increase in profile drag than the
down-going aileron.
c) Both cause an increase in induced drag.
d) The down-going aileron causes an increase in induced drag.

178. „Differential ailerons‟ are a design feature that helps to counteract:

a) Stability about the longitudinal axis.

b) Adverse yaw.
c) Positive aircraft stability.
d) Adverse roll.

179. The reason for washout being designed into an aircraft wing is to:

a) Increases the effectiveness of the flaps.

b) Cause the outboard section of the wing to stall first.
c) Decrease the effectiveness of the ailerons.
d) Cause the inboard section of the wing to stall first.

180. If the straight and level (S&L) stall speed of an aircraft is 54 knots, what will be its stall speed in a 1.5g turn?

a) 81 knots; in a 1.5g turn the stall speed is 1.5 times as high as the S&L stall speed.
b) 66 knots; in a turn, the stall speed is the S&L stall speed multiplied by the square root of the load factor.
c) 162 knots; in a 1.5g turn the stall speed is 3 times as high as the S&L stall speed.
d) 36 knots; in a 1.5g turn the stall speed is the S&L stall speed divided by 1.5.
 23

181. An aeroplane wing stalls when:

a) The indicated airspeed is too low.

b) The critical angle of attack is exceeded.
c) The laminar airflow becomes turbulent.
d) It is subjected to unusually high „G‟ forces.

182. What is the approximate stall speed of an aircraft in a 60 0 banked turn, whose straight and level (S&L) stall speed is
54 knots?

a) 108 knots. (at 600 angle of bank the stall speed is twice as high as the S&L stall speed.)
b) 81 knots. (at 600 angle of bank the stall speed is half as much again as the S&L stall speed.)
c) 28 knots. (at 600 angle of bank the stall speed is half the S&L stall speed.)
d) 76 knots. (at 600 angle of bank the stall speed is the S&L stall speed multiplied by the square root of 2; that
is, the square root of [1 / Cos 600].)

183. What is the percentage increase in stall speed in a 45 bank turn?

a) 45%
b) 41%
c) 19%
d) 10%

184. A typical stalling angle of attack for an aircraft wing is:

a) 40
b) 160
c) 300
d) 450

185. The stalling speed of an aircraft in straight and level flight is 60 kt, IAS. What is its stalling speed in a level 60 0
banked turn?

a) 85 kt
b) 60 kt
c) 43 kt
d) 120 kt

186. At the stall, the center of pressure moving backwards will cause the nose to ______ , and the decreased lift will
cause the aircraft to _______ .

a) Yaw, reduce speed.

b) Drop, lose height.
c) Rise, sink.
d) Drop, reduce speed.
187. An aeroplane will always stall at the same:

a) Angle of attack and altitude with relation to the horizon.

b) Airspeed, regardless of the altitude with relation to the horizon.
c) Angle of attack, regardless of the altitude with relation to the horizon.
d) Indicated airspeed, regardless of altitude, bank angle and load factor.
 24

188. If the angle of attack is increased above the stalling angle:

a) Lift and drag will both decrease.

b) Lift will decrease and drag will increase.
c) Lift will increase and drag will decrease.
d) Lift and drag will both increase.

189. When the aircraft is in a spin, the direction of spin is most reliably found by reference to which of the following
indications?

a) Artificial horizon.
b) Slip indicator.
c) Direction indicator.
d) Turn needle.

190. The stalling speed of an aircraft, assuming weight to be constant, is a function of the:

a) Inverse of the load factor.

b) Indicated airspeed.
c) Square of the weight.
d) Square root of the load factor.

191. Washout is incorporated into wing design so that the:

a) Wing tip has a greater angle of attack than the wing root.
b) Wing tip has a greater angle of incidence than the wing root.
c) Wing tip will stall before the wing root.
d) Wing root will stall before the wing tip.

192. The basic stalling speed of an aircraft is 60 knots. In a level turn with 45 0 angle of bank its stalling speed is:

a) 71 knots.
b) 85 knots.
c) 50 knots.
d) 105 knots.

193. If the angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the wing will no longer produce sufficient lift
to support the weight of the aircraft:

a) Unless the airspeed is greater than the normal stall speed.

b) Regardless of airspeed or pitch altitude.
c) Unless the pitch altitude is on or below the natural horizon.
d) In which case, the control column should be pulled back immediately.

194. Complete the following sentence using one of the four options below to make an accurate statement concerning the
stall.

An increase in aircraft weight will:

a) Increase the angle of attack at which the aircraft stalls.
b) Decrease the angle of attack at which the aircraft stalls.
c) Increase the speed at which the aircraft stalls, though the stalling of angle of attack remains the same.
d) Increase the speed at which the aircraft stalls, and decreases the stalling angle of attack.
 25

195. Which of the following could activate a stall warning device?

a) Movement of the CP.

b) Movement of the CG.
c) Movement of the stagnation point.
d) A reduction in dynamic pressure.

196. The angle of attack at which an aeroplane stalls:

a) Will be smaller flying downwind than when flying upwind.

b) Is dependent upon the speed of the airflow over the wing.
c) Is a function of speed and density altitude.
d) Will remain constant, regardless of gross weight.

197. The angle of climb is proportional to:

a) The amount by which the lift exceeds the weight.

b) The amount by which the thrust exceeds the drag.
c) The amount by which the thrust exceeds the weight.
d) The angle of attack of the wing.

198. VNE is:

a) The airspeed which must not be exceeded except in a dive.

b) The maximum airspeed at which manoeuvres approaching the stall may be carried out.
c) The maximum airspeed at which the aircraft may be flown.
d) The maximum speed, above which flaps should not be extended.

199. In a climb at a steady speed, the thrust is:

a) Equal to the aerodynamic drag.

b) Less than the aerodynamic drag.
c) Greater than the weight.
d) Equal to the aerodynamic drag plus the weight component acting along the flight path.

200. The maximum allowable airspeed with flaps extended (VFE) is lower than cruising speed because:

a) Flaps are used only when preparing to land.

b) Too much drag is induced.
c) Flaps will stall if they are deployed at too high an airspeed.
d) At speeds higher than VFE, the aerodynamic forces would overload the flap and wing structures.

201. The maximum angle of climb of an aeroplane is determined by:

a) Excess engine thrust.

b) The aircraft weight.
c) Wind speed.
d) Excess airspeed.
 26

202. When an aircraft is in a steady climb, the aerodynamic lift is ______ the weight.

a) Balanced by.
b) Equal to.
c) Less than.
d) Greater than.

203. If an aircraft is flown at its design manoeuvring speed VA:

a) It is possible to subject the aircraft to a load greater than its limit load during high „g‟ manoeuvres.
b) It is not possible to exceed the limit load.
c) It is possible to subject the aircraft to a load greater than its limit load during violent increases in incidence,
i.e. when using excessive stick force to pull out of a dive.
d) It must be immediately slowed down if turbulence is encountered.

204. What is the significance of the speed known as VNO?

a) It is the maximum speed at which abrupt movements of the controls will result in a stall, before the aircrafts
positive load limit is exceeded.
b) It is the speed beyond which structural failure of the airframe will occur.
c) It signifies the upper limit of the normal operating speed range.
d) It signifies the airspeed which must never be exceeded.

205. Which of the following provides aerodynamics balance?

a) A weight on an arm which protrudes forward of it

b) An area of control surface forward of its hinge line
c) A fixed trim tab
d) A simple adjustable trim tab

206. Which flying control surface(s) give(s) control about the aircraft‟s normal axis?

a) The rudder
b) The ailerons
c) The elevator
d) The flaps

207. On an aircraft fitted with an elevator incorporating an anti-balance tab, pulling back on the control column will be
caused the:

a) elevator to move up and the tab to move up

b) elevator to move down and tab to move down
c) elevator to move down and the tab to move up
d) elevator to move up and the tab to move down

208. The respective primary and secondary effects of the aileron control are:

a) roll and pitch

b) pitch and yaw
c) roll and yaw
d) yaw and roll
 27

209. Yawing is rotation about:

a) the normal axis controlled by the rudder

b) the lateral axis controlled by the rudder
c) the longitudinal axis controlled by the ailerons
d) the normal axis controlled by the elevator

210. The purpose of differential ailerons is to:

a) increase the yawing movement which opposes a turn

b) reduce the adverse yawing moment when making a turn
c) induce pitching moment to prevent the nose from dropping in the turn
d) improve the rate of role

211. An aeroplane will stall at the same:

a) angle of attack and attitude with relation to the horizon

b) airspeed regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon
c) angle of attack regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon
d) indicated airspeed regardless of attitude, bank angle and load factor

212. A typical stalling angle of attack for a wing without sweepback is:

a) 4 degrees
b) 16 degrees
c) 30 degrees
d) 45 degrees

213. If the aircraft weight is increased, the stalling angle of attack will:

a) remain the same

b) decrease
c) increase
d) the position of the C of G does not affect the stall speed

214. In a steady, level turn, at 60 degree angle of bank, the stalling speed of an aircraft which has a straight flight stalling
speed of 60 knots IAS, would be:

a) 43 kt
b) 60 kt
c) 84 kt
d) 120 kt

215. The stalling speed of an aircraft in a steady turn would be:

a) the same as in level flight

b) lower than in level flight
c) higher than in level flight, and a lower angle of attack
d) higher than in level flight, and at the same angle of attack

216. A wing with washout would have:

a) the tip chord less than the root chord

b) the tip angle of incidence less than the root angle of incidence
c) the tip angle of incidence greater than the root angle of incidence
d) the tip camber less than the root camber
 28

217. If aircraft weight is increased, stalling speed will:

a) remain the same

b) decrease
c) increase
d) weight does not affect the stalling speed

218. Stalling may be delayed until a higher angle of attack is reached by:

a) increasing the adverse pressure gradient

b) increasing the surface roughness of the wing top surface
c) distortion of the leading edge by ice build-up
d) increasing the kinetic energy of the boundary layer

219. The atmosphere is retained by the earth due to

a) the effect of Tropopause

b) the earth‟s gravitational force
c) the rotation of the earth
d) temperature lapse rate

220. The relative amount of gases in the atmosphere

a) remain constant in the Troposphere

b) change with height
c) remain constant up to the altitude of 60 km
d) it remain constant in the Stratosphere

221. Dry air is

a) less dense than moist air

b) dense as same as the moist air
c) more dense than moist air
d) less or more dense than moist air

222. The Pressure acts

a) vertically on an object
b) horizontally on an object
c) in all directions on an object
d) only on the earth surface

223. Thin laminar boundary layer becomes thick turbulent boundary layer

a) at the leading edge of the aerofoil

b) at the trailing edge of the aerofoil
c) at the transition point
d) at the lower surface of the aerofoil

224. In a subsonic airflow, the mass flow of air

a) is constant
b) is changed with the velocity
c) is changed with the pressure
d) is varied
 29

225. What is true of the following ?

a) When the Static Pressure increases, the Dynamic Pressure also increases
b) The sum of the Static Pressure and the Dynamic Pressure of air is a constant
c) The Static Pressure can not be measured
d) The Dynamic Pressure can not be measured

226. The resistance to flow of a fluid is called

a) density
b) humidity
c) rigidity
d) viscosity

227. The Angle of Incidence is the

a) angle between the chord line and the longitudinal axis of the aero plane
b) angle between chord line and relative air flow
c) angle between the chord line and the vertical axis of the aero plane
d) angle between the chord line and the lateral axis of the aero plane

228. The Lift always acts

a) parallel to the Relative Airflow

b) at 90 degrees to the Relative Airflow
c) opposite to the Relative Airflow
d) at any angle to the Relative Airflow

229. The Drag is

a) opposite of Lift
b) opposite of Weight
c) opposite of Thrust
d) equal to lift

230. The Drag inherent for a wing, when producing the lift is

a) Parasite Drag
b) Form Drag
c) Skin Friction Drag
d) Induced drag

231. Parasite Drag consists of

a) Form Drag and Skin Friction Drag

b) Induced Drag and Form Drag
c) Interference Drag and Form Drag
d) Skin Friction and Interference Drag

232. When the Air Speed is increasing, the Parasite Drag will

a) decrease
b) increase
c) remain constant
d) increase only the lift is produced
 30

233. Aspect Ratio is the ratio

a) of the Wing Span to the average Chord of the wing

b) of the Wing Area to the Chord of the wing
c) of the aircraft weight to the Wing Area
d) of the Wing Area to the average Chord of the wing

234. The coefficient of lift can be increased by the use of flaps. What percentage increase can be achieved in typical light
aircraft?
a) Up to 10-20%
b) Up to 100%
c) Up to 250%
d) Up to 400%

235. For a balance flight

a) Lift must be equal to Thrust

b) Drag must be equal to Weight
c) Thrust must equal to Lift and Weight
d) Lift must be equal to Weight

236. The movement of an aircraft around the longitudinal axis is

a) Pitching
b) Yawing
c) Rolling
d) Spinning

237. Rolling movement of an aircraft is controlled by

a) Ailerons
b) Rudder
c) Flaps
d) Elevator

238. The secondary effect of pitching is

a) Rolling
b) Yawing
c) Stalling
d) Change in airspeed

239. The secondary effect of rolling is

a) Pitching
b) Yawing
c) Change in airspeed
d) Stalling

240. The magnetic compass indicates horizontal direction most accurately at or near to the:
a) north pole
b) north or south pole
c) equator
d) 45 degree latitude line (north or south)
 31

241. The primary effect of aileron input is roll. What is the secondary effect?

a) An increase in airspeed
b) Pitch
c) Yaw
d) More roll

242. Which of the following lists contains items that are associated with parasitic drag?

a) skin friction, form drag, interference drag, wingtip vortices

b) skin friction, form drag, wingtip vortices
c) skin friction, form drag, interference drag
d) skin friction, interference drag, wingtip vortices

243. Up to the stalling angle the:

a) C.P moves backward, and then moves forward.
b) C.P. moves forward, and then moves backward.
c) C.P. continues to moves forward,
d) C.P.G. moves backward, then moves forward.

