1.

A patient with murderous impulses towards a neighbor gives the neighbor a

bouquet of flowers. This is an example of:
A. Rationalization.
B. Sublimation.
C. Displacement.
D. Repression.
E. Reaction formation.*

2. Secure attachment in an infant is associated with which of the following outcomes?

A. Easy temperament in childhood.
B. Emotional and social competence.*
C. Higher intellectual ability in adolescence.
D. Educational success through childhood and adolescence.
E. Physical coordination and later athletic ability.

3. Which of the following is an example of declarative memory?

A. Skills and habits.
B. Simple classical conditioning.
C. Non-associative learning.
D. Priming.
E. Retention and recall of facts.*

4. A 42-year-old patient in individual psychodynamic psychotherapy describes an angry

confrontation with a friend. The therapist comments that although the patient describes
anger, the patient actually seems very sad. This intervention is best characterized as:
A. Confrontation.*
B. Clarification.
C. Interpretation.
D. Affirmation.
E. Reframing.

5. Children should play together with social interaction and role playing by what age?
A. 2years old.
B. 4 years old.*
C. 6 years old.
D. 8 years old.
E. 10 years old.

6. A patient with cocaine addiction experiences cravings for cocaine whenever passing by a
“ crack-house.” This reaction exemplifies:
A. Operant conditioning.
B. Classical conditioning.*
C. Drug-seeking behavior.
D. Contingency management.
E. Desire to socialize.
7. A patient in individual psychotherapy frequently describes hatred for a “ mean, unfair”
boss. This time, however, the patient adds, “But actually, I have heard my boss talking to
others in the office, and he seems pretty much ok-even his voice sounds so different from
the way I hear him in my head!” According to Fonagy, the patient is demonstrating which
of the following mental activities?
A. Displacement.
B. Sublimation.
C. Imagination.
D. Mentalization.*
E. Altruism.

8. Which of the following best describes Freud’s psychological theory of development?

A. Deficit theory.
B. Drive theory.*
C. Learning theory.
D. Conflict theory.
E. Experiential theory.

9. At what age do children begin to guide their actions in ambiguous situations using cues
from the mother’s facial expression or in her tone of voice?

A. 12 months.*
B. 18 months.
C. 24 months.
D. 30 months.
E. 36 months

10. According to psychoanalytic theory, feelings of persecution are most reflective of which
of the following defense mechanisms?
A. Projection.*
B. Regression.
C. Isolation.
D. Repression.
E. Reaction formation.

11. According to Erikson, the predominant emotional issue in normal, school-aged children
is:
A. Ordinal position.
B. Physical appearance.
C. Identity consolidation.
D. Parental attachment and Love.
E. Personal worth and competence.*
12. A psychiatrist wishes to assess a patient’s premorbid intellectual functioning. Which of
the following tests would be best for this purpose?
A. Reading subtest of the Wide Range Achievement Test (WRAT).*
B. Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery.
C. Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Test Battery.
D. Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE).
E. Benton Test of Visual Retention.

13. Cognitive therapy was developed by:

A. Alfred Adler.
B. Aaron Beck.*
C. Heinz Kohut.
D. Anton Pavlov.
E. B.F. Skinner

14. A patient with depression recounts to the psychiatrist events of the last week and
describes many unpleased experiences, concerns about the sadness of some friends, and a
reluctance to read the newspaper because” all the news is bad.” In cognitive psychology,
which of the following formulations best accounts for this patient’s presentation?
A. Catastrophizing.
B. Information overload.*
C. Learned helplessness.
D. Selective attention bias.
E. Automatic negative thoughts.

15. A 5-year-old child attends the funeral of her grandmother. Later that that evening, the
child says.” I’m worried that grandma may get cold in the casket because of the rain”.
Which of the following concepts of death is the child having trouble understanding?
A. Finality.*
B. Ineviability.
C. Irreversibility.
D. Causality.
E. None of the above

16. The Freudian stage of latency is correlated with Erikson’s stage of:
A. Trust vs. mistrust.
B. Industry vs. inferiority.*
C. Initiative vs. guilt.
D. Autonomy vs. shame.
E. Identity vs. confusion
17. The formation of small peer groups who share values, speech patterns, and manners is
first seen around what age ?
A. 3 years.
B. 5 years.
C. 8 years.*
D. 11 years.
E. 14 years.

