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 Test Booklet Code A

Stage-II

NTSE TEST SERIES

National Talent Search Examination (NTSE)
for
Stage-1 Qualified Students
Mental Ability and Scholastic Aptitude Test

TEST PAPER-19
 NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) A
(For Stage-1 Qualified Students) CODE

Time : 3 Hours
TEST-19 M.M. : 200

Complete Syllabus Test

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS :
1. There are 200 questions in this test. All are compulsory.
2. The question paper consists of two sections (Section-A : Mental Ability Test (MAT) and Section-B :
Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT))
3. Section A (MAT) contains 50 questions and Section B (SAT) contains 150 questions in two parts.
(Part-I : Language Test : 50 questions and Part-II : Aptitude Test : divided into three sections. Section-I is
having 40 questions of Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology), Section-II is having 20 questions from
Mathematics and Section-III is having 40 questions of Social Science.
4. Use only a ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.
5. The mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
6. Darken only one circle for each question.
7. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on the Answer sheet.
8. Each question carries 1 mark. There is 0.333 marks negative marking for every wrong answer.

Section A : MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)

Choose the correct answer :
Directions (Q1 to Q3) : Complete the following patterns. 5. K__PCT__CKPCKTC__TPKTP__
1. 10, 30, 68, 130, 222, ?
(1) KPTC (2) KPKK
(1) 450 (2) 350
(3) TPKC (4) TPCK
(3) 405 (4) 420
2. 7, 3, 11, 12, 19, 48, 31, ?, ?. 6. a__aab__aabaa__a__
(1) 192, 47 (2) 192, 57 (1) baab (2) abab
(3) 47, 57 (4) 64, 124
(3) bbaa (4) aabb
3. 11, 23, 49, 827, 1681, ?
(1) 3265 (2) 3363 Directions (Q7 to Q9) : There are four terms in each of
the following question. The term right to the symbol ::
(3) 32243 (4) 32556
have same relationship as to the two terms of the left
Directions (Q4 to Q6) : Following questions are based
of symbol :: out of the four terms one term is missing
on letter series, in each question some letters are
missing shown by (__). The missing letters are given in which is shown by (?) and which is one of the four
a proper sequence as one of the four options given options given below. Find the correct options.
under each question. Find out the correct options. 7. Congress : USA : : Parliament : ?
4. __ __ B __ T __BA __ LO__A__
(1) Philippines (2) India
(1) LTOBTAL (2) LOAOTBT
(3) OABTLOA (4) TLOABTL (3) Argentina (4) Brazil

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Mental Ability Test NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-19 (Code-A)

8. 7 : 350 : : 8 : ?
(1) (2)
(1) 596 (2) 529
(3) 496 (4) 520 (3) (4)
9. DMTP : GOWR : : LSOY : ?
15. Hindi, English, Maths
(1) OUQR (2) OVQB
16. Rajasthan, Jaipur, Delhi
(3) OURA (4) OTUA 17. Home, Room, Road
10. If XYP is code as 325, WXZ is coded as 143, 18. Suresh ranks 9th from the top and 32nd from the
MDN is coded as 769, PWD is coded as 645 and bottom. If Mohan ranks 15th from the bottom, then
ZDM is coded as 176 then what is the code for find rank of Mohan from top.
XYZN?
(1) 25th (2) 28th
(1) 3219 (2) 3259
(3) 26th (4) 27th
(3) 1239 (4) 1539
19. Mohit is brother of Manisha, Manisha is wife of
Direction (Q11) : Choose the correct order of sign from Harish. Karan is father of Mohit. How Harish is
the four options given below so as to make the related to Karan?
equations right. Choose the correct option.
(1) Uncle (2) Brother-in-law
11. 2 _ 3 _ 15 _ 5 _ 2 (3) Father-in-law (4) Son-in-law
(1) – +  = (2) + – = × Directions (Q20 to Q22) : In the following questions, find
(3) –  × = (4) –  = × the odd one amongst the four options.

Directions (Q12 to Q14) : In the following questions the 20. (1) C - 27 (2) E - 125
numbers are on the basis of some rules. Find out the (3) G - 343 (4) K - 1333
correct option for the place of question mark.
21. (1) PRQT (2) ZBAD
8 5 1
(3) LNMO (4) FHGJ
12. 5 9 ? 22. (1) Copper (2) Steel
2 6 4 7 4 3
(3) Zinc (4) Aluminium
(1) 4 (2) 8
Directions (Q23 to Q25) : In the following questions find
(3) 15 (4) 24
out the figure on the place of question mark.
8 3 10 23. Problem figures
13. 23 17 ?
6 7 2 8 4 3 : :: : ?
(1) 20 (2) 22
Answer figures
(3) 19 (4) 27
7 2 3
14. 21 42 ? (1) (2) (3) (4)
8 20 12 32 8 25
24. Problem figures
(1) 30 (2) 25
(3) 28 (4) 63 : :: : ?
Directions (Q15 to Q17) : In the following questions
Answer figures
there are three classes which are related to each other
in some way. Find the Venn diagram given in the option
(1), (2), (3) and (4) which represents the most
appropriate relationship between the given classes. (1) (2) (3) (4)

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-19 (Code-A) Mental Ability Test

25. Problem figures 32. The following figures are the three different positions
of the same dice.
: :: : ?
A 8 8
Answer figures
(i) (ii) (iii)
What is the letter or number at the back of
diagram (iii)?
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) 9 (2) B
26. Find the odd figure from the following four figures.
(3) 7 (4) C
L M T V Directions (Q33 to Q35) : In the following questions, a
transparent sheet with a pattern is given. Which of the
(1) (2) (3) (4)
following four options as how the pattern would appear
27. If holidays are declared only on Sundays and on a when the transparent sheet is folded along the dotted
particular day 11th March 1962 was holiday, then line as shown by the arrow.
on which of the following date will be holiday?
33. Transparent sheet
(1) 22nd Sept. 1962 (2) 23rd Sept. 1962
(3) 24th Sept. 1962 (4) 25th Sept. 1962
5
28. At 25 minutes past 3 O'clock, the angle
11
between minute and hour hand will be
Answer figures
(1) 60° (2) 50°
(3) 45° (4) 75°
Directions (Q29 to Q31) : P, Q, R and S are brothers. (3)
(1) (2) (4)
They have four kids L, M, N and O. There are two boys
and two girls and there is one pair of identical twins. S 34. Transparent sheet
has no kid while the rest have atleast one kid each. L
and M are of same gender. P is not the father of L, Q
is not father of N, R is not father of O and M is the only
child in the family.
29. Who is the father of the twins? Answer figures
(1) Q
(2) R
(3) P (1) (2) (3) (4)
(4) Cannot be determined 35. Transparent sheet
30. Who is the father of M?
(1) Q or R (2) P or S
(3) P (4) S
31. Which of the following are of same gender? Answer figures
(1) L, N
(2) N, O
(3) L, O
(4) Cannot be determined (1) (2) (3) (4)

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Mental Ability Test NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-19 (Code-A)

Directions (Q36 to Q38) : Complete the figure matrix. 41. What is the number of people who read atmost
one newspaper?
36.
(1) 500
(2) 520
?
(3) 420
(4) 530
42. What is the number of people who do not read
(1) (2) (3) (4) Times of India at all?
37. (1) 315 (2) 260
(3) 255 (4) 275
? 43. What is the number of people who read Times of
India and/or Hindustan Times?
(1) 600 (2) 570
(1) (2) (3) (4) (3) 530 (4) 630

