Grade 9 Test Item

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: 1
Competency: Explain how the respiratory and circulatory systems
work together to transport nutrients, gases, and other
molecules to and from the different parts of the body
(S9LT-la-b-26)
Diagram Completion
Directions: Fill in with the needed data to complete the diagram below.
Photo credits: DepEd Science 9 LM (with modification)
Sequencing Test
1
Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow
Tel. No. (053) 323-8882/ depedleyte.net/ [email protected]
Directions: Arrange the following respiration process by numbering from
1-5.
1. Once the oxygen reaches the cell, it processes nutrients in order to release
energy.
2. The blood delivers the carbon dioxide to the right portion of the heart.
3. After passing through the lungs, the air enters to the left part of the
heart.
4. Carbon dioxide leaves the body through the lungs.
5. Air enters the body through the nose.
Sequence: __________________________________________
Short Answer Test

Directions: In 2-3 sentences, explain your answers to the questions
below.
1. What organ systems will be affected once the respiratory system fails to
perform its functions. Why?
2. Do you agree that the respiratory system could not perform its function
without the circulatory system? Why?
3. Mostly African, Mediterranean or Southwest Asian ancestry are affected by
sickle cell anemia, a disease that affects the red blood cell. With this condition,
how are respiratory and circulatory systems affected?
4. How do the organ systems of the human body work together to sustain life?
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: 1
Competency: Infer how one’s lifestyle can affect the functioning of
respiratory and circulatory systems (S9LT-lc-27)
2
Table Completion
Directions: Classify the diseases caused by smoking cigarettes as
either affecting the respiratory system or circulatory system.
Write your answers in the table below.
high blood pressure chronic bronchitis arteriosclerosis

emphysema asthma vascular diseases
cough coronary heart disease
(Note: The teacher may vary the given diseases as needed.)

Diseases Caused by Cigarette Smoking
Respiratory System Circulatory System
Sentence Completion
Directions: Supply the missing term or phrase needed to complete
each sentence.
1. Diseases in the respiratory and circulatory system can be prevented through
_______________.
2. Alcoholic drinks affect the human body by causing_______________.
3. Diseases can be early detected through _______________.
4. Healthy lifestyle includes avoiding vices, proper hygiene and
_________________.
5. Air pollution can cause asthma which is a disease in one of the human organ
systems called __________.
Table Completion
Directions: Given the following human lifestyles below, supply the table
with its possible effects to the respiratory and circulatory
system.
3
Its possible effects
Respiratory System Circulatory System
Human Lifestyles
1. Cigarette smoking 1. 2
2. Salty foods intake 3 4
3. Stressful 5. 6
environment
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: 1
Competency: Describe the location of genes in chromosomes
(S9LT-ld-28)
Multiple Choice
Directions: Read each item carefully and encircle the letter that
corresponds to the correct answer.
1. The following are parts of the chromosome EXCEPT?
A. chromosomes
B. DNA
C. genes
D. nucleus
2. Which is NOT true about genes?
A. It is a segment of DNA.
B. It is a protein molecule.
4
C. It encodes a unique protein.
D. It performs a specialized function in the cell.
3. What is a nucleotide made up of?
A. Sugar, phosphate, genes
B. DNA, genes, chromosomes
C. Guanine, cytosine, adenine
D. Sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
4. What does DNA stand for?
A. deoxyribosenucleic acetyl
B. deoxyribonucleic acid
C. deoxynitrogen acetyl
D. diribonucleic acid
5. All living things contain genetic materials which are also known as
__________.
A. chromosomes
B. DNA
C. genes
D. nucleus
Matching Type
Directions: Match the codon in A with their corresponding
anticodon in B. Answer by writing the letter of your
choice.
5
Table Completion
Directions: Identify the parts of the DNA molecule and determine
their corresponding location.
6
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: 1
Competency: Explain the different patterns of non-Mendelian
7
Inheritance (S9LT-ld-29)
Multiple Choice
1. Which of the following statements describe the incomplete dominance pattern
of inheritance?
A. one allele is not expressed
B. one allele is dominant over the other.
C. there are three common alleles that control the characteristics.
D. it shows a phenotype that is intermediate between two homozygous
phenotypes.
2. The following are Non-Mendelian Patterns of Inheritance EXCEPT
A. Codominance
B. Multiple allelism
C. Law of Dominance
D. Law of Incomplete Dominance
3. If a female affected with hemophilia X h X h is married to a man with no
hemophilia XY. What is the probability that she will have a daughter with
hemophilia?
A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
4. If the father has a blood type AB and the mother is heterozygous blood type A.
How many possible blood types would be observed in the resulting offspring?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
8
5. One man who is affected with color blindness marries a female who is normal
but carrier of the trait. How many percent of their offspring will be affected?
A. 100%
B. 75%
C. 50%
D. 25%
Sentence Completion
Directions: Supply the correct Non-Mendelian Pattern of
Inheritance being described in every statement.
1. When a heterozygote shows a phenotype that is intermediate between the two
homozygous parents, it follows the pattern of inheritance called
_____________________.
2. Human blood type is an example of a trait that follows the pattern of
_________________.
3. Color blindness in human follows the inheritance pattern known as
_______________.
4. When the resulting heterozygotes exhibit the traits of both parents, this pattern
is called____________________________.
5. When the traits are expressed in only one gender, such inheritance pattern is
called___________________.
Short Answer Test

Directions: In 2-3 sentences, explain your answer in every question
below.
1. Hemophilia is a disease which can be inherited from affected parents.
Suppose a carrier woman marries a normal man for the trait, would it be
possible for them to produce a hemophilic child? Why?
2. A man with the color-blind trait wishes to have children free from the
disease. Suppose he marries a normal female for the trait, do you think his
wish would still come true? Why?
9
3. Would a blood type O child be produced by parents with type B blood?
How?
4. Pink four o’clock flowers are obtained from a cross between pure bred red
flower plant and white flower plant. What made it possible to happen?
5. Which Non-Mendelian pattern of inheritance do you think is appropriate
among animal breeders in your area? Why?
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: 1
Competency: Relate species extinction to the failure of populations
of organisms to adapt to abrupt changes in the
environment (S9LT-le-f-30)
Table Completion
Directions: Classify the different human activities below as beneficial
or harmful to the condition of species in the ecosystem. Write
those beneficial in COLUMN A and the harmful ones
in COLUMN B.
10
Illegal logging kaingin farming tree planting
conservation of resources dynamite fishing wildlife preservation
coral reef recovery animal hunting
Effects of Human Activities to the Species in the Ecosystem

COLUMN A COLUMN B
(Beneficial) (Harmful)
True or False
Directions: Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if it is not.
1. The loss of habitat is the major cause of wildlife depletion.
2. Muro-ami can cause mangrove destruction.
3. Tarsier and monkey-eating eagle are some examples of species that are
extinct.
4. When the population of certain species have become so low, it is considered
endangered.
5. Population increases when members die or move out of an ecosystem.
Diagram Completion
Directions: Fill in the concept map with the missing term/phrase from
the list provided below.
11
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: 1
Competency: Differentiate basic features and importance of
photosynthesis and respiration (S9LT-lg-j-31)
Sentence Completion
Directions: Supply with the missing term/phrase to complete each
sentence.
1. The process of respiration takes place in the ________________.
2. The food molecule produced in photosynthesis is called_____________.
3. During cellular respiration, glucose is converted into __________.
4. Aside from light reaction, the other phase of photosynthesis is
______________.
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5. Oxygen is released by plants while carbon dioxide is given off by
___________.
True or False
Directions: Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if it is not.
1. Chlorophyll-bearing plants can make their own food through the process
photosynthesis.
2. The raw materials of photosynthesis are water and oxygen.
3. Glucose is converted to energy through cellular respiration.
4. Sugar is the source of energy needed in photosynthesis.
5. Photosynthesis and respiration are dependent with each other.
Table Completion
Directions: Differentiate photosynthesis from respiration by filling in the
table with the needed data.
Differences Between Photosynthesis and Respiration
Basis of Comparison Photosynthesis Respiration
Cell part involve 1 2
Product/s 3 4
Main Function 5 6
13
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: II
Competency: Describe how the Bohr model of the atom improved
Rutherford’s atomic model (S9MT-IIa-21)
Sequencing Test
Directions: Arrange the following entries according to the
development of the atomic model. On the given space, write1 for
the earliest and 5 for the most recent atomic model.
______ Discovery of the electron
______ Discovery of the nucleus
______ Development of the Atomic Theory
______ Measurement of the energy of the protons
______ Proposal that everything is composed of tiny bits of indivisible
matter
14
Matching Type
Directions: Match the ATOMIC MODELS with their corresponding

PROPONENTS. Write only the letter on the space given.
(Note: Options should only be used once).
ATOMIC MODELS PROPONENTS
___ 1. Nuclear Model A. Bohr
___ 2. Planetary Model B. Bohr-Sommerfeld
___ 3. Raisin Bun Model C. Dalton
___ 4. Solid Sphere Model D. Democritus
___ 5. Elliptical Orbit Model E. Rutherford
F. Schrodinger
G. Thomson
Identification
Directions: Determine what is being described in each item. Write
the answer in your paper.
1. It is the smallest individual part of an element.
2. It is a fairly heavy particle and resides in the nucleus.
3. It represents the number of electrons in the element.
4. It is the subatomic particle found revolving around the nucleus.
15
5. These are atoms that have the same number of protons but different number of
neutrons.
Short Answer Test

Directions: Determine the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons in
the following atomic notations.
F
19
ur - 0
(1) 9 p + = ___ e = ___ n = ___
her
Ca
40
0
p + = ___ e = ___ n = ___
tex -
(2) 20
her
Ag
108
ur 0
p + = ___ e = ___ n = ___
-
(3) 47
her
I
127
ur - 0
(4) 53 p + = ___ e = ___ n = ___
here
16
(5)
207
text
82 Pb p + = ___ e- = ___ n0 = ___
Diagram Completion
Directions: Listed below are five (5) compounds. Write each

compound in the box that is opposite the corresponding color it
emits in its excited state.
Tellurium dichloride (TeCl2)

Selenium dibromide (SeBr2)
Lithium carbonate (Li2CO3)
Sodium fluoride (NaF)
Cesium iodide (CsI)
17
Diagram Completion
Directions: Write the corresponding atomic number for each element

given. Then, plot the exact number of electrons in the
orbitals for each atomic diagram.
1.
2.
3.
4.
18
5.
Short Answer Test
Directions: Compare and contrast the illustrations below then describe

how Bohr’s Planetary Model improved Rutherford’s Nuclear
Model. Write your answer in a piece of paper.
(Note: Students might be asked to illustrate the two models instead of giving them the
pictures. Then, have the students describe the similarities and differences of the
atomic models of Bohr and Rutherford through a Venn diagram).
19
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: II
Competency: Explain how the Quantum Mechanical Model of the
atom describes the energies and positions of the
electrons (S9MT-IIa-22)
Multiple Choice
1. What is the basis for the exceptions to the Aufbau rule?

A. Electron configurations are only probable.
B. Some elements have unusual atomic orbitals.
C. Filled and half-filled energy sublevels are more stable than partially-filled
ones.
D. Electron spins is more important than energy levels in
determining electron configuration.
2. If only two electrons occupy two p orbitals, what is the direction of the spins
of these two electrons?
A. Both are always clockwise.
B. Both are always counterclockwise.
C. One is clockwise and the other is counterclockwise.
D. They are either both clockwise or both counterclockwise.
3. Which of the following states that no more than two electrons can occupy an
atomic orbital?
A. Hund’s Rule
B. Dalton’s Theory
20
C. Aufbau Principle
D. Pauli Exclusion Principle
4. Which of the following states that electrons enter orbitals of lowest energy
first?
A. Hund’s Rule
C. Aufbau Principle
5. Which states that when electrons occupy orbitals of equal energy, one electron
enters each orbital until all orbitals contain one electron with their spins
parallel?
A. Hund’s Rule
C. Aufbau Principle
21
Table Completion
Directions: Indicate if the electron configuration correctly describes a

ground state atom. For each incorrect electron
configuration, explain what is wrong with it. If correct,
identify the element.
Could describe
If no, why not?
Electron a ground state
If yes, name
Configuration atom? Circle
the element.
yes or no.
1) 1s2 2s2 2p2 YES / NO
2) 1s1 2s2 YES / NO
3) 1s2 2s2 2p5 YES / NO
4) 1s2 2s2 3s2 YES / NO
5) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
YES / NO
3p6 3d10 4s2
Multiple choice
1. The principle quantum number is related to the ______________.

