Discrete Mathematics Questions

and Answers

1. Which of the following statement is a proposition?

a) Get me a glass of milkshake
b) God bless you!
c) What is the time now?
d) The only odd prime number is 2
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Only this statement has got the truth value which is false.

2. The truth value of ‘4+3=7 or 5 is not prime’.

a) False
b) True
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Compound statement with ‘or’ is true when either of the statement is true.
Here the first part of the statement is true, hence the whole is true.

3. Which of the following option is true?

a) If the Sun is a planet, elephants will fly
b) 3 +2 = 8 if 5-2 = 7
c) 1 > 3 and 3 is a positive integer
d) -2 > 3 or 3 is a negative integer
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Hypothesis is false, thus the whole statement is true.

4. What is the value of x after this statement, assuming the initial value of x is 5?
‘If x equals to one then x=x+2 else x=0’.
a) 1
b) 3
c) 0
d) 2
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: If condition is false so value decided according to else condition.

5. Let P: I am in Bangalore.; Q: I love cricket.; then q -> p(q implies p) is?

a) If I love cricket then I am in Bangalore
b) If I am in Bangalore then I love cricket
c) I am not in Bangalore
d) I love cricket
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Q is hypothesis and P is conclusion. So the compound statement will be if
hypothesis then conclusion.

6. Let P: If Sahil bowls, Saurabh hits a century.; Q: If Raju bowls, Sahil gets out on first ball.
Now if P is true and Q is false then which of the following can be true?
a) Raju bowled and Sahil got out on first ball
b) Raju did not bowled
c) Sahil bowled and Saurabh hits a century
d) Sahil bowled and Saurabh got out
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Either hypothesis should be false or both (hypothesis and conclusion) should
be true.

7. The truth value ‘9 is prime then 3 is even’.

a) False
b) True
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The first part of the statement is false, hence whole is true.

8. Let P: I am in Delhi.; Q: Delhi is clean.; then q ^ p(q and p) is?

a) Delhi is clean and I am in Delhi
b) Delhi is not clean or I am in Delhi
c) I am in Delhi and Delhi is not clean
d) Delhi is clean but I am in Mumbai
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Connector should be ‘and’, that is q and p.

9. Let P: This is a great website, Q: You should not come back here. Then ‘This is a great
website and you should come back here.’ is best represented by?
a) ~P V ~Q
b) P ∧ ~Q
c) P V Q
d) P ∧ Q
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The second part of the statement is negated, hence negation operator is used.

10. Let P: We should be honest., Q: We should be dedicated., R: We should be

overconfident. Then ‘We should be honest or dedicated but not overconfident.’ is best
represented by?
a) ~P V ~Q V R
b) P ∧ ~Q ∧ R
c) P V Q ∧ R
d) P V Q ∧ ~R
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The third part of the statement is negated, hence negation operato

1. Which of the following bits is the negation of the bits “010110”?

a) 111001
b) 001001
c) 101001
d) 111111
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Flip each of the bit to get the negation of the required string.

2. Which of the following option is suitable, if A is “10110110”, B is”11100000” and C

is”10100000”?
a) C=A or B
b) C=~A
c) C=~B
d) C=A and B
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Output of and is 1 when both other inputs are one.

3. How many bits string of length 4 are possible such that they contain 2 ones and 2
zeroes?
a) 4
b) 2
c) 5
d) 6
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The strings are {0011, 0110, 1001, 1100, 1010 and 0101}.

4. If a bit string contains {0, 1} only, having length 5 has no more than 2 ones in it. Then
how many such bit strings are possible?
a) 14
b) 12
c) 15
d) 16
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The total strings are 1(having no one in it) +5(having 1 one in it) +10 (having 2
ones in it) = 16.

5. If A is “001100” and B is “010101” then what is the value of A (Ex-or) B?

a) 000000
b) 111111
c) 001101
d) 011001
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In Ex-or if both the inputs are same then output is 0 otherwise 1.

6. The Ex-nor of this string “01010101” with “11111111” is?

a) 10101010
b) 00110100
c) 01010101
d) 10101001
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In Ex-nor if both the inputs are same then output is 1 otherwise 0.

7. What is the one’s complement of this string “01010100”?

a) 10101010
b) 00110101
c) 10101011
d) 10101001
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Negate every bit in one’s complement.

8. What is the 2’s complement of this string “01010100”?

a) 10101010
b) 00110100
c) 10101100
d) 10101001
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In two’s complement negate every bit from left until the first one from right is
encountered.

9. If in a bits string of {0,1}, of length 4, such that no two ones are together. Then the total
number of such possible strings are?
a) 1
b) 5
c) 7
d) 4
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Strings can be {1001, 1010, 0101, 1000, 0100, 0010, 0001}.

10. Let A: “010101”, B=?, If { A (Ex-or) B } is a resultant string of all ones then which of the
following statement regarding B is correct?
a) B is negation of A
b) B is 101010
c) {A (and) B} is a resultant string having all zeroes
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In Ex-or both if both the inputs are the same then output is 0 otherwise 1.

1. Let P and Q be statements, then P<->Q is logically equivalent to __________

a) P<->~Q
b) ~P<->Q
c) ~P<->~Q
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Both of them have same truth table, Hence they are equal.

2. What is the negation of the statement A->(B v(or) C)?

a) A ∧ ~B ∧ ~C
b) A->B->C
c) ~A ∧ B v C
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A->P is logically equivalent to ~A v P.

3. The compound statement A-> (A->B) is false, then the truth values of A, B are respectively
_________
a) T, T
b) F, T
c) T, F
d) F, F
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: For implications to be false hypothesis should be true and conclusion should
be false.

4. The statement which is logically equivalent to A∧ (and) B is?

a) A->B
b) ~A ∧ ~ B
c) A ∧ ~B
d) ~(A->~B)
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The truth table of both statements are same.
5. Let P: We give a nice overall squad performance, Q: We will win the match.
Then the symbolic form of “We will win the match if and only if we give a nice overall squad
performance.“ is?
a) P v Q
b) Q ∧ P
c) Q<->P
d) ~P v Q
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: If and only if statements are bi-conditionals.

6. Let P, Q, R be true, false true, respectively, which of the following is true?

a) P∧Q∧R
b) P∧~Q∧~R
c) Q->(P∧R)
d) P->(Q∧R)
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Hypothesis is false, hence statement is true.

7. “Match will be played only if it is not a humid day.” The negation of this statement is?
a) Match will be played but it is a humid day
b) Match will be played or it is a humid day
c) All of the mentioned statement are correct
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Negation of P->Q is P∧~Q.

8. Consider the following statements.

A: Raju should exercise.
B: Raju is not a decent table tennis player.
C: Raju wants to play good table tennis.
The symbolic form of “Raju is not a decent table tennis player and if he wants to play good
table tennis then he should exercise.” is?
a) A->B->C
b) B∧(C->A)
c) C->B∧A
d) B<->A∧C
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For conditionals statement (if then), implications are used.

9. The statement (~P<->Q)∧~Q is true when?

a) P: True Q: False
b) P: True Q: True
c) P: False Q: True
d) P: False Q: False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: For a bi-conditional to be true both inputs should be same.

10. Let P, Q, R be true, false, false, respectively, which of the following is true?
a) P∧(Q∧~R)
b) (P->Q)∧~R
c) Q<->(P∧R)
d) P<->(QvR)
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: For a bi-conditional to be true both inputs should be the same.

1. If there are ‘M’ switches in series numbered from 1, 2, …, M. For circuit to be complete
and bulb to glow which of the following is necessary?
a) 1∧ 2∧ 3 ∧ … ∧M should be on
b) 1∧ 2∧ 3 ∧ … ∧M should be off
c) 1 v 2 v 3 v … v M should be on
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: All should be on in-order to complete the circuit.

2. If there are ‘M’ switches in parallel numbered from 1, 2, …, M. For circuit to be complete
and bulb to glow which of the following is necessary
a) 1∧ 2∧ 3 ∧ … ∧M should be on
b) 1∧ 2∧ 3 ∧ … ∧M should be off
c) 1 v 2 v 3 v … v M should be on
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Anyone should be on in-order to complete the circuit.
3. In the circuit shown the lamp will be glowing if _________

a) P: True, Q: False
b) P: True, Q: True
c) P: False, Q: False
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The circuit will be complete if P is true and Q is false.

4. In this circuit shown the lamp will be glowing if _________

a) P: True, Q: True, R: False

b) P: True, Q: True, R: True
c) P: False, Q: False, R: True
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The circuit will be complete if R is true and Q is false or P is false.
5. Which statement should be true in order for lamp to glow?

a) (R ∧ (~(P ∧ Q))
b) P∧R∧Q
c) P ∧ (Q ∧ ~R)
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The circuit will be complete if R is true and Q is false or P is false.

6. If it is given that switch R is closed and Q is closed then lamp will glow if _________

a) P: Open, S: Closed
b) P: Open, S: Open
c) P: Closed, S: Closed
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The circuit will be complete if (~P) is true and S is true.
7. The circuit depend on which switch/switches state to be complete?

a) P
b) Q
c) Both P and Q
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The circuit will be complete if (P) is true, Q v ~Q will always be true.

8. The ten switches A,B,C,D,E,F,G,H,N,M are placed in the given circuit (all are open at given
time). If you close one switch you need to pay 1 unit cost. What is the cost you need to pay
to glow this Lamp?

a) 1 unit
b) 2 units
c) 3 units
d) 4 units
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: This can be achieved by turning one of switches N or M on.
9. If in a for it to be complete it is necessary for switch A to be closed and either of switch B
or C to be closed, then which can be true?
a) Switch A should in parallel with B and C is series to them
b) Switch A should be in series with a parallel circuit of B and C
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Switch A is in series and since there is ‘or’ between B and C therefore they
must be in parallel.

10. The given circuit can work if the switches P and Q be ___________

a) P: True, Q: False
b) P: True, Q: True
c) P: False, Q: False
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d

1. Which of the following statements is the negation of the statements “4 is odd or -9 is

positive”?
a) 4 is even or -9 is not negative
b) 4 is odd or -9 is not negative
c) 4 is even and -9 is negative
d) 4 is odd and -9 is not negative
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Using De Morgan’s Law ~(A V B) ↔ ~A ∧ ~B.
2. Which of the following represents: ~A (negation of A) if A stands for “I like badminton but
hate maths”?
a) I hate badminton and maths
b) I do not like badminton or maths
c) I dislike badminton but love maths
d) I hate badminton or like maths
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: De Morgan’s Law ~ (A ∧ B) ↔ ~A V ~B.

3. The compound statement A v ~(A ∧ B).

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Applying De-Morgan’s law we get A v ~ A Ξ Tautology.

4. Which of the following is De-Morgan’s law?

a) P ∧ (Q v R) Ξ (P ∧ Q) v (P ∧ R)
b) ~(P ∧ R) Ξ ~P v ~R, ~(P v R) Ξ ~P ∧ ~R
c) P v ~P Ξ True, P ∧ ~P Ξ False
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Definition of De–Morgan’s Law.

5. What is the dual of (A ∧ B) v (C ∧ D)?

a) (A V B) v (C v D)
b) (A V B) ^ (C v D)
c) (A V B) v (C ∧ D)
d) (A ∧ B) v (C v D)
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In dual ∧ is replaced by v and vice – versa.

6. ~ A v ~ B is logically equivalent to?

a) ~ A → ~ B
b) ~ A ∧ ~ B
c) A → ~B
d) B V A
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: By identity A → B Ξ ~A V B.

7. Negation of statement (A ∧ B) → (B ∧ C) is _____________

a) (A ∧ B) →(~B ∧ ~C)
b) ~(A ∧ B) v ( B v C)
c) ~(A →B) →(~B ∧ C)
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: ~(A →B) Ξ A ∧ ~B using this we can easily fetch the answer.

8. Which of the following satisfies commutative law?

a) ∧
b) v
c) ↔
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

9. If the truth value of A v B is true, then truth value of ~A ∧ B can be ___________

a) True if A is false
b) False if A is false
c) False if B is true and A is false
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: If A is false then both the condition are obeyed.

10. If P is always against the testimony of Q, then the compound statement P→(P v ~Q) is a
__________
a) Tautology
b) Contradiction
c) Contingency
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Since either hypothesis is false or both (hypothesis as well a
1. A compound proposition that is always ___________ is called a tautology.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Tautology is always true.

2. A compound proposition that is always ___________ is called a contradiction.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Contradiction is always false.

3. If A is any statement, then which of the following is a tautology?

a) A ∧ F
b) A ∨ F
c) A ∨ ¬A
d) A ∧ T
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A ∨ ¬A is always true.

4. If A is any statement, then which of the following is not a contradiction?

a) A ∧ ¬A
b) A ∨ F
c) A ∧ F
d) None of mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A ∨ F is not always false.

5. A compound proposition that is neither a tautology nor a contradiction is called a

___________
a) Contingency
b) Equivalence
c) Condition
d) Inference
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Definition of contingency.

6. ¬ (A ∨ q) ∧ (A ∧ q) is a ___________
a) Tautology
b) Contradiction
c) Contingency
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: ≡ (¬A ∧ ¬q) ∧ (A ∧ q)
≡ (¬A ∧ A) ∧ (¬q ∧ q)
≡ F ∧ F ≡ F.

7. (A ∨ ¬A) ∨ (q ∨ T) is a __________
a) Tautology
b) Contradiction
c) Contingency
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: ≡ (A ∨ ¬A) ∨ (q ∨ T)
≡ T ∨ T ≡ T.

8. A ∧ ¬(A ∨ (A ∧ T)) is always __________

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: ≡ A ∧ ¬ (A ∨ (A ∧ T))
≡ A ∧ ¬(A ∨ A)
≡ A ∧ ¬A ≡ F.

9. (A ∨ F) ∨ (A ∨ T) is always _________
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: ≡ (A ∨ F) ∨ (A ∨ T)
≡ A ∨ T ≡ T.
10. A → (A ∨ q) is a __________
a) Tautology
b) Contradiction
c) Contingency
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: ≡ A → (A ∨ q)
≡ ¬A ∨ (A ∨ q)
≡ (A ∨ ¬A) ∨ q
≡ T ∨ q ≡ T.

1. The contrapositive of p → q is the proposition of ____________

a) ¬p → ¬q
b) ¬q → ¬p
c) q → p
d) ¬q → p
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Definition of contrapositive.

2. The inverse of p → q is the proposition of ____________

a) ¬p → ¬q
b) ¬q → ¬p
c) q → p
d) ¬q → p
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Definition of inverse.

3. The converse of p → q is the proposition of _______________

a) ¬p → ¬q
b) ¬q → ¬p
c) q → p
d) ¬q → p
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Definition of converse.
4. What is the contrapositive of the conditional statement? “The home team misses
whenever it is drizzling?”
a) If it is drizzling, then home team misses
b) If the home team misses, then it is drizzling
c) If it is not drizzling, then the home team does not misses
d) If the home team wins, then it is not drizzling
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: q whenever p contrapositive is ¬q → ¬p.

5. What is the converse of the conditional statement “If it ices today, I will play ice hockey
tomorrow.”
a) “I will play ice hockey tomorrow only if it ices today.”
b) “If I do not play ice hockey tomorrow, then it will not have iced today.”
c) “If it does not ice today, then I will not play ice hockey tomorrow.”
d) “I will not play ice hockey tomorrow only if it ices today.”
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: If p, then q has converse q → p.

6. What are the contrapositive of the conditional statement “I come to class whenever there
is going to be a test.”
a) “If I come to class, then there will be a test.”
b) “If I do not come to class, then there will not be a test.”
c) “If there is not going to be a test, then I don’t come to class.”
d) “If there is going to be a test, then I don’t come to class.”
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: q whenever p, has contrapositive ¬q → ¬p.

7. What are the inverse of the conditional statement “ A positive integer is a composite only
if it has divisors other than 1 and itself.”
a) “A positive integer is a composite if it has divisors other than 1 and itself.”
b) “If a positive integer has no divisors other than 1 and itself, then it is not composite.”
c) “If a positive integer is not composite, then it has no divisors other than 1 and itself.”
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: p only if q has inverse ¬p → ¬q.
8. What are the converse of the conditional statement “When Raj stay up late, it is
necessary that Raj sleep until noon.”
a) “If Raj stay up late, then Raj sleep until noon.”
b) “If Raj does not stay up late, then Raj does not sleep until noon.”
c) “If Raj does not sleep until noon, then Raj does not stay up late.”
d) “If Raj sleep until noon, then Raj stay up late.”
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Necessary condition for p is q has converse q → p.

9. What are the contrapositive of the conditional statement “Medha will find a decent job
when she labour hard.”?
a) “If Medha labour hard, then she will find a decent job.”
b) “If Medha will not find a decent job, then she not labour hard.”
c) “If Medha will find a decent job, then she labour hard.”
d) “If Medha not labour hard, then she will not find a decent job.”
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The statement q when p has its contrapositive as ¬q → ¬p.

10. What are the inverse of the conditional statement “If you make your notes, it will be a
convenient in exams.”
a) “If you make notes, then it will be a convenient in exams.”
b) “If you do not make notes, then it will not be a convenient in exams.”
c) “If it will not be a convenient in exams, then you did not make your notes.”
d) “If it will be a convenient in exams, then you make your notes
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: If p then q has inverse ¬p → ¬q.

1. The compound propositions p and q are called logically equivalent if ________ is a

tautology.
a) p ↔ q
b) p → q
c) ¬ (p ∨ q)
d) ¬p ∨ ¬q
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Definition of logical equivalence.
2. p → q is logically equivalent to ________
a) ¬p ∨ ¬q
b) p ∨ ¬q
c) ¬p ∨ q
d) ¬p ∧ q
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: (p → q) ↔ (¬p ∨ q) is tautology.