244. Laminar flow is:

a) The term given to the upward flow of air ahead of an aerofoil.
b) The term given to the downward flow air behind the aerofoil.
c) The flow of air ahead of the wing.
d) Non – turbulent airflow over an aerofoil.

245. That part of the force produced by the wings, which acts at right angles to the relative airflow, is called the:
a) Weight.
b) Thrust.
c) Lift.
d) Drag.

246. The centre of pressure reaches the maximum forward travel along the clean wing, at an angle of attack of:
a) 40
b) 100
c) 150
d) 200

247. An aeroplane in flight is being acted upon by a force which apposes its forward movement. This force is known as:
a) Thrust.
b) Weight.
c) Lift.
d) Drag.
248. Drag is the force which
a) Acts through the centre of gravity,
b) Opposes the forward movement of the aircraft.
c) Acts parallel to the relative airflow, in the same direction as the aircraft is moving.
d) Acts horizontally.
 32

249. Weight may be represented by:

a) A vector originating from the centre of pressure.
b) A vector originating from the centre of gravity.
c) A force acting vertically downward.

250. The pressure difference between the upper and lower surfaces causes:
a) Interference drag.
b) Skin friction.
c) Induced drag.
d) From drag.

251. Which of the following answers contain only items that directly affect drag?
a) Density, speed, thrust, area.
b) Surface area, angle of attack, speed, density.
c) Angle of attack , torque ,speed, aspect ratio.
d) Speed, rigging angle , surface area, density.

252. Parasite drag is made up of:

a) Induced drag, cooling drag, profile drag.
b) Wing drag, profile drag, cooling drag.
c) Induced drag, interference drag, cooling drag.
d) Profile drag, interference drag, cooling drag.
253. The lift on an aircraft acts through:
a) The point of highest amber on the wing.
b) The C.G
c) The centre of the chord line.
d) The C .P

254. The total weight of an aircraft acts through the:

a) C.P
b) C.G
c) Propeller shaft.
d) Centre of the chord line.

255. Induced drag is increased by:

a) Taper
b) High aspect.
c) Low fitness ratio.
d) Reduced speed.

256. Skin friction may be reduced by:

a) Decreasing the frontal area.
b) Polishing the aerofoil.
c) Increasing the fineness ratio.
d) Washout.
257. Induced drag is reduced by:
a) Taper , washout, high aspect ratio.
b) Taper, washout, high fineness ratio.
c) Taper, washout, low aspect ratio.
d) Taper, washout , low fineness ratio.
 33

258. From drag is increased by:

a) Low fineness ratio, small frontal area, good streamlining.
b) Large frontal area, high fineness ratio, good streamlining.
c) Small frontal area, high fineness ratio , bad streamlining.
d) Low fineness ratio, large frontal area, bad streamlining.

259. Aspect ratio of a rectangular wing is the ratio of:

a) SPAN
CHORD

b) THICKNESS
CHORD.

c) CHORD
SPAN

d) CHORD
THICKNESS

260. Total drag is a force which acts:

a) Parallel to the longitudinal axis , in a direction opposite to the aircraft‟s movement.
b) Parallel to the relative airflow, in a direction opposite to the aircraft‟ moverments.
c) Parallel to the chord line, in the same direction as the aircraft‟s movement.
d) Parallel to the relative airflow, in the same direction as the aircraft‟ s movment.
261. The boundary layer is:
a) The turbulent layer of air adjacent to the aerofoil.
b) The stationary layer at the surface.
c) The layer of air between the surface and the free airstream.
d) The layer of slow-moving air on the upper surface of the aerofoil.

262. Select the answer which contains only items which increase the efficiency of a wing:
a) Increased Lift ratio, streamlining, increased skin friction
Drag.
b) Increased lift ratio, high aspect ratio, streamlining
Drag
c) Decreased lift ratio, high aspect ratio, reduced skin friction
Drag
d) Decreased lift ratio, streamlining , low aspect ratio
Drag

263. Profile drag is the sum of:

a) Skin friction and induced drag.
b) Skin friction and interference drag.
c) From drag and skin friction.
d) From drag and interference drag.

264. The layer of air between the surface of an aircraft and the free airstream is:
a) Stationary.
b) Turbulent.
c) Moving at the same speed as the free airstream,
d) Moving at a slower speed than the free airstream.
 34

265. The best measure of the efficiency of a wing is the:

a) Lift ratio.
Drag
b) Coefficient of drag (CD)
c) Aspect ratio.
d) Fineness ratio.

266. Which of the following types of drag comprise wing drag?

a) From drag, interference drag, skin friction
b) From drag, skin friction, parasite drag.
c) Induced drag, profile drag , cooling drag.
d) Induced drag, skin friction, from drag.

267. Increased speed.

a) Increases the skin friction drag.
b) Increase4s the induced drag.
c) Decreases form drag.
d) Decreases profile drag.

268. High fineness ratio.

a) Increases form drag, increases the Chord ratio, decreases the streamlining
Thickness
b) Reduces form drag, increases the chord ratio , increases the streamlining
Thickness
c) Increases the streamlining , reduces from drag, decreases the chord ratio
Thickness
d) Decreases streamlining, increases the chord ratio decreases the form drag
Thickness

269. Flaps and slats:

a) Increases the camber and lift of wing.
b) Decrease the stalling speed.
c) Increase the stalling angle.
d) Increase the lift/ drag ratio.

270. Movement is the attempt by a force to rotate a body about a point, and its effect will depend upon.
a) The size of the body and the amount of force applied.
b) The amount of force applied and the length of the arm.
c) The length of the arm and the size of the body.
d) The size of the body, and amount of force applied and the length of the arm.

271. Control in the yawing plane is achieved by:

a) Ailerons.
b) Elevators.
c) Rudder.
d) Throttle.

272. From drag decreases with:

a) Speed increase.
b) Increases fineness ratio.
c) Increases cross – sectional area
d) Decreased streamlining.
 35

273. Movement in the pitching plane is controlled by:

a) The rudder.
b) The fin
c) The elevators.
d) The ailerons.

274. In a glide, the :

a) Offset fin will cause the nose to yaw left.
b) Slipstream will cause the nose to yaw right.
c) The offset fin will cause the nose to yaw fight.
d) Slipstream will cause the nose to yaw left.

275. When the left rudder pedal is pushed forward, the aircraft:
a) Turns right
b) Climbs.
c) Turns left.
d) Dives.

276. Which of the following terms only contains the name of primary control surfaces?
a) Trim tab, rudder, aileron.
b) Elevators, aileron, fin.
c) Aileron, fin, rudder.
d) Elevators, ailerons, rudder.

277. The fowler and zap flaps:

a) Increase lift, drag, wing area and camber.
b) Increase the lift, the camber , and the L/D ratio.
c) Increase the lift, wing area and staling angle.
d) Increase the chord line, camber, wing area and L/D ratio.

278. A force must take into account:

a) Amount of force, the point it is applied and the length of the arm.
b) Amount of force, direction it is applied and the length of the arm.
c) The point and direction it is applied and the length of the arm.
d) The amount of force, and the point and direction it is applied.

279. In normal cruise configuration of the:

a) Offset fin will cause the nose to yaw left.
b) Offset fin will compensate for the slipstream effect.
c) Slipstream effect will cause the nose to yaw right.
d) Slipstream effect will cause the nose to yaw left.

280. Which of the following groups do no high lift flaps?

a) Simple – slotted ZAP-flower.
b) Slotted ZAP – FLOWER SPLIT
c) Simple slotted SPLIT
d) Slotted SPLIT ZAP – FOWLER
 36

281. On take –off the

a) Slipstream effect will cause the nose to yaw left.
b) Slipstream effect will cause the nose to yaw right.
c) Offset fin will cause the nose to yaw left.
d) Offset fin will cause the nose to yaw right.

282. When the control column is moved bace the pilot, and to the left, the aircraft will.
a) Turn left and bank left.
b) Turn left and climb.
c) Turn left and dive.
d) Turn left and bank right.
283. A variable – pitch propeller is more efficient than a fixed – pitch propeller because:
a) On take – off , the pitch is course.
b) A pitch can be selected that gives an efficient angle of attack over the normal speed range of the aircraft.
c) The pilot can select the R.P>M. that he wants.
d) During cruise, the pitch is decreased to maintain an efficient angle of attack.

284. Which of the following statements most correctly describes the effect of the simple flap and the split flap?
a) Increase the lift and increase the drag.
b) Increase the L/D ratio.
c) Increase the camber and the wing area.
d) Increase the camber and the stalling angle.

285. Frise ailerons are used to counteract aileron drag, which occurs because:
a) The outer wing travels faster than the inner wing in a turn.
b) The aileron on the outer wing increases the camber, lift and drag.
c) The inner wing aileron increases the camber, and thus , lift and drag.
d) The inner wing travels slower and genrerates more drag than lift.

286. Which one of the following statements is correct?

a) The aircraft rotates around the longitudinal axis is the pitching plane.
b) The aircraft rotates around the lateral axis in the pitching plane.
c) The aircraft rotates around the vertical axis in the rolling plane.
d) The aircraft rotates around the lateral axis in the rolling plane.

287. Aileron drag may be counteracted by differential ailerons which:

a) Create more drag on the down - going wing.
b) Create more drag on the up – going wing.
c) Create less drag on the up – going wing.
d) Create less drag on both wings.

288. Which of the following statements is most correct?

a) Control is effected by the airflow striking the surface, which is moved out into it.
b) Control is effected by aerodynamic forces around a control surface.
c) Control is effected by the movement of the control surface.
d) Control is effected by changing the relative airflow around the control surface,
 37

289. Thrust is said to act:

a) At right angles to the relative.
b) At right angles to the drag.
c) Parallel to the drag.
d) Along the propeller shaft.
290. A pair of equal parallei and opposing forces, not acting in a straight line, is called,
a) A couple, and tends to cause rotation.
b) A couple, and tends to oppose rotation.
c) A moment , and tends to cause rotation.
d) A moment and tends to oppose rotation.

291. An aircraft that is said to be directionally stable, is stable around.

a) The lateral axis, in the yawing plane.
b) The normal axis, in the yawing plane,
c) The longitudinal axis in the rilling plane.
d) The normal axis in the rolling plane.

292. Stability is:

a) Controlled by the elevator.
b) Control by the pilot.
c) Controlled by the ailerons.
d) A quality built into the aircraft.

293. There are two basic types of stability of objects like aeroplane:
a) Lateral and static,
b) Normal and dynamic,
c) Static and directional.
d) Dynamic and static.

294. The lateral axis:

A. Runs fore and aft through the
B. Runs paraliel with a line from wing up to wing tip through the C.P.
C. Runs fore and aft through the C.P.
D. Runs paraliel with a line from wing tip to wing tip through the C.G.

295. The forces on an aircraft always remain in equilibrium because:

a) T = D and L=W.
b) All four forces act through the same point.
c) Lift is greater than drag, and weight is greater than thrust.
d) A fifth force acts on the tailplane.

296. An aeroplane in straight and level light loses thrust because of engine failure, what will happen?
a) The nose will pitch down.
b) The nose will pitch up.
c) It will maintain straight and level flight.
d) The glide can be stretched and level flight.
.
 38

297. When an aircraft is disturbed from its flight path, and continues to roll and yaw at the same time, this is known as:
a) Dynamic instability.
b) Lateral instability.
c) Spiral instability.
d) Static longitudinal instability.

298. A stable aeroplane is one which:

a) Maintains straight and level flight.
b) If disturbed from its flight path, returns automatically.
c) Is hard to control.
d) Does not require trim tabs.

299. A statically stable aeroplane is one which:

a) If disturbed from its flight path, will immediately return to it.
b) If disturbed from its flight path, will return to it when its oscillations have damped out.
c) If disturbed from its flight path, will continue on its new flight path without any action on the part of the
pilot.
d) If disturbed from its flight path, will oscillate evenly about its original flight path.

300. Which of following items provide longitudinal stability?

a) Sweepback, longitudinal dihedral
b) Longitudinal dihedral, forward C.G.
c) Low C.G. large keel surface , longitudinal dihedral.
d) Longitudinal dihedral, forward C.P.

301. Control in the rolling plane is through.

a) Ailerons.
b) Elevators.
c) Rudder.
d) Tailplane.

302. When an aircraft climbs into wind, it will have.

a) Steeper climb path, slower speed over the ground.
b) Shallower climb path, slower speed over the ground.
c) Shallower climb path, faster speed over the ground.
d) Steeper climb path, faster speed over the ground.

303. Straight and level flight is a condition which exists when and aircraft.
a) Fixed power setting and different attitudes for fixed speed,
b) Different power setting and fixed attitude.
c) Different speeds and different attitudes.
d) Different speeds and a fixed attitude.
 39

304. To enable an aircraft to climb along the steepest path, to avoid obstacles it should be flown at:
a) A speed higher than best climb speed, with an angle of attack higher than 40
b) A speed lower than best climb speed, with an angle of attack larger than 4 0
c) A speed lower than best cruise speed, with a low L/D ratio.
d) A speed higher than best cruise speed, with a high L/D ratio.

305. Speed down the glide path is increased by:

a) High lift/ drag ratio.
b) A tailwind.
c) A headwind.
d) An increase in weight.

306. Lateral stability is:

a) Stability in the pitching plane, around the longitudinal axis.
b) Stability in the rolling plane, around the longitudinal axis.
c) Stability in the yawing plane, around the normal (vertical) axis.
d) Stability in the yawing plane , around the lateral axis.