18. An infant who engages in an interactive game of peek-a-boo most closely demonstrates
the concept of which of the following cognitive abilities?
A. Centering
B. Egocentrism.
C. Conservation.
D. Object permanence.*
E. Tertiary circular reactions.

19. Which of the following inventories is an objective test of personality that has been
restandardized and normed on adolescents, ethnic minority groups, non-English cultures,
and the elderly, is recommended for use in diverse cultures, and has been translated into
more than 100 languages?
A. Jackson Personality Inventory.
B. Psychological Screening Inventory.
C. Personality Assessment Inventory.
D. Millon Clinical Multiaxial Inventory (MCMI)
E. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI-2).*

20. 2-year-old child with a favorite wool blanket cries if unable to find it and resists leaving
the house or going to bed without it. Which of the following concepts best describes the
child’s attachment to the blanket?

A. Transitional object.*
B. Magical thinking.
C. Object inconstancy.
D. Separation anxiety.
E. Regression.

21. Across all cultures, which of the following stressful life changes is correlated with the
greatest increase in death an illness during the subsequent 2 years?

A. Divorce.
B. Death of a spouse.*
C. Death of a close family member.
D. Incarceration.
E. Personal injury/illness.
22. A cognitive-behavioral therapist works with the patient, among other things, to identify
and correct:

A. Overgeneralization*
B. working memory deficits
C. Tangential thinking.
D. Flight of ideas
E. Maladaptive relationship patterns

23. A 4-year-old child is upset because his ice cream melts. His 10-year-old sibling puts the
ice cream back into the freezer and tells the 4-year-old that it will be as good as new in
few hours. The younger child is inconsolable and insists that the ice cream is ruined.
Piaget’s concept that is understood by the 10-year old, but not the 4- year-old is:

A. Conservation.*
B. Object permanence
C. Reversibility.
D. Deductive reasoning.
E. Abstract thinking.

24. Freud believed patents had fantasies of incest with the opposite-sex parent with feelings
of jealousy towards the same-sex parent during which of the following stages?

A. Oral.
B. Anal.
C. Phallic*
D. Latent.
E. Genital.

25. Which of the following is considered to be a mature defense?

A. Projective identification
B. Projection
C. Introjection.
D. Suppression.*
E. Inhibition

26. A highly motivated patient in psychodynamic psychotherapy finds that he has nothing to
say, which is an example of:

A. Denial.
B. Agnosia.
C. Resistance.*
D. Repression.
E. Alexithymia
27. The notion that our daily lives are highly shaped by unconscious forces is referred to as:

A. Enactment.
B. Internalization.
C. Working through.
D. Psychic determinism.*
E. Pseudo-identification

28. A form of learned fear in which a person or an animal learns to respond more strongly to
an otherwise innocuous stimulus is:

A. Avoidance.
B. Habituation.
C. Helplessness.
D. Panic.
E. Sensitization.*

29. A 50-year-old individual with depression believes that he is responsible for the
destruction of the world. This is an example of a:

A. Delusion of control.
B. Delusion of persecution.
C. Mood-congruent delusion.*
D. Delusion of reference,
E. Pseudo-hallucinatory experience.

30. Abulia refers to an impairment in the ability to:

A. State or identify mood.

B. Swallow solid food.
C. Stand or walk without assistance.
D. Spontaneously move and speak.*
E. Make or understand human gestures.

31. A profound breakdown in both the logical connection between ideas and the overall sense
of goal-directedness of speech is referred to as:
A. Derailment.*
B. Neologism.
C. Tangentiality.
D. Circumstantiality.
E. Flight of ideas.
32. Poverty of speech and poverty of content are aspects of which of the following
conditions?
A. Alogia.*
B. Aphonia.
C. Aphasia.
D. Apraxia.
E. Anhedonia.