3. p ∨ q is logically equivalent to ________

a) ¬q → ¬p
b) q → p
c) ¬p → ¬q
d) ¬p → q
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: (p ∨ q) ↔ (¬p → q) is tautology.

4. ¬ (p ↔ q) is logically equivalent to ________

a) q↔p
b) p↔¬q
c) ¬p↔¬q
d) ¬q↔¬p
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: ¬(p↔q)↔(p↔¬q) is tautology.

5. p ∧ q is logically equivalent to ________

a) ¬ (p → ¬q)
b) (p → ¬q)
c) (¬p → ¬q)
d) (¬p → q)
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: (p ∧ q) ↔ (¬(p → ¬q)) is tautology.

6. Which of the following statement is correct?

a) p ∨ q ≡ q ∨ p
b) ¬(p ∧ q) ≡ ¬p ∨ ¬q
c) (p ∨ q) ∨ r ≡ p ∨ (q ∨ r)
d) All of mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Verify using truth table, all are correct.

7. p ↔ q is logically equivalent to ________

a) (p → q) → (q → p)
b) (p → q) ∨ (q → p)
c) (p → q) ∧ (q → p)
d) (p ∧ q) → (q ∧ p)
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: (p ↔ q) ↔ ((p → q) ∧ (q → p)) is tautology.

8. (p → q) ∧ (p → r) is logically equivalent to ________

a) p → (q ∧ r)
b) p → (q ∨ r)
c) p ∧ (q ∨ r)
d) p ∨ (q ∧ r)
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: ((p → q) ∧ (p → r)) ↔ (p → (q ∧ r)) is tautology.

9. (p → r) ∨ (q → r) is logically equivalent to ________

a) (p ∧ q) ∨ r
b) (p ∨ q) → r
c) (p ∧ q) → r
d) (p → q) → r
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: ((p → r) ∨ (q → r)) ↔ ((p ∧ q) → r) is tautology.

10. ¬ (p ↔ q) is logically equivalent to ________

a) p ↔ ¬q
b) ¬p ↔ q
c) ¬p ↔ ¬q
d) ¬q ↔ ¬p
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: (¬ (p ↔ q)) ↔ (p ↔ ¬q) is tautology.

1. Let P (x) denote the statement “x >7.” Which of these have truth value true?
a) P (0)
b) P (4)
c) P (6)
d) P (9)
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Put x=9, 9>7 which is true.

2. Let Q(x) be the statement “x < 5.” What is the truth value of the quantification ∀xQ(x),
having domains as real numbers.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Q(x) is not true for every real number x, because, for instance, Q(6) is false.
That is, x = 6 is a counterexample for the statement ∀xQ(x). This is false.

3. Determine the truth value of ∀n(n + 1 > n) if the domain consists of all real numbers.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: There are no elements in the domain for which the statement is false.

4. Let P(x) denote the statement “x = x + 7.” What is the truth value of the quantification
∃xP(x), where the domain consists of all real numbers?
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Because P(x) is false for every real number x, the existential quantification of
Q(x), which is ∃xP(x), is false.

5. Let R (x) denote the statement “x > 2.” What is the truth value of the quantification ∃xR(x),
having domain as real numbers?
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Because “x > 2” is sometimes true—for instance, when x = 3–the existential
quantification of R(x), which is ∃xR(x), is true.

6. The statement,” Every comedian is funny” where C(x) is “x is a comedian” and F (x) is “x is
funny” and the domain consists of all people.
a) ∃x(C(x) ∧ F (x))
b) ∀x(C(x) ∧ F (x))
c) ∃x(C(x) → F (x))
d) ∀x(C(x) → F (x))
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: For every person x, if comedian then x is funny.

7. The statement, “At least one of your friends is perfect”. Let P (x) be “x is perfect” and let F
(x) be “x is your friend” and let the domain be all people.
a) ∀x (F (x) → P (x))
b) ∀x (F (x) ∧ P (x))
c) ∃x (F (x) ∧ P (x))
d) ∃x (F (x) → P (x))
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: For some x, x is friend and funny.

8. ”Everyone wants to learn cosmology.” This argument may be true for which domains?
a) All students in your cosmology class
b) All the cosmology learning students in the world
c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Domain may be limited to your class or may be whole world both are good as
it satisfies universal quantifier.

9. Let domain of m includes all students, P (m) be the statement “m spends more than 2
hours in playing polo”. Express ∀m ¬P (m) quantification in English.
a) A student is there who spends more than 2 hours in playing polo
b) There is a student who does not spend more than 2 hours in playing polo
c) All students spends more than 2 hours in playing polo
d) No student spends more than 2 hours in playing polo
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: There is no student who spends more than 2 hours in playing polo.

10. Determine the truth value of statement ∃n (4n = 3n) if the domain consists of all
integers.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: For n=0

1. Let Q(x, y) denote “M + A = 0.” What is the truth value of the quantifications ∃A ∀M Q(M,
A).
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: For each A there exist only one M, because there is no real number A such
that M + A = 0 for all real numbers M.

2. Translate ∀x∃y(x < y) in English, considering domain as a real number for both the
variable.
a) For all real number x there exists a real number y such that x is less than y
b) For every real number y there exists a real number x such that x is less than y
c) For some real number x there exists a real number y such that x is less than y
d) For each and every real number x and y such that x is less than y
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Statement is x is less than y. Quantifier used are for each x, there exists a y.

3. “The product of two negative real numbers is not negative.” Is given by?
a) ∃x ∀y ((x < 0) ∧ (y < 0) → (xy > 0))
b) ∃x ∃y ((x < 0) ∧ (y < 0) ∧ (xy > 0))
c) ∀x ∃y ((x < 0) ∧ (y < 0) ∧ (xy > 0))
d) ∀x ∀y ((x < 0) ∧ (y < 0) → (xy > 0))
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: For every negative real number x and y, the product of these integer is
positive.

4. Let Q(x, y) be the statement “x + y = x − y.” If the domain for both variables consists of all
integers, what is the truth value of ∃xQ(x, 4).
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: There exist no integer for which x+4=x-4.

5. Let L(x, y) be the statement “x loves y,” where the domain for both x and y consists of all
people in the world. Use quantifiers to express, “Joy is loved by everyone.”
a) ∀x L(x, Joy)
b) ∀y L(Joy,y)
c) ∃y∀x L(x, y)
d) ∃x ¬L(Joy, x)
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Joy is loved by all the people in the world.

6. Let T (x, y) mean that student x likes dish y, where the domain for x consists of all
students at your school and the domain for y consists of all dishes. Express ¬T (Amit, South
Indian) by a simple English sentence.
a) All students does not like South Indian dishes.
b) Amit does not like South Indian people.
c) Amit does not like South Indian dishes.
d) Amit does not like some dishes.
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Negation of the statement Amit like South Indian dishes.

7. Express, “The difference of a real number and itself is zero” using required operators.
a) ∀x(x − x! = 0)
b) ∀x(x − x = 0)
c) ∀x∀y(x − y = 0)
d) ∃x(x − x = 0)
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For every real number x, difference with itself is always zero.

8. Use quantifiers and predicates with more than one variable to express, “There is a pupil
in this lecture who has taken at least one course in Discrete Maths.”
a) ∃x∃yP (x, y), where P (x, y) is “x has taken y,” the domain for x consists of all pupil in this
class, and the domain for y consists of all Discrete Maths lectures
b) ∃x∃yP (x, y), where P (x, y) is “x has taken y,” the domain for x consists of all Discrete
Maths lectures, and the domain for y consists of all pupil in this class
c) ∀x∀yP(x, y), where P (x, y) is “x has taken y,” the domain for x consists of all pupil in this
class, and the domain for y consists of all Discrete Maths lectures
d) ∃x∀yP(x, y), where P (x, y) is “x has taken y,” the domain for x consists of all pupil in this
class, and the domain for y consists of all Discrete Maths lectures
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: For some x pupil, there exists a course in Discrete Maths such that x has taken
y.

9. Determine the truth value of ∃n∃m(n + m = 5 ∧ n − m = 2) if the domain for all variables
consists of all integers.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The equation does not satisfy any value of m and n in the domain consist of
integers.

10. Find a counterexample of ∀x∀y(xy > y), where the domain for all variables consists of all
integers.
a) x = -1, y = 17
b) x = -2 y = 8
c) Both x = -1, y = 17 and x = -2 y = 8
d) Does not have any counter example
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Putting x=-1, y=17; -17>17 which is wrong. Putting x=-2, y=8; -16>8 which is
wrong.

1. Which rule of inference is used in each of these arguments, “If it is Wednesday, then the
Smartmart will be crowded. It is Wednesday. Thus, the Smartmart is crowded.”
a) Modus tollens
b) Modus ponens
c) Disjunctive syllogism
d) Simplification
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: (M ∧ (M → N)) → N is Modus ponens.

2. Which rule of inference is used in each of these arguments, “If it hailstoday, the local
office will be closed. The local office is not closed today. Thus, it did not hailed today.”
a) Modus tollens
b) Conjunction
c) Hypothetical syllogism
d) Simplification
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: (¬N ∧ (M → N)) → ¬M is Modus tollens.

3. Which rule of inference is used, ”Bhavika will work in an enterprise this summer.
Therefore, this summer Bhavika will work in an enterprise or he will go to beach.”
a) Simplification
b) Conjunction
c) Addition
d) Disjunctive syllogism
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: p → (p ∨ q) argument is ‘Addition’.

4. What rule of inference is used here?

“It is cloudy and drizzling now. Therefore, it is cloudy now.”
a) Addition
b) Simplification
c) Resolution
d) Conjunction
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: (p ∧ q) → p argument is Simplification.

5. What rule of inference is used in this argument?

“If I go for a balanced diet, then I will be fit. If I will be fit, then I will remain healthy.
Therefore, if I go for a balanced diet, then I will remain healthy.”
a) Modus tollens
b) Modus ponens
c) Disjunctive syllogism
d) Hypothetical syllogism
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: ((p → q) ∧ (q → r)) → (p → r) argument is ‘Hypothetical syllogism’.

6. What rules of inference are used in this argument?

“All students in this science class has taken a course in physics” and “Marry is a student in
this class” imply the conclusion “Marry has taken a course in physics.”
a) Universal instantiation
b) Universal generalization
c) Existential instantiation
d) Existential generalization
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: ∀xP (x), ∴ P (c) Universal instantiation.

7. What rules of inference are used in this argument?

“It is either colder than Himalaya today or the pollution is harmful. It is hotter than
Himalaya today. Therefore, the pollution is harmful.”
a) Conjunction
b) Modus ponens
c) Disjunctive syllogism
d) Hypothetical syllogism
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: ((p ∨ q) ∧ ¬p) → q argument is Disjunctive syllogism.

8. The premises (p ∧ q) ∨ r and r → s implies which of the conclusion?

a) p ∨ r
b) p ∨ s
c) q ∨ s
d) q ∨ r
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The premises (p ∧ q) ∨ r as two clauses, p ∨ r and q ∨ r. We can also replace r
→ s by the equivalent clause ¬r ∨ s. using the two clauses p ∨ r and ¬r ∨ s, we can use
resolution to conclude p ∨ s.

9. What rules of inference are used in this argument?

“Jay is an awesome student. Jay is also a good dancer. Therefore, Jay is an awesome
student and a good dancer.”
a) Conjunction
b) Modus ponens
c) Disjunctive syllogism
d) Simplification
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: ((p) ∧ (q)) → (p ∧ q) argument is conjunction.

10. “Parul is out for a trip or it is not snowing” and “It is snowing or Raju is playing chess”
imply that __________
a) Parul is out for trip
b) Raju is playing chess
c) Parul is out for a trip and Raju is playing chess
d) Parul is out for a trip or Raju is playing chess
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Let p be “It is snowing,” q be “Parul is out for a trip,” and r the proposition
“Raju is playing chess.” The hypotheses as ¬p ∨ q and p ∨ r, respectively. Using resolution,
the proposition q ∨ r is, “Parul is out for a trip or Raju is playing chess.”

1. Let the statement be “If n is not an odd integer then square of n is not odd.”, then if P(n)
is “n is an not an odd integer” and Q(n) is “(square of n) is not odd.” For direct proof we
should prove _________
a) ∀nP ((n) → Q(n))
b) ∃ nP ((n) → Q(n))
c) ∀n~(P ((n)) → Q(n))
d) ∀nP ((n) → ~(Q(n)))
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Definition of direct proof.

2. Which of the following can only be used in disproving the statements?

a) Direct proof
b) Contrapositive proofs
c) Counter Example
d) Mathematical Induction
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Counter examples cannot be used to prove results.

3. Let the statement be “If n is not an odd integer then sum of n with some not odd number
will not be odd.”, then if P(n) is “n is an not an odd integer” and Q(n) is “sum of n with some
not odd number will not be odd.” A proof by contraposition will be ________
a) ∀nP ((n) → Q(n))
b) ∃ nP ((n) → Q(n))
c) ∀n~(P ((n)) → Q(n))
d) ∀n(~Q ((n)) → ~(P(n)))
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Definition of proof by contraposition.

4. When to proof P→Q true, we proof P false, that type of proof is known as ___________
a) Direct proof
b) Contrapositive proofs
c) Vacuous proof
d) Mathematical Induction
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Definition of vacuous proof.

5. In proving √5 as irrational, we begin with assumption √5 is rational in which type of

proof?
a) Direct proof
b) Proof by Contradiction
c) Vacuous proof
d) Mathematical Induction
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Definition of proof by contradiction.

6. A proof covering all the possible cases, such type of proofs are known as ___________
a) Direct proof
b) Proof by Contradiction
c) Vacuous proof
d) Exhaustive proof
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Definition of exhaustive proof.

7. Which of the arguments is not valid in proving sum of two odd number is not odd.
a) 3 + 3 = 6, hence true for all
b) 2n +1 + 2m +1 = 2(n+m+1) hence true for all
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Some examples are not valid in proving results.

8. A proof broken into distinct cases, where these cases cover all prospects, such proofs are
known as ___________
a) Direct proof
b) Contrapositive proofs
c) Vacuous proof
d) Proof by cases
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Definition of proof by cases.

9. A proof that p → q is true based on the fact that q is true, such proofs are known as
___________
a) Direct proof
b) Contrapositive proofs
c) Trivial proof
d) Proof by cases
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Definition of trivial proof.

10. A theorem used to prove other theorems is known as _______________

a) Lemma
b) Corollary
c) Conjecture
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Definition of lemma.

1. {x: x is an integer neither positive nor negative} is ________

a) Empty set
b) Non-empty set
c) Finite set
d) Non- empty and Finite set
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Set = {0} non-empty and finite set.

2. {x: x is a real number between 1 and 2} is an ________

a) Infinite set
b) Finite set
c) Empty set
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: It is an infinite set as there are infinitely many real number between any two
different real numbers.

3. Write set {1, 5, 15, 25,…} in set-builder form.

a) {x: either x=1 or x=5n, where n is a real number}
b) {x: either x=1 or x=5n, where n is a integer}
c) {x: either x=1 or x=5n, where n is an odd natural number}
d) {x: x=5n, where n is a natural number}
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Set should include 1 or an odd multiple of 5.

4. Express {x: x= n/ (n+1), n is a natural number less than 7} in roster form.

a) {1⁄2, 2⁄3, 4⁄5, 6⁄7}
b) {1⁄2, 2⁄3, 3⁄4, 4⁄5, 5⁄6, 6⁄7, 7⁄8}
c) {1⁄2, 2⁄3, 3⁄4, 4⁄5, 5⁄6, 6⁄7}
d) Infinite set
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: n/(n+1) = 1/(1+1) = 1⁄2 and n>7.
5. Number of power set of {a, b}, where a and b are distinct elements.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 2
d) 5
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Power set of {a, b} = {∅, {a, b}, {a}, {b}}.

6. Which of the following is subset of set {1, 2, 3, 4}?

a) {1, 2}
b) {1, 2, 3}
c) {1}
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: There are total 16 subsets.

7. A = {∅,{∅},2,{2,∅},3}, which of the following is true?

a) {{∅,{∅}} ∈ A
b) {2} ∈ A
c) ∅ ⊂ A
d) 3 ⊂ A
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Empty set is a subset of every set.

8. Subset of the set A= { } is?

a) A
b) {}
c) ∅
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Every set is subset of itself and Empty set is subset of each set.

9. {x: x ∈ N and x is prime} then it is ________

a) Infinite set
b) Finite set
c) Empty set
d) Not a set
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: There is no extreme prime, number of primes is infinite.

10. Convert set {x: x is a positive prime number which divides 72} in roster form.
a) {2, 3, 5}
b) {2, 3, 6}
c) {2, 3}
d) {∅}
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: 2 and 3 are the divisors of 72 which are prime.

1. A __________ is an ordered collection of objects.

a) Relation
b) Function
c) Set
d) Proposition
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: By the definition of set.

2. The set O of odd positive integers less than 10 can be expressed by _____________
a) {1, 2, 3}
b) {1, 3, 5, 7, 9}
c) {1, 2, 5, 9}
d) {1, 5, 7, 9, 11}
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Odd numbers less than 10 is {1, 3, 5, 7, 9}.

3. Power set of empty set has exactly _________ subset.

a) One
b) Two
c) Zero
d) Three
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Power set of null set has exactly one subset which is empty set.

4. What is the Cartesian product of A = {1, 2} and B = {a, b}?

a) {(1, a), (1, b), (2, a), (b, b)}
b) {(1, 1), (2, 2), (a, a), (b, b)}
c) {(1, a), (2, a), (1, b), (2, b)}
d) {(1, 1), (a, a), (2, a), (1, b)}
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A subset R of the Cartesian product A x B is a relation from the set A to the set
B.

