Mechatronics Scafoundary
Mechatronics Scafoundary
Mechatronics Scafoundary
1. What converts physical input into output, among the basic parts of a measuring system?
a) Transducer or sensor
b) Signal conditioning
c) Intelligence
d) Display
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A transducer or a sensor is a sensing device used to convert physical input
to output especially voltage. Signal processor performs functions such as filtering and
amplification. Intelligence enables sensor level of signal processing the ability to
communicate with other sensors and subsystems. The display is used for online
monitoring or processing.
2. The analog to digital conversion in a measurement system takes place inside _____
a) transducer
b) signal processor
c) display
d) led
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A signal processor is used for the purpose of analog to digital conversion in
a measuring system. A transducer or a sensor is a sensing device used to convert physical
input to output especially voltage. The display is used for online monitoring or processing.
3. A thermocouple is a transducer.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Thermocouple is a transducer that converts temperature into a small voltage.
These are generally used for temperature measurement.
4. The light emitting diodes are used as a/an ____
a) intelligence
b) display
c) transducer
d) sensor
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The light emitting diodes are used as display devices. A transducer or a
sensor is a sensing device used to convert physical input to output especially voltage.
Intelligence enables sensor level of signal processing the ability to communicate with other
sensors and subsystems.
5. Which type of error is caused due to friction or electrical capacitance?
a) Hysteresis
b) Zero
c) Systematic
d) Random
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hysteresis errors are always due to friction or electrical capacitance.
Systematic errors always have the same and consistent value. Random errors are
unpredictable and varying.
6. Accuracy is the difference between a true value and the measured value.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Accuracy is the difference between a true value and the measured value. It
is always given in percentage of the full-scale output of the measurement system.
7. Which type of error always has the same and consistent value?
a) Random errors
b) Systematic errors
c) Zero errors
d) Hysteresis errors
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Systematic errors always have the same and consistent value. Random
errors are unpredictable and varying. Hysteresis errors are always due to friction and
electrical capacitance.
8. The largest value for which the instrument output remains zero is ____
a) hysteresis error
b) resolution
c) sensitivity
d) dead zone
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Dead zone is the largest value of the measured variable for which the
instrument output stays zero. Hysteresis errors are always due to friction and electrical
capacitance. Sensitivity is the smallest absolute amount of change that can be detected
by a measurement. Resolution is the discrete nature of the measurement system which
will not allow them to follow an exactly continuous change in measurand.
9. The function of the data transmission element is ____
a) to transfer data from one element to another
b) to Modify the data
c) to process the data
d) to separate the signal hidden in the noise
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Data transmission is used to transmit data from one element to another. The
data processing element is used to modify the data before display and separate data from
noise.
10. Which elements among the following is used to modify the data before display?
a) Data presentation element
b) Data transmission element
c) Data processing element
d) Variable manipulation element
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Data processing element is used to modify the data before display. Variable
manipulation element is used to manipulate the signal. Data transmission is used to
transmit data from one element to another, Data presentation element communicate the
information of a measured variable to a human observer for monitoring.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “
Control Systems”.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Microprocessor Based Controllers”.
This set of Mechatronics Interview Questions and Answers focuses on “Real Times
Mechatronics System”.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “CNC
Machines”.
This set of Mechatronics Questions and Answers for Campus interviews focuses on
“Flexible Manufacturing System”.
1. Which does CNC stand for with respect to machine related manufacturing?
a) Computer Numb control
b) Computer Number control
c) Computer Numerical control
d) Computerised Numerical controller
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: CNC with respect to machine related manufacturing stands for Computer
Numerical control. It can control machines such as milling machine, lathe, welding
machine etc by taking digital data as its input which is fed into it by the operator.
2. Which is a false statement on CIM (Computer integrated manufacturing)?
a) Quality of the final goods produced is better
b) The cost of production is less
c) Quantity of produced goods can be changed easily
d) The cost of initial setup is less
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: “The cost of initial setup is less” is a false statement on CIM (Computer
integrated manufacturing). The labour cost may be less but the cost of setup and its
installation is high compared to the traditional ones, because the setup consists of costly
and advanced machines.
3. When did the ‘digital manufacturing’ concept became prominent?
a) Early 1950’s
b) Early 1970’s
c) Late 1940’s
d) Late 1960’s
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The concept of ‘digital manufacturing’ became prominent in the early 1970’s.
It became famous after the release of the book “Computer Integrated Manufacturing”
written by Dr. Joseph harrington.
4. What is the full form of CAD?
a) Computer aided Design
b) Computer arts Design
c) Computer arts Designing
d) Computer assisted Design
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: CAD stands for Computer aided Design. CAD software is used to digitally
design a model. They can create 3-Dimensional model of any desired object. Software
such as “Ansys” can even determine stress or strain falling on an object.
5. CIM (Computer integrated manufacturing) system is same as “lights-out factory”.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: CIM(Computer integrated manufacturing) system is not same as “lights-out
factory”. In “lights-out factory” there is no requirement of a single human being. Everything
is done by the robots. But this is not so in the CIM (Computer integrated manufacturing).
Here skilled technicians are needed for the manufacturing.
6. “Lights-out factory” is a factory where there is no need any kind of light source.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: “Lights-out factory” is a factory where there is no need any kind of light
source. It is also known as “Dark factory”. Every work inside the factory is automated and
is carried out by programmed robots.
7. Which does DNC stand for with respect to machine related manufacturing?
a) Direct Numb control
b) Direct Number control
c) Direct Numerical control
d) Directed Numerical controller
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: DNC with respect to machine related manufacturing stands for Direct
Numerical control. It is also called as distributed numerical control. In this machines are
controlled by a programmed computer with the help of direct connections.
8. Which does PLC stand for with respect to machine related manufacturing?
a) Programmed Logic Controller
b) Programmable Logic Controller
c) Programmed Logic Control
d) Programmable Low-key Controller
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: PLC with respect to machine related manufacturing stands for
Programmable Logic Controller. It is used in the control of manufacturing process. It can
control the assembly lines, carrier robots etc. It provides ease in programming and in the
diagnosis of any fault.
9. What is the full form of CAPP?
a) Computer aided processed plans
b) Computer arts process planning
c) Computer aided process planning
d) Computer assisted process planning
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: CAPP stands for Computer aided process planning. It is the use of computer
aided technology to plan or design a product for manufacturing. This process is widely
used in CIM (Computer integrated manufacturing) for the planning purpose.
10. Which is an example of PLC (Programmable Logic Controller)?
a) MSP430G2ET
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SR3B261BD
d) BMP180
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: SR3B261BD is an example of PLC (Programmable Logic Controller)
developed by SCHNEIDER Electric. BMP180 is a pressure sensor. MSP430G2ET is a
development board manufactured by the “TEXAS INSTRUMENTS” and CMCP793V-500
is a velocity sensor.
11. Which software cannot be used for 3D modelling and CAD (Computer aided design)?
a) Creo
b) Ansys
c) Blender
d) Adobe premium pro
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Adobe premium pro software cannot be used for 3D modelling and CAD
(Computer aided design). Creo, Ansys and Blender all three are 3D modeling app which
can also be used for CAD (Computer aided design).
12. CIM (Computer integrated manufacturing) implies that there should be at least two
computers between which information is interchanged.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: CIM (Computer integrated manufacturing) implies that there should be at
least two computers between which information is interchanged. There can be more than
two systems which works together and exchange information.
13. Who coined the term CAE (Computer aided engineering)?
a) Jerome H. Lemelson
b) Jason Lemon
c) Charles manes
d) Samuel Hunter Christie
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Jason Lemon first coined the term CAE (Computer aided engineering). He
was the founder of SDRC (Structural Dynamics Research corporation). It was founded in
the year 1967.
14. Stress analysis can be performed using “ansys” CAD (Computer aided design)
software.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Stress analysis can be performed using “ansys” CAD (Computer aided
design) software. Ansys is a 3D modelling CAD (Computer aided design) software through
which we can easily figure out the stress in any part of the object.
15. When was the first attempt of lights-out manufacturing made?
a) 1950
b) 1970
c) 1784
d) 1860
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The first attempt of lights-out manufacturing made in the year 1784. It was
carried out by “Oliver Hans”. He was the one who created the world’s first continuous
production line in the year 1784.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Humanoid Robot”.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Advanced Vehicle Control System”.
1. When was first practical power steering invented?
a) 1820
b) 1760
c)1920
d) 1926
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The first practical power steering invented in the year 1926. The need of
power steering emerged greatly during the time war, when there was need of driving heavy
military vehicles which needed a lot of force while steering it with normal steering systems.
2. What is the frictional force in a braking system if the brake pads offer a normal force of
20Newton and the coefficient of friction is 0.4?
a) 4Newton
b) 8Newton
c) 2Newton
d) 40Newton
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 8Newton is the frictional force in a braking system if the brake pads offer a
normal force of 20Newton and the coefficient of friction is 0.4.
Given,
Normal force=20Newton
Coefficient of friction=0.4
Frictional force=Normal force*Coefficient of friction
Frictional force=20*0.4=8Newton
Explanation: Active transducers do not require and additional power source for converting
the energy from one form to another as they work on the principle of energy conversion.
One such example of active transducer is thermocouple.
3. What is the full form of EHPS with respect to vehicle dynamics?
a) Electric-hydro power steering
b) Electro-hydraulic power steering
c) Electro-hydraulic pulse steering
d) Electro-hydraulic power system
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: EHPS with respect to vehicle dynamics stands for Electro-hydraulic power
steering. It uses hydraulic systems for assisting the driver of the vehicle. It acts as a power
steering and helps the driver to easily turn the vehicle in the desired way.
4. When was first calliper-type disc brakes patented?
a) 1902
b) 1800
c) 1945
d) 1850
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The first calliper-type disc brakes patented in the year 1902. It was patented
by Frederick William Lanchester in his birmingham factory. It was first tested on the
lanchester cars.
5. What is the frictional force in a braking system if the brake pads offer a normal force of
10Newton and the coefficient of friction is 0.4?
a) 4Newton
b) 8Newton
c) 2Newton
d) 40Newton
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation:Given,
Normal force = 10Newton
Coefficient of friction = 0.4
Frictional force = Normal force * Coefficient of friction
Frictional force = 10*0.4 = 4Newton
6. What is the frictional force in a braking system of a truck if the drum brake pads offer a
normal force of 30Newton and the coefficient of friction at the area of contact is 0.5?
a) 4Newton
b) 7.5Newton
c) 15Newton
d) 40Newton
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given,
Normal force=30Newton
Coefficient of friction at the area of contact=0.5
Frictional force = Normal force * Coefficient of friction
Frictional force=30*0.5=15Newton.
7. What is the full form of MDPS with respect to vehicle dynamics?
a) Motor driven pulse steering
b) Motor driven power steering
c) Multi driving power steering
d) Motor driven power system
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: MDPS with respect to vehicle dynamics stands for Motor driven power
steering. It uses an electric motor for assisting the driver of the vehicle. It acts as a power
steering and helps the driver to easily turn the vehicle in the desired way.
8. Volvo XC90 has automatic braking system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Volvo XC90 has automatic braking system. It contains systems that detects
the presence of vehicles or objects and apply brakes when they come too close to the car
and can be threat.
9. Which is not a self driving car?
a) Tesla Model S
b) NEXT TWO
c) Renault duster
d) Nissan LEAF
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Renault duster is not a self driving car. Tesla Model S is self driving car made
by the company Tesla. NEXT TWO is self driving car made by the company Renault.
Nissan LEAF is self driving car made by the company Nissan.
10. What is the frictional force in a braking system of a car if the disc brake pads offer a
normal force of 15Newton and the coefficient of friction at the area of contact is 0.5?
a) 4Newton
b) 7.5Newton
c) 2Newton
d) 40Newton
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given,
Normal force=15Newton
Coefficient of friction = 0.5
Frictional force = Normal force * Coefficient of friction
Frictional force=15*0.5=7.5Newton
11. Which is the first autopilot ship?
a) Tesla Model S
b) NEXT TWO
c) J.A Moffet
d) Nissan LEAF
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: J.A Moffet was the first autopilot ship. It was a standard oil tanker that
became the first ship to use auto pilot in 1920’s. Autopilot systems are fully automatic
systems that can constantly control vehicles trajectory without manual guidance.
12. When was first autopilot system developed?
a) 1911
b) 1912
c) 1932
d) 1931
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The first autopilot system was developed in the year 1912 by Lawrence
Sperry. It was just 9 years after wright brothers developed their airplane Kitty Hawk.
Sperry’s invention was also named as “Gyroscopic automatic pilot”.
13. Which is the first helicopter with autopilot?
a) Piasecki HUP Retriever
b) NEXT TWO
c) J.A Moffet
d) Nissan LEAF
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Piasecki HUP Retriever is the first helicopter with autopilot. It was developed
by Piasecki Helicopter Corporation of Morton, Pennsylvania. It has a single radial engine
with twin overlapping tandem rotor.
14. Who developed the first autopilot system?
a) Lawrence Sperry
b) Joseph Henry
c) Norman Bel Geddes
d) Walther Bothe
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Lawrence Sperry was an American inventor who developed the first autopilot
system. Sperry’s invention was also named as “Gyroscopic automatic pilot”. This system
automatically balanced the plane.
15. When was the first steering wheel made?
a) 1911
b) 1894
c) 1832
d) 1831
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The first steering wheel was made in the year 1894. It is the earliest trace of
the presence of steering wheels which was used by Alfred Vachero in his 4 horse powered
custom car to participate in Paris-Rouen race.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Advantages and Disadvantages”.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Types
of Transducers”.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Dynamic Characteristics”.
1. An Eddy current type displacement sensor can detect which types of objects?
a) Wooden Objects
b) Metal Objects
c) Plastic Objects
d) Bricks
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Eddy current type displacement sensor can detect metal objects because it
uses high frequency magnetic field for the detection of objects. When this metallic object
come in the range of magnetic field, due to the electromagnetic induction, eddy current
starts to flow through the object in vertical direction which causes a change in the
impedance of the sensor. This change in impedance is used to measure the distance.
2. Which displacement sensor has the slowest response time among Optical type, Eddy
current type, Ultrasonic type and Laser focus type?
a) Optical Type
b) Eddy Current Type
c) Ultrasonic Type
d) Laser Focus Type
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Ultrasonic type displacement sensor has the slowest response time among
all the above mentioned type sensors. It’s so because it uses ultrasonic sound waves for
the measurement while Optical and Laser type uses light for the measurement which is
much faster than the ultrasonic waves. Eddy current type sensors uses high frequency
magnetic field which is also faster than the ultrasonic waves.
3. Which displacement sensor has the lowest accuracy to measure displacement among
Optical type, Eddy current type, Ultrasonic type, Laser focus type?
a) Optical Type
b) Eddy Current Type
c) Ultrasonic Type
d) Laser Focus Type
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Ultrasonic type displacement sensor has the lowest accuracy to measure
displacement among all the above mentioned type sensors. It’s so because it uses
ultrasonic sound waves for the measurement while Optical and Laser type uses light for
the measurement which is much faster than the ultrasonic waves and also has quick
response time. Eddy current type sensors uses high frequency magnetic field which too
has a greater response time compared the ultrasonic type which make it more accurate
in measuring distances.
4. What is the International System of length used to measure displacement?
a) Metre
b) Kilo Meter
c) Centimetre
d) Yards
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The international system of length, also known as the SI unit of length is
metres. In MKS system the standard unit of measuring length is metre, mass in kilogram
and time in seconds. This MKS unit is mostly used in engineering field, but for basic
physics field the most common system is the CGS system where the unit of measurement
of length is in centimetres, mass in grams and time in seconds.
5. Displacement sensors can also be used to measure an object’s thickness, height and
width.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In addition to measure the relative displacement of an object, these sensors
can also be used to measure the dimensions of an object. This measurement can be done
either by non-contact methods by using light, sound waves or through making an actual
contact with this object.
6. Interferometer can be used for accurate measurement of distance.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Interferometer can be used for accurate measurement of distance. It can
measure small things with incredibly high accuracy by comparing light or radio beams. It
uses the wave pattern interfaces to measure the distance by comparing reflected or
refracted waves coming from objects.
7. ECS in context to displacement measurement stands for ____
a) Electronic Chirp Scaling
b) Extended Chirp Scaling
c) Electronic Chip Scaling
d) Extended Chip Scaling
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: ECS in context to displacement measurement stands for Extended chirp
scaling. It’s a commonly used algorithm used for SAR (Synthetic Aperture Radar) imaging.
8. Bently nevada 3300 xl 5/8mm in an example of which type of sensor?
a) Infrared Sensor
b) Proximitor Sensor
c) Ultrasonic Sensor
d) Temperature Sensor
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bently nevada 3300 xl 5/8mm in an example of proximitor sensor. This
sensor is mostly used in industrial sector, it measures the very small movements due to
vibrations caused by the big machinaries. It helps the employee to monitor and control the
vibrations in machines.
9. Potentiometer as a displacement sensor works on the principle of ________
a) Mutual Inductance
b) Self Inductance
c) Variable Resistance Transduction
d) Hall Effect
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Potentiometer as a displacement sensor works on the principle of Variable
resistance transduction. They are linear or rotary potentiometers which converts this
rotation in potential difference and this potential difference is used for calculating the
displacement.
10. In capacitive sensors the displacement is measured with respect to change in which
internal factor of the sensor?
a) Capacitance
b) Resistance
c) Inductance
d) Effervescence
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In capacitive sensors the displacement is measured with respect to change
in capacitance of the sensor. The displacement changes the area of overlap of the
charged plates also it moves the dielectric between the plates which results in change of
the dielectric constant and hence both the factors lead in the overall change of the
capacitance.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Position Sensors”.
1. Which type of velocity sensor has a fixed permanent magnet attached to it?
a) Pyroelectric type
b) Piezoelectric type
c) Moving coil type
d) Stationary coil type
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Moving coil type of velocity sensor has a fixed permanent magnet attached
to it. The coil inside it has a relative motion with respect to the stationary magnet. When
the coil is in motion, an electromagnetic force is induced in the coil due to electromagnetic
induction. This electromagnetic force is proportional to the velocity of the moving object.
2. What is the unit in which tachometers measure velocity?
a) Revolution per minute
b) Meter per second
c) Kilometer per hour
d) Rotation per minute
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Tachometers measure velocity in Revolution per minute (RPM). They also
act as revolution counters, (i.e) they can also count the number of revolution an object has
made in the required interval of time.
3. Which type of tachometer contain primary and secondary stators with fixed windings?
a) AC tachometers
b) DC tachometers
c) Alternating tachometers
d) Brushless tachometers
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: AC tachometers contain primary and secondary stators with fixed windings.
It provides fixed output voltage when the rotor is stationary and varying voltage only when
the rotor is moving, this varying voltage is proportional to the velocity of the revolving
object.
4. For what purpose, a “tachometer” is used?
a) It is used for calculating velocity in revolution per minute
b) It is used for calculating the number of revolutions
c) It is used for calculating velocity in revolution per second
d) It is used for calculating the velocity in rpm and number of revolutions
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Tachometer is used to calculate velocity in revolution per minute. It can also
be used as a revolution counter to calculate the number of revolutions the object has made
which we have taken into consideration.