33. Recurrent, intense sexually arousing fantasies, urges, or behaviors, including the use of
nonliving objects, are the main diagnostic feature of which of the following disorders?
A. Exhibitionism.
B. Fetishism.*
C. Frotteurism.
D. Masochism.
E. Voyeurism.

34. Asking a patient to recite a series of numbers in reverse order is a standard test of:
A. Orientation.
B. Concentration.*
C. Abstraction.
D. Intelligence.
E. Insight.

35. Erotomania refers to which of the following conditions?

A. Sensate focus exercise.
B. Compulsive masturbation.
C. Delusions of a secret lover.*
D. Hypochondriacal psychosis.
E. Hypersexuality during a manic episode.

36. A psychiatrist asks a patient, “Are there things you must do in a particular way or order?
“With this question, the psychiatrist is trying to elicit:
A. Obsessions.
B. Preoccupations.
C. Phobias.
D. Compulsions.*
E. Delusions.

37. A word that a patient makes up is called:

A. Neologism*
B. Word salad
C. Clang term
D. Confabulation
E. Idiomatic expression
38. Which of the following tasks is most useful in evaluating the patient’s ability to
concentrate?

A. Naming five large cities

B. Reporting current world events
C. Performing serial 7s*
D. Estimating the distance between New York and Los Angeles
E. Remembering three things after 5 minutes.

39. Which of the following symptoms is a specific disturbance in thought content?

A. Circumstantiality
B. Flight of ideas
C. Perseveration
D. Obsession*
E. Blocking

40. Emil Kraepelin is an important figure in the history of psychiatry because of his insight
that:

A. Neurosyphilis is due to a spirochete infection

B. The major mental illnesses have different courses and outcomes*
C. Mental illness is best understood as a biopsychosocial phenomenon.
D. Psychological trauma can be repressed and cause later psychiatric illness.
E. The major mental illnesses are due to physiological abnormalities of the brain.

41. Phillipe Pinel is best known for the development of which of the following treatment
approaches?

A. Phrenology
B. Psychosurgery
C. Electroconvulsive therapy
D. Insulin coma treatment
E. Moral treatment.*

42. Melanie Klein differed from Freud in her emphasis on which of the following factors?

A. Importance of heredity
B. Early object relations*
C. Sociocultural factors
D. Post-Oedipal development
E. Centrality of actual trauma.
43. Which of the following demographics is thought by cross-cultural researchers to best
indicate both a common ancestry and a shared sense of identity, beliefs, and history?

A. Race
B. Ethnicity*
C. Religion
D. Language
E. Socioeconomic status

44. A medical student takes amphetamines to stay awake while studying for an examination.
However, when she takes the examination without any medication, she finds that she has
much greater difficulty than usual remembering the material she studied. This reaction is
an example of:

A. Respondent learning
B. Operant conditioning
C. Negative reinforcement
D. The effect of expectancy
E. State-dependent learning.*

45. An appropriate purpose for projective testing is to:

A. Screen for neuropsychiatric impairment

B. Assess the level of psychological development
C. Detect the presence of subtle psychotic thought processes*
D. Test for intactness of higher-level psychological functions
E. Eliminate the distortion caused by the patient’s uncooperativeness.

46. The studies in which monkeys are raised in varying degrees of isolation have been
important in contributing to which of the following theories of human development?

A. Sociobiology
B. The significance of attachment*
C. The effects of stressful environments
D. Dominance and submission paradigms.
E. The importance of respondent conditioning

47. Rare occurrences of priapism are most frequently associated with the use of which of the
following medications?

A. Bupropion
B. Trazodone*
C. Amitriptyline
D. Benztropine
E. Diazepam
48. The pentobarbital challenge test is useful for:
A. Diagnosing atypical cases of porphyria
B. Confirming a diagnosis of amphetamine toxicity.
C. Estimating the starting dose of the drug for detoxification.*
D. Testing genetic vulnerability to alcohol or sedative drug abuse.
E. Predicting response to hypnosis for chronic pain control.