A. shape of the orbital
22
B. number of electrons
C. spatial orientation of the orbital
D. average distance of the most electron-dense regions from the
nucleus.
2. The total number of electrons that can occupy the principle energy level n is
____________.
A. 2
B. 8
C. n
D. 2n2
3. The total number of electrons allowed in a ℓ = 1 sublevel is
___________.
A. 2 electrons
B. 6 electrons
C. 8 electrons
D. 10 electrons
4. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers would represent an
electron in a 3d orbital?
A. 3, 2, 1, -½
B. 3, 2, 0, +½
C. either a or b
D. neither a nor b
5. Which of the following sets is NOT an acceptable set of quantum

numbers?
A. n=2, l=1, ml=-1
B. n=7, l=3, ml= 3
C. n=2, l=1, ml= 1
D. n=3, l=1, ml=-3
Sequencing Test
23
Directions: Arrange the following sublevels in order of decreasing
energy: 2p, 4s, 3s, 3d, and 3p. (5 points)
Problem Solving
Directions: Answer the following items as instructed.
A. Write the complete electron configuration for each of the element.
1. lithium
2. fluorine
3. rubidium
4. nickel
5. phosphorus
B. Give the symbol of the atom that corresponds to each electron
configuration. Refer to the periodic table.
1. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
2. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1
3. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d2 4s2
4. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2 4p6 4d7 5s1
5. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2 4p6 4d10 4f7 5s2 5p6 5d1 6s2
Multiple Choice
24
Directions: Read each item carefully and encircle the letter that corresponds to the
correct answer.
1. The orbital diagram for a ground-state oxygen atom is ___________.
2. The orbital diagram for a ground state carbon atom
is ____________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
3. Which ground-state atom has an electron configuration described

by the orbital diagram below.
A. tellurium
B. selenium
C. phosphorus
D. germanium

by the following orbital diagram?
25
A. arsenic
B. nitrogen
C. phosphorus
D. vanadium
by the following orbital diagram?
A. germanium
B. antimony
C. indium
D. tin
Multiple Choice
1. Which element has the following ground-state electron configuration? [Kr]5s14d5
A. Mn
B. Mo
C. Nb
D. Re
2. The electron configuration of a ground-state Co atom is __________
A. [Ar]4s23d7
B. 1s22s22p63s23d9
C. [Ne]3s23d7
D. [Ar]4s13d5
3. The electron configuration of a ground-state copper atom is

__________.
A. [Ar]4s24d4
B. [Ar]4s24p63d3
C. [Ar]4s23d9
26
D. [Ar]4s13d10
4. The ground-state electron configuration for an atom of indium is
_________.
A. [Kr]5s24p64d5
B. [Ar]4s23d104p1
C. [Kr]5s25p64d5
D. [Kr]5s24d105p1
5. Which of the following is the ground-state electron configuration of a
calcium atom?
A. [Ne]3s2
B. [Ne]3s23p6
C. [Ar]4s2
D. [Ar]4s13d1
Short Answer Test

Directions: In 2-3 sentences, answer the questions below.
1. What is wrong with writing the electron configuration of 1s 2 2s2 3s2 2p6 3p6?
Explain and correct the error. (5 points)
2. Why does one electron in a potassium atom go into the fourth energy level
instead of squeezing into the third energy level along with the eight electrons
that are already there? (5 points)
3. Using Aufbau Diagram, explain why the actual electron configurations for
chromium and copper differs from each other. (5 points)
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: II
Competency: Explain the formation of ionic and covalent bonds
(S9MT-IIa-13)
Cloze Test
27
Directions: Complete the paragraph by filling in the blanks with the
appropriate word/s from the box. Write your answers in your
paper.
sharing non-metallic metallic

Ionic covalent
(1) ____________ is a form of chemical bonding between two non-metallic

atoms which is characterized by (2) ___________ of electrons between atoms and
other covalent bonds. (3) ___________, also known as electrovalent bond, is a type
of bond formed from the electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions in
a chemical compound. This kind of bonds occurs mainly between (4) ___________
and (5) ___________ atoms.
True or False
Directions: Following are statements about the formation of ionic and

covalent bonds. On the given space, write TRUE if the
statement is correct and FALSE if it is not.
_____ 1. Ionic and covalent bonding are the results brought by the need for
electrons or the need to remove electrons in order to attain stability.
_____ 2. Ionic bonds have a definite and predictable shape so as low melting
and boiling points.
28
_____ 3. When two nonmetallic atoms react together, both of them
need to lose electrons in order to complete their outer shells.
_____ 4. If two atoms differ considerably in their electronegativity like sodium

and chloride then, one of the atoms will lose its electron to the other
atom.
_____ 5. Electrical attraction between the nuclei of adjacent atoms and the
shared electrons causes the atoms in a molecule to be held together. This force of
attraction is called ionic bonding.
Table Completion
Directions: Represent the following atoms by using Rutherford-Bohr

diagram, Electron Configuration and Lewis Electron Dot Structure.
Then, give the number of valence electrons for each.
Element Atomic # Rutherford- Electron Lewis # of

Bohr Configuration Electron Valence
Diagram Dot electrons
Structure
Al
C
Mg
O
K
29
N
Ar
Multiple Choice
1. Which of the elements listed below is the least electronegative?
A. S
B. V
C. Ni
D. P
2. Which of these elements has the greatest electronegativity?
A. Mg
B. Ga
C. Si
D. Ba
3. In which pair of atoms would form a nonpolar covalent bond?
A. Na – Cl
B. H – Cl
C. Li - Br,
D. Br - Br
4. Which pair of covalent bond atoms would form the greatest
polarity?
A. B–O
B. S–O
30
C. C–P
D. C–O
5. Which pair of covalent bond atoms would form the least polarity?
A. C – Cl
B. C–C
C. C–H
D. O–C
Table Completion
Directions: Using the Table of Electronegativity Values, determine

the bond type (ionic, polar and non-polar covalent) that would
be formed between each pair of atoms. Also, give the electronegativity
difference for each of item.
ELECTRONEGATIVITY
ELEMENTS BOND TYPE
DIFFERENCE
1. Na, Cl
2. Al, Cl
3. H, S
3. H, S
4. K, F
5. O, O
6. Mg, S
7. Li, Br
8. F, F
31
Multiple Choice
1. Which one of the following is most likely an ionic compound?

A. CaCl2
B. CO2
C. CS2
D. SO2
2. Which of these pairs of elements would form an ionic compound?
A. Cl and I
B. Al and K
C. Cl and Mg
D. C and S
3. Which one of the following is most likely a covalent compound?
A. BaO
B. SrO
C. SeO2
D. MnO2
4. In which of the pair of atoms would form a polar covalent bond?
A. Cl - Cl
B. P - Cl
C. Ca - Cl
D. Cr - Br
5. What type of chemical bond holds the atoms together within a
water molecule?
A. Ionic bond
B. Polar covalent bond
32
C. Nonpolar covalent bond
D. Coordinate covalent bond
True or False
Directions: Write TRUE if the statement is correct, FALSE if it is not.
1. The polarity of covalent bonds increases as the percent ionic
character increases.
2. A charge of 2+ is most likely to form from an atom whose electron
configuration is 1s22s22p63s23p4.
3. The bond in F2 is described as polar covalent.
4. Of the species NO2, NO, and N2, only NO2 is an exception to the
octet rule.
5. The C-Cl bond has less ionic character than the Si-Cl bond.
Identification
Directions: Classify each compound as either IONIC BOND or
COVALENT BOND.
1. CS2 - ____________________________
2. K2S - ____________________________
3. FeF3 - ____________________________
4. PF3 - ____________________________
5. AlF3 - ____________________________
6. BaS - ____________________________
Diagramming
B. Draw the Lewis Electron Dot structure of the following:

I. Ionic compounds
1) Na2O
2) Be2C
3) KCl
4) Al2S3
33
II. Covalent Compounds
1) SO3
2) CO2
3) PH3
4) N3
Short Answer Test

Directions: In three (3) sentences, explain the following question. Be
sure to give the basis for your answer. (5 points)
Would an atom of Cesium and Iodine join to form an ionic

compound?
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
34
Quarter: II
Competency: Recognize different types of compounds (ionic or
covalent) based on their properties such as melting
point, hardness, polarity, and electrical and thermal
conductivity (S9MT-IIb-14)
Identification
Directions: Determine the following properties/formula as either (A) for
molecular compounds or (B) for ionic compounds.
_______1. KBr
_______2. C2H6
_______3. Have lower melting point
_______4. More soluble in water
_______5. Involves the transfer of electrons
_______6. A poor conductor of electricity
_______7. Is formed by reactions of metals and nonmetals
_______8. The representative unit of this compound is molecule
_______9. Hydrogen bonds exist between these compounds
_______10. Physical state at room temperature is always a solid
Table Completion
Directions: Compare and contrast the two types of bond by filling in the
table with the appropriate data.
A Comparison of Ionic and Covalent Compounds
35
Ionic Compounds Covalent Compounds
Structure
Valence electrons
Electrical conductivity
State at room temperature
Melting and boiling
points
Table Completion
Directions: Fill in the table by checking the corresponding properties
evident in each compound identified. Write NE if not
evident.
Compounds
Properties KBr C12H22O11 NaCl H2O
melting/boiling high
point low
hard
hardness
porous
Polar
polarity
non polar
conductor
electrical, thermal
non
conductivity
conductor
Identification
36
Directions: Tell whether the following is ionic or molecular in nature.
Write I, if the compound is ionic or M, if the compound is
molecular.
1. SI6
2. NaHCO3
3. CuSO4
4. PBr5
5. CH3Cl
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: II
Competency: Explain properties of metals in terms of their structure
(S9MT-IIc-d-15)
Identification
Directions: Determine if the element is a metal or non-metal by
placing a check mark on the appropriate column.
Element Metal Non- metal
Carbon (C)
Gold (Au)
Platinum (Pt)
Sulfur (S)
Iron (Fe)
37
Sentence Completion
Directions: Fill in the blanks by choosing your answers from the terms
inside the box.
malleability high ductility solid
low liquid luster liquid
1. The characteristic of a metal which can be drawn into wires is

called _________.
2. The way a metallic substance reflects light or shines is referred to as
__________.
3. The characteristic that describes how well a metallic substance can
be hammered into sheets is known as ____________.
4. The state of metals at room temperature is generally ___________.
5. Melting and boiling point of metals are generally _________.
Short Answer Test

Directions: In three (3) sentences, explain your answer to this question.
When dissolved in water, which of the substances: aluminum wire, sugar
(C12H22O11) or potassium hydroxide (KOH) will conduct electric current? (5 points)
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: II
38
Competency: Explain how ions are formed (S9MT-IIe-f-16)
Multiple Choice
1. When does calcium follow the octet rule when reacting to form a
compound?
A. When it gains electron
B. When it gives up electrons
C. When it does not change its number of electrons
D. When calcium does not follow the octet rule
2. What is the maximum charge for an ion?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
3. How many electrons do nitrogen gain in order to achieve a noble-
gas electron configuration?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
4. How many electrons do barium have to lose in order to achieve a
noble-gas electron configuration?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
5. Which rare gas would be used for the gas notation of the electronic
configuration for silver?
A. argon
B. radon
C. xenon
39
D. krypton
Multiple Choice
1. Which type of bond has mobile electrons within bonding networks?
A. ionic
B. metallic
C. polar covalent
D. nonpolar covalent
2. The model for metallic bonding is known as the _____.
A. quantum model
B. Rutherford model
C. electron sea model
D. electron cloud model
3. Which of the following diagrams is that of a metallic atom?
4. Which phrase best describes a metallic bond?

A. Sharing of electrons between atoms
B. Attraction between molecules
C. Transfer of electrons from one atom to another
D. Attraction provided by mobile electrons for a network of
positive ions
5. When you cut an electric copper wire, what force of attraction is
40
broken?
A. Ionic bond
B. Metallic bond
C. Covalent bond
D. Hydrogen bond
Identification
Directions: Determine the ion to be formed by the following neutral
atom then, indicate its ionic charge.
Neutral atom Ion

1. Rubidium ____________
2. Calcium ____________
3. Nitrogen ____________
4. Oxygen ____________
5. Iodine ____________
Short Answer Test

Directions: Give what is being asked in the following items. Write your
answer on the space provided.
1. What is the formula of the ion that is formed when phosphorus
achieves a noble-gas electron configuration? _______
2. What is the formula of the ion that is formed when selenium achieves
a pseudo-noble-gas electron configuration? _______
3. What is the charge of the cation in the ionic compound sodium sulfide? ________
4. What is the net charge of the ionic compound calcium fluoride? _______
41
5. How many electrons do nitrogen gain in order to achieve a noble-gas electron
configuration? ________
Table Completion
Directions: Fill in the table with the correct data. Write NA if it is not
applicable.
Diagramming
Directions: Write the Lewis dot symbol for the following:
1. Chloride Ion
2. Sulfide Ion
3. Calcium Ion
4. Nitride Ion
5. Lead atom
Short Answer Test

Directions: In two (2) sentences, answer the question below. Be able to
give the basis for your answer.
Why is the charge of a Chloride Ion a negative one (-1) even though the 42
Lead
Chlorine to gains
atom Go, Love to Grow,toLive
an electron formto the
Glow
ion? (5points)
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: II
Competency: Explain how the structure of the carbon atom affects
the type of bonds it forms (S9MT-IIg-17)
Cloze Test
Directions: Use this completion exercise to check your understanding of

the concepts and terms on organic compounds. Each blank can be
completed with a term, short phrase or number found inside the
box that follows:
alkyl branches carbon eight(8) four(4)

halide hydrocarbons longest continuous organic parent
straight
43
The branch of chemistry that deals with __1___ compounds is called ___2___
chemistry Organic compounds that contain only carbon and hydrogen are ___3___
Carbon always forms ___4____ covalent bonds. Alkanes contain only carbon-carbon
___5____ bonds. The carbons can be arranged in a ___6____ chain or in a chain that
has ___7____ . A hydrocarbon substituent is called an ___8___ group. The first step
in naming branched-chain alkanes is to find the ___9___ chain of carbons in the
molecule. This chain is the ___10___ structure.
Matching Type
Directions: Match the DESCRIPTION about hydrocarbons with the
correct TERM.
DESCRIPTION TERM
1. hydrocarbon substituent
A. alkanes
2. alkanes that contain one or more alkyl
B. alkyl group
substituents
C. substituents
3. hydrocarbons that contain only single
D. hydrocarbons
covalent bonds
E. straight-chain
4. organic compounds that contain only
alkanes
carbon and hydrogen
F. branched-
5. alkanes that contain any number of carbons
chain alkanes
one after another in a chain
True or False
44
Directions: Classify each of the statement below as: always true (AT),
sometimes true (ST) or never true (NT).
1. Straight-chain alkanes contain 10 carbon atoms.
2. Substituent can take the place of a hydrogen atom on a parent
hydrocarbon molecule.
3. Because a carbon atom contains 6 valence electrons, covalent it
forms 3 bonds.
4. When naming branched-chain hydrocarbons, the names of the
substituent alkyl groups are listed in alphabetical order.
5. Hydrocarbon structural formulas are numbered from right to left.
Multiple Choice
1. The maximum number of bonds a carbon atom can form is ____.
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
2. A form of the element carbon that consists of carbon atoms
arranged in a repeating pattern is ____.
A. alkenes
B. fullerene
C. polymers
D. alkyl group
3. Which of the following hydrocarbons are unsaturated?
A. alkanes and alkenes
B. alkanes and alkynes
C. alkenes and alkynes
45
D. alkenes and alkanes
4. What is the IUPAC name for CH3---CH2---CH---CH2---CH---CH3 ?
CH3 CH3
A. isooctane
B. isohexane
C. 1,3-dimethylhexane
D. 2,4-dimethylhexane
5. What is the IUPAC name for CH3—CH2---CH2---CH=CH--CH3?
A. hexane
B. 2-hexene
C. 3-hexene
D. 4-hexene
6. How many different isomers are there for dibromobenzene, C6H4Br2?