5. The Cartesian Product B x A is equal to the Cartesian product A x B.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Let A = {1, 2} and B = {a, b}. The Cartesian product A x B = {(1, a), (1, b), (2, a),
(2, b)} and the Cartesian product B x A = {(a, 1), (a, 2), (b, 1), (b, 2)}. This is not equal to A x B.

6. What is the cardinality of the set of odd positive integers less than 10?
a) 10
b) 5
c) 3
d) 20
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Set S of odd positive an odd integer less than 10 is {1, 3, 5, 7, 9}. Then,
Cardinality of set S = |S| which is 5.

7. Which of the following two sets are equal?

a) A = {1, 2} and B = {1}
b) A = {1, 2} and B = {1, 2, 3}
c) A = {1, 2, 3} and B = {2, 1, 3}
d) A = {1, 2, 4} and B = {1, 2, 3}
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Two set are equal if and only if they have the same elements.

8. The set of positive integers is _____________

a) Infinite
b) Finite
c) Subset
d) Empty
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The set of positive integers is not finite.

9. What is the Cardinality of the Power set of the set {0, 1, 2}?
a) 8
b) 6
c) 7
d) 9
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Power set P ({0, 1, 2}) is the set of all subsets of {0, 1, 2}. Hence, P({0, 1, 2}) =
{null, {0}, {1}, {2}, {0, 1}, {0,2}, {1, 2}, {0, 1, 2}}.

10. The members of the set S = {x | x is the square of an integer and x < 100} is
________________
a) {0, 2, 4, 5, 9, 58, 49, 56, 99, 12}
b) {0, 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, 64, 81}
c) {1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 64, 81, 85, 99}
d) {0, 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, 64, 121}
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The set S consists of the square of an integer less than 10.

The union of the sets {1, 2, 5} and {1, 2, 6} is the set _______________
a) {1, 2, 6, 1}
b) {1, 2, 5, 6}
c) {1, 2, 1, 2}
d) {1, 5, 6, 3}
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The union of the sets A and B, is the set that contains those elements that are
either in A or in B.

2. The intersection of the sets {1, 2, 5} and {1, 2, 6} is the set _____________
a) {1, 2}
b) {5, 6}
c) {2, 5}
d) {1, 6}
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The intersection of the sets A and B, is the set containing those elements that
are in both A and B.

3. Two sets are called disjoint if there _____________ is the empty set.
a) Union
b) Difference
c) Intersection
d) Complement
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: By the definition of the disjoint set.

4. Which of the following two sets are disjoint?

a) {1, 3, 5} and {1, 3, 6}
b) {1, 2, 3} and {1, 2, 3}
c) {1, 3, 5} and {2, 3, 4}
d) {1, 3, 5} and {2, 4, 6}
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Two sets are disjoint if the intersection of two sets is the empty set.
5. The difference of {1, 2, 3} and {1, 2, 5} is the set ____________
a) {1}
b) {5}
c) {3}
d) {2}
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The difference of the sets A and B denoted by A-B, is the set containing those
elements that are in A not in B.

6. The complement of the set A is _____________

a) A – B
b) U – A
c) A – U
d) B – A
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The complement of the set A is the complement of A with respect to U.

7. The bit string for the set {2, 4, 6, 8, 10} (with universal set of natural numbers less than or
equal to 10) is ____________________
a) 0101010101
b) 1010101010
c) 1010010101
d) 0010010101
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The bit string for the set has a one bit in second, fourth, sixth, eighth, tenth
positions, and a zero elsewhere.

8. Let Ai = {i, i+1, i+2, …..}. Then set {n, n+1, n+2, n+3, …..} is the _________ of the set Ai.
a) Union
b) Intersection
c) Set Difference
d) Disjoint
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: By the definition of the generalized intersection of the set.

9. The bit strings for the sets are 1111100000 and 1010101010. The union of these sets is
___________
a) 1010100000
b) 1010101101
c) 1111111100
d) 1111101010
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The bit string for the union is the bitwise OR of the bit strings.

10. The set difference of the set A with null set is __________
a) A
b) null
c) U
d) B
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The set difference of the set A by the null set denoted by A – {null} is A.

1. Let the set A is {1, 2, 3} and B is {2, 3, 4}. Then the number of elements in A U B is?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: AUB is {1, 2, 3, 4}.

2. Let the set A is {1, 2, 3} and B is { 2, 3, 4}. Then number of elements in A ∩ B is?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A ∩ B is {2, 3}.

3. Let the set A is {1, 2, 3} and B is {2, 3, 4}. Then the set A – B is?
a) {1, -4}
b) {1, 2, 3}
c) {1}
d) {2, 3}
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In A – B the common elements get cancelled.

4. In which of the following sets A – B is equal to B – A?

a) A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {2, 3, 4}
b) A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {1, 2, 3, 4}
c) A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {2, 3, 1}
d) A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}, B = {2, 3, 4, 5, 1}
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A- B= B-A = Empty set.

5. Let A be set of all prime numbers, B be the set of all even prime numbers, C be the set of
all odd prime numbers, then which of the following is true?
a) A ≡ B U C
b) B is a singleton set.
c) A ≡ C U {2}
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: 2 is the only even prime number.

6. If A has 4 elements B has 8 elements then the minimum and maximum number of
elements in A U B are ____________
a) 4, 8
b) 8, 12
c) 4, 12
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Minimum would be when 4 elements are same as in 8, maximum would be
when all are distinct.

7. If A is {{Φ}, {Φ, {Φ}}}, then the power set of A has how many element?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The set A has got 2 elements so n(P(A))=4.

8. Two sets A and B contains a and b elements respectively. If power set of A contains 16
more elements than that of B, value of ‘b’ and ‘a’ are _______
a) 4, 5
b) 6, 7
c) 2, 3
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: 32-16=16, hence a=5, b=4.

9. Let A be {1, 2, 3, 4}, U be set of all natural numbers, then U-A’(complement of A) is given
by set.
a) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, ….}
b) {5, 6, 7, 8, 9, ……}
c) {1, 2, 3, 4}
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: U – A’ ≡ A.

10. Which sets are not empty?

a) {x: x is a even prime greater than 3}
b) {x : x is a multiple of 2 and is odd}
c) {x: x is an even number and x+3 is even}
d) { x: x is a prime number less than 5 and is odd}
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Because the set is {3}.

1. The shaded area of figure is best described by?

a) A ∩ B
b) A U B
c) A
d) B
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The region is A intersection B.

2. The shaded area of figure is best described by?

a) A‘ (Complement of A)
b) A U B -B
c) A ∩ B
d) B
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The region is complement of B.

3. If n(A)=20 and n(B)=30 and n(A U B) = 40 then n(A ∩ B) is?

a) 20
b) 30
c) 40
d) 10
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: n(A U B) = n(A) + n(B) – n(A ∩ B).

4. The shaded area of figure is best described by?

a) A‘ (Complement of A)
b) B – (A ∩ B) – (C ∩ B)
c) A ∩ C ∩ B
d) B’ (Complement of B)
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The region is difference B with A and C.

5. The relation between sets A, B, C as shown by venn diagram is __________

a) A is subset of B and B is subset of C
b) C is not a subset of A and A is subset of B
c) C is subset of B and B is subset of A
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: As set C is totally inside set B, set B is totally inside set A.

6. Let A: All badminton player are good sportsperson.

B: All person who plays cricket are good sportsperson.
Let X denotes set of all badminton players, Y of all cricket players, Z of all good
sportsperson. Then which of the following statements is correct?
a) Z contains both X and Y
b) Z contains X and Y is outside
c) X contains Y and Z
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: X and Y are subset of Z.
7. If n(A)=10, n(B)=30,n(C)=50 and if set A, B, C are pairwise disjoint then which of the
following is correct?
a) n(A U B)=0
b) n(B U C)=0
c) n(A U B U C)=90
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: All the statements are true based on definition.

8. In the given figure the if n(A)=20,n(U)=50,n(C)=10 and n(A ∩B)=5 then n(B)=?

a) 35
b) 20
c) 30
d) 10
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Here n(B)= n(U) – n(A) + n(A∩B).

9. Let the students who likes table tennis be 12, the ones who like lawn tennis 10, those
who like only table tennis are 6, then number of students who likes only lawn tennis are,
assuming there are total of 16 students.
a) 16
b) 8
c) 4
d) 10
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The students who only plays lawn tennis will be a total lawn tennis player –
those who play both the sports.
10. The shaded area of figure is best described by?

a) A‘ (Complement of A)
b) A U B – (A ∩ B)
c) A – B
d) B
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The region is complement of( A intersection B).

1. Let C and D be two sets then which of the following statements are true?

i) C U D = D U C ii) C ∩ D = D ∩ C

a) Both of the statements

b) Only i statement
c) Only ii statement
d) None of the statements
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Commutative laws hold good in sets.

2. If set C is {1, 2, 3, 4} and C – D = Φ then set D can be ___________

a) {1, 2, 4, 5}
b) {1, 2, 3}
c) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: C ∩ D should be equivalent to C for C – D = Φ.

3. Let C and D be two sets then C – D is equivalent to __________

a) C’ ∩ D
b) C‘∩ D’
c) C ∩ D’
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Set C-D will be having those elements which are in C but not in D.

4. For two sets C and D the set (C – D) ∩ D will be __________

a) C
b) D
c) Φ
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: C-D ≡ C ∩ D’, D ∩ D’ ≡ Φ.

5. Which of the following statement regarding sets is false?

a) A ∩ A = A
b) A U A = A
c) A – (B ∩ C) = (A – B) U (A –C)
d) (A U B)’ = A’ U B’
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: (A U B)’ = A’ ∩ B’.

6. Let C = {1,2,3,4} and D = {1, 2, 3, 4} then which of the following hold not true in this case?
a) C – D = D – C
b) C U D = C ∩ D
c) C ∩ D = C – D
d) C – D = Φ
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: C ∩ D = {1, 2, 3, 4} ≠ Φ.

7. If C’ U (D ∩ E’) is equivalent to __________

a) (C ∩ (D U E))’
b) (C ∩( D∩ E’))’
c) (C ∩( D’ U E))’
d) (C U ( D ∩ E’)’
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: (C’)’≡ C, (C∩ D)’ ≡ C’ U D’.

8. Let Universal set U is {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}, (Complement of A) A’ is {2, 5, 6, 7}, A ∩ B is {1,

3, 4} then the set B’ will surely have of which of the element?
a) 8
b) 7
c) 1
d) 3
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The set A is {1,3,4,8} and thus surely B does not have 8 in it. Since 8 does not
belong to A ∩ B. For other element like 7 we can’t be sure.

9. Let a set be A then A ∩ φ and A U φ are __________

a) φ, φ
b) φ, A
c) A, φ
d)None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: By Domination Laws on sets.

10. If in sets A, B, C, the set B ∩ C consists of 8 elements, set A ∩ B consists of 7 elements

and set C ∩ A consists of 7 elements then the minimum element in set A U B U C will be?
a) 8
b) 14
c) 22
d) 15
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: For minimum elements set B and C have 8 elements each and all of the
elements are same, Also set A should have 7 elements which are already present in B and
C. Thus A U B U C ≡ A ≡ B.

1. Let set A = {1, 2} and C be {3, 4} then A X B (Cartesian product of set A and B) is?
a) {1, 2, 3, 4}
b) {(1, 3),(2, 4)}
c) {(1, 3), (2, 4), (1, 4), (2, 3)}
d) {(3, 1), (4, 1)}
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In set A X B : {(c , d) |c ∈ A and d ∈ B}.

2. If set A has 4 elements and B has 3 elements then set n(A X B) is?
a) 12
b) 14
c) 24
d) 7
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The total elements in n(A X B) = n(A) * n(B).

3. If set A has 3 elements then number of elements in A X A X A are __________

a) 9
b) 27
c) 6
d) 19
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: n(A X A X A) = n(A)* n(A)* n(A).

4. Which of the following statements regarding sets is false?

a) A X B = B X A
b) A X B ≠ B X A
c) n(A X B) = n(A) * n(B)
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The Cartesian product of sets is not commutative.

5. If n(A X B) = n(B X A) = 36 then which of the following may hold true?

a) n(A)=2, n(B)=18
b) n(A)=9, n(B)=4
c) n(A)=6, n(b)=6
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: n(A) should be equal to n(B) for n(A X B) = n(B x A).

6. If C = {1} then C X (C X C) = (C X C) X C the given statement is true or false.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The Cartesian product is not associative, (C × C) × C = { ((1, 1), 1) } ≠ { (1,(1, 1)) }
= C × (C × C).

7. Let the sets be A, B, C, D then (A ∩ B) X (C ∩ D) is equivalent to __________

a) (A X C) ∩ (B X D)
b) (A X D) U (B X C)
c) (A X C) U ( B X D)
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: (A ∩ B) X (C ∩ D) = (A X C) ∩ (B X D) but in case of unions this is not true.

8. If A ⊆ B then A X C ⊆ B X C the given statement is true or false.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Let an arbitrary element x ∈ A and y ∈ C, then x ∈ B (subset property), (x,y) ∈
AX C also (x,y) ∈ B X C. This implies A X C ⊆ B X C.

9. If set A and B have 3 and 4 elements respectively then the number of subsets of set (A X
B) is?
a) 1024
b) 2048
c) 512
d) 4096
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The A X B has 12 elements, then the number of the subset are 2 12 = 4096.

10. If set A X B=B X A then which of the following sets may satisfy?
a) A={1, 2, 3}, B={1, 2, 3, 4}
b) A={1, 2}, B={2, 1}
c) A={1, 2, 3}, B={2, 3, 4}
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: For set A X B = B X A, this is possible only when set A = B.

1. If a set contains 3 elements then the number of subsets is?

a) 6
b) 3
c) 12
d) 8
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: For elements with n elements the number of subsets are 2n.

2. The set containing all the collection of subsets is known as _________

a) Subset
b) Power set
c) Union set
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Power set contains all the subsets as its elements.

3. If a set is empty then number of subsets will be _________

a) 1
b) 2
c) 0
d) 4
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The set has zero elements so 2o = 1.

4. If the number of subsets of a set are 4 then the number of elements in that sets are
_________
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The number of elements be x then x2 = 4 thus x=2.

5. The number of subsets of a set is 5.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The number of subsets will always be a power of 2.

6. The number of subsets of a set can be odd or even.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The number of subsets will be odd in case of empty set otherwise even.

7. Let a set be A={1, 2, 3} then the number of subsets containing two elements will be
_________
a) 4
b) 3
c) 5
d) 8
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The subsets will be {1, 2}, {2, 3}, {1, 3}.

8. Let the set be A= {a, b, c, {a,b}} then which of the following is false?
a) {a, b} Є A
b) a Є A
c) {a} Є A
d) b, c ЄA
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Only elements belongs to a set, {a} is a subset of this set.

9. If A={1, 2, 3, 4}, then the number of the subsets of A that contain the element 2 but not 3,
is?
a) 16
b) 4
c) 8
d) 24
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The subsets would be {1, 2, 4},{1, 2}, {2, 3}, {2}.

10. Let A(1), A(2), A(3),…….., A(100) be 100 sets such that number of elements in A(i)=i+1 and
A(1) is subset of A(2), A(2)is subset of A(3),….., A(99) is subset of A(100). The number of
elements in union of the all the sets are: n(A(1) U A(2) U A(3) …..U A(100)).
a) 99
b) 100
c) 101
d) 102
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Since all sets are subsets of A(100) therefore in union only elements of
A(100)will come.A(100) contains 101 elements.

A function is said to be ______________ if and only if f(a) = f(b) implies that a = b for all a and b
in the domain of f.
a) One-to-many
b) One-to-one
c) Many-to-many
d) Many-to-one
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A function is one-to-one if and only if f(a)≠f(b) whenever a≠b.

2. The function f(x)=x+1 from the set of integers to itself is onto. Is it True or False?
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: For every integer “y” there is an integer “x ” such that f(x) = y.
3. The value of ⌊1/2.⌊5/2⌋ ⌋ is ______________
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0.5
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The value of ⌊5/2⌋ is 2 so, the value of ⌊1/2.2⌋ is 1.

4. Which of the following function f: Z X Z → Z is not onto?

a) f(a, b) = a + b
b) f(a, b) = a
c) f(a, b) = |b|
d) f(a, b) = a – b
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The function is not onto as f(a)≠b.

5. The domain of the function that assign to each pair of integers the maximum of these
two integers is ___________
a) N
b) Z
c) Z +
d) Z+
X Z+
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The domain of the integers is Z+ X Z+.

6. Let f and g be the function from the set of integers to itself, defined by f(x) = 2x + 1 and
g(x) = 3x + 4. Then the composition of f and g is ____________
a) 6x + 9
b) 6x + 7
c) 6x + 6
d) 6x + 8
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The composition of f and g is given by f(g(x)) which is equal to 2(3x + 4) + 1.

7. __________ bytes are required to encode 2000 bits of data.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 8
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Two bytes are required to encode 2000 (actually with 2 bytes you can encode
up to and including 65,535.

8. The inverse of function f(x) = x3 + 2 is ____________

a) f -1 (y) = (y – 2) 1/2
b) f -1
(y) = (y – 2) 1/3
c) f -1
(y) = (y) 1/3
d) f -1
(y) = (y – 2)
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: To find the inverse of the function equate f(x) then find the value of x in terms
of y such that f -1 (y) = x.

9. The function f(x) = x3 is bijection from R to R. Is it True or False?

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The function f(x) = x3 is one to one as no two values in domain are assigned
the same value of the function and it is onto as all R of the co domain is images of elements
in the domain.