49. A 27 –year-old patient with a disabling major anergic depression is treated with 60 mg of
tranylcypromine and1.5 gm of 5- hydroxytryptophan (5-HT). The patient develops
colorful visual hallucinations, mild confusion, and myoclonic jerks. A likely diagnosis is:

A. Serotonin syndrome*
B. Noradrenergic crisis
C. Hypertensive crisis
D. Dopaminergic syndrome
E. Anticholinergic syndrome.

50. Excitotoxicity secondary to glutaminergic overstimulation results in neuronal damage

and is the basis of treating patients with neurodegenerative disorders with which of the
following medications?

A. Donepezil
B. Selegiline
C. Pentoxyphilline
D. Galantamine
E. Memantine*

51. Which of the following is the mu opioid partial agonist approved by the FDA for the
treatment of patients with opioid dependence?

A. Levo-alpha-acetylmethadol (LAAM)
B. Buprenorphine*
C. Methadone
D. Naltrexone
E. Naloxone.

52. Which of the following laboratory tests should be conducted prior to intiating lithium
treatment?

A. Calcium
B. Platelet count
C. Alkaline phosphatase
D. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)*
E. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
53. A 46-year-old woman presents with increasing dysphoria. She has progressively
increased the frequency with which she washes her hands to the point of excoriation. She
is fearful that she will make people sick unless she keeps her hands clean. The dosage
range of an effective treatment agent is:

A. Clomipramine, 50mg daily.

B. Fluoxetine, 5 to 10 mg daily
C. Paroxetine 10 to 20 mg daily.
D. Sertraline, 50 to 100 mg daily.
E. Fluoxamine, 200 to 300 mg daily.*

54. Which of the following medications has the LEAST protein-binding?

A. Fluoxetine
B. Sertraline
C. Paroxetine
D. Venlafaxine*
E. Clomipramine

55. The hippocampus and the parahippocampal gyrus mediate:

A. Sensory memory (feelings)

B. Procedural memory (skills)
C. Pattern memory (gestalts)
D. Declarative memory (facts).*
E. Auditory memory (sounds)

56. Most of the human body’s serotonin is located in which of the following areas?

A. Brain
B. Spinal cord
C. Urinary tract
D. Peripheral nerves
E. Gastrointestinal tract*

57. The etiology of benign intracranial hypertension has been linked to:

A. Iron deficiency
B. Hypervitaminosis A*
C. Hypervitaminosis C.
D. Vitamin E deficiency
E. Vitamin B12 deficiency.
58. A patient has recurrent episodes of olfactory hallucinations followed by altered
consciousness and orofacial automatisms. No other abnormalities have been found.
These episodes are most likely due to disease in the:

A. Posterior superior parietal lobe

B. Anterior medial temporal lobe.*
C. Genu of the corpus callosum
D. Lentiform nuclei
E. Upper pontine

59. Which of the following developmental disability syndromes is associated with a triple-
repeat genetic abnormality?

A. Rett’s disorder
B. Down syndrome
C. Fragile X syndrome*
D. Asperger’s disorder
E. Williams syndrome.

60. Fluoxetine is contraindicated with the use of :

A. Lithium
B. Warfarin
C. Diazepam
D. Phenelzine*
E. Chlorothiazide

61. Which of the following benzodiazepines does NOT have active metabolites?
A. Diazepam
B. Halazepam
C. Lorazepam*
D. Chlorazepate
E. Chlordiazepoxide.

62. The amyloid precursor protein, linked to a locus on chromosome 21, is associated with:
A. Pick’s disease
B. Alzheimer’s disease*
C. Huntington’s disease
D. Parkinson’s disease
E. Wilson’s disease.
63. Which of the following antidepressants have also been effective in the treatment of
individuals with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?
A. Bupropion*
B. Citalopram
C. Mirtazapine
D. Nefazodone
E. Fluoxetine.

