ENGINEERING SCIENCE AND ALLIED SUBJECT

1. An amount of P1000 becomes P1608.44 after 4 years compounded bimonthly.

Find the nominal interest.
a. 11.78% c. 10.43%
b. 12.89% d. 12.00%
2. How many years will P100,000 earn a compound interest of P50,000 if the
interest rate is 9% compounded quarterly?
a. 4.21 years c. 4.95 years
b. 4.56 years d. 5.12 years
3.   When will an amount be tripled with an interest of 11.56%?
a. 9.80 years c. 10.54 years
b. 10.04 years d. 11.03 years
4. A student plan to deposit P1500 in the bank now and another P3000 for the next
two years. If he plans to withdraw P5000 three years from after his last deposit for
the purpose of buying shoes, what will be the amount of money left in the bank
after one year of his withdrawal? Effective annual interest rate is 10%.
a. P 1459.46 c. P1549.64
b. P 1495.64 d. P1645.95
5. On January 1, 1999, Miss Jocelyn del Rosario opened an account at Bank of
Philippine Islands with an initial deposit of P 1,000,000.00 On March 1, 2000 she
opened an additional P 1,000,000.00 If the bank pays 12% interest compounded
monthly. How much will be in the account on April 1, 2000?
a. P2,170,968.95 c. P2,163,729.70
b. P2,154,782.45 d. P2,175,700.45
6. A credit plan charges interest rate of 36% compounded monthly. Find its effective
rate.
a. 42.57% c. 44.21%
b. 41.67% d. 43.89%
7. In year zero you invest P 10,000.00 in a 15% security for 5 years. During that
time, the average annual inflation is 6%. How much in terms of year zero pesos
will be in the account at maturity?
a. P14, 050.03 c. P16,390.32
b. P15, 030.03 d. P15, 848.30
8.   A company invests P10,000 today to be repaid in one lump sum at 12%
compounded annually. How much profit in present day pesos is realized?
a. P7,236.24 c. P7,623.42
b. P7,324.66 d. P7,632.24
9.  A firm borrows P2000 for 6 years at 8%. At the end of 6 years, it renews the loan
for the amount due plus P2000 more for 2 years at 8%. What is the lump sum due?
a. P3,260.34 c. P3,649.78