5. The Laser surface velocimeter works on dopplers principle.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Laser surface velocimeter(LSV) works on dopplers principle or the
dopplers effect. According to dopplers effect, there is change in the intensity of wave (here
light wave) when the source and observer move towards or away from each other.
6. Accelerometer can be used to measure the tilt.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In addition of measuring the inertial measurement of velocity and position,
accelerometers can be also used to measure the degree of tilt by considering the
acceleration due to gravity as reference. These are generally used in self balancing robots.
7. What does RPM stand for?
a) Rotation per minute
b) Revolution per minute
c) Rounds per minute
d) Rotation per millisecond
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: RPM stands for revolution per minute. It is the most commonly used unit in
motor appliances and motor vehicles for denoting the speed of the crank shaft in the
engine.
8. _______ velocity sensor is a type of velocity sensor
a) Infrared
b) Proximitor
c) Piezoelectric
d) Ultrasonic
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Piezoelectric velocity sensor is a type of velocity sensor. The output of the
velocity sensor is proportional to the velocity of the object. Since the output of the sensor
is very small so it mostly needs an amplifier for using it for any application.
9. LSV in terms of velocity measurement stands for ________
a) Laser Surface Velocimeter
b) Laser Surface Velocity meter
c) Linear Surface Velocimeter
d) Linear Surface Velocity meter
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: LSV in terms of velocity measurement stands for Laser surface velocimeter.
It is a non-contact type velocity measuring tool which uses the laser doppler effect for
evaluating the light scattered from the moving object.
10. Which is a type of velocity sensor?
a) MSP430G2ET
b) CMCP793V-500
c) MPU 6050
d) L298N
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: CMCP793V-500 is a type of velocity sensor. It is used to examine very small
vibrations in terms of velocity. Since these received signals are of very low frequency, they
need an amplifier to amplify the received signal and convert them in terms of velocity.
1. Which is the most common load cell used in the force sensors?
a) Hydraulic load cells
b) Strain-Gauge based load cells
c) Pneumatic load cells
d) Capacitive load cells
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Strain-Gauge based load cells are the most common load cell used in the
force sensors. It is a transducer that is used for sensing the force, it converts the applied
force into electrical signals which is used for sensing the amount of load that is applied.
2. What is the standard capacity of tension load cells to measure load?
a) 25,000 to 100,000 lbs
b) 25,00 to 10,000 lbs
c) 25,000 to 100,000 Kg
d) 25,00 to 10,000 Kg
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The standard capacity of tension cells to measure load ranges from 25,000
to 100,000 lbs. Tension cells calculate the applied force based upon the tension applied
on beams or cables. Though this range can be exceeded in the custom ones.
3. Which force sensor is not a strain gauge type force sensor?
a) Load pins
b) Shear beams
c) Tension links
d) ALC annular load cell
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: ALC annular load cell sensor is not a strain gauge type force sensor. It is a
capacitive load cell or a capacitive based load sensor. Other all the remaining are stress
gauge type force sensors which are used to measure tension or sheer forces.
4. Which transducer does not require any external power supply for working?
a) Strain gauge transducer
b) Piezoelectric Crystals
c) Hydraulic transducer
d) Pneumatic transducer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Piezoelectric Crystals does not require any external power supply for
working. They generate a voltage when an external force is applied on it which is directly
proportional to the external applied force. These sensors need special indicators for
measuring that voltage change.
5. RFI (Radio frequency interference), moisture and temperature cannot interfere with the
signals sent by the load cells.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: RFI (Radio frequency interference), moisture and temperature can interfere
with the signals sent by the load cells. RFI acts as electrical noise to the force transducer’s
signal. Moisture can wick itself the cables and can create a difference in capacitance
between the signal lines. Temperature affects the resistance of the cables and thus can
create an interference in the original signal.
6. Higher capacitive load cells can ensure Wind loading and shock loading.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Higher capacitive load cells can ensure Wind loading and shock loading.
Wind and shock waves can affect the actual measurement of weight or force calculated.
Using higher capacitive load cells will eliminate the very small changes caused by these
external factors and only give the correct ones in the output.
7. RFI is electrical noise to load cells. What does RFI stand for?
a) Radio Frequency Interface
b) Radio Frequency Interference
c) Relay Frequency Interference
d) Relay Frequency Interface
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: RFI stand for Radio Frequency Interference. Radio frequency interference is
also called as Electromagnetic interference (EMI). It is electrical noise to the load cell
signal sent from the sensor.
8. What causes the problem of 60-hertz hum?
a) In-appropriate voltage supply
b) Absence of digital to analog converter
c) In-appropriate current supply
d) Absence of analog to digital converter
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Absence of analog to digital converter can causes the problem of 60-hertz
hum. The controllers is advised to have a digital to analog converter which can be
synchronised with the 60 Hz frequency signals in the power supply lines.
9. What is the phenomenon (principle) on which magnetoelastic force sensors work?
a) Villari effect
b) Hall effect
c) Lenz law
d) Mutual Induction
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Magnetoelastic force sensors work on “Villari effect” also known as the
magnetoelastic effect. It was named after an Italian physicist who discovered it. This effect
states that when a ferromagnetic material is subjected to stress then there is change in
the magnetic flux. This effect is known as the “Villari effect”.
10. Which is an example of force sensor?
a) MSP430G2ET
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) L298N
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: SLB700A/06VA is an example of force sensor. It is a strain transducer that
converts the strain to electrical signals. MSP430G2ET is a development board
manufactured by the “TEXAS INSTRUMENTS”, CMCP793V-500 is a velocity sensor and
L298N is a motor driver.
11. What is the value of force measured by a force sensor lying on a plane ground if a
block of mass 3 kg is kept on it and a normal upward tensile force of 5 Newton is applied
on the block? (Take acceleration due to gravity=10m/s2)
a) 15 Newton
b) 25 Newton
c) 30 Newton
d) 24 Newton
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Mass of block=3kg
Normal upward force=5Newton
Net force due to block=Force due to mass of block-Normal upward force
Force due to mass of block=mass*acceleration (here acceleration due to gravity)
Force due to mass of block=3*10=>30N
Net force due to block=30N-5N=>25N
12. What is the value of force measured by a force sensor lying on a plane ground if a
block of mass 2 kg is kept on it and a normal upward tensile force of 4 Newton is applied
on the block? (Take acceleration due to gravity=10m/s2)
a) 15 Newton
b) 20 Newton
c) 16 Newton
d) 24 Newton
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Mass of block=2kg
Normal upward force=4 Newton
Net force due to block=Force due to mass of block-Normal upward force
Force due to mass of block=mass*acceleration (here acceleration due to gravity)
Force due to mass of block=2*10=>20N
Net force due to block=20N-4N=>16N
13. What is the value of force, measured by a force sensor placed on the wall; if a rigid
block of mass 3kg is smashed against the wall with an acceleration of 5m/s2? (Take
acceleration due to gravity=10m/s2)
a) 15 Newton
b) 20 Newton
c) 16 Newton
d) 0 Newton
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Mass of block = 3 kg
Acceleration of block=5m/s2
Force experienced by sensor=mass*acceleration
Force experienced by sensor=3*5=>15 N
14. What should be the acceleration of a rigid body of mass 5kg; if a force sensor
measures a normal collision impact force of 15N? (Ignore acceleration due to gravity)
a) 5 m/s2
b) 13 m/s2
c) 6 m/s2
d) 3 m/s2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Mass of block=5 kg
Force measured by the force sensor=15N
Force experienced by sensor=mass of body*acceleration of body
Acceleration of body=Force experienced by sensor/mass
Acceleration of body=15N/5kg=>3m/s2
general calculations it is assumed to be 10 m/s2. It the acceleration in which the earth pulls
all the object present on the surface of earth. This acceleration varies at the poles of the
earth.
4. Which element is mostly used in the capacitive accelerometers for sensing?
a) Germanium
b) Silicon
c) Lead
d) Carbon
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Silicon is mostly used in the capacitive accelerometers for sensing. It is
relatively cheap and exhibits far better performance in the low frequency range. They can
provide a higher stability and linearity when operated in servo mode.
5. MEMS stands for ________
a) Micro electric mechanical system
b) Micro electro mechanical system
c) Mini electro mechanical system
d) Mini electronic mechanical system
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: MEMS stands for Micro electro mechanical system. Accelerometers,
Gyroscopes and pressure sensors are MEMS sensors. It is a technology using which most
of the accelerometers and other sensors are designed.
6. Accelerometers can be used for sensing mechanical vibrations.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Accelerometers can be used for sensing mechanical vibrations. They can
detect even very precise vibrations in the machine. Since the vibration is in single plane a
two axis accelerometer is best suited for the measurement.
7. Acceleration is a ______ quantity.
a) scalar
b) vector
c) tensor
d) resistive
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Acceleration is a vector quantity. It is a vector quantity because it depends
on both, magnitude of acceleration as well as the direction of acceleration. Had it been
only dependent on magnitude, it would be a scalar quantity but it is not so.
8. MPU6050 in an example of which type of sensor?
a) Acceleration sensor
b) Proximity Sensor
c) Ultrasonic sensor
d) Laser sensor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: MPU6050 is an example of Acceleration sensor. It consists both 3 axis
accelerometer and 3 axis gyroscope, which is capable of measuring very precise
movements and accelerations.
9. Piezoelectric accelerometers converts ________ energy to ______energy.
a) mechanical, sound
b) mechanical, electrical
c) sound, electrical
d) sound, electrical
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Piezoelectric accelerometers converts mechanical energy to electrical
energy. The word piezoelectric is derived from a Greek word “piezein” which means to
press or squeeze. When any mechanical variable such as force or shock is applied on the
input, then it produces subsequent electrical signals which is used to measure its
magnitude.
10. Which is an example of accelerometer?
a) OptoNCDT ILR 1030
b) OptoNCDT 1420
c) ADXl 335
d) EddyNCDT 3301
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: ADXl 335 is an example of accelerometer. OptoNCDTILR 1030 and
OptoNCDT 1420 are laser sensor used for computing distance and objects placed at very
high distances. EddyNCDT 3301 is a Eddy currents sensor.
11. A free falling heavy object will have more acceleration than a free falling light object if
released from a same height. (Ignore air resistance)
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A free falling heavy object will not have more acceleration than a free falling
light object if released from a same height. Both the object will experience same
acceleration due to gravity, which is why a free falling light object and heavy object will
reach the ground at the same time if released from a same height.
12. Who invented the first accelerometer?
a) Grueblerowen
b) Joseph Henry
c) George Atwood
d) Walther Bothe
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: George Atwood invented the first accelerometer. The first accelerometer was
invented in the year 1783 and was originally named as Atwood machine. This machine
was used to calculate linear accelerations.
13. What was the original name of first accelerometer?
a) Eskimometer
b) Atwood machine
c) Asimo machine
d) Pepper
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The original name of first accelerometer was Atwood machine. It was named
after its inventor George Atwood. He was an English physicist who invented the first
accelerometer in the year 1783.
14. AC (Alternating Current) response accelerometer cannot measure constant or static
acceleration.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: AC (Alternating Current) response accelerometer cannot measure constant
or static acceleration such as acceleration due to gravity. They are designed to determine
dynamic accelerations and events which changes regularly.
15. DC (Direct Current) response accelerometer cannot measure dynamic acceleration.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DC (Direct Current) response accelerometer can measure dynamic
acceleration as well as static acceleration such as acceleration due to gravity. However,
AC (Alternating Current) response accelerometer cannot measure constant or static
acceleration. They are designed to determine dynamic accelerations and events which
changes regularly.
1. Which is the formula for measurement of torque, provided “r” is the position vector and
“f” is the force vector?
a) f*r*sinθ
b) f*r*cosθ
c) f*r*tanθ
d) f*r*secθ
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The formula for measurement of torque, provided “r” is the position vector
and “f” is the force vector is f*r*sinθ. Torque is the cross product of the force vector and
position vector (i.e) t(torque)=f x r, which ultimately gives f*r*sinθ.
2. What is the unit in which torque is measured?
a) Newton meter
b) Meter per second
c) Kilometer per hour
d) Rotation per minute
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The SI unit of torque is Newton-meter (Nm). Torque is defined as force
multiplied by the position vector and Sine of the angle between the force vector and
position vector. The corresponding SI unit of measurement is Newton and meter. So the
SI unit is newton meter.
3. Which sensor is a type of inline torque sensor?
a) M425
b) FF425
c) RS425
d) ADXL345
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: M425 sensor is a type of inline torque sensor. FF425 is a dual flange torque
sensor. RS425 is completely contactless type torque sensor. ADXL345 is a 3 axis
accelerometer.
4. What type of torque is associated with braking system of a vehicle, when brakes are
applied?
a) Stationary torque
b) Dynamic torque
c) Static torque
d) Distinctive torque
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When brakes are applied in a moving vehicle, static torque is generated. It is
because the force applied by the brakes is static as there is no acceleration involved, so
the corresponding torque generated is called static torque.
5. Inline torque measurement is more accurate than reaction torque measurement.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Inline torque measurement is more accurate than reaction torque
measurement. It is so because inline torque sensors are placed beside the torque carrying
components, this eliminates the possibility of any other external parasitic torques to
interfere.
6. Reaction torque measurement is done when acceleration is required.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Reaction torque measurement is done when acceleration is not required. It
is also called as static torque measurement. The word “static” itself denotes that the item
on which the torque is measured should not be in motion.
7. What varies in a strain gauge torque sensor when force is applied?
a) Resistance
b) Inductance
c) Capacitance
d) Velocity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Resistance varies in a strain gauge torque sensor when force is applied. A
strain gauge has some electrical conductive material printed on an insulated substrate,
when force is applied over it the material experiences a strain and the resistance of the
material changes.
8. The two types of torque are: ______ torque and ________ torque.
a) Static torque, dynamic torque
b) Static torque, distinctive torque
c) Stationary torque, non-stationary torque
d) Dynamic, non-dynamic
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The two types of torque are: Static torque and dynamic torque. The torque
generated when there is no relative acceleration is called static torque. Whereas the
torque generated due to dynamic acceleration or deacceleration is called dynamic torque.
9. SAW torque sensors are a wireless torque sensor. SAW stands for ________
a) Sound Acoustic Wave
b) Surface Acoustic Wave
c) Simple Acoustic Wave
d) Surface Acoustic Wave
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: “SAW” stands for Surface Acoustic Wave. This wave is used in the acoustic
sensor for detection of motion. It is named so because acoustic wave has to propagate
through a surface as a medium, any change in the propagation path, changes the velocity
and other property of wave which is used to detect motion in these acoustic torque
sensors.
10. Which is a type of torque sensor?
a) CMCP793V-500
b) FF425
c) MPU 6050
d) L298N
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: FF425 is a type of torque sensor. CMCP793V-500 is a type of velocity
sensor. MPU 6050 is a 6 axis gyroscope and accelerometer. L298N is a motor driver with
dual-H bridge.
11. What is the torque provided by a flywheel which is being rotated with a force of 2N and
radial distance of point of application of the force from the centre is 1m? (Consider the
radial distance vector and force vector are perpendicular to each other)
a) 2 Nm
b) 3 Nm
c) 4 Nm
d) 5 Nm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Force (f) = 2N
Radial distance(r)=1m
Angle between radial distance vector and force vector(θ)=90°
We know; Torque (t)=f*r*sinθ
Torque (t)=2*1*sin (90°) [since sin (90°)=1]
Torque (t)=2 Nm
12. What is the torque provided by a flywheel which is being rotated with a force of 3N and
radial distance of point of application of the force from the centre is 0.5m? (Consider the
radial distance vector and force vector are perpendicular to each other)
a) 2 Nm
b) 3 Nm
c) 1.5 Nm
d) 5 Nm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Force (f) = 3N
Radial distance(r)=0.5m
Angle between radial distance vector and force vector (θ)=90°
We know; Torque (t)=f*r*sinθ
Torque (t)=3*0.5*sin (90°) [since sin (90° )=1]
Torque (t)=1.5 Nm
13. What is the torque provided by a rotating object which is being rotated with a force of
6N and radial distance of point of application of the force from the centre is 2m? (Consider
the radial distance vector and force vector are at 30° to each other)
a) 3 Nm
b) 6 Nm
c) 1 Nm
d) 5 Nm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Force(f)=6N
Radial distance(r)=2m
Angle between radial distance vector and force vector (θ)=30°
We know; Torque (t)=f*r*sinθ
Torque (t)=6*2*sin(30°) [since sin(30°)=1/2]
Torque (t)=6Nm
14. What is the force provided for rotating object which is being rotated with a torque of
10 Nm and radial distance of point of application of the force from the centre is 4m?
(Consider the radial distance vector and force vector are at 30° to each other)
a) 13 N
b) 16 N
c) 10 N
d) 5 N
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Torque (t)=10Nm
Radial distance(r)=4m
Angle between radial distance vector and force vector (θ)=30°
We know; Torque (t)=f(force)*r(radial distance)*sinθ
10 = f*4*sin (30°) [since sin (30°)=1/2]
F (force)=5N
15. If the radial distance vector and force vector are in the same line then the torque will
be 0.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If the radial distance vector and force vector are in the same line then the
torque will be 0. Torque is the cross product of the force vector and position vector (i.e)
t(torque)=f x r, which ultimately gives f*r*sinθ. If radial distance vector and force vector are
in the same line then θ=0 and sin0°=0. Therefore Torque=0.
1. What is the flow rate of a liquid flowing through a cylindrical pipe of cross section area
0.5m2 and velocity of the liquid is 0.5m/s?
a) 0.5
b) 0.75
c) 0.25
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Cross section area=0.5 m2
Velocity of the liquid=0.5 m/s
Flow rate=Cross section area*Velocity of the liquid
Flow rate=0.5*0.5=0.25m3/s
2. What is the flow rate of a liquid flowing through a cylindrical pipe of radius 0.2 m and
velocity of the liquid is 0.6m/s?
a) 0.5
b) 0.07536
c) 0.0157
d) 0.0628
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Radius(r)=0.1m
Cross section area=pi*r2
Cross section area=3.14*(0.2) 2
=> 0.1256
Velocity of the liquid=0.6m/s
Flow rate=Cross section area*Velocity of the liquid
Flow rate=0.1256*0.6 => 0.07536m /s 3
3. What is the flow rate of a liquid flowing through a cylindrical pipe of radius 0.1 m and
velocity of the liquid is 0.5m/s?
a) 0.5
b) 0.75
c) 0.0157m3/s
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Radius(r)=0.1m
Cross section area=pi*r2
Cross section area=3.14*(0.1) =>0.0314
2
and seconds respectively. Volumetric flow rate represents the rate at which a particular
volume of fluid flows through a cross section area in 1 second.
5. High turbidity is bad for aquatic life.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: High turbidity is bad for aquatic life. Turbidity refers to the amount of
sediments present in the water. High turbidity can block the sunlight which is essential for
the aquatic plants to live. The turbidity contains several pathogens which may be harmful
for the aquatic life.