A. 0
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
7. What is the systematic name for CH3---CBr2---CH3?
A. 2,2-dibromopropane
B. 1,3-dibromopropane
C. 1,2-dibromopropane
D. 1,1-dibromopropane
8. What is the condensed structural formula for 1-propanol?
A. CH3—CH2—CH2—OH
B. CH3—CH2—O—CH3
C. CH3—O—CH2—CH3
D. CH3—CH(OH)—CH3
9. What is the condensed structural formula for “propylamine”?
A. (CH3)3N
B. CH3—CH2—NH2
46
C. CH3---CH(NH2)---CH3
D. CH3—CH2—CH2—NH2
10. What is the condensed structural formula for 3-pentanone?
A. CH3---CH2—CH2—CH2---CH3
B. CH3---CO---CH2---CH2---CH3
C. CH3---CH2---CO---CH2---CH3
D. CH3---CH2---CH2---CO---CH3
Short Answer Test
Directions: Write your answer in 2 – sentences for each of the questions that
follow. Please be guided with the rubric.
(Note: Teacher should design a rubric which fits the ability of the
students with the concepts learned as another consideration. Present
and discuss the rubric first before the test is conducted.)
1. Why do most cyclic hydrocarbons have higher boiling points than

alkanes with the same number of carbons?
2. Describe graphite and diamond in terms of their hardness or softness.
How do the arrangement of their atoms account for their
characteristics?
47
Subject: Science
Grade: 9
Quarter: II
Competency: Recognize the general classes and uses of organic
compounds (S9MT-IIh-18)
Diagram Completion
Directions: Choose the formula from the boxes with the appropriate
functional group in the diagram that follows. Write your answer
on the box inside the circle.
48
Note: The diagram above is adapted from the Wikipedia.
Table Completion
Directions: Complete the table below by identifying the compound

being described in each item. Write the term/s in your
answer sheet.
Functional
No Compounds Formula Uses
group
1 __________ CH CH3- Ethylene makes polythene

(CH2)n- covers. Acetylene is used as a
CH3. gas for welding.
2 __________ CH CH2- Methane is used to produce

(CH2)n- electricity, CycloHexane is
CH2. used as solvent.
3 __________ R-O-R CH3- Di-ethyl ether is used as

(CH2)n-O- anesthetic.
(CH2)-CH3.
4 __________ R-COO-R CH3- All the cooking oils and lipids

(CH2)- come under this category.
COO-
(CH2)-CH3.
49
Functional
No Compounds Formula Uses
group
5 __________ R-CHO CH3- Formaldehyde is used as

(CH2)n- disinfectant, to preserve
CHO. biologic samples etc.
6 __________ R-C=O-R CH3- Acetone is used To remove nail

(CH2)n- polish. It is also used as a
C=O-CH3. solvent in chromatography.
7 __________ R-CH2-OH CH3- For alcoholic drinks, As

(CH2)n- solvents, fuel etc.
COH.
8 __________ R-CONH2 CH3- They are part of proteins and

(CH2)n- also used in many reactions.
CONH2.
9 __________ R-CNH2 CH3- As bases in acid base titrations,

(CH2)n- as dyes, as drugs like
CHNH2 chlorpheniramine (anti-allergy)
10 __________ HOOC- HOOC- Building blocks of protein

CHR-NH2 CH2-NH2.
50
Multiple Choice
1. What class of compound is C6H5—OH?

A. alcohol
B. ether
C. ketone
D. phenol
2. What class of compound is produced from the reaction of
carboxylic acid and alcohol using sulfuric acid catalyst?
A. aldehyde
B. ester
C. ether
D. ketone
3. If we remove one hydrogen (H) atom from alkane (saturated
hydrocarbon), we get an _______________.
A. Alkyl group
B. Alkene group
C. Alkyne group
D. Aldehyde group
4. Ethers are formed by the attachment of _______________.
A. four alkyl groups to one oxygen atom
B. three alkyl groups to one oxygen atom
C. two alkyl groups to same oxygen atom
D. two alkyl group to different oxygen atoms
51
5. Alcohols (CnH2n+1OH) are formed by the attachment of
________________.
A. OH group to hydrocarbon chain
B. HX group to hydrocarbon chain
C. O to hydrocarbon chain
D. H to hydrocarbon chain
6. If OH group is attached to benzene ring, the compound formed is
_____________.
A. Alcohol
B. Phenol
C. Alkene
D. Alkyne
7. Propane (C3H8) and butane (C4H10) in liquid form are used in
_____________.
A. LSG
B. LPG
C. ECG
D. LNG
8. Organic compound used for artificial ripening of fruits is
________________.
A. methane
B. ethane
C. propane
D. acetylene
9. Which of the following describes a phenol?
A. aromatic
B. strong acid
C. completely soluble in water
D. contains two hydroxyl groups
10. Esters can be used as component of the following EXCEPT

_______________.
52
A. solvent
B. perfume
C. flavoring
D. tanning agent
Multiple Choice
Directions: Choose the word that does not belong to the group.
Write the letter of your answer in your paper.
Group/ Choices
Item No. A B C D
1 Hydroxyl quinone resonance micelle
group
2 carbonyl oxy antiseptic explosive
3 alcohol oxidation Sulfuric acid Carboxylic
acid
4 KMnO4 phenol acidic ether
5 Ester benzene phenol ether
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: II
Competency: Use the mole concept to express mass of substance
and vice versa (SMT-IIi-19)
Identification
Directions: Study the relationship that exist between the first pair of
53
words. To complete the second pair of words, choose the
letter of the word that corresponds to the relationship of the
first pair.
1. dozen: eggs:: mole : ______
A. size
B. atoms
C. grams
D. Avogadro’s number
2. gram atomic mass: element:: gram molecular mass : _______
A. molecule
B. formula unit
C. ionic compound
D. molecular compound
3. mole: 6.02 X 10 23:: molar volume : ________
A. 1 atm
B. 1 mole
C. 22.4 L
D. 273 K
4. oxygen: atom:: sulfur dioxide :: ________
A. ions
B. particles
C. molecules
D. formula units
5. covalent compounds: molecular mass:: ionic compounds : ________
A. ionic mass
B. atomic mass
C. formula mass
D. compound mass
Table Completion
54
Directions: Fill in the table with the components of the given compound
and give the number of atoms present for each. Please refer to the
given example.
Compound Kind of Atom Number of Atoms
Ex. Sodium (Na) 1
NaCl Chlorine (Cl) 1
1. P2Br4
2. Co(NO3)2
3. Fe2O3
4. N2O3
5. Mg(HSO4)2
Problem Solving
Directions: Calculate the formula/molecular mass of the following
compounds.
A. Formula mass
1. Lithium fluoride (LiF) _______
2. Ammonium fluoride (NH4F) _______
3. Potassium phosphate (K3PO4) _______
4. Calcium nitrate (Ca(NO3)2) _______
5. Magnesium acetate (Mg(C2H3O2)2 ___________
B. Molecular mass
1. SF6 S = ___________
F = ___________
Total =___________
2. N2F4
N = ___________
F= ___________
Total =___________
3. C2H4O2
C = ___________
H = ___________
55
O = ___________
Total =___________
4. C2H5OH
C = ___________
H = ___________
O = ___________
Total =___________
5. C12H22O11
C = ___________
H = ___________
O = ___________
Total =___________
Problem Solving
Directions: For each problem given, select its numerical value from the
choices. Some of the responses may be used more than
once but, if it is not found in the options, write the correct
answer.
A.
12.0
______ 1. Atomic mass, in amu, of C
______ 2. Formula mass, in amu, of CO2 24.0
______ 3. Molar mass, in grams, of CO2
44.0
______ 4. Mass, in grams, of 6.02 x 1023 atoms of C
______ 5. Mass, in grams, of 2.00 moles of CO2
B.
______ 1. Number of moles of S in 2 moles of H2SO4
A. 1 56
Tel. No. (053) 323-8882/ depedleyte.net/ [email protected] B. 2
C. 6
D. 12
______ 2. Number of moles of atoms in 2 moles of
SO2
______ 3. Number of moles of H in 1 mole of
(NH4)3PO4
______ 4. Number of moles of O atoms in 3 moles
of O2
______ 5. Number of moles of O2 molecules in 2
moles of O2
C. Directions: Compute the magnitudes in each item to three

significant figures. Then, contrast the answers by selecting the
appropriate response from the given choices. Some of the responses may
be used more than once but, if it is not found in the options, write the
correct answer.
_____1. (I) Mass of 1 mole of CO2 A. I is greater than II

(II) Mass of 1 mole of NH3 B. I is equal to II
_____2. (I) Moles in 28.0 g of N2 C. I is less than II
(II) Moles in 28.0 g of CO D. I and II cannot be compared
_____3. (I) Molecules in 2 moles of CO because of insufficient information
(II) Molecules in 2 moles of CO2
_____4. (I) Atoms in 3 moles of CO
(II) Atoms in 2 moles of CO2
_____5.(I) Molecules in 28.0 g of N2
(II) Molecules in 28.0 g of O2
57
Multiple Choice
1. A mole of a chemical substance represents ________________.
A. the mass of the substance that will combine with 12.0 g of
carbon
B. the mass of the substance that will combine with 100.0 g of
oxygen
C. 6.02 x 1023 chemical particles of the substance
D. 6.02 x 10–23 grams of the substance
2. Which of the following statements concerning Avogadro’s number is

correct?
A. It has the value 6.02 x 10–23.
B. It denotes the number of molecules in one mole of any molecular
substance.
C. It is the mass, in grams, of one mole of any substance.
D. It denotes the number of atoms in one mole of any substance.
3. In which of the following molar quantities of sulfur would 8.13 x 1023
atoms of sulfur be present?
A. 1.15 moles S
B. 1.25 moles S
C. 1.35 moles S
D. 1.45 moles S
4. Avogadro’s number of phosphorus (P) atoms would have a mass of
________________.
A. 6.02 x 10–23 g
B. 6.02 x 1023 g
C. 15.0 g
D. 31.0 g
58
5. Which of the following samples has the largest mass in grams?
A. 2 moles of CO2
B. 3 moles of CO
C. 4 moles of H2O
D. 5 moles of H2
6. Which of the following samples contains the greatest number of
atoms?
A. 1 mole of CO2
B. 2 moles of He
C. 3 moles of N2O
D. 4 moles of CO
7. Which of the following is the correct equation for this problem: “How
many atoms are present in 10.0 g S?”
A.  6.02 x 10 23 atoms S 
a) 10.0 g S x  
 1.0 g S 
 1 mole S   1 atom S 
b) 10.0 g S x  x 
B.  32.07 g S   6.02 x 10 moles S 
23
 1 mole S   6.02 x 10 23 atoms S 

C. c) 10.0 g S x  x 
 32.07 g S   1 mole S 
 6.02 x 10 atoms S 
23
D. d) 10.0 g S x  23 
 6.02 x 10 g S 
8. The “set-up” for the problem “What is the mass, in grams, of 3.00 x
106 atoms of F?” which follows is correct, except numbers in the
middle conversion factor have been replaced by the letters A and
B. What are the numerical values of A and B, respectively?
A. 1 and 6.02 x 1023
B. 1 and 19.00
C. 6.02 x 1023 and 1
D. 19.00 and 6.02 x 1023
9. Which of the following is the correct equation for this problem: “How
many grams of S are present in 50.0 g of S4N4?”
59
   
A. a) 50.0 g S4 N 4 x  1 mole S4 N 4  x  4 moles S  x  32.07 g S 
 184.32 g S4 N 4   1 mole S4 N 4   4 moles S 
 1 mole S4 N 4   4 moles S   32.07 g S 
B. b) 50.0 g S4 N 4 x  x x 
 184.32 g S4 N 4   1 mole S4 N 4   1 mole S 
   
C. c) 50.0 g S4 N 4 x  1 mole S4 N 4  x  1 mole S  x  32.07 g S 
 184.32 g S4 N 4   1 mole S4 N 4   1 mole S 
D.  1 mole S4 N 4   1 mole S   32.07 g S 
d) 50.0 g S4 N 4 x  x x 
 184.32 g S4 N 4   4 moles S4 N 4   1 mole S 
10. How many molecules of CO2 are present in 13.4 g of CO2?