10. The g -1({0}) for the function g(x)= ⌊x⌋ is ___________

a) {x | 0 ≤ x < 1}
b) {x | 0 < x ≤ 1}
c) {x | 0 < x < 1}
d) {x | 0 ≤ x ≤ 1}
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: g({0}) for the function g(x) is {x | 0 ≤ x ≤ 1}. Put g(x) = y and find the value of x
in terms of y such that ⌊x⌋ = y.

1. If f(x) = (x3 – 1) / (3x + 1) then f(x) is?

a) O(x2)
b) O(x)
c) O(x2 / 3)
d) O(1)
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: 0 < (x3 – 1) / (3x + 1) < x2.

2. If f(x) = 3x2 + x3logx, then f(x) is?

a) O(x2)
b) O(x3)
c) O(x)
d) O(1)
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: 0 < 3x2 < x3, it follows that 0 < 3x2 + x3logx < x3. Consequently, f(x) = O(x3).

3. The big-O notation for f(n) = (nlogn + n2)(n3 + 2) is?

a) O(n2)
b) O(3n)
c) O(n4)
d) O(n5)
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: 0 < n3 + 2 < n3, it follows that (nlogn + n2)(n3 + 2) is less than equal to n5.

4. The big-theta notation for function f(n) = 2n3 + n – 1 is?

a) n
b) n2
c) n3
d) n4

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: 2n3 + n – 1 is less than equal to n3.

5. The big-theta notation for f(n) = nlog(n2 + 1) + n2logn is?

a) n2logn
b) n2
c) logn

)
d) nlog(n2

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: n2logn < n3, it follows that nlog(n2 + 1) + n2logn is less than n3 and greater than
n2logn.

5. The big-omega notation for f(x, y) = x5y3 + x4y4 + x3y5 is?

a) x5y3
y
b) x5 5

y
c) x3 3

y
d) x4 4

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: x5y3, x4y4 and x3y5 is greater than or equal to x3y3.

6. If f1(x) is O(g(x)) and f2(x) is o(g(x)), then f1(x) + f2(x) is?

a) O(g(x))
b) o(g(x))
c) O(g(x)) + o(g(x))
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: f2(x) is less than O(g(x)). So, f1(x) + f2(x) upper bound is O(g(x)).

7. The little-o notation for f(x) = xlogx is?

a) x
b) x3
c) x2
d) xlogx

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Find the limit for xlogx / x2 as x tends to infinity.

8. The big-O notation for f(n) = 2log(n!) + (n2 + 1)logn is?

a) n
b) n2
c) nlogn

logn
d) n2

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: log(n!) < n2logn, it follows that 2log(n!) + (n2 + 1)logn is less than or equal
n2logn.

9. The big-O notation for f(x) = 5logx is?

a) 1
b) x
c) x2
d) x3

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: logx < x, it follows that 5logx < x.

10. The big-Omega notation for f(x) = 2x4 + x2 – 4 is?

a) x2
b) x3

c) x

d) x4

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: 2x4 + x2 – 4 is greater than or equal to x4.

1. What is the domain of a function?

a) the maximal set of numbers for which a function is defined
b) the maximal set of numbers which a function can take values
c) it is a set of natural numbers for which a function is defined
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Domain is the set of all the numbers on which a function is defined. It may be
real as well.

2. What is domain of function f(x)= x1/2?

a) (2, ∞)
b) (-∞, 1)
c) [0, ∞)
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A square root function is not defined for negative real numbers.

3. What is the range of a function?

a) the maximal set of numbers for which a function is defined
b) the maximal set of numbers which a function can take values
c) it is set of natural numbers for which a function is defined
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Range is the set of all values which a function may take.

4. What is domain of function f(x) = x-1 for it to be defined everywhere on domain?

a) (2, ∞)
b) (-∞, ∞) – {0}
c) [0, ∞)
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Function x-1 is not defined for x=0, otherwise it defined for every real number.

5. The range of function f(x) = sin(x) is (-∞, ∞).

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A sine function takes values between -1 and 1,thus range is [-1, 1].

6. Codomain is the subset of range.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Range is the subset of codomain, that is every value in the range is in
codomain but vice-versa it is not true.

7. What is range of function f(x) = x-1 which is defined everywhere on its domain?
a) (-∞, ∞)
b) (-∞, ∞) – {0}
c) [0, ∞)
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Function x-1 may take any real number hence it’s range is all real numbers.

8. If f(x) = 2x then range of the function is?

a) (-∞, ∞)
b) (-∞, ∞) – {0}
c) (0, ∞)
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The function cannot take negative values,hence range is (0, ∞).

9. If f(x) = x2 + 4 then range of f(x) is given by?

a) [4, ∞)
b) (-∞, ∞) – {0}
c) (0, ∞)
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Since minimum value of x2 is 0, thus x2 +4 may take any value between [4,∞).

10. Let f(x)=sin2(x) + log(x) then domain of f(x) is (-∞, ∞).

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Domain is (0, ∞), since log(x) is not defined for negative numbers and zero.
1. An injection is a function which is?
a) many-one
b) one-one
c) onto
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: One-One functions are also known as injection.

2. A mapping f : X → Y is one one if __________

a) f(x1) ≠ f(x2) for all x1, x2 in X
b) If f(x1) = f(x2) then x1 = x2 for all x1, x2 in X
c) f(x1) = f(x2) for all x1, x2 in X
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In one one function every element in A should have unique image in B,thus if
two image are equal this means there preimages are same.

3. A function is defined by mapping f : A → B such that A contains m elements and B

contains n elements and m ≤ n then number of one one functions are _________
a) nCm x m!
b) nCm x n!
c) 0
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: From n elements in B we need to select m elements and then arrange them in
all ways, thus answer=nCm x m!.

4. A function is defined by mapping f : A -> B such that A contains m elements and B

contains n elements and m>n then number of one one functions are ________
a) nCm x m!
b) nCm x n!
c) 0
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Since for function to be defined every element should have a image, since m >
n atleast one element need to have same image, thus we can’t form any unique images
and hence the number of one one function are zero.

5. For an onto function range is equivalent to codomain.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Since in onto function every image should have preimage thus all the
elements in codomain should have preimages.

6. Onto function are known as injection.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Onto functions are known as surjection.

7. Set A has 3 elements and set B has 4 elements then number of injections defined from A
to B are?
a) 12
b) 24
c) 36
d) 48
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation:Injections will be 4C3 x 3!=24.

8. A function is defined by mapping f : A → B such that A contains m elements and B

contains n elements and 1≤n≤m then number of onto functions are ________
a) r=1∑r=n nCr (-1)n-r rm
r=1∑ Cr (-1)n-r rn
b) r=n n

r=1∑ Cr (-1)m-r rn
c) r=n n

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The number of onto function is equal tpo the coffecient of x m in m!(ex – 1)n.

9. A function is defined by mapping f:A→B such that A contains m elements and B contains
n elements and m > n then number of bijections are ________
a) nCm x m!
b) nCm x n!
c) 0
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Since we can’t define any one one function in such case so number of
bujections will be zero.

10. A bijection is a function which is many-one and onto.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A bijection is a function which is one-one(injection) and onto(surjection).

. A floor function map a real number to ___________

a) smallest previous integer
b) greatest previous integer
c) smallest following integer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Floor function f(x) is the largest integer not greater than x.

2. A ceil function map a real number to __________

a) smallest previous integer
b) greatest previous integer
c) smallest following integer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Ceil function f(x) is the smallest integer not less than x.

3. A function f(x) is defined as f(x) = x – [x], where [.] represents GIF then __________
a) f(x) will be intergral part of x
b) f(x) will be fractional part of x
c) f(x) will always be 0
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A integral part of a number is subtracted from that number we are left with
the fractional part of that number.

4. Floor(2.4) + Ceil(2.9) is equal to __________

a) 4
b) 6
c) 5
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Floor(2.4) = 2, Ceil(2.9) = 3, 2 + 3 = 5.

5. For some integer n such that x < n < x + 1, ceil(x) < n.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: If x < n < x + 1 then ceil(x) = n.

6. For some number x, Floor(x) <= x <= Ceil(x).

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Floor function f(x) is the largest integer not greater than x and ceil function f(x)
is the smallest integer not less than x.

7. If x, and y are positive numbers both are less than one, then maximum value of floor(x +
y) is?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) -1
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Since x < 1 and y < 1 this implies x + y < 2 which means maximium value of
floor(x + y) is 1.
8. If x, and y are positive numbers both are less than one, then maximum value of ceil(x + y)
is?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) -1
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Since x < 1 and y < 1 this implies x + y < 2 which means maximum value of
ceil(x + y) is 2.

9. If X = Floor(X) = Ceil(X) then __________

a) X is a fractional number
b) X is a Integer
c) X is less than 1
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Only in case of integers X = Floor(X) = Ceil(X) holds good.

10. Let n be some integer greater than 1,then floor((n-1)/n) is 1.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Since (n-1)/n will always be less than one thus f floor((n-1)/n) is 0.

1. For an inverse to exist it is necessary that a function should be __________

a) injection
b) bijection
c) surjection
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Inverse exist only for those functions which are one one and onto.

2. If f(x) = y then f-1(y) is equal to __________

a) y
b) x
c) x2
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: On giving inverse, image the function returns preimage thus f -1 (y) = x.

3. A function f(x) is defined from A to B then f -1 is defined __________

a) from A to B
b) from B to A
c) depends on the inverse of function
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Inverse associate each element in B with corresponding element in A.

4. If f is a function defined from R to R, is given by f(x) = 3x – 5 then f –1(x) is given by

__________
a) 1/(3x-5)
b) (x+5)/3
c) does not exist since it is not a bijection
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: y = 3x-5, x = (y+5)/3, f -1(x) = (x+5)/3.

5. For some bijective function inverse of that function is not bijective.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: If f(x) is a bijection than f -1(x) is also a bijection.

6. f(x) is a bijection than f -1(x) is a mirror image of f(x) around y = x.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Inverse of a function is the mirror image of function in line y = x.

7. If f is a function defined from R to R, is given by f(x) = x2 then f -1(x) is given by?

a) 1/(3x-5)
b) (x+5)/3
c) does not exist since it is not a bijection
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: It is not a one one function hence Inverse does not exist.

8. For any function fof -1(x) is equal to?

a) x
b) 1
c) x2
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation:Compostion of a function with its inverse gives x.

9. The solution to f(x) = f -1(x) are __________

a) no solutions in any case
b) same as solution to f(x) = x
c) infinite number of solution for every case
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Inverse of a function is the mirror image of function in line y = x.

10. Let f(x) = x then number of solution to f(x) = f -1(x) is zero.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Since inverse of a function is the mirror image of function in line y = x,
therefore in this case infinte solution will exist.

1. Let the sequence be 1, 3, 5, 7, 9……… then this sequence is ____________

a) An arithmetic sequence
b) A geometric progression
c) A harmonic sequence
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The difference in any term with the previous term is same.

2. In the given AP series find the number of terms?

5, 8, 11, 14, 17, 20.........50.

a) 11
b) 13
c) 15
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: nth term = first_term + (number_of_terms – 1)common_differnce., 50 = 5 + (n-
1)3, n=16.

3. In the given AP series the term at position 11 would be?

5, 8, 11, 14, 17, 20.........50.

a) 35
b) 45
c) 25
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: nth term = a + (n – 1)d, nth term = 5+(11-1)3 = 35.

4. For the given Arithmetic progression find the position of first negative term?

50, 47, 44, 41,............

a) 17
b) 20
c) 18
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Let nth term=0, the next term would be first negative term.
0 = 50 + (n-1) – 3, n = 17.66.. therfore at n = 18 the first negative term would occur.

5. For the given Arithmetic progression find the first negative term?

50, 47, 44, 41,............

a) -1
b) -2
c) -3
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Let nth term = 0, the next term would be first negative term.
0 = 50 +(n-1)- 3, n = 17.66.. therfore at n=18 the first negative term would occur. N th term =
50 + (18-1) – 3 = -1.

6. A series can either be AP only or GP only or HP only but not all at the same time.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: 1, 1, 1, 1, 1…….. is AP, GP and HP series.

7. In the given Arithmetic progression, ’25’ would be a term in it.

5, 8, 11, 14, 17, 20.........50.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: nth term = a + (n-1)d, 25 = 5 + (n-1)3, n = 23/3, n = 7.666 not an integer. Thus 25
is not a term in this series.

8. Which of the following sequeces in AP will have common difference 3, where n is an

Integer?
a) an = 2n2 + 3n
b) an = 2n2 + 3
c) an = 3n2 + 3n
d) an = 5 + 3n
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: an = 5 + 3n it is a linear expression with coefficient of as 3. So it is AP with
common difference 3.

9. If a, b, c are in AP then relation between a, b, c can be _________

a) 2b = 2a + 3c
b) 2a = b + c
c) 2b = a + c
d) 2c = a + c
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The term b should be the airthmetic mean of of term a and c.

10. Let the sum of the 3 consecutive terms in AP be 180 then midlle of those 3 terms would
be ________
a) 60
b) 80
c) 90
d) 179
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Let a1, b1, c1 be three terms, then a1 + b1 + c1 = 180, a1 + c1 = 2b1(A M property),
3b1 = 180, b1=60.

1. Let the sequence be 2, 8, 32, 128,……… then this sequence is _______________

a) An arithmetic sequence
b) A geometic progression
c) A harmonic sequence
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio of any term with previous term is same.

2. In the given Geometric progression find the number of terms.

32, 256, 2048, 16384,.........,250.

a) 11
b) 13
c) 15
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: nth term = first term(ration – 1)., 250 = 25(23(n-1)), n=15. This implies 16th term.

3. In the given Geometric progression the term at position 11 would be ___________

32, 256, 2048, 16384,.........,250.

a) 235
b) 245

c) 35

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: nth term = first term(ration – 1)., gn = 25(23(n-1)), n=11. This implies 235.

4. For the given Geometric progression find the position of first fractional term?

250, 247, 244,.........

a) 17
b) 20
c) 18
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Let nth term=1, the next term would be first fractional term.
Gn = 1 = 250(23(-n+1)), n=17.66.. therfore at n = 18 the first fractional term would occur.

5. For the given geometric progression find the first fractional term?

250, 247, 244,.........

a) 2-1
b) 2-2

c) 2-3

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Let nth term=1, the next term would be first fractional term.
Gn = 1 = 250( 2 3(-n+1)), n=17.66. Therefore at n=18 the first fractional term would occur. Gn =
250( 2 3(-n+1)), G18 = 2-1.

6. State whether the given statement is true or false.

1, 1, 1, 1, 1........ is a GP series.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The ratio of any term with previous term is same.

7. In the given Geometric progression, ‘225‘ would be a term in it.

32, 256, 2048, 16384,.........,250.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: nth term = first term(ration – 1)., gn = 225 = 25 (2 3(n-1)), n=23/3, n=7.666 not an integer.
Thus 225 is not a term in this series.

8. Which of the following sequeces in GP will have common ratio 3, where n is an Integer?
a) gn = 2n2 + 3n
b) gn = 2n2 + 3
c) gn = 3n2 + 3n
d) gn = 6(3n-1)
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: gn = 6( 3n-1) it is a geometric expression with coefficient of constant as 3n-1.So it is
GP with common ratio 3.

9. If a, b, c are in GP then relation between a, b, c can be ___________

a) 2b = 2a + 3c
b) 2a = b+c
c) b =(ac)1/2
d) 2c = a + c

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The term b should be the geometric mean of of term a and c.

10. Let the multiplication of the 3 consecutive terms in GP be 8 then midlle of those 3 terms
would be _______
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 179
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Let a, b, c be three terms, then a/r * a * ar = 8, b = (ac) 1/2 (G M property), b3 = 8,
b = 2.

1. Let A1, A2, be two AM’s and G1, G2 be two GM’s between a and b,then (A1 + A2) / G1G2 is
equal to _______
a) (a+b) / 2ab
b) 2ab/(a+b)
c) (a+b)/(ab)
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A1 + A2 = a + b, G1G2 = ab.

2. The series a,(a+b)/2, b is in _______

a) AP
b) GP
c) HP
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: (a+b)/2 is AM between a, b. Hence series is in AP.

3. The series a, (ab)1/2, b is in _______

a) AP
b) GP
c) HP
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: (ab)1/2 is GM between a, b. Hence series is in GP.

4. If A and G be the A.M and G.M between two positive number then the numbers are A +
(A2 – G2)1/2, A – (A2 – G2)1/2.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The equation having its roots as given equation is
x2 – 2Ax + G2 = 0 which implies
x = A + (A2 – G2)1/2, A – (A2 – G2)1/2.

5. If one geometric mean G and two airthmetic mean A1, A2 are inserted between two
numbers, then (2A1 – A2) (2A2 – A1) is equal to _______
a) 2G
b) G
c) G2
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Let a and b be two numbers then, G = (ab)1/2, A1 = (2a+b)/3, A2 = (a+2b)/3, (2A1 –
A2) = a, (2A2 – A1) = b, (2A1 – A2)(2A2 – A1) = G2.

6. State whether the given statement is true or false.

AM ≤ GM.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Airthmetic Mean is always greater or equal to the geometric mean.

7. If between two numbers which are root of given equation. x 2 – 18x + 16 = 0, a GM is

inserted then the value of that GM is?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 16
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: x2 – 2Ax + G2 = 0, here G2 = 16 and therefore G = 4.

8. If a1, a2, a3 are in airthemetic as well as geometric progression then which of the following
is/are correct?
a) 2a2 = a1 + a3
b) a2 = (a1a3)
1/2

2 – a1 = a3 -a2
c) a

d) All of the mentioned are correct

View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: a2 is AM, GM between a1, a3, also the series is in AP so common difference
should be same.