6. Ultrasonic flow meter works on Doppler Effect.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ultrasonic flow meter works on Doppler Effect. Ultrasonic flow meters are
generally used for monitoring dirty water such as sewage waste water. It can detect large
suspended particles and bubbles flowing through the channel.
7. Which is a gas flow meter?
a) MSP430G2ET
b) CMCP793V-500
c) FLUXUS G601
d) FMA-PC16
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: FLUXUS G601 is a gas flow meter. FMA-PC16 is a mass flow meter.
MSP430G2ET is a development board manufactured by the “TEXAS INSTRUMENTS”
and CMCP793V-500 is a velocity sensor.
8. What is the flow rate of a liquid flowing through a cylindrical pipe of radius 0.2 m and
velocity of the liquid is 0.5 m/s?
a) 0.5
b) 0.75
c) 0.0157
d) 0.0628
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Radius(r)=0.1m
Cross section area=pi*r2
Cross section area=3.14*(0.2) =>0.1256
2
density of 1230kg/m3. Chloroform has the highest density among the four, with a density
of 1489 kg/m3.
Therefore chloroform will have the highest mass.
13. Which liquid will have more mass for same amount of volume?
a) Coconut oil
b) Phosgene
c) Castor oil
d) Sea Water
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: We know density=mass/volume
Since volume is constant so, mass is directly proportional to liquid. Therefore the liquid
with highest density has the highest mass.
Castor oil has density is 952 kg/m 3. Sea Water has a density of 1022kg/m3. Coconut oil
has a density of 930kg/m3. Phosgene has the highest density among the four, with a
density of 1378kg/m3.
Therefore Phosgene will have the highest mass.
14. Which is a Liquid flow sensor?
a) SLF3X
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) FMA-PC16
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: SLF3X is a Liquid flow sensor. It is durable, stable and provides long time
durability for various applications. FMA-PC16 is a mass flow meter. SLB700A/06VA is an
example of force sensor. CMCP793V-500 is a velocity sensor.
15. What is the SI unit of flow rate of a Liquid or fluid?
a) m3/s
b) m2/s
c) m/s
d) m3/s2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: m3/s is the SI unit of flow rate of a Liquid. Flow rate is calculated by
considering unit of volume flowing in one second. SI unit of volume is m 3 and time is
seconds, which gives the SI unit of flow as m3/s.
1. Which factor affects the least while selection of sensor?
a) Size
b) Accuracy
c) Colour
d) Durability
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Colour of a sensor affects the least while selection of sensor. Accuracy of
the sensor is needed in order to achieve precise results. Size of the sensor depends on
the area of application. And for the sensor to last long and give the same results, it must
be durable enough.
2. Which sensor should one prefer for accurate measurement of distance upto 1 meter?
a) Ultrasonic sensor
b) Infrared sensor
c) PIR sensor
d) Photoresistor sensor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ultrasonic sensor should one prefer for accurate measurement of distance
upto 1 meter. Infrared sensor can also be used for measuring distance but its range is
less than a meter. PIR sensor and Photoresistor sensor cannot be used for measuring
distance.
3. Which sensor one should prefer for detecting black objects?
a) Ultrasonic sensor
b) Infrared sensor
c) PIR sensor
d) Photoresistor sensor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ultrasonic sensor one should prefer for detecting black objects. Infrared
sensor and PIR sensor cannot detect black objects, because they work on reflection of
Infrared ray from the objects and black objects does not reflect infrared rays.
4. IR sensors can’t work in dark environment.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: IR sensors can work in dark environment. It does not require an external light
source. They only need an Infrared emitter or any source of infrared and these sources
are present on the sensor itself. So it can work in dark.
5. Arduino UNO is a microcontroller board based on ESP8266 IC.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Arduino UNO is not based on ESP8266 IC. It is a microcontroller board based
on Atmega328P. It is a general purpose development board which contains 6 analog pins
and 14 digital pins out of which 6 pins can be used as PWM (pulse width modulation)
outputs.
6. Which IC (integrated circuit) is present on NodeMCU?
a) ESP8266
b) Atmega326
c) Atmega328P
d) ESPN8266
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: ESP8266IC (integrated circuit) is present on NodeMCU. It is a wifi enabled
chip. It is developed by Espress if Systems. It is a low cost Wifi chip with TCP/IP protocol.
Atmega328P is present on the Arduino UNO development board.
7. Which colour does not reflect infrared rays?
a) White
b) Black
c) Red
d) Green
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Black colour does not reflect infrared rays. All other colour reflects infrared
rays. This is the reason why infrared sensors or any other infrared based sensor is unable
to detect black coloured objects.
8. HC-SR04 is an example of which type of sensor?
a) Infrared Sensor
b) Microwave Radar Sensor
c) Ultrasonic Sensor
d) Temperature Sensor
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: HC-SR04 is an example of Ultrasonic Sensor. It is one of the most widely
used ultrasonic sensor for robotic or arduino projects. It is cheap and gives accurate
measurement of distance upto few metres.
9. What is the maximum distance range of detection of the HC-SR04?
a) 10 cm
b) 10 m
c) 5 feet
d) 13 feet
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: 13 feet is the maximum distance range of detection of the HC-SR04. HC-
SR04 is a Ultrasonic Sensor. It is cheap and one of the most widely used ultrasonic sensor
for robotic or arduino projects.
10. What is the maximum range of HC-05?
a) 5 metre
b) 10 meter
c) 20 meter
d) 50 meter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 10 meter is the maximum range of HC-05. HC-05 is a Bluetooth sensor which
uses 2.45 gigaHertz frequency band for transmission. The transfer rate of data can go
upto 1Mbps (Mega-byte per second).
11. Which sensor should be used for calculating pressure?
a) DHT11
b) LM335Z/NOPB
c) HC-SR04
d) MPX10DP
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: MPX10DP sensor should be used for calculating pressure. MPX10DP is a
pressure sensor which can measure pressure up to 10 kPa. HC-SR04 is an example of
Ultrasonic Sensor. LM335Z/NOPB is temperature sensor. DHT11 is a temperature and
humidity sensor.
12. Which sensor should be used for calculating humidity?
a) DHT11
b) LM335Z/NOPB
c) HC-SR04
d) MPX10DP
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DHT11 sensor should be used for calculating humidity. It can also be used
as temperature sensor. MPX10DP is a pressure sensor which can measure pressure up
to 10 kPa. HC-SR04 is an example of Ultrasonic Sensor. LM335Z/NOPB is temperature
sensor.
13. Which sensor should be used for calculating distance?
a) DHT11
b) LM335Z/NOPB
c) HC-SR04
d) MPX10DP
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: HC-SR04 sensor should be used for calculating distance. HC-SR04 is a
Ultrasonic Sensor that has a range of 13 feet linearly. MPX10DP is a pressure sensor
which can measure pressure up to 10 kPa. LM335Z/NOPB is temperature sensor. DHT11
is a temperature and humidity sensor.
14. Which sensor should be used for calculating temperature as well as humidity?
a) DHT11
b) LM335Z/NOPB
c) HC-SR04
d) MPX10DP
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DHT11 sensor should be used for calculating temperature as well as
humidity. MPX10DP is a pressure sensor which can measure pressure up to 10 kPa. HC-
SR04 is an example of Ultrasonic Sensor. LM335Z/NOPB is temperature sensor but it
cannot calculate humidity.
15. Which sensor is used in line following robots?
a) Infrared Sensor
b) Microwave Radar Sensor
c) Ultrasonic Sensor
d) Temperature Sensor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Infrared Sensor is used in line following robots. These line following robots
follow a path which is made by black strips or tapes. These robots use a bunch of infrared
sensors which makes them work accurately.
1. A bipolar junction transistor has beta=250 and base current=10micro ampere. What is
the collector current?
a) 25 micro ampere
b) 10 micro ampere
c) 2.5 milli ampere
d) 10 milli ampere
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Base current(Ib)=10micro ampere
Beta=250
Since Ic(collector current)=beta*Ib(base current)
Ic(collector current)=250*10 micro ampere=2.5 milli ampere.
2. What happens to the collector current if the emitter current increases while no base
voltage is applied?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) No current
d) First increases then decreases
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When no voltage is provided at the base then no current passes from emitter
to collector, so even if very high potential difference is applied at the emitter collector
junction, no current flows through it. This configuration is used for switching in various
appliances using bipolar junction transistor.
3. Which terminal of the diode is common to the other two terminals of the diode?
a) Base is common to collector and emitter
b) Emitter is common to collector and base
c) Collector is common to base and emitter
d) No terminal is common to any other
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Base terminal is common to collector and emitter terminal of the diode. A
bipolar junction transistor is made by sandwiching base terminal between emitter and
collector terminal. If base terminal is made of N type material then both emitter and
collector terminal is made of P-type material and vice-versa.
4. Which is an example of bipolar junction transistor?
a) BC547B
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) MBR5H100MFST1G
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: BC547B is an example of bipolar junction transistor. It is most common and
widely used NPN transistor. It is small, cheap, uses less power and fulfills most of the
requirement for general purpose use.
5. In bipolar junction transistors both electron and holes are responsible for conduction.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In bipolar junction transistors both electron and holes are responsible for
conduction. The term “bipolar” itself mean two polarities which represents that both
charged particle are responsible for the conduction in the bipolar junction transistor.
6. Three PN junctions is present in a bipolar junction transistor.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A bipolar junction transistor has 2 PN junctions. First PN junction is between
the base emitter terminal and second PN junction is between base collector terminal. A
base is always between emitter and collector.
7. What is the minimum voltage required to make base emitter junction of a real silicon
bipolar junction transistor in forward biased?
a) 0.7 volts
b) 1.8 volts
c) 2.3 volts
d) 0.3 volts
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 0.7 volts is the minimum voltage required to make the base emitter junction
of a real silicon bipolar junction transistor in forward biased. This 0.7 volt potential
difference between base and emitter terminal makes the PN junction in forward biased.
8. When bipolar junction transistor acts as an amplifier?
a) When base emitter terminal is forward biased and base collector terminal is reverse
bias
b) When base emitter terminal is reverse biased and base collector terminal is reverse
bias
c) When base emitter terminal is reverse biased and base collector terminal is forward
bias
d) When base emitter terminal is forward biased and base collector terminal is forward
bias
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bipolar junction transistor acts as an amplifier when base emitter terminal is
forward biased and base collector terminal is reverse biased. There is a transfer of
resistance from low resistance to high resistance while the current remains same, and
since V=IR, the voltage gets amplified.
9. What are the parameters over which transfer characteristics curve of bipolar junction
transistor is made in common emitter configuration?
a) Emitter Current and time
b) Emitter Voltage and time
c) Collector Current and frequency
d) Collector to Emitter Voltage and Collector current
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Collector to Emitter Voltage and Collector current are the parameters
considering which transfer characteristics curve of bipolar junction transistor is made. It is
voltage versus current graph in which Current is denoted on Y-axis and voltage is denoted
on (X-axis).
10. What are the parameters over which Input characteristics curve of bipolar junction
transistor is made in common emitter configuration?
a) Emitter Current and time
b) Emitter to base Voltage and time
c) Collector Current and frequency
d) Base to Emitter Voltage and base current
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Base to Emitter Voltage and base current are the parameters considering
which input characteristics curve of bipolar junction transistor is made. It is voltage versus
current graph in which Current is denoted on Y-axis and voltage is denoted on (X-axis).
11. A bipolar junction transistor has beta=100 and base current= 8 micro ampere. What is
the collector current?
a) 25 micro ampere
b) 0.8 micro ampere
c) 0.8 milli ampere
d) 10 milli ampere
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given;
Base current (Ib) = 8 micro ampere
Beta=100
Since Ic(collector current)=beta*Ib(base current)
Ic(collector current)=100*8 micro ampere=0.8 milli ampere.
12. A bipolar junction transistor has collector current(Ic)=1.3 milli ampere and emitter
current=1.5 milli ampere. What is the base current?
a) 25 micro ampere
b) 0.2 micro ampere
c) 0.2 milli ampere
d) 10 milli ampere
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given;
Collector current (Ic)=1.3 milli ampere
Emitter current (Ie)=1.5 milli ampere
Since Ie(emitter current)=Ic(collector current)+Ib(base current)
Therefore Ib(base current)=Ie(emitter current)-Ic(collector current).
Ib(base current)=1.5 mA-1.3 => 0.2 milli ampere
13. A bipolar junction transistor has emitter current(Ic)=1.6 milli ampere and collector
current=1.47 milli ampere. What is the base current?
a) 25 micro ampere
b) 0.13 microampere
c) 0.8 milli ampere
d) 0.13 milli ampere
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Collector current(Ic)=1.47 milli ampere
Emitter current(Ie)=1.6 milli ampere
Since Ie(emitter current)=Ic(collector current)+Ib(base current)
Therefore Ib(base current)=Ie(emitter current)-Ic(collector current).
Ib(base current)=1.6-1.47 => 0.13 milli ampere
14. What is the value of current gain (α) where emitter current(Ic)=1.6 milli ampere;
collector current=1.5 milli ampere and base current=0.1 milli ampere?
a) 3.1
b) 0.937
c) 0.8
d) 0.31
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Collector current(Ic)=1.5 milli ampere
Emitter current(Ie)=1.6 milli ampere
Base current=0.1 milli ampere
Since: current gain( α )=Ic(collector current)/Ie(emitter current)
Therefore current gain(α)=1.5/1.6 => 0.937
15. What is the value of current gain (α) where emitter current(Ic)=2 milli ampere; collector
current=1.9 milli ampere and base current=0.1 milli ampere?
a) 1.5
b) 0.937
c) 80
d) 150
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Collector current(Ic)=1.59 milli ampere
Emitter current(Ie)=1.6 milli ampere
Base current=0.01milliampere
Since: Voltage gain( β )=Ic(collector current)/Ib(base current)
Therefore; Voltage gain( β )=1.5/0.01 => 150
1. How many minimum thyristors are required to make a TRIAC (Triode alternating
current)?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 2 thyristors are required to make a TRIAC (Triode alternating current). These
thyristors are connected parallel to each other but in opposite direction. Their gates are
made common, which makes it a 3 terminal device.
2. How many terminals does a DIAC (Diode alternating current) have?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DIAC (Diode alternating current) is a 2 terminal device. It has got two zener
diodes connected back to back which forms a DIAC (Diode alternating current). The two
terminals are anode terminals in a PNPN DIAC (Diode alternating current).
3. What are present at the potential barrier of a PN junction when no external voltage is
applied?
a) Electrons
b) Holes
c) Positive Ions
d) Positive and Negative Ions
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Positive and Negative Ions are present at the potential barrier of a PN
junction when no external voltage is applied. These Ions are immobile and are
accumulated which does not allow the electrons and holes to cross the junction until an
external voltage is applied.
4. Which is an example of DIAC?
a) OptoNCDT ILR 1030
b) OptoNCDT1420
c) NTE6408
d) EddyNCDT 3301
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: NTE6408 is an example of DIAC. OptoNCDT ILR 1030 and OptoNCDT1420
are laser sensor used for computing distance and objects placed at very high distances.
EddyNCDT 3301 is a Eddy currents sensor.
5. DIAC is a unidirectional device.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DIAC (Diode alternating current) is a not a unidirectional device, it is a
bidirectional device. It is a thyristor that can be switched on in both polarities. It is mainly
used in activating TRIAC (Triode alternating current).
6. DIAC can act as AC switch.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DIAC can act as AC switch. It is one of the major application of DIAC (Diode
alternating current). It is also extensively used to assist the triggering action of TRIAC
(Triode alternating current) when used as a switch.
7. What is the breakdown voltage of three layered DIAC (Diode alternating current)?
a) Approximately 30 volts
b) Approximately 20 volts
c) Approximately 50 volts
d) Approximately 40 volts
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 0.7 volts is the minimum voltage required to make the PN junction of a real
silicon transistor in forward biased. This 0.7 volt potential difference makes the PN junction
between base and emitter terminal in forward biased.
8. How many layers of semiconductor does a DIAC have?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A DIAC (Diode alternating current)is a 4 layered semiconductor device. It has
alternating P-type and N-type semiconductor fused together. Together these 4 layers form
up a DIAC (Diode alternating current).
9. What is the full form of SIDAC?
a) Silicon diode for alternating current
b) Silicate diode for alternating current
c) Silicon dioxide for alternating current
d) Silicon diode for analogous current
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: SIDAC stands for Silicon diode alternating current. It is a member of thyristor
family that has 5 layers of n-type and p-type semiconductor layers fused together. They
are used for switchimg and triggering pupose.
10. A SIDAC (Silicon diode for alternating current) does not conduct below a break-over
voltage.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A SIDAC (Silicon diode for alternating current) does not conduct below a
break-over voltage. There is some specified voltage which has to be crossed by the input
voltage, in order to make the SIDAC work. Further it does not depend on voltage.
11. DIAC starts to conduct current after some threshold voltage.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DIAC starts to conduct current after some threshold voltage. It starts to
conduct current only when the input voltage crosses the breakdown voltage. It is also
extensively used to assist the triggering action of TRIAC (Triode alternating current) when
used as a switch.
12. DIAC’s get damaged when voltage of wrong polarity is applied at its terminals.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DIAC’s does get damage when voltage of wrong polarity is applied at the
terminals. They are bidirectional device, that is they do not have fixed anode and cathode
terminals. They work the same even if the polarity is changed.
13. What is the full form of DIAC?
a) Diode for alternating current
b) Diode attenuating current
c) Dioxide for analogous current
d) Diode analogous current
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DIAC stands for Diode for alternating current. It only conducts current when
the applied voltage crosses breakdown voltage. DIAC is a 2 terminal device. It has got
two zener diodes connected back to back which forms a DIAC.
14. What is the full form of TRIAC?
a) Triode attenuating current
b) Triode for alternating current
c) Trioxide for analogous current
d) Triode analogous current
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: TRIAC stands for Triode for alternating current. 2 thyristors are required to
make a TRIAC. It is a three terminal device. The thyristors are connected parallel to each
other but in opposite direction and their gates are made common.
15. DIAC’s do not work with DC voltage.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DIAC’s do work with DC voltage. But it shows different behaviours with the
DC voltage. IT works exactly same as the Shockley’s diode. A Shockley diode is a four
layered, unidirectional diode composed of alternating N type and P type material.
a) 3 ohm
b) 2 ohm
c) 6 ohm
d) 1 ohm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
R1=3 ohm
R3=6 ohm
R4=2 ohm
We know that for a wheat stone bridge to be balanced R1/R3 = Rv/R4,
Ra/R3=3/6=>1/2
Therefore Rv/R4=1/2
Rv/2=1/2
Rv=1ohm
4. Who invented Wien bridge?
a) Samuel Wein
b) Max Wein
c) Charles wheatstone
d) Samuel Hunter Christie
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Wien bridge was invented by Max Wein. It was developed in 1891. A Wien
bridge consists of 4 resistors and 2 capacitors. This bridge is used to determine unknown
capacitance in terms of resistance and frequency.
5. In a balanced wheatstone bridge, maximum current passes through galvanometer.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a balanced wheatstone bridge, no current passes through galvanometer.
In a balanced wheat stone bridge there are 4 resistors in which the ratio of two resistance
of specific side is equal to the ratio of the other two sides. In this condition no current flows
through the galvanometer connected at two opposite vertices.