64. Which of the following substances is most likely to cause a patient to develop persistent
dementia with long-term use?
A. Inhalants*
B. Opioids
C. Phencyclidine
D. Hallucinogens
E. Amphetamines

65. Which of the following benzodiazepines would be most appropriate for detoxification of
a patient with significantly impaired liver function secondary to alcoholic hepatitis?
A. Diazepam
B. Oxazepam*
C. Alprazolam
D. Chlordiazepoxide
E. Clonazepam

66. Which of the following medications reduces clearance and increases serum levels of
lithium to potentially dangerous levels.
A. Ibuprofen*
B. Furosemide
C. Tetracycline
D. Theophylline
E. Carbamazepine

67. The ability of catatonic patients to hold the same position for a prolonged period is
known as:
A. Cataplexy
B. Catalepsy*
C. Stereotypy
D. Echopraxia
E. Avolition
68. Which of the following communication disorders is commonly associated with both
neurologic and psychiatric disorders?
A. Alexia
B. Mutism*
C. Aphasia
D. Agraphia
E. Dysarthria

69. Which of the following suggests delirium rather than dementia?

A. Disorientation
B. Impaired memory
C. Impaired judgment
D. Impaired thinking
E. Clouding of consciousness*

70. Handwashing rituals reflect which of the following defense mechanisms?

A. Regression
B. Repression
C. Undoing*
D. Reversal
E. Projection

71. In “Mourning and Melancholia, “ Freud postulated that the decline in self-esteem that
was experienced by an individual with depression was the result of anger turned inward
against the self. Freud explained that the anger is turned inward due to:
A. An identification with the lost object*
B. A harsh superego
C. A failure to establish good internal objects
D. High levels of constitutional aggression
E. A loss of reality testing

72. Learned helplessness is a model for:

A. Anxiety.
B. Depression*
C. Thought disorder
D. Organic dysfunction
E. Personality disturbance.

73. Wernicke’s disease is best described by which of the following triads of symptoms?
A. Hallucinations, ataxia, and tremors
B. Hallucinations, ataxia, and peripheral neuropathy
C. Hallucinations, confabulation, and peripheral neuropathy
D. Ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, and global confusion*
E. Ophtnalmoplegia, seizures, and confusion.
74. The detachment of the emotional component from perception, such that the patient
experiences the surroundings as if they were a stage set with a colorless and artificial
quality, is characteristic of which of the following?
A. Déjà vu
B. Jamais vu
C. Depersonalization
D. Derealization*
E. Confusion

75. A psychiatrist asks a patient, “Are there things you must do in a particular way or
order?” With this question, the psychiatrist is trying to elicit:
A. Obsessions
B. Preoccupations
C. Phobias.
D. Compulsions.*
E. Delusions.

76. According to the 1990 Global Burden of Disease Study, the leading cause of
neuropsychiatric disability worldwide is:
A. Panic disorder
B. Alcohol use
C. Schizophrenia
D. Bipolar disorder
E. Unipolar major depression*

77. Which of the following represents an objective psychological test?

A. Rorschach Test
B. Draw-a-person Test
C. Sentence Completion Test
D. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
E. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)*

78. The CAGE questionnaire is a simple, sensitive, and semistructured tool used to screen
patients for:
A. Dementia
B. Alcohol Abuse*
C. Cocaine Abuse
D. Anxiety disorders
E. Posttraumatic stress disorder.

79. The validity of an assessment instrument refers to the extent to which it:
A. Measures what it intends to measure*
B. Can be used successfully in cross-national studies.
C. Provides consistent results when used at different times
D. Provides consistent results when used by different examiners
E. Produces higher rates of false-negative measures.
80. Underlying the optimism for impending breakthroughs in psychiatric genetics are the
remarkable advances taking place in the field of human molecular genetics. Which of the
following statements concerning human genetics is false?
A.A total of 10,432 gene loci are now established.
B.The transmission patterns of almost all of the 2,164 human genetic diseases can be
predicted from Mendel's laws.
C.The human genome comprises 100,000–250,000 genes.*
D.Of the approximately 3 billion base pairs in the human genome, only 1% account for
coding sequences of genes.
E.On average, chromosomes differ from each other once every 1,000 base pairs;