307. Lateral stability is improved by:

a) Large keel surfaces behind C.G. dihedral, sweepback.
b) Forward C.G. dihedral ,sweepback.
c) Taper sweepback, longitudinal dihedral.
d) Dihedral, sweepback, low C.G.

308. In which of the following conditions will the aircraft cover the most distance over the ground in a glide,
a) Head – wind
b) Tail – wind
c) Still air
d) The wind will not make any difference to the distance.

309. If your aircraft engine failure, and you have a disposable load:
a) In a tail – wind , you jettison the load to obtain the maximum distance over the ground,
b) In a tail – wind, you don‟t jettison the load to obtain the maximum distance over the ground.
c) In a tail – wind it won‟t make any difference to the distance over the ground,whether the load is jettisoned
or not.
d) In a tail – wind you don‟t jettison, but increase the angle of attack.

310. In a climb:
a) Thrust is equal to drag.
b) Thrust is less than drag.
c) Thrust is greater than drag.
d) Lift is greater than weight.
 40

311. Using normal climb power, an aircraft has a rate of climb of 700 ft. per minute at IAS 150 KTs still air. With the
same power setting and IAS climbing into a 20KT s head – wind, the rate of climb would be:
a) 500 FPM
b) 600 FPM.
c) 700 FPM.
d) 800 FPM.

312. Flap will:

a) Flatten the glide path.
b) Steepen he glide path.
c) Have no effect on the glide path.
d) Lengthen the landing run.

313. Thrust must be increases in a climb to:

a) Balance the drag and also to balance the difference between the lift and weight forces.
b) Overcome the large increase in drag.
c) Provide an extra lift force for the climb.
d) Provide the speed necessary for a gain in height to be achieved.

314. The glide can be stretched.

a) By raising the nose.
b) By lowering the nose,
c) Not at all.
d) By applying power,

315. Best rate of climb occurs:

a) When the greatest lift coefficient is produced.
b) Where maximum excess horsepower is available.
c) Into headwind.
d) In still air.

316. In still air:

a) Increasing the weight will increase the glide angle.
b) Increasing the weight will decrease the glide angle.
c) Increasing the weight will not affect the glide angle.
d) It is not possible to tell what effect increasing the weight will have on the glide path.

317. One off the following is a true statement about straight and level flight.
a) High thrust low speed, large angle of attack.
b) Low thrust low speed, large angle of attack.
c) Low speed, low thrust small angle of attack.
d) High speed, low thrust , small angle of attack.
 41

318. An aircraft climbing at its best speed will:

a) Take less time to climb to 2,000ft. in a head – wind than in a tail – wind not climb as fast in a tall – wind.
b) Not climb as fast in a tail – wind.
c) Take the same time to climb 2,000ft. in a head – wind, as in a tail – wind.
d) Not climb as fast in a head – wind.

319. An aircraft can fly straight and level a different airspeed because the pilot.
a) Can use high thrust to overcome the high drag at low speeds.
b) Can increase the wing area by using flaps.
c) Can decrease the angle of attack for low speeds.
d) Can vary the angle of attack.

320. Rate of climb refers to:

a) The path the aircraft travels through the air.
b) The indicated airspeed.
c) The best obstacle clearance path.
d) The vertical speed indicated.

321. Gliding angle is the angle between:

a) The chord line and the relative airflow.
b) The chord line and the horizontal.
c) The apparent glide path and the horizontal.
d) The relative airflow and the horizontal.

322. A rate 2 turn means the aircraft is turning.

a) 30 per second.
b) 40 per second.
c) 60 per second.
d) 90 per second.

323. If an aircraft travelling at 100 Kts begins to increase its angle of attack, will the stall occur.
a) When the stalling is reached.
b) At 150 angle of attack.
c) At 55 knots.
d) AT an angle in excess of the stalling angle.

324. Aircraft is said to be stalled.

a) When it develops an uncontrollable nose – down pitching moment.
b) When it has reached its stalling angle.
c) When its lift is no longer able to support its weight.
d) When its angle of attack has reached 150

325. One of the following statements is true about an aircraft in a steady climb.
a) All the four forces are balanced , and therefore equal.
b) Thrust equals drag, and lift is greater than weight.
c) Thrust equals drag, and lift equals weight.
d) Thrust is greator than drag, lift is less than weight.
 42

326. An aircraft will have its best rate of climb when;

a) The most excess horsepower is available
b) The horsepower available at high speed is equal to horsepower required.
c) The low speed horsepower available equals horsepower required.
d) The most excess horsepower is available at low speed.
327. If you were undershooting the runway, would you:
a) Increase power.
b) Increase angle to attack.
c) Put on more flap.
d) Decrease angle of attack.

328. To execute a balanced turn when an aeroplane is in level flight.

a) Thrust must be increased.
b) The aircraft must be banked.
c) The nose must be raised.
d) The nose must be yawed.
329. In a turn, the aircraft has:
a) A higher lift / drag ratio than in level flight.
b) The same lift / drag ratio as in level flight.
c) More drag than at the same speed in level flight.
d) Less drag than at the same speed in level flight.

330. The rate of turn refers to:

a) The number of degrees turned per second.
b) The time taken to complete a full circle.
c) The speed at which the aircraft makes the turn.
d) The angle off bank and IAS.

331. For a fixed speed, and aircraft has:

a) A lower angle of attack in a turn than in level flight.
b) A higher angle angle of attack in a turn than in level flight.
c) A higher lift / drat ratio in a turn than in level flight.
d) Less drag in a turn that in level flight.

332. An aircraft is in a spin if:

a) It is unstable about all three axes.
b) It is rolling, yawing. Pitching and descending vertically.
c) It is describing a a spriall dive with increasing airspeed.
d) It is stalled and losing height at a constant rate.

333. When the aircraft is banked and in a level turn:

a) Lift is greater than weight.
b) Lift is less than weight.
c) Lift is equal to weight.
d) Bears no relation to weight.
 43

334. The steeper the turn, the:

a) Faster the aircraft will completer the turn.
b) Greater the rate of turn
c) Smaller the radius of the turn.
d) More thrust is required.

335. A pilot can recognize an impending stall by:

a) Buffeting, sloppy controls, repaid rate of descent.
b) IAS has reached specified limit, sloppy controls, stall warning device.
c) Sloppy controls, buffeting, aircraft begins to yaw starboard.
d) IAS has reached specified limit , buffeting, aircraft begains to lose height.

336. When an aircraft slips during a turn.

a) The angle of bank is too steep for the IAS and rate of turn.
b) The angle of bank is not steep enough for the IAS and rate of turn.
c) The rate of turn is too high.
d) The pilot is holding off too much bank.

337. Skidding occurs when the:

a) Angle of bank is too great for the IAS and rate of turn.
b) Pilot holds on too much bank.
c) IAS is too LOW for the rate of turn.
d) Angle of bank is too small for the IAS and rate of turn.

338. When landing an aircraft, it is desirable to:

a) Stall the aircraft before touching down.
b) Fly the earoplane onto the runway.
c) Pull-off power just before the wheels touch.
d) Touch-down at the lowest possible speed.

339. When approaching to land:

a) Flaps steepen the glide path.
b) Flaps flatten the glide path.
c) Head – winds flatten the glide path.
d) A wind gradient increases the approach soeed,

340. A spiral dive is the condition of flight where.

a) An aircraft describes a spiral descent a vertical axis.
b) An aircraft is fully stales and losing at a constant rats,
c) Automatic rotation is occurring with the aircraft‟s movements outside the control of the pilot.
d) The aircraft is stalled, descending vertically at an increasing rate, while rolling, pitching and yawing.

341. An aircraft is able to take – off:

a) When the stalling speed has been reached.
b) When the stalling speed and stalling angle have been reached.
c) When the aircraft has reached 1.4 times stall speed.
d) When the aircraft has exceed its stalling speed.
 44

342. Stalling speed is:

a) Speed of maximum lift / drag ratio.
b) Speed of maximum lift coefficient.
c) Speed for minimum drag.
d) Speed for minimum lift/drag ratio.

343. During a level turn:

a) The outer wing has an increased angle of attack
b) The outer wing has increased lift.
c) The stalling speed is 1.5 times normal stalling speed.
d) It is necessary for the pilot to hold on bank.

344. An aircraft fitted with rudder, elevator and aileron trim tabs on the left aileron has a tendency to yaw to the right,
and toll to the right. This condition can be corrected by adjusting the trim tab control so that the aileron tab moves:
a) Down, and the rudder tab moves to the right.
b) Down, and the rudder tab moves to the left.
c) Up, and the rudder tab moves to the left.
d) Up, and the rudder tab moves to the right.

345. During a gliding turn, the:

a) Stalling angle increases.
b) Pilot must hold on bank.
c) Inner wing has significantly less lift than the outer wing.
d) Stalling speed deceases,

346. On a wing, what is the chord line ?

a) A line drawn from the leading to the trailing edge, following the curvature of the wing.
b) An upwardly gentle curved line from the leading edge to the trailing edge.
c) An straight line drawn from the wing root to the wing tip.
d) A straight lined from the leading edge to the trailing edge.

347. If the trim tab of an elevator is raised , what will happen to the elevator and the pitch attitude of the aircraft?
a) The elevator will rise and the aircraft will pitch down
b) The elevator will lower and the aircraft will pitch down
c) The elevator will lower and the aircraft will pitch up
d) The elevator will rise and the aircraft will pitch up

348. At what point in your flight is it most appropriate to test the break effectiveness?
a) As soon as you start to move
b) At the hold prior to departure
c) Whilst taxying down the runway ready for departure
d) As part of your power checks.
 45

349. Which of the following is NOT an example of an aerodynamic balance which is primarily designed to reduce
control loads to the pilot?
a) A horn balance
b) A mass balance
c) An inset hinge
d) A balance tab

350. What is the purpose of a control lock?

a) It prevents theft of the aircraft
b) It prevents the controls being moved due to wind gust or prop/jet blast
c) It locks the controls in place during the cruise to maintain altitude.
d) It prevents the aircraft from being blown over whilst on the ground in strong winds.

351. Which speed code correctly describes the maximum airspeed at which full movement of the controls surfaces is
permitted.?
a) VNE
b) VNO
c) VA
d) VREF

352. When is induce drag at its greatest level?

a) Low angles of attack and high speeds
b) Low angles of attack and low airspeeds
c) High angles of attack and low airspeeds
d) High angles of attack and high airspeeds

353. The leading edge of the wing is:

a) At the rear of the wing, facing the tail plane
b) At the wing tips
c) At the front of the wing, facing forward.
d) At the inboard edge of the wing where the wing joins the fuselage.

354. Dose the use of flaps affect the aircrafts lateral stability?
a) No , because they are lowered symmetrically
b) No, because they have a mechanical limited range
c) Yes, because they move the effective centre of lift away from the wing tips.
d) Yes, they increase the stability because the wing produce more lift

355. Compared with an airspeed of 60kts, an aircraft moving at 90kts will experience:
a) Less static pressure
b) More static pressure
c) Less total pressure
d) More dynamic pressure

356. For stability on the ground, where must the centre of gravity lie on an aircraft with a tricycle undercarriage ?
a) At some point between all three wheels
b) Slightly after the main gear
c) Between the main gear and rudder
d) Slightly forward of the nose gear
 46

357. Which of the following statements concerning lift, drag, thrust and weight are true for most light aircrafts?
a) The lift and weight forces are higher than the thrust and grad forces.
b) The lift and drag forces are higher than the thrust and weight forces.
c) The lift and thrust forces are higher than the weight and drag forces.
d) The lift and weight forces are similar to the thrust and drag forces.

358. At normal cruising speeds, approximately where is the centre of pressure located?
a) At the front of the wing, behind the leading edge.
b) Near the centre of the wing
c) Near the trailing edge of the wing
d) Near the leading edge of the wing, close to the wing tip.