6. Wheatstone bridge can be used to calculate capacitance in AC circuits.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Wheatstone bridge can be used to calculate capacitance in AC circuits.
Wheat stone bridges are generally used to calculate the overall impedance of the AC
circuits. It can also be used to calculate inductance as well as dissipation factor in an AC
circuit.
7. Wheatstone bridge with high DC input cannot be balanced.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Wheatstone bridge with high DC input can be balanced. Balancing of
wheatstone bridge does not depend upon the DC input, it totally depends on the value of
resistors that we are using in the circuit. Therefore irrespective of the input, the bridge can
be balanced.
8. What is the deflection in galvanometer(Vg)?
(Given that: R1=3 ohm, R3=9 ohm, R4=6 ohm, Rv=2 ohm)
a) 90 degree deflection
b) 180 degree deflection
c) No deflection
d) 45 degree deflection
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
R1=3ohm
R3=9 ohm
R4=6 ohm
Rv=2 ohm
We know that for a wheat stone bridge to be balanced R1/R3 = Rv/R4,
Ra/R3=3/9=>1/3
Rv/R4=2/6=>1/3
So the circuit is balanced, therefore no current will flow through the galvanometer. So
there will be no deflection in the galvanometer.
9. What is will happen to the light(Lg)?
(Given that: R1=2ohm, R3=8 ohm, R4=4 ohm, Rv=1 ohm)
a) Rv = 3 ohm, R4 = 4 ohm
b) Rv = 2 ohm, R4 = 4 ohm
c) Rv = 6 ohm, R4 = 5 ohm
d) Rv = 1 ohm, R4 = 7 ohm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
R1=4 ohm
R3=8 ohm
We know that for a wheat stone bridge to be balanced R1/R3 = Rv/R4,
R1/R3=4/8=>1/2
Therefore Rv/R4 should be 1/2
Rv/R4=1/2 or 2/4
Rv=2 ohm R4 = 4 ohm
11. Who invented Schering Bridge?
a) Samuel Schering
b) Max Schering
c) Charles Wheatstone
d) Harald Schering
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Schering Bridge was invented by Harald Schering. It is a type of AC
(Alternating Current) bridge. A balanced Schering bridge is independent of frequency
change and is used for measuring insulating capacity of cables.
12. Which is a type of DC bridge?
a) Maxwell’s Bridge
b) Hay’s Bridge
c) Wheatstone Bridge
d) Schering Bridge
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Wheatstone bridge is a type of DC (Direct Current) bridge. Maxwell’s bridge,
Hay’s bridge and Schering bridge are a type AC (Alternating Current) bridge. Wheatstone
bridge is generally used to determine an unknown resistance in a circuit.
13. Which is a type of DC bridge?
a) Anderson Bridge
b) Wein Bridge
c) Kelvin Bridge
d) Schering Bridge
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Kelvin bridge is a type of DC (Direct Current) bridge. Anderson bridge, Wein
bridge and Schering bridge are a type AC (Alternating Current) bridge. Kelvin bridge is
generally used to determine an unknown resistance in a circuit below 1 ohm.
14. Which bridge is also called as Thompson Bridge?
a) Anderson Bridge
b) Wein Bridge
c) Schering Bridge
d) Kelvin Bridge
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Kelvin bridge is also called as Thompson bridge. It is a type of DC (Direct
current) bridge. Kelvin or Thompson bridge is generally used to determine an unknown
resistance in a circuit below 1 ohm.
15. A galvanometer cannot be used for detecting and balancing AC (Alternating current)
bridges.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A galvanometer cannot be used for detecting and balancing AC (Alternating
current) bridges. It can only be used in DC (Direct current) circuits and bridges. If a
galvanometer is placed in an AC circuit then its needle will continuously deflect back and
forth and will never be stable.
1. Which bridge is used to calculate unknown inductance in AC circuit?
a) Wheatstone Bridge
b) Wien Bridge
c) Maxwell Bridge
d) Heaviside Bridge
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Maxwell bridge is used to calculate unknown inductance in AC circuit. This
bridge is a modification of wheatstone bridge. It contains bunch of resistors, capacitors
and inductors which when placed at a specific configuration forms a Maxwell bridge.
2. Which bridge is used to calculate unknown capacitance in AC circuit?
a) Wheatstone Bridge
b) Wien Bridge
c) Maxwell Bridge
d) Heaviside Bridge
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Wien bridge is used to calculate unknown capacitance in AC circuit. Maxwell
bridge is used to calculate unknown inductance in AC circuit and Heaviside bridge is used
to measure the effects of mutual inductance. Wheatstone bridge is used to find resistance
in DC circuits.
3. Which bridge is used to calculate unknown resistance in DC circuit?
a) Wheatstone Bridge
b) Wien Bridge
c) Maxwell Bridge
d) Heaviside Bridge
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Wheatstone bridge is used to find resistance in DC circuits. Wien bridge is
used to calculate unknown capacitance in AC circuit. Maxwell bridge is used to calculate
unknown inductance in AC circuit and Heaviside bridge is used to measure the effects of
mutual inductance.
4. Which bridge is used to measure the effect of mutual inductance among two circuits?
a) Wheatstone bridge
b) Wien Bridge
c) Maxwell Bridge
d) Heaviside Bridge
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Heaviside bridge is used to measure the effect of mutual inductance among
two circuits Wien bridge is used to calculate unknown capacitance in AC circuit. Maxwell
bridge is used to calculate unknown inductance in AC circuit. Wheatstone bridge is used
to find resistance in DC circuits.
5. Which bridge can be used to alternate the polarity of an applied voltage?
a) H-Bridge
b) Wien Bridge
c) Maxwell Bridge
d) Heaviside Bridge
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: H-Bridge can be used as a switch to alternate the polarity of an applied
voltage. Wien bridge is used to calculate unknown capacitance in AC circuit. Maxwell
bridge is used to calculate unknown inductance in AC circuit and Heaviside bridge is used
to measure the effects of mutual inductance.
6. How many H-bridges are present in the motor driver of a bipolar stepper motor?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 2H-bridges are present in the motor driver of a bipolar stepper motor. These
stepper motors does not have single long winding like normal DC motors , they are
wounded in such a fashion that without an external motor driver, it is very difficult to rotate
its shaft.
7. In a Wheatstone bridge if all the resistors are same then the bridge is unbalanced.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a Wheatstone bridge if all the resistors are same then the bridge is
balanced. It is so because, for a balanced wheatbridge it is necessary that the ratio of two
specific resistance values is equal to the resistance of the other two. In any case, the ratio
will always be “1” and same for both the side.
8. Which bridge can be used as a switch?
a) H-Bridge
b) Wien Bridge
c) Maxwell Bridge
d) Heaviside Bridge
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: H-Bridge can be used as a switch. It is generally used in motors drivers and
robots which allow accurate and desirable movement of robots and motors. H-bridge can
alternate the polarity of the applied voltage, and this characteristic is used in switching
property.
9. Which bridge can be used for providing a DC output from AC input?
a) H-Bridge
b) Wien Bridge
c) Maxwell Bridge
d) Diode bridge circuit
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Diode bridge circuit can be used for providing a DC output from AC input.
Wien bridge is used to calculate unknown capacitance in AC circuit. Maxwell bridge is
used to calculate unknown inductance in AC circuit. H-bridge can alternate the polarity of
the applied voltage, and this characteristic is used in switching property.
10. Which bridge can be used to find very small difference in two resistor values?
a) H-Bridge
b) Wien Bridge
c) Maxwell Bridge
d) Carey foster bridge circuit
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Carey foster bridge circuit can be used to find very small difference in two
resistor values. Wien bridge is used to calculate unknown capacitance in AC circuit.
Maxwell bridge is used to calculate unknown inductance in AC circuit. H-bridge can
alternate the polarity of the applied voltage, and this characteristic is used in switching
property.
11. Vibration galvanometer is used as a detector in AC circuit instead of normal
galvanometer.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Vibration galvanometer is used as a detector in AC circuit instead of normal
galvanometer. Normal galvanometer is used in DC bridge circuit for balancing and
detecting. If a normal galvanometer is placed in an AC circuit then its needle will
continuously deflect back and forth and will never be stable.
12. Which detector is not used in AC circuit?
a) Tunable amplifier circuit
b) Vibration galvanometers
c) Galvanometers
d) Head phones
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Galvanometers is not used in AC circuit. Head phones and Vibration
galvanometers are used as detectors in AC (Alternating current) bridge circuit. Vibration
galvanometers are also referred as Tunable amplifier circuit.
13. Which condition is referred as balanced condition of bridge?
a) When the centre Galvanometer detects highest current flow
b) When the centre Galvanometer detects constant current flow
c) When the centre Galvanometer detects no current flow
d) When the centre Galvanometer gets damaged
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When the centre Galvanometer detects no current flow then condition is
referred as balanced condition of bridge. This condition occurs when the potential
difference in two specific branches becomes equal.
14. Which DC bridge is used to find very small resistor values, generally below 1 ohm?
a) Maxwell’s Bridge
b) Wheatstone Bridge
c) Kevin Bridge
d) H-Bridge
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Kevin bridge is used to find very small resistor values, generally below 1
ohm. Wheatstone bridge is also a DC bridge which is used to find resistance but it is
suitable for determining larger resistance values.
15. Schering bridge is a DC (Direct current) bridge.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Schering bridge is a not a DC (Direct current) bridge. It is a type of AC Bridge.
A balanced Schering bridge is independent of frequency change and is used for
measuring insulating capacity of electric cables and measuring the capacitance value of
the capacitors.
1. We can control the High and Low states of 555 timer IC (Integrated Circuit) in
monostable mode.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: We cannot control the High and Low states of 555 timer IC (Integrated
Circuit) in monostable mode. In monostable mode we have only stable state which can be
either high or low. But in bistable mode we can control the High and Low states of 555
timer IC (Integrated Circuit) because we have two stable states.
2. Capacitors do not allow AC (Alternating current) to pass through it?
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Capacitors allows only AC (Alternating current) to pass through it. It blocks
DC (Direct current) to pass through it. Capacitors are used as a filter to separate DC
(Direct current) and AC (Alternating current). It acts as open circuit when DC (direct
current) is applied.
3. Capacitors do not allow DC (Direct current) to pass through it?
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Capacitors does not allow DC (Direct current) to pass through it. Capacitors
only allow alternating type of signal to pass through it. When DC voltage is applied across
the terminals of the capacitor then, the capacitor gets charged up and acts as an open
circuit path.
4. How many pins do LM331 IC (Integrated circuit) has?
a) 16
b) 4
c) 8
d) 10
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: LM331 IC (Integrated circuit) has 8 pins. It comes in a 8 pin DIP package. It
has excellent linearity property which can be used for voltage to frequency conversion and
vice versa. It is manufactured by National Semiconductors.
5. Which is a frequency to voltage converter?
a) BC541
b) TIP122
c) LM555
d) TIP135
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: LM555 is a frequency to voltage converter. It can produce accurate and
precise oscillations. It can also be used to generate precise time delays. For generating
time delays, an external resistor or capacitor is used.
6. How many pins does LM555 IC (Integrated circuit) has?
a) 16
b) 4
c) 8
d) 10
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: LM555 IC (Integrated circuit) has 8 pins. It is a timer IC (Integrated circuit)
that comes in a 8 pin DIP package. The IC (Integrated circuit) can be used in three modes
that are monostable, astable and bistable.
7. Which is not a voltage to frequency converter?
a) BC541
b) LM2917
c) LM555
d) KA331
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: BC541 is not a voltage to frequency converter. It is a bipolar junction
transistor. LM2917 is a voltage to frequency converter designed by the Texas instrument.
LM555 is a timer Integrated circuit which can be used for voltage to frequency. KA331 is
developed by ON Semiconductor which can be used voltage to frequency conversion and
vice versa.
8. Which is a frequency to voltage converter?
a) BC541
b) LM741H
c) LM2917
d) TIP135
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: LM2917 is a frequency to voltage converter. It is manufactured by the Texas
Instruments. LM741H is most commonly used operational amplifier. BC541 is a bipolar
junction transistor. TIP135 is a Darlington transistor.
9. What is the bandwidth range of KA331 IC?
a) 1 Hz to 100 KHz
b) 1 Hz to 100 GHz
c) 2 KHz to 30 GHz
d) 10 KHz to 10 GHz
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The bandwidth range of KA331 IC is 1Hz to 100 KHz. It is a voltage to
frequency converter which is used in making analog to digital converter. This IC
(Integrated circuit) comes in a 8 in DIP package. It can also be used to make frequency
to voltage converter.
10. LM331 cannot be used for frequency to voltage conversion?
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: LM331 can be used for frequency to voltage conversion. It is designed for
precise frequency to voltage conversion by the National Semiconductors. It can also be
used for voltage to frequency conversion.
11. What is the frequency of a signal if the time taken to complete one cycle is 0.2
seconds?
a) 5 Hz
b) 2 Hz
c) 0.5 Hz
d) 4 Hz
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation:
Given: Time Period (T) = 0.2 second
Frequency (F) = 1/T
Therefore, Frequency (F)=1/0.2=>5-1
Or Frequency (F)=5 Hz
12. What is the time period of a signal if the time taken to complete one cycle is 10 hertz?
a) 5 second
b) 0.1 second
c) 0.5 second
d) 4 second
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation:
Given: Frequency (F) = 10 hertz
Time Period (T) = 1/F
Therefore, Time Period (T) = 1/10 => 0.1 s
13. What is the type of signal called when its frequency is zero?
a) Sine Signal
b) Square wave
c) DC (Direct current) Signal
d) Rectilinear signal
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: DC (Direct current) Signal has frequency zero. These types of signal does
not contain any crests and troughs, the signal is represented by straight line parallel to
any axis. The straight line represents that the signal does not changes its polarity with
time.
14. Inductors do not allow DC (Direct current) to pass through it?
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Inductors allows DC (Direct current) to pass through it. Inductors show their
characteristic properties with alternating current (or signals). When DC current is applied
to it, it acts as a normal conductor with zero resistance.
15. Inductors do not allow AC (Alternating current) to pass through it?
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Inductors allows AC (Alternating current) to pass through it. Inductors show
their characteristic properties with alternating current (or signals). When AC (Alternating
current) is applied across it, it resists the change in current flowing through it and therefore
the current lags the voltage by 90 degree.
1. Which type of system uses ‘oil under pressure’ means for power transmission?
a) Fluid power system
b) Hydraulic system
c) Pneumatic system
d) Stepper motors
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fluid Power system is a power transmission system in which, the
transmission of power takes place by means of “oil under pressure” or “compressed air”.
If “oil under pressure” is used in the system for power transmission then the system is
called as hydraulic system. If “compressed air” is used in the system for power
transmission then the system is called as pneumatic system.
2. The force developed in hydraulic systems is high due to ____
a) high pressure
b) more oil
c) less pressure
d) less oil
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As oil is incompressible, oil can be pressurized to very high pressure (500
tons or more). Since pressure is high, the force developed is also very high (thousands of
tons). Since pressure is high, components are very strong, made of steel and are heavy.
3. Hydraulic systems are slower in operation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As oil has more viscosity, it cannot flow fast. Hence Hydraulic systems are
slower in operation. Hydraulic oils are petroleum-based oils, they are inflammable and
there is every chance of fire hazard if this is neglected.
4. Which component of a hydraulic system is used to store a sufficient amount of hydraulic
oil?
a) Rotatory pumps
b) Oil reservoir
c) Flow control valve
d) Pressure gauge
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main function of an oil reservoir is to store a sufficient amount of
hydraulic oil in the system. Apart from this, it has many other functions such as to cool the
hot return oil, to settle down the contaminants, to remove air bubbles and to separate
water from the oil. The other options mentioned are the parts of the hydraulic system with
different functions.
5. What pumps hydraulic oil to the hydraulic circuit?
a) Flow control valve
b) Oil reservoir
c) Rotatory pumps
d) Pressure gauge
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The function of the rotatory pump is to pump hydraulic oil to the hydraulic
circuit. It converts mechanical energy to hydraulic energy. The flow control valves, oil
reservoir and pressure gauge are the other parts of the hydraulic system with different
functions.
6. The pressure relief valve is an important component which is required for every
displacement pump.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pressure relief valve is an important component which is required for every
positive displacement pump. This valve is connected to the outlet of the pump. Its main
function is to release the oil back to the tank when the pressure increases beyond pre-set
value.
7. In which type of system does power transmission takes place through compressed air?
a) Fluid power system
b) Hydraulic system
c) Pneumatic system
d) Stepper motors
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pneumatic system is a power transmission system in which, the transmission
of power takes place through compressed air. The mechanical energy is given to
compressor, that is, the shaft of the compressor is rotated by any means of the prime
mover. The fluid Power system is a power transmission system in which, the transmission
of power takes place by means of “oil under pressure” or “compressed air”. If “oil under
pressure” is used in the system for power transmission then the system is called as
hydraulic system.
8. The compressed air flows to the actuator through ____
a) pipes and valves
b) shafts
c) motors
d) flow control valve
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Compressor drives air from the atmosphere and the compressed air flow
through actuator through pipes and valves. Actuator produces back the mechanical
energy that can either be a linear motion of cylinder or rotary motion of the air motor shaft.
The other sources mentioned in the options are not the sources for the flow of compressed
air.
9. What is the function of an air dryer?
a) Removes dirt
b) Removes moisture
c) Controls the rate of flow
d) Controls the pressure
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The compressed air delivered by the compressor contains moisture from the
atmosphere. This moisture is separated and removed by the air dryer. Only the dry
compressed air is given to the pneumatic system.
10. Which part of the Pneumatic system stores the compressed air?
a) Air dryer
b) Air compressor
c) Air receiver tank
d) Air lubricator
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The air receiver tank stores the compressed air. Apart from storing the
compressed air, it has several other functions also. It acts as cooler to cool the hot
compressed air. It acts as moisture separator to separate and remove the water.
1. Which type of system uses ‘oil under pressure’ means for power transmission?
a) Fluid power system
b) Hydraulic system
c) Pneumatic system
d) Stepper motors
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fluid Power system is a power transmission system in which, the
transmission of power takes place by means of “oil under pressure” or “compressed air”.
If “oil under pressure” is used in the system for power transmission then the system is
called a hydraulic system. If “compressed air” is used in the system for power transmission
then the system is called a pneumatic system.
2. The force developed in hydraulic systems is high due to ____
a) high pressure
b) more oil
c) less pressure
d) less oil
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As oil is incompressible, oil can be pressurized to very high pressure (500
tons or more). Since pressure is high, the force developed is also very high (thousands of
tons). Since pressure is high, components are very strong, made of steel and are heavy.
3. Hydraulic systems are slower in operation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As oil has more viscosity, it cannot flow fast. Hence Hydraulic systems are
slower in operation. Hydraulic oils are petroleum based oils, they are inflammable and
there is every chance of fire hazard if this is neglected.