81. There is considerable evidence in support of genetic transmission of various

psychiatric disorders. For which of the following psychiatric disorders is genetic
transmission supported by family risk studies, twin studies, adoption studies, and
molecular studies?
A.Generalized anxiety disorder.
B.Posttraumatic stress disorder.
C.Simple phobia.
D.Panic disorder and agoraphobia.
E.Bipolar disorder.*

82. Adoption studies are based on the knowledge that adoption separates the two major
influences parents have on their children, namely, genes and rearing. Several types of
adoption studies have used which of the following as an accurate description of the
"cross-fostering strategy"?
A.The study of adopted-away children of a parent with a disorder.
B.The study of children born of nondisordered parents adopted into a family with a
disordered parent*.
C.The study of the adoptive and the biological relatives of disordered adoptees.
D.The study of monozygotic (MZ) twins reared apart.
E.The study of MZ twins reared together.

83. Schizophrenia, whether broadly or narrowly defined, is familial. Which of the

following is a subclinical phenotype that is elevated in the relatives of patients with
schizophrenia?
A.Positive symptoms measured by the Thought Disorder Index.
B.Negative symptoms measured by the Scale for the Assessment of Negative Symptoms.
C.Neuropsychological signs such as deficits in abstraction and in short-term verbal
memory.
D.Eye movement dysfunction on smooth pursuit and visual fixation tasks.*
E.Neurological soft signs.
80. Underlying the optimism for impending breakthroughs in psychiatric genetics are the
remarkable advances taking place in the field of human molecular genetics. Which of the
following statements concerning human genetics is false?
A. A total of 10,432 gene loci are now established.
B. The transmission patterns of almost all of the 2,164 human genetic diseases can be predicted
from Mendel's laws.
C. The human genome comprises 100,000–250,000 genes.*
D. Of the approximately 3 billion base pairs in the human genome, only 1% account for coding
sequences of genes.
E. On average, chromosomes differ from each other once every 1,000 base pairs;

81. There is considerable evidence in support of genetic transmission of various psychiatric

disorders. For which of the following psychiatric disorders is genetic transmission supported by
family risk studies, twin studies, adoption studies, and molecular studies?
A. Generalized anxiety disorder.
B. Posttraumatic stress disorder.
C. Simple phobia.
D. Panic disorder and agoraphobia.
E. Bipolar disorder.*

82. Adoption studies are based on the knowledge that adoption separates the two major
influences parents have on their children, namely, genes and rearing. Several types of adoption
studies have used which of the following as an accurate description of the "cross-fostering
strategy"?
A. The study of adopted-away children of a parent with a disorder.
B. The study of children born of nondisordered parents adopted into a family with a disordered
parent*.
C. The study of the adoptive and the biological relatives of disordered adoptees.
D. The study of monozygotic (MZ) twins reared apart.
E. The study of MZ twins reared together.

83. Schizophrenia, whether broadly or narrowly defined, is familial. Which of the following is a
subclinical phenotype that is elevated in the relatives of patients with schizophrenia?
A. Positive symptoms measured by the Thought Disorder Index.
B. Negative symptoms measured by the Scale for the Assessment of Negative Symptoms.
C. Neuropsychological signs such as deficits in abstraction and in short-term verbal memory.
D. Eye movement dysfunction on smooth pursuit and visual fixation tasks.*
E. Neurological soft signs.
84. Twin studies of schizophrenia have contributed a great deal to our understanding of the
genetic transmission of this illness. Which of the following statements concerning twin studies of
schizophrenia is correct?
A. The risk of schizophrenia in monozygotic (MZ) co-twins of affected probands is at least three
times that of dizygotic (DZ) co-twins.*
B. About 95% of MZ twin pairs are concordant for schizophrenia despite being genetically
identified.
C. The risk of schizophrenia in MZ co-twins of affected probands is about five times that in the
general population.
D. Monochorionic MZ twins are less likely to be concordant than are dichorionic MZ twins.
E. Most (up to 75%) nonschizophrenic MZ co-twins of affected probands show a variety of
psychiatric disorders.