38. Directions (Q44 to Q46) : These questions are based

on the sequence of digits given below
5738173534781573373834371818137381315847388
?
44. How many digits have the same digit on their right
and left?
(1) 8 (2) 7
(1) (2) (3) (4) (3) 9 (4) 6
39. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with 45. How many 7's are there that are followed by 3 but
fourth, fifteenth, eighteenth and twenty first letter of not preceded by 5?
the English alphabets, which among them will be
(1) 3 (2) 4
the last letter of the word?
(3) 5 (4) 1
(1) D (2) O
46. How many 8's are there which are preceded by an
(3) R (4) U odd digit but followed by an even digit?
40. A clock is so placed that at 2 p.m. the minute (1) 8 (2) 3
hand points towards north-west. In which direction
(3) 6 (4) 2
does the hour hand point at 6.00 p.m.?
47. If the letters in the word COUNTERPART are
(1) North-West (2) West
rearranged in alphabetical order, then how many
(3) North-East (4) South-East letters will remain in the same position?
Directions (Q41 to Q43) : The following questions are (1) 3 (2) 4
based on the following diagram. There are three (3) 2 (4) 1
newspapers as represented by three circles. The number
given inside and outside is the number of people who 48. In a certain language, if each letter in the English
read those newspapers. Study carefully and answer the alphabet whose place value is a prime number is
questions given below it. coded as 1 and each of the remaining letters is
coded as 2, then what is the code for the word
250 400 DIPSOMANIC?
Dainik Times
Bhaskar 125 15 315 of
India (1) 2221212221
40
70 30 (2) 2212212222
60 200
Hindustan
(3) 2222212221
Times
(4) 2211212221

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-19 (Code-A) Mental Ability Test / Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test)

49. Six people K, L M, N, O and P are sitting around 50. How many triangles are there in the following figure?
a table as per the following conditions.
(i) K and L are opposite to each other.
(ii) O is sitting immediate right of K.
(iii) O and N are opposite to each other.
(iv) P is to the right of N.
(v) Each person is sitting exactly opposite to one
person.
Who is to the right of O?
(1) K (2) N (1) 28 (2) 48
(3) L (4) M (3) 54 (4) 26

Section B : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

(Part-I : Language Test)

Directions (Q51 to Q60) : Read the given passages And our grandparents in America really need to get
carefully and answer the following questions by choosing together; to talk about each other's problems and
the most suitable option. share their solutions with each other; and share the
great camaraderie that only the wisest and most
A. September 9th was National Grandparents Day and
experienced people can have. Unfortunately, there's
September is National Grandparents Month.
been no mechanism, vehicle or online environment
I thought everybody should know because like where grandparents can share this type of
many I tend to get involved in the struggles of community and communications - not even on the
everyday life and forget those that are most Internet. I definitively say there needs to be one.
important to me; those that made me and those 51. In the above passage the author makes a case for
that made my parents.
(1) Bringing people close to their loved ones
America's grandparents don't generally receive as
(2) Bringing awareness among people regarding
much attention, help and love as they need. I must
rights of grandparents
admit to my guilt over spending too little time with
my Grandma before she passed away. (3) Taking care of our grandparents - a need for a
common grandparents' platform
I remember several occasions growing up, where I
liked my Grandma more than my parents. (4) Loving our elders to the core

And they don't get together much; you know, the 52. The demographics mentioned in the passage allude
grandparents. There's no national convention of to
grandparents or AAGP (American Association of (1) The general public
Grandparents) or anything to rally them around the
(2) The North American regions
cause of good, solid, old-fashioned grand-parenting.
(3) The American population
And, they're not a recognized voting section though
with over 70 million American grandparents, they (4) The Asian population
certainly should be. 53. The writing style of the passage is
There is the AARP (American Association of (1) Comparative
Retired People) and though most grandparents
(2) Abstract
might be retired; all retired people are certainly not
grandparents. It wasn't made for grandparents (3) Argumentative
especially and this is where it all falls down. (4) Narrative

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-19 (Code-A)

54. In the last paragraph, the author proposes which of These solitary trees are a delight to watch. When
the following? in bloom, the trees bear spectacular brick red,
yellowish red or white flowers depending on the
(1) A common platform for parents and
soil.
grandparents to spend time together
"The flowers are used in manufacturing 'dhoop' or
(2) An online communion for grandparents of
incense sticks. The tufts are used as filling for
America - a platform for social bonding and
pillows and mattresses. They are preferred over
sharing space together
cotton as they don't stick and form lumps like
(3) A support - A social space for grandparents to cotton does," says Prof. Borthakur. "The spines on
get together and share their experiences the bark of growing plants have medicinal value
while the timber is used in construction to make
(4) A help service for retired grandparents to spend
ceilings and mats in Assam. The tree has many
some quality time together
uses."
55. Which of the following words from the passage can
If you come across a floating tuft, do remember the
best substitute the definition "mutual trust and
'Semal' tree that packs in a lot of uses.
friendship among people who spend a lot of time
together"? 56. The cottony tuft is which part of the 'Semal' tree?
(1) Convention (2) Association (1) Leaves
(3) Community (4) Camaraderie (2) Terminal portion of the branch
B. Sometimes, in summer, you can find white cottony (3) Ends of the root portion
tufts floating in the air. If you are lucky to grab one,
(4) Seed fibre of the fruit
you can use it as a bookmark.
57. Why is 'Semal' tree population restricted to the
Feather light and soft white in texture, these tufts
Eastern side?
can be seen in abundance in open grasslands.
They are aplenty and when they cover the ground, (1) The Eastern side provides dense forest cover
they resemble snowflakes from a distance. These
(2) The Western side does not provide adequate
fibrous tufts come from the Bombax ceiba also
sunlight
known as the 'silk cotton tree' or 'Semal'.
(3) The Eastern side provides sandy soil, open
During summer the spherical brown fruits burst
area and abundant sunlight
allowing the wind to carry the fibrous seeds that
germinate once they fall on the ground. The tree (4) These trees need breezy weather to germinate
attracts birds and one can see monkeys swinging which is only provided by the Eastern side
on its branches and plucking fruits while the
58. Why is Bombax ceiba called as the 'silk cotton
cottony tufts fall.
tree'?
In India, it is planted in parks and on the roadside (1) It has beautiful flowers which are as smooth
because of its beautiful red flowers that bloom in as silk
March and April. "The cottony tuft is actually the
seed fibre that serves as a parachute mechanism (2) It produces cotton tufts
for seed dispersal, which enables the seed to float (3) Its cotton tufts are as smooth as silk and they
in the air," explains S.K. Borthakur, Professor, do not stick like cotton
Plant Taxonomy and Ethnobotany, Department of
Botany, Guwahati University. "The trees grow well (4) It resembles a silk tree
in sandy soil in open areas such as forest fringes, 59. The last paragraph focuses on
river banks and open grasslands. You will never
find these trees in dense forest areas. It needs (1) The use of cotton
plenty of sunlight and has open canopy formation. (2) The importance of silk
The tree grows in abundance in Assam and in
North East and is limited to northern Bangladesh, (3) The use of seed of silk cotton tree
Thailand and Myanmar," he adds. (4) The uses of Bombax ceiba

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-19 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test)

60. Why does the author call the trees 'solitary'? 67. A video conferencing facility had been introduced /
(1) They are found in lone patches (1)
(2) They are only found in Assam, North India and in prisons across Maharashtra in 2010, /
are restricted in northern Bangladesh, Thailand
(2)
and Myanmar
will now be used in other states as well. / No Error
(3) They cannot be found easily
(3) (4)
(4) They are a delight to watch
68. Crackers spoil our environment causing /
Directions (Q61 to Q65) : Fill in the blanks with the
most appropriate option. (1)
61. Ironically, the listeners were both awed and ______ noise and air pollution and /
the performance of the stand-up comedian.
(2)
(1) disgusted by (2) proud of
adversely affect our health. / No Error
(3) enamoured of (4) liked by
(3) (4)
62. Neither of the candidates __________ to bring
69. Redefine your priorities to /
photocopies of the ID proofs.
(1) have been asked (2) has been asked (1)