359. In terms of leading edge devices, what is the difference between a slat and a slot?
a) A slot is a fixed gap in the wing, Slats are the same, but are much smaller
b) A slot is a fixed gap in the wing, and a slat is a device that creates a movable slot
c) There is no difference between slats and slots, they are different names for the same thing
d) A slat is a fitted to the leading edge, slots are fitted to the trailing edge

360. Which of the following flap designed is generally acknowledged to be the most efficient at increasing the
coefficient of lift?
a) Simple flap
b) Fowler flap
c) Split flap
d) Slotted flap

361. What is anhedral ?

a) Angling forward of the wing tips from the wing root to the tip
b) Angling up of the wings from the fuselage to the wing tips
c) Angling of the wings backwards to the rear of the aircraft
d) Angling down of the wings from fuselage to the wingtips

362. You decide to check the accuracy of your turn coordinator by flying at an indicated rate 1 turn through 360°. How
long should this take ?
a) 02 minutes
b) 01 minute
c) 90 seconds
d) 30 seconds

363. The primary effect of rudder input is yaw. What is the secondary effect?
a) Roll
b) Pitch
c) More yaw
d) A decrease in airspeed

364. On a unstalled wing, as the angle of attack increases , what happens to the centre of pressure (CP)?
a) It stays in the same position
b) It moves forward
c) It moves backwards
d) It moves outwards to the wing tips
 47

365. When should control locks be used?

a) In flight to maintain a constant altitude
b) In flight maintain a constant altitude and heading
c) On the ground to prevent wind damage
d) On the ground to prevent the aircraft become airborne in high winds

366. The primary effect in using the elevator is in pitch. What is the secondary effect ?
a) Roll
b) Yaw
c) A change in airspeed
d) Further changes to speed

367. A turn coordinator is able to show ?

a) Rate of turn
b) Bank angle
c) Both rate of turn and bank angle
d) Pitch attitude and rate of turn
368. A propeller has a clockwise direction of rotation when viewed from the cockpit. Which way is the nose likely to yaw
with this configuration ?
a) To the left if power is reduced
b) To the right on application of power
c) Neither- the aircraft is unlikely to yaw due to power changes
d) To the left on application of power

369. Identify the type of flap shown in the picture below.

a) A fowler flap
b) A split flap
c) A simple flap
d) A differential flap

370. What is the movement around the lateral axis termed ?

a) Pitching
b) Rolling
c) Yawing
d) Turning

371. Which part of the drag curve is where the combined effects of induced drag and parasite drag is at its minimum ?

C a) A
b) B
A c) C
B d) Both A and C

372. In a spin , outer wing :

a) Generates more lift than inner wing
b) Generates less lift than the inner wing
c) Generates the same amount of lift as the inner wing
 48

d) Has a slower relative airflow compared to the inner wing

373. An aero plane has a maximum take off weight (MTOW) of 1900Kg. If the wing area is 35 square meters, what is
the wing loading ?
a) 27Kg per square meter
b) 36.9 Kg per square meter
c) 21.1 Kg per square meter
d) 54.2 Kg per square meter

374. What effect will the use of flap settings recommended for take off have ?
a) It will reduce the ground roll
b) It will increase the ground roll
c) It will increase the rate of climb once airborne
d) It will reduce the ground roll and increase the rate of climb once airborne

375. What name is given to the airflow nearest the surface of the aerofoil ?
a) Transitional layer
b) Transition level
c) Boundary layer
d) Laminar layer

376. The tendency to control to “flutter” can be reduced by the use of :

a) A mass balance
b) A horn balance
c) A trim tab
d) Control stop

377. At lower altitudes, an increase of 1 mb pressure setting is usually accepted to equate to approximately:
a) 40 feet
b) 65feet
c) 30 feet
d) 20 feet

378. Static air pressure measures :

A) The pressure exerted by a velocity of the airflow
B) The pressure caused by relative airflow
C) The pressure of the atmosphere plus any relative airflow
D) The pressure exerted by the weight of the atmosphere above you

379. In level flight , which force acts to oppose the weight of the aircraft?
a) Thrust
b) Power
c) Drag
d) Lift

380. Which approach will reduce form drag most effectively ?

a) Streamlining behind , but not ahead of the shape
b) Streamlining, especially ahead of the shape
c) Streamlining ahead of, but not behind the shape
d) Streamlining, especially behind the shape
 49

381. When turning to starboard, the port aileron will :

a) Move down
b) Move up
c) Move right
d) Move in the same direction as the starboard aileron

382. A deliberate angling back of the wings towards the tailfin is known as:
A) Rollback
B) Laidback
C) Sweepback
D) Monohedral

383. The stall speed of an aircraft is defined at which weight ?

a) Aircraft maximum all up weight
b) Aircraft basic empty weight
c) Average weight with half fuel and 2 passengers
d) Basic empty weight plus full fuel and oil and 200Lb allowance for the pilot

384. Which of the following provides aerodynamics balance?

a) A weight on an arm which protrudes forward of it
b) An area of control surface forward of its hinge line
c) A fixed trim tab
d) A simple adjustable trim tab

385. Which flying control surface(s) give(s) control about the aircraft‟s normal axis?
a) The rudder
b) The ailerons
c) The elevator
d) The flaps

386. A control surface may have a mass balance fitted to it, in order to:

a) Help to prevent a rapid and uncontrollable oscillation which is called flutter

b) Keep the control surface level
c) Lighten the forces needed to control the surface
d) Provide the pilot with „feel‟

387. On an aircraft fitted with an elevator incorporating an anti-balance tab, pulling back on the control column will be
caused the:
a) Elevator to move up and the tab to move up
b) Elevator to move down and tab to move down
c) Elevator to move down and the tab to move up
d) Elevator to move up and the tab to move down

388. The respective primary and secondary effects of the rudder control are:

a) Yaw and pitch

b) Pitch and yaw
c) Roll and yaw
d) Yaw and roll
 50

389. Fixed trim tabs on ailerons:

a) Can be adjusted during flight

b) Should never be adjusted
c) Can be adjusted on the ground after a test flight to make wings-level flight easier
d) Can be adjusted on the ground after a test flight to make turning easier

390. The respective primary and secondary effects of the aileron control are:
a) Roll and pitch
b) Pitch and yaw
c) Roll and yaw
d) Yaw and roll

391. On an aircraft with a simple trim tab incorporated into a control surface, when the control surface is moved, the tab
remains in the same position relative to the:

a) Relative airflow
b) Control surface
c) Boundary layer airflow
d) Aircraft horizontal plane

392. The primary and secondary effects of applying the left rudder alone are:

a) Left yaw and left roll

b) Left yaw and right roll
c) Right yaw and left roll
d) Right yaw and right roll

393. Which flying control surface(s) give(s) longitudinal control?

a) The rudder
b) The ailerons
c) The elevator
d) The flaps

394. Ailerons give:

a) Lateral control about the lateral axis

b) Longitudinal control about the lateral axis
c) Directional control about the normal axis
d) Lateral control about the longitudinal axis

395. Yawing is rotation about:

a) The normal axis controlled by the rudder
b) The lateral axis controlled by the rudder
c) The longitudinal axis controlled by the ailerons
d) The normal axis controlled by the elevator

396. You are in straight and level flight and notice the balance ball slightly out to the right.
What should you do?
a) No action is required
b) Use left rudder as necessary to return the ball to the centre position
c) Use right aileron to return the ball to the centre position
d) Use right rudder as necessary to return the ball to the centre position
 51

397. A propeller has an anticlockwise direction of rotation when viewed from the cockpit. Upon application of power, which
way is the nose likely to yaw with this configuration?
a) To the left
b) Neither - the aircraft is likely to roll rather than yaw
c) Neither - the aircraft is likely to pitch up and not yaw
d) To the right.

398. What is the distance between the upper and lower surfaces of an aerofoil called?
a) Camber
b) Span
c) Chord
d) Thickness

399. The tendency for a control to 'flutter' can be reduced by the use of:
a) a mass balance
b) a horn balance
c) a trim tab
d) control stops

400. Which control is the major limiting factor in determining the maximum crosswind limit of an aeroplane?

a) The ailerons
b) The elevator
c) The rudder
d) The trim tab

401. With reference to a light aircraft, where would you find a 'spinner'?
a) In the tailplane
b) On the wing
c) In front of the propeller
d) At the leading edge of the wing

402. Which control surface controls the pitch attitude of the aircraft?
a) The rudder trim tab
b) The rudder
c) The ailerons
d) The elevator

403. The coefficient of lift can be increased by the use of flaps. What percentage increase can be achieved in typical light
aircraft?
a) Up to 10-20%
b) Up to 100%
c) Up to 250%
d) Up to 400%

404. What happens to the centre of pressure as a stall develops in a wing?

a) It slowly moves aft
b) It moves forwards
c) It does not move until a spin develops
d) It rapidly moves aft

405. A wing has the following dimensions: Span = 39 ft, Maximum wing thickness = 7 inches, Mean wing thickness = 3
inches, Mean chord = 6 ft. Calculate the aspect ratio of the wing.
a) 5.5
b) 13
c) 6.5
d) 156
 52

406. Weight is usually considered to act through one point. What is this point called?
a) The centre of pressure
b) The point of equality
c) The centre of gravity
d) The balance point

407. Your aircraft is fitted with an anti-balance tab. If you were to lift the elevator, in what direction will the tab move?
a) Upwards
b) Downwards
c) It will not move because this tab is controlled separately from the cockpit
d) It will not move because the tab is independently controlled by the yoke

408. Excessive aileron drag can cause a phenomenon called:

a) sweepback
b) adverse yaw
c) pitch instability
d) longitudinal instability

409. If you are subject to rapid acceleration in straight and level flight, what will the AI (Attitude Indicator) show?
a) A transient (and erroneous) pitch up attitude
b) It will show no change in pitch attitude
c) A transient (and erroneous) pitch down attitude
d) It will show a steady and erroneous pitch up attitude

410. Under normal circumstances, which instrument is used to indicate your heading?
a) The DI (Direction Indicator)
b) The compass
c) The turn coordinator
d) The attitude indicator

411. On an unstalled wing, as the angle of attack increases, what happens to the centre of pressure?
a) It stays in the same position
b) It moves forwards
c) It moves backwards
d) It moves outwards to the wing tips

412. For stability on the ground, where must the centre of gravity lie on an aircraft with a tricycle undercarriage?
a) At some point between all three wheels
b) Slightly aft of the main gear
c) Between the main gear and the rudder
d) Slightly forward of the nose gear

413. With reference to an aircraft wing, what is washout?

a) When it is covered in water in flight or on landing
b) A decreasing angle of incidence from the wingtip to the wing root
c) When the airflow starts to become turbulent prior to the wing stalling
d) An increasing angle of incidence from the wingtip to the wing root

414. When is induced drag at its greatest level?

a) Low angles of attack and high airspeeds
b) Low angles of attack and low airspeeds
c) High angles of attack and low airspeeds
d) High angles of attack and high airspeeds
 53

415. Which part of an aircraft is termed the empennage?

a) The wings
b) The tail assembly
c) The engine cowling
d) The area immediately aft of the cabin doors

416. In a spin, which of the following instruments is usually the most reliable means of determining the spin direction?
a) Heading indicator (HI)
b) Attitude indicator (AI)
c) Turn coordinator
d) Compass

417. A turn coordinator is able to show:

a) rate of turn
b) bank angle
c) both rate of turn and bank angle
d) pitch attitude and rate of turn

418. The drag caused by junctions of various surfaces, such as the fuselage and dorsal fin, would be known as:
a) interference drag
b) skin friction
c) form drag
d) junction drag

419. What effect does a slat or a slot have on the coefficient of lift?
a) It has no effect: the coefficient of lift remains unchanged
b) It decreases the maximum coefficient of lift
c) It increases the maximum coefficient of lift
d) It has no effect as the coefficient of lift is a fixed constant

420. When should control locks be used?

a) In flight to maintain a constant altitude
b) In flight to maintain a constant altitude and heading
c) On the ground to prevent wind damage
d) On the ground to prevent the aircraft becoming airborne in high winds

421. Compared with a power-off stall, is a wing drop more or less likely during a power-on stall?
a) More likely because the outer parts of the wing have relatively less airflow
b) More likely because the slipstream of the propeller flows over the ailerons
c) Less likely because the slipstream of the propeller flows over the control surfaces
d) Less likely because the propeller slipstream creates additional lift

422. What name is given the design which causes a part of a flying control surface to move into (against) the airflow on the
other side of the hinge line?
a) A mass balance
b) A horn balance
c) A lateral arrestor
d) A control lock
 54

423. Study the picture of a wing, showing a device fitted to the upper surface. This device is an example of a type of:

a) airbrake
b) slot
c) aileron
d) Elevator

424. You are commencing your take-off roll on runway 03 with a northerly wind at 22 knots. Ignoring other potential sources
of yaw, which rudder pedal do you need to press in order to keep aligned with the runway centreline?

a) Right rudder pedal

b) Left rudder pedal
c) Neither - differential braking is used to control this on take-off
d) Neither - use of aileron will be sufficient to maintain the centreline

425. Study the picture of this Boeing 767 wing on final approach to Los Angeles. What sort of flap is this?

a) A simple flap
b) A split flap
c) A Fowler flap
d) A differential slotted flap

426. If the centre of gravity is too far forward, the aircraft will become:
a) more stable in pitch
b) less stable in roll
c) less stable in pitch
d) more stable in roll
 55

427. When turning to port, the port aileron will:

a) move up
b) move down
c) move left
d) move in the same direction as the starboard aileron

428. Which part of the drag curve is where the drag is mostly parasitic drag?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) A & C both

429. What is the normal operating speed limit known as?

a) VN
b) VNORM
c) VNO
d) VA

430. If a force is applied to a spinning gyroscope, the change in direction is displaced 90 degrees further on in the
direction of rotation. This phenomenon is known as:
a) Precession
b) rigidity in space
c) tautological redundancy
d) drift

431. On an aircraft, where might you find a longeron?

a) In the engine
b) In the fuselage
c) In the wing
d) In the elevators

432. What effect does the use of flaps have on the lift/drag ratio?
a) Use of flaps will decrease the lift/drag ratio
b) Use of flaps will increase the lift/drag ratio
c) Use of flaps will not significantly affect the lift/drag ratio
d) Use of full flap does not affect the lift/drag ratio, other flap settings do

433. At what angle of attack is the coefficient of lift the highest?

a) Approximately +13 degrees
b) Approximately -4 degrees
c) Approximately +4 degrees
d) Approximately +0 degrees
 56

434. The aircraft rolls to port in a left turn. What will be displayed on the turn coordinator?
a) The left wing (only) of the symbolic aeroplane will lower
b) The symbolic aeroplane will show a roll to the right
c) The symbolic aeroplane will also show a roll to the left
d) The horizontal horizon bar will tilt to the right

435. Weight is usually considered to act through one point. What is this point called?
a) The centre of pressure
b) The point of equality
c) The centre of gravity
d) The balance point

436. What is anhedral?

a) Angling forwards of the wings from the wing root to the wing tip
b) Angling up of the wings from the fuselage to the wingtips
c) Angling of the wings backwards to the rear of the aircraft
d) Angling down of the wings from the fuselage to the wingtips

437. Compared with operations at high speeds, when the airspeed is low, the controls will require ________ input. What
word(s) are missing?
a) more
b) less
c) a similar amount of
d) much less

438. In a spin, the outer wing:

a) generates more lift than the inner wing
b) generates less lift than the inner wing
c) generates the same amount of lift as the inner wing
d) has a slower relative airflow compared to the inner wing

439. Compared with an airspeed of 60 kts, an aircraft moving at 90 kts will experience:
a) less static pressure
b) more static pressure
c) less total pressure
d) more dynamic pressure

