The Transcendence of π

Steve Mayer
November 2006

Abstract
The proof that π is transcendental is not well-known despite the fact that it
isn’t too difficult for a university mathematics student to follow. The purpose
of this paper is to make the proof more widely available. A bonus is that the
proof also shows that e is transcendental as well.
The material in these notes are not mine; it is taken from a supplement
issued by Ian Stewart as an adjunct to a Rings and Fields course in 1970 at
the University of Warwick.

Definition. A complex number is algebraic over Q if it is a root of a polynomial

equation with rational coefficients.

Thus a is algebraic if there are rational numbers α0 , α1 , . . . , αn not all 0, such

that α0 an + α1 an−1 + . . . + αn−1 a + αn = 0.

Definition. A complex number is transcendental if it is not algebraic, so it is not

the root of any polynomial equation with rational coefficients.

In proving that it is impossible to ’square the circle’ by a ruler-and-compass

construction we have to appeal to the theorem:
The real number π is transcendental over Q
The purpose of this supplement is to indicate, for those who may be interested, how
this theorem may be proved.
It is possible to prove that there exist transcendental real numbers by using
infinite cardinals, as was first done by Cantor in 1874. Earlier Liouville (1844) had
∞
10−n! is transcendental.1
P
actually constructed transcendentals, for example
n=1

1
A proof can be found at http://rutherglen.ics.mq.edu.au/math334s106/m2334.Dioph.Liouville.pdf

1
 However, no naturally occurring real number (such as e or π) was proved tran-
scendental until Hermite (1873) disposed of e. π held out until 1882 when Linde-
mann, using methods related to those of Hermite, disposed of that. In 1900 David
Hilbert proposed the problem:
If a, b are real numbers algebraic over Q, if a 6= 0 or 1 and b is irrational, prove
ab is transcendental.
This was solved independently in 1934 by the Russian, Gelfond, and a German,
Schneider.
Before proving transcendence of π we shall prove a number of similar theorems,
using simpler versions of the final method, as an aid to comprehension. The tools
needed are first-year analysis.2

Theorem 1. π is irrational
R +1 n
Proof. Let In (x) = −1 (1 − x2 ) cos(αx) dx
Integrating by parts we have

α2 In = 2n(2n − 1)In−1 − 4n(n − 1)In−2 (n ≥ 2)

which implies that

α2n+1 In = n! (Pn sin(α) + Qn cos(α)) (*)
where Pn , Qn are polynomials of degree < 2n + 1 in α with integer coefficients.

Remark. deg Pn = n, deg Qn = n − 1

π b
Put α = , and assume π is rational, so that π = , a, b ∈ Z
2 a
b2n+1 In
From (*) we deduce that Jn = is an integer. On the other hand Jn → 0
n!
as n → ∞ since b is fixed and In is bounded by
Z +1  πx 
cos dx
−1 2

Jn is an integer, → 0. Thus Jn = 0 for some n. But this integrand is continuous,

and is > 0 in most of the range (−1, +1), so Jn 6= 0. Contradiction. 

2
This was true in 1970. Is it still true today?

2
Theorem 2. π 2 is irrational (so π does not lie in any quadratic extension of Q)
a
Proof. Assume π 2 = , a, b ∈ Z.
b
Define
xn (1 − x)n
f (x) = ,
n!
G(x) = bn π 2n f (x) − π 2n−2 f 00 (x) + . . . + (−1)n π 0 f (2n) (x)
 

(superscripts indicating differentiations). We see that the value of any derivative of

f at 0 or 1 is either 0 or an integer. Also G(0) and G(1) are integers. Now

d
[G0 (x) sin(πx) − πG(x) cos(πx)] = G00 (x) + π 2 G(x) sin(πx)
 
dx
= bn π 2n+2 f (x) sin(πx) since f (2n+2) (x) = 0
= π 2 an sin(πx)f (x)

so that
1 1
G0 (x) sin(πx)
Z 
n
π a sin(πx)f (x) dx = − G(x) cos(πx)
0 π 0
= 0 + G(0) + G(1)
= integer.

But again the integral is non-zero and → 0 as n → ∞. Thus again we have a

contradiction. 
Getting more involved, now:

Theorem 3 (Hermite). e is transcendental over Q

Proof. Suppose am em + . . . + a1 e + a0 = 0 (ai ∈ Z). WLOG a0 6= 0

p−1
(x − 1) (x − 2) . . . (x − m)p
x p p
Define f (x) =
(p − 1)!
where for the moment p is arbitrary and prime.
Define F (x) = f (x) + f 0 (x) + . . . + f (mp+p−1) (x).
Now if 0 < x < m,

mp−1 mmp
|f (x)| ≤
(p − 1)!
mmp+p−1
=
(p − 1)!