9. If a1, a2, a3 are in GP then 1/a1, 1/a2, 1/a3 are in ___________

a) AP
b) GP
c) HP
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Let the terms be ar, a, a/r then reciprocals are 1/(ar), 1/a, r/a. Still the terms
are in GP.

10. If a1, a2, a3…….. are in AP then if a7 = 15, then the value of common difference that would
make a2 a7 a12 greatest is?
a) 2
b) 0
c) 4
d) 9
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Let d be common difference of the AP. Then,
a2 a7 a12 = (15 – 5d)(15)(15 + 5d) = 375(9 – d2)
For maximum value

1. Let the sequence be 1×2, 3×22, 5×23, 7×24, 9×25……… then this sequence is _________
a) An arithmetic sequence
b) A geometic progression
c) Arithmetico-geometric progression
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: If a1, a2……… are in AP and b1, b2………. are in GP then a2b2, a2b2,……… are in AGP.

2. Let the sequence be 1×2, 3×22, 5×23, 7×24, 9×25……… then the next term of this AGP is
given by _________
a) 10×26
b) 10×27
c) 11×26
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Since here a1, a2……… are in AP and b1, b2………. are in GP then a2b2, a2b2,……… are
in AGP thus an = 11 and bn = 26.

3. The sum of the first n natural numbers is given by _________

a) n(n+1)/2
b) n(n-1)/2
c) n2(n+1)/2
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 +……n = (n/2)(1 + n) Since this is AP.

4. The sum of square of the first n natural numbers is given by _________

a) n(n+1)(2n+1)/6
b) n(n-1)/2(2n+1)
c) n2(n+1)(2n+1)/6
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: 12 + 22 + 32 + 42 +……n2 = n(1+n)(2n+1)/6.

5. The sum of cubes of the first n natural numbers is given by _________

a) {n(n+1)/2}2
b) {n(n-1)/2}2

c) {n2(n+1)/2}2

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: 13 + 23 + 33 + 43 +……+ n3 = {n(n+1)/2}2.

6. The series 1, 1, 1, 1, 1…….. is not an AGP.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Since 1, 1, 1, 1, 1…….. is in Ap and in Gp as well, Therefore the given sequence
is also an AGP.
7. If in an AGP the common ratio of GP is 1 then that sequence becomes an AP sequence.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In AGP sequence if r = 1, then terms are ab, (a+d)b, (a+2d)b…. and so on thus it
is AP with common differnce bd.

8. The sequence 1, 1, 1, 1, 1…. is?

a) Absolutely summable
b) Is not absolutely summable
c) Can’t say
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: For limit n tending to infinity the sum also tends to infinity and thus it is not
summable.

9. Which of the following is a Triangular number series?

a) 1, 3, 6, 9, 12, 15…..
b) 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, 21……
c) 1, 6, 12, 18, 24…..
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In triangular number sequence ith term is previous term+i, with first term as
1.

10. Which of the following is a fibonacci series?

a) 0, 1, 2, 3, 4…….
b) 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5……
c) 10, 12, 14, 16…….
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Fibonacci series is formed by adding previous two term starting from 0 and 1.

1. If a1, a2……… are in AP then a1-1, a2-1……… are in __________

a) An airthmetic sequence
b) A geometic progression
c) Airthmetico-geometric progression
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: If a1, a2……… are in AP, then a1-1, a2-1……… are in Harmonic Progression.

2. The ninth term of 1⁄3, 1⁄7, 1⁄11, 1⁄15, 1⁄19,……… is given by?
a) 1⁄35
b) ⁄36
1

c) ⁄39
1

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Since here a1-1, a2-1……… are in AP thus a9 = 3 + (9-1)4 = 35, 1⁄35 is h9 term of the
series.

3. If for some number a and d, if first term is 1⁄a, second term is 1/(a+d), thrid term is
1/(a+2d) and so on, then 5th term of the sequence is?
a) a+4d
b) a-4d
c) 1/(a+4d)
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The given sequence will form HP, thus 5th term will be (a+(5-1)d) – 1.

4. If a, b, c are in hp then a-1, b-1, c-1 are in _________

a) GP
b) HP
c) AP
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: If a1, a2……… are in AP then a1-1, a2-1……… are in Harmonic Progression.

5. If a, b, c are in hp, then b is related with a and c as _________

a) 2(1⁄b) = (1⁄a + 1⁄c)
b) 2(1⁄c) = (1⁄b + 1⁄c)
c) 2(1⁄a) = (1⁄a + 1⁄b)
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: 1⁄a, 1⁄b, 1⁄c willl be in airthmentic series and 1⁄b will be the AM of a, c.

6. For number A, C if H is harmonic mean, G is geometric mean then H>=G.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Geometric mean is always greater than or equal to the harmonic mean.

7. For number B, C if H is harmonic mean, A is the airthmetic mean then H>=A.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Airthmetic mean is always greater than or equal to harmonic mean.

8. Which of the following gives the right inequality for AM, GM, HM?
a) AM>=HM>=GM
b) GM>=AM>=HM
c) AM>=GM>=HM
d) GM>=HM>=AM
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Airthmetic mean is always greater than or equal to geometric mean,geometric
mean is always greater than or equal to harmonic mean.

9. For two number a,b HM between them is given by?

a) (2b+2a )/3b
b) 2ab/(a+b)
c) (a+b)/2ab
d) 2b/(a+b)
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Let c be the hm, 2⁄c = 1⁄a + 1⁄b (AM property), c = 2b/(a+b).

10. If A, G, H are the AM, GM, HM between a and b respectively then?

a) A, G, H are in hp
b) A, G, H are in gp
c) A, G, H are in ap
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A = (a+b)/2, G = (ab)1/2, H = 2b/(a+b), clearly AxH = G2 thus A, G, H are in gp

1. The cardinality of the set A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6} is?

a) 5
b) 6
c) Integer
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: 5, it is a number of elements in the sets.

2. For two equal sets there ___________

a) Cardinality is same
b) Cardinality is different
c) May be same or different
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Two equal sets should have the same number of elements.

3. If A is a subset of B then _______

a) The cardinality of A is greater than B
b) The cardinality of B is greater than A
c) Can’t say
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: B contains all the elements of A, as well as other elements.

4. If there is a bijection between two sets A and B then _______

a) Cardinality of A is greater than B
b) Cardinality of B is greater than A
c) Cardinality of B is equal to A
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If there is bijection then two sets A and B will be equinumerous and thus will
have same cardinality.

5. Let a set E ={0,2,4,6,8….} of non-negative even numbers and O = {1, 3, 5, 7, 9,…..} of non-
negative odd numbers then?
a) Cardinality of set E is greater than that of O
b) Cardinality of set O is greater than that of E
c) Cardinality of set E is equal to that of O
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: There is bijection then two sets E and O and they will be equinumerous and
thus will have same cardinality.

6. Cardinality of the set of lower letter english alphabets is 26.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: From a, b, c…z there will be 26 elements.

7. Cardinality of the set of even prime number under 10 is 4.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Since 2 is only even prime thus cardinality should be 1.

8. If for sets A and B there exists an injective function but not bijective function from A to B
then?
a) Cardinality of A is strictly greater than B
b) Cardinality of B is strictly greater than A
c) Cardinality of B is equal to A
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: If there doesnot exist a bijective function from A to B that means there are
some elements in B whose preimage is not in A, thus cardinality of B is strictly greater than
A.
9. If cardinality of (A U B) = cardinality of A+ cardinality of B. This means ____________
a) A is a subset of B
b) B is a subset of A
c) A and B are disjoint
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Thus if the cardinality of (A U B) = cardinality of A+ cardinality of B, it means
they don’t have any element in common, n(A∩B) = 0.

10. If A is a subset of B and B is a subset of C, then cardinality of A U B U C is equal to

____________
a) Cardinality of C
b) Cardinality of B
c) Cardinality of A
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A U B U C = C, since a, b are subsets to C.

1. If a matrix A = [A11 A12 ⋯ A1n A21 A2n ⋮ ⋮ An1 An2 ⋯ Ann], order(nxn) Aii = 1, Aij = 0 for i ≠ j. Then
that matrix is known as ________
a) Identity matrix
b) Null matrix
c) Singular matrix
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In unit matrix all diagonal elements are 1 and all other 0.

2. A symmetric matrix is a one in which?

a) All diagonal elements are zero
b) All diagonal elements are 1
c) A = AT
d) A = -AT

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: For symmetric matrices, matrix remains same even after transpose.
3. An anti-symmetric matrix is a one in which?
a) All diagonal elements are zero
b) All diagonal elements are 1
c) A = AT
d) A = -AT

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Foran anti-symmetric matrix, matrix changes it sign after transpose.

4. A matrix having one row and many columns is known as?

a) Row matrix
b) Column matrix
c) Diagonal matrix
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In row matrix there is only one row.

5. A matrix having many rows and one column is known as?

a) Row matrix
b) Column matrix
c) Diagonal matrix
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In column matrix there is only one column.

6. The trace of the matrix is defined as _______

a) Sum of all the elements of the matrix
b) Sum of all the elements of leading diagonal of matrix
c) Sum of all non-zero elements of matrix
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Trace is the sum of the elements of leading diagonal of matrix.

7. A square matrix A = [aij ]nxn, if aij = 0 for i > j then that matrix is known as _______
a) Upper triangular matrix
b) Lower triangular matrix
c) Unit matrix
d) Null matrix
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In upper triangular matrix A = [ aij ]nxn, if aij = 0 for i > j.

8. A square matrix A = [aij ]nxn, if aij = 0 for i < j then that matrix is known as _______
a) Upper triangular matrix
b) Lower triangular matrix
c) Unit matrix
d) Null matrix
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In lower triangular matrix A = [aij ]nxn, if aij = 0 for i < j.

9. Two matrix can be added if _______

a) rows of both the matrices are same
b) columns of both the matrices are same
c) both rows and columns of both the matrices are same
d) number of rows of first matrix should be equal to number of column of second
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Order of two matrices must be same.

10. For matrix A if AAT = I, I is identity matrix then A is?

a) Orthagonal matrix
b) Nilpotent matrix
c) Idempotent matrix
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: For orthagonal matrices AAT = I = AT A.

1. Let A and B be two matrices of same order, then state whether the given statement is
true or false.

A + B = B + A

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Matrix addition is commutative.

2. Let A and B be two matrices of same order, then state whether the given statement is
true or false.

AB = BA

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Matrix multiplication is not commutative.

3. Let A order(axb) and Border(cxd) be two matrices, then for AB to exist, correct relation is
given by?
a) a = d
b) b = c
c) a = b
d) c = d
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Matrix multiplication exists only when column of first matrix is same as rows
of second i.e b = c.

4. Let A order(axb) and Border(cxd) be two matrices, then if AB exists, the order of AB is?
a) axd
b) bxc
c) axb
d) cxd
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Matrix multiplication exists only when column of first matrix is same as rows
of second i.e b = c also resultant matrix will have number of rows equal to first matrix and
column equal to the second matrix.

5. Let A=[aij ] be an mxn matrix and k be a scalar then kA is equal to __________

a) [kaij ]mxn
b) [aij/k ]mxn

c) [k aij]mxn
2

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The scalar is multiplied with each of the element of matrix A.

6. The matrix multiplication is distrbutive over matrix addition.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: For matrix A, B, C, A(B+C) = AB + AC.

7. If for a square matrix A, A2 = A then such a matrix is known as _________

a) Idempotent matrix
b) Orthagonal matrix
c) Null matrix
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A sqaure matrix is called an Idempotent matrix, if A2 = A.

8. For matrix A, B.(A+B)T = AT + BT and (AB)T = ATBT if the orders of matrices are appropriate.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: (A+B)T = AT + BT is correct but (AB)T = BTAT(reversal law).

9. For matrix A, B if A – B = O, where O is a null matrix then?

a) A = O
b) B = O
c) A = B
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: If subtraction of B from A results in the null matrix this means that A is
equivalent to B.

10. All the diagonal elements of a skew-symmetric matrix is?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) Any integer
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Since for a skew symmetric matrix aij = -aij, this implies all diagonal elements
should be zero.

1. The determinant of identity matrix is?

a) 1
b) 0
c) Depends on the matrix
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In identity matrix aii = 1, and all other elements = 0, hence the determinant is
1.

2. If determinant of a matrix A is Zero than __________

a) A is a Singular matrix
b) A is a non-Singular matrix
c) Can’t say
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Determinant of singular matrices are zero.

3. For a skew symmetric even ordered matrix A of integers, which of the following will not
hold true?
a) det(A) = 9
b) det(A) = 81
c) det(A) = 7
d) det(A) = 4
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Determinant of a skew symmetric even ordered matrix A is a perfect square.

4. For a skew symmetric odd ordered matrix A of integers, which of the following will hold
true?
a) det(A) = 9
b) det(A) = 81
c) det(A) = 0
d) det(A) = 4
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Determinant of a skew symmetric odd ordered matrix A is always 0.

5. Let A = [kaij]nxn, B = [aij]nxn, be an nxn matrices and k be a scalar then det(A) is equal to
_________
a) Kdet(B)
b) Kndet(B)
c) K3det(b)
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The scalar is multiplied with each of the element of matrix A then determinant
is multiplied, the number of row times to the scalar i.e. Kndet(B).

6. The Inverse exist only for non-singular matrices.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Since for singular matrix det(A)=0.Hence Inverse does not exist.

7. If for a square matrix A and B, null matrix O, AB = O implies BA=O.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Let A = [0 1 0 0], B = [1 0 0 0]AB=O and BA is not equal to O.

8. If for a square matrix A and B,null matrix O, AB = O implies A=O and B=O.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Let A = [0 1 0 0], B = [1 0 0 0]AB=O and B, A is not equal to O.

9. Let A be a nilpotent matrix of order n then?

a) An = O
b) nA = O
c) A = nI, I is Identity matrix
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: n is the smallest possible number such that An = O.

10. Which of the following property of matrix multiplication is correct?

a) Multiplication is not commutative in general
b) Multiplication is associative
c) Multiplication is distributive over addition
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Matrix multiplication is associative, distributive, but not commutative.

1. For a matrix A, if a matrix B is obtained by changing its rows into columns and column
into rows, then relation between A and B is?
a) A2 = B
b) AT = B
c) Depends on the matrix
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A = [aij] and B = [aji], B = AT.

2. For matrix A, (AT)T is equals to ___________

a) A
b) AT
c) Can’t say

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Transpose of a transposed matrix results in same matrix.

3. For matrix Aand a scalar k, (kA)T is equal to _________

a) k(A)
b) k(A)T
c) k2
(A)
d) k2(A)T
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Scalar has no effect on transpose.

4. If A is a lower triangular matrix then AT is a _________

a) Lower triangular matrix
b) Upper triangular matrix
c) Null matrix
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: By transpose a lower triangular matrix will turn to upper triangular matrix and
vice – versa.

5. If matrix A and B are symmetric and AB = BA iff _________

a) AB is symmetric matrix
b) AB is an anti-symmetric matrix
c) AB is a null matrix
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: For two symmetric matrices A and B, AB is a symmetric matrix if and only if AB
= BA.

6. A matrix can be expressed as sum of symmetric and anti-symmetric matrices.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Since A = (1⁄2)(A + AT) + ((1⁄2)(A – AT)

7. The determinant of a diagonal matrix is the product of leading diagonal’s element.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Since in diagonal matrix all element other than diagonal are zero.

8. If for a square matrix A and B,null matrix O, (AB)T = O implies AT = O and BT = O.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Let A=[0 1 0 0 ], B=[1 0 0 0 ] AB=O and B, AT, BT is not equal to O.

9. Let A = [aij] given by abij = (i-j)3 is a _________

a) Symmetric matrix
b) Anti-Symmetric matrix
c) Identity matrix
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: aji =(j-i3) = -aij, A is Anti-symmetric matrix.

10. Trace of the matrix of odd ordered anti-symmetric matrix is _________

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Since in odd ordered anti-symmetric matrix all diagonal matrix are zero.

1. For a matrix A, B and identity matrix I, if a matrix AB=I=BA then?

a) B is inverse of A
b) A is inverse of B
c) A-1 = B, B-1 = A
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Since AB = I, A = B-1 Similarly A is the inverse of B.

2. For matrix A,(A3) = I, A-1 is equals to _________

a) A2
b) A-2

c) Can’t say

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A(A2) = I this implies A-1 = A2.
3. Let A = [0 1 0 0 ], A-1 is equal to _________
a) Null matrix
b) Identity matrix
c) Does not exist
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Since A is singular matrix, inverse does not exists.

4. If A is an invertible square matrix then _________

a) (AT)-1 = (A-1)T
) = (A-1)T
b) (AT T

) = (A-1)-1
c) (AT -1

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: For invertible matrix A, AT is also inveritble.

5. If matrix A, B and C are invertible matrix of same order then (ABC) -1 = _________
a) CBA
b) C-1 B-1 A-1
c) CT
B-1 AT
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Reversal rule holds for inverse multiplication of the matrices.

6. If A is non singular matrix then AB = AC implies B = C.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Pre-multipliying by A-1 we get B = C.

7. For a matrix A of order n, the det(adj(A)) = (det(A))n, where adj() is adjoint of matrix.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: For a matrix A of order n, the det(adj(A)) = (det(A)) n-1.
8. For a non-singular matrix A, A-1 is equal to _________
a) (adj(A))/det(A)
b) det(A)*(adj(A))
c) det(A)*A
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A(adj(A)) = det(A)I, I = A(adj(A))/det(A) which implies A -1 = (adj(A))/det(A).