b. P3,480.21 d. P3,876.12
     10. What is the present worth of two P 100 payments at the end of the third year and
fourth year? The annual interest rate is 8%.
a. P143.99 c. P150.23
b. P145.87 d. P152.88
11. Compute the equivalent rate of 6% compounded semi-annually to a rate
compounded quarterly.
a. 4.78% c. 5.45%
b. 5.12% d. 5.96%
     12. How long will it take money to double itself if invested at 5% compounded
annually?
a. 14.2 years c. 15.2 years
b. 13.7 years d. 13.2 years
     13. Which of these gives the lowest effective rate of interest?
a. 12.35% compounded annually
b. 11.90% compounded semi-annually
c. 12.20% compounded quarterly
d. 11.60% compounded monthly
14. The exact simple interest of P5000 invested from June 21, 1995 to December 25,
1995 is P100. What is the rate of interest?
a. 3.50% c. 3.70%
b. 3.60% d. 3.90%
15. P 5000 is borrowed for 75 days at 16% per annum simple interest. How much will
be due at the end of 75 days?
a. P5,166.67 c. P5,333.33
b. P5, 238.67 d. P5,412.67
16. A price tag of P 1200 is payable in 60 days but if paid within 30 days it will have
a 3% discount. Find the rate of interest
a. 36.12% c. 37.11%
b. 36.33% d. 37.66%
17. If P1000 accumulates to P 1500 when invested at a simple interest for three years.
What is the rate of interest?
a. 16.33% c. 17.33%
b. 16.67% d. 15.67%
18. What is the present worth of a P500 annuity starting at the end of the third year
and continuing to the end of the fourth year, if the annual interest rate is 10%?
a. P717.17 c. P732.18
b. P725.89 d. P741.78
19. It is used to determine the break-even cost
a. Break-even analysis
b. Pareto principle
c. Breakpoint
d. Break-even diagram
20. It is due to the reduction in the demand for the function that the equipment or
asset was designed to render.
a. Physical depreciation
b. Functional depreciation
c. Depletion
d. Salvage value
21. What is the characteristic of a wave that is responsible for what we interpret as
pitch?
a. Amplitude c. Height
b. Shape d. Frequency
22.Which one can’t travel in vacuum?
a. Radio Waves c. Sound wave
b. Light wave d. Short wave
23. Sound interference is necessary to produce this phenomenon. Which one?
a. Decibel c. Resonance
b. Reverberation d. Beats
24.In the well known equation: Released energy = mc2, what is c?
a. Capacitance c. Plank’s constant
b. Velocity of light d. Relativity constant
25.How many protons (P) and neutrons (N) in the nucleus are present in a Pb nucleus
of atomic mass of 206?
a. P= 92, N= 156 c. P=82, N= 124
b. P=85, N = 160 d. P=90, N=150
26.Which of the following statement is false?
a. Wavelengths of a visible light is greater than wavelengths of microwave
b. Frequency of ultraviolet is greater than the frequency of infrared
c. Frequency of radio waves is less than the frequency of infrared
d. Wavelength of x-rays is greater than the wavelength of gamma rays
27. What is the time required for a vibrating object to complete one full cycle?
a. frequency c. period
b. amplitude d. time constant
28. Energy cannot be created nor destroyed. This is law of
a. conservation of momentum c. conservation of mass
b. conservation of energy d. none of these
29. The rate of passage of radiant energy evaluated by reference to the luminous
sensation produced by it is called:
a. luminous flux c. luminous plane
b. luminous radiator d. luminousity
30. It is the maximum frequency a human ear can hear
a. 30000 Hz c. 40000 Hz
b. 10000 Hz d. 20000 Hz
31 .A sealed tank contains oxygen at 27˚ C at a pressure of 2 atm. If the temperature
increases to 100 ˚C what will be the pressure inside the tank?
a. 4.92 atm c. 2.49 atm
b. 4.29 atm d. 9.24 atm
32. A volume of 400 cc of air is measured at a pressure of 740 mm Hg abs and a
temperature of 18 ˚C. What will be the volume at 760 mm Hg and 0 ˚C?
a. 376 cc c. 356 cc
b. 326 cc d. 366 cc
33. A 50-g mass hangs at the end of the spring. When 20 grams are added to the end f
the spring it stretches 7 cm more. Find the spring constant.
a. 2.8 c. 4.3
b. 2.9 d. 2.5
34.A block of wood floats in water with 5 cm projecting above the water surface.
When placed in glycerine of specific gravity of 1.35, the block projects 7.5 cm
above the liquid. Determine its specific gravity.
a. 0.514 c. 0.836
b. 0.704 d. 0.658
35. A hollow cylinder 1 m in diameter and 2 m high weighs 2825 N. How many kN
of lead weighing 110 kN/m3 must be fastened to the outside bottom of the cylinder
to make it float with 1.5 m submerged in water?
a. 8.5 kN c. 10.5kN
b. 6. 5 kN d. 9.5 kN
36. It refers to the magnitude of the auditory sensation produced by the sound
a. Loudness c. Pitch
b. Intensity d. Tone
37. An instrument used to measure the intensity of a light source?
a. Illumination meter c. Cygnometer
b. Photometer d. Candle meter
38. In the SI system, which of the following is not an SI unit?
a. Candela c. Newton
b. Fahrenheit d. Kilogram
39. A train blowing its whistle at 750 Hz approaches a station at the rate of 35 mph.
What frequency is heard by a man standing at the station considering the velocity
of sound in air 1100 ft/sec?
a. 739.7 Hz c. 716.4 Hz
b. 857.4 Hz d. 786.7 Hz
40.A light passes from glass to water. If the index of refraction for glass is 1.54 and
for water is 1.33, compute the critical angle for this light to pass the glass.
a. 59.7˚ c. 67.4˚
21. 45.8˚ d. 50.9˚
41. All of these statements describe properties of sodium. Which one describes a
physical property of sodium?
A. Sodium’s surface turns black when first exposed to air.
B. Sodium is a solid at 250C and changes to a liquid when heated to 980C.
C. When placed in water, sodium sizzles and a gas is formed.
D. When placed in contact with chlorine, sodium forms a compound that melts
at 8010C.
 42. Consider the species: 60Co, 59Fe and 62Cu. These species have:
A. the same mass number C. the same number of neutrons
B. the same number of electrons D. the same number of protons &
neutrons