3
 d −x
Also (e F (x)) = e−x [F 0 (x) − F (x)] = −e−x f (x)
dx
so that
Z j j
e−x f (x) dx = aj −e−x F (x) 0

aj
0
= aj F (0) − aj e−j F (j).

Multiplying by ej and summing over j = 0, 1, . . . m we get

m
X Z j m
X
aj e j
e−x f (x) dx = F (0).0 − aj F (j)
j=0 0 j=0
m mp+p−1
X X
=− aj f (i) (j).
j=0 i=0

We claim that each f (i) (j) is an integer, divisible by p except when j = 0 and
i = p − 1. For only non-zero terms arise from terms where the factor (x − j)p has
been differentiated p times, and then p! cancels (p − 1)! and leaves p, except in the
exceptional case.
We show that in the exceptional case the term is NOT divisible by p. Clearly
(p−1)
f (0) = (−1)p . . . (−m)p . We CHOOSE p larger than m, when this product
cannot have a prime factor p. Hence the right-hand side of the above equation is an
integer 6= 0. But as p → ∞ the left-hand side tends to 0, using the above estimate
for |f (x)|. This is a contradiction. 

Theorem 4 (Lindemann). π is transcendental over Q

Proof.
√ If π satisfies an algebraic equation with coefficents in Q, so does iπ (i =
−1). Let this equation be θ1 (x) = 0, with roots iπ = α1 , . . . , αn . Now eiπ + 1 = 0
so
(eα1 + 1) . . . (eαn + 1) = 0
We now construct an algebraic equation with integer coefficients whose roots are the
exponents of e in the expansion of the above product. For example, the exponents
in pairs are α1 + α2 , α1 + α3 , . . . , αn−1 + αn . The α s satisfy a polynomial equation
over Q so their elementary symmetric functions are rational. Hence the elementary
symmetric functions of the sums of pairs are symmetric functions of the α s and
are also rational. Thus the pairs are roots of the equation θ2 (x) = 0 with rational
coefficients. Similarly sums of 3 α s are roots of θ3 (x) = 0, etc. Then the equation

θ1 (x)θ2 (x) . . . θn (x) = 0

4
is a polynomial equation over Q whose roots are all sums of α s. Deleting zero roots
from this, if any, we get

θ(x) = 0
θ(x) = cxr + c1 xr−1 + . . . cr

and cr 6= 0 since we have deleted zero roots. The roots of this equation are the
non-zero exponents of e in the product when expanded. Call these β1 , . . . βr . The
original equation becomes

eβ1 + . . . eβr + e0 + . . . e0 = 0

ie X
eβi + k = 0
where k is an integer > 0 (6= 0 since the term 1 . . . 1 exists)
Now define
[θ(x)]p
f (x) = cs xp−1
(p − 1)!
where s = rp − 1 and p will be determined later.
Define
F (x) = f (x) + f 0 (x) + . . . + f (s+p) (x).
d  −x
e F (x) = −e−x f (x) as before.

dx
Hence we have Z x
−x
e F (x) − F (0) = − e−y f (y) dy
0
Putting y = λx we get
Z 1
x
F (x) − e F (0) = −x e(1−λ)x f (λx) dλ.
0

eβi + k = 0 we get
P
Let x range over the βi and sum. Since
r
X r
X Z 1
F (βj ) + kF (0) = − βj e(1−λ)βj f (λβj ) dλ.
j=1 j=1 0

CLAIM. For large enough p the LHS is a non-zero integer.

r
f (t) (βj ) = 0 (0 < t < p) by definition of f . Each derivative of order p or
P
j=1
more has a factor p and a factor cs , since we must differentiate [θ(x)]p enough times
to get 6= 0. And f (t) (βj ) is a polynomial in βj of degree at most s. The sum is

5
symmetric, and so is an integer provided each coefficient is divisible by cs , which
ci
it is. (symmetric functions are polynomials in coefficients = polynomials in of
c
degree ≤ s). Thus we have
r
X
f (t) (βj ) = pkt t = p, . . . , p + s.
j=1

Thus LHS = (integer) + kF (0). What is F (0)?

f (t) (0) = 0 t = 0, . . . , p − 2.
(p−1)
f (0) = cs cpr (cr 6= 0)
f (t) (0) = p(some integer) t = p, p + 1, . . . .

So the LHS is an integer multiple of p+cs cpr k. This is not divisible by p if p > k, c, cr .
So it is a non-zero integer. But the RHS → 0 as p → ∞ and we get the usual
contradiction.