9. Let I3 be the Identity matrix of order 3 then (I3)-1 is equal to _________

a) 0
b) 3I3
c) I3

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Idenity matrices are self invertible that is I3 x I3 = I3.

10. If for a square matrix A(non-singular) and B, null matrix O, AB = O then?

a) B is a null matrix
b) B is a non singular matrix
c) B is a identity matrix
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Given det(A) is not equal to zero. A-1 exists, A-1(AB) = O, B = O.

1. For the sequence 1, 7, 25, 79, 241, 727 … simple formula for {an} is ____________
a) 3n+1 – 2
b) 3n – 2
c) (-3)n + 4
d) n2 – 2
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio of consecutive numbers is close to 3. Comparing these terms with
the sequence of {3n} which is 3, 9, 27 …. Comparing these terms with the corresponding
terms of sequence {3n} and the nth term is 2 less than the corresponding power of 3.

2. For the sequence 0, 1, 2, 3 an is ____________

a) ⌈n/2⌉+⌊n/2⌋
b) ⌈n/2⌉+⌈n/2⌉
c) ⌊n/2⌋+⌊n/2⌋
d) ⌊n/2⌋
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Expand the sequence ⌈n/2⌉+⌊n/2⌋ where a1 is ⌊0.5⌋+⌈0.5⌉ = 1+0 = 1, a2 is
⌊1⌋+⌈1⌉ = 1 + 1 = 2 and so on.

3. The value of∑(k=50)100 k2 is __________

a) 338, 350
b) 297, 900
c) 297, 925
d) 290, 025
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Using the formula. ∑(k=1)n k2 = (n(n + 1)(2n + 1)) / 6.

4. The sets A and B have same cardinality if and only if there is ___________ from A to B.
a) One-to-one
b) One-to-many
c) Many-to-many
d) Many-to-one
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: If there is one-to-one correspondence then they have same cardinality.

5. For the sequence an = ⌊√2n+ 1/2⌋, a7is ____________

a) 1
b) 7
c) 5
d) 4
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: a7 = ⌊√14+1/2⌋ which is ⌊4.24⌋ = 4.
6. The value of ∑(i=1)3 ∑(h=0)2 i is _________
a) 10
b) 17
c) 15
d) 18
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The value of ∑(i=1)3 ∑(h=0)2 i = 1+1+1+2+2+2+3+3+3 = 18.

7. For the sequence an = 6. (1/3)n, a4 is _________

a) 2/25
b) 2/27
c) 2/19
d) 2/13
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Put n = 4 in the sequence.

8. The value of ∑(i=0)4i! is __________

a) 32
b) 30
c) 34
d) 35
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: First five term of the sequence n! is given by 1, 1, 2, 6, 24.

9. Set of all integers is counter.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: There is one-to-one correspondence between set of positive integers and set
of all integers.
10. The value of ∏(k=1)100(-1) k is _________
a) 0
b) 1
c) -1
d) 2
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The product of a1, a2, a3 …… an is represented by ∏(i=1)n ai.

1. An algorithm is a _________ set of precise instructions for performing computation.

a) Infinite
b) Finite
c) Constant
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: By the definition of an algorithm.

2. Out of the following which property algorithms does not share?

a) Input
b) Finiteness
c) Generality
d) Constancy
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: All the others are the properties of algorithms.

3. In ________ search each element is compared with x till not found.

a) Binary
b) Sequential
c) Merge
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In linear or sequential search entire list is searched sequentially for x.
4. If the entire list is searched sequentially without locating x in linear search, the solution is
__________
a) 0
b) -1
c) 1
d) 2
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: If the element is not found in the entire list, then the solution is 0.

5. To sort a list with n elements, the insertion sort begins with the __________ element.
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The insertion sort compares the second element with the first element to start
sorting.

6. __________ comparisons required to sort the list 1, 2, 3…….n using insertion sort.
a) (n2 + n + 2) / 2
b) (n3 + n – 2) / 2
c) (n2 + n – 2) / 2
d) (n2 – n – 2) / 2
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: 2+3+4+….6n = (n2 + n – 2) / 2.

7. The Worst case occurs in linear search algorithm when ____________

a) Item is somewhere in the middle of the array
b) Item is not in the array at all
c) Item is the last element in the array
d) Item is the last element in the array or is not there at all
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The Worst case occur in linear search algorithm when Item is the last element
in the array or is not there at all.

8. List obtained in third pass of selection sort for list 3, 5, 4, 1, 2 is ___________

a) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5
b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
c) 1, 5, 4, 3, 2
d) 3, 5, 4, 1, 2
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The selection sort begins with finding the least element in the list. This
element is moved to front and then the least element among the remaining elements. Is
found and put into the second position and so on.

9. The operation of processing each element in the list is known as _________

a) Sorting
b) Merging
c) Inserting
d) Traversal
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The operation of processing each element in the list is known as Traversal.

10. The complexity of Bubble sort algorithm is _________

a) O(n)
b) O(log n)
c) O(n2)
d) O(n log n)
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The complexity of Bubble sort algorithm is O(n2).

1. An Algorithm is ___________
a) A procedure for solving a problem
b) A problem
c) A real life mathematical problem
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: An algorithm is a stepwise solution to the problem.

2. An algorithm in which we divide the problem into subproblem and then we combine the
subsolutions to form solution to the original problem is known as _________
a) Brute Force
b) Divide and Conquer
c) GreedyAlgorithm
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In Divide and Conquer we divide the problem and then recombine the
solution.

3. An algorithm which uses the past results and uses them to find the new results is
_________
a) Brute Force
b) Divide and Conquer
c) Dynamic programming algorithms
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In Dynamic programming algorithms we utilize previous results for new ones.

4. A Complexity of algorithm depends upon _________

a) Time only
b) Space only
c) Both Time and Space
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: For Complexity, we calculate both time and space consumed.

5. An algorithm which tries all the possibilities unless results are satisfactory is and
generally is time-consuming is _________
a) Brute Force
b) Divide and Conquer
c) Dynamic programming algorithms
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In Brute force, all the possibilities are tried.

6. For a recursive algorithm _________

a) a base case is necessary and is solved without recursion.
b) a base case is not necessary
c) doesnot solve a base case directly
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Base case ends recursion and therefore it is necessary for finite recursion.

7. Optimization of algorithm means _________

a) making that algorithm fast by time and compact by space
b) making that algorithm slow by time and large by space
c) making that algorithm fast by time and large by space
d) making that algorithm slow by time and compact by space
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: An Algorithm should be fast and compact.

8. For an algorithm which is the most important characteristic that makes it acceptable
_________
a) Fast
b) Compact
c) Correctness and Precision
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: An algorithm should be correct otherwise it’s of no use even if it is fast and
compact.

9. An algorithm: can be represented through _________

a) flow charts
b) pseudo codes
c) instructions in common language
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Algorithm is represented through pseudo codes, normal language sentences
or flow charts.

10. There are two algorithms suppose A takes 1.41 milli seconds while B takes 0.9
milliseconds, which one of them is better considering all other things the same?
a) A is better than B
b) B is better than A
c) Both are equally good
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: B takes

1. Which of the following case does not exist in complexity theory?

a) Best case
b) Worst case
c) Average case
d) Null case
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Null case does not exist in complexity Theory.

2. The complexity of linear search algorithm is _________

a) O(n)
b) O(log n)
c) O(n2)
d) O(n log n)
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The worst case complexity of linear search is O(n).

3. The complexity of Binary search algorithm is _________

a) O(n)
b) O(log)
c) O(n2)
d) O(n log n)
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The compexity of binary search is O(logn).

4. The complexity of merge sort algorithm is _________

a) O(n)
b) O(log n)
c) O(n2)
d) O(n log n)
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The worst case complexity for merge sort is O(nlogn).

5. The complexity of Bubble sort algorithm is _________

a) O(n)
b) O(log n)
c) O(n2)
d) O(n log n)
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The worst case complexity for Bubble sort is O(n2) and best case is O(n).

6. The Worst case occur in linear search algorithm when _________

a) Item is somewhere in the middle of the array
b) Item is not in the array at all
c) Item is the last element in the array
d) Item is the last element in the array or is not there at all
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The Worst case occur in linear search algorithm when Item is the last element
in the array or is not there at all.

7. The worst case complexity for insertion sort is _________

a) O(n)
b) O(log n)
c) O(n2)
d) O(n log n)
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In worst case nth comparison are required to insert the nth element into
correct position.

8. The complexity of Fibonacci series is _________

a) O(2n)
b) O(log n)
c) O(n2)
d) O(n log n)
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Fibonacci is f(n) = f(n-1) + f(n-2), f(0) = 0, f(1) = 1. Let g(n) = 2 n. Now prove
inductively that f(n) > = g(n).

9. The worst case occurs in quick sort when _________

a) Pivot is the median of the array
b) Pivot is the smallest element
c) Pivot is the middle element
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: This happens when the pivot is the smallest (or the largest) element. Then one
of the partitions is empty, and we repeat recursively the procedure for N-1 elements.

10. The worst case complexity of quick sort is _________

a) O(n)
b) O(log n)
c) O(n2)
d) O(n log n)
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The worst case complexity of quick sort is O(n2).

. Which is used to measure the Time complexity of an algorithm Big O notation?

a) describes limiting behaviour of the function
b) characterises a function based on growth of function
c) upper bound on growth rate of the function
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Big O notation describes limiting behaviour, and also gives upper bound on
growth rate of a function.

2. If for an algorithm time complexity is given by O(1) then the complexity of it is

____________
a) constant
b) polynomial
c) exponential
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The growth rate of that function will be constant.

3. If for an algorithm time complexity is given by O(log2n) then complexity will be ___________
a) constant
b) polynomial
c) exponential
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The growth rate of that function will be logarithmic therefore complexity will
be logarithmic.

4. If for an algorithm time complexity is given by O(n) then the complexity of it is ___________
a) constant
b) linear
c) exponential
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The growth rate of that function will be linear.

5. If for an algorithm time complexity is given by O(n2) then complexity will ___________
a) constant
b) quadratic
c) exponential
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The growth rate of that function will be quadratic therefore complexity will be
quadratic.

6. If for an algorithm time complexity is given by O((3⁄2)n) then complexity will be ___________
a) constant
b) quardratic
c) exponential
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The growth rate of that function will be exponential therefore complexity will
be exponential.

7. The time complexity of binary search is given by ___________

a) constant
b) quardratic
c) exponential
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: It is O(log2n), therefore complexity will be logarithmic.

8. The time complexity of the linear search is given by ___________

a) O(log2n)
b) O(1)
c) exponential
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: It is O(n), therefore complexity will be linear.

9. Which algorithm is better for sorting between bubble sort and quicksort?
a) bubble sort
b) quick sort
c) both are equally good
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Running time of quicksort is logarithmic whereas for bubble sort it is
quadratic.

10. Time complexity of the binary search algorithm is constant.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: It is O(log2n), therefore complexity will be logarithmic

This set of Discrete Mathematics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Integers and Algorithms”.

1. The binary notation of 231 is ___________

a) (11010111)2
b) (10111011)2

c) (11100011)2

d) (11100111)2

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: By binary Expansion of 11100111 is 1*20 + 1*21 + 1*22 + 1*25 + 1*26 + 1*27 is
equal to 231.

2. The decimal notation of 101010101 is ___________

a) 34010
b) 34110

c) 34210

d) 31510

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: (101010101)2 = 1*20 + 1*22 + 1*24 + 1*26 + 1*28 = 341.

3. The binary notation of ABBA is ___________

a) 1010 1011 1011 1010
b) 1010 1001 1011 1011
c) 1011 1000 1010 1001
d) 1001 1000 1000 1111
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: By the base conversion algorithm.
4. The hexadecimal notation of (1011 0111 1011)2 is ___________
a) (B2B)16
b) (B5B)16

c) (B7B)16

d) (A7B)16

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: (1011)2 = 11 and (0111)2 = 7, 11 in hexadecimal notation represents B. So it is
(B7B)16.

5. The octal expansion of (10 1011 1011)2 is ___________

a) (1245)8
b) (1276)8

c) (1275)8

d) (1273)8

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: (10 1011 1011)2 = (699)10. Using base conversion algorithm, (699)10 = (1273)8.

6. The hexadecimal expansion of (177130)10 is ___________

a) (2B3EB)16
b) (2B3EA)16

c) (2C3AA)16

d) (2B2AA)16

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Successively divide 177130 by 16 to obtain remainder they are (2B3EA) 16.

7. The greatest common divisor of 414 and 662 is?

a) 4
b) 5
c) 2
d) 6
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: By using Euclid Lemma.

8. The greatest common divisor of 12 and 18 is?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: By using Euclid Lemma, 6 divides 12 and 18.

9. The decimal expansion of (2AE0B)16 is?

a) (175627)10
b) (175624)10

c) (178566)10

d) (175622)10

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: (2AE0B)16 = 2*164 + 10*163 + 14*162 + 0*16+11 = (175627)10.

10. The greatest common divisor of 7 and 5 is?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 5
d) 7
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Two numbers 7 and 5 are relatively prime, so gcd(7, 5) = 1.

1. The quotient when 19 is divided by 6 is?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: According to the Division Algorithm 19 = 6(3) + 1. Hence, quotient when 19
divided by 6 is 3 = 19 div 6.

2. The remainder when 111 is divided by 12 is?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: According to the Division Algorithm 111 = 12(9) + 3. Hence, remainder when
111 divided by 12 is 3 = 111 mod 12.

3. The quotient and remainder when -1 is divided by 3 is?

a) -1 and -1
b) -1 and 2
c) 1 and 2
d) -1 and -2
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: According to the Division Algorithm -1 = 3(-1) + 2. Hence, quotient when -1
divided by 3 is -1 = -1 div 3 and remainder when -1 divided by 3 is 2 = -1 mod 3.

4. The value of 12 mod 3 is?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: By the Division algorithm 12 = 3(4) + 0. Where remainder is 12 mod 3.

5. The value of 155 mod 9 is?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: By the Division algorithm 155 = 9(17) + 2. Where remainder is 155 mod 9.

6. Is 17 congruent to 4 modulo 6.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 6 does not divide 17 – 4 = 13.

7. If a|b and a|c, then?

a) a|bc
b) c|a
c) a|(b+c)
d) b|a
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: If a|b and a|c then b = am and c = an for some integer m and n. Hence, b + c =
a(m + n). Therefore, a|(b+c).

8. Is 102 congruent to 6 modulo 16.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: 16 divide 102 – 6 = 96.

9. The quotient and remainder when 18 is divided by 5 is?

a) 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 and 2
d) 3 and 3
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: According to the Division Algorithm 18 = 5(3) + 3. Hence, quotient when 18
divided by 5 is 3 = 18 div 5 and remainder when 18 divided by 5 is 3 = 18 mod 5.

10. The value of 15 mod 11 is?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: By the Division algorithm 15 = 11(1) + 4. Where the remainder is 15 mod 11.

1. The number of factors of prime numbers are ___________

a) 2
b) 3
c) Depends on the prime number
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A prime number is only divisible by 1 and itself.

2. What is the number ‘ 1’?

a) Prime number
b) Composite number
c) Neither Prime nor Composite
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: 1 is neither prime number nor composite.

3. All prime numbers are odd.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: 2 is even as well as prime.

4. 3 is the smallest prime number possible.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: 2 is also a prime number.

5. How many prime numbers are there between 1 to 20?

a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The prime numbers between 1 to 20 are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19.

6. There are finite number of prime numbers.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: There are infinite numbers of primes.

7. Sum of two different prime number is a ____________

a) Prime number
b) Composite number
c) Either Prime or Composite
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Eg:- 2 + 3 = 5 a prime, 3 + 7 = 10 a composite.

8. Difference of two distinct prime numbers is?

a) Odd and prime
b) Even and composite
c) None of the mentioned
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: 3 – 2 = 1 is neither prime nor composite.

9. If a, b, c, d are distinct prime numbers with an as smallest prime then a * b * c * d is a

___________
a) Odd number
b) Even number
c) Prime number
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Since a is 2, 2 * b * c * d = Even number.
10. If a, b are two distinct prime number than a highest common factor of a, b is ___________
a) 2
b) 0
c) 1
d) ab
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: HCF of two prime numbers is 1.

1. If there exist an integer x such that x2 ≡ q (mod n). then q is called ______________
a) Quadratic Residue
b) Linear Residue
c) Pseudoprime
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: q is called quadratic residue if it is congruent to a perfect square modulo n.

2. If there exist no integer x such that x2 ≡ q (mod n). then q is called __________
a) Quadratic Residue
b) Quadratic Nonresidue
c) Pseudoprime
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: q is called quadratic nonresidue if it is not congurent to a perfect square
modulo n.

3. The Fermat’s little theorem for odd prime p and coprime number a is?
a) ap-1 ≡ 1 (mod p)
b) ap-1 ≡ 7 (mod p)
c) ap(2)-1 ≡ 1 (mod p)
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: According to Fermat’s little theorem ap-1 ≡ 1 (mod p).

4. 5 is quardratic non-residue of 7.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Since there exists no number which gives 5 modulo 7 when squared.

5. 4 is quardratic residue of 7.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Since 25 ≡ 4(mod)7, 4 is quardratic residue of 7.

6. 8 is quardratic residue of 17.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Since 25 ≡ 8(mod)17.

7. 8 is quardratic residue of 11.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Since x2 ≡ 8(mod)17 has no solutions.

8. Which of the following is a quardratic residue of 11?

a) 4
b) 5
c) 9
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Since 4, 16, 32 satisfies the criteria, all are quardratic residue of 11.