43. What is the isotopic notation for a species with 20 protons, 18 electrons, and 21
neutrons?
A. B. C. D.

44. A carbohydrate is found to contain 40.00% C, 6.73% H and 53.28% O by mass.

If the estimated molar mass of this carbohydrate is approximately 182
grams/mole, the empirical and molecular formula are respectively:
A. CHO & C2H6O2 C. C2HO & C4H2O2
B. CH2O & C6H12O6 D. CHO & C6H12O6

Refer to the reaction below to answer the next four (4) questions:
The combustion of methanol (CH3OH) yields carbon dioxide (CO2) and water
(H2O) according to the unbalanced equation:

CH3OH + O2  CO2 + H2O

45. What are the coefficients when the equation is balanced with the smallest set of
whole numbers?
A. 2, 3, 2, 4 B. 4, 6, 4, 8 C. 1, 3, 1, 3 D. 1, 3, 3, 2

46. How many grams of carbon dioxide maybe formed from the combustion of 100.0
grams of methanol (CH3OH) with 120.0 grams of oxygen (O2)?
A. 137.5 grams B. 110.0 grams C. 100.0 grams D. 165.0 grams

47. The limiting reactant is:

A. CH3OH B. O2 C. CO2 D. H2O

48. If the actual yield of the reaction in problem no. 5 is 98.00 grams of CO 2, what is
the percent yield of the process?
A. 71.27% B. 98.00% C. 89.08% D. 59.39%

49. The following sets of quantum numbers (n, l, m, s) are acceptable except:
A. (2, 0, 0, +½) B. (3, 2, –3, –½) C. (4, 2, 0, –½) D. (3, 1, 0, –½)

50. The element with electron configuration [Ar]4s23d104p6 belongs to:

A. Period 4, Group 5A C. Period 3, Group 3A
B. Period 3, Group 4A D. Period 4, Group 8A

51. Of the following species, which one is “paramagnetic”?

A. F –1 (anion) B. Si C. Xe D. Mg

52. A solution of 20.0 g NH3 (MM = 17.04) is dissolved in 70.0 g H 2O. The molality
is:
A. 17.6 m B. 80.6 m C. 25.2 m D. 0.429 m

53. Calculate the percent by mass of NaOH [%(w/w)] prepared by diluting 8.00 grams
of NaOH in 50.0 grams of H2O.
A 16.0% B. 13.8% C. 86.2% D. 84.0%

54. All of the following species have the same electron configuration. Which of the
following has a different electron configuration?
A. Ar B. S2- C. V3+ D. Ca2+