4. Which component of a hydraulic system is used to store the sufficient amount of
hydraulic oil?
a) Rotatory pumps
b) Oil reservoir
c) Flow control valve
d) Pressure gauge
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main function of the oil reservoir is to store a sufficient amount of
hydraulic oil in the system. Apart from this, it has many other functions such as to cool the
hot return oil, to settle down the contaminants, to remove air bubbles and to separate
water from the oil. The other options mentioned are the parts of the hydraulic system with
different functions.
5. What pumps hydraulic oil to the hydraulic circuit?
a) Flow control valve
b) Oil reservoir
c) Rotatory pumps
d) Pressure gauge
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The function of the rotatory pump is to pump hydraulic oil to the hydraulic
circuit. It converts mechanical energy to hydraulic energy. The flow control valves, oil
reservoir and pressure gauge are the other parts of the hydraulic system with different
functions.
6. The pressure relief valve is an important component which is required for every
displacement pump.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pressure relief valve is an important component which is required for every
positive displacement pump. This valve is connected to the outlet of the pump. Its main
function is to release the oil back to the tank when the pressure increases beyond pre-set
value.
7. What controls the direction of the flow of oil?
a) Pressure relief valve
b) Direction control valve
c) Flow control valve
d) Actuator
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The direction control valve controls the direction of flow of oil, by which it
performs extension and retraction of the actuator (double acting cylinder). The pressure
relief valve is an important component which is required for every positive displacement
pump.The flow control valve controls the rate of flow of oil and the actuator produces work.
8. What is the function of the flow control valve?
a) Controls the direction of flow of oil
b) To pump hydraulic oil to the hydraulic circuit.
c) It converts the mechanical energy to hydraulic energy
d) It controls the rate of flow of oil
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The flow control valve controls the rate of flow of oil, by which, speed of
extension or retraction of the actuator is controlled. The direction control valve controls
the direction of the flow of oil.
9. How many types of actuators are present in hydraulic systems?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Actuators produces work. There are two types of actuators linear and rotary.
The linear actuator is called cylinder and a rotary actuator is called as the motor. The force
developed is given by the product of the pressure of oil and area of the piston.
10. What is the function of a pressure gauge?
a) It controls the rate of flow of oil
b) It shows the pressure reading
c) Controls the direction of flow of oil
d) It converts the mechanical energy to hydraulic energy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The pressure gauge is used to give the pressure reading. Pressure settings
are made into the pressure gauge. Without a pressure gauge, it is not possible to make
the pressure relief valve settings, unloading valve settings etc.
1. In which type of system does power transmission takes place through compressed air?
a) Fluid power system
b) Hydraulic system
c) Pneumatic system
d) Stepper motors
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pneumatic system is a power transmission system in which, the transmission
of power takes place through compressed air. The mechanical energy is given to
compressor, that is, the shaft of the compressor is rotated by any means of the prime
mover. The fluid Power system is a power transmission system in which, the transmission
of power takes place by means of “oil under pressure” or “compressed air”. If “oil under
pressure” is used in the system for power transmission then the system is called a
hydraulic system.
2. The compressed air flows to the actuator through ____
a) pipes and valves
b) shafts
c) motors
d) flow control valve
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Compressor drives air from the atmosphere and the compressed air flow
through actuator through pipes and valves. Actuator produces back the mechanical
energy that can either be the linear motion of cylinder or rotary motion of the air motor
shaft. The other sources mentioned in the options are not the sources for the flow of
compressed air.
3. The compressed air is delivered to the pneumatic system through the air compressor.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The air compressor draws the air from the atmosphere, compresses it and
delivers the compressed air to the pneumatic system. Compressor drives air from the
atmosphere and the compressed air flow through actuator through pipes and valves.
4. What is the function of the air dryer?
a) Removes dirt
b) Removes moisture
c) Controls the rate of flow
d) Controls the pressure
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The compressed air delivered by the compressor contains moisture from the
atmosphere. This moisture is separated and removed by the air dryer. Only the dry
compressed air is given to the pneumatic system.
5. Which part of the Pneumatic system stores the compressed air?
a) Air dryer
b) Air compressor
c) Air receiver tank
d) Air lubricator
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The air receiver tank stores the compressed air. Apart from storing the
compressed air, it has several other functions also. It acts as cooler to cool the hot
compressed air. It acts as moisture separator to separate and remove the water
6. Pneumatic systems are very fast in operation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pneumatic systems are very fast in operation. This is because of the low
viscosity of compressed air. These systems can run continuously for a longer period and
in any pneumatic system, the continuous free expansion of compressed air causes chilling
effect and dues the continuous long run would not heat the system components.
7. Which among the following is not the component of FRL unit?
a) Air filter
b) Air dryer
c) Air regulator
d) Air lubricator
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The FRL unit does not consist of the air filter. It contains Air dryer, Air
regulator and Air lubricator. The air filter removes the dust particles from compressed air
and allows clean dry compressed air to the system. Air regulator controls the pressure of
the compressed air and Air lubricator adds lubricating oil to the compressed air.
8. What is the function of the flow control valve?
a) Controls the direction of flow of air
b) The moisture is separated and removed
c) It converts the mechanical energy to hydraulic energy
d) It controls the rate of flow of compressed air
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The flow control valve controls the rate of flow of compressed air, by which,
speed of extension or retraction of the actuator is controlled. The direction control valve
controls the direction of the flow of oil.
9. The direction control valve controls ____
a) direction of flow
b) rate of flow
c) moisture
d) force and motion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It controls the direction of flow of compressed air, by which, speed of
extension or retraction of the actuator is controlled. The flow control valve controls the rate
of flow of compressed air. This moisture is separated and removed by the air dryer. Force
and motion are controlled through the double acting cylinder.
10. Which among the following is an advantage of the Pneumatic system?
a) The requirement of a lubricator
b) Runs continuously
c) Use of silencers
d) Low viscosity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pneumatic systems can run continuously for a longer period. Harder it runs,
cooler it works. In any pneumatic system, the continuous free expansion of compressed
air causes chilling effect and dues the continuous long run would not heat the system
components. The other options mentioned are the disadvantages or limitations of the
Pneumatic systems.
11. Which among the following is a disadvantage of Pneumatic system?
a) The requirement of a lubricator
b) Runs continuously
c) Used better in mines
d) Produces a dust free surroundings
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A lubricator is required in a Pneumatic system to add lubricant oil to
compressed air or to minimize friction which is considered as one of the disadvantage or
limitation of the system. The other options mentioned are the advantages of the Pneumatic
systems.
12. Which among the following are not the applications of Pneumatic system?
a) Aerospace
b) Packing systems
c) Mining
d) Agriculture types of equipment
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Pneumatic systems are not used in Aerospace activities; Hydraulic
systems are used. The other options are the applications of Pneumatic systems. Packing
is the final operation done on the product of any industry. The Pneumatic hand tools are
extensively employed in mines. They are also used in shears and Pneumatic systems.
1. Which transform converts the function from time domain to “s” domain (complex
frequency domain)?
a) Laplace Transform
b) Fourier Transform
c) Z Transform
d) InverseLaplace Transform
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Laplace transform converts the function from time domain to “s” domain
(complex frequency domain). It is an integral that transforms the function from real time
domain to a function of complex variable “s”.
2. Who invented Laplace transform?
a) Pierre-Simon Laplace
b) Pitas Laplace
c) Charles young
d) Charles Wheatstone
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pierre-Simon Laplace invented Laplace transform. It is an integral that
transforms the function from real time domain to a function of complex variable “s”. The
“s” represents a complex frequency domain.
3. Which signal cannot be determined through mathematical equation?
a) Imaginary signal
b) Non-Deterministic signal
c) Aperiodic signal
d) Power Signal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Non-Deterministic signal cannot be determined through mathematical
equation. Its value at any point of time cannot be determined beforehand. Due to its
random nature, it is also called as “Random Signal”.
4. What is the type of signal called, if it satisfies the equation x(t)=x(-t){where “t” represents
time domain}?
a) Imaginary signal
b) Non-Deterministic signal
c) Odd Signal
d) Even Signal
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: If a signal satisfies the equation x(t)=x(-t) {where “t” represents time domain},
then the signal is called as even signal. A signal is said to be odd signal if it satisfies the
equation x(t)=-x(-t) {where “t” represents time domain}.
5. Node and junction are same.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Node and junction are not same. A node is a meeting point of two circuit
elements, it does not matter if it’s active or passive element of the circuit. A junction is a
point where least three circuit paths meet.
6. Fourier transform converts the function from time domain to frequency domain.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fourier transform converts the function from time domain to frequency
domain. It decomposes a function of time to a function of frequency. This transform was
proposed by Joseph Fourier in the year 1882.
7. Which Integrated circuit/module can generate square, sine and triangular waveforms?
a) ICL8038
b) LMK61A2-125M00SIAT
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) FN2060A-6-06
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: ICL8038can generate square, sine and triangular waveforms. LMK61A2-
125M00SIAT is a crystal oscillator that can generate square signals. FN2060A-6-06 is an
example of Power line filter. SLB700A/06VA is a force sensor.
8. What is the type of signal called, if it satisfies the equation x(t)=x(t+T) {where “t”
represents time domain and T represents fundamental time period}?
a) Imaginary signal
b) Periodic signal
c) Odd Signal
d) Even Signal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If a signal satisfies the equation x(t)=x(t+T) {where “t” represents time domain
and T represents fundamental time period}, then the signal is called as periodic signal.
Periodic signals repeat itself after the fundamental time period.
9. What is the type of signal called, if it satisfies the equation x(t)=-x(-t) {where “t”
represents time domain}?
a) Imaginary signal
b) Non-Deterministic signal
c) Odd Signal
d) Even Signal
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If a signal satisfies the equation x(t)=-x(-t) {where “t” represents time domain},
then the signal is called as Odd signal. A signal is said to be even signal if it satisfies the
equation x(t)=x(-t) {where “t” represents time domain}.
10. Which is an example of Square wave generator?
a) ICL8038
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) FN2060A-6-06
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: ICL8038is an example of Square wave generator. It can generate square,
sine and triangular waveforms. FN2060A-6-06 is an example of Power line filter.
SLB700A/06VA is a force sensor. CMCP793V-500 is a velocity sensor.
11. What is the signal called if its value is defined only at fixed instants of time?
a) Discrete signal
b) Non-Deterministic signal
c) Random Signal
d) Deterministic signal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If the value of signal is defined only at fixed instants of time then it is called
as “Discrete Signal”. When the value of signal is defined at every instants of time then it
is called as “Continuous Signal”.
12. A System is a specified process which produces signal.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
13. Z transform cannot convert discrete frequency signal to complex time domain.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Z transform cannot convert discrete frequency signal to complex time
domain. It converts discrete time signal to complex frequency domain. The discrete time
signal constitutes a sequence of real and complex numbers.
14. How many minimum number of circuit path, meeting at a point make up a junction?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: At least 3 circuit paths meeting at a point make up a junction. It can be any
point on the electric circuit connected through electrical conductors. It is a point of junction
of two or more branches.
15. Which type of signal is also referred as random signal?
a) Imaginary signal
b) Non-Deterministic signal
c) Deterministic signal
d) Power Signal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Non-Deterministic signal is also referred as random signal. These signals
cannot be expressed in the form of mathematical equation. The value at any value of time
cannot be determined.
1. In which type of system does power transmission takes place through compressed air?
a) Fluid power system
b) Hydraulic system
c) Pneumatic system
d) Stepper motors
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pneumatic system is a power transmission system in which, the transmission
of power takes place through compressed air. The mechanical energy is given to
compressor, that is, the shaft of the compressor is rotated by any means of the prime
mover. The fluid Power system is a power transmission system in which, the transmission
of power takes place by means of “oil under pressure” or “compressed air”. If “oil under
pressure” is used in the system for power transmission then the system is called a
hydraulic system.
2. The compressed air flows to the actuator through ____
a) Pipes and valves
b) Shafts
c) Motors
d) Flow control valve
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Compressor drives air from the atmosphere and the compressed air flow
through actuator through pipes and valves. Actuator produces back the mechanical
energy that can either be the linear motion of cylinder or rotary motion of the air motor
shaft. The other sources mentioned in the options are not the sources for the flow of
compressed air.
3. The compressed air is delivered to the pneumatic system through the air compressor.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The air compressor draws the air from the atmosphere, compresses it and
delivers the compressed air to the pneumatic system. Compressor drives air from the
atmosphere and the compressed air flow through actuator through pipes and valves.
4. What is the function of the air dryer?
a) Removes dirt
b) Removes moisture
c) Controls the rate of flow
d) Controls the pressure
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The compressed air delivered by the compressor contains moisture from the
atmosphere. This moisture is separated and removed by the air dryer. Only the dry
compressed air is given to the pneumatic system.
5. Which part of the Pneumatic system stores the compressed air?
a) Air dryer
b) Air compressor
c) Air receiver tank
d) Air lubricator
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The air receiver tank stores the compressed air. Apart from storing the
compressed air, it has several other functions also. It acts as cooler to cool the hot
compressed air. It acts as moisture separator to separate and remove the water.
6. Which type of pumps can give discharge even at high pressure?
a) Multistage Pumps
b) Monoblock pumps
c) Rotary pumps
d) Single stage pumps
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Rotary pumps are positive displacement pumps. Rotary pumps have two or
more rotating components. The discharge of rotary components remains almost the same
irrespective of pressure. They can give discharge even at high pressure. In the other
options, the type of pumps mentioned is all non-positive displacement types.
7. Which type of component in the hydraulic system supports less vibration and noise?
a) Flow control valve
b) Oil reservoir
c) Rotatory pumps
d) Pressure gauge
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Very less vibration and noise are observed in the case of rotary pumps.
These pumps are compact with very a smaller number of moving components. The flow
control valves, oil reservoir and pressure gauge are the other parts of the hydraulic system
with different functions.
8. Hydraulic systems are slower in operation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As oil has more viscosity, it cannot flow fast. Hence Hydraulic systems are
slower in operation. Hydraulic oils are petroleum based oils, they are inflammable and
there is every chance of fire hazard if this is neglected.
9. What prevents the leakage of oil inside an unbalanced vane pump?
a) Vanes
b) Cylindrical rotor
c) Screw
d) Difference between the pressure of inlet and outlet
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The vanes are seated in the radial slots of the rotor and held against the
casing by spring force or hydraulic force. Hence there will not be any leakage of oil
between the vane tips and the casing. Still, there is a little amount of leakage and hence
the volumetric efficiency will be around 95%.
10. Which among the following are not the main selection criteria for selection of hydraulic
pumps?
a) Discharge
b) Pressure
c) Speed
d) Weight
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The weight is not the main selection criteria for selection of hydraulic pumps.
There are different values for gear pumps, vane pumps and piston pumps for Pressure,
Discharge and Speed which are predefined values.
Therefore 0.0942m3/s=94.2L/s.
4. What is the percentage change in amount of water flowing through a valve in one hour
when originally the rate of flow from the valve was 10 m 3/hr which was reduced to 5m3/hr?
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 20%
d) 100%
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation:
Given: Original flow rate: 10m 3/hr
Final flow rate: 5m3/hr
Total volume of water flowing through the valve originally: 10m 3
Total volume of water flowing through the narrow valve: 5m 3
Percentage change in amount of water: [(Original-final)/Original]*100
Percentage change in amount of water: [(10-5)/10]*100 => 50%
The flow rate reduced by 50% of the original rate.
5. In “two way ball valves” the flow can be switched and controlled by rotating the ball in
90 degrees.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In “two way ball valves” the flow can be switched and controlled by rotating
the ball in 90 degrees. These are the simplest type and commonly used control valves. It
contains a ball that has a hole bored through it which used to turn ON and OFF the flow
through the valve.
6. In “Butterfly valves” the flow can be switched and controlled by rotating the obstructer
in 90 degrees.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In “Butterfly valves” the flow can be switched and controlled by rotating the
obstructer in 90 degrees. It is similar to the ball valves but fluid obstructer used in this is a
flat disc rather than a ball. This disc is used to turn ON and OFF the flow through the valve.
7. Which type of valves contains tapered cylindrical obstructer?
a) Butterfly valves
b) Two way ball valves
c) Three way ball valves
d) Plug Valves
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Plug Valves contains tapered cylindrical obstructer. Two way and Three way
ball valves contains a ball that has a hole bored through it which acts as an obstructer.
Butterfly valves contains a flat disc which acts as an obstructer.
8. What is the velocity of water from a cylindrical valve if the cylindrical valve has a
diameter of 10 cm and rate of flow of water in Litres per second is 157L/s?
a) 40m/s
b) 30m/s
c) 20m/s
d) 30m/s
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation:
Given: Diameter=10 cm
Radius = 5 cm or 0.05m
Area of cross section = π*(r)2
Area of cross section = 3.14*(0.05) =7.85*10
2 -3
m2
Rate of flow of water = 157L/s
Rate of flow = Area of cross section * Velocity of fluid
157L/s = 7.85*10-3m2 * Velocity of fluid
Now, we know 1m3/s=1000L/s
Therefore, Velocity of fluid = 20m/s.
9. Which type of valves contains a flat disc obstructer?
a) Butterfly valves
b) Two way ball valves
c) Three way ball valves
d) Plug Valves
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Butterfly valves contain a flat disc obstructer. Plug Valves contains tapered
cylindrical which acts as an obstructer. Two way and Three way ball valves contains a ball
that has a hole bored through it which acts as an obstructer.
10. How many ports does a 3 way valve have?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A 3 way valve has total 3 ports. Generally it is used when a single incoming
input fluid has to be distributed into two directions. In this type of configuration, one port is
used as input port and other two ports are used as exit ports.
11. What is the percentage change in amount of water flowing through a valve in one hour
when originally the rate of flow from the valve was 10m 3/hr which was reduced to 8m 3/hr?
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 20%
d) 800%
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation:
Given: Original flow rate: 10m 3/hr
Final flow rate: 8m3/hr
Total volume of water flowing through the valve originally: 10m3
Total volume of water flowing through the narrow valve: 8m 3
Percentage change in amount of water: [(Original-final)/Original]*100
Percentage change in amount of water: [(10-8)/10]*100 => 20%
The flow rate reduced by 20% of the original rate.
12. How many exit ports does a 2 way valve have?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A 2 way valve has 1 exit port. It has total two ports, one entry port and one
exit port. These ports are not fixed and can be interchanged. Both the port are separated
by a different types obstructers.
13. Pneumatic actuator based valves use air to generate rotational force.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pneumatic actuator based valves use air to generate rotational force. This
rotational force is used to turn the ball, disc or cylindrical type obstructer of the valves. The
torque generated is directly proportional to the air pressure provided.
14. What is the rate of flow of water from a cylindrical valve if the cylindrical valve has a
diameter of 10 cm and velocity of water is 10m/s?
a) 3.92 * 10-3 m3/s
b) 3.92 * 10-2 m3/s
c) 7.85 * 10 -2
m3/s
d) 7.85 * 10 -3
m3/s
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation:
Given: Diameter =10 cm
Radius = 5 cm or 0.05m
Area of cross section = π*(r) 2
1. What is the velocity ratio of a gear train if the train value is 2:5?
a) 2:1
b) 3:2
c) 4:3
d) 5:2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation:
Given: Train value velocity ratio=2:5
Velocity ratio=1/( Train value)
Train value=1/(2:5)=5:2.