(3) had asked (4) are asked assure completion of tasks /

63. Always ________ your weaknesses to improve (2)

your chances of being successful. before the given deadline. / No Error
(1) tarnish over (2) focus on (3) (4)
(3) encroach upon (4) deliver on 70. The landlord, as well as the tenants, /
64. The students were asked to ________ their (1)
projects in time.
have been asked to file an official /
(1) turn in (2) turn over
(2)
(3) turn out (4) turn up
complaint against the robbery. / No Error
65. The internet is as old as the telephone, ________
its promise was realised only a decade ago. (3) (4)

(1) until (2) though Directions (Q71 to Q74) : Identify the antonym of the
given capitalized word.
(3) because (4) beside
71. CONDONE
Directions (Q66 to Q70) : The following sentences have
been divided into parts and each part is labelled as (1), (1) Overlook (2) Deemed
(2) and (3), respectively. Identify which part is (3) Punish (4) Regard
unacceptable in Standard English Usage. If there is no
mistake in any part, mark (4). 72. SUMPTUOUS

66. Speaking at a massive rally in / (1) Humble (2) Deluxe

(1) (3) Impressive (4) Precarious

Himachal Pradesh, the PM called for / 73. MUNDANE

(2) (1) Customary (2) Commonplace
Hindu-Muslim unity to fight against poverty. (3) Authentic (4) Extraordinary
(3) 74. SCANT
No Error (1) Inadequacy (2) Sufficient
(4) (3) Multitude (4) Improper

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-19 (Code-A)

Directions (Q75 to Q77) : Five parts of a paragraph are Directions (Q78 & Q79) : The last part of each
given. You are provided with the beginning (S1) and the paragraph is missing. Choose the most appropriate
ending (S5) of this paragraph and other parts are option to complete the paragraph.
jumbled up. Choose the correct order of the jumbled
78. A : It is loaded with antioxidants and nutrients
parts (P, Q and R) to create a meaningful and logical
that have powerful effects on the body.
paragraph.
75. S1 : Whenever you are stuck in a situation B : This includes improved brain function, fat
loss, a lower risk of cancer and many other
S2 : ______________________
incredible benefits.
S3 : ______________________
C : ___________________________________.
S4 : ______________________
(1) This is why green tea is considered beneficial
S5 : Then step by step try resolving the issue
P : It causes more damage than the actual (2) This is why green tea is preferred over milk
problem based tea

Q : Try not to be overwhelmed first (3) One cannot ignore green tea
R : Stay calm and analyze the situation (4) For a healthy life, green tea is essential
Choose the correct option. 79. A : Volcanoes blast hot, solid and molten rock
(1) RQP (2) PQR and gases into the air. As a result, ash can
(3) RPQ (4) QPR fall hundreds of miles downwind of a volcano.
76. S1 : The teachings of our elders stay with us B : If you live near a volcano, active or dormant,
S2 : _________________________ C : ___________________________________.
S3 : _________________________ (1) Ignore any urgent work
S4 : _________________________
(2) Be cautious of your surroundings
S5 : Help is our holistic development as a human
being (3) Be prepared to follow instructions from your
local emergency officials by listening to the
P : Throughout our lives
radio and television
Q : On our overall personality and their values
(4) Let yourself not be fooled by rumours
R : Their blessings and their guidance has an
impact Directions (Q80 to Q84) : Fill in the blanks with the
most appropriate option to complete the passage.
Choose the correct option.
(1) RQP (2) PRQ 80 of the teaching method used, an
(3) QPR (4) RPQ
instructor 81 properly organize the
77. S1 : Helping a stranger in need gives more
pleasure material. The lessons do not stand alone within a
S2 : _________________________ course of training. There must be 82 of
S3 : _________________________ action to lead instructors and their students
S4 : _________________________ through the course in a logical manner towards the
S5 : Without seeking anything in return 83 goal. Usually the goal for students is
P : Than helping a friend a certificate or rating. A 84 plan of action
Q : The gesture of helping complete strangers
is required using an appropriate training syllabus.
R : The feeling of unconditional empathy is
behind 80. (1) Respective (2) Conditioned

Choose the correct option. (3) Regardless (4) Based upon

(1) RPQ (2) QRP 81. (1) shall (2) must
(3) PQR (4) PRQ (3) might (4) could

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-19 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test)

82. (1) the plan (2) a pattern 92. Accidentally on purpose

(3) the pattern (4) a plan (1) Deliberately, but feigning accident
83. (1) desired (2) desirous (2) Demandingly, but with caution
(3) necessary (4) needing (3) Apathetically, but pretending to be interested

84. (1) cautious (2) rudimentary (4) Unintentionally, but with care

(3) systematic (4) imminent 93. Ace in the hole

Directions (Q85 to Q87) : Identify the synonym of the (1) A mysterious event
given capitalized word. (2) A battle won after long time
85. PRISTINE (3) Something that can supply a sure victory when
revealed
(1) Impervious (2) Flawless
(4) A means of achieving success
(3) Premature (4) Beneficial
Directions (Q94 to Q97) : Identify the relationship
86. DAWNING
between the first two words and choose the option that
(1) Converging (2) Understanding exhibits a similar relationship.
(3) Pioneering (4) Emerging 94. Tired : Drawn : : ?
87. CANDID (1) Cautioned : Careless
(1) Unnatural (2) Rehearsed (2) Repaired : Improved
(3) Sincere (4) Shallow (3) Surface : Discharged

Directions (Q88 & Q89) : Identify the most appropriate (4) Menial : Unskilled
one word substitution for the given definition. 95. Free : Acquitted : : ?
88. A small group of people having control of a country (1) Pious : Proper
or organization (2) Required : Needy
(1) Pluralism (2) Theocracy (3) Sentenced : Convicted
(3) Oligarchy (4) Democracy (4) Affluence : Wealth
89. Confined to words, theories, or ideals, and not 96. Poignant : Moving : : ?
leading to practical action
(1) Futile : Immoderate
(1) Platonic (2) Abstraction
(2) Convivial : Sociable
(3) Divination (4) Amnesty (3) Delirious : Sweeping
Directions (Q90 to Q93) : Identify the meaning of the (4) Pedestal : Standing
given idiom/phrase.
97. Established : Unfamiliarity : : ?
90. A piece of action
(1) Demanding : Pliable
(1) A case of commitment issues
(2) Reformist : Patience
(2) An issue to be discussed
(3) Cogent : Vagueness
(3) A state of saturation (4) Mindful : Deliberate
(4) A share in an activity, or in its profits Directions (Q98 to Q100) : Identify the misspelled word.
91. A sight for sore eyes 98. (1) Diffident (2) Calculative
(1) An unwelcome opportunity (3) Forgetful (4) Accussative
(2) A welcome sight; someone or something you 99. (1) Malevolent (2) Juncture
are glad to see
(3) Stupendous (4) Effervecsence
(3) A constant, disturbing gaze
100. (1) Multifaceted (2) Accomodation
(4) A passionate gesture (3) Susceptibility (4) Redeemed

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-19 (Code-A)

Section B : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

(Part-II : Aptitude Test)

SECTION-I

101. A body starts from rest at time t = 0, the 105. If a man increases his speed by 2 m/s, his KE is
acceleration-time graph is shown in the figure. The doubled. The original speed of the man is
maximum velocity attained by the body will be
(1)  2  2  m/s
5
Acceleration