55. Which of the following is most likely to be a “molecule” than a compound?

A. CsOH B. NH3 C. Sr(NO3)2 D. CaO

51. Which among the following is a “suspension” or a “heterogeneous” mixture?

a) Syrup
b) Egg
c) Gasoline
 d) Steel

52. Below are some statements describing the substance “bromine”.

I. It is a liquid at room temperature
II. It react with metallic elements to form bromides
III. Its elemental color is yellow
IV. It evaporates to form a dark brown vapor when heated
V. It produces a burn when spilled on the skin
Select the statement/s that describes its chemical property.
a) I, III, IV
b) II, IV, V
c) V
d) II, V
53. Extrinsic properties are those that depend on the amount of matter present. Which
of the following is an extrinsic property?
a) The mass of one dozen mangoes
b) The color of an engineering shirt
c) The density of seawater
d) The taste of exotic foods
54. An ion contains 30 Protons, 35 neutrons and has a net charge of +2. The number
of electron in this ion is.
a) 30
b) 35
c) 28
d) 65
55. A compound formed from the union of aluminum and sulfur will most likely have
chemical formula.
a) Al2S3
b) Al3S2
c) AlS
d) AlS3
56. The molar mass of (NH4)3PO4 is:
a) 61.99 g/mole
b) 149.21 g/mole
c) 209 g/mole
d) 8.30 g/mole
57. How many of lithium will produce 125 g of Li3N
a) 74.7 g
b) 24.9 g
c) 209 g
d) 8.30 g
58. Calculate the percentage hydrogen in a molecule of glycine C2H5NO2
a) 42.62%
b) 18.66%
c) 6.73%
d) 31.99%
59. An oxide of phosphorus contains 43.64% P and 56.36% O by mass. The empirical
formula (or simplest formula) of this compound.
a) PO3
b) P3O2
c) P2O3
d) P2O5
60. In the balanced formula: C4H10 + O2 CO2 + H2O
Ans. 2,13,8,10

(For no. 11 – 13) Balanced formula: 2Al + 3H2SO4 Al2(SO4)3 + 3H2

 When 7.5g Al are available to react with 4.25g H2SO4

61. Find limiting reactant.

a) Al
b) H2SO4
c) Al2(SO4)3
d) H2
62. The mass in grams of H2 produced.
a) 0.842 g
b) 0.0875 g
c) 0.417 g
d) 0.0433 g
63. In actual process it was found that only 0.0750g of H2 gas was collected. The
percent yield is:
a) 57%
b) 18%
c) 8.91%
d) 85.7%
64. How many unpaired electron does an atom of Phosphorus have?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
65. Identify the species below which is more molecular than ionic.
a) Srl2
b) RbF
c) BeCl2
d) BrF3