A. 1.83 x 1023
B. 5.06 x 1023
C. 9.79 x 1024
D. 3.55 x 1026
Short Answer Test

Directions: In 2-3 sentences, explain you answer to the question below.
Be able to give the basis for your answer.
Why does one mole of carbon have a smaller mass than one mole of
sulfur? How are the atomic structures of these elements different?
60
Subject Area: Science
Grade: 9
Quarter: II
Competency: Determine the percentage composition of a
compound given its chemical formula and vice
versa (S9MT-IIj-20)
Table Completion
Directions: Fill in the table with the needed data. The first one has
been done for you.
Compounds Elements Number of Atomic Total
Identified Atoms mass number of
Atoms
Example:
K2CrO4 K 2 19 amu
Cr 1 24 amu 7
O 4 16 amu
NH4I
Fe(OH)3
Na2CO3
C6H10S2O
KC2H3O2
61
Problem Solving
Directions: Show the equation used to solve each problem. Round
off the atomic mass to the nearest tenth.
1. Write the general mathematical formula that can be used to
calculate the percent composition by mass of any substance.
2. Use the atomic mass of the elements to determine the percent
composition by mass of sodium and chlorine in sodium chloride.
Sodium = Na = 23.0 g Chlorine = Cl = 35.5 g Sodium
Chloride = NaCl = 58.5 g
3. Use the atomic mass of the elements to find the percent
composition of hydrogen in H2O.
 Hydrogen = H = 1.0 g x 2 H = 2.0 g
 Oxygen = O = 16.0 g
 Water = H2O = 18.0 g
4. Determine the percent composition of oxygen in potassium
chlorate (KClO3)
 Potassium = K = 39.1 g
 Chlorine = Cl = 35.5 g
 Oxygen = O = 16.0 g x 3 O = 48.0 g
 Potassium Chlorate = KClO3 = 122.6 g
5. Determine the percent composition of phosphorus in calcium
phosphate, Ca3(PO4)2.
 Calcium = Ca = 40.1 g x 3 = 120.3 g
 Phosphorus = P = 31.0 g x 2 = 62.0 g
 Oxygen = O = 16.0 g x 8 = 128.0 g
6. Copper (II) sulfate pentahydrate, with the formula CuSO4· 5H2O,
has a deep blue color. When heated to remove the water, the
crystals crumble and turn white. What is the percentage by mass
of water in copper (II) sulfate pentahydrate crystals?
62
Problem Solving
Directions: For each item, solve the unknown using the IDEAL
technique. Answer the questions that follow. (5 points)
1. An 8.20-g piece of magnesium combines completely with 5.40 g of oxygen to

form compound. What is the percent composition of this compound?
I-dentify the problem.: (1 point)
______________________________________________
D-efine the problem by listing the given variables. (1 point)
_______________________________________________
_______________________________________________
E-xpound by giving the appropriate equation (1 point)
_______________________________________________
A-nalyze and answer then show the solution. (1 point)
_______________________________________________
L-ook back or check if your answer makes sense. (1 point)
_______________________________________________
2. Sulfur makes up 26.7% of the mass of NaHSO4. Find the mass of the sulfur in
16.8 g of NaHSO4.
I-dentify the problem. (1 point)
______________________________________________
D-efine the problem by listing the given variables. (1 point)
______________________________________________
E-xpound by giving the appropriate equation. (1 point)
_______________________________________________
A-nalyze and answer then show the solution. 1 point)
_______________________________________________
L-ook back or check if your answer makes sense. (1 point)
_______________________________________________
Problem Solving
Directions: Find the percent composition of each of the elements in the compounds
given. Round off the answers to the nearest tenth of percent.
63
Example:
NaCl
Na: 23 ÷ 58 X 100 = 39.7 % Cl: 35 ÷ 58 X 100 = 60.3 %
1) CrF3
Cr: ___________ F: ___________
2) Na3PO4
Na: ___________ P: ___________ O: ___________
3) KCN
K: ___________ C: ___________ N: ___________
4) PI3
P: ___________ I: ___________
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: III
Competency: Describe the different types of volcanoes.
(S9ES -IIIa-25)
64
Identification
Direction: Label the parts of the volcano.
(4)
(3)
(5)
(2)
(1)
https://georgiasieversblog.blogspot.com/2015/07/parts-of-volcano.html
Matching Type
Direction: Match the DESCRIPTIONS given with the corresponding
PICTURES. Write the letter which corresponds to the correct
answer.
DESCRIPTIONS PICTURES
65
1. A broad, slightly domed structure
formed by free- flowing non-
viscous lava. A.
2. A steep-slope structure with
www.zmescience.com
wide crater built from ejected

lava fragments.
3. Nearly perfect structure formed
B.
from alternate solidification of
www.philnews.ph
both lava and pyroclastic
deposits.
4. A structure which can eject
C.
basaltic magma and the lava
https://commons.wikimedia.org
formed is characterized by thick
sequences of discontinuous
pillow-shaped masses.
D.
5. A structure created by small
masses of lava which are too www.volcano.si.edu
viscous (thick) to flow very far

piling up over and around the
vent. E.
http://sites.google.com
F.
http://google.com
Identification
Directions: Identify the type of volcano being described by the following. Choose
your answer from the word pool.
Cinder cone Subglacial volcano
Composite volcano Supervolcano

66
Lead
Shield to Go, Love to Grow, Live to
volcano Glow dome
Volcanic
______ 1. a type of volcano described to produce the largest eruptions
on Earth
______ 2. a volcano smaller than a shield volcano and tagged as the
simplest type of volcano in the world
______ 3. a steep-sided mound expanding from within formed by small,
bulging masses of lava
______ 4. a landform created by eruptions beneath the surface of a
glacier or sheets which is then melted into a lake by the rising
lava
______ 5. a broad, gently sloping land form which cannot be filed up
into steep mounds forming some of the world’s largest
volcanoes
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: III
Competency: Differentiate between active and inactive
volcanoes (S9ES -IIIa-27)
Cloze Test
67
Direction: Supply the missing term to complete the thought of the following
paragraph.
According to __(1.)__ (PHIVOLCS), our country is an ideal site for any

volcanic activity. It classified Philippine volcanoes into __(2.)__according to its
activity. __(3.)__volcanoes are those that have records of eruption within the last
600 years or those that erupted 10,000 years ago based on analyses of their
materials. __(4.)__volcanoes, on the other hand, have not erupted for 10,000 years
with their physical form changed by agents of weathering and erosion. Just
recently, volcanoes with no recorded eruption but have been observed to have
seismological activities are classified __(5.)__volcanoes.
Table Completion
Direction: Differentiate active volcano and inactive volcano by completing the table.
Types of Volcano
Characteristics
Active Volcano Inactive Volcano
Records of Eruption (1.) (2.)
Ejected Volcanic Materials (3.) (4.)
Examples (5.) (6.)
Diagram Completion Test
Direction: Compare and contrast active and inactive volcano using
68
the Venn Diagram.
Active Inactive
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: III
Competency: Explain what happens when volcanoes erupt.
(S9ES -IIIb-28)
Sequencing Test
Directions: Arrange the following events based on what happens when a volcano
erupt. Use numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 to indicate the arrangement.
_____ When the pressure exceeds the strength of the overlying rock,
fracturing occurs.
_____ The resulting breaks lead to a further drop in confining pressure,
which in turn, causes, even more, gas bubbles to form.
_____ These gas bubbles then exceed the melting volume in the
magma producing magma foam that can lead into explosive eruptions.
69
_____ Magma inside the volcano has high temperature. As the magma
is continuously heated, it goes up. As it rises, gas bubbles are developed.
_____ The gas bubbles are trapped and expanded causing the molten
material to swell also, resulting in a gradual increase in pressure within the
volcano.
Sentence Completion Test

Directions: Complete the statement by writing the missing word/s on
the space provided. Choose from the words below.
gas silica content
high temperature
low viscosity
1. Magma with high _____ are more viscous.

2. The viscosity of magma decreases with _____.
3. The property of the material’s resistance to flow is _____.
4. Magma tends to increase its ability to flow when it contains dissolved _____.
5. Lava with low amount of gas as it rises has _____ viscosity that it piles up at a
vent resulting in a dome.
70
Matching Type
Directions: Match the DESCRIPTIONS with the TYPES OF VOLCANIC

ERUPTIONS. Write the letter which corresponds to the
correct answer.
DESCRIPTIONS TYPES OF VOLCANIC
1. an excessively explosive type of ERUPTIONS
eruption of gas and pyroclastics

A. Magmatic
2. a stream-driven eruption as the B. Phreatic
C. Phreatomagmatic
hot rocks come in contact with
D. Plinian
water E. Strombolian
F. Vulcanian
3. a violent eruption due to the
contact between water and
magma
4. a periodic weak to violent
eruption characterized by
fountain lava
5. characterized by tall eruption
columns that reach up to 20 km

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ashfall tephra
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: III
Competency: Illustrate how energy from volcanoes may be
tapped for human use (S9ES –IIIc-d-29)
Sequencing Test
Directions: Arrange the steps of generating electricity in a geothermal
power plant. Illustrate the process using the graphic
organizer.
STEPS
Cooling tower cools the steam which it

condenses back to water.
The steam spins the turbine which is Heat of the

connected to a generator that produces Earth warms
the water
electricity. inside the
Earth.
The cooled water is pumped back into the

Earth to begin the process again.
Wells are drilled deep into the Earth to pump

steam or hot water to the surface.
When the water reaches the surface, the drop

in pressure causes the water to turn into steam.
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Picture Analysis
Directions: Based from the picture, illustrate how geothermal power
plant uses energy from volcanoes to produce electricity.
Use the graphic organizer.
https://www3.epa.gov
Picture Analysis
Directions: Using the diagram below, make a flow chart that will tell
how energy from volcanoes are developed for human
utilization. Use the pictures as your guide.
73
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: III
Competency: Explain how different factors affect the climate of an
area (S9ES-IIIe-30)
Table Completion Test

Directions: Given some factors and specific conditions, complete the
table with the corresponding effects to air temperature and
climate.
Factors Affecting Specific Condition Effects to Air Effects to

Climate Temperature Climate
Latitude area near the equator

area at high elevation
Altitude
above sea level
Distance from a area far from a body
body of water of water
leeward side of the
Topography
mountain
moving towards the
Ocean current
equator
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Multiple Choice
Directions: Choose the letter inside the box that best explains the
statements from 1-5.
A. The higher the altitude of an area, the lower the temperature it

experiences.
B. As the latitude increases, the air temperature lowers.
C. When ocean current carries warm water, the air above it becomes
warmer.
D. The windward side of the mountain receives more precipitation than the
leeward side.
E. Places far from bodies of water experiences extreme temperature.
1. Tropical countries experience different climate from other countries near polar
regions.
2. Tagaytay which is 640 m above sea level has an annual average temperature
of 22.7 °C while Manila which is 10 m above sea level has 27.7 °C annual
average temperature.
3. The southwestern parts of Singapore and Indonesia have lower temperatures
because of the cold air brought by West Australian current.
4. La Paz is a place without a body of water nearby. It tends to have a very high
temperature during day time.
5. Two sides of a mountain grow different kinds of vegetation and differ in
temperature and amount of rainfall.
Sentence Completion
Directions: Complete the statement by filling in each blank with the
75
correct word.
1. The amount of precipitation in a region of a mountainous area varies.

Windward side receives greater amount of precipitation resulting to a colder
climate while _______ side receives less precipitation and become dry
resulting to a warm climate.
2. Places near the equator receives direct heat from the sun. This allows them to
experience a tropical climate. Meanwhile, places far from the equator do not
receive direct rays from the sun letting them experience a _______ climate.
3. When warm ocean currents that bring warm air and water go to a nearby land
mass, the temperature of the place will _______ resulting to a warm climate.
Cold ocean current will then result to a colder climate.
4. Places without a nearby body of water experiences an extreme temperature
while places near a body of water tend to have a _______ temperature.
5. The higher the elevation above sea level of an area is, the _______ will be the
air temperature of the area causing to a cold climate.
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: III
Competency: Describe certain climatic phenomena that occur on
a global level. (S9ES-IIIf-31)
Matching Type
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Directions: Match the DESCRIPTIONS with the corresponding
PHENOMENA. Write only the letter of the correct answer.
DESCRIPTIONS PHENOMENA
1. A process of warming which results A. Climate Change
when the atmosphere traps heat B. El Niño
radiating from Earth towards space. C. Global Warming
2. It refers to any significant change in D. Greenhouse Effect
the measures of climate lasting for an E. La Niña
extended period of time.
F. Typhoon
3. A naturally occurring phenomenon
that is linked to a periodic warming in
sea surface temperatures across the
central and east-central Equatorial
Pacific.
4. A phenomenon that describes cooler
than normal ocean surface
temperatures in the Eastern and
Central Pacific Ocean.
5. It refers to the ongoing rise in global
average temperature caused mostly
by increasing concentrations of
greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.
Identification
Directions: Using the graphic organizer, describe the climatic
phenomenon shown by the picture. Fill out the boxes with
the needed information.
MEANING
(1.)
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Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow CAUSES
(2 – 3)
goldenageofgaia.com
(4 – 5)
True or False
Directions: Write T on the blank if the statement describes climate
change and write F if the statement does not.
Climate change is . . .
_____ 1. believed to have been caused by human expansion of
greenhouse effect.
_____ 2. any significant change in the measures of climate experienced
for a short period of time.
_____ 3. accompanied by major changes in temperature, precipitation,
or wind patterns.
_____ 4. a problem that affects all abiotic and biotic components of
the planet.
_____ 5. considered as a major environmental concern.
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: III
Competency: Infer the characteristics of stars based on the
characteristics of the Sun. (S9ES-IIIg-32)
Picture Analysis
Directions: Study the picture and answer the questions that follow.
78
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escommunity.com
1. The color of stars tell its temperature. Give an inference about the temperature
of the following stars in comparison with the sun.
A. Sirius
B. Alpha Centauri A
C. Epsilon Indi
2. If the illustration shows the apparent size of the stars, give an inference about
the distance from the Earth of the following stars in comparison with the sun.
A. 17 Red Dwarfs
B. Procyon
True or False
Directions: Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if it is
incorrect.
1. Betelgeuse, a red star, is hotter than Sun.