2. What is the train value of a gear train if the velocity ratio is 1:5?
a) 2:1
b) 3:2
c) 4:3
d) 5:1
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given: Train value velocity ratio=1:5
Train value=1/( Velocity ratio)
Train value=1/(1:5)=5:1.
3. What is the velocity ratio of two gears if the driver gear has angular velocity of 20m/s
and driven gear has angular velocity of 10m/s?
a) 2:1
b) 3:2
c) 4:3
d) 5:1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Angular velocity of the driver gear=20km/hr
Angular velocity of the driven gear = 10km/hr
Velocity ratio= speed of the driver gear/ speed of the driven gear
Velocity ratio=>20/10=2:1.
4. What is the angular velocity of driven gear if the driver gear has angular velocity of
30m/s and velocity ratio of two gears is 3:2?
a) 10m/s
b) 20m/s
c) 30m/s
d) 40m/s
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Angular velocity of the driver gear=30 km/hr
Velocity ratio= speed of the driver gear/speed of the driven gear
3/2=30/Angular velocity of the driven gear
Angular velocity of the driven gear=20m/s.
5. Which gear cannot connect two parallel shafts?
a) Spur gear
b) Helical gear
c) Bevel gear
d) Double helical gear
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Bevel gear cannot connect two parallel shafts. It is used to transmit torque
or power between shafts that are not parallel to each other. Generally it is used to transmit
power between perpendicular shafts.
6. Spur gears can transmit power between perpendicular shafts.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Spur gears cannot transmit power between perpendicular shafts. These are
simplest type of gear. It can transmit power between parallel shafts. Bevel gears are used
to transmit power between perpendicular shafts.
7. Which gear can be used to transmit rectilinear motion?
a) Spur gear
b) Helical gear
c) Bevel gear
d) Rack and pinion gear
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Rack and pinion gear can be used to transmit rectilinear motion. This setup
contains a straight rack and a circular spur gear. When the spur gear moves, it drives the
rack in rectilinear fashion.
8. Which gear train is also called as “Sun and planet gear train”?
a) Simple gear train
b) Reverted gear train
c) Compound gear train
d) Epicyclic gear train
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Epicyclic gear train is also called as “Sun and planet gear train”. It is called
so because the driven gear revolves around the driver gear when the gear moves. The
driver and the driven gear are connected to each other.
9. Which gear train contains more than one gear in a single shaft?
a) Simple gear train
b) Helical gear train
c) Compound gear train
d) Epicyclic gear train
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Compound gear train contains more than one gear in a single shaft. The size
of the gears may or may not be same, but a single shaft must contain more than one gear
to be called as compound gear train.
10. In reverted gear train, the input and output gears should be co-axial.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In reverted gear train, the input and output gears should be co-axial.
Reverted gear train is a type of compound gear train, where the shaft of the driver gear
and driven gear must be parallel to each other.
11. Which gear train contains only one gear in a single shaft and the driven gear does not
revolve driven gear around it?
a) Simple gear train
b) Reverted gear train
c) Compound gear train
d) Epicyclic gear train
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Simple gear train contains only one gear in a single shaft and the driven gear
does not revolve driven gear around it. It is the mist simple and most commonly used gear
train. The shafts of driver and driven gear are also parallel to each other.
12. What is the velocity ratio of a gear train if the train value is 2:7?
a) 2:1
b) 2: 7
c) 7:2
d) 5:1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given: Train value velocity ratio=2:7
Velocity ratio=1/( Train value)
Train value=1/(2:7)=7:2.
13. What is the velocity ratio of two gears if the driver gear has angular velocity of 15m/s
and driven gear has angular velocity of 10m/s?
a) 2:1
b) 3:2
c) 4:3
d) 5:1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Angular velocity of the driver gear=15km/hr
Angular velocity of the driven gear = 10km/hr
Velocity ratio=speed of the driver gear/speed of the driven gear
Velocity ratio=>15/10=3:2.
14. Reverted gear train is also called as planetary gear train.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Reverted gear train is not called as planetary gear train. Planetary gear train
is the other name of epicyclic gear train. They are called so because the driven gear
revolves around the driver gear like the planets around moon.
15. Rack and pinion gear can be termed as linear actuator.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Rack and pinion gear can be termed as linear actuator. Linear actuators are
devices that can perform rectilinear motion. When the pinion is held stationary and
revolved then the rack performs rectilinear motion.
1. Who invented Ratchet wrench?
a) Grueblerowen
b) Vitaly Abalakov
c) Robert Owen
d) Robert Abalakov
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Robert Owen invented Ratchet wrench. Ratchet wrench is also known as
socket wrench. It is widely used hand tool made for tightening or loosening of nuts and
bolts present in furniture, electronics equipment etc.
2. What is the purpose of pawl, when it is used against a ratchet which is attached to a
shaft?
a) It allows unidirectional motion of shaft
b) It allows bidirectional motion of shaft
c) It does not allow motion of shaft
d) It is used to create additional friction force for the shaft
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The purpose of pawl, when it is used against a ratchet which is attached to
a shaft is that; it allows unidirectional motion of shaft. It restricts the motion in other
direction. When the shaft tries to move in other direction then the pawl encounters the
steeper slope of the ratchet which completely stops the rotational motion.
3. What is the minimum number of tooth, a ratchet should have?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 0
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It is not necessary for a ratchet to always have toothed surface. So the
minimum number of tooth, a ratchet should have is zero. The surface of these ratchets is
made with materials that have high coefficient of friction.
4. Which ratchets are often called as roller drive ratchets?
a) 72 teeth ratchet
b) Stepless ratchets
c) Round ratchet
d) Flip ratchet
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Stepless ratchets are often called as roller drive ratchets. They are also
popularly known as gearless ratchets. The name itself suggests that they don’t have teeth.
These ratchets are often used during the tightening or loosening of very small and slippery
nuts and bolts.
5. The tooth of a ratchet is symmetrical.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The tooth of a ratchet is asymmetrical. Ratchets are toothed-wheels similar
to the structure of gears; but they have asymmetrical tooth unlike gears. On one side of
the tooth the slope is moderate while the other side has steeper slope.
6. The movement of the ratchet can be locked by pawl if it moves in opposite direction.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The movement of the ratchet can be locked by pawl if it moves in opposite
direction. Ratchets have asymmetrical tooth unlike gears; on one side of the tooth the
slope is moderate while the other side has steeper slope. When the ratchet moves in
opposite direction the pawl encounters the steep side of the tooth; therefore it cannot slide
further and gets locked.
7. What is the maximum distance, a pawl can travel during the backward motion of a
ratchet?
a) It is equal to the distance between two alternating teeth
b) It is equal to the distance between two adjacent teeth
c) It is equal to the radius of the ratchet
d) It is equal to the perimeter of the ratchet
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The maximum distance, a pawl can travel during the backward motion of a
ratchet is equal to the distance between two adjacent teeth. When the ratchet moves in
opposite direction the pawl encounters the steep side of the tooth; therefore it cannot slide
further and gets locked. So the maximum distance it can travel is the distance between
two adjacent teeth.
8. Who invented Ratchet wheel, which was further used in power loom?
a) Grueblerowen
b) Vitaly Abalakov
c) Robert Owen
d) William Radcliffe
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: William Radcliffe invented Ratchet wheel, which was further used in power
loom. He was born on the year 1760. He invented the ratchet wheel for his power loom
which moved the cloth piece forward automatically.
9. What is the purpose of pawl, when it is used against a spur gear which is attached to a
shaft?
a) It allows unidirectional motion of shaft
b) It allows bidirectional motion of shaft
c) It does not allow motion of shaft
d) It is used to create additional friction force for the shaft
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The purpose of pawl, when it is used against a spur gear which is attached
to a shaft is that; it does not allow motion of shaft. It will restrict the motion in both
directions. When the shaft tries to move in any of direction then the pawl encounters the
steeper slope of the spur gear which completely stops the rotational motion.
10. What does “12-point” indicates when the term 12 point reversible ratchet is used?
a) Its diameter is 12
b) Its radius is 12
c) It has 12 teeth
d) Its pitch is 12
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When the term 12 point reversible ratchet is used,the term “12-point”
indicates that the ratchet or the gear mechanism used in the device has 12 teeths. The
more the number of teeth; the smaller movements a device can achieve.
11. Ratchet screw driver can apply turning force in one direction only.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ratchet screw driver can apply turning force in one direction only. They are
made in such a way that their mechanism allows it apply turning force in one direction
only. Whereas it can move freely in opposite direction.
12. Backlash of a ratchet is the maximum distance covered by the pawl when the ratchet
moves in opposite direction.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Backlash of a ratchet is the not maximum distance covered by the pawl when
the ratchet moves in opposite direction. It refers to the motion, when the ratchet moves in
opposite direction and the pawl covers the maximum distance.
13. It is not necessary to have teeth on the surface of the ratchet.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is not necessary to have teeth on the surface of the ratchet. For reducing
the backlash, often toothless ratchets are used. The surface of these ratchets is made
with materials that have high coefficient of friction.
14. Which ratchets are often called as reversible ratchets?
a) 72 teeth ratchet
b) Stepless ratchets
c) 3 way ratchet
d) Flip ratchet
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 3 way ratchets are often called as reversible ratchets. These ratchets
facilitate the customer with three different configurations. One configuration will disengage
the ratchet configuration while the other two configurations allow the movement of the
ratchet in either clockwise or anti-clockwise direction.
15. What is the difference between ratchet and spur gear?
a) Ratchets have bigger diameter than spur gear
b) Ratchets have lesser diameter than spur gear
c) Ratchets have asymmetrical tooth but spur gear have symmetrical tooth
d) Ratchets have symmetrical tooth but spur gear have asymmetrical tooth
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The difference between ratchet and spur gear is that Ratchets have
asymmetrical tooth but spur gear have symmetrical tooth. The asymmetrical shape of the
tooth allows pawl to restrict the bidirectional movement of the ratchet.
1. Which among the following operations does not use belt drives?
a) Mining
b) Logging
c) Road construction
d) Bicycles
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Applications such as mining, Logging, Road construction and many other
applications make use of belt drives including industrial applications. Bicycles are
constructed with the help of chain drives.
2. Which among the following is a type of belt drive?
a) Silent
b) Roller
c) Open
d) Pintle
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Open belt drive is a type of belt drive in which both the pulleys are driven and
driving rotate in the same direction. The angle of contact is less. The other options are
examples of chain drives.
3. The angle of contact is greater for cross belt drives.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The angle of contact is greater for cross belt drives. This is because in case
of cross belt drives both driven and the driving pulley rotates in opposite directions.
4. Cars with interference engines use ____
a) timing belts
b) serpentine belts
c) chain drives
d) V belts
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cars with interference engines uses timing belts which connects the
crankshaft and camshaft which is used to keep them in sync. The other mentioned drives
are not used for interference engines.
5. Which among the following is an advantage of using belt drives over chain drives?
a) Efficiency
b) Noise
c) Cost
d) Durability
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The greatest disadvantage of using chain drive is that it produces noise which
can overcome by the use of belt drives. The other factors such as cost, durability and
efficiency are good for chain drives.
6. The angle of contact is greater for open belt drives.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The angle of contact is greater for cross belt drives. This is because in case
of cross belt drives both driven and the driving pulley rotates in opposite directions.
7. The amount of power delivered does not depends on ____
a) velocity of belt
b) cost
c) tension
d) arc of contact
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The amount of power delivered does not depend on the cost of the belt. The
velocity of the belt, Tension and Arc the important factors on which the amount of power
delivered depends upon.
8. Which among the following depends upon the friction between the belt and pulley?
a) Positive belts
b) Synchronous belts
c) Friction drive
d) Modern belts
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Friction drives depends upon the friction between the belt and pulley for
transmitting power. V belts have friction multiplying effect and flat belts are the purest form
of friction drives.
9. Which among the following has a toothed profile?
a) Synchronous belts
b) Modern belts
c) Link-type belts
d) Friction drive
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Synchronous belts have a toothed profile with the corresponding groove in
the pulleys and it was the first teeth profile used on drives. It was of a trapezoidal shape.
10. What is the speed of medium drive?
a) 1000m/s
b) 22m/s
c) 100m/s
d) 500m/s
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Medium drives are used to transmit power at the speed of from 10m/s to
22m/s. Light drives are used to transmit small power at belt speed up to about 10m/s.
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1. What is the pitch of a gear if the gear contains 24 teeth and radius of the gear is 6
inches?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
No. Of teeth=24 teeth
Diameter=2*Radius
Diameter=2*6=12 inches
Pitch=Number of teeth/ Diameter
Pitch=24/12=2.
2. What is the number of teeth in a gear if pitch is 3.33 and radius of the gear is 3 inches?
a) 20
b) 13
c) 14
d) 15
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Diameter=2*Radius
Diameter=2*3=6 inches
Pitch=Number of teeth/Diameter
3.33 = Number of teeth/6
Number of teeth=6*3.33=>19.98
Now round off the value to the nearest decimal value which gives Number of teeth = 20.
3. What is the torque offered by a gear, if the tangential force is 20 N and radius of the
gear is 0.5m?
a) 5Nm
b) 15Nm
c) 10Nm
d) 2.55Nm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given: Tangential force=20 N
Radius of the gear = 0.5m
Torque = Tangential force*radius of the gear
Torque=20*0.5 => 10Nm.
4. What is the radius of a gear, if torque generated by the gear is 20Nm and the tangential
force is 10N?
a) 5m
b) 15m
c) 10m
d) 2m
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
torque generated by the gear=20Nm
tangential force=10N
torque(T)=tangential force (F)*Radius(R)
so radius=Torque(T)/Tangential force(F)
radius=20Nm/10m=>2m.
5. Chain moves over belt drives.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Chain does not move over belt drives. It moves over gear drives. These gear
drives constitute of spike like structures called teeth. These teeth get into the empty
spaces of the chain and transmit torque.
6. Belt drives can slip.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Belt drives can slip. Since friction plays very important role in transmission of
torque in belt drives, so there should be enough friction between belt and the drive so that
it does not slip. Chain drives do not slip.
7. Which type of drive is used in motor vehicles, for transferring torque between two shafts
present at a distance of more than one meter?
a) Chain drives
b) Belt Drives
c) Rope drives
d) Gear drives
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Chain drives are used in motor vehicles, for transferring torque between two
shafts present at a distance of more than one meter. Since there should not be any slip,
so we cannot use rope drive or belt drive. Gear drive does not slip, but it is suitable for
transferring torque between two shafts present at very less distance.
8. What is the torque offered by a gear, if the tangential force is 10N and radius of the gear
is 0.5m?
a) 5Nm
b) 15Nm
c) 10Nm
d) 2.55Nm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given: Tangential force=10 N
Radius of the gear = 0.5m
Torque = Tangential force* radius of the gear
Torque=10*0.5 => 5Nm.
9. What is the radius of a gear, if torque generated by the gear is 20Nm and the tangential
force is 5N?
a) 5m
b) 4m
c) 10m
d) 2m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
torque generated by the gear=20Nm
tangential force=5N
torque(T)=tangential force (F)*Radius(R)
so radius=Torque(T)/Tangential force(F)
radius=20Nm/5m=>4m.
10. Which type of joints connects the links of a chain?
a) Stationary joints
b) Pin joints
c) Bolted joints
d) Pivot joints
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pin joints connect the links of a chain. Each link of the chain has got its two
sides connected with other links with the help of pin joints. These joint allows free
movement of the links, which is collectively known as a chain.
11. What is the pitch of a gear if the gear contains 20 teeth and radius of the gear is 2
inches?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Explanation: Given:
No. Of teeth=20 teeth
Diameter=2*Radius
Diameter=2*2=4 inches
Pitch=Number of teeth/ Diameter
Pitch=20/4=5.
12. What is the torque offered by a gear, if the tangential force is 12N and radius of the
gear is 0.2m?
a) 2.4 Nm
b) 15Nm
c) 10Nm
d) 2.55Nm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given: Tangential force=12 N
Radius of the gear = 0.2m
Torque = Tangential force* radius of the gear
Torque=12*0.2 => 2.4 Nm.
13. What is the radius of a gear, if torque generated by the gear is 12Nm and the tangential
force is 3N?
a) 5m
b) 4m
c) 10m
d) 2m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
torque generated by the gear=12Nm
tangential force=3N
torque(T)=tangential force (F)*Radius(R)
so radius=Torque(T)/Tangential force(F)
radius=12Nm/3m=>4m.
14. A partially circular chain has perimeter of 10cm and is made up of 2 cm links. How
many links are present in total?
a) 5m
b) 4m
c) 10m
d) 12m
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Perimeter of circular chain = 10cm
Length of each link = 2cm
Number of links = Perimeter/Length of each link
Number of links = 10/2 => 5 links.
15. A chain is kept in square fashion with one of its side equal to 5 cm and is made up of
2 cm links. How many links are present in total?
a) 5m
b) 4m
c) 10m
d) 12m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Length of one side of square chain = 5cm
Perimeter of square=4*5=>20
Length of each link = 2cm
Number of links = Perimeter/Length of each link
Number of links = 20/2 => 10 links.
10. What is the strain on a hanging load, when a force of 1 Newton is applied on it and it
expands the length of the object from 9cm to 12 cm?
a) 2
b) 0.5
c) 1.2
d) 0.3334
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:-
Force applied=1 N
Original length(o)=9cm
New length=12 cm
Extended length(e)=New length-Original length
Extended length(e)=12-9=>3cm
Strain (s) = Extended length(e)/Original length(o)
Strain (s)=3cm/9cm=>0.3334.
11. Preloads can avoid resonance due to external disturbances.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Preloads can avoid resonance due to external disturbances. These preloads
can avoid harmful or the damage causing resonance by tensioning and increasing the
natural frequency of the structure.
12. Pressure and stress both have same unit (i.e) “Pascal”.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pressure and stress both have same unit (i.e) “Pascal”. The word “force” in
pressure is the external force applied on a body, whereas “force” in the definition of stress
refers to the internal force of a material to resist deformation. But mathematically they
have same formula (i.e) Force/unit area which gives their units as Newton/meter 2 or
“Pascal”.
13. Sheer stress occurs when a body expands due to external force.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sheer stress does not occur when a body expands due to external force.
When a body expands due to external force it undergoes tensile stress. Sheer stress
occurs when there is slippage along the plane parallel to the direction of imposed stress
and a deformation in the shape of the object occurs.
14. What is the nature of the stress-strain graph of an elastic body?
a) Asymptotic
b) Linear
c) Parabolic
d) Non-Linear
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The nature of the stress-strain graph of an elastic body is Linear. The youngs
modulus graph or the stress-strain graph of a body showing elastic property is a straight
line which shows the stress is proportional to strain.
15. What is the strain on a hanging load, when a force of 5 Newton is applied on it and it
expands the length of the object from 8cm to 12 cm?
a) 2
b) 0.5
c) 1
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Force applied=5 N
Original length(o)=8cm
New length=12 cm
Extended length(e)=New length-Original length
Extended length(e)=12-8=>4cm
Strain (s) = Extended length(e)/Original length(o)
Strain (s)=4cm/8cm=>0.5.