66. A vector makes an angle θ with the horizontal. The horizontal and vertical
components of the vector will be equal in magnitude if θ is
a) 30 deg b) 45 deg c) 60 deg d) 90 deg
67. A ball is thrown at an angle of 38 deg with the horizontal. What happens to the
magnitude of the ball’s vertical acceleration during the total time interval that the ball is
in the air
a) it decreases, then increases b) it decreases, then remains the same
c) it increases, then decreases d) it remains the same
68. A man standing on a scale in an elevator notices that the scale reads 30 N greater than
his normal weight. Which type of movement of the elevator could cause this greater-than-
normal reading
a) accelerating upward b) accelerating downward
c) moving upward at constant speed d) moving downward at constant speed
69. The amount of work done against friction to slide a box in a straight line across a
uniform, horizontal floor depends most on the
a) time taken to move the box b) distance the box is moved
c) Speed of the box d) direction of the box motion
70. A 0.2-kg red ball is thrown horizontally at a speed of 4 m / s 2 from a height of 3 m. A
0.4-kg green ball is thrown horizontally from the same height at a speed of 8 m / s 2.
Compared to the time it takes the red ball to reach the ground, the time it takes the green
ball to reach the ground is
a) one-half as equal b) twice as equal c) the same d) four times as equal
71. A spring exerts a force of 50.0 N on a cart located on a frictionless plane. The cart has
a mass of 2.0 kg and the force acts at 0.20 sec. What best justification that would fit the
given condition?
a) the impulse is equal to the change of momentum
b) the impulse is greater than the change of momentum
c) the change of momentum is greater than the impulse
d) there is no direct relation between impulse and the change of momentum
72. An object moves around a circle whose radius is 2.0 m. The constant speed of the
object is 6.0 m /s and the mass of the object is 0.20 kg. What is the centripetal force?
a) 18 N b) 3.6 N c) 36 N d) 1.8 N
73. A net force of 10 N accelerates an object at 5.0 m/s 2. What net force is would be
required to accelerate the same object at 1.0 m/s2?
a) 1.0 N b) 2.0 N c) 5.0 N d) 50 N
74. A force of 10 N is applied 20 cm from a point O. The equivalent system consisting of
a force and a couple acting at O is
a) 10 N and 2 N-m b) 10 N and 4 N-m c) 20 N and 2 N-m d) 20 N and 4 N-m
75. Which pair of quantities could be used to determine the coefficient of friction for the
block and the floor
a) mass and speed of the block b) mass and normal force on the block
c) frictional force and speed of the block d) frictional force and normal force on the block
76. The ratio of stress to the corresponding strain below the proportional limit
a) stress-strain diagram b) modulus of rigidity
c) modulus of elasticity d) tensile strength
77. The moment of inertia of a rectangular area whose base is “ b” and height “h” about
its neutral axis is
a) bh3 / 12 b) bh3 / 3 c) b3h / 12 d) b3h/ 3
78. It is the stress that depends on the bending moment of a member or part
a) tensile stress b) compressive stress
c) flexural stress d) bearing stress
79. A rod with a cross sectional area of 300 mm2, length of 3 m, and modulus of elasticity
of 200GPa carries a load of 37.5 kN. Calculate the deformation, mm.
a) 1.875 b) 8.175 c) 5.175 d) 7.185
80. A shaft with a diameter of 75 mm is subjected to a torque of 461 N-m. Calculate the
stress in MPa?
a) 7.55 b) 57.5 c) 55.7 d) 5.57
81. A shaft has a polar moment of inertia of 7.460 x 10 6 mm4 and G = 83 x 109 N/m2.
What is the torque, N-m, if the angle of twist is not to exceed 0.5o per meter length?
a) 4,503 b) 5,403 c) 3,504 d) 4,530
82. A 4 m simply supported beam carries a concentrated load of 10 kN at midspan. What
is the maximum bending moment, kN-m?
a) 40 b) 5 c) 10 d) 20
83. A hollow shaft has an inner diameter of 0.035 m and outer diameter of 0.06m. What
is the polar moment of inertia, m4?
a) 1.512 x 10-6 b) 1.215 x 10-6 c) 1.152 x 10-6 d) 1.125 x 10-6
84. A small countershaft is 1½ in in diameter and has an allowable stress of 8500 psi.
What horsepower can be delivered by the shaft at a speed of 15.7 rad/s? (1 hp=33000 ft-
lb/min)
a) 7.2 b) 1.4 c) 13.39 d) 14.72
85. The maximum bending moment of a beam that is simply supported and carrying a
uniformly distributed load 10 kN/m over a span 4 m.
a) 40 kN-m b) 10 kN-M c) 20 kN-m d) 80 kN-m