440. What is described by the angle of incidence on the wing of a light aircraft?
a) The angle between the chord line of the wing and the lateral axis of the aircraft
b) The angle between the camber line of the wing and the lateral axis of the aircraft
c) The angle between the mean camber line of the wing and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
d) The angle between the chord line of the wing and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft

441. You are flying with the balance ball out to the left. What should you do?
a) No action is required
b) Use left rudder as necessary to return the ball to the centre position
c) Use right rudder as necessary to return the ball to the centre position
d) Use left aileron to return the ball to the centre position
 57

442. Study the diagram of an aircraft propeller assembly below. Which of the following correctly identifies the 'blade
back'?

a) The letter A
b) The letter B
c) The letter C
d) The letter D

443. Which control surface primarily controls roll in an aircraft?

a) The stabilator
b) The rudder
c) The elevator
d) The ailerons

444. If you were to fly with your fuel filler cap partially open, what would the effect be?
a) Fuel would be retained in the tank due to the high pressure above the wing
b) Fuel may splash out of the tank as you bank the aircraft
c) The fuel supply to the engine would fail as the tank must be fully sealed
d) Fuel could be drawn out of the tank due to the low pressure above the wing

445. You are turning left, and the balance ball is out to the right. What does this indicate?
a) You have applied insufficient left rudder
b) You are slipping into the turn
c) You are skidding out of the turn
d) A malfunction of the balance ball assembly

446. What is angling of the wings upwards from the fuselage to the wingtips known as?
a) anhedral
b) dihedral
c) sweep-up
d) sweep-back

447. What effect will the use of a recommended flap setting for take-off have on your performance, compared with a nil flap
setting?
a) Ground roll will be increased
b) Once airborne, your rate of climb will be less
c) Your ground roll will be reduced, and your rate of climb will be increased once airborne
d) Your ground roll will be increased, and your rate of climb will be decreased once airborne

448. Which part of an aircraft is termed the empennage?

a) The wings
b) The tail assembly
c) The engine cowling
d) The area immediately aft of the cabin doors
 58

449. In a spin, which of the following instruments is usually the most reliable means of determining the spin direction?
a) Heading indicator (HI)
b) Attitude indicator (AI)
c) Turn coordinator
d) Compass

450. An aeroplane has a maximum take-off weight (MTOW) of 2228 lbs. If the wing area is 58 square feet, what is the wing
loading?
a) 10.2 lb per square ft
b) 75.6 lb per square ft
c) 38.4 lb per square ft
d) 22.9 lb per square ft

451. What advantage does the use of a horn balance confer?

a) It increases the effort required to move a control, providing 'feel' for the pilot
b) It reduces the effort required to move a control
c) It ensures that the aircraft is better balanced in the lateral plane
d) It reduces the risks of 'control flutter', which can cause structural failure

452. Slats and slots can delay the onset of the stall. How do they work?
a) They allow high pressure air from under the wing to flow over the wing
b) They allow low pressure air from above the wing to flow under the wing
c) They allow low pressure air from under the wing to flow over the wing
d) They allow high pressure air from over the wing to flow under the wing

453. If you are subject to rapid acceleration in straight and level flight, what will the AI (Attitude Indicator) show?
a) A transient (and erroneous) pitch up attitude
b) It will show no change in pitch attitude
c) A transient (and erroneous) pitch down attitude
d) It will show a steady and erroneous pitch up attitude

454. On a light aircraft, how does an anti-balance tab work?

a) It moves in the same direction as the elevators, increasing the control load felt by the pilot
b) It moves in the opposite direction as the elevators, increasing the control load felt by the pilot
c) It moves in the opposite direction as the elevators, reducing the control load felt by the pilot
d) It moves in the same direction as the elevators, reducing the control load felt by the pilot

455. The green arc of the airspeed indicator (ASI) corresponds to which of the following speed ranges?
a) From VS to VNE
b) From VS to VA
c) From VA to VNO
d) From VS to VNO

456. What is the mean camber line?

a) A line drawn halfway between the upper and lower surfaces of the wing
b) A straight line drawn between the leading and trailing edges of the wing
c) A curved line running from the top of the wing to the bottom of the wing
d) A line drawn from the wing tip to the wing root through the centre of the wing
 59

457. When turning to port, the port aileron will:

a) move up
b) move down
c) move left
d) move in the same direction as the starboard aileron

458. Which of the following lists contains items that are associated with parasitic drag?
a) skin friction, form drag, interference drag, wingtip vortices
b) skin friction, form drag, wingtip vortices
c) skin friction, form drag, interference drag
d) skin friction, interference drag, wingtip vortices

459. Which of the following propeller characteristics would be most efficient at a high propeller rpm and low airspeed?
a) Fine pitch
b) Medium pitch
c) Medium to coarse pitch
d) Coarse pitch

460. In a climb, which force(s) oppose weight?

a) Lift and drag
b) Lift and thrust
c) Thrust
d) Thrust and drag

461. At higher airspeeds, which of the following statements concerning drag is true?
a) There will be a low level of parasitic drag
b) There will be a high level of induced drag
c) There will be low levels of both parasitic and induced drag
d) There will be a high level of parasitic drag

462. If the effects of the tail fin on directional stability are ignored, which of the following statements concerning the
effectiveness of the rudder is correct?
a) Rudder authority will be the greatest with an aft C of G
b) Rudder authority will be the greatest with a forward C of G
c) Rudder authority is not affected by the aircraft C of G at all
d) Rudder authority is not measurably affected by the aircraft C of G

463. As you climb at a constant indicated airspeed into less dense air, the static pressure ______ and the dynamic air pressure
will ______. What are the missing words?
a) decreases, increase
b) decreases, stay constant
c) increases, decrease
d) increases, stay constant

464. Which description most accurately describes the airflow over the wing when stalled?
a) Smooth
b) Laminar
c) Streamlined
d) Turbulent
 60

465. A type of design feature that gives lateral stability in the C-152 is:
a) Keel effect
b) Dihedral
c) Sweepback
d) Wings

466. The angle of attack is defined as the angle between:

a) The chord line and the relative airflow
b) The flight path and the wing under surface
c) The longitudinal axis and the total reaction
d) The chord line and the horizon

467. An effect of fully lowering flap is that:

a) Lift is decreased and drag is increased
b) The lift / drag ratio is increased
c) Lift is increased and drag is decreased
d) Both lift and drag are increased

468. Following an engine failure, an aircraft is executing a forced landing into a paddock and is gliding at the
recommended best glide speed. If the aircraft appears to be undershooting, the correct action for you to take is to:
a) Lower flap
b) Increase airspeed
c) Maintain airspeed
d) Reduce airspeed

469. Which type of stability is affected by movement of the centre of gravity?

a) Longitudinal
b) Lateral
c) Normal
d) Directional

470. As the tail is lifted on a tail wheel aircraft during the take- off , a pronounced swing to the left develops. This is most
likely to be attributed to:
a) Slipstream effect
b) Torque effect
c) Gyroscopic effect
d) A strong crosswind from the right

471. What type of stability involves rolling movement?

a) Longitudinal
b) Lateral
c) Normal
d) Directional

472. Best rate of climb speed is determined by:

a) Excess thrust
b) Excess power
c) Excess fuel
d) Lighter weight
 61

473. How do we fly at best range?

a) Fly at the speed which gives the best L/D ratio
b) Fly at the speed of lowest drag
c) Fly as fast as possible
d) Fly at minimum power

474. A result of climbing an aircraft at a lower speed than the recommended best rate of climb speed is:
a) A decreased rate and angle of climb
b) An increased rate and angle of climb
c) An increased rate and decreased angle of climb
d) Fly at minimum power

475. If the angle of attack is increased from 4 degrees up to the stalling angle , how will lift and drag vary?]
a) Lift and drag will decrease
b) Lift and drag will increase
c) Lift will increase and drag will decrease
d) Lift will decrease but drag will increase

476. Which of the following will cause a reduction in the indicated stalling speed?
a) Increased load factor
b) Increased power setting
c) Increased air density
d) Increased altitude
477. What effect will an increase in headwind have on the rate of decent?
a) Decreased rate
b) Increased rate
c) No change
d) The aircraft will stall

478. A result of flying an aircraft at a faster speed than the recommended best angle of climb speed is:
a) A decreased rate and angle of climb
b) An increased rate and angle increased rate of climb
c) An decreased angle and increased rate of climb
d) A decreased rate and increased angle of climb

479. The best angle of climb occurs at:

a) Maximum excess power
b) Maximum excess thrust
c) The best lift-drag ratio
d) Speed for minimum drag

480. The effect of using greater than optimum flap during take-off is:
a) An increase take-off roll and decrease take-off distance is required.
b) A decrease take-off Rolland increase take-off distance is required.
c) An increase take-off roll and increase take-off distance is required.
d) A decrease take-off roll and decrease take-off distance is required.

481. An effect of increasing weight is that the:

a) Stalling speed is decreased
b) Best glide speed is increased
c) Stalling angle is increased
d) RoC is increased.
 62

482. Movement if the centre of gravity will effect :

a) Static stability
b) Longitudinal stability
c) Lateral stability
d) Dynamic stability

483. The angle of 4° is approximately the angle:

a) That produces the best lift-drag ratio
b) That produces the minimum drag
c) At which both lift and drag are at the maximum
d) That produces maximum lift

484. Which of the following denotes the characteristics of a spiral dive:

a) Low airspeed, large rate of descent, one wing stalled
b) High airspeed , large rate of descent, stalled
c) High airspeed, large rate of descent
d) High airspeed, low rate of decent

485. What would result in the stalling angle being reduced?

a) An increase in weight
b) Aft movement of the centre of gravity
c) Damage to the wing
d) Flap

486. Lateral stability is the movement about the:

a) Longitudinal axis
b) Lateral axis
c) Normal axis
d) Vertical axis

487. In straight and level flight, a decrease in weight will:

a) Require less power to maintain straight and level
b) Require more power to maintain straight and level
c) Require a larger angle of attack to maintain straight and level
d) Result in the aircraft stalling

488. A decrease in speed from that which is required for best range will result in:
a) A decrease in range and decrease in endurance
b) An increase in range and a decrease in endurance
c) An increase in both range and endurance
d) An increase in endurance and a decrease in range

489. For a propeller driven aircraft the speed for best endurance corresponds with the speed for:
a) Minimum drag
b) Minimum power
c) Maximum lift
d) 65% power
 63

490. In a descent, if power is increased and a constant airspeed is maintained:

a) Rate and angle of descent will decrease
b) Rate will decrease and angle will increase
c) Rate and angle of descent will increase
d) Rate will increase and angle will decrease

491. A force, when applied to a gyroscope, will act:

a) At the point of application
b) 900 removed from the point of application, in the direction of rotation
c) 900 removed from the point of application, in the opposite direction of rotation
d) 1800 removed from the point of application

492. Applying flap during a climb with a tail wind:

a) Increase the angle of climb because lift is increased
b) Increase the rate of climb because lift is increased
c) Decrease the rate and angle of climb
d) Decrease the rate of climb but not affect the angle

493. When descending with a tail wind:

a) Air nautical miles will increase
b) Air nautical miles will stay the same, ground nautical miles will increase
c) Ground nautical miles will decrease
d) Ground nautical miles will increase

494. Which of the following design features can be utilized to minimize induce drag?
a) Wheel spats, swept wings, wing fences
b) Washout, vortex generators, slots
c) Dihedral, wing fences, vortex generators
d) Wing fences, wing tip modifications

495. If an aircraft is loaded with a centre of gravity well out side the forward limit:
a) The aircraft will be excessively stable and elevator effectiveness will decrease.
b) The aircraft will be excessively unstable and elevator effectiveness will decrease
c) The aircraft will be excessively stable and elevator effectiveness will increase
d) The aircraft will be excessively unstable and elevator effectiveness will increase

496. In a steady glide decent , an increase in weight will :

a) Decrease gliding range
b) Have no effect on range
c) Increase range
d) Increase then decrease

497. As an aircraft approaches the critical angle, what happens to lift and drag?
a) Lift and drag increases
b) Lift and drag decreases
c) Lift increases, drag decreases
d) Lift decreases , drag increases
 64

498. As an aircraft exceeds the critical angle of attack, the centre of pressure:
a) Moves forward
b) Moves aft
c) Moves left
d) Moves right

499. If the weight of the aero plane is increased , the new propeller –on stalling speed will be:
a) Lower than power-on stalling speed at the lighter angle
b) The same as the power-on stalling speed at the lighter weight
c) Higher than the power-on stalling speed at the lighter weight
d) The same as the power –on stalling speed at the lighter weight, providing the same power used.