(2) 4 m/s

(3) 1  2 2  m/s
(4)  2  2 2  m/s
10 Time (sec)
106. How much water at 100ºC is mixed with water at
(1) 50 m/s (2) 25 m/s 10ºC so that we get 20 kg of water at 35ºC?
(3) 75 m/s (4) 100 m/s (1) 7.21 kg (2) 10.0 kg
102. Two masses of 1 kg and 2 kg are joined by a (3) 5.55 kg (4) 12.42 kg
massless string, as shown in the figure given
107. Two equal resistances are connected in series
below. The tension ‘T’ in the string is
across a battery and consume a power P. If these
[Assume all surfaces are smooth and the strings are connected in parallel with same battery the
and the pulleys are light.] power consumed will be
(1) 4P (2) P
T
1 kg 2 kg P
(3) 2P (4)
4
20 N 32 N 108. Two long straight wires are set parallel to each
other. Each carries a current in the same direction
(1) 36 N (2) 12 N
and the separation between them is 2r. The
(3) 32 N (4) 24 N intensity of the magnetic field midway between
then is
103. If radius of earth is R, then the depth ‘d’ at which
value of ‘g’ becomes one-fourth is

R 3R .
(1)
4
(2)
4 P

3R R
(3) (4)
8 8 0 i
(1) . (2) Zero
104. A block of steel of size 4 cm × 4 cm × 4 cm is 2 r
weighed in water. If the relative density of steel is
40 0
6, its apparent weight is (3) i (4) i
r r
(1) 5 × 4 × 4 × 4 g
109. In a nuclear reactor which amongst the following
(2) 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 g have the ability to capture the slow neutrons?
(3) 4 × 4 × 4 × 6 g (1) Moderator (2) Coolant
(4) 5 × 4 × 4 × 6 g (3) Concrete wall (4) Control rods

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-19 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test)

110. A fish is looking up through water sees outside 116. State A State B
world contained in a circular horizon. If the refractive Particles can Particles can
4 move freely move freely
index of water is and fish is 24 cm below the within the throughout the
3 bulk available space
surface, the radius of circle in cm is
Identify state A and state B.
24 (1) Gas, solid (2) Gas, liquid
(1) 24 7 (2)
7 (3) Liquid, gas (4) Solid, liquid
117. In order to recover both the components of salt-
72 water mixture, which of the following methods is
(3) (4) 72 7
7 used?

111. A short sighted person uses a lens of power –2 (1) Centrifugation

diopter. The maximum distance of an object, which (2) Crystallisation
he can see without spectacles, is
(3) Distillation
(1) 50 cm (2) 25 cm
(4) Evaporation
(3) 100 cm (4) 10 cm
118. Consider the given reaction
112. A stone is dropped in a lake from a tower 320 m
HCl (aq) + NaOH (aq)  NaCl (aq) + H2O (l)
high. The sound of splash will be heard by the man
after approximately [Take g = 10 m/s2 & speed of 1 - Neutralisation reaction
sound = 340 m/s] 2 - Double decomposition reaction
(1) 16 sec (2) 8 sec 3 - Endothermic reaction
(3) 16.82 sec (4) 8.94 sec Choose the correct option
113. The current through 1  resistance in the circuit (1) Only 1
given below is (2) Only 3
(3) Both 1 & 2
3
(4) 1, 2 & 3
6V 6
119. An insoluble substance ‘X’ is formed, when an
aqueous solution of aluminium chloride is reacted
1
3 with sodium hydroxide. The substance ‘X’ and the
nature of resultant solution respectively are
(1) 1 A (2) 2 A
(1) Al2O3; neutral
(3) 4 A (4) 6 A
(2) Al2O3; amphoteric
114. Which of the following reactions does not follow
(3) NaAlO2; acidic
the law of conservation of mass?
(4) Al(OH)3; basic
(1) CuSO4 + CaCO3  CaSO4 + CuCO3
120. Which of the following pairs represents isomorphs?
(2) 2NaHCO3  Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2
(1) CaSO4.2H2O & NaCl
(3) N2 + 3H2  2NH3
(2) MgCl2.7H2O & FeSO4.7H2O
(4) Pb(NO3)2  PbO + NO2 + O2
(3) CuSO4.5H2O & CaSO4.2H2O
115. The average atomic mass of an element P is
63.55 u. The percentage abundance of isotopes of (4) FeSO4.7H2O & CuSO4.5H2O
63P and 65P are
121. The total number of isomers of C6H14 is
(1) 72.5%, 27.5% (2) 84%, 16% (1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 70%, 30% (4) 65%, 35% (3) 5 (4) 6

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-19 (Code-A)

122. Consider the following : 129. A student observed a slide of the lining of stomach
under microscope. Which of the following must be
Statement I : According to Mendeleev's Periodic
observed by him?
Law, the properties of elements are the periodic
functions of their atomic masses. (1) Squamous epithelium
Statement II : The repetition of physical properties (2) Columnar epithelium
of elements after certain regular intervals is called (3) Cuboidal epithelium
periodicity of properties.
(4) Ciliated epithelium
Now, choose the correct option.
130. Select the group of protozoan diseases from the
(1) Both the statements are correct following.
(2) Both the statements are incorrect (1) Ringworm, diphtheria & anthrax
(3) Only statement I is correct (2) Dengue, malaria & ascariasis
(4) Only statement II is correct (3) Influenza, typhoid & rabies
NO2 (4) Malaria, sleeping sickness & kala azar
131. Grass  Rabbit  Fox  Tiger
123. is
Cl In the given food chain, if the secondary carnivore
CH3 has assimilated 400 J of energy then what amount
(1) 2-Chloro-1-methyl-4-nitrobenzene of energy was assimilated by the producer?

(2) 4-Methyl-5-chloro-nitrobenzene (1) 40 J (2) 4 J

(3) 4-Methyl-3-chloro-1-nitrobenzene (3) 4000 J (4) 400000 J

(4) 1-Chloro-2-methyl-5-nitrobenzene 132. “Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny” was given by

(1) Charles Darwin (2) J.B.S. Haldane
124. The correct order of hydration enthalpy is
(3) Ernst Haeckel (4) Urey & Miller
(1) Li+ > Cs+ > K+ > Rb+ (2) Li+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+
133. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. the
(3) Cs+ > Rb+ > Li+ > K+ (4) K+ > Rb+ > Cs+ > Li+
Klinefelter's syndrome.
125. The standard electrode potential, Eº of H 2O is
(1) The genotype of the affected person is
–0.83 V. Which of the following species can reduce
44 + XXY
H2O?
(2) The sex of the affected individual is sterile
(1) EºH+ = 0.00 V (2) Eº 2+  – 0.44 V female
Fe
(3) The sex characters of affected person is
(3) EFº 2  2.87 V (4) Eº 2+  – 2.87 V sparse body hair, feminine pitched voice,
Ca
feminine pubic hair, etc.
126. The shape of XeOF4 is (4) The affected individuals have long limbs and
(1) Square pyramidal (2) Trigonal pyramid knocked knees
(3) Octahedral (4) Pyramidal 134. Select the correct path of conduction of impulse in
heart.
127. How many teeth in human dentition are
diphyodont? (1) AV node  SA node  Purkinje fibers 
Bundle of His
(1) 20 (2) 12
(2) SA node  Bundle of His  AV node 
(3) 32 (4) 10
Purkinje fibers
128. All of the following are indigenous breeds of
(3) SA node  AV node  Bundle of His 
buffaloes, except
Purkinje fibers
(1) Murrah (2) Surti
(4) SA node  Purkinje fibers  Bundle of His
(3) Azeri (4) Mehsana  AV node

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-19 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test)

135. In the given cross, identify the genotype of parent 138. After heavy exercise, Sheela suffered from
(II). muscular cramps. This happened due to the
accumulation of
Parents: kkSs × (II)
(1) Acetic acid

Offspring: (2) Lactic acid

kkSs
(3) Alcohol
(1) KKSs (2) kkss
(4) Hydrochloric acid
(3) KKss (4) KKSS
139. Which of the following proteins has quarternary
136. Which of the following groups of animals are structure?
coelomates?
(1) Keratin
(1) Dentalium, Echinus and Palaeomon
(2) Fibroin
(2) Metridium, Unio and Taenia
(3) Tropomyosin
(3) Fasciola, Spongilla and Bufo
(4) Haemoglobin
(4) Hydra, Amphioxus and Ascaris
140. Which form of malarial parasite is injected in
137. Ribosome factory is present in the human body by the mosquito?
(1) Suicide bags of the cell (1) Sporozoite
(2) Kitchen of the cell (2) Gametocyte
(3) Powerhouse of the cell (3) Ookinete
(4) Control room of the cell (4) Oocyst