85. The proportion of the total phenotypic variance accounted for by additive gene effects is
called

A. Broad heritability
B. Narrow heritability*
C. Concordance
D. Genetic determination
E. Gene – environment covariance

86. Which of the following genetic studies compares the frequency of a marker in groups of
patients and unrelated controls?
A. Association study*
B. Linkage study
C. Family study
D. Adoption study
E. Ecological study

87. A baby was born with an inherited autosomal recessive trait in which there was a delay in
development, resulting in the occurrence of seizures and mental retardation. The child was
diagnosed as having phenylketonuria (PKU). Which of the following is the most likely
neurochemical locus of this genetic defect?
A. Tyrosine
B. Tryptophan
C. Tryptophan hydroxylase
D. Dopamine
E. Phenylalanine (Phe) hydroxylase*

88. A 10-year-old boy accidentally swallowed a toxic substance that contained a neurotoxin,
whose actions mimic those of curare. This resulted in a neuromuscular blockade, partial
respiratory failure, and paralysis. To which of the following receptors does this toxin bind?
A. -aminobutyric acid-A (GABA ) receptor
B. GABA receptor
C. Nicotinic receptor *
 D. NMDA receptor
E. Histamine receptor

89. A functional relationship was recently suggested between excess epinephrine in the brain and
manic states. If one were to develop a drug that controls mania by reducing brain epinephrine
levels, at what step would such a drug act to selectively block the synthesis of epinephrine?
A. Tyrosine hydroxylase
B. Dopamine -hydroxylase
C. Phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase *
D. 5-hydroxy-indole-O-methyltransferase
E. Tryptophan hydroxylas

90. Which of the following best describes a basic property associated with the N-methyl-D-
aspartate (NMDA) receptor?
A. It controls a high-conductance anion channel
B. The NMDA channel is blocked by the presence of magnesium*
C. NMDA is selective for metabotropic receptors *
D. Insufficient amounts of glutamate, acting through NMDA receptors, may
cause
neuronal cell death
E. Current flow is blocked in the presence of glutamate, leading to
hyperpolariza-tion of the cell

91. The hyperpolarization of a neuron is governed by the actions of which of the following ions?
A. Chloride and sodium
B. Chloride and potassium*
C. Potassium and sodium
D. Sodium and calcium
E. Sodium only

92. Which of the following events determines the release of a neurotransmitter from the
terminals of a presynaptic neuron?
A. Sodium influx
B. Sodium efflux
C. Potassium influx
D. Potassium efflux
E. Calcium influx*
93. Who first used the word “psychiatry” to describe the profession?

A. Reil*
B. Rush
C. Deniker
D. Kline
E. Charcot
94. One of the following is a major proponent of antipsychiatry movement?
A. William Osler
B. Thomas Szasz*
C. Aubrey Lewis
D. Henry Maudsley
E. Adolf Meyer

95. Which route is most liable for first-pass metabolism?

A. Sublingual
B. Intramuscular
C. Subcutaneous
D. Oral*
E. Inhalational

96. Which of the following neurotransmitters is implicated in the neurobiology of addiction and
craving seen in recreational drug users?
A. GABA
B. Dopamine*
C. Substance P
D. Serotonin
E. Neurosteroids

97. Which of the following is a result of parasympathetic activity?

A. Decreased salivation
B. Ejaculation
C. Increased heart rate
D. Relaxation of external anal sphincter*
E. Relaxation of the ciliary muscles

98. Which of the following embryonic germ cells gives rise to neurons?
A. Neural tube
B. Neural crest
C. Mesoderm
D. Ectoderm*
E. All of the above

99. Which of the following is NOT a component of the basal ganglia?

A. Amygdala*
B. Caudate nucleus
C. Globus pallidus
D. Substantia nigra
E. Subthalamic nucleus
100. Which of the following antidepressants is most selectively serotonergic?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Paroxetine
C. Citalopram*
D. Clomipramine
E. Venlafaxine