500. What happens as the bank angle is increased in a level turn?

a) The stall speed increases
b) The stall angle increases
c) The stall speed is unaffected; i.e it remains the same
d) The stall speed decreases

501. Which of the following statements best describes why steep turns should be avoided at low airspeeds, and in
particular , just after takeoff ?
a) The high bank angles involved increase the stalling angle of attack
b) The high bank angles involved mean higher load factors, and therefore higher stall speeds
c) The high bank angles impair a pilot‟s vision , which could be dangerous so close to the ground
d) The high bank angles involved mean the stall speeds are lower

502. The stalling angle is the angle of attack for :

a) Maximum lift
b) Best L/D ratio
c) Best glide speed
d) Minimum drag

503. Which of the following type of turbulence are most likely to cause damage to a taxiing aircraft‟s control surfaces /
a) Wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft
b) Rotor downwash and thrust stream turbulence
c) Thrust stream turbulence (Jet blast) only since rotor downwash is not likely to cause damage to an aircraft
on the ground
d) Wake turbulence from large aircraft of any kind

504. At what point dose the a large jet aero plane generate the strongest wingtip vortices?
a) Just after break release
b) After touch down
c) At lift off and just afterwards
d) During approach with flaps extended

505. Which of the following statements best explains why , when flying close to the ground and turning upwind or
downwind, a perfectly balanced turn may appear to the pilot as a slipping or skidding turn?
a) The illusion is due to the presence of drift and actual change in ground speed with the aeroplanes close to
the ground
b) The illusion is due to the incorrect use of the rudder
c) The illusion is due to apparent change in ground speed and the drift with the aero plane close to the ground
d) The illusion is due to the presence of drift only
 65

506. The angle of climb is increased but the rate of climb is unaffected when climbing :
a) Into a headwind
b) Into a decreasing density conditions
c) With flaps down
d) With a tail wind

507. The maximum angle of climb is achieved when an aero plane is flown at an airspeed:
a) Higher than the best rate of climb speed
b) Lower than the best rate of climb speed
c) Which is the same as the best rate of climb speed
d) Which is the same as the speed for normal climb

508. As a first step, the pilot should relax forward pressure on the control wheel if an aeroplne:
a) Weathercocks or yaws into-wind when taxiing
b) Tends to nose over when taxiing with a tail wind
c) Tends to roll-over in strong crosswind
d) Wheelbarrows during the landing roll

509. Which of the following statements best explain the relationship between the glide speed and the glide range during
an approach to land?
a) Higher or lower speeds than recommended will decrease the L/D ratio resulting in a steeper descent and
undershooting the runway
b) Higher speeds than recommended will increase the L/D ratio, allows the pilot to “stretch the glide”
c) Higher speeds than recommended will cause the aero plane to over shoot the runway
d) Lower speeds than recommended will decrease the L/D ratio allowing the pilot to stretch the glide.

510. The IAS , corrected for pressure or position) and instrument error is called the
a) True airspeed
b) Ground speed
c) Calibrated airspeed
d) Equivalent airspeed

511. Climbing at the maximum angle (compared to climbing at maximum rate) means reaching
a) A given height in the minimum horizontal distance
b) The given height at the minimum time
c) Maximum horizon distance in a given time
d) Maximum height in a given time

512. If the weight of an aero plane is increased , the new indicated stalling speed will be :
a) Lower than before
b) The same as before
c) Higher than before
d) Either higher or lower depending on the density height.

513. The indicated stall speed of an aero plane is increased by increase in:
a) Altitude
b) Load factor
c) Power
d) Flap defection
 66

514. The indicated stall speed of an airplane is:

a) Decreased with flaps lowered
b) Decreased with flaps retracted
c) Increased as weight is decreased
d) Decrease as altitude is increased

515. The best way to discriminate between a spin and a spiral dive is that in a spiral dive:
a) The air speed is low and remains constant
b) The air speed continually fluctuates from low to high
c) The air speed is relatively high and rapidly increasing
d) The air speed is high and remains high

516. The indicated stall speed of an aero plane:

a) Is the same in a turn as in level flight, providing the bank is not above 300
b) Is increased as weight as decreased
c) Decreases as altitude is increased
d) Does not change with changes in altitude (density height)

517. Shaking of the controls and a low and decreasing air speed are:
a) Symptoms of an approaching high speed stall
b) Symptoms of a spiral dive
c) Symptoms of an approaching low speed stall
d) Always associated with an approaching stall

518. During a level turn, an increase in bank angle will:

a) Decrease the load on the structure as the lift is tilted sideways
b) Increase the load on the structure, i.e. the load factor
c) Be accompanied by a decrease in included drag
d) Always require an increase in power(on thrust)

519. The angle of attack for maximum lift is:

a) Called the angle of attack for best L/D ratio
b) The same as the angle of attack for best glide speed
c) Called the stalling angle
d) Called the angle of attack for minimum drag

520. The indicated stall speed of an aero plane is:

a) Increased as altitude is decreased
b) Increased as weight is decreased
c) Decreased as altitude is increased
d) Increased by strong windshear

521. The indicated stall speed of an aero plane is:

a) Increased by frost and ice on the lower surface of the wing
b) Increased by frost or ice on the upper surface of the fuselage
c) Increased by frost or ice on the upper surface of the wing
d) Decreased by frost or ice on the upper surface of the wing
 67

522. If a wing „drops‟ as an aero plane stalls using aileron to recover to a wings level altitude is
a) Likely to further decrease the lift on the down going wing
b) Effective when increased power is increasing the airflow over the ailerons
c) Likely to further decreased the lift on the up going wing
d) Effective only if the rudder is not used

523. At a constant angle of attack somewhere below about 16 0, the lift and drag will both be increased:
a) With a decrease in airspeed
b) If the air speed is kept constant
c) At any airspeed
d) With an increase in air speed

524. The type of the drag which results from the generation of lift is called:
a) Zero lift or parasite drag
b) Interference drag
c) Lift dependent or induced drag
d) Form drag

525. At a speed where the zero lift or parasite drag and lift dependent or induced drag are equal;
a) Total drag is at a maximum
b) The angle of attack produces the efficient L/D ratio
c) The angle of attack is close to the stalling angle
d) Total drag is at a minimum

526. When climbing into a headwind:

a) Both the rate and angle of climb are decreased
b) The rate of climb is increased but the angle of climb is unaffected
c) The angle of climb is increased but the rate of climb is unaffected
d) Both the rate and angle of climb are increased

527. The best way to discriminate between a spin and a spiral dive is that in a spin:
a) The air speed is low and remains more or less constant
b) The air speed continually fluctuates from low to high
c) The airspeed is high and rapidly increases
d) The wing is stalled

528. For aero planes on approach a sudden decrease in headwind component will:
a) Cause the aero plane to undershoot the runway unless power is applied
b) Increase both the airspeed and rate of descent
c) Decrease both the airspeed and rate of descent
d) Cause the aero plane to to overshoot the runway unless power is decreased

529. For a particular weight and load factor the stall IAS:
a) Increases with increases in altitude
b) Decreases with increases altitude
c) Increases as altitude increases and reduces as altitude is decreased
d) Is unaffected by changes in altitude

530. The level flight stall IAS is decreased:

a) With increases in weight
b) When flaps are lowered
c) When flaps are raised
d) When the nose is lowered on approach
 68

531. To avoid wake turbulence when taking off behind a large departing aircraft on the same runway
a) Lift off should be made well before the larger aircraft lift off point
b) Delay lift off until well past the preceding aircraft‟s lift off point
c) Follow the larger aircraft‟s flight path
d) Climb below the larger aircraft‟s flight path

532. Increase in power setting will increase the effectiveness of:

a) The ailerons, but the other controls will be unaffected
b) All three primary controls
c) The elevators, but the other controls will be unaffected
d) The elevators and the rudder, but the ailerons will be unaffected

533. The first action a pilot should take if an aero plane „wheelbarrow‟ during the landing roll is to:
a) Relax forward pressure on the control wheel
b) Use opposite rudder to correct
c) Use the same side rudder to correct
d) Push the control wheel forward

534. The indicated stalling speed of an aero plane is increased by an increase in:
a) Density
b) Load factor
c) Power
d) Altitude

535. During a high speed „pull up‟ from a dive, or during any manoeuvre at high airspeeds, what happens to the lift and
the „clean‟ stall IAS?
a) Both the lift, and the „clean‟ stall IAS are increased
b) The lift is increased and the „clean‟ stall IAS is lowered
c) There is no change in the lift or „clean‟ stall IAS
d) The lift is increased but this has no effect on the „clean‟ stall IAS

536. Which statement best explains why steep turns should be avoided on a glide approach to land ?
a) Without power this close to the ground, there is a danger of the stalling angle being lowered
b) The combination of an increased stall speed and a tendency for the air speed to decrease in a steep turn
(unless power is added), means an increased risk of a low level stall
c) Without power this close to the ground there is a danger of the stalling angle increasing
d) Steep turns close to the ground are dangerous because without power , the pilot has no way of quickly
changing the aero plane‟s attitude in order to improve vision

537. An aero plane has a level flight tall speed of 60 knots. In a 45 0 turn, the stall speed will be:
a) Higher , due to the load factor
b) The same, since the load factor does not increase in a turn
c) Lower, due to the lower load factor
d) Lower , because the stalling angle is lowered in a turn

538. What is the major control hazard associated with a wake turbulence encounter in flight?
a) Autorotation caused by the simultaneous roll and yaw created
b) Aileron yaw
c) Induced roll
d) Instability in the pitching plane
 69

539. Near the ground, when executing a perfectly balanced turn down wind or upwind from crosswind, a change in
groundspeed and the presence of drift create the illusion that the aero plane is:
a) About to stall
b) Unbalanced, i.e. slipping or skidding
c) Travelling faster than the actual airspeed
d) Travelling slower than the actual airspeed

540. Maximum gliding distance can only be achieved by using a speed:

a) Higher than the aero plane best glide speed
b) Lower than the aero plane best glide speed
c) Corresponding to the aero plane‟s best glide speed
d) That is depending on the speed of the headwind

541. An aero plane will glide the greatest distance when flown:
a) Faster than the best glide speed in a tailwind
b) At the best glide speed in tailwind
c) At the best glide speed in a still air
d) Slower than the best glide speeding a headwind

542. The best glide speed is:

a) Greater than the speed for normal cruise
b) Less than same speed for normal cruise
c) The same as the speed for normal cruise
d) None of the above

543. If the right aileron is deflected down and held (and no other controls are moved), the aero plane will:
a) Simultaneously go into both roll and yaw to the left
b) Initially roll to the right . the sideslip to the right, and yaw to the right
c) Initially roll to the left
d) Initially roll to the left, then sideslip to the left, and yaw to the left
544. Higher or lower airspeeds than those recommended:
a) Decrease the rate of climb but have no effect on the angle of climb
b) Decrease both the rate and angle of climb
c) Increase both the rate and angle of climb
d) Have no effect on either the rate or angle of climb

545. The use of flap during the climb, at normal climb indicated airspeed ,will :
a) Reduce both the maximum rate and maximum angle of climb
b) Increase both the maximum rate and maximum angle of climb
c) Increase both the rate and angle of climb
d) Have no effect on either the rate or angle of climb, but will increase the angle of climb

546. The angle between the chord line and the relative airflow is called the:
a) Angle of increase
b) Aspect ratio
c) Rigging angle
d) Angle of attack

547. As the angle attack is increased lift:

a) Increase until the stalling angle is reached, then decreases
b) Decreases until the stalling angle is reached, then increases
c) Increases
d) Decreases until zero angle of attack is reached, then increases
 70

548. Movement about the normal axis of an aero plane is called:

a) Yaw, and is controlled by the rudder
b) Roll, and is controlled by the ailerons
c) Pitch, and is controlled by the elevators
d) Yaw, and is controlled by the elevators (or stabilator)

549. Trim tabs are labour –saving devices used by the pilot to:
a) Set the desired attitude
b) Reduce control column forces once the desired attitude has been set
c) Control the aeroplane‟s movementabout its axis
d) Increase the control forces felt by the pilot as the airspeed increases

550. When full flap is lowered, the lower lift/drag ratio and slower speed used on the approach will:
a) Increase the landing distance
b) Steepen the approach angle and increase the landing distance respectively
c) Lessen the approach angle
d) Steepen the approach angle and reduce the landing distance respectively

551. If the left rudder petal is pushed forward and held (without moving the other controls), the aero plane will initially
yaw to the left, then:
a) Roll to the right, and sideslip to the right
b) Roll to the left, sideslip to the left , and lose height
c) Roll to the left, and sideslip to the right
d) Roll to the right, and lose height

552. For an aero plane flying straight and level, an increase in speed from the minimum level flight speed to the
maximum level flight speed means the total drag will:
a) Initially decrease, then increase
b) Initially increase, then decrease
c) Not be affected, but the lift will decrease
d) Not be affected, but the lift will increase

553. The stalling speed of an aero plane is:

a) Decreased with flaps DOWN
b) Decreased with flaps UP
c) Increased with flaps DOWN
d) Not affected by flap position

554. For an aero plane at a constant weight, an increase in power will:

a) Increase the stalling speed
b) Have no effect on the stalling speed
c) Reduce the stalling speed
d) Have no effect on the stalling speed but decrease the stalling angle

555. Relative air flow is the undisturbed airflow parallel to the :

a) Flight path, in the direction of flight
b) Lateral axis, in the direction of flight
c) Flight path, in the direction opposite to the direction of flight
d) Wing chord, in the direction opposite to the direction of flight
 71

556. The total drag of an aero plane is made up of:

a) Parasite drag, form or pressure drag, skin friction, interference drag and cooling drag
b) Induced drag, form or pressure drag, skin friction, interference drag and cooling drag
c) Induced drag and skin friction drag
d) Induced drag, form (or pressure) drag, skin friction, interference drag and cooling drag

557. The angle formed (in the rolling plane) between the wing (or wing spar) and the lateral axis is called:
a) Sweepback
b) Angle of attack
c) Wing dihedral
d) Aspect ratio

558. The lift force (produced by the wing moving through the air) acts perpendicular to, and the drag force parallel to the
:
a) Chord line
b) Longitudinal axis
c) Flight path
d) Lateral axis

559. As air speed decreases in level flight, the total drag of the aero plane becomes greater than the total drag produced at
the maximum L/D speed because of the:
a) Increase in induced drag
b) Increase in parasite drag
c) Decrease in induced drag
d) Decrease in parasite drag

560. If an aero plane is flying at the angle of attack for maximum L/D, then:
a) Any change in angle of attack will increase the L/D
b) Any change in angle of attack will be increase the total drag
c) A reduction in angle of attack is needed to fly at MAX C L
d) Any change in angle of attack will increase the parasite drag