SECTION-II

141. If A, B and C are any three sets, then A – (BC) 144. If a, b, c are digits from 0 to 9 (both inclusive) such
is equal to that ab  bc is divisible by 11 and not all the three
(1) (A – B) (A – C) digits a, b, c are same, then
(2) (A – B) (B – C) (1) a = b
(3) (A – B) (A – C) (2) b = c
(4) (A – B) (B – C) (3) c = a
142. Marbles of diameter 1.4 cm are dropped into a (4) a + c = 2b
cylindrical beaker, of diameter 7 cm, containing
some water. The number of marbles that should be ⎡1 a bc ⎤
⎢ ⎥
dropped into the beaker so that the water level 145. If A  ⎢1 b ca ⎥ , then |A| equals
rises by 5.6 cm, is
⎣⎢1 c ab ⎥⎦
(1) 150 (1) a + b + c
(2) 100 (2) (a – b)(b – c)(c – a)
(3) 250 (3) ab + bc + ca
(4) 200 (4) abc
143. If the equation x2 – kx + 1 = 0 does not have any 146. The number of term in the expansion of
real roots, then (x + y + z)12 is
(1) 4 < k < 12 (2) k < –2 (1) 90 (2) 91
(3) k > 2 (4) –2 < k < 2 (3) 80 (4) 81

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-19 (Code-A)

147. In the figure shown, if the larger circles are of BA

152. If A sin   B sin(  2 ) , then is equal to
radius 1 cm each, and the smaller circle touches BA
each of the larger circles, then the area of the
tan (   ) tan (  )
shaded region is (1) (2)
tan  tan 
tan (   )
(3) (4) 1
tan (  )
153. In a class, there are three sections X, Y and Z
with 25, 40 and 35 students respectively. If the
average marks of section X, Y and Z are 70%,
65% and 50% respectively, then the average marks
of the entire class is
(1) 71% (2) 62%
1 ⎞
(1) 4 ⎛⎜ 1  ⎟ cm
2
(3) 61% (4) 63%
⎝ 2⎠
⎡ 1 ⎞⎤ 154. A coin is tossed three times. The probability of
⎛ 2
(2) 4 ⎢1   ⎜ 1  ⎟ ⎥ cm getting exactly two head is
⎣ ⎝ 2 ⎠⎦
1 1
⎛ 1 ⎞ 2 (1) (2)
(3) 4 ⎜ 1  ⎟ cm 4 8
⎝ 2⎠
3 5
(3) (4)
8 8
⎡ ⎛ 1 ⎞⎤ 2
(4) 4 ⎢1   ⎜ 1  ⎟ ⎥ cm 155. In 1995, the father was 4 times as old as his son.
⎣ ⎝ 2 ⎠⎦
In 2000, the father was 3 times as old as his son.
148. If the sides a, b, c of ABC satisfy the relation Then the father will be twice as old as his son in
a + c = 2b, then the area of the triangle ABC is the year
(1) 2015 (2) 2020
3 3 2
(1) ac (2) b (3) 2025 (4) 2030
4 4
156. In the given figure, ABCD is a parallelogram with
3 3
(3) b b2  (a  c )2 (4) b b2  (a  c )2 AE  BC and AF  CD. If AE = 24 cm,
4 4 AF = 40 cm and area of triangle ABE = 84 cm2,
149. The minimum value of 8 (cos 2 + cos ) is equal then the area of the parallelogram ABCD is
to A D
(1) –17 (2) –9
F
(3) 3 (4) –8
150. If a, b, c and d are digits from 1 to 9 (both
1 B E C
inclusive such that 0.0ab  , then ab  cd
cd (1) 140 cm2 (2) 168 cm2
equals (Assume a  b, c  d) (3) 960 cm2 (4) 1000 cm2
(1) 99 (2) 111 157. In what ratio does y-axis divide the line segment
(3) 64 (4) 74 joining the points (–4, 5) and (3, 7)?
(1) 3 : 7 (2) 4 : 3
151. If a, b, c are distinct real numbers and
(3) 5 : 7 (4) 3 : 5
⎛ a3  b3 ⎞ ⎛ b3  c 3 ⎞ ⎛ c 3  a3 ⎞
⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟ 158. An interior angle of a regular polygon of n side, in
⎝ ab ⎠ ⎝ bc ⎠ ⎝ c a ⎠
the circular system is x radian. Then x is equal to
⎡ 1 ⎛ a  b ⎞ 1 ⎛ b  c ⎞ 1 ⎛ c  a ⎞⎤
k⎢ ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ ⎥ , then k equals (n  1)
⎣ c ⎝ a  b ⎠ a ⎝ b  c ⎠ b ⎝ c  a ⎠⎦ (1) (2) (n – 2)
2n
(1) – abc (2) abc
(n  2) (n  1)
(3) 1 (4) –1 (3) (4)
n n
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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-19 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test)

159. Two circles of radii 12 cm and 5 cm are concentric. 160. If A is the AM between a and b, then the value of
The length of a chord of the larger circle which A  2a A  2b
 is equal to
touches the smaller circle is Ab Aa
(1) 119 cm (2) 2 119 cm (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 26 cm (4) 2 13 cm (3) 4 (4) 5

SECTION-III

161. The Marseillaise is the national anthem of 166. Who was the worst sufferers in Nazi Germany?
(1) Germany (2) Italy (1) Russians
(3) Russia (4) France (2) People of Poland
162. The guillotine is a (3) Jews
(1) Device consisting of two poles and a blade (4) Gypsies and blacks
with which a person is beheaded
167. Assertion (A) : Foresters and villages has very
(2) Betrayal of one's country or government different ideas of what a good forest should look
(3) New constitution introduced in France in 1791 like.
(4) System of administration in which real wages Reason (R) : The forest department wanted
were to be reduced to 20 percent forests with a mixture of species to satisfy needs
of fuel; fodder and leaves but villages wanted trees
163. Assertion (A) : Most of the members of the
that were suitable for building ships or railways.
Bolshevik party of Russia were initially surprised
by April Theses. (1) A is true but R is false
Reason (R) : They thought that the time was not (2) A is false but R is true
yet ripe for a socialist revolution and the provisional (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
government needed to be supported. explanation of A
(1) A is true but R is false (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(2) A is false but R is true explanation of A
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct 168. Stubble is/are
explanation of A
(1) A kharif crop
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(2) A rabi crop
explanation of A
(3) Lower ends of grain stalks left in the ground
164. On 16 October 1917, Lenin persuaded the
after harvesting
Petrograd Soviet and the _____ to agree to a
socialist seizure of power. (4) Manure made by silkworms
(1) Bolshevik Party 169. Assertion (A) : Western merchants in the mid-
eighteenth century began an illegal trade in grim
(2) Military Committee
in China.
(3) Aurora Revolutionaries
Reason (R) : The Portuguese had introduced
(4) Russian Congress opium into China in the early sixteenth century.
165. The US entered the Second World War when (1) A is true but R is false
(1) Germany invaded Poland
(2) A is false but R is true
(2) Japan extended its support to Hitler and
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
bombed the US naval base at Pearl Harbor
explanation of A
(3) Germany attacked the Soviet Union
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(4) Germany was defeated by Soviet Army explanation of A

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-19 (Code-A)

170. Assertion (A) : Kerry Packer signed up fifty-one of 176. Assertion (A) : Solar energy and water are non-
the world's leading cricketers against the wishes renewable resources.
of the national cricket boards and for about two Reason (R) : The resources which can be
years staged unofficial tests and one-day reproduced by physical, chemical or mechanical
internationals under the name of world series processes are known as renewable resources.
cricket.
(1) A is true but R is false
Reason (R) : Kerry Packer had seen the money
making potential of cricket as televised sport. (2) A is false but R is true
(1) A is true but R is false (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(2) A is false but R is true
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
explanation of A
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 177. Arunachal Pradesh has abundance of
explanation of A (1) Coal deposits
171. Sans Culottes literally meant (2) Water resources
(1) Those without caps (3) Iron reserves
(2) Those without suitable clothes (4) Petroleum
(3) Those without knee breeches 178. The Buxa Tiger Reserve in West Bengal is
(4) Those without cockade pinned on to a hat seriously threatened by the ongoing.
172. Assertion (A) : Metternich described Giuseppse (1) River valley project
Mazzini as “the most dangerous enemy of our
(2) Expansion of railways
social order.”
(3) Agricultural expansion
Reason (R) : Giuseppe Mazzini was opposed to
democracy and believed in monarchy. (4) Dolomite mining
(1) A is true but R is false 179. Which of the following states has the largest area
(2) A is false but R is true under permanent forests?