1. How many terminals does a GTO (Gate turn off thyristor) switch has?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A GTO (Gate turn off thyristor) switch has total 3 terminals. One terminal is
a gate terminal and other two terminals are anode and cathode terminal respectively. It is
a bipolar semiconductor switching device.
2. What is the full form of DPDT with respect to switches?
a) Double pull double throw
b) Double pole double throw
c) Double pull dual throw
d) Dual pole dual throw
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The full form of DPDT is “Double pole double throw” with respect to switches.
This type of switches has two inputs and four outputs. These switches are widely used in
the robotic sector due to its versatile nature.
3. What is the full form of DIAC with respect to switches?
a) Diode alternating current
b) Dipole alternating current
c) Dual alternating current
d) Direct alternating current
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The full form of DIAC is “Diode alternating current” with respect to switches.
It is a two terminal, bidirectional switching device. Since it is bi-directional, therefore it does
not have a fixed anode and cathode terminal.
4. Which is a type of solid state switch?
a) NPN Diode
b) Bipolar junction transistor
c) DPDT(Double pole double throw) Switch
d) Push button Switch
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bipolar junction transistor is a type of solid state switch. Theses switches
have no moving parts and no physical contacts which is why they are called so. They are
also called as electronic switch.
5. DIAC (Diode alternating current) switch has three terminals.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DIAC (Diode alternating current) switch does not have three terminals. It is a
two terminal, bidirectional switching device. Since it is bi-directional, therefore it does not
have a fixed anode and cathode terminal.
6. TRIAC (Triode alternating current) is a bi-directional switching device.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: TRIAC (Triode alternating current) is a bi-directional switching device. They
are often used as motor driver or motor controller to control the revolution speed of the
motor shaft. They are even capable of controlling AC power.
7. Which is an example of pressure switch?
a) KSD9700
b) XMPA06B2131
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) BMP180
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: XMPA06B2131 is an example of pressure switch. It is manufactured by
“SCHNEIDER ELECTRIC”. KSD9700 is an example of temperature switch. BMP180 is an
example of pressure sensor. SLB700A/06VA is an example of force sensor.
8. Which is an example of temperature switch?
a) KSD9700
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) BMP180
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: KSD9700 is an example of temperature switch. It has 250 volt 5 ampere input
rating. It has an operating temperature of up to 150°C. BMP180 is an example of pressure
sensor. SLB700A/06VA is an example of force sensor. CMCP793V-500 is a velocity
sensor.
9. Which type of switch can be used as automatic switch to detect the level of water in a
water tank and perform suitable switching action?
a) Flow Switch
b) Float switch
c) DPDT (Double pole double throw) Switch
d) Push button Switch
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Float switch can be used as automatic switch to detect the level of water in
a water tank and perform suitable switching action. These switches are mainly used to
control the AC and DC water pumps. When the water exceeds a certain limit the floating
element of the switch moves along with it and triggers the switch to act accordingly.
10. Which type of switch can be used as automatic switch to detect the presence of object
by its weight?
a) SPST (Single pole Single throw) Switch
b) Limit switch
c) DPDT (Double pole double throw) Switch
d) Push button Switch
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Limit switch is used as automatic switch to detect the presence of object.
These switches are usually used to detect the presence or absence of the object. They
have a flexible arm which is responsible for the switching action.
11. A GTO (Gate turn off thyristor) switch is a unipolar device.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A GTO (Gate turn off thyristor) switch is not a unipolar device. It is a bipolar,
three terminal semiconductor switching device. It uses both electrons and holes for the
conduction of current through it.
12. DIAC (Diode alternating current) is a bi-directional switching device.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DIAC (Diode alternating current) is a bi-directional switching device. . It is a
two terminal switching device that does not have a fixed anode and cathode terminal. It
can be used regardless of the identification of anode and cathode terminal.
13. Bipolar transistor can be used as a switch.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bipolar transistor can be used as a switch. This configuration of transistor is
widely used in the electronic industry. A small base current can control comparatively large
emitter to collector current.
14. Which switch can be used to rotate a DC motor in both clockwise and anti-clock wise
direction?
a) SPST (Single pole Single throw) Switch
b) DPST (Double pole single throw) Switch
c) DPDT (Double pole double throw) Switch
d) Push button Switch
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: DPDT (Double pole double throw) Switch can be used to rotate a DC motor
in both clockwise and anti-clock wise direction. These switches are mostly preferred while
making a remote controlled car projects.
15. What is the full form of SPDT with respect to switches?
a) Single pull double throw
b) Single pole double throw
c) Single pull dual throw
d) Singular pole dual throw
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The full form of SPDT is “Single pole double throw” with respect to switches.
This type of switches has one input and two outputs. These switches are versatile in nature
as it facilitates with two output terminal form a single input.
a) Diode
b) Inductor
c) Light emitting source
d) Transistor
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This symbol represents Light emitting source. This symbol is generally used
to represent a LED(Light emitting diode) or any other light emitting source in the electrical
circuit. It is usually used as an output device to represent the flow of current through a
branch.
2. What does this symbol represent in an electric circuit?
a) Motor
b) Inductor
c) Light emitting source
d) Multimeter
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This symbol represents a Motor in an electric circuit. Motors are output device
of a circuit that produces rotational motion. They convert electrical energy to mechanical
energy. It works on the principle of Flemings left hand rule.
3. What does this symbol represent in an electric circuit?
a) Resistor
b) Inductor
c) Capacitor
d) Transistor
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This symbol represents capacitor. Capacitor is a passive element which is
used as an energy storing device in the electrical circuits. Capacitance of a capacitor is
measured in farads. It is the SI unit of capacitance.
4. What does this symbol represent in an electric circuit?
a) Resistor
b) Inductor
c) PNP Transistor
d) NPN Transistor
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This symbol represents PNP Transistor. When an “N” type material is
sandwiched between two “P” type materials, then a PNP transistor is formed. This “P” type
material is actually doped with “N” type material.
5. A diode has no effect on any electric circuit if its terminals are reversed.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A diode will affect the electric circuit if its terminals are reversed. It is so
because its properties will completely change when its terminal are reversed. Since it is a
unidirectional device so it will only allow current to flow in one direction only and blocks it
from other direction.
6. What is the full form of FET?
a) Field effect thyristor
b) Field effect thermistor
c) Field effect transistor
d) Field effective transistor
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: FET stands for field effect transistor. It is a three terminal semiconductor
device namely; Source, drain and gate. It is a voltage controlled device (i.e) its operation
can be controlled by changing the input voltage.
7. What does this symbol represent in an electric circuit?
a) Diode
b) Inductor
c) Light emitting source
d) Transistor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This symbol represents Light emitting source. It is a two terminal component
of an electric circuit which allows unidirectional flow of current. An ideal diode has zero
forward bias resistance and infinite reverse bias resistance.
13. What does this symbol represent in an electric circuit?
a) Ammeter
b) Voltmeter
c) Anode tube
d) Anonymous device
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This symbol represents an Ammeter. Ammeters are used to measure the
current flowing through a branch. They are placed in series with the circuit components in
order to measure the branch current.
14. What does this symbol represent in an electric circuit?
a) Resistor
b) Inductor
c) PNP Transistor
d) NPN Transistor
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: This symbol represents NPN Transistor. When a “P” type material is
sandwiched between two “N” type materials, then a NPN transistor is formed. This “N”
type material is actually doped with “P” type material.
1. What is the synchronous speed of a 3-phase induction motor if has 12 poles and its
frequency is 60 Hz?
a) 700 rpm
b) 600 rpm
c) 650 rpm
d) 500 rpm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Number of poles of motor(P)=12
Frequency(f)=60 Hz
Synchronous speed(Ns) = 120f/P
Synchronous speed(Ns) = 600 rpm.
2. What is the speed of a 3-phase induction motor if has a synchronous speed of 500 rpm
and has percentage slip of 4% ?
a) 700 rpm
b) 600 rpm
c) 480 rpm
d) 500 rpm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Synchronous speed(Ns) = 500 rpm
percentage slip=4% =0.04
Speed(N) = Ns*(1-s)
Speed(N) = 480 rpm.
3. What is the frequency of a 3-phase induction motor if has 10 poles and its synchronous
speed is 720 rpm?
a) 60 Hz
b) 50 Hz
c) 80 Hz
d) 40 Hz
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Number of poles of motor(P)=10
Synchronous speed(Ns) = 720 rpm
Synchronous speed(Ns) = 120f/P
Frequency (f)=(Ns*P)/120
Frequency(f)=60 Hz.
4. Speed of an induction motor is dependent on the frequency of the input supply.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Speed of an induction motor is dependent on the frequency of the input
supply. Since the formula for synchronous speed is given by Ns = 120*f/P, where Ns
represents the synchronous speed, f represents the frequency and P is the number of
poles. And the Speed of induction motor is given by N = Ns*(1-s) , where N represents
the speed of induction motor, Ns represents the synchronous speed and s is the slip.
Therefore it can be clearly seen that it is dependent on frequency of input supply.
5. Speed of an induction motor is independent of the number of stator poles.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Speed of an induction motor is dependent of the number of stator poles.
Since the formula for synchronous speed is given by Ns = 120*f/P, where Ns represents
the synchronous speed, f represents the frequency and P is the number of stator poles.
And the Speed of induction motor is given by N = Ns*(1-s) , where N represents the speed
of induction motor, Ns represents the synchronous speed and s is the slip. Therefore it
can be clearly seen that it is dependent on the number of stator poles.
6. Rotor rheostat speed control method can be used for controlling the speed of squirrel
cage motors.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Rotor rheostat speed control method cannot be used for controlling the
speed of squirrel cage motors. It can only be used with the slip ring motors as an external
resistance cannot be added to the squirrel cage motors.
7. What happens to the synchronous speed of the induction motor if the number of stator
poles increases?
a) It remains same
b) It increases
c) It decreases
d) It does not work
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The synchronous speed of the induction motor decreases if the number of
stator poles increases. Since the formula for synchronous speed is given by Ns = 120f/P,
where Ns represents the synchronous speed, f represents the frequency and P is the
number of poles. Therefore it can be clearly seen that, synchronous speed inversely
proportional to the number of stator poles.
8. What happens to the synchronous speed of the induction motor if the frequency of the
supply increases?
a) It remains same
b) It increases
c) It decreases
d) It does not work
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The synchronous speed of the induction motor increases if the frequency of
the supply increases. The synchronous speed of the induction motor is directly
proportional to the input frequency. Since the formula for synchronous speed is given by
Ns = 120f/P, where Ns represents the synchronous speed, f represents the frequency and
P is the number of poles. So if the frequency of the supply increases, then the synchronous
speed also increases.
9. Which speed control method can only be applied to squirrel cage type induction motors?
a) Multiple Stator winding method
b) Rotor rheostat speed control method
c) Pole amplitude modulation method
d) Frequency control method
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Multiple stator winding method can only be applied to squirrel cage type
induction motors. Other all speed control methods can also be applied in slip ring type
induction motors. Rotor rheostat speed control method can only be used for controlling
the speed of slip ring type induction motors.
10. What does PAM stands for, in context to speed control method of induction motor?
a) Pole amplitude maintenance
b) Passive amplitude modulation
c) Pole amplification modulation
d) Pole amplitude modulation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: PAM stands for Pole amplitude modulation, in context to speed control
method of induction motor. It is a speed control method of 3 phase induction motor in
which the original sinusoidal wave is modulated by another sinusoidal wave having the
different number of poles.
11. What is the synchronous speed of a 3-phase induction motor if has 8 poles and its
frequency is 40 Hz?
a) 700 rpm
b) 600 rpm
c) 650 rpm
d) 500 rpm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Number of poles of motor(P)=8
Frequency(f)=40 Hz
Synchronous speed(Ns) = 120f/P
Synchronous speed(Ns) = 600 rpm.
12. What is the synchronous speed of a 3-phase induction motor if has 9 poles and its
frequency is 50 Hz?
a) 700 rpm
b) 600 rpm
c) 650 rpm
d) 666.667 rpm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Number of poles of motor(P)=9
Frequency(f)=50 Hz
Synchronous speed(Ns) = 120f/P
Synchronous speed(Ns) = 666.667 rpm.
13. What is the speed of a 3-phase induction motor if has a synchronous speed of 400
rpm and has percentage slip of 5% ?
a) 700 rpm
b) 380 rpm
c) 480 rpm
d) 500 rpm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Synchronous speed(Ns) = 400 rpm
percentage slip=5%=0.05
Speed(N) = Ns*(1-s)
Speed(N) = 380 rpm.
14. What is the frequency of a 3-phase induction motor if has 12 poles and its synchronous
speed is 620 rpm?
a) 60 Hz
b) 62 Hz
c) 80 Hz
d) 58 Hz
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Number of poles of motor(P)=12
Synchronous speed(Ns) = 620 rpm
Synchronous speed(Ns) = 120f/P
Frequency (f)=(Ns*P)/120
Frequency(f)=62 Hz.
15. What is the speed of a 3-phase induction motor if has a synchronous speed of 300
rpm and has percentage slip of 0.2% ?
a) 200 rpm
b) 380 rpm
c) 280 rpm
d) 294 rpm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Synchronous speed(Ns) = 300 rpm
percentage slip=5%=0.02
Speed(N) = Ns*(1-s)
Speed(N) = 294 rpm.
1. What is the output of 2 Input XNOR gate if both the inputs are same?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 10
d) 11
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The output of 2 Input XNOR gate is 1 if both the inputs are same. The output
of the XNOR gate is 1 if both the inputs are logic 0 or logic 1. This is why they are called
as equality detector.
2. Which gate is called as inequality detector?
a) 2 Input AND Gate
b) 2 Input NAND Gate
c) 2 Input XOR Gate
d) 2 Input XNOR Gate
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A 2 Input XOR gate is called as inequality detector. They are called so
because, when the two inputs of the XOR gate is different its output is Logic one (High).
Whereas when both the inputs are same then the output is Logic zero (LOW). Therefore,
a 2 Input XOR gate can compare 2 binary bits.
3. What is the IC (Integrated circuit) number of Quad 2 Input OR Gate?
a) 7404
b) 7402
c) 7408
d) 7432
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The IC (Integrated circuit) number of Quad 2 Input OR Gate is 7432. It is also
referred as 74LS32. The Quad 2 Input OR Gate package consists of 4 OR gates. It has
total 14 pins including the VCC and Ground pin.
4. What is the IC (Integrated circuit) number of Quad 2 Input XOR Gate?
a) 7404
b) 7486
c) 7408
d) 7432
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The IC (Integrated circuit) number of Quad 2 Input XOR Gate is 7486. It is
also referred as 74LS86. The Quad 2 Input OR Gate package consists of 4 OR gates. It
has total 14 pins including the VCC and Ground pin. It is also known as inequality detector.
5. NAND gate and NOR gate are universal logic gates.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: NAND gate and NOR gate are universal logic gates. These are called so
because any type of basic or combinational logic gate (such as AND, OR, XOR, XNOR
etc) can be made by a cluster of only NAND gates or NOR gates.
6. The output of 2 Input AND gate is Logic 1 if any one of its input is Logic 1.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The output of 2 Input AND gate is not Logic 1 if any one of its input is Logic
1. Its output is logic 1 only when both the inputs of the AND gate is 1. The output of 2 Input
OR gate is Logic 1 if any one of its input is Logic 1.
7. What is the IC (Integrated circuit) number of Quad 2 Input NAND Gate?
a) 7404
b) 7486
c) 7400
d) 7432
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The IC (Integrated circuit) number of Quad 2 Input NAND Gate is 7400. The
Quad 2 Input NAND Gate package consists of 4 NAND gates. It has total 14 pins including
the VCC and Ground pin. It is also called as universal gate.
8. What is the IC (Integrated circuit) number of Quad 2 Input NOR Gate?
a) 7404
b) 7402
c) 7400
d) 7432
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The IC (Integrated circuit) number of Quad 2 Input NOR Gate is 7400. The
Quad 2 Input NOR Gate package consists of 4 NOR gates. It has total 14 pins including
the VCC and Ground pin. It is also called as universal gate.
9. What is the IC (Integrated circuit) number of Quad 2 Input XNOR Gate of TTL logic
family?
a) 4077
b) 7402
c) 74266
d) 7432
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The IC (Integrated circuit) number of Quad 2 Input XNOR Gate of TTL logic
family is 74266. The Quad 2 Input NOR Gate package consists of 4 XNOR gates. It has
total 14 pins including the VCC and Ground pin. 4077 is the IC (Integrated circuit) number
of Quad 2 Input XNOR Gate of CMOS IC family.
10. What is the IC (Integrated circuit) number of Quad 2 Input AND Gate?
a) 7404
b) 7402
c) 7408
d) 74032
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The IC (Integrated circuit) number of Quad 2 Input AND Gate is 7408. It is
also referred as 74LS08. The Quad 2 Input AND Gate package consists of 4 NOT gates.
It has total 14 pins including the VCC and Ground pin.
11. What is the minimum number of 2 Input NAND Gate required to make a 2 Input XOR
gate?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The minimum number of 2 Input NAND Gate required to make a 2 Input XOR
gate is 4. This process is of making XOR gate using NAND gate is called realisation of
XOR gate using NAND gate. NAND gate is a universal gate and can be used to design
any logic gate.
12. XOR gate is an abbreviation of Executive OR Gate.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: XOR gate is not an abbreviation of Executive OR Gate. It is abbreviation for
Exclusive-OR Gate. This gate is also known as inequality detector. They are called so
because, when the two inputs of the XOR gate is different its output is Logic one(High).
Whereas when both the inputs are same then the output is Logic zero(LOW). Therefore,
a 2 Input XOR gate can compare 2 binary bits.
13. What is the minimum number of 2 Input NOR Gates required to make a 2 Input XNOR
gate?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The minimum number of 2 Input NOR Gates required to make a 2 Input
XNOR gate is 4. This process of making XNOR gate using NOR gate is called realisation
of XNOR gate using NOR gate. NOR gate is a universal gate and can be used to design
any logic gate.
14. What is the IC (Integrated circuit) number of Hex Inverter(NOT Gate)?
a) 7404
b) 7402
c) 7408
d) 74032
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The IC (Integrated circuit) number of Hex Inverter(NOT Gate) is 7404. It is
also referred as 74LS04. The hex inverter package consists of 6 NOT gates. The output
of NOT gate is logic 0 when the input is logic 1 and vice versa.
15. Which gate is called as equality detector?
a) 2 Input AND Gate
b) 2 Input NAND Gate
c) 2 Input XOR Gate
d) 2 Input XNOR Gate
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A 2 Input XNOR gate is called as equality detector. They are called so
because, when the two inputs of the XOR gate is different its output is Logic Zero(LOW),
but when both the inputs are same then the output is Logic one (HIGH). Therefore, a 2
Input XNOR gate can compare 2 binary bits.
1. An electronic component used by computers to do its work is ____
a) Microcontrollers
b) Microprocessors
c) Keyboard
d) Resistors
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An electronic component used by computers to do its work is
microprocessors. It contains millions of small components like resistors, diodes etc. The
other options are not appropriate choices.