561. By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the can control the aero planes
a) Lift, gross weight and drag
b) Lift, airspeed and drag
c) Airspeed, weight and drag
d) Lift and airspeed, but not drag

562. When the angle of attack of a non-symmetrical (cambered) aerofoil is increased to a value below the stalling angle,
the position of the centre of pressure will:
a) Remain unaffected
b) Move forward
c) Move aft
d) Move erratically

563. To generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased, an aero plane must be flown at:
a) A lower TAS for any given angle of attack
b) The same TAS regardless of the angle of attack
c) A lower TAS and a lesser angle of attack
d) A higher TAS for any given angle of attack
 72

564. What changes in aero plane control must be made to maintain altitude while the airspeed is being decreased?
a) Increase the angle of attack to compensate for the decreasing lift
b) Increase the angle of attack to produce more lift than drag
c) Decrease the angle of attack to compensate for the increasing drag
d) Maintain a constant angle of attack until the desired airspeed is reached then increase the angle of attack

565. If the air speed is decreased during a level turn, what action would be necessary to maintain altitude?
a) Both the angle of attack and the angle of bank must be decreased
b) The angle of attack must be decreased or the angle of bank increased
c) Both the angle of attack and the angle of bank must be increased
d) The angle of attack must be increased or the angle of bank decreased

566. If, while holding the angle of attack of the bank constant, the rate of turn is varied, the load factor would:
a) Remain constant
b) Vary depending on speed
c) Vary depending on weight
d) Increase if speed were increased

567. To increase the rate of turn, and at the same time decrease the radius, a pilot should:
a) Shallow the bank and decrease the airspeed
b) Steepen the bank and increase the air speed
c) Shallow the bank and increase the airspeed
d) Steepen the bank and decrease the air speed

568. While maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a co-ordinated turn:
a) A decrease in airspeed will decrease the rate of turn, resulting in a decreased load factor
b) An increase in airspeed will decrease the rate turn, resulting in a decreased load factor
c) An increase in airspeed will increase the rate turn, resulting in a increased load factor
d) An increase in airspeed will increase the rate turn, resulting in a decreased load factor

569. Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a medium to steep banked turn?
a) The rudder‟s function has been transferred to the elevator as the bank approaches 45 0
b) To keep the aeroplanes nose moving in the direction of the turn
c) To compensate for the loss of vertical lift, and the increased centrifugal force
d) To compensate for the effect of drag caused by the deflection of the ailerons

570. To produce the desired effect, trim tabs must be adjusted:

a) In a direction, so as to remain flush with the control surfaces they affect
b) In the same direction as the primary control surfaces they affect
c) In the opposite direction to the primary control surfaces they affect
d) In a direction, depending on the design of the trim tab controls

571. The size of the factor, during a level co-ordinated turn in smooth air, depends upon the :
a) Density height
b) Rate of turn
c) Angle of bank
d) True airspeed
 73

572. Which statement best describes constant altitude flight, at an airspeed above the speed corresponding to minimum
drag, i.e. flight in the „region of normal command‟?
a) A change in air speed requires no change in power setting
b) A higher airspeed requires a lower power setting
c) A lower air speed requires a higher power setting
d) A lower air speed requires a lower power setting

573. Indicated stall speed is affected by:

a) Angle of attack, weight and density
b) Weight, load factor and power
c) Weight, density height, power and turbulence
d) Load factor, angle of bank and power

574. One of the main functions of flaps during the approach to land is to:
a) Decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed
b) Permit a touchdown at a higher indicated speed
c) Increase the angle of descent without increasing airspeed
d) Decrease lift, thus enabling a steeper –than –normal approach to be made

575. In a „high speed stall‟ the stalling angle of attack is :

a) Greater than in normal flight, with power off
b) Less than in normal flight, with power off
c) The same as in normal flight, with power off
d) Entirely dependent upon the wing loading at the stall

576. If the IAS is held constant, the gliding distance for a reduced weight will be:
a) Increased
b) Unchanged
c) Decreased
d) Unchanged, provided the angle of attack for MAX L/D is maintained

577. At the same airspeed, a low aspect ratio wing will have (in comparison with a high aspect ratio wing):
a) Increased wing performance when in a climbing attitude
b) Decreased drag, especially at low angles of attack
c) Decreased drag, especially at high angles of attack
d) Increased drag, especially at high angles of attack

578. The angle of attack of a wing directly controls the :

a) Amount of airflow above and below the wing
b) Point at which the CoG is located
c) Distribution of positive and negative pressure acting on the wing
d) Angle of incidence of the wing

579. As airspeed increases in level flight, total drag of an aero plane becomes greater than the total drag produced at the
MAX L/D speed because of the :
a) Increase in induced drag
b) Increase in parasite drag
c) Decrease in parasite drag
d) Decrease in induced drag
 74

579 . Two aeroplanes start climbing at the same time and at the same rate, one climbing downwind and the other
climbing upwind. After a set time, :
a) The downwind aeroplane will be higher than the upwind aeroplane
b) Both aeroplanes will be the same distance from their standing point
c) The upwind aeroplane will be higher than the downwind aeroplane
d) Both aeroplanes will be at the same height

580. When flying close to the ground and turning from downwind to upwind, and aeroplane appears to be :
a) „Over-banked‟ i.e. slipping in towards the centre of the turn
b) „Under-banked‟ i.e. skidding out from the turn
c) Stalling because of the reduced ground speed
d) Descending because of the increased ground speed

581. Rotation about the lateral axis is known as :

a) Pitching, and is controlled with the elevator
b) Rolling, and is controlled with the ailerons
c) Yawing, and is controlled with the ailerons
d) Yawing, and is controlled with the rudder

582. Which statement is correct, with respect to rate and radius of turn, for an aeroplane flown in a co-ordinated turn,
at a constant altitude?
a) For any specific angle of bank and airspeed, the lighter the aeroplane, the faster the rate, and smaller the
radius, of turn
b) For a specific angle of bank and airspeed, the rate and radius of turn will not vary
c) The faster the true airspeed, the faster the rate and larger the radius, regardless of the angle of bank
d) To maintain a steady rate of turn, the angle of bank must be increased as the airspeed is decreased

583. The ratio between the total air load imposed on the wing, and the gross weight of an aeroplane in flight, is
known as the :
a) Load factor
b) Power loading
c) Aspect ratio
d) Yield load

584. The indicated stalling speed of an aeroplane is most affected by :

a) Changes in air temperature
b) Changes in air density
c) Variations in flight attitude
d) Variations in aeroplane loading

585. To produce the same lift while in ground effect, as when out of ground effect, an aeroplane requires :
a) Greater thrust and the same angle of attack
b) The same angle of attack
c) A greater angle of attack
d) A lower angle of attack
 75

586. An aeroplane in straight and level flight has a stall speed of 50KTs, with 25 0 flap lowered. At the same flap
setting (and weight), the stall speed in a 450 banked turn will be :
a) 60Kts
b) 50Kts
c) 70Kts
d) 100Kts

587. The weight of an aircraft acts :

a) At right angles to the thrust
b) At right angles to the drag
c) In the opposite direction to the lift
d) Vertically downward

588. An aeroplane is pulled to earth by the action of gravity, this force is known as :
a) Drag
b) Thrust
c) Weight
d) Lift

589. Weight of an aircraft :

a) Is an artificially created force
b) Is constant with time
c) Decreases with time
d) Increases with time

590 . Weight is measured in :

a) lbs. per sq. inch
b) lbs. wt. per sq. inch
c) lbs.
d) lbs. wt.

591. Curvature of an aerofoil section is the :

a) Chord line
b) Angle of attack
c) Camber
d) Angle of incidence

592. Bernoulli‟s theorem is concerned with :

a) Pressure Plotting
b) Movement Of The Centre Of Pressure
c) Dynamic Pressure And Dynamic Energy
d) Static Pressure And Dynamic Pressure

593. Aircraft weighs 3, 000 lbs. wt. The wing area is 75 sq. ft. What is the wing loading?
a) 20 lbs / sq. ft.
b) 40 lbs / sq. ft.
c) 15 lbs / sq. ft.
d) 30 lbs / sq. ft.
 76

594 Which of the following statements most correctly explains how lift is produced by aerofoil?
a) The camber and / or angle of attack extend the path of the air over the upper surface of the wing,
causing the airflow to decelerate, and so, increase the static pressure
b) The camber and / or angle of attack shorten the path of the air over the upper surface of the wing,
causing the airflow to accelerate, and so, decrease the static pressure
c) The camber and / or angle of attack extend the path of the air over the upper surface of the wing,
causing the airflow to accelerate, and so, decrease the dynamic pressure
d) The camber and / or angle of attack extend the path of the air over the upper surface of the wing,
causing the airflow to accelerate, and so, decrease the static pressure
595. Change in dynamic pressure around an aerofoil is caused by :
a) Movement of the air
b) Change in static pressure
c) Movement of the centre of pressure forward
d) Increase in wing loading

596. Lift on an aerofoil is said to act :

a) Perpendicular to the chord line
b) From the centre of pressure
c) At the point of maximum camber
d) At right angles to the span

597. The length of the wings from wing tip to wing tip is known as the :
a) Camber
b) Span
c) Chord
d) Chord line

598. Thrust acts through:

a) The c.p.
b) The propeller shaft
c) The c.g.
d) The drag line

599. The airflow over the lower surface of an aerofoil is :

a) Slowed down and increases static pressure
b) Slowed down and decreases static pressure
c) Speeded up and increases static pressure
d) Speeded up and decreases static pressure

600. What are the four forces acting on an aeroplane?

a) Lift, drag, weight, density
b) Drag, lift, torque, static pressure
c) Thrust, drag, lift, weight
d) Weight, thrust, lift, gravity
601. The point on an aerofoil surface, where the laminar flow becomes turbulent, is known as the :
a) Centre of pressure
b) Transition point
c) Boundary layer
d) Centre of gravity
 77

602. The point through which weight is said to act is the

a) Centre of pressure
b) Centre of gravity
c) Main plane
d) Cockpit

603. The force which acts along the propeller shaft is known as :
a) Drag
b) Weight
c) Thrust
d) Lift

604. Lift acts :

A. Opposite to weight
B. At right angles to the relative airflow and through the c.g.
C. Vertically upwards
D. At right angles to the relative airflow

605. The property of the atmosphere known as destiny is :

a) Weight per unit volume
b) Weight per unit height
c) Mass per unit volume
d) Mass per unit area

606. The curvature of the line midway between the upper and lower surfaces of the aerofoil is known as :
a) The chord
b) The camber
c) The span
d) The chord line

607. The chord line is :

a) The curved line midway between the upper and lower surfaces of the aerofoil
b) The straight line joining the leading edge to the trailing edge of the aerofoil
c) The straight line joining wing tip to wing tip
d) A straight line joining the upper and lower surfaces of anaerofoil

608. Select the answer that contains only factors affecting the production of lift :
a) Camber, angle of attack, density, velocity
b) Boundary layer, camber, angle of attack, speed
c) Density, velocity, upwash, camber
d) Velocity, wing loading, camber, angle of attack

609. The length of the chord line is known as the :

a) Thickness
b) Chord
c) Camber
d) Span
 78

610. The average stalling angle of an aerofoil is :

a)
80
b)
120
c)
160
d) 200

611. Which of the following terms refers to the upward flow of air ahead of the wing, and the downward flow of air
behind the wing?
a) Laminar flow
b) Upwash and downwash
c) Relative airflow
d) Boundary layer

612. The wings produce :

a) Lift and weight
b) Lift and thrust
c) Only lift
d) Lift and drag

613. The weight of an aircraft is due to :

a) The action of gravity
b) The centre of gravity
c) The reaction of lift
d) The c.p.

614. Thrust is created by :

a) The relative airflow
b) The pressure change around the wing
c) An engine – driven airscrew
d) The engine

615. In level flight,

a) THRUST = LIFT
b) LIFT = WEIGHT
c) WEIGHT = DRAG
d) LIFT = DRAG

616. changes in the centre of pressure of a wing affect the aeroplane’s:

a) Aerodynamic balance and controllability
b) Cog location
c) Load carrying
d) Lift/drag ratio
 79

617 . During flight with zero angle of attack, the pressure along the upper surface of the wing would be:
a) Less than atmospheric pressure
b) Equal to atmospheric pressure
c) Greater than atmospheric pressure
d) Greater than the pressure below the wing

618 . in a co- ordinted turn at a constant bank angle , the higher the airspeed, the:
a) Smaller the radius, and the slower the rate of turn
b) Greater the radius, and the faster the rate of turn
c) Smaller the radius, and the faster the rate of turn
d) Greater the radius, and the slower the rate of turn

619 . when descending, a tailwind causes:

a) A higher rate of descent
b) An increased angle of descent
c) A decreased angle of descent
d) An increase in the stalling

620. the purpose of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces is to:

a) Reduce the possibility to control surface flutter
b) Prevent excessive loading of the aero plane‟s structure
c) Reduce the size of the control forces exerted by the pilot
d) Make the aero plane easier to trim when the cog is at either it‟s forward or aft limit

621. which statement is true concerning the use of flaps during approach and landing?
a) Flaps decrease lift, which increases the stall speed
b) Flaps provide an increase in lift
c) A steeper than normal approach is necessary, due to the increase in stall speed
d) The airspeed does not deteriorate as rapidly when the landing flare is started

622. a tail wheel aero plane ( with a clockwise rotating propeller) tends to swing from a straight path when taking off ,
due to:
a) Slipstream effect on the fin, the torque of the engine, and the gyroscopic effect of the propeller
b) Ground effect , torque of the engine, and the gyroscopic effect of the propeller
c) Gyroscopic effect of the propeller, ground effect and the slipstream effect on the fin
d) Ground effect, the slipstream effect and the slipstream effect on the fin, and the torque of the engine