79
2. The intrinsic properties of stars include brightness, color, temperature, mass,
and size.
3. The apparent magnitude of the star is a measure of the amount of light it
actually gives off.
4. A star is a hot luminous celestial body producing its own light and other
electromagnetic radiation.
5. An orange star is colder than a yellow star. Hence, the color of the star
indicates its surface temperature.
Cloze Test
Direction: Supply the missing term to complete the following
paragraph.
A star is a huge, massive sphere of incandescent gas. They have

different properties, including brightness, color, temperature, mass, and size.
The color of the star indicates its ______.The property of a star described in
terms of magnitude and luminosity is called ______.The _____ brightness of
the star is the measure of the amount of light it actually gives off while the
amount of light received on earth is called ______ brightness. According to
______, stars are classified as supergiant, giant, and dwarf star.
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Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: III
Competency: Infer that the arrangement of stars in a group
(constellation) does not change (S9ES-IIIh-33)
 Identify different constellations
 Recognize variety of constellations
 Conclude that the arrangement of stars in a group
(constellation) does not change.
Identification
Directions: Identify the constellation described in the statement.
Choose the correct answer from the box.
Andromeda Hercules
Cassiopeia Orion
Draco Ursa Major

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_____ 1. It is named after the greatest of the Greek heroes.
_____ 2. It is the constellation which contains the Big Dipper.
_____ 3. It is known as the vain and boastful wife of King Cepheus.
_____ 4. Its name is derived from a Latin name which means “huge
serpent”.
_____ 5. It is known as “The Hunter” located on celestial equator and
visible throughout the world.
Identification
Directions: Illustrations of constellations are shown in every item. Supply

its name using the broken lines as clue.
82
Picture Analysis
Direction: Study the illustrations carefully. Then, answer the questions
that follow.
Questions:
1. Are the arrangements of the stars on each of the following constellations in
the night sky of March the same during the month of April?
83
 Ursa minor
 Ursa major
2. Are the positions of each of the following constellation in the night sky of
March the same during the month of April?
 Ursa minor
 Ursa major
3. What can be inferred with the arrangement of stars in a constellation and

the position of constellations in the sky for every month?
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: III
Competency: Observe the position of constellation changes in the
course of a night. (S9ES-IIIi-34)
Multiple Choice
Direction: Read each item carefully and encircle the letter that
1. What specific star appears almost motionless in the Northern sky as the earth
rotates?
A. Antares
B. Betelgeuse
C. Polaris
D. Sirius
2. What is the direction of the apparent motion of constellations as seen from the
Earth?
84
A. East to west
B. North to south
C. South to north
D. West to east
3. Which of the following constellation is prominently seen in the Philippines

during cold season?
A. Cygnus
B. Orion
C. Scorpius
D. Virgo
4. What is responsible for the change in position of a constellation overnight?
A. Rotation of the Earth on its axis
B. Revolution of the Earth around the sun
C. Rotation of the constellation on its axis
D. Revolution of the constellation around the Earth
5. Why can we see different constellation at different times of the year?

A. Rotation of the Earth on its axis
B. Revolution of the Earth around the sun
C. Rotation of the constellation on its axis
D. Revolution of the constellation around the Earth
85
Picture Analysis
Directions: Study the illustrations showing the variety of constellations at
different times of the year including the position and
location of each constellation in every month. Write your
observations with the identified constellation on the
provided table.
https://kidscosmos.org https://kidscosmos.org
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https://kidscosmos.org https://kidscosmos.org
Name of Constellation Observation
1. Aquarius
2. Cepheus
3. Cygnus
4. Pieces
5. Ursa Major
True or False
Direction: Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if it is
incorrect.
_____ 1. Constellations apparently move in the sky from east to west.
_____ 2. Same constellations are seen by the viewer at different months
of the year.
_____ 3. Polaris is very close to the north celestial pole making it the
current northern pole star.
_____ 4. Orion and Scorpius are two famous constellations that appear
in opposite parts of the sky.
_____ 5. The revolution of the earth results to the change in position of
the constellations in the sky on a particular night.
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: III
Competency: Show which constellations may be observed at
87
different times of the year using models. (S9ES-IIIj-35)
Table Completion
Direction: Complete the table with the needed information.
Local Name Month of Related Western
Appearance Agricultural Equivalent
Activity
Baha December to Clearing of forest (1)
February
Pandarawa January (2) Pleiades
Balatik (3) Start of planting Orion’s Belt

and setting of
traps to protect
the crops from
animals
(4) April and May Signifies rich Gemini
harvest
(5) May Stop planting Canis Minor
Diagram Completion
Direction: Identify the uses of constellations.
Uses of
Constellations
How Early People Uses of

Used the Constellations to
Constellations People Today
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

88
Identification
Direction: Draw the constellation “Gemini”. Then, give the required

details.
DRAWING
1.
2. Common Name: _______________________________________

3. Local Name: ___________________________________________
4. Related Agricultural Activity: ____________________________
5. Month of Appearance: _________________________________
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: IV
Competency: Describe the horizontal and vertical motions of a
projectile (S9FE-IVa-34)
Short Answer Test

Directions: Answer the following questions based on the situation
shown in the figure below.
89
Figure 1. Motion map of a ball thrown horizontally from an elevation,
showing position of the object in equal time interval.
1. How will you describe the vertical motion?

2. How will you describe the horizontal motion?
3. How will you compare the projectile motion (shown with curved path) to the
vertical motion (free fall) and horizontal motion?
4. What influences the projectile (curved) motion?
5. If there is no gravity, what will be the path of the motion of the ball thrown
horizontally? Explain your answer.
A B C D
E F G
vx
vy v
Where
v = velocity of projectile
vx = horizontal component of projectile’s
90
Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live tovelocity Glow
vy = vertical component of projectile’s
velocity
6. Based on the diagram of projectile motion above showing object’s position and
velocity in equal time interval;
6.1 What pattern do vertical arrows show? What does this pattern mean?
6.2 What pattern do horizontal arrows show? What does this pattern mean?
6.3 What happens to the length of the diagonal arrow as the object
continues its path?
7. Among the three types of arrows, which of them show changes in length? What
does the change in length represent?
8. What factor could have caused this change?
9. How is v related to vx and vy? What mathematical theorem and equation represent
the connection between v, vx, and vy?
10. What can be inferred from the series of illustrations below? (Compare their arrows
and describe what they represent.)
Completion Test
Directions. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate terms from the box.
projectile perpendicular constant
accelerated force weight
91
(1)______________ Motion has two (2)______________ components,
a horizontal and a vertical component. The horizontal component of the
velocity is (3)______________. The vertical motion is uniformly
(4)______________ with acceleration equal to -9.8 m/s2 all the time. The
(5)______________ acting on the projectile is its (6)______________.
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: IV
Competency: Investigate the relationship between the projection
angle of release and the height of range of the
projectile (S9FE-IVa-35)
Problem Solving (5 points per item)
Directions: Solve the problem presented in each item.
1. A stone is thrown off a 20-meter-high tower and lands a distance of 50 meters

from the edge of the tower. Determine the initial horizontal velocity of the stone.
2. An athlete jumps from the ground with an initial velocity of 10 m/s at an angle of
250 from the horizontal. Determine the time of flight, the horizontal distance and
the height reached by the jumper.
3. A ball is kicked with an initial velocity of 20 m/s at an angle of 450 with respect to
the horizontal. Compute the time of flight, the maximum height of the ball and the
horizontal distance traveled.
92
Identification
Directions. Tell whether the situation shows a projectile. Write Agree if it portrays a
projectile motion, Disagree if it does not portray a projectile.
1. A basketball is thrown toward the basket

2. A falling leaf swaying with the wind
3. A stone on top of the cabinet
4. A rock tosses towards the lake
5. A bullet fired from the gun barrel
True or False
Directions: Which of the following situations show projectile motion?
Write True for the statement that is correct and False for the
statement that is incorrect.
1. A projectile is a free-falling body.

2. A projectile is a moving object that is influenced by the force of gravity and
friction.
3. A projectile has a zero velocity at its peak vertical component.
4. A projectile has a constant vertical velocity.
5. A projectile moves with a constant horizontal velocity.
93
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: IV
Competency: Relate impulse and momentum to collision of objects
(e.g., vehicular collision) (S9FE-IVb-36)
Short Answer Test
Directions. Answer the following questions:
1. What happens when a van crashes into a truck?
2. What safety measures are provided on road crossings so that accidents

may be avoided?
3. A speeding motorbike bumps to a heavily loaded delivery truck parked

at the side of the road. Which of the two vehicles will have greater damage? Why?
4. A man and a girl both sitting at the jeepney were injured when the
jeepney collided with another jeepney. Which of these passengers will experience
less impact force?
5. Why are nets used to catch and save people jumping from burning
buildings?
Problem Solving
Directions: Solve each problem below. Show your solution.
94
1. Which object has greater momentum at a forward speed of 5m/s, a 0.1kg tennis
ball or a 0.5 kg basketball?
2. A 1000-kg delivery truck is running at 10 m/s.
a. What is its momentum?
b. If it were to be stopped in 20 sec by a retarding force, what must be its

negative acceleration?
3. A 75kg man is involved in a car accident. He was initially traveling at 65km/h

when he hit a large truck. If he had no airbag in his car and he came to rest against
the steering wheel in 0.050s, determine how much force was exerted on his body.
Multiple Choice
Directions. Read each item carefully and encircle the letter that
1) Which of the following is the definition of momentum?
A. The product of force and time
B. The change in velocity per unit time
C. The product of force and distance
D. The product of mass and velocity
2) Which of the following is the correct unit of momentum?

A. N∙m2
B. N/m2
C. N∙s
D. N/s2
3) Which of the following object has the greatest momentum?

A. 2 kg ball rolling at 2 m/s
B. 3 kg ball rolling at 1 m/s
C. 3 kg ball placed on the cabinet
D. 1 kg ball rolling at 5 m/s
95
4) A 55-kg athlete running at a speed of 8 m/s collided with another 55-kg athlete
moving at 5 m/s. Which statement is true?
A. Both athletes have the same momentum.
B. Athlete running at 8 m/s has less impact force compared to the athlete
moving at 5 m/s.
C. Both athletes will suffer injury because of their same body mass.
D. Athlete running at 5 m/s will sustain greater injury than the athlete
running at 8 m/s.
5) A 500 kg car is travelling at 5 m/s. What is its momentum?

A. 2500 kg∙m/s
B. 2000 kg∙m/s
C. 100 kg∙m/s
D. 10 kg∙m/s
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: IV
Competency: Infer that the total momentum before and after
collision is equal (S9FE-IVb-37)
Multiple Choice
96
1. The law of _______________ of Momentum states that momentum is neither
created nor destroyed.
A. Preservation
B. Conservation
C. Reservation
D. Protection
2. When the baseball bat hits the ball, the change in momentum of the bat is
_________ to the change in momentum of the ball.
A. greater than
B. less than
C. equal to
D. neither
3. Which has a greater momentum? A bus parked at the station or a bicycle in

motion?
A. Bus
B. Bicycle
C. Both
D. Neither
4. A force applied for a longer time increases the change in _______________.

A. Momentum
B. Gravity
C. Force
D. Mass
5. A change in momentum is called _____________.

A. force
B. impulse
C. gravity
D. mas
97
Problem Solving
Directions: Solve each problem below.
1. A 500 kg car traveling at 15m/s comes to a complete stop in 5 sec. What is the
retarding force applied?
2. A 65-kg basketball player moving at 7.5 m/s grabs and collides with a stationary
80-kg basketball player. What speed will the basketball players have the moment
after the collision?
98
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: IV
Competency: Examine effects and predict causes of collision-
related damages/injuries (S9FE-IVc-38)
Problem Solving
Directions. Solve each problem below.
1. A passenger bus of mass 2000 kg moving with a constant velocity of 5 m/s,

collided and moved another passenger bus of mass 2500 kg which is at rest.
Calculate the velocity with which the buses move off after the collision.
2. A motorcycle rider moving at a rate of 10 m/s collided with another rider moving
at 15 m/s. If both riders have a mass of 80 kg, what is their velocity during the
collision?
Cloze Test
Directions. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate terms from the box.
passengers forces minimized injury air-bag seat belt time

crumple impact energy collision 99
Science of Car Safety
(Adapted from: http://www.st-ambrosecollege.org.uk)
Moving cars and the passengers they carry have kinetic energy and many of
the safety features in all modern cars - seat belts, crumple zones, air bags and side
impact bars - are designed to reduce (1)__________________ by absorbing much of
this kinetic energy in the event of a crash. The design of these features also ensures
that the destructive (2)__________________ which would be exerted on
(3)__________________ when a collision occurs, are (4)__________________ as
much as possible.
A (5)__________________ keeps you in your seat during a crash. The belt is

designed to stretch by about 0.25 m in a crash and this allows the force holding you in
place to act over a longer (6)__________________. There are parts of the car at the
front and rear, which are designed to squash or (7)__________________ easily in the
event of a crash. The kinetic energy of the moving car is absorbed by the crumpling
because work is done in causing the metal to deform. The crumpling also lengthens
the (8)__________________ time and hence reduces the force which is transmitted to
the passengers. The purpose of a/an (9)__________________ is to provide a soft,
yielding cushion between the person’s upper body (mainly the head) and the steering
wheel or dashboard. The side impact bars cause the energy created during a
(10)__________________ to be directed to the floor, bulkhead, sills, roof etc.
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: IV
Competency: Explain energy transformation in various
activities/events (e.g., waterfalls, archery,
amusement rides) (S9FE-IVc-39)
Short Answer Test
Directions: Trace or identify the transformation of energy in the given
situations:
100
1. Grilling a fish
2. Doing laundry using washing machine
3. Drying your hair with a blower
4. Using a computer
5. Lighting a room using solar-powered bulbs.
Problem-Solving
Directions: Solve the problem below.
A 1 kg ball is dropped from rest on certain floors from a tall building. Calculate
the (a) total potential energy (b) kinetic and potential energies of the ball after one
second. Use g = 9.8 m/s2.
1. 10th floor = 30 m
Diagram Completion
Directions: Complete the given illustration.
Potential energy of 1._______________
mechanical energy of falling water
Mechanical energy of turbine
2.________________________
3. ________________________ Electrical energy used by electric fan

101
Sound energy 4._______________________
Light 5._______________________
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: IV
Competency: Infer that the total mechanical energy remains the same during any
process (S9FE-IVe-41)
Identification
Directions: Tell whether the following situations show work is done or no
work is done. Write W if there is work done and N of no work is done.
1. A boy sitting on the chair
2. A man pushing a concrete wall
3. Farmers planting rice
4. A waiter holding a tray
5. A student dragging a chair
102
Problem Solving
Directions: Answer the given word problems. Show your complete solutions.
1. How much kinetic energy is gained when 2000 kg of water falls from a height of
40 m?
2. What is the spring constant of a spring if 10.0 N compresses it by 2.5 cm?
3. The spring constant of a certain spring is k=200 N/m. How much
force is needed to stretch the spring by 10.0 cm?
True or False
Directions: Write T if the statement tells fact and F if false.
1. The total mechanical of the object at the highest point compared with the
total mechanical energy at the lowest point is equal.
2. The PE of the object at the highest point compared to its KE at the

lowest point is not the same.
3. A swinging pendulum possesses kinetic energy only.
4. The total mechanical energy of a body is the sum of its potential energy
and kinetic energy.
5. The mechanical energy of a free-falling body is conserved.
103
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: IV
Competency: Construct a model to demonstrate that heat can
do work (S9FE-IVe-42)
Sentence Completion
Directions: Supply the missing word or phrase to complete each statement
below.
1. When heat is converted to another form of energy, or whenever other

forms of energy are converted to heat, no energy is __________.
2. Of the methods by which heat may be converted into work, the one that
seems to be __________ efficient is the human body.
3. Heat engines are machines that convert heat energy into __________.
4. The boiler used to produce ___________ that runs locomotives are of

the water-tube type.
5. Waste heat from heat engines causes __________ pollution of bodies of

water.
Multiple Choice
Directions. Read each item carefully and encircle the letter that corresponds to the
correct answer.
1. Which of the following methods is the least practical when heat is converted into
work
A. the bicycle
B. the steam engine
C. burning gases
D. atomic reactor
104
2. Which of the following is not a part of a steam engine?
A. boiler
B. cylinder
C. steam chest
D. commutator
3. What is a refrigerator? It is a device that
A. removes heat from objects

B. primarily keeps the heat from going inside the refrigeration unit
C. uses a non-condensing-type motor
D. has a condenser located inside the refrigerator
4. In what condition does a refrigerator possibly transfer heat from a colder body to
another at a higher temperature?
A. the engine is cooler first
B. work is done on the engine
C. the body is first cooled
D. not very efficient
5. What is the importance Joules’s experiment?
A. It proved that heat was another form of energy.