9. What is pseudo prime number?

a) is a probable prime and is not a prime number
b) is a prime number
c) does not share any property with prime number
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A pseudo prime number is an integer that shares a property common to all
prime number and is not a prime number.

10. Pseudo prime are classified based on property which they satisfy, which of the
following are classes of pseudoprimes?
a) Fermat pseudoprime
b) Fibonacci pseudoprime
c) Euler pseudoprime
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Fermat pseudoprime, Fibonacci pseudoprime, Euler pseudoprime are
different classes of pseudoprimes.

1. A Least Common Multiple of a, b is defined as __________

a) It is the smallest integer divisible by both a and b
b) It is the greatest integer divisible by both a and b
c) It is the sum of the number a and b
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Definition of LCM(a, b)-smallest multiple of a and b.

2. The LCM of two number 1, b(integer) are _________

a) b + 2
b) 1
c) b
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Since b is the smallest integer divisible by 1 and b.

3. If a, b are integers such that a > b then lcm(a, b) lies in _________

a) a>lcm(a, b)>b
b) a>b>lcm(a, b)
c) lcm(a, b)>=a>b
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: LCM of number is either equal to the biggest number or greater than all.

4. LCM of 6, 10 is?
a) 60
b) 30
c) 10
d) 6
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Since 30 is the smallest integer divisible by 6 and 10.

5. The product of two numbers are 12 and their Greatest common divisor is 2 then LCM is?
a) 12
b) 2
c) 6
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The lcm of two number a and b is given by
lcm(a, b) = ab/(GCD(a, b)).

6. If LCM of two number is 14 and GCD is 1 then the product of two numbers is?
a) 14
b) 15
c) 7
d) 49
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The lcm of two number a and b is given by
lcm(a, b) = ab/(GCD(a, b)), this implies ab = lcm(a, b) * gcd(a, b).

7. If a number is 22 x 31 x 50 and b is 21 x 31 x 51 then lcm of a, b is?

a) 22 x 31 x 51
b) 22
x 32 x 52
c) 23
x 31 x 50
d) 22
x 32 x 50
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Lcm is the product of sets having highest exponent value among a and b.

8. State whether the given statement is True or False.

LCM (a, b, c, d) = LCM(a,(LCM(b,(LCM(c, d)))).
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: LCM function can be reursively defined.

9. LCM(a, b) is equals to _________

a) ab/(GCD(a, b))
b) (a+b)/(GCD(a, b))
c) (GCD(a, b))/ab
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: ab = lcm(a, b)*gcd(a, b), which implies
LCM(a,b) = ab/(GCD(a,b)).

10. The lcm of two prime numbers a and b is _________

a) a⁄b
b) ab

c) a + b

d) 1

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: LCM(a, b) = ab/(GCD(a, b)), Since (GCD(a, b)) = 1 therfore LCM(a, b) = ab.

1. A Highest Common Factor of a, b is defined as ___________

a) It is the smallest integer divisible by both a and b
b) It is the greatest integer divisor of both a and b
c) It is the sum of the number a and b
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Defination of HCF(a, b)-greatest integer divisor of both a and b.

2. The HCF of two number 1, b(integer) are _________

a) b + 2
b) 1
c) b
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Since 1 is the greatest integer divisor of both 1 and b.

3. If a,b are integers such that a > b then hcf(a, b) lies in _________
a) a> hcf(a, b)>b
b) a>b> = hcf(a, b)
c) hcf(a, b)> = a>b
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Hcf of number is either equal to smallest number or is least among all.

4. HCF of 6, 10 is?
a) 60
b) 30
c) 10
d) 2
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Since 2 is the greatest integer divisor of both 6 and 10.

5. The product of two numbers are 12 and there LCM is 6 then HCF is?
a) 12
b) 2
c) 6
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The hcf of two number a and b is given by
(hcf(a, b)) = ab/ lcm(a, b).

6. If LCM of two number is 10 and GCD is 5 then the product of two numbers is?
a) 45
b) 50
c) 7
d) 49
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The lcm of two number a and b is given by
lcm(a,b) = ab/(GCD(a, b)), this implies ab = lcm(a, b) * gcd(a, b).

7. If a number is 22 x 31 x 50 and b is 22 x 31 x 51 then hcf of a, b is?

a) 22 x 31 x 51
b) 22
x 32 x 52
c) 21
x 31 x 50
d) 22
x 32 x 50
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Hcf is the product of sets having least exponent value among a and b.

8. State whether the given statement is True or False.

HCF (a, b, c, d) = HCF(a,(HCF(b,(HCF(c, d)))).

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: HCF function can be reursively defined.

9. HCF(a, b) is equals to _________

a) ab/(LCM(a, b))
b) (a + b)/(LCM(a, b))
c) (LCM(a, b))/ab
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: ab = lcm(a, b)*hcf(a, b), which implies
HCF(a,b) = ab/(LCM(a, b)).

10. The HCF of two prime numbers a and b is _________

a) a⁄b
b) ab

c) a + b

d) 1

View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Since they doesnot have any factor in common other than 1.

1. Which of the number is not allowed in Binary representation of a number?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Binary numbers are formed with a combination of 0 & 1 only.

2. Which of the number is not allowed in Octal representation of a number?

a) 0
b) 4
c) 8
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Octal numbers are formed with a combination of 0 to 7 only.

3. Hexadecimal number equivalent of decimal 10 is?

a) 10
b) A
c) F
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In hexadecimal representation A is represented as decimal 10.

4. Decimal equivalent of binary number 1010 is?

a) 11
b) A
c) 10
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: 0X1 + 1X2 + 0X4 + 1X8 = 10 in decimal.
5. Decimal 13 in base 8 can be represented as _________
a) 15
b) 12
c) 22
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: 1X8 + 5X1 = 12, 15 is the octal representation of 13.

6. F in hexadecimal representation is equivalent to 9 in decimal.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: F in hexadecimal representation is equivalent to 15 in decimal.

7. Octal number may contain digits from 1 to 8.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Octal number contains digits from 0 to 7, * is not allowed.

8. For some base r, the digits which are allowed in its representation are?
a) Digits from 1 to r
b) Digits from 0 to r-1
c) Digits from 1 to r-1
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A base r number may contain digits from 0 to r-1.

9. The binary number 100110 in octal is represented by _______________

a) 45
b) 10012
c) 46
d) 58
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pairing 3 numbers from right hand side we get 110 as 6 and 100 as 4 in octal
so the number is 46.

10. A number greater than 32 would require a minimum of how may bits in binary
representation?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 4
d) 10
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Since through 5 bits we can only represent numbers till 31 since 2 5 = 32 we
need greater than 5 bits, so minimum would be 6.

1. One’s complement in binary is defined as _________

a) Flipping each binary bit
b) Adding one to the binary number
c) Flipping only bits having zero in it
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: While taking 1’s complement we replace 1 with zero and vice versa.

2. What is the one’s complement of the number 1010110?

a) 1111111
b) 0101001
c) 1100110
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: While taking 1’s complement we replace 1 with zero and vice versa.

3. One’s complement of a number x is y, then one’s complement of y is?

a) y
b) x
c) x + y
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Complement of Complement of number gives the same number.

4. Nine’s complement of a number is formed by _________

a) replacing each digit by 9 minus that digit
b) replacing each digit by 1plus that digit
c) replacing each digit by 8 minus that digit
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Nine’s complement of a number is formed by replacing each digit by 9 minus
that digit.

5. Radix complement can be obtained fromdiminished radix’s complement by _________

a) Adding one to diminished radox’s complement
b) Subtracting one to diminished radox’s complement
c) Both are same things
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Radix complement = diminished radix complement +1.

6. In binary signed representation if most significant bit is one then that number is positive.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In signed representation, if the most significant bit is one then that number is
negative, for positive numbers msb = 0.

7. In signed representation 5 is represented in binary as 0101.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Here msb is the signed bit which is zero, 101 evaluates to 5 hence it is +5.

8. The two’s complement of 101110100 is represented as?

a) 010001100
b) 101110101
c) 010001100
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: 2’s complement = 1’s complement +1, 1’s complement = 010001011.

9. 9’s complement of 23456 is?

a) 87654
b) 76543
c) 12345
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Nine’s complement of a number is formed by replacing each digit by 9 minus
that digit.

10. Decimal equivalent of one’s complement of 11111001 is?

a) 5
b) 6
c) 4
d) 10
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: One’s complement of that number is 00000110 which is 6 in decimal.

1. For some number b, (1⁄b)-n is equal to _________

a) -bn
b) nb

c) bn

d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: b-1 reciprocal of b.

2. If ab = 1, where a and b are real numbers then?

a) a = b-1
b) b = a

c) a = b = 2

d) none of the mentioned

View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This means that a is inverse of b or b is inverse of a.

3. If a is a real number than a0 is defined as _________

a) 0
b) a
c) 1
d) -1
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Any number to the power zero is one.

4. For some number a, b and c, ca x cb is equal to _________

a) ca-b
b) ca+b

c) c

d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: If base are same then exponenents powers are added.

5. For some number a, b and c, ca/cb is equal to _________

a) ca-b
b) ca+b

c) c

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: If base are same then exponenents powers are added, 1/cb = c-b.

6. State whether the given statement is true or false.

Exponentiation is commutative.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Ab is not equal to bA, exponentiation is not commutative.

7. State whether the given statement is true or false.

Exponentiation is associative.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Exponentiation is not associative.

8. If 2a-b = 1 then the value of a-b is equal to _________

a) 1
b) 0
c) 2
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: 1 = 20, so a-b = 0.

9. For some number a, b and c, ac x bc is equal to _________

a) (ab)c
b) (ac)b

c) (cb)a

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: If power are same then bases are multiplied.

10. If 0a is not equal to zero then which of the values a cannot take _________
a) 1
b) 2
c) -1
d) 0
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: a0 = 1, for any real number.

1. The linear combination of gcd(252, 198) = 18 is?

a) 252*4 – 198*5
b) 252*5 – 198*4
c) 252*5 – 198*2
d) 252*4 – 198*4
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: By using the Euclidean algorithm.
2. The inverse of 3 modulo 7 is?
a) -1
b) -2
c) -3
d) -4
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: By using the Euclidean algorithm, 7 = 2*3 + 1. From this we see that -2*3 + 1*7
= 1. This show that -2 is an inverse.

3. The integer 561 is a Carmichael number.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: By using the Fermat’s theorem, it follows that b560 is congruent to 1 (mod 561).

4. The linear combination of gcd(117, 213) = 3 can be written as _________

a) 11*213 + (-20)*117
b) 10*213 + (-20)*117
c) 11*117 + (-20)*213
d) 20*213 + (-25)*117
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: By using the Euclidean algorithm.

5. The inverse of 7 modulo 26 is?

a) 12
b) 14
c) 15
d) 20
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: By using the Euclidean algorithm.

6. The inverse of 19 modulo 141 is?

a) 50
b) 51
c) 54
d) 52
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: By using the Euclidean algorithm.

7. The integer 2821 is a Carmichael number.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: By using the Fermat’s theorem, it follows that b2820 is congruent to 1 (mod
2821).

8. The solution of the linear congruence 4x = 5(mod 9) is?

a) 6(mod 9)
b) 8(mod 9)
c) 9(mod 9)
d) 10(mod 9)
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The inverse of 5 modulo 9 is -2. Multiply by (-2) on both sides in equation 4x =
5(mod 9), it follows that x is congruent to 8(mod 9).

9. The linear combination of gcd(10, 11) = 1 can be written as _________

a) (-1)*10 + 1*11
b) (-2)*10 + 2*11
c) 1*10 + (-1)*11
d) (-1)*10 + 2*11
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: By using the Euclidean theorem, it follows that 1 = (-1)*10 + 1*11.

10. The value of 52003 mod 7 is?

a) 3
b) 4
c) 8
d) 9
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: By using the Fermat’s theorem.

1. The prime factorization of 7007 is __________

a) 73.11.13
b) 72.11.13
c) 7.11.13
d) 7.113.13
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Perform successive division beginning with 2.

2. Out of following which one is Mersenne Primes?

a) 3
b) 7
c) 2047
d) 31
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: 2047 = 23.89 also not in form of 2b-1 form.

3. Out of the following which of these integers is not prime?

a) 21
b) 35
c) 71
d) 101
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: 35 = 5.7 which is the product of two prime numbers.

4. The prime factorization of 1001 is __________

a) 73.11.13
b) 72.11.13
c) 7.11.13
d) 7.113.13
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Perform successive division beginning with 2.

5. Which positive integer less than 21 are relatively prime to 21?

a) 18
b) 19
c) 21
d) 24
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: gcd(19,21) = 1. According to the definition of relatively prime gcd of two
numbers is 1.

6. Is 7, 8, 9, 11 are pairwise relatively prime.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: gcd(7, 9) = gcd(8, 9) = gcd(9, 11) = gcd(11, 7) = 1. The numbers 7 and 11 are
prime and numbers 8 and 9 are relatively prime.

7. The greatest common divisor of 313.517 and 212.35 is __________

a) 30
b) 31

c) 33

d) 35

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: gcd(a, b) = 3min(13, 5).5min(17, 0).2min(12, 0).

8. The greatest common divisor of 0 and 5 is ___________

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: gcd(0, 5) = 0min(1, 0).5min(0, 1).

9. The lcm of 3 and 21 is ________ if gcd(3,21)=3.

a) 3
b) 12
c) 21
d) 42
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: 3 * lcm(3, 21) = 63 hence, lcm(3, 21) = 63 / 3 = 21.

10. The least common multiple of 41.42 and 42.41 is ____________

a) 42
b) 41
c) 84
d) 41.42
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: lcm(41 * 42, 42 * 42) = 41.42.42.41 / 41.42 = 41.42.

1. If the multiplicative inverse of “53 modulo 21” exists, then which of the following is true?
a) GCD(53,21) = 1
b) GCD(53,21) = 29
c) GCD(53,21) = 53
d) GCD(53,21) = 12
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The multiplicative inverse of “a modulo m” can be found out by extended
Euler’s GCD algorithm, and the time complexity of this method is O(logm). We know that
the multiplicative inverse of “x modulo n” exists if and only if x and n are relatively prime
(i.e., if gcd(a, m) = 1). So, in this case GCD(53,21) = 1.

2. A multiplicative monoid defines the property of exponentiation with ________

a) integer exponents
b) fractional exponents
c) rational exponents
d) negative integer exponents
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Exponentiation with integer exponents is termed in any multiplicative monoid.
Exponentiation is described inductively by 1) h0 = 1 for all h ∈ S, hn+1 = hn h and non-negative
integers n, If n is a negative integer then hn is only defined if h has an inverse in S. Monoids
define many structures including groups and rings (under multiplication).

3. Which of the following algorithms has better computational complexity than standard
division algorithms?
a) Montgomery algorithm
b) Classical modular exponentiation algorithm
c) ASM algorithm
d) FSM algorithm
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: To multiply m and n, they are converted to Montgomery form: mR mod X and
nR mod X. When multiplied, these produce mnR2 mod X, and the Montgomery reduction
produces abR mod N which is the Montgomery form of the desired product. After that, the
low bits are discarded which gives a result less than 2X. One final subtraction reduces this
to less than X. Hence, this procedure can have a better computational complexity than
standard division algorithms.

4. Which of the following methods uses the concept that exponentiation is computationally
inexpensive in the finite field?
a) Diffie-HEllman key exchange
b) RSA key exchange
c) Arithmetic key exchange
d) FSM method
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Exponentiation in the finite fields has its many applications in the public key
cryptography system. Now, the Diffie–Hellman key exchange can have the concept that
exponentiation is computationally inexpensive in the finite fields and the discrete logarithm
which is the inverse of exponentiation, can be computationally expensive.

5. If there is a unique prime number p1 then a finite field F has the property of
______________
a) p1x = 0 for all x in F
b) f(x) = f(xp1) for all x in F
c) p1 = y for all y in F
d) xy + p1 for all x, y in F
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A field can be defined as an algebraic structure in which multiplication,
addition, subtraction, and division are well-defined and satisfy similar properties. If there is
a unique prime number p1 then a finite field F has the property of p1x = 0, for all x in F and
this prime number is called the characteristics of the field.

6. Evaluate the expression 6359 mod 320.

a) 681
b) 811
c) 3781
d) 279
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: By definition, we can have 6359 ≡ 279 (mod320), hence the answer is 279.

7. The time complexity to perform the modular exponentiation of a ≡ c g (mod m).

a) O(m+a)
b) O(a*g)
c) O(gm)
d) O(g)
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The modular exponentiation completely depends on the operating system
environment and the processor for its performance. The above said method requires a
time complexity of O(g) for its completion.

8. According to congruence relation, find the remainder of 56 mod 24.

a) 10
b) 12
c) 6
d) 4
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: According to congruence relation, 56 ≡ 6 (mod 24), because 56 − 32 = 24,
which is a multiple of 24. So, the remainder is 6.
9. In cryptography system, the value of z in x ≡ ze (mod m) should be at least ______
a) 1024 bits
b) 1GB
c) 596 bits
d) 54 Bytes
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In cryptography system, the value of z in x ≡ ze (mod m) should be at least
1024 bits.

10. Determine the value of x, where y = 7, e = 12 and n = 566 using modular exponentiation
method (x ≡ ye (mod n)).
a) 735
b) 321
c) 872
d) 487
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Given y = 5, e = 12, and n = 566 and so x ≡ 512 (mod 566). Now 512 comes out
to 244140625 and taking this value modulo 566, x is determined to be 487.

1. How many bytes of the secret key is generated using Diffie-Hellman

encryption/decryption scheme?
a) 256
b) 871
c) 1024
d) 962
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Diffie-Hellman encryption/decryption scheme generates 256 bytes shared a
secret key. This secret key then is used by AES key to encrypt this data.