2. What is the major difference between a microprocessor and a microcontroller?
a) Presence of external peripherals
b) Presence of internal peripherals
c) CPU
d) Stack Pointer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: RAM, ROM, EEPROM are used as an external circuit in case of the
microprocessor, but these are already embedded in a microcontroller. Due to the use of
external circuits microprocessors are bulkier as compared to the microcontrollers which
are more compact.
3. Microprocessors have high cost and large size.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The microprocessors have generally large size and high cost. This is
because there are several external devices attached to it according to the applications.
The components used are costly as compared to the microcontrollers.
4. Which among the following are not the applications of microprocessor?
a) Word processing
b) Calculation
c) Washing machines
d) Communication
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Washing machines generally depends on microcontrollers. The applications
of a microprocessor are in communication or video display, communication via the
internet, word processing, calculation and many other applications.
5. Von Neumann architecture is used in ____
a) microcontrollers
b) microprocessors
c) computer systems
d) operating Systems
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The architecture used in the Microprocessors is Von Neumann architecture.
The is single memory space for both data and the program.
6. Quartz and metals are not used in microprocessors.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Microprocessors are made up of various components which involve metals,
quartz and various other components and chemicals. The microprocessors have generally
large size and high cost.
7. Which among the following have less number of registers?
a) Microprocessors
b) Microcontrollers
c) CPU
d) Input devices
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Microprocessors have less number of registers and therefore many of the
functions are memory based whereas the microcontrollers have a number of registers and
therefore the programs are easier to write.
8. In compact systems, we can use ____
a) microprocessors
b) computers
c) CPU
d) microcontrollers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In compact systems, we can use Microcontrollers and hence microcontrollers
are more effective as compared to the microprocessors, and they are also less costly as
compared to the microprocessors.
9. Harvard architecture is used in ____
a) microcontrollers
b) microprocessors
c) computer systems
d) operating Systems
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The architecture used in the Microcontrollers is Harvard architecture. Due to
this the program memory and the data memory are separate. This is one of the
advantages of the microcontroller.
10. Which among the following applications are not microcontroller based?
a) Computer system
b) Washing Machines
c) MP3 players
d) Telephones
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In Computer systems, Microprocessors are generally used. Some of the
applications of a microcontroller are in washing machines, automobiles, telephones,
appliances and peripherals for computer systems.
1. What is the major difference between a microprocessor and a microcontroller?
a) Presence of external peripherals
b) Presence of internal peripherals
c) CPU
d) Stack Pointer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: RAM, ROM, EEPROM are used as an external circuit in case of the
microprocessor, but these are already embedded in a microcontroller. Due to the use of
external circuits microprocessors are bulkier as compared to the microcontrollers which
are more compact.
2. Which among the following is a property of a microcontroller?
a) High power devices
b) Low power devices
c) High cost
d) Large size
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: One of the important properties of a microcontroller is that it is a low power
device and may consume only 50 watts of energy. In addition to this, it has low cost and
less size as compared to a microprocessor.
3. Microcontrollers have high cost and large size.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The microcontrollers have generally small size and high cost. The
components chosen for the microcontrollers have generally low size and low cost. One of
the important properties of a microcontroller is that it is a low power device and may
consume only 50 watts of energy.
4. How many bytes can a typical low-end microcontroller have?
a) 100 bytes
b) 500 bytes
c) 1000 bytes
d) 300 bytes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A low-end microcontroller chip has 20 bytes of RAM and 1000 bytes of ROM.
These chips can sometimes have very low cost and very less size suitable for limited
applications.
5. Which among the following is the main advantage of a microcontroller?
a) Simple programming
b) High-level programming
c) Costly
d) High voltage requirement
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Microcontroller uses a simple language and it is therefore very easy and
flexible to design software. The voltage requirement is very low and it has a very low cost.
6. PIC is a microcontroller.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The peripheral interface controller is a microcontroller which is made by
microchip technology and derived from PIC1650. Its name is currently expanded as a
programmable intelligent computer.
7. Which among the following is not a hardware feature of PIC?
a) EPROM
b) EEPROM
c) SRAM
d) Watchdog timer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Some of the hardware features of the PIC microcontroller is that they have
Flash memory, SRAM, EEPROM, sleep mode, watchdog timer, various crystal or RC
oscillator configurations, or an external clock.
8. In compact systems, we can use ____
a) microprocessors
b) computers
c) CPU
d) microcontrollers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In compact systems, we can use Microcontrollers and hence microcontrollers
are more effective as compared to the microprocessors, and they are also less costly as
compared to the microprocessors.
9. Harvard architecture is used in ____
a) microcontrollers
b) microprocessors
c) computer systems
d) operating Systems
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The architecture used in the Microcontrollers is Harvard architecture. Due to
this the program memory and the data memory are separate. This is one of the
advantages of the microcontroller.
10. Which among the following applications are not microcontroller based?
a) Computer system
b) Washing Machines
c) MP3 players
d) Telephones
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In Computer systems, Microprocessors are generally used. Some of the
applications of a microcontroller are in washing machines, automobiles, telephones,
appliances and peripherals for computer systems.
1. What is the equivalent capacitance when two capacitors, one of 20 microfarads and
another of 10 microfarads are connected in series?
a) 20 microfarads
b) 30 microfarads
c) 15 microfarads
d) 10 microfarads
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The equivalent capacitance when two capacitors, one of 20 microfarads and
another of 10 microfarads are connected in series is 15 microfarads. When capacitors are
placed is series to each other then the equivalent capacitance is given by 1/Ct=
(1/C1)+(1/C2)+….(1/Cn), where Ct is the total capacitance. C1,C2….Cn are total no. of
capacitors in series.
Therefore (1/Ct)=(1/20)+(1/10)
Ct=15 microfarads.
2. What is the effect on phase shift due to a capacitor in AC circuits?
a) Voltage leads the current by 180 degree
b) Voltage leads the current by 90 degree
c) Current leads the voltage by 90 degree
d) Current leads the voltage by 180 degree
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The phase shift due to a capacitor in AC circuits is 90 degrees. In this the
Current leads the voltage by 90 degree. While in case of an inductor the phase difference
remain same but the current lags the voltage by 90 degree.
3. What is the source voltage applied across a loop containing a resistor of 1000 ohm and
capacitor of 15 microfarads in series when a current of 0.02 ampere flows across the
circuit? Given that the voltage drop across capacitor is 5 Volts?
a) 25 Volts
b) 24 Volts
c) 26 Volts
d) 28 Volts
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given : Voltage drop across capacitor = 5 Volts
Current in loop = 0.02 ampere
Resistance = 1000 ohm
Capacitance=15 microfarads
Drop across resistor=1000 *0.02
Drop across resistor=20 Volts
Source voltage (Total Voltage) = Drop across resistor + Drop across resistor
Source voltage = 10 Volts + 5 Volts
Source voltage=25 Volts.
4. What is the equivalent capacitance when two capacitors each of 20 microfarads are
connected in parallel?
a) 20 microfarads
b) 30 microfarads
c) 40 microfarads
d) 10 microfarads
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The equivalent capacitance when two capacitors each of 20 microfarads are
connected in parallel is 40 microfarads. When capacitors are placed parallel to each other,
then their value of capacitances simply gets added up.
5. What is the reactance due to a capacitor of 0.05 farads when an alternating current of
frequency 50 Hertz passes through it?
a) 0.063 ohm
b) 0.63 ohm
c) 0.0063 ohm
d) 0.0703 ohm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given: Frequency of alternating current(f) = 50 Hertz
Capacitance(C) = 0.05 farads
Reactance(Xc)=1/2πfC
Reactance(Xc)=1/(2*3.14*50 *0.05)
Reactance(Xc)=0.063 ohm.
6. What is the reactance due to an inductor of 0.05 henry when an alternating current of
frequency 50 Hertz passes through it?
a) 16.7 ohm
b) 15.7 ohm
c) 17.7 ohm
d) 14.7 ohm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given: Frequency of alternating current(f) = 50 Hertz
Inductance(L) = 0.05 henry
Reactance(Xl)=2πfL
Reactance(Xl)=2*3.14*50*0.05
Reactance(Xl)=15.7 ohm.
7. What is the equivalent Inductance when two Inductors one of 20 henry and another of
15 henry are connected in series?
a) 20 henry
b) 35 henry
c) 40 henry
d) 10 henry
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The equivalent Inductance when two Inductors, one of 20 henry and another
of 15 henry are connected in series is 35 henry. When Inductors are placed in series to
each other, then their value of Inductance simply gets added up.
8. What is the equivalent Inductance when two Inductors, one of 20 henry and another of
10 henry are connected in parallel?
a) 20 henry
b) 30 henry
c) 15 henry
d) 10 henry
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The equivalent Inductance when two Inductors, one of 20 henry and another
of 10 henry are connected in parallel is 15 henry. When Inductors are placed is parallel to
each other then the equivalent Inductance is given by 1/Lt=(1/L1)+(1/L2)+….(1/Ln), where
Lt is the total Inductance. L1,L2….Ln are total no. of inductors in series.
Therefore (1/Lt)=(1/20)+(1/10)
Lt=15 henry.
9. What is the equivalent capacitance when two capacitors each of 20 microfarads are
connected in series?
a) 20 microfarads
b) 30 microfarads
c) 40 microfarads
d) 10 microfarads
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The equivalent capacitance when two capacitors each of 20 microfarads are
connected in series is 10 microfarads. When capacitors are placed is series to each other
then the equivalent capacitance is given by 1/Ct=(1/C1)+(1/C2)+….(1/Cn), where Ct is the
total capacitance. C1,C2….Cn are total no. of capacitors in series.
Therefore (1/Ct)=(1/20)+(1/20)
Ct=10 microfarads.
10. What is the source voltage applied across a loop containing a resistor of 100 ohm and
capacitor of 15 microfarads in series when a current of 0.05 ampere flows across the
circuit? Given that the voltage drop across capacitor is 2 Volts?
a) 7 Volts
b) 4 Volts
c) 6 Volts
d) 8 Volts
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given: Voltage drop across capacitor = 2 Volts
Current in loop = 0.05 ampere
Resistance = 100 ohm
Capacitance=15 microfarads
Drop across resistor=100*0.05
Drop across resistor=5 Volts
Source voltage (Total Voltage) = Drop across resistor + Drop across resistor
Source voltage = 5 Volts + 2 Volts
Source voltage=7 Volts.
11. What is the reactance due to an inductor of 0.01 henry when an alternating current of
frequency 40 Hertz passes through it?
a) 3.512 ohm
b) 15.7 ohm
c) 2.512 ohm
d) 14.7 ohm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given: Frequency of alternating current(f) = 40 Hertz
Inductance(L) = 0.01 henry
Reactance(Xl)=2πfL
Reactance(Xl)=2*3.14*40*0.01
Reactance(Xl)=2.512 ohm.
12. What is the reactance due to a capacitor of 0.01 farads when an alternating current of
frequency 40 Hertz passes through it?
a) 0.063 ohm
b) 0.398 ohm
c) 0.0063 ohm
d) 0.0703 ohm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given: Frequency of alternating current(f) = 40 Hertz
Capacitance(C) = 0.01 farads
Reactance(Xc)=1/2πfC
Reactance(Xc)=1/(2*3.14*40 *0.01)
Reactance(Xc)=0.398 ohm.
13. The impedance matching is done to match the internal impedance of two different
sources.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The impedance matching is not done to match the internal impedance of two
different sources. Rather this technique is used to match the internal source resistance
and the driven load resistance. It maximizes the power transfer.
14. What is the source voltage applied across a loop containing a resistor of 500 ohm and
capacitor of 10 microfarads in series when a current of 0.02 ampere flows across the
circuit? Given that the voltage drop across capacitor is 2 Volts.
a) 12 Volts
b) 4 Volts
c) 6 Volts
d) 8 Volts
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given : Voltage drop across capacitor = 2 Volts
Current in loop = 0.02 ampere
Resistance = 500 ohm
Capacitance=10 microfarads
Drop across resistor=500*0.02
Drop across resistor=10 Volts
Source voltage (Total Voltage) = Drop across resistor + Drop across resistor
Source voltage = 10 Volts + 2 Volts
Source voltage=12 Volts.
15. What is the effect on phase shift due to an inductor in AC circuits?
a) Voltage leads the current by 180 degree
b) Voltage leads the current by 90 degree
c) Current leads the voltage by 90 degree
d) Current leads the voltage by 180 degree
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The phase shift due to an inductor in AC circuits is 90 degrees. In this the
voltage leadsthe current by 90 degree. While in case of a capacitor the phase difference
remains same but the current leads the voltage by 90 degree.
1. Which is the first aspect which needs to be considered in the Mechatronics design
process?
a) Hardware design and simulation
b) Conceptual design
c) Mathematical modelling
d) Modelling and simulation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Modeling and simulation involve the representation of physical systems by
suitable models for describing the behaviour characteristics such as block diagram.
Hardware design and simulation is a part of prototyping. Conceptual design and
mathematical modelling come under modelling and simulation.
2. In the level of integration of Mechatronics system, an example of the first level is _____
a) fluid valves
b) automatic machine tools
c) industrial robots
d) microprocessors
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: First level of the mechatronics system is the basic control system which
integrates electrical signal with mechanical action. An example of this level is the fluid
valve. Automatic machine tools and industrial robots come under the second level and
microprocessor in the third level respectively.
3. Interface design is an example of hardware integration.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Interface design is a part of software integration which involves the Operating
system. Hardware integration involves process design and electronic design respectively.
4. What is the role of the second level in the mechatronics system design?
a) Integrates microelectronics into electrically controlled devices
b) Integrates electrical signal with mechanical action
c) Advanced control strategy level
d) Providing artificial intelligence
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Role of the second level is to integrate microelectronics into electrically
controlled devices. Integration of electrical signal with mechanical action, advanced
control strategy and artificial intelligence comes under the first, third and fourth level of
mechatronics design respectively.
5. Microprocessor-based electrical motors are used for ____
a) prediction of fault in the system
b) correction before the fault occurs
c) actuation purpose in robots
d) providing intelligence
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Microprocessor-based electrical motors are used for actuation purpose in
robots. Correction before the fault occurs, Actuation purpose in robots, providing
intelligence is done using Artificial intelligence.
6. Deployment in mechatronics design is associated with the final product.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Deployment is associated with the final product, embedded software
deployment and lifecycle.
7. Which phase of a mechatronics system consists of hardware designing?
a) Prototyping
b) Modelling
c) Simulation
d) Deployment
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hardware design and simulation is a part of Prototyping. Conceptual design
and mathematical modelling come under modelling and simulation.
8. What is the function of “analysis” in the modelling and simulation phase?
a) Database for maintaining project information
b) Sub models for eventual reuse
c) Contains Numerical methods
d) To produce high-level source code
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Analysis provides numerical methods for frequency domain, time domain and
complex domain design. Database for maintaining project information, Sub models for
eventual reuse are part of project management. High-level source codes are produced by
the code generator.
9. Describing the behaviour characteristics through block diagram is done in ____
a) modelling and simulation
b) prototyping
c) deployment
d) design optimization
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In Modeling and simulation, physical systems are represented by a suitable
model for describing the behaviour characteristics such as a block diagram. Hardware
design and simulation is a part of Prototyping. Deployment is associated with the final
product, embedded software deployment and lifecycle.
10. Prototyping involves ____
a) conceptual design
b) replacing non-computer systems with actual hardware
c) database for maintaining project information
d) sub models for eventual reuse
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Prototyping involves replacing non-computer systems with actual hardware.
Conceptual design and mathematical modelling come under modelling and simulation.
Database for maintaining project information, Sub models for eventual reuse are part of
project management.
1. Which system is used to control the boat without constant ‘hands-on’ control by a human
operator?
a) Autopilot
b) GPS system
c) Compass
d) Actuators and steering system
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Autopilot is a system that is used to control the boat without constant ‘hands-
on’ control by a human operator. The other options are not the accurate choices as the
GPS systems, compass and actuators are themselves a part of an Autopilot system which
operates together to control the boat.
2. Which parameters are considered by a boat autopilot during critical weather conditions?
a) Directions
b) Weight, speed and wind conditions
c) Position
d) Steering control
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Autopilots have a large number of parameters which are taken in accounts
such as weight and speed of the boat and sea conditions. Apparent wind and true wind
react differently depending on the speed of the boat. Directions and Position are controlled
by the GPS system and Compass respectively. Steering control is achieved through a
remote control system.
3. System processor works as a central intelligence system in a boat autopilot system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: System processor works as a central intelligence system in a boat autopilot
system. It takes information from various devices of boat and process it. The devices
through which the information is taken can be central processor, compass, control head,
rudder or GPS system.
4. What is the function of GPS in boat autopilot?
a) To control direction
b) To control steering
c) To understand the position of the boat
d) To understand all the parameters of the boat and according to that take decisions
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: GPS in boat autopilot is used to control the direction of the boat. The direction
of the boat depends upon the direction of the travel. The system processor is connected
to the GPS system.
5. To understand the position of the boat autopilot system uses ____
a) GPS
b) Actuators and steering system
c) Compass
d) System processor
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Compass is provided to understand the position of the boat. GPS in boat
autopilot is used to control the direction of the boat. System processor works as a central
intelligence system in a boat autopilot system. Actuators and steering systems are used
to convert digital signals into mechanical energy.
6. The steering is controlled using the control head of a boat autopilot system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Control head is used to provide the graphical user interface. The control
steering of a boat autopilot system is controlled remotely by using the remote control
system. Control head helps to understand all the parameters of the boat and take the
decisions.
7. Signals taken from the compass are sent to the processor according to ____
a) direction of boat
b) position of boat
c) the angle of the boat is decided
d) signals of other boats
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Signals taken from the compass are sent to the processor according to the
angle of the boat decided. The angle of the boat is controlled through the steering of the
boat. The position and direction are not the appropriate options as these together are
taken as the signals. Signals from the other boats are used for correcting the position of
the boat.
8. What is the use of actuators and steering control in boat autopilot system?
a) To control the direction of the boat
b) To control the position of the boat
c) Converts digital signal into mechanical energy
d) Provides graphical user interface
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Actual control of the boat is provided through the actuators which converts
digital signals into mechanical energy and implement. Control head is used to provide the
graphical user interface. Directions and Position are controlled by the GPS system and
Compass respectively.
9. What is the use of a rudder system?
a) To indicate the actual position of our boat and another boat
b) Converts digital signal into mechanical energy
c) The angle of the boat is decided
d) To control steering
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Rudder indicates the actual position of our boat and other boats. We can use
these signals to correct the position of the boat. Steering control is achieved through a
remote control system. The angle of the boat is controlled through the steering of the boat.
Actual control of the boat is provided through the actuators which converts digital signals
into mechanical energy and implement.
10. Feedback system in autopilot is used ____
a) to understand the position of the actuator
b) to understand the position of the boat
c) to indicate the actual position of our boat and other boats
d) to convert the digital signal into mechanical energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Feedback system is used to understand the position of the actuator. If it
calculates the error, then the signals are sent again through the central processor.
Compass is provided to understand the position of the boat. Rudder indicates the actual
position of our boat and other boats. Actual control of the boat is provided through the
actuators which converts digital signals into mechanical energy and implement.