B. It showed that heat can be related to work.
C. It demonstrated that mechanical energy could be transformed into
heat.
D. All of the above.
105
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: IV
Competency: Infer that heat transfer can be used to do work, and that work
involves the release of heat (S9FE-IVe-43)
Identification
Directions: In the figure below, describe the process of heat transfer that can be
used to do work that involves the release of heat.
106
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: IV
Competency: Explain why machines are never 100-percent
efficient (S9FE-IVe-44)
Multiple Choice
Directions. Read each item carefully and encircle the letter that corresponds to the
correct answer.
1. What are machines?
A. Instruments that assist us to do work easier.
B. Devices that help us do work.
C. Tools that fix the damage.
D. Materials that make our work difficult.
2. What is the name for a cyclical machine that transforms heat energy into work?
A. refrigerator
B. thermal motor
C. heat engine
D. Carnot cycle
3. The maximum possible efficiency of a heat engine is determined by

A. its design.
B. the amount of heat that flows.
C. the maximum and minimum pressure.
D. the maximum and minimum temperature.
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4. The engine with the largest possible efficiency uses a ______.
A. Diesel cycle
B. Joule cycle
C. Carnot cycle
D. Otto cycle
5. The number of times a machine multiplies force refers to its _________.
A. machine advantage
B. mechanical advantage
C. machine efficiency
D. mechanical efficiency
Short Answer Test

Directions: Answer the questions comprehensively.
1. Why can machines never work with 100% efficiency?
2. What is thermal pollution?
3. As a concerned citizen in your community, how will avoid, if not lessen the
thermal pollution in your environment?
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: IV
Competency: Explain how heat transfer and energy
transformation make heat engines like geothermal
plants work (S9FE-IVe-45)
Cloze Test
Directions: Fill in each blank to complete the thought of the paragraph by
choosing the word/phrase in the box.
108
electrical energy geothermal energy steam
turbines mechanical energy electricity
The source of (1)_______________ common in our province is
(2)_______________. It obtains from the earth’s heat. The heat obtained from its
interior is used produce (3)_______________. This runs the (4)_______________
where electricity is generated with the help of a generator which converts
(5)_______________ to electrical energy. (6)_______________, in turn, is
distributed to the community by electric companies. When you turned on the
electric lamps, you tapped into that energy.
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 9
Quarter: IV
Competency: Explain how electrical energy is generated, transmitted, and
distributed (S9FE-IVe-46)
Identification
Directions: Identify what alternative source of energy is being described in each
item below. Refer your answer in the box.
Energy from alcohol Energy from the earth’s interior
Energy of falling water Energy from waste
Energy of the wind Energy of the sun
Energy from the atom
1. Energy from splitting the nucleus of the atom

2. Groundwater in contact with hot rocks gets heated
3. Turns windmill blades to pump water or generate electricity
4. Water stored at a high level in dams of rivers
5. From sugar cane used as a gasoline substitute
6. Heat from the sun trapped and concentrated for cooking and heating
7. Material changed to methane gas, a substitute for cooking gas
109
Short-Answer Test
(A) Directions: Using a flow chart, explain how electrical energy is generated,
transmitted and distributed in the given power plants below.
1. Hydroelectric power plant
2. Geothermal power plant
3. Oil-Thermal power plant
(B) Directions: Answer the questions comprehensively.

1. What are the two important electrical sources of energy?
2. What is being used when a large amount of electricity is needed for long
periods?
3. How is the electrical energy generated, transmitted and distributed to the
consumers?
Answer Key
Biology– Quarter I
Code: S9LT-la-b-26 (page 1)

Diagram Completion
1. Heart
2. Blood
110
3. Carries the blood throughout the body
4. Vein
5. Artery
6. Capillaries
Sequencing Test
5,3,1,2,4
Short Answer Test
(Answers to the questions may vary.)
1. The main function of the respiratory system is the exchange of oxygen and
carbon dioxide between the atmosphere and the blood and between the blood
and the body’s cells. Thus, if the respiratory organs fail to function it would
directly affect the normal functioning of other organs in the body such as the
heart and blood which are part of the circulatory system.
2. Yes, because circulation and respiration work together to supply the needed
oxygen and to get rid of carbon dioxide in the body.
3. Sickle cell or “C” shaped cells are caused by changes of the protein in the red
blood cells known as hemoglobin. Such condition affects the ability of the red
blood cells to transport oxygen since the sickle cells block the circulation in
small blood vessels.
4. The respiratory system sustains cellular respiration by supplying oxygen to

body cells and removing carbon dioxide waste from cells. Such function is
supported by the circulatory system which transports blood to deliver important
substances such as oxygen, to cells and to remove wastes, such as carbon
dioxide through the blood vessels.
5. The human body is composed of coordinated organ systems which one cannot
effectively function without the other. These systems work together to maintain
homeostasis in the body.
Proposed rubric for rating the simple essay
111
(Teacher may adopt his/ her own rubric)
Rubric for Simple Essay
Criteria/Score 3 2 1 Score
Organization Relevant Ideas Ideas are Some ideas were
and Content are well adequately presented.
presented and presented and Organization was
organized organization of somehow evident.
thought is
evident.
Accuracy Free from Few Evident errors in

grammatical grammatical grammar were
errors errors observed.
TOTAL SCORE
Code: S9LT-lc-27 (page 3)
Table Completion
1. Respiratory System (chronic bronchitis, emphysema, asthma, cough)

2. Circulatory System (high blood pressure, arteriosclerosis, vascular diseases,
coronary heart disease)
Sentence Completion
1. Healthy lifestyle
2. Diseases.
3. Regular medical checkup
4. Regular exercise (answers may vary)
5. Respiratory system
112
Table Completion
1. It can cause inflammatory response in the airway walls, resulting to some
respiratory illnesses like asthma.
2. It may cause arteriosclerosis, commonly known as hardening of the arteries,
the walls of the arteries thicken, harden, and lose their elasticity. The heart
must work harder than normal to deliver blood, and in advanced cases, it
becomes impossible for the heart to supply sufficient blood to all parts of
the body.
3. Eating salty and fatty foods may cause atherosclerosis which may reduce
blood flow in the body. This would affect the transportation of oxygen
which is a primary requirement in the process of respiration.
4. The body’s blood vessels become narrow that leads to
hypertension, or elevated blood pressure to develop.
5. Air pollution makes people sick—it causes breathing problems and
promotes cancer.
6. Difficulty in breathing caused by pollutants may lead the heart to work

harder and add strain to arteries. High blood pressure is its consequence
which may lead to stroke, heart attack and kidney failure.
Code: S9LT-ld-28 (page 5)

Multiple Choice
1.D
2. B
3. B
4. D
5. D
Matching Type
1. C
2. D
3. A
4. E
113
5. B
Table Completion
1. nitrogen bases- center
2. phosphate- sides
3. sugar- sides
Code: S9LT-ld-29 (page 8)

Multiple Choice
1. D
2. C
3. A
4. C
5. C
Sentence Completion
1. Incomplete dominance
2. Multiple alleles
3. Sex-linked genes
4. Sex-influenced traits
5. Sex-limited traits
Short Answer Test
1. Yes, because the resulting offspring in the given cross show one male that will
be affected by such disease.
2. No, because the resulting offspring in the given cross show 2 males that will
be affected by the color blindness trait.
3. Yes, it would be possible if both parents are heterozygous for the trait. (Blood
Type BO). It would give them 25% chance of having a blood type O child.
4. Such trait followed one of the complex patterns of inheritance known as the
incomplete dominance. Such inheritance produces offspring whose phenotype
is an intermediate phenotype between the two homozygous phenotype.
5. One form of inheritance which can be used by animal breeders is determined
by multiple alleles. The presence of the multiple alleles increases the possible
number of genotypes and phenotypes. Such as the coat color of rabbits. More
114
variation in rabbit coat color comes from the interaction of the color gene with
other genes.
Proposed rubric for rating the Short Answer Test

Rubric for Short Answer Test
presented and presented and Organization
organized organization of was somehow
thought is evident.
evident.
Accuracy Free from Few grammatical Evident errors in
grammatical errors grammar were
errors observed.
TOTAL SCORE
Code: S9LT-le-f-30 (page 11)

Table Completion
A (Illegal logging, kaingin farming, dynamite fishing, animal
hunting)
B (tree planting, conservation of resources, wildlife preservation,
coral reef recovery)
True or False
1. True
2. False
3. False
115
4. True
5. False
Diagram Completion
1. Species extinction
2. Diseases
3. Habitat destruction
4. Food shortage
5. Pollution
(Note: Answers in 2-5 can be interchanged).
Code: S9LT-lg-j-31 (page 13)
Sentence Completion
1. Mitochondrion
2. Glucose
3. ATP/energy
4. Calvin Cycle/ Citric Acid Cycle/Light Independent Reaction
5. Animals
True or False
1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True
Table Completion
1. Chloroplast
2. Mitochondrion
3. Glucose & oxygen
4. Energy(ATP) and carbon dioxide
5. To manufacture food from the raw materials in the environment
6. To convert food into a form of energy (ATP)
116
Chemistry – Quarter II
Code: S9MT-IIa-21 (page 15)
Sequencing Test: 3, 4, 2, 5, 1
Matching Type
1. E
2. A
3. G
4. C
5. B
Identification
1. atom
2. proton
3. atomic number
4. electron
5. isotopes
Short Answer Test
1. 9, 9, 10
2. 20, 20, 20
3. 47, 47, 61
4. 53, 53, 74
5. 82, 82, 125
Diagram Completion
Tellurium dichloride (TeCl2) - green
Selenium dibromide (SeBr2) - blue
Lithium carbonate (Li2CO3) - red
Sodium fluoride (NaF) - yellow
Cesium iodide (CsI) - violet
Diagram Completion
117
Short Answer Test
Rutherford carried out some experiments which led to a change in ideas

around the atom. His new model described the atom as a tiny, dense, positively
charged core called a nucleus surrounded by lighter, negatively charged electrons.
Another way of thinking about this model was that the atom was seen to be like a
mini solar system where the electrons orbit the nucleus like planets orbiting around
the sun.
There were, however, some problems with Rutherford's model: for example it
could not explain the very interesting observation that atoms only emit light at certain
wavelengths or frequencies. Niels Bohr solved this problem by proposing that the
electrons could only orbit the nucleus in certain special orbits at different energy
levels around the nucleus.
(Answers may vary. Make use of the following rubrics for scoring.)
Description Raw Score Points Earned

Organization of Ideas 5pts.
Scientific Content 3pts.
118
Number of words 2pts.
TOTAL 10pts.
Multiple Choice
1. C
2. A
3. D
4. C
5. A
Table Completion
1. Yes, carbon.
2. No. It should be 1s2 2s1.
3. Yes, fluorine.
4. No. It should be 1s2 2s2 2p2.
5. No. It should be 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10
Multiple Choice
1. C
2. A
3. A
4. C
5. D
Sequencing Test : 3d, 4s, 3p, 3s, 2p

Problem Solving
A. 1. 3Li – 1s2 2s1
2. 9F – 1s2 2s2 2p5
3. 37Rb – 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p6 5s1
4. 28Ni – 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d8
5. 15 P – 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3
B. 1. Magnesium (Mg)
2. Potassium (K)
119
3. Titanium (Ti)
4. Ruthenium (Ru)
5. Gadolinium (Gd)
Multiple Choice
1. D
2. A
3. B
4. C
5. D
Multiple Choice
1. B
2. A
3. D
4. D
5. C
Short Answer Test

1. The error of the configuration is that before 3s2 it should be 2p6 first. 1s2 2s2
2p6 3s2 3p6.
2. Because the 3rd energy level is only capable of holding 8 electrons.

3. Because the orbitals in the 3d sublevel of Copper are almost full while those of
the Chromium is almost half-filled only.