(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (1) Uttar Pradesh (2) Madhya Pradesh
explanation of A (3) Assam (4) Maharashtra
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 180. Assertion (A) : Dams are now referred to as multi-
explanation of A purpose projects.
173. The History of the Loss of Vietnam was written by Reason (R) : Dams were traditionally built to
(1) Phan Boi Chau (2) Duy Tan Hoi impound rivers and rain water that could be used
(3) Cuong De (4) Chu Trinh Tao later to irrigate agricultural fields.

174. The Second World War was a war waged for (1) A is true but R is false
_____ years on many fronts, in many places, over (2) A is false but R is true
land, on sea, in the air.
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(1) Four (2) Six explanation of A
(3) Seven (4) Eight (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
175. Chartism was explanation of A
(1) A movement demanding the vote for all adult 181. Which of the following is not a millet?
males
(1) Jowar (2) Rice
(2) A movement to limit hours of work in factories
(3) Bajra (4) Ragi
(3) A movement to decongest urban areas of
182. Urad, moong and masur are the varieties of
London
(1) Pulses (2) Rice
(4) A movement to supress political instability in
France (3) Wheat (4) Vegetables

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-19 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test)

183. Which among the following minerals does not 188. Assertion (A) : Coal, petroleum and natural gas
occur as alluvial deposits? are fossil fuels.
(1) Tin Reason (R) : Remains of plants and animals
which were buried under the earth for million of
(2) Gold
years get converted by heat and pressure into
(3) Gypsum fossil fuels.

(4) Silver (1) A is true but R is false

184. Assertion (A) : Mica is one of the most (2) A is false but R is true
indispensable minerals used in electric and (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
electronic industries. explanation of A
Reason (R) : Mica has excellent dielectric (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
strength, low power loss factor, insulating explanation of A
properties and resistance to high voltage. 189. Which of the following is a beverage crop?
(1) A is true but R is false (1) Tea (2) Jute
(2) A is false but R is true (3) Rice (4) Wheat

(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct 190. The inputs for textile industry may be
explanation of A (1) Cotton (2) Human labour
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (3) Transport cost (4) All of these
explanation of A 191. Consumer Protection Act 1986 is popularly known as
185. Sixty percent of the sugar mills in India are in (1) CPA (2) CPAC
(1) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar (3) COPRA (4) COPAC
(2) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu 192. Tax on imports is an example of

(3) Maharashtra and Punjab (1) Trade export (2) Trade barrier

(4) Haryana and Madhya Pradesh (3) Trade import (4) Trade relaxation
193. The sectors classified into public and private sector
186. Assertion (A) : The Himalayan mountainous region
on the basis of
is unfavourable for the construction of railways.
(1) Employment conditions
Reason (R) : The Himalayan mountainous region
has high relief, sparse population and lack of (2) The nature of economic activity
economic opportunities. (3) Ownership of enterprises
(1) A is true but R is false (4) Number of workers employed drive enterprise

(2) A is false but R is true 194. _____ is not just an expression of poverty, it brings
about poverty.
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(1) Lack of homes (2) Hunger
explanation of A
(3) Lack of clothes (4) Unemployment
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A 195. Illiterate and _____ population are a liability for the
economy.
187. Which of the following factors affect the rate of
humus formation in soil? (1) Literate (2) Healthy
(3) Unhealthy (4) Skilled
(1) Climate
196. In which of the following countries, universal adult
(2) Time franchise was granted first?
(3) Flora, fauna and micro-organism (1) Britain (2) France
(4) Relief (3) New Zealand (4) India

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-19 (Code-A)

197. The name of a system of racial discrimination (1) A is true but R is false
unique to South Africa was (2) A is false but R is true
(1) Apartheid (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(2) Treason explanation of A

(3) Domination (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(4) Constitutional imprisonment
200. Which of the following statements about the
198. What is the minimum age limit to vote in an judiciary is incorrect?
election in our country?
(1) Judiciary can strike down a low if it goes
(1) 16 yrs against the spirit of the constitution
(2) 18 yrs (2) The judges of the supreme court and the High
(3) 20 yrs Courts are appointed by the president on the
advice of the Prime Minister and in
(4) 21 yrs consultation with the chief justice of the
199. Assertion (A) : The UN security council has five supreme court
permanent members. (3) Every law (LAW) passed by the parliament
Reason (R) : Non-permanent members of security needs approval of the supreme court
council are elected by general assembly for five- (4) Any citizen can approach the courts if her/his
year terms. rights are violated

  

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 Test Booklet Code A

Stage-II

NTSE TEST SERIES

National Talent Search Examination (NTSE)
for
Stage-1 Qualified Students
Mental Ability and Scholastic Aptitude Test

TEST PAPER-19
ANSWERS & SOLUTIONS
 NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) A
(For Stage-1 Qualified Students) CODE

Time : 3 Hours
TEST-19 M.M. : 200

ANSWERS
1. (2) 41. (1) 81. (2) 121. (3) 161. (4)
2. (1) 42. (3) 82. (4) 122. (3) 162. (1)
3. (3) 43. (3) 83. (1) 123. (1) 163. (4)
4. (2) 44. (3) 84. (3) 124. (2) 164. (1)
5. (3) 45. (2) 85. (2) 125. (4) 165. (2)
6. (1) 46. (4) 86. (4) 126. (1) 166. (3)
7. (2) 47. (3) 87. (3) 127. (1) 167. (1)
8. (4) 48. (1) 88. (3) 128. (3) 168. (3)
9. (3) 49. (4) 89. (1) 129. (2) 169. (3)
10. (1) 50. (1) 90. (4) 130. (4) 170. (4)
11. (1) 51. (3) 91. (2) 131. (4) 171. (3)
12. (2) 52. (3) 92. (1) 132. (3) 172. (1)
13. (3) 53. (3) 93. (3) 133. (2) 173. (1)
14. (1) 54. (2) 94. (4) 134. (3) 174. (2)
15. (2) 55. (4) 95. (3) 135. (2) 175. (1)
16. (3) 56. (4) 96. (2) 136. (1) 176. (2)
17. (3) 57. (3) 97. (3) 137. (4) 177. (2)
18. (3) 58. (3) 98. (4) 138. (2) 178. (4)
19. (4) 59. (4) 99. (4) 139. (4) 179. (2)
20. (4) 60. (2) 100. (2) 140. (1) 180. (3)
21. (3) 61. (1) 101. (2) 141. (3) 181. (2)
22. (2) 62. (2) 102. (4) 142. (1) 182. (1)
23. (4) 63. (2) 103. (2) 143. (4) 183. (3)
24. (2) 64. (1) 104. (1) 144. (3) 184. (4)
25. (4) 65. (2) 105. (4) 145. (2) 185. (1)
26. (2) 66. (4) 106. (3) 146. (2) 186. (4)
27. (2) 67. (1) 107. (1) 147. (2) 187. (3)
28. (2) 68. (1) 108. (2) 148. (3) 188. (4)
29. (3) 69. (2) 109. (4) 149. (2) 189. (1)
30. (1) 70. (2) 110. (3) 150. (3) 190. (4)
31. (2) 71. (3) 111. (1) 151. (1) 191. (3)
32. (2) 72. (1) 112. (4) 152. (3) 192. (2)
33. (4) 73. (4) 113. (2) 153. (3) 193. (3)
34. (1) 74. (2) 114. (4) 154. (3) 194. (2)
35. (1) 75. (4) 115. (1) 155. (1) 195. (3)
36. (4) 76. (2) 116. (3) 156. (4) 196. (3)
37. (3) 77. (4) 117. (3) 157. (2) 197. (1)
38. (2) 78. (1) 118. (3) 158. (3) 198. (2)
39. (3) 79. (3) 119. (4) 159. (2) 199. (1)
40. (4) 80. (3) 120. (2) 160. (3) 200. (3)