86) A block of wood that weighs 71.2 N and a specific gravity of 0.72 is tied by a string
to the bottom of a tank of water in order to have the block totally immersed. What is the
tension in the spring, N?
a) 23.73 b) 94.93 c) 47.72 d) 50.25
87) What is the specific gravity of a solid sphere that has a radius of 15 mm and a mass of
0.038 kg?
a) 3.145 b) 2.157 c) 3.123 d) 2.687
88) A cylindrical wooden buoy of height 3m and mass of 80 kg floats vertically in water.
If its specific gravity is 0.8, how much will it be depressed when a body of mass 10 kg is
placed on its upper surface, m?
a) 0.30 b) 0.35 c) 0.40 d) 0.45
89) Bernoulli’s law for fluid flow is based on which of the following principles?
a) Conservation of mass b) conservation of energy
c) Conservation of momentum d) continuity equation
90) It is an instrument, which is used to determine the specific gravity of a fluid.
a) hydrometer b) throttling calorimeter c) odometer d) anemometer
91) The length of a pipe is 168 meters. If the pressure drop is 50 kPa for every 30 m,
what is the total pressure drop, kPa?
a) 240 b) 260 c) 280 d) 220
92) A barrel contains a 0.150 layer of oil floating on water that is 0.30 mm deep. If the
density of the oil is 600 kg/m3, what is the pressure (gage) at the oil-water interface, Pa?
a) 883 b) 900 c) 742 d) 924
93) How high does mercury barometer stands on a day when atmospheric pressure is 98.6
kPa considering that the specific gravity of mercury is 13.6, mm?
a) 739 b) 760 c) 400 d) 540
94) A rigid container is closed at one end and measures 8 inches in diameter by 12 inches
long. The container is held vertically and is slowly moved downward until the pressure in
the container is 15.5 psia. What will be the depth of the water surface inside the container
measured from the free water surface, in?
a) 9.2 b) 22 c) 12 d) 9.8
95) A 0.50 m diameter window has its center three meters below the water surface.
Determine the force acting on the window considering the window is submerged
vertically, kN?
a) 5.8 b) 3.8 c) 2.9 d) 4.8
96) A cylindrical pipe with water flowing downward at 0.02 m 3/s has a top diameter of
0.08 m, bottom diameter of 0.04 m and a height of 1.5 m. Find the change in pressure
between the top and the bottom, kPa.
a) 94 b) 124 c) 104 d) 134
97) What is the equivalent head of a fluid that has a velocity of 18 m/s, m?
a) 16.51 b) 13.56 c) 18.34 d) 11.41
98) An open cylindrical vessel I meter in diameter contains water at a depth of 3.56 m. if
the vessel is rotated 120 rpm, how much water will be spilled out, Liters?
a) 404 b) 440 c) 444 d) 400
99) If the velocity of the flow in a 75-mm diameter fire hose is 25 cm/s, what is the
power available in a 30-mm diameter jet issuing from a nozzle attached at the end of this
hose. W?
a) 1.34 b) 3.24 c) 1.25 d) 2.34
100) Water is flowing through a pipe of 0.60 m diameter and 2 km long. If the average
velocity of water is 2 m/s, what is the loss of head due to friction considering that the
friction factor is 0.005, m?
a) 13.6 b) 3.4 c) 9.7 d) 11.7
101) A 150 mm diameter pipe carries 81.3 L/s of water. The pipe branches into two pipes
one are 50 mm in diameter and the other is 75 mm. What is the velocity in the 75-mm
pipe if the velocity of the flow in the 50-mm pipe is 10 m/s?
a) 13.96 m/s b) 15.67 m/s c) 17.25 m/s d) 19.43 m/s
102) What is the hydraulic power of a pump that adds a total head 550 ft to 100 lbs/sec of
water, hp?
a) 200 b) 100 c) 150 d) 175