623. Two indications, each of which alone provides an adequate indication to the pilot, of an impending stall are:
a) Low engine power and nose high attitude
b) Ineffective elevator control and low engine power
c) Control or fuselage „shudder‟ an ineffective elevator control
d) Nose high attitude and control or fuselage „shudder‟

624. The largest moment (i.e. turning effect) of the vertical fin will occur when:

a) The centre of gravity is forward

b) The centre of gravity is aft
c) the centre of gravity is central
d) the centre of gravity is slightly aft of central
 80

625. Which type of flap works by increasing the effective wing area?

a) Simple flaps
b) Split flaps
c) Fowler flaps
d) Differential flaps

626. On a wing what is the chord line ?

a) A line drawn from the leading edge to the trailing edge, following the curvature of the wing ?
b) An upwardly gentle curved line from the leading edge from the leading edge to the trailing edge
c) An strait line drawn from the wing root to the wing tip
d) A strait line from the leading edge to the trailing edge

627. If the trim tab of an elevator is raised what happen to the elevator and pitch attitude of the aircraft?

a) The elevator will rise and the aircraft will pitch down
b) The elevator will lower and the aircraft will pitch down
c) The elevator will lower and the aircraft will pitch up
d) The elevator will rise and the aircraft will pitch up
e)

628. Which of the flowing is not an example of an aerodynamic balance which is primarily designed to reduce control
loads to the pilot?

a) A horn balance
b) A mass balance
c) An inset hinge
d) A balance tab

629. When is induced drag at its greatest level ?

a) Low angles of attack and high airspeeds

b) Low angles of attack and low airspeeds
c) High angles of attack and low airspeeds
d) High angles of attack and high airspeeds

630. Dose the use of flaps affect the aircrafts lateral stability?
a) No, because they are lowered symmetrically
b) No, because they have a mechanical limited range
c) Yes, because they move the effective centre of lift away from the wing tips
d) Yes, they increase the stability because the wings produce more lift

631. which of the following statements concerning lift, drag ,thrust and weight are true for most light aircrafts ?
a) The lift and weight forces are higher than the thrust and drag forces
b) The lift and drag forces are higher than the thrust and weight forces
c) The lift and thrust forces are higher than the weight and drag forces
d) The lift and weight forces are similar to the thrust and drag forces

632. At normal cruising speed , approximately where is the centre of pressure located?
a) At the front of the wing, behind the leading edge
b) Near the centre of the wing
c) Near the trailing edge of the wing
d) Near the leading edge of the wing , close to the wing tip
 81

633. The balance ball is used to indicate :

a) Changes in pitch
b) Roll
c) Yaw
d) Acceleration

634.which of the following flap designs is generally acknowledged to be the most efficient at increase the co-efficient of
lift?
a) Simple flap
b) Fowler flap
c) Split flap
d) Slotted flap

635. The primary effect in using the elevators is in pitch. What is the secondary effect
a) Roll
b) Yaw
c) A change in airspeed
d) Further changes in pitch

636. Is the performance of the rudder affected by engine speed in a light single engined aircraft fitted with a fixed pitch
propeller?
a) Yes, rudder effectiveness will increase with increasing engine speed
b) No, rudder effectiveness is not effected by engine speed
c) Yes, rudder effectiveness is decreased by an increasing engine speed
d) No, rudder effectiveness is determined by airspeed , not engine speed

637. Your aircraft is fitted with an anti-balance tab. If you were to lift the elevator in what direction will the tab move?
a) Upwards
b) Downwards
c) It will not move because this tab is controlled separately from the cockpit
d) It will not move because the tab is independent controlled by the york

638. Which of the following instruments measures dynamic pressure?

a) The altimeter
b) The ASI (Air Speed Indicator)
c) The VSI (Vertical Speed Indicator)
d) The AI (Attitude Indicator)

639. Many unpressurised aircraft are fitted with an alternative static port which measures cabin air pressure. What effect
will this have on your ASI (Air Speed Indicator) reading when the alternate static is selected?
a) It will have no effect on the ASI as this measures dynamic pressure
b) It will cause the ASI to over read the actual airspeed slightly
c) It will cause the ASI to under read the actual airspeed slightly
d) It will cause the ASI to over read momentarily
 82

640. In general, increasing the camber of a wing will result in the production of:
a) More lift
b) More drag with little increase in lift
c) Less lift
d) Less lift, but at reduced levels of drag

641. Differential ailerons aim to reduce adverse yaw. How do they work?
a) The upgoing aileron moves less than the downgoing one
b) Both ailerons move perfectly symmetrically
c) The downgoing aileron moves less than the upgoing one
d) One aileron starts moving before the other one

642. The primary effect of aileron input is roll. What is the secondary effect?
a) An increase in airspeed
b) Pitch
c) Yaw
d) More roll

643. Stability around the longitudinal axis is called:

a) lateral stability
b) directional stability
c) longitudinal stability
d) core stability

644. How can a castoring nosewheel be made to turn?

a) By the use of rudder when at speed

b) By the use of differential brakes
c) By the use of hydraulic steering or cable linkages
d) By the use of either rudder (at sufficient speed) or differential brakes

645. How is vacuum created in a typical modern light aircraft?

a) By means of an electrical vacuum pump
b) By an engine driven mechanical pump
c) By the use of a venturi tube attached to a wing
d) By a tube that is placed into the low pressure zone of the upper wing
 83

646. When taxying on the ground, you make a turn to the left. What should your AI (Attitude Indicator) show?
a) It will show a turn to the left and a change in pitch attitude
b) It will show a turn to the left
c) It will show a turn to the right
d) It should not show a turn

647. Whilst in a turn to the right, you notice the balance ball is out to the left. What is happening, and how should you
correct this?
a) The aircraft is skidding and you should decrease your right rudder input
b) The aircraft is slipping and you should increase your left rudder input
c) The aircraft is slipping and you should increase your right rudder input
d) The aircraft is skidding and you should decrease your left rudder input

648. A heavily tapered wing will produce:

a) Stronger wingtip vortices
b) Weaker wingtip vortices
c) Almost no wingtip vortices
d) No wingtip vortices

649. On an aircraft wing, what is the purpose of washout?

a) To prevent a wing drop at the stall
b) To ensure that at high angles of attack, the wing tips will stall first
c) To provide maximum lift at all angles of attack and airspeeds
d) To cause the wing root to stall first, reducing the risk of a wing drop

650. Which part of the wing structure determines the camber of the wing?
a) The spars
b) The longerons
c) The stringers
d) The ribs

651. In comparatively denser air, dynamic pressure will be:

a) Slightly reduced
b) Increased
c) Unchanged
d) Significantly reduced

652. Which of the following conditions may arise as a result of trying to pick up a dropped wing using aileron at very
slow speeds?
a) A stall
b) A balloon
c) A spin
d) A spiral dive

653. With reference to an aerofoil, what is the angle of attack?

a) The angle between the chord line of the wing and the horizontal axis
b) The angle between the chord line of the wing and the longitudinal axis
c) The angle between the chord line of the wing and the relative airflow
d) The angle between the mean camber line of the wing and the lateral axis

654. Does the use of flaps affect the aircraft's lateral stability?
a) No, because they are lowered symmetrically
b) No, because they have a mechanically limited range
c) Yes, because they move the effective centre of lift away from the wing tips
d) Yes, they increase the stability because the wings produce more lift
 84

655. In level flight, which force acts to oppose the weight of the aircraft?
a) Thrust
b) Power
c) Drag
d) Lift

656. What effect will the use of a flap setting recommended for take-off have?
a) It will reduce the ground roll
b) It will increase the ground roll
c) It will increase the rate of climb once airborne
d) It will reduce the ground roll and the increase the rate of climb once airborne

657. Which of the following statements is true?

a) Lift opposes drag, and thrust opposes weight
b) Lift opposes weight, and thrust opposes drag
c) Weight and drag oppose lift
d) Lift opposes drag

658. When turning to starboard, the port aileron will:

a) Move down
b) Move up
c) Move right
d) Move in the same direction as the starboard aileron

659. The ASI (Air Speed Indicator) of a light aircraft displays:

a) Dynamic pressure
b) Total pressure
c) Static pressure
d) Ambient pressure

660. The white arc of the airspeed indicator (ASI) describes which of the following speed ranges?
a) From VS0 to VNO
b) From VS0 to VFE
c) From VS1 to VNO
d) From VS1 to VFE

661. What information does the VSI (Vertical Speed Indicator) pass to the pilot?
a) Rate of descent or climb
b) Altitude information
c) Changes in the rate of descent or climb
d) Rate (and changes in the rate) of descent or climb

662. Whilst checking the DI (Direction Indicator) on the ground, you turn left whilst taxying. The indicated heading
should:
a) Decrease
b) Not be affected
c) Increase
d) Show a roll to the right

663. If you are slipping into a left turn, what would happen to the balance indicator?
a) It would also fall to the left
b) It would move to the right
c) It would stay centred during the turn
d) It would be pinned to the right during the slip
 85

664. The primary effect in using the elevators is in pitch. What is the secondary effect?
a) Roll
b) Yaw
c) A change in airspeed
d) Further changes in pitch

665. The pressure due solely to airflow and movement is known as:
a) Static pressure
b) Dynamic pressure
c) Total pressure
d) Pitot pressure

666. The stall speed of an aircraft is defined at which weight?

a) Aircraft maximum all up weight
b) Aircraft basic empty weight
c) Average weight with half fuel and 2 passengers
d) Basic empty weight plus full fuel and oil and a 200lb allowance for the pilot

667. As aircraft forward speed increases, what happens to the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller spinning at a
steady speed?
a) Nothing - the angle of attack stays the same
b) The angle of attack decreases
c) The angle of attack increases
d) Nothing - the angle of attack is fixed by the blade curvature

668. An older aircraft draws a source of vacuum for its gyro instrumentation from a venturi tube mounted on the side
of the aircraft. What is the principal disadvantage of this system?

a) It is technically more complex than the modern design, with more moving parts that
may fail
b) It increases overall drag on the aircraft due to the interference with airflow
c) It adds weight to the aircraft compared with the engine driven vacuum pump
d) It requires forward motion of the aircraft before the system will work

669. What effect will deploying flaps have on the aircraft stall speed?
a) It will increase
b) It will reduce
c) It will be unaffected
d) It will reduce the stall speed at all flap settings other than full flap
 86

670. The photograph below shows the flap assembly, viewed from the side. What sort of flap is being extended?

a) Simple flap
b) Split flap
c) Slotted flap
d) Fowler flap

671. A Frise aileron will:

a) Increase the drag of the ascending wing

b) Decrease the drag of the ascending wing
c) Increase the drag of the descending wing
d) Decrease the drag of the descending wing

672. Aircraft designs that incorporate inset hinges and horn balances on the elevators aim to:
a) Reduce the effort needed to move the elevators in flight
b) Increase the effort needed to move the elevators in flight to provide 'feel' and
feedback
c) Trim the aircraft around the lateral axis
d) Increase stability around the lateral axis

673. A nosewheel is free to turn to the left and right, and is not controlled by any cables. This type of nosewheel is said
to be:
a) Cambered
b) Castoring
c) Uncontrolled
d) Freely cantering
 87

674. Study the photograph of this aircraft wing. What sort of drag does this wingtip design seek to reduce?

a) Induced drag
b) Form drag
c) Parasitic drag
d) Interference drag

675. Your aircraft is fitted with a balance tab. If you were to push the elevator down during your walkaround, in what
direction will the tab move?
a) It will not move as this tab is controlled with a separate lever in the cockpit
b) Upwards
c) Downwards
d) It will not move because the balance tab is controlled by the yoke, not the elevator

676. If the trim tab of an elevator is raised, what will happen to the elevator and the pitch attitude of the aircraft?
a) The elevator will rise and the aircraft will pitch down
b) The elevator will lower and the aircraft will pitch down
c) The elevator will lower and the aircraft will pitch up
d) The elevator will rise and the aircraft will pitch up

677. When taxying on the ground, you make a turn to the right. What should your AI (Attitude Indicator) show?
a) It will show a turn to the left
b) It should not show a turn - if it does it may be faulty
c) It will show a turn to the right
d) It will show a slight pitch down attitude

678. If an aircraft wing has significant 'washout' how will this affect the strength of wingtip vortices?
a) It will reduce them as the angle of attack is less at the wingtip
b) It will increase them as the angle of attack is less at the wingtip
c) It will reduce them as the angle of attack is more at the wingtip
d) It will increase them as the angle of attack is more at the wingtip

679. You are in the climb, at an airspeed appropriate for obstacle clearance with full throttle applied. Given that your
aircraft is not of the 'T' tailed variety, which of the following statements is correct?
a) Your ailerons will be more effective than at normal cruise speed
b) Your elevators will be less effective than at normal cruise speed
c) Your rudder will be less effective than at normal cruise speed
d) Your ailerons will be less effective than at normal cruise speed
 88

680. To break out of a spin, in addition to the use of elevators to break the stall, you should generally:
a) Apply opposite aileron to the direction of turn
b) Apply opposite rudder to the direction of turn
c) Apply rudder in the direction of the turn, with ailerons against the direction of turn
d) Apply rudder in the direction of the turn, with ailerons in a neutral position

681. At the angle of attack close to the stall, the coefficient of lift is:
a) At its lowest value
b) Half of its maximum value
c) At its maximum value
d) Zero

682. The balance ball is used to indicate:

a) Changes in pitch
b) Roll
c) Yaw
d) Acceleration

683. A braking system that independently controls braking action on each wheel is known as:
a) Distributed braking
b) Cadence braking
c) Differential braking
d) Castor braking

684. Study the diagram below. What is the structure depicted by the arrow marked 'C'?

a) The propeller blade face

b) The propeller blade back
c) The intake duct
d) The spinner