(1)
 NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) A
(For Stage-1 Qualified Students) CODE

TEST-19

ANSWERS & SOLUTIONS

Section A : MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)

1. Answer (2)
23 + 2, 33 + 3, 43 + 4, 53 + 5, 63 + 6
Next term = 73 + 7 = 343 + 7 = 350
2. Answer (1)
The series is combination of two sequences, Odd terms = 7, 7 + 4 = 11, 11 + 8 = 19, 19 + 12 = 31
So, next odd term = 31 + 16 = 47
Even terms = 3, 3 × 4 = 12, 12 × 4 = 48
Next even term = 48 × 4 = 192
Hence, the terms are 192, 47.
3. Answer (3)
4. Answer (2)
5. Answer (3)
KTPC | TPCK | PCKT | CKTP | KTPC|
6. Answer (1)
7. Answer (2)
8. Answer (4)
9. Answer (3)
10. Answer (1)
11. Answer (1)
12. Answer (2)
The number inside the triangle sum of digits of (22 + 62 + 82) i.e., 5.
 Answer is sum of digits of (42 + 32 + 12) i.e., 8.
13. Answer (3)
Required number is the next prime number of the sum of given numbers.
14. Answer (1)
15. Answer (2)
16. Answer (3)
17. Answer (3)
18. Answer (3)
19. Answer (4)

(2)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-19 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

20. Answer (4)

21. Answer (3)
22. Answer (2)
23. Answer (4)
24. Answer (2)
25. Answer (4)
26. Answer (2)
27. Answer (2)
28. Answer (2)

90  x
t
11
2

5 90  x
⇒ 25 
11 11
2
 x = 50°
29. Answer (3)
According to question, Q is not father of N and R is not the father of O. Also, S has no kids. So, P is the
father of twins.
30. Answer (1)
31. Answer (2)
L and M are of same gender and M is the only child in the family. Hence, N and O are twins.
32. Answer (2)
33. Answer (4)
34. Answer (1)
35. Answer (1)
36. Answer (4)
37. Answer (3)
38. Answer (2)
39. Answer (3)
40. Answer (4)
41. Answer (1)
42. Answer (3)
43. Answer (3)
44. Answer (3)
45. Answer (2)
46. Answer (4)
47. Answer (3)
48. Answer (1)
49. Answer (4)
50. Answer (1)

  
(3)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-19 (Code-A)

Section B : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

(Part-I : Language Test)

51. Answer (3)

52. Answer (3)
53. Answer (3)
54. Answer (2)
55. Answer (4)
56. Answer (4)
57. Answer (3)
58. Answer (3)
59. Answer (4)
60. Answer (2)
61. Answer (1)
62. Answer (2)
63. Answer (2)
64. Answer (1)
65. Answer (2)
66. Answer (4)
67. Answer (1)
‘introduced’ is the correct verb form in place of ‘had been introduced’.
68. Answer (1)
‘by’ is required before ‘causing’.
69. Answer (2)
‘ensure’ is required in place of ‘assure’.
70. Answer (2)
‘has’ is required in place of ‘have’.
71. Answer (3)
72. Answer (1)
73. Answer (4)
74. Answer (2)
75. Answer (4)
76. Answer (2)
77. Answer (4)
78. Answer (1)
79. Answer (3)
80. Answer (3)
81. Answer (2)
82. Answer (4)

(4)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-19 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

83. Answer (1)

84. Answer (3)
85. Answer (2)
86. Answer (4)
87. Answer (3)
88. Answer (3)
89. Answer (1)
90. Answer (4)
91. Answer (2)
92. Answer (1)
93. Answer (3)
94. Answer (4)
Both the words are synonymous in nature.
95. Answer (3)
An acquitted person is free of all charges. A convicted person is sentenced and is guilty of all charges.
96. Answer (2)
Both the words have similar meaning and thus share a synonymous link.
97. Answer (3)
An established idea is a familiar idea. It lacks unfamiliarity. Similarly, a cogent argument lacks vagueness.
98. Answer (4)
Accusative
99. Answer (4)
Effervescence
100. Answer (2)
Accommodation

  

(5)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-19 (Code-A)

Section B : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

(Part-II : Aptitude Test)

SECTION-I

101. Answer (2)

Area under (a – t) graph gives change in velocity .

1
Change in velocity =  10  5
2
v – u = 25 m/s

or v = 25 m/s

 vmax = 25 m/s

102. Answer (4)

Here,

 32  20 
a= = 4 m/s2.
3
20 N 1kg T

T – 20 = ma

T – 20 = 1×4

 T = 24 N

103. Answer (2)

We know that,

⎡ d⎤
g= g ⎢1  ⎥
⎣ R⎦

g ⎡ d⎤
= g ⎢1  ⎥
4 ⎣ R⎦

1 ⎡ d⎤
= ⎢1  ⎥
4 ⎣ R⎦
d 1
= 1
R 4
d 3
=
R 4
3
d R
4
(6)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-19 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

104. Answer (1)

We know that
wVg
Density of substance
Relative density (RD) =
Density of water
sVg
s
6= 
w

 s = 6 w
Apparent weight = mg – wVsubg
= sVg – wVg
= 6wVg – wVg
= 5wVg
= 5 × 1 × 4 × 4 × 4g
= 5 × 4 × 4 × 4g
105. Answer (4)
1
KE = mv 2
2
1
m v  2 
2
KE =
2
1
m v  2 
2
 2 × KE =
2
1 1
2  mv 2 = m v  2 
2
or
2 2

v2 =
2

1 2
v  4  4v 
2v2 = v2 + 4v + 4
v2 – 4v – 4 = 0

or v = 2  2 2

or v = 2  2 2
106. Answer (3)
Let m kg of hot water be taken.
 Amount of cold water = (20 – m) kg
We know that,
Heat supplied = Heat gained
m × c × (100 – 35) = (20 – m) × c × (35 – 10)
m × 65 = (20 – m)25
65m = 500 – 25m
90m = 500
500
m= = 5.55 kg
90

(7)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-19 (Code-A)

107. Answer (1)

V2
P= R
eq

In series,

V2
P=
2R

In parallel,

2v 2
P =
R

2v 2 2
P = 
R 2
or P = 4P
108. Answer (2)
The intensity of magnetic field midway will be equal and opposite.
109. Answer (4)
110. Answer (3)
Applying Snell's law,

4
sini × = sin90° × 1 r
3
i
24 cm
3
sini =
4 i

r
Also tani =
24
r 3
or =
24 7

72
r= cm
7

111. Answer (1)

Here,
P = –2 D

1
P=
f

1
f= = –0.5 m
2
So, he can see upto 50 cm, without spectacles.

(8)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-19 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

112. Answer (4)

320 m

Time taken to reach down.