103) What is the classification of the fluid flow if the fluid travels parallel to the adjacent
layers and the paths of the individual particles do not cross each other?
a) steady flow b) laminar flow c) uniform flow d) turbulent flow
104) The negative sign for a gage reading is called _______
a) Transmission of pressure b) vapor pressure
c) Vacuum pressure d) pressure head
105) Find the mass flow rate of a liquid (density=0.690 g/cm3) flowing through a 5 cm
(inside diameter) at 8.3 m/s.
a) 69 kg/s b) 450 kg/s c) 11.24 kg/s d) 430 kg/s
106) A gas occupies 255 mL at 3.25 atm pressure and 330C. What pressure is needed
to reduce its volume to 160 mL assuming no change in temperature?
A. 2.04 atm B. 5.18 atm C. 1.61 atm D. 0.490 atm
107) When a sample of hydrogen gas was held in a 546-mL rigid container at 00C, its
pressure is 380 torr. What will its pressure be at 1000C?
A. 519 mmHg B. 268 mmHg C. 556 mmHg D. 70 mmHg
108) A gas exerts a pressure of 500 mmHg at 127 0C. The volume being 500 mL
initially. The volume at -230C and 600 mmHg will now be:
A. 75 mL B. 308 mL C. 625 mL D. 260 mL
109) What is the volume at STP of an ideal gas for which the volume is 37.0 mL at
230C and 737 torr?
A. 39.0 mL B. 35.8 mL C. 33.1 mL D. 36.1 mL
110) Calculate the temperature when 64.0 grams of O2 (MM = 32.00 g/mole) exerts
a pressure of 998 kPa in a container of 5.00-L capacity.
A. 26.90C B. 3000C C. 1250C D. 400C
111) A certain vapor has a density of 2.0 g/L at 740 mmHg and 200 0C. The molar
mass of this substance is approximately:
A. 44 g/mole B. 78 g/mole C. 80 g/mole D. 98 g/mole
112) Propane, C3H8 is an important component of natural gas. It burns in oxygen
according to the balanced equation: C3H8(g) + 5O2(g)  3CO2(g) + 3H2O(l)
What volume of O2 is needed to completely burn 2.50 L of C 3H8 if all volumes
are measured under the same conditions?
A. 0.500 L B. 12.5 L C. 2.00 L D. 9.79 L
For numbers 113 & 114, refer to the problem:
A mixture of gases consists of 6.00 grams of CH4 (MM = 16.05 g/mole) and 9.00
grams of C2H6 (MM = 30.08 g/mole) confined in an 8.00-L vessel at 310C.
113) What is the total pressure in the vessel?
A. 2.14 atm B. 0.349 atm C. 46.8 atm D. 2.10 atm
114) What are the partial pressures of CH4 and C2H6 respectively in the vessel?
A. 0.193 atm CH4 & 0.155 atm C2H6 C. 17.5 atm CH4 & 29.3 atm C2H6
B. 1.17 atm CH4 & 0.933 atm C2H6 D. 1.19 atm CH4 & 0.951 atm C2H6
115) Hydrogen peroxide or “agua oxigenada” decomposes as follows:
2H2O2(aq)  2H2O(l) + O2(g)
If 6.06 L of O2 gas is collected over water at 250C (vapor pressure = 23.8 torr)
and a barometric pressure of 702 torr, the mass of H 2O2 (MM = 34.02 g/mole)
decomposed is:
A. 15.0 g B. 15.6 g C. 0.528 g D. 16.1 g
116) At standard conditions, 1.0 L of oxygen gas weighs almost 1.44 grams, whereas
1.0 L of hydrogen gas weighs only 0.09 gram. The gas that diffuses faster and
by what factor is:
A. H2, rH2 = 0.25 rO2 C. H2, rH2 = 4 rO2
B. O2, rO2 = 4 rH2 D. O2, rH2 = 4 rO2
117) Which of the following is an example of an “isolated” system?
A. an incubator C. a glass of water
B. a tree D. a box of Choco Mucho
118) A sample of gas expands 500 mL at a constant pressure of 0.500 atm while
60.0 J of heat flow into it. The change in internal energy (U) of the system is:
A -34.7 J B. +34.7 J C. 85.3 J D. -85.3 J
119) Given the following thermo chemical equations:
14.1 2CO2(g)  2C(s) + 2O2(g) H0 = +787.04 kJ
14.2 H2(g) + ½O2(g)  H2O(l) H0 = –285.83 kJ
14.3 CH4(g) + 2O2(g)  CO2(g) + 2H2O(l) H0 = –890.37 kJ
Calculate the H0 for the reaction: C(s) + 2H2(g)  CH4(g)
A. –74.81 kJ B. +74.81 kJ C. +389.16 kJ D. –389.16 kJ
120) A 2.00-L perfect gas at 00C and 5.0 atm pressure is expanded isothermally
against a pressure of 1.0 atm until the pressure of the gas is also 1.0 atm. The
values of U, H, q and w (in calories) respectively, are:
A. 0, 389, 0, 389 C. 389, 0, 0, 389
B. 0, 0, 389, 389 D. 389, 0, 389, 0