Cloze Test
120
1. Covalent
2. Sharing
3. Ionic
4. Metallic
5. Non metallic
True or False
1. True
2. (covalent, ionic) False
3. (loose, gain) False
4. True
5. (ionic, covalent), False
Table Completion
121
Photo credits: e3chemistry.com
Multiple Choice
1. A
2. C
3. D
4. A
5. B
Table Completion
ELECTRONEGATIVITY
ELEMENTS BOND TYPE
DIFFERENCE
1. Na, Cl Very polar covalent 2.83 – 1.01 = 1.82
2. Al, Cl Very polar covalent 2.83 – 1.47 = 1.36
3. H, S Non-polar covalent 2.44 – 2.20 = 0.24
4. K, F Ionic bond 4.10 – 0.91 = 3.19
5. O, O Non-polar covalent 3.50 – 3.50 = 0
6. Mg, S Very polar covalent 2.44 – 1.23 = 1.2

122
7. Li, Br Very polar covalent 2.74 – 0.97 = 1.7
8. F, F Non-polar covalent 4.10 – 4.10 = 0
Multiple Choice
1. A
2. D
3. C
4. B
5. B
True or False
1. True
2. False
3. False
4. False
5. True
Identification
1. Covalent
2. Ionic
3. Ionic
4. Covalent
5. Ionic
6. ionic
Diagramming
123
B. I.
B. II
1.
2.
124
3.
4.
Short Answer Test
Answer: Yes, because in order for the metallic element Cesium to gain stability will
transfer its one valence electron to iodine which needs one electron to conform to the
octet rule and also gain stability. The bond that will be form between the metallic
element Cesium and the non-metallic element iodine is ionic bond.

thought is evident.
evident.
125
errors observed.
TOTAL SCORE
Code: S9MT-IIb-14(page 37)
Identification
1. B
2. A
3. A
4. B
5. B
6. A
7. B
8. A
9. A
10. B
Table Completion
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
Table Completion
Properties Compounds
126
KBr C12H22O11 NaCl H2O
melting/boiling high / /
point low / /
Hard / /
hardness
porous / (NE)
polar / /
polarity
non polar / /
conductor / /
electrical, thermal
conductivity non / /
conductor
Identification
1. M
2. I
3. I
4. M
5. M
Code: S9MT-IIc-d-15 (page 40)

Identification
Element Metal Non metal
/
Gold (Au) /
Platinum (Pt) /
Sulfur (S) /
Iron (Fe) /
Sentence Completion
1. ductility
2. luster
3. malleability
4. solid
5. high
Short Answer Test
Aluminum wire and dissolved potassium hydroxide.
127
Note: Metals conduct electricity. The delocalised electrons are free to move throughout the structure in
3-dimensions. They can cross grain boundaries. Even though the pattern may be disrupted at the
boundary, as long as atoms are touching each other, the metallic bond is still present.
Liquid metals also conduct electricity, showing that although the metal atoms may be free to move, the
delocalisation remains in force until the metal boils.

thought is evident.
evident.
errors observed.
TOTAL SCORE
Code: S9MT-IIe-f-16 (page 42)

Multiple Choice
1. B
2. D
3. C
4. B
5. D
Multiple Choice
1. B.
2. C.
3. D
4. D
5. B
Identification
128
1. Rb+
2. Ca2+
3. N3-
4. O2-
5. I-
Short Answer Test
1. P -3
2. Se - 2
3. +1
4. 0
5. 3
Table Completion
NA NA
NA NA
Note 1: carbon and silicon in Group 4 usually form covalent bonds by sharing

electrons.
Note 2: the elements in Group 0 do not react with other elements to form ions.
Diagramming
Short Answer Test
The charge -1 is the difference between the total number of electrons in a

chloride ion upon receiving an electron and the protons in the neutral chlorine atom.
129
thought is evident.
evident.
errors observed.
TOTAL SCORE
Code: S9MT-IIg-17 (page 47)
Cloze Test
1. carbon 6. straight
2. organic 7. branches
3. hydrocarbons 8.alkyl
4. four (4) 9. longest continuous
5. single 10. parent
Matching Type
1. B
2. F
3. A
4. D
5. E
True or False
1. ST
130
2. AT
3. NT
4. AT
5. ST
Multiple Choice
1. D
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. B
6. C
7. A
8. A
9. D
10. C
Short Answer Test
1. Cyclic hydrocarbons are more structurally rigid, so their van der Waals
forces are stronger. Thus, it takes more energy (a higher temperature) to
liberate these molecules from the liquid state.
2. In diamond there is a three dimensional network of strong covalent bonds.
This makes diamond extremely hard and because of hardness, diamond is
used in making cutting and grinding tools.
On the other hand, in graphite there are flat layers of carbon atoms. These
layers are held by weak van der Waal’s forces and hence can easily slip one over the
131
other making graphite extremely soft and slippery. It is for this soft and slippery
nature that graphite is used as a lubricant.

Organization and Relevant Ideas are Ideas are Some ideas were
Content well presented and adequately presented.
organized presented and Organization was
organization of somehow evident.
thought is evident.

errors observed.
TOTAL SCORE
Code: S9MT-IIh-18 (page 52)
Diagram Completion
132
Table Completion
1. Aliphatic compounds
2. Alicyclic compounds
3. Ethers
4. Esters
5. Aldehyde
6. Ketones
7. Alcohols
8. Amides
9. Amines
10. Amino acids
Multiple Choice
1. D
2. B
3. A
4. C
5. A
6. B
7. B
8. D
9. A
10. A
Multiple Choice
1. D
2. A
3. C
133
4. D
5. B
Code: SMT-IIi-19 (page 58)
Identification
1. B
2. D
3. C
4. C
5. C
Table Completion
Compound Kind of Atom Number of Atoms
Ex. Sodium (Na) 1
NaCl Chlorine (Cl) 1
1. P2Br4 Phosphorus (P) 2
Bromine (Br) 4
2. Co(NO3)2 Cobalt (Co) 1
Nitrogen (N) 2
Oxygen (O) 6
3. Fe2O3 Iron (Fe) 2
Oxygen (O) 3
4. N2O3 Nitrogen (N) 2
Oxygen (O) 3
5. Mg(HSO4)2 Maggnesium (Mg) 1
Hyrogen (H) 2
Sulfur (S) 2
Oxygen (O) 8
Problem Solving
A. Formula mass
134
1. Lithium fluoride (LiF) 26 formula units
2. Ammonium fluoride (NH4F) 35 formula units
3. Potassium phosphate (K3PO4) 84 formula units
4. Calcium nitrate (Ca(NO3)2) 164 formula units
5. Magnesium acetate (Mg(C2H3O2)2 ) 142 formula units
B. Molar mass of the Molecules

1. SF6 S = 1 X 32 = 32 g/mol
F = 1 X 19 = 19 g/mol
Total = 51 g/mol
2. N2F4
N = 2 X 14 = 28 g/mol
F = 4 X 19 = 76 g/mol
Total = 104 g/mol
3. C2H4O2
C = 2 X 12 = 24 g/mol
H = 4 X 1 = 4 g/mol
O = 2 X 16 = 32 g/mol
Total = 60 g/mol
4. C2H5OH
C = 2 X 12 = 24 g/mol
H = 6 X 1 = 6 g/mol
O = 1 X 16 = 16 g/mol
Total = 46 g/mol
5. C12H22O11
C = 12 X 12 = 144 g/mol
H = 22 X 1 = 22 g/mol
O = 11 X 16 = 176 g/mol
Total = 322 g/mol
Problem Solving
A. 1. A
2. C
3. C
4. A
5. D
135
B. 1. B
2. C
3. D
4. C
5. B
C. 1. A
2. B
3. B
4. B
5. A
Multiple Choice
1. C
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. A
6. C
7. C
8. A
9. B
10. A
Short Answer Test
Because the mass of a carbon atom is much less (approx. 1/3) than that of the
sulfur atom. If we will carefully examine the Periodic Table, it tells us that the atomic
mass of elemental Carbon (C) is 12.011 g/mol; this is the mass of "Avogadro's
136
number" of “C” atoms. While sulfur (S) has more nuclear particles than carbon and its
molar quantity has a mass of 32.06 g/mol.

thought is evident.
evident.
errors observed.
TOTAL SCORE
137
Code: S9MT-IIj-20 (page 66)
Table Completion
Compounds Elements Number Atomic Total number of

Identified of Atoms mass Atoms
Example:
K2CrO4 K 2 19 amu
Cr 1 24 amu 7
O 4 16 amu
NH4I N 1 14 amu
H 4 1 amu 142
I 1 127 amu
Fe(OH)3 Fe 1 56 amu
O 3 16 amu 73
H 3 1 amu
Na2CO3 Na 2 23 amu
C 1 12 amu 51
O 3 16 amu
C6H10S2O C 6 12 amu
H 10 1 amu 61
S 2 32 amu
O 1 16 amu
KC2H3O2 K 1 39 amu
C 2 12 amu 68
H 3 1 amu
O 2 16 amu
Problem Solving
138
Problem Solving
1. An 8.20-g piece of magnesium combines completely with 5.40 g of oxygen to form

compound. What is the percent composition of this compound?
The percent composition of each element in the compound.
D-efine the problem by listing the given variables.: (1 point)
8.20 g - mass of magnesium
5.40 g - mass of oxygen
13.60 g – total mass of the compound (8.20 + 5.40 =13.60)
E-xpound by giving the appropriate equation.(1 point)
Mass of a component/total mass of the components X 100 = % composition

139
A-nalyze and answer.(Show the solution. 1 point)
8.20 g magnesium/13.60 g magnesium oxide X 100 = 60.30 % Mg
5.50 g oxygen/13.60 g magnesium oxide X 100 = 30.70 % O
L-ook back or check if your answer make sense. (1 point)
60.30 % + 30.70 % = 100 %

100 % = 100 %
2. Sulfur makes up 26.7% of the mass of NaHSO 4. Find the mass of the sulfur in 16.8
g of NaHSO4.
The mass of sulfur in 16.8g of NaHSO4.
D-efine the problem by listing the given variables.: (1 point)
26.7% S in NaHSO4
16.8 g NaHSO4
E-xpound by giving the appropriate equation.(1 point)
Given mass of a component/total mass of the components= Unknown mass of the

component/Given mass of the compound
A-nalyze and answer.(Show the solution. 1 point)
Assuming 100 g of NaHSO4, therefore:
26.7% S = 26.7 g S
Let x = to the unknown mass (in grams) of S
140
26.7 g S xgS
=
100 g NaHSO 4 16.8 g NaHSO 4
X = 4.486 g S
L-ook back or check if your answer make sense. (1 point)
The answer make sense because it is smaller than 26.7 g of the assumed 100 g
NaHSO4.
Problem Solving
1. CrF3 Cr: 47.7% F: 52.3%
2. Na3PO4 Na: 42.1% P: 18.9% O: 39.0%
3. KCN K: 60.0% C: 18.5% N: 21.5%
4. PI3 P: 7.5% I: 92.5%
Earth Science – Quarter III
Code: S9ES -IIIa-25 (page 70)
Identification Matching Type Short Answer Questions
1. Magma chamber 1. E 1. Supervolcano
2. Main vent 2. A 2. Cinder cone
3. Crater 3. B 3. Volcanic dome
4. Ash cloud 4. D 4. Subglacial volcano
5. Lava 5. C 5. Shield volcano
Code: S9ES -IIIa-27 (page 73)
Cloze Test
1. Philippine Institute of Volcanology and Seismology
2. three
3. active
141
4. inactive
5. potentially active
Table Completion
1. one or more
2. zero/ none
3. molten rocks, ash, smoke, pyroclastic materials
4. none
5. Iraya/Kanlaon/Mayon/Smith/Taal ( answers may vary)
6. Cabaluyan/Cocoro/ Pulung/Tamburok/Urot ( answers may vary)
Diagram Completion
Code: S9ES -IIIb-28 (page 75)
Sequencing Test
3
_____ When the pressure exceeds the strength of the overlying rock,
fracturing occurs.
_____
4 The resulting breaks lead to a further drop in confining pressure,
which in turn, causes, even more, gas bubbles to form.
_____
5 These gas bubbles then exceed the melting volume in the
magma producing magma foam that can lead into explosive
eruptions.
1 Magma inside the volcano has high temperature. As the magma
_____
is continuously heated, it goes up. As it rises, gas bubbles are
developed.
_____ The gas bubbles are trapped and expanded causing the molten
2
material to swell also, resulting in a gradual increase in pressure
within the volcano.
142
Sentence Completion Test
1. silica content
2. temperature
3. viscosity
4. gas
5. high
Matching Type
1. D 4. E
2. B 5. F
Code:
3. S9ES
C –IIIc-d-29 (page 78)
Sequencing Test
Wells are drilled

deep into the Earth
to pump steam or
hot water to the
surface.
When the water

Heat of the Earth reaches the
surface, the drop in
warms the water pressure causes the
inside the Earth. water to turn into
steam.
The steam spins

The cooled water the turbine
is pumped back which is
into the Earth to connected to a
begin the process generator that
again. produces
electricity.
Cooling tower
cools the steam
which it
condenses back
to water.
143
Picture Analysis
Wells are drilled deep When the water reaches

into the Earth to pump the surface, the drop in
steam or hot water to the pressure causes the
surface. water to turn into steam.
The steam spins the

Cooling tower cools the
turbine which is
steam which it
connected to a generator
condenses back to water.
that produces electricity.
The cooled water is

pumped back into the
Earth to begin the
process again.
144
Picture Analysis
When the water

Wells are drilled The steam spins
reaches the Cooling tower The cooled water
deep into the the turbine which
surface, the drop cools the steam is pumped back
Earth to pump is connected to a
in pressure which it into the Earth to
steam or hot generator that
causes the water condenses back begin the process
water to the produces
to turn into to water. again.
surface. electricity.
steam.
145
Code: S9ES-IIIe-30 (page 80)
Table Completion
Factors Affecting Specific Condition Effects to Air Effects to

Climate Temperature Climate
area near the equator

high air temperature warmer
Latitude
climate
area at high elevation low air temperature Colder
Altitude
above sea level climate
Distance from a body area far from a body of Extreme air Extreme
of water water temperature climate
leeward side of the high air temperature warmer
Topography
mountain climate
moving towards the low air temperature Colder
Ocean current
equator climate
Multiple Choice
1. B
2. A
3. C
4. E
5. D
Sentence Completion
1. leeward
2. cold
3. increase
4. moderate
146
5. lower
Code: S9ES-IIIf-31 (page 83)
Matching Type
1. D
2. A
3. B
4. E
5. C
Identification
1. Global warming refers to the ongoing rise of global average temperature
2. increasing concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere
3. deforestation
4. rising temperature
5. shrinking ice sheets
True or False
1. T
2. F
3. T
4. T
5. T
Code: S9ES-IIIg-32 (page 85)