1 2
S= gt1
2

320  2 2
t
10

Time taken by sound to reach up

D = s×t

320
t2 = =0.94
340

 Total time = 8 + 0.94

= 8.94 sec
113. Answer (2)

B
1 1 1
 C
ROC = 3 6 3
6V 6
ROC = 2  O
2A
1
RAC = 3 
A 3

VAC 6
IAC = R = = 2 A
AC 3

114. Answer (4)

115. Answer (1)
Let the percentage of 63P = x%
65P = (100 – x)%

x 100 – x 
 63   65  63.55
100 100
63x + 6500 – 65x = 6355
– 2x = 6355 – 6500 = – 145
x = 72.5%
63P = 72.5%
65P = 100 – x
= 100 – 72.5 = 27.5%

(9)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-19 (Code-A)

116. Answer (3)

117. Answer (3)
118. Answer (3)
119. Answer (4)
120. Answer (2)
121. Answer (3)
122. Answer (3)
123. Answer (1)
124. Answer (2)
125. Answer (4)
126. Answer (1)
127. Answer (1)
Diphyodont teeth grow twice in life.
128. Answer (3)
Azeri is an exotic breed of buffalo.
129. Answer (2)
130. Answer (4)
131. Answer (4)
Tiger is the secondary carnivore in the given food chain.
132. Answer (3)
133. Answer (2)
134. Answer (3)
The correct pathway is
SA node  AV node  Bundle of His  Purkinje fibers.
135. Answer (2)

Parents: kkSs × kkss

kS ks
F1 progeny
ks kkSs kkss

136. Answer (1)

Annelids, molluscs, echinoderms, arthropods, hemichordates and chordates are coelomates.
137. Answer (4)
Nucleolus is also called ribosome factory.
138. Answer (2)
139. Answer (4)
140. Answer (1)

(10)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-19 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

SECTION-II
141. Answer (3)
142. Answer (1)

Volume of water rise in cylinder

Number of marbles =
Volume of marble
2
⎛7⎞
 × ⎜ ⎟  (5.6)
= ⎝2⎠
3
4 ⎛ 1.4 ⎞
⎜ ⎟
3 ⎝ 2 ⎠
= 150
143. Answer (4)
144. Answer (3)

ab  bc  (10 a  b)  (10b  c )

= 11(a + b) + (c – a)

Which is divisible by 11 only if c – a is divisible by 11.

 c – a = 0 or c = a.
145. Answer (2)
146. Answer (2)
Number of term in the expansion of (x + y + z)n is
n  3 1 n 2
C3 1  C2

 Number of term in the expansion of (x + y + z)12

12  2 14  13
= C2  14C2   91
2
147. Answer (2)
Let the radius of the smaller circle be 'r'.
AO = OB = r + 1
AB = 2 B A

Also, AO2 + OB2 = AB2

O
 (r + 1)2 + (r + 1)2 = 22  r + 1 = 2
C D
 r   2  1 cm

So, area of the shaded region

= Area of square ABCD – Area of larger circle – Area of smaller circle [∵ Sum of area of four quadrant
of a circle equal to the area of
circle]

⎡ ⎛ 1 ⎞⎤
 4  .12  ( 2  1)2  4  (4  2 2)  4 ⎢1   ⎜ 1  ⎟ ⎥ cm
2

⎣ ⎝ 2 ⎠⎦

(11)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-19 (Code-A)

148. Answer (3)

2s = a + b + c = (a + c) + b = 2b + b = 3b

 Area of ABC = s(s  a)(s  b)(s  c )

1
 2s(2s  2a )(2s  2b )(2s  2c )
4
1
 3b(3b  2a )(3b  2b )(3b  2c )
4
3
 b (3b  2a)(3b  2c )
4
3
 b 9b2  6b(a  c )  4ac
4
3
 b 9b2  12b2  (a  c )2  (a  c )2 [∵ a + c = 2b]
4
3
 b 3b2  (2b)2  (a  c )2
4
3
 b b2  (a  c )2
4
149. Answer (2)
8(cos 2 + cos) = 8[2cos2– 1 + cos]
= 16 cos2 – 8 + 8cos
= 16cos2 + 8 cos– 8
= (4cos + 1)2 – 9
The minimum value of 8(cos2 + cos) is –9.
150. Answer (3)
1 ab
 0.0ab  ⇒ 999  ab  cd
cd 999

But 999 = 1 × 999

= 3 × 333
= 9 × 111
= 37 × 27
So, either

ab = 37 and cd = 27

or ab = 27 and cd = 37

Hence, ab  cd = 37 + 27 = 64
151. Answer (1)

a3  b3 (a  b)(a2  ab  b2 ) (a  b ) ⎡⎣(a  b )2  ab ⎤⎦
 
ab ab ab

a3  b3 ab(a  b )
  (a  b )(a  b ) 
ab ab

(12)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-19 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

a3  b3 ⎡ 1 ⎛ a  b ⎞⎤
  a 2  b 2  abc ⎢ ⎜ ⎟⎥ …(1)
ab ⎣ c ⎝ a  b ⎠⎦

Similarly,

b3  c 3 ⎡ 1 ⎛ b  c ⎞⎤
 b 2  c 2  abc ⎢ ⎜ ⎟⎥ …(2)
bc ⎣ a ⎝ b  c ⎠⎦
c 3  a3 ⎡ 1 ⎛ c  a ⎞⎤
and  c 2  a 2  abc ⎢ ⎜ ⎟⎥ …(3)
c a ⎣ b ⎝ c  a ⎠⎦

Adding the above equations, we get

⎛ a3  b3 ⎞ ⎛ b3  c 3 ⎞ ⎛ c 3  a3 ⎞
⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟
⎝ ab ⎠ ⎝ bc ⎠ ⎝ ca ⎠
⎡ 1 ⎛ b  c ⎞ 1 ⎛ c  a ⎞ 1 ⎛ a  b ⎞⎤
 ( abc ) ⎢ ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟⎥
⎣ a ⎝ b  c ⎠ b ⎝ c  a ⎠ c ⎝ a  b ⎠⎦
 k = – abc
152. Answer (3)
B sin 
=
A sin(  2 )
BA sin   sin(  2 )
 =
BA sin   sin(  2 )
BA 2sin(   ).cos( )
 
BA 2cos(   ).sin(  )
tan(   )

tan(  )
153. Answer (3)
154. Answer (3)
155. Answer (1)
156. Answer (4)
1
Area of ABE   AE  BE
2
1
  24 cm  BE  84 cm2
2
 BE = 7 cm
 AB2 = BE2 + AE2 = 72 + 242 = 49 + 576
 AB = 625 = 25 cm
 CD = AB = 25 cm
Hence, area of the parallelogram ABCD = AF × CD = 40 cm × 25 cm = 1000 cm2.
157. Answer (2)
158. Answer (3)
Sum of the interior angles = (n – 2) radians
159. Answer (2)
160. Answer (3)

(13)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-19 (Code-A)

SECTION-III
161. Answer (4)
162. Answer (1)
163. Answer (4)
164. Answer (1)
165. Answer (2)
166. Answer (3)
167. Answer (1)
168. Answer (3)
169. Answer (3)
170. Answer (4)
171. Answer (3)
172. Answer (1)
173. Answer (1)
174. Answer (2)
175. Answer (1)
176. Answer (2)
177. Answer (2)
178. Answer (4)
179. Answer (2)
180. Answer (3)
181. Answer (2)
182. Answer (1)
183. Answer (3)
184. Answer (4)
185. Answer (1)
186. Answer (4)
187. Answer (3)
188. Answer (4)
189. Answer (1)
190. Answer (4)
191. Answer (3)
192. Answer (2)
193. Answer (3)
194. Answer (2)
195. Answer (3)
196. Answer (3)
197. Answer (1)
198. Answer (2)
199. Answer (1)
200. Answer (3)

  
(14)
 
  


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