Picture Analysis
1. The color of stars tells its temperature. Give an inference about the
temperature of the following stars in comparison with the sun.
A. Sirius – White star is hotter than a yellow star. Sirius is a white star.
Sirius is hotter than the sun.
B. Alpha Centauri A – Alpha Centauri A and sun are yellow stars. Both
have the same temperature.
C. Epsilon Indi - Orange star is colder than a yellow star. Epsilon Indi is
an orange star, hence it is colder than the sun.
147
2. If the illustration shows the apparent size of the stars, give an inference about
the distance from the Earth of the following stars in comparison with the sun.
A. 17 Red Dwarfs – 17 Red Dwarfs are seen smaller than the sun from
earth. 17 Red Dwarfs are farther from earth than the sun.
B. Procyon – As seen from earth, the Procyon is bigger than the sun.
Procyon is nearer to the earth than the sun.
True or False
1. False
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. True
Cloze Test
A star is a huge, massive sphere of incandescent gas. They have different
properties, including brightness, color, temperature, mass, and size. The color of the
star indicates its surface temperature. The property of a star described in terms of
magnitude and luminosity is called brightness. The absolute brightness of the star is
the measure of the amount of light it actually gives off while the amount of light
received on earth is called apparent brightness. According to size, stars are classified
as supergiant, giant, and dwarf star.
Code: S9ES-IIIh-33 (page 88)
Identification
1. Hercules
2. Ursa Major
3. Cassiopeia
4. Draco
5. Orion
Identification
148
1. Hercules
2. Orion
3. Cassiopeia
4. Ursa Major
5. Draco
Picture Analysis
1. Ursa minor: Yes
Ursa major: Yes
2. Ursa minor: No
Ursa major: No
3. Stars in a group do not change but the position of the
constellation does.
Code: S9ES-IIIi-34 (page 91)

Multiple Choice
1. C
2. A
3. B
4. A
5. B
Picture Analysis
Name of Constellation Observation
1. Aquarius initially facing southwest then west;
moving southwest
2. Cepheus initially facing southwest then west;
moving northwest
3. Cygnus initially facing southwest then
northwest; moving northwest
4. Pieces facing northwest; moving west
5. Ursa Major initially facing north then southeast;
moving northeast
149
True or False
1. True
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. False
Code: S9ES-IIIj-35 (page 95)

Table Completion
1. Taurus
2. Start of planning what kind of crops to plant and how wide the
area for planting should be
3. February
4. Gibbang
5. Malara
Diagram Completion
Uses of
Constel-lations
How Early Uses of

People Used Constel-
the Constel- lations to
lations People Today
1. religious 4. indicate 5. locate

2. calendars 3. track
purposes general certain stars or
artificial sites
direction galaxies
Identification
1.
150
2. Common Name: The Twins
3. Local Name: Gibbang
4. Related Agricultural Activity: End of planting season; signifies rich
harvest
5. Month of Appearance: April and May
Answer Key: Physics – Quarter IV
Code: S9FE-IVa-34 (page 97)
Short Answer Test
1. The illustration shows an increase in distance covered in the same period of time.
The vertical motion is accelerating or increasing speed.
2. The distance covered by the object is constant within a constant time interval. The
horizontal motion has a constant speed.
3. The projectile motion is a combination of vertical motion and horizontal motion.
4. Gravity influences projectile motion.

5. D.
The object floats horizontally with constant velocity.
If there is no gravity, no force will pull the object downward towards
the earth. The pull of gravity is responsible for the curved path of the
projectile motion.
6. Based on the diagram showing the same time interval,
151
6.1 vertical arrows show an increasing length as the motion continues its
motion. This pattern means that the vertical component of the velocity
of projectile motion is increasing.
6.2 the length of the horizontal arrows remains constant. This shows that the
horizontal component of the velocity of projectile motion is constant.
6.3 the length of the diagonal arrows increases. This means that the velocity
of the projectile motion is increasing.
7. The vertical and diagonal arrows show increases in length. This
increase represents acceleration.
8. The pull of gravity is the factor that caused changes in the length of
arrows or changes in velocity.
9. The velocity of projectile v is the combination (vector sum) of
horizontal vx and vertical component vy . This relation is defined by
Pythagorean theorem in which
v=√ v 2x +v 2y
10.The vertical component of a projectile motion is free fall. If there is
no horizontal throw, an object has a vertical free fall. The range of
projectile motion is affected by the horizontal component of the
projectile motion. The greater the horizontal velocity, the farther is
the range.
Completion Test
1. Projectile
2. Perpendicular
3. Constant
4. Accelerated
5. Force
6. Weight
152
Code: S9FE-IVa-35 (page 100)
Problem Solving
dx
1. vi =
t
2dy
t=
√ g
2(20 m)
t=
√ m
9.8 2
s
t=2.02 s
50 m
vi =
2.02 s
vi =24.75m
v f −v i
2. t=
g
v f −v i
t=
g
0−v i sin θ
t=
g
t=−(10 m/s) ¿ ¿
t=0.43 s
vx
d x=
2t
v i cos θ
d x=
2t
153
d x =(10 m/ s )¿ ¿ = 10 m
Identification
1. Agree 4. False
2. Disagree 5. Agree
3. Disagree
True or False
1. True
2. False
3. True
4. Agree
5. True
Code: S9FE-IVb-36 (page 102)
Short Answer Test
1. Van will experience greater damage due to the greater impact force.
2. Warning signs and traffic lights.
3. The motorbike will experience greater damage because of greater impact

force.
4. The man will experience less impact force because he has greater momentum
5. Nets are used to delay the time of impact to minimize or decrease the impact
force
Problem Solving
1. 0.5kg basketball
2. a. 10,000 kg.m/s
b. -0.5 m/s2
3. 27,000 N
154
Multiple Choice
1. D
2. C
3. D
4. D
5. A
Code: S9FE-IVb-37 (page 105)

Multiple Choice
1. B
2. C
3. B
4. A
5. B
Problem Solving
1. 1500 N
2. 3.4 m/s
Code: S9FE-IVc-38 (page 107)
Problem Solving
1. 2.2 m/s
2. 12.5 m/s
Cloze Test
1. Injury 6. Time
2. Forces 7. Crumple
3. Passengers 8. Impact
4. Minimized 9. Air bag
5. Seat belt 10. collision
155
Code: S9FE-IVc-39 (page 109)
Short Answer Test
1. Chemical energy → Heat (if fuel such as LPG or charcoal)
Or
Electrical energy → Heat (if oven or electric stove)
2. Electrical energy → Mechanical energy
3. Electrical energy → Mechanical energy and heat
4. Electrical energy → (Mechanical energy) → Light and sound energy
5. Solar energy → (Chemical energy) → Electrical energy → Light
Problem Solving
Solution:
P.E. total = mgh
K.E. = ½ mv2
P.E. after 1s = P.E. total – K.E.
1. (a) total PE = 294 J
(b) after 1 s
KE = 48.02 J
PE = 245.98 J ≈ 296 J
2. (a) total PE = 441 J

(b) after 1 s
156
KE = 48.02 J
PE = 392.98 J ≈ 393 J
3. (a) total PE = 882 J

(b) after 1 s
KE = 48.02 J
PE = 833.98 J ≈ 834 J
Diagram Completion
1. Water (in the dam or falls)
2. Electrical energy by the generator
3. Electrical energy used by television
4. Mechanical energy
5. Heat
Code: S9FE-IVe-41 (page 111)

Identification
1. N
2. N
3. W
4. N
5. W
Problem Solving
1. 784 000 J
2. 400 N/m
157
3. 20 N
True or False
1. T
2. F
3. F
4. T
5. T
Sentence Completion
1. lost
2. least
3. mechanical energy
4. steam
5. thermal
Multiple Choice
1. A
2. D
3. A
4. B
5. D
Code: S9FE-IVe-43)
Note: Answers may vary. The teacher may adapt the rubric suggested below in
scoring students’ responses.
Organization and Relevant Ideas are Ideas are adequately Some ideas were
158
Content well presented and presented and presented.
organized organization of Organization was
thought is evident. somehow evident.
grammatical errors errors grammar were
observed.
TOTAL SCORE
Multiple Choice
1. A
2. C
3. D
4. C
5. B
Short Answer Test
1. No engine can be 100% efficient because of heat that is not converted to

useful work. This dissipated heat contributes to environmental pollution and is
termed as thermal pollution.
2. Thermal pollution refers to the harmful effects on the environment of the heat
exhausted by heat engines and refrigerators into the environment (through the
air or in rivers and lakes).
Cloze Test
1. electrical energy
2. geothermal energy
3. steam
4. turbines
5. mechanical energy
6. electricity

159
Identification
1. energy from the atom

2. energy from the earth’s interior
3. energy of the wind
4. energy of falling water
5. energy from alcohol
6. energy of the sun
7. energy from waste
Short Answer Test (A and B)

Note: Answers may vary. The teacher may adapt the rubric suggested below in
scoring students’ responses.
thought is evident.
evident.
errors observed.
160
TOTAL SCORE
List of References
Acosta,H.D. (2015) Science 10 Learner’s Material. Pasig City Philippines:Rex

Printing Company Inc.
Acosta,H.D. (2015) Science 10 Teacher’s Guide. Pasig City Philippines:Rex

Printing Company Inc.
Campbel Neil., (1994) Biology 4th Ed. Singapore, Benjamin Cummings Co.
Capco, P.C. et al. (2013) Science 8 Learner’s Module. Pasig City

Philippines: Vibal Publishing House Inc.
Capco, P.C. et al. (2013) Science 8 Teacher’s Guide. Pasig City

Philippines: Vibal Publishing House Inc.
Hewitt, Paul (1989). Conceptual physics (6th Ed.) London: Scoot, Foresman
and Company.
Hewitt, P.G. (2002). Conceptual physics. USA: Prentice-Hall, Inc. Saddle

River, New Jersey
Keeton W.T. et al.,(1983) Elements of Biological Science 3rd Ed. NY: WW

Norton Co., Inc,.
Valdoz MP., et al (2015) Science Links Worktext for Scientific and

Technological Literacy. Manila, Philippines: Rex Printing Company Inc.
161
DepEd Science and Technology IV. SEDP Series. (1992). Philippines:
Book Media Press, Inc.
List of Writers, Editors and Division Focal Persons
WRITERS EDITORS
1. Chona A. Kierulf 1. Maryjean T. Susaya

Tanauan National High School Granja-Kalinawan National
High School
2. Christie Anne D. Bihag
Palo National High School 2. Myrna M. Borqueta
Palo I Central School
3. Allan V. Garnace
Alangalang National High School 3. Zaira G. Escobedo
Palo National High School-
4. Nestor Allan M. Matutes Pawing Annex
Alangalang National High School
4. Cynthia M. Agner
5. Irhyn V. Reyes Palo National High School
Dulag National High School High School
6. Airyn P. Manidlangan
Burauen Comprehensive National High School
7. Norica A. Baroña
Dulag National High School
DIVISION FOCAL PERSONS:
SOCORRO B. AUSA
162
Leyte Division Science Coordinator
FELICIDAD T. ESPINOSA
Chief- Curriculum Implementation Division
RONELO AL K. FIRMO, Ph.D., CESO-V

SCHOOLS DIVISION SUPERINTENDENT
163

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Subject: Science

Photo credits: DepEd Science 9 LM (with modification)

Short Answer Test

high blood pressure chronic bronchitis arteriosclerosis

(Note: The teacher may vary the given diseases as needed.)

Short Answer Test

Effects of Human Activities to the Species in the Ecosystem

______ Discovery of the electron

______ Discovery of the nucleus

______ Development of the Atomic Theory

______ Measurement of the energy of the protons

______ Proposal that everything is composed of tiny bits of indivisible

Directions: Match the ATOMIC MODELS with their corresponding

Short Answer Test

Directions: Listed below are five (5) compounds. Write each

Tellurium dichloride (TeCl2)

Directions: Write the corresponding atomic number for each element

Short Answer Test

Directions: Compare and contrast the illustrations below then describe

1. What is the basis for the exceptions to the Aufbau rule?

Directions: Indicate if the electron configuration correctly describes a

1. The principle quantum number is related to the ______________.

5. Which of the following sets is NOT an acceptable set of quantum

2. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1

3. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d2 4s2

1. The orbital diagram for a ground-state oxygen atom is ___________.

2. The orbital diagram for a ground state carbon atom

3. Which ground-state atom has an electron configuration described

4. Which ground-state atom has an electron configuration described

3. The electron configuration of a ground-state copper atom is

Short Answer Test

sharing non-metallic metallic

(1) ____________ is a form of chemical bonding between two non-metallic

Directions: Following are statements about the formation of ionic and

_____ 4. If two atoms differ considerably in their electronegativity like sodium

Directions: Represent the following atoms by using Rutherford-Bohr

Element Atomic # Rutherford- Electron Lewis # of

Directions: Using the Table of Electronegativity Values, determine

1. Which one of the following is most likely an ionic compound?

B. Draw the Lewis Electron Dot structure of the following:

Short Answer Test

Would an atom of Cesium and Iodine join to form an ionic

1. The characteristic of a metal which can be drawn into wires is

Short Answer Test

4. Which phrase best describes a metallic bond?

Neutral atom Ion

Short Answer Test

Short Answer Test

Directions: Use this completion exercise to check your understanding of

alkyl branches carbon eight(8) four(4)

6. How many different isomers are there for dibromobenzene, C6H4Br2?

Short Answer Test

1. Why do most cyclic hydrocarbons have higher boiling points than

Directions: Complete the table below by identifying the compound

1 __________ CH CH3- Ethylene makes polythene

2 __________ CH CH2- Methane is used to produce

3 __________ R-O-R CH3- Di-ethyl ether is used as

4 __________ R-COO-R CH3- All the cooking oils and lipids

5 __________ R-CHO CH3- Formaldehyde is used as

According to (1.) (PHIVOLCS), our country is an ideal site for any