2. In which of the following systems, encryption slower than decryption?

a) elliptic curve cryptography
b) parabolic curve cryptography
c) symmetric cryptography
d) antisymmetric cryptography
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is known that performing encryption using the public key takes more time
than performing decryption using the private key in elliptic curve cryptography (ECC) and
the key consists of 60 bytes.

3. If there are 256 cipher texts per plain text and a total of 218 plaintexts of length 18 exists.
Then determine the number of distinct ciphertexts?
a) 761
b) 274
c) 186

d) 289

View Answer

4. TEA cipher uses which of the following structure?

a) standard cipher structure
b) pseudo random structure
c) feistel structure
d) block structure
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The Feistel structure system TEA operates on two 32-bit unsigned integer
numbers. It uses a 128-bit key that can be used to build a simple key schedule by mixing all
of the key elements.

5. Let A’s public key is n=6, 736, 180, 7817, 961, 456, 267 and e = 5 and B sends the
ciphertext. c = 456, 871, 122, 391, 882, 538 to A. Determine B’s message in numeric format?
a) 235813
b) 57971.89
c) 770190.04
d) 687651.9
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: It is known that to get original message m after decrypting we can have the
formula m=c1/e. In this case: (456,871,122,391,882,538)1/3 = 770190.04 and this is the
required answer.

6. In encryption, which of the following is the best text encoding technique?

a) ASCII encoding
b) Hex-encoding
c) Unicode technique
d) Base64 encoding
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Base64 and hex encoding scheme encode characters(or only bytes). First, we
need to encode the characters as bytes and after that encode the bytes. In terms of
compactness and simplicity, the best technique is Unicode scheme.

7. _______ are used as the base of the Public Key Infrastructure.

a) SSL certificates
b) TLS certificates
c) X.509 certificates
d) HAS certificates
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The X.509 certificates may be used as a base of the Public Key Infrastructure.
PKIX is a tree structure where a Certificate Authority can be used to give trust to end entity
certificates. X.509 certificates cannot directly use symmetric cryptography.

8. The default key size of RC2 Feistel cipher is _______

a) 64GB
b) 64 bits
c) 64 bytes
d) 64KB
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: RC2 is a 64-bit source-heavy Feistel cipher system with a default key size of 64
bits. It is a complex cipher which uses secret indices and performs bitwise rotations, logical
operations(AND, NOT, and OR) and modular addition.

9. How many combinations of keys can be constructed from a 72 ciphertext stream cipher?
a) 4271
b) 7345
c) 3291
d) 2556
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: For stream cipher, if there are n ciphertexts then there are n*(n−1)/2
combination of keys to be made.
= 72∗72−12
= 72*35.5
= 2556.

10. What is the block size of RC6 Feistel block cipher?

a) 5013 bits
b) 128 bits
c) 596 bits
d) 1768 bits
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The RC6 Feistel block cipher is a 20-round cipher scheme which includes a
fixed block size of 128 bits and it supports 128, 192, and 256-bit keys for encryption of
messages.

1. Suppose that there are two primes, P1 = 229 and p2 = 61. Find the value of z and Φ.
a) 13969, 13680
b) 5853, 23452
c) 7793, 34565
d) 17146, 69262
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: We know that, z = p1*p2 = 229*61 = 13969 and Φ = (p1 – 1)(p2 – 1) = (229 – 1)(61
– 1) = 228*60 = 13680.

2. ________ can decrypt traffic to make it available to all other network security functions
such as web proxies.
a) SSL visibility appliances
b) RSA appliances
c) Rodriguez cipher system
d) Standard cipher system
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In the data loss prevention systems, Web proxies and antivirus network
security functions, SSL visibility appliances decrypt traffic to make it available for all
networks.

3. The ROT13 caesar cipher system has an offset of ___________

a) 13
b) 45
c) 71
d) 37
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The ROT13 Caesar cipher system has an offset of 13 and it is one of the
comprehensive cipher scheme. However, the Vigenere cipher employs Caesar cipher as
one element of the encryption process.

4. In a public key system, the cipher text received is C = 10 if RSA encryption used with a
public key(e = 11, n = 77) to deduce the plain text. Determine the value of ϕ(n)?
a) 49
b) 60
c) 123
d) 70
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Given n = 77, that means p and q must be 7 and 11 that is they must be co-
prime to each other. Now we know that ϕ(n) = (p – 1) (q – 1)
ϕ(n) = (7 – 1) (11 – 1)
ϕ(n) = 6*10
ϕ(n) = 60.

5. To encrypt a message _______ is used on the character’s positions.

a) boolean algebra
b) bijective function
c) inverse function
d) surjective function
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: We have a mathematical notion that a bijective function can be used on the
characters’ positions to encrypt a message and an inverse function is used to decrypt the
message.

6. The public key of given user, in an RSA encryption system is e = 57 and n = 3901. What is
the value of Euler’s totient function ϕ(n) for calculating the private key of the user?
a) 4369
b) 3772
c) 871
d) 7892
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given that n=3901 and e=31. We know that n = p∗q where p and q are prime
numbers, which gives 3901 = 47*83. Now, ϕ(n) is Euler’s totient function i.e., ϕ(n) =
(p−1)∗(q−1)
ϕ(n) = (47−1)∗(83−1)
ϕ(n) = 46*82 = 3772.

7. Using RSA algorithm what is the value of cipher test c if the plain text e = 7 and P = 5, q =
16 & n = 832. Determine the Euler’s totient function for the plain text?
a) 47
b) 584
c) 428
d) 60
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Given plain text (m) = 7, P = 5, Q = 16, where P and Q are two prime integer
n = P * Q ⇒ n = 5*16 = 80 ⇒ Z = (P-1)*(Q-1) ⇒ Z = (5-1)*(16-1) = 4*15 = 60.

8. There are 67 people in a company where they are using secret key encryption and
decryption system for privacy purpose. Determine the number of secret keys required for
this purpose?
a) 887
b) 6529
c) 2211
d) 834
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Since every two employee have their own secret key encryption and
decryption. Both users have to agree on a secret key to communicate using symmetric
cryptography. After that, each message is encrypted with that key it is transmitted and
decrypted with the same key. Here, key distribution must be secret. For n = 67 we would
need n(n−1)2=67(67−1)2 = 2211 keys.

9. In a transposition cipher, the plaintext is constructed by the ________ of the ciphertext.

a) permutation
b) combination
c) sequence
d) series
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In cryptography, a method of encryption where the positions of plaintext held
by units are shifted according to a regular system so that the ciphertext constructs a
permutation of the plaintext is termed as transposition cipher.

10. How many bits of message does the Secure Hash Algorithm produce?
a) 160 bits
b) 1035 bits
c) 621 bits
d) 3761 bits
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The Secure Hash Algorithm or SHA is based on MD4 encryption system. This
algorithm gives an output of a longer 160-bit message that is why it is harder to construct
another message that yields the same resultant message.

1. _______ is an example of asymmetric ciphers.

a) Block cipher
b) RSA encryption
c) AES encryption
d) Advanced cryptology
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The asymmetric ciphers use asymmetric algorithms that use one key to
encrypt data and a different key to decrypt ciphers. These algorithms are used in RSA
encryption and public-key cryptography in which the public key is used to encrypt data and
the private key is used to decrypt data.

2. There is no secret key in case of ____________

a) Symmetric ciphers
b) Asymmetric ciphers
c) RSA encryption
d) Alpha-numeric cryptography
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A symmetric algorithm uses the same key to encrypt data as well as to decrypt
data. For example, a symmetric algorithm will use the key to encrypt some plaintext
information like a password into a ciphertext. Then, it uses again to take that ciphertext
and turn it back into the password.
3. Suppose in order to get a message across enemy lines, we need to choose an initial
secret key say, 100110. What will be the decrypted cipher when the original message is
010010011.
a) 110100
b) 1001011
c) 0011010
d) 011011
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In order to decrypt the given cipher text, we need to XOR each bit with the
corresponding bit in the secret key. As, the cipher text is longer than the secret key, wrap
around the remaining cipher text and begin again at the starting. When there will be a
chance to decrypt the 7th bit of the cipher text, XOR it with the first bit of the secret key.
Hence, after decrypting every bit in the cipher text, the original message will be 110100.

4. Electronic Code Book process is used in ________

a) caesar cipher
b) antisymmetric cipher
c) block cipher
d) stream cipher
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The block cipher takes a plaintext in the chuck of bits and the bits of key are
used to produce bits of ciphertext. They operate on blocks of bits at a time and so it is
termed as block ciphers. TIn current cryptomeric systems, the messages that are larger
than one block long that need to be split up into smaller messages by using a process
called Electronic Code Book (ECB).

5. ______ uses the concept of pseudo-random sequence.

a) Stream cipher
b) DES encryption
c) Caesar cipher
d) Block cipher
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The stream cipher is the one-time pad that uses the XOR function on the
plaintext with a pseudo-random sequence. The input plaintext is encrypted one byte at a
time incrementally. As the random sequence is not possible, a pseudo-random sequence is
used. These pseudo-random sequence are the outputs of a generator given an initial seed
which is a number used to initialize a pseudo-random number generator.

6. How many bits are there for random bits and error detection bits in the case of DES
block ciphers?
a) 72, 1024
b) 56, 8
c) 104, 45
d) 32, 198
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: DES is a symmetric system that uses block ciphers which consist of 56 random
bits, and 8 more bits are used for error detection. First the data is sent into the system and
then divided into two 32-bit blocks. Those two blocks are sent through the entire system
using criss-cross which is known as the Feistel system. There are 16 layers in DES. At each
layer, one half of the data passes through the Fiestel function and after its completion, it is
XORd with the other half of the data. Each layer has its own subkey which is derived from
the main 56-bit key by using a key scheduler.

7. What are the steps in the Feistel function?

a) expansion, mixing, substitution, permutation
b) extract, transform, load
c) extract, load, transform
d) expansion, divide, mixing, permutation
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The Feistel function which occurs in every block has 3 steps
i) Expansion:- The incoming 32-bit block has half of its bits duplicated, making it a 48-bit
block.
ii) Mixing:- The new, 48-bit input block is put through an XOR gate with this round’s unique
subkey.
iii) Substitution:- The mixed, 48-bit block is divided into 8 6-bit pieces. Each of these 8 pieces
is put through an S-block which will output only 4-bits using non-linear-transformation.
Permutation: The 32 output bits are then arranged in a specific permutation that ensures
that they will be distributed among different S-blocks in the next round. This is the most
important part of security in DES and it helps to avoid simple, algebra-based attacks.

8. What type of algorithm does AES encryption use?

a) Stream cipher
b) Symmetric block cipher
c) Asymmetric caesar cipher
d) DES encryption
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: AES encryption uses symmetric block ciphers to encrypt the messages. It is at
least 6 times faster than 3 DES. AES uses a substitution-permutation network and this
network is a series of operations that either replaces input with output bits (substitution) or
shuffles the bits (permutation). It uses 128-bit input plaintext and it operates on bytes
rather than bits. Here, the input is represented as 16 bytes (because 128 bits = 16 bytes)
and is arranged in a 4 x 4 matrix.

9. What is the block size of blowfish block cipher?

a) 64 bits
b) 128 bits
c) 1043 bits
d) 10 bits
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Blowfish symmetric block cipher was created after DES but before AES. Its
block size is 64 bits, and it can use key lengths from 32 up to 448 bits. It is a 16-round
Feistel cipher and unlike in DES it’s S-boxes are key-dependent and so they are generated
dynamically.

10. In which cipher each letter of the plaintext is substituted by any other letter to form the
cipher message?
a) Shift cipher
b) DES encryption
c) Block cipher
d) AES encryption
View Answer

Answer: a

1. What is the base case for the inequality 7n > n3, where n = 3?
a) 652 > 189
b) 42 < 132
c) 343 > 27
d) 42 <= 431
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: By the principle of mathematical induction, we have 73 > 33 ⇒ 343 > 27 as a
base case and it is true for n = 3.

2. In the principle of mathematical induction, which of the following steps is mandatory?

a) induction hypothesis
b) inductive reference
c) induction set assumption
d) minimal set representation
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The hypothesis of Step is a must for mathematical induction that is the
statement is true for n = k, where n and k are any natural numbers, which is also called
induction assumption or induction hypothesis.

3. For m = 1, 2, …, 4m+2 is a multiple of ________

a) 3
b) 5
c) 6
d) 2
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: For n = 1, 4 * 1 + 2 = 6, which is a multiple of 2. Assume that 4m+2 is true for
m=k and so 4k+2 is true based on the assumption. Now, to prove that 4k+2 is also a
multiple of 2 ⇒ 4(k+1)+2 ⇒ 2 * 4k – 4k + 6 ⇒ 2*4k+4 – 4k+2 ⇒ 2(4k+2) – 2(2k+1). Here, the
first term 2(4k+2) is true as per assumption and the second term 2(4k+2) is must to be a
multiple of 2. Hence, 4(k+1)+2 is a multiple of 2. So, by induction hypothesis, (4m+2) is a
multiple of 2, for m = 1,2,3,…

4. For any integer m>=3, the series 2+4+6+…+(4m) can be equivalent to ________
a) m2+3
b) m+1
c) mm
d) 3m2
+4
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The required answer is m2+3. Now, by induction assumption, we have to prove
2+4+6+…+4(k+1) = (k+1)2+3 also can be true, 2+4+6+…+4(k+1) = 2+4+6+⋯+(4k+4) and by the
subsequent steps, we can prove that (m+1)2+3 also holds for m=k. So, it is proved.
5. For every natural number k, which of the following is true?
a) (mn)k = mknk
b) m*k = n + 1

=k+1
c) (m+n)k

d) mkn = mnk
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In the first step, for k = 1, (mn)1 = m1n1 = mn, hence it is true. Let us assume the
statement is true for k = l, Now by induction assumption, (mn) 1 = m1n1 is true. So, to prove,
(mn)l+1 = ml + 1nl+1, we have (mn)l = mlnl and multiplying both sides by (mn) ⇒
(mn)1(mn)=(m1n1)(mn)
⇒ (mn)l+1 = (mm1)(nn1) ⇒ (mn)l+1 = (ml+1nl+1). Hence, it is proved. So, (mn)k = mknk is true for every
natural number k.

6. By induction hypothesis, the series 12 + 22 + 32 + … + p2 can be proved equivalent to

____________
a) p2+27
b) p∗(p+1)∗(2p+1)6
c) p∗(p+1)4
d) p+p2
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: By principle of mathematical induction, we now assume that p (b) is true 1 2 +
22 + 32 + … + b2 = b(b+1)(2b+1)6
so to prove P(b+1): 12 + 22 + 32 + … + b2 + (b + 1)2 = b(b+1)(2b+1)6 + (b + 1)2
By induction assumption it is shown that 12
+ 22 + 32 + … + b2 + (b + 1)2 = (b+1)[(b+2)(2b+3)]6. Hence it is proved that 12 +
22 + 32 + … + p2 = p∗(p+1)∗(2p+1)6.

7. For any positive integer m ______ is divisible by 4.

a) 5m2 + 2
b) 3m + 1
c) m2 + 3
d) m3 + 3m
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The required answer is, m3 + 3m. Now, by induction hypothesis, we have to
prove for m=k, k3+3k is divisible by 4. So, (k + 1)3 + 3 (k + 1) = k3 + 3 k2 + 6 k + 4
= [k3 + 3 k] + [3 k2 + 3 k + 4] = 4M + (12k2 + 12k) – (8k2 + 8k – 4), both the terms are divisible by
4. Hence (k + 1)3 + 3 (k + 1) is also divisible by 4 and hence it is proved for any integer m.
8. According to principle of mathematical induction, if P(k+1) = m(k+1) + 5 is true then _____
must be true.
a) P(k) = 3m(k)
b) P(k) = m(k)
+5
c) P(k) = m(k+2) + 5
d) P(k) = m(k)
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: By the principle of mathematical induction, if a statement is true for any
number m = k, then for its successor m = k + 1, the statement also satisfies, provided the
statement is true for m = 1. So, the required answer is p(k) = mk + 5.

9. Which of the following is the base case for 4n+1 > (n+1)2 where n = 2?
a) 64 > 9
b) 16 > 2
c) 27 < 91
d) 54 > 8
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Statement By principle of mathematical induction, for n=2 the base case of the
inequation 4n+1 > (n+1)2 should be 64 > 9 and it is true.

10. What is the induction hypothesis assumption for the inequality m ! > 2 m where m>=4?
a) for m=k, k+1!>2k holds
b) for m=k, k!>2k holds
c) for m=k, k!>3k holds
d) for m=k, k!>2k+1 holds
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: By the induction hypothesis, assume that p (k) = k! > 2k is true, for m=k and we
need to prove this by the principle of mathematical induction.

1. A polygon with 7 sides can be triangulated into ________

a) 7
b) 14
c) 5
d) 10
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A simple polygon with n sides can be triangulated into n-2 triangles, where n >
2.

2. Every simple polynomial has an interior diagonal.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: By using Strong Induction.

3. A polygon with 12 sides can be triangulated into _______

a) 7
b) 10
c) 5
d) 12
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A simple polygon with n sides can be triangulated into n-2 triangles, where n >
2.

4. Let P(n) be the statement that postage of n cents can be formed using just 3-cents
stamps and 5-cents stamps. Is the statements P(8) and P(10) are Correct?
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: We can form 8 cent of postage with one 3-cent stamp and one 5-cent stamp.
P(10) is true because we can form it using two 5-cent stamps.

5. Which amount of postage can be formed using just 4-cent and 11-cent stamps?
a) 2
b) 5
c) 30
d) 10
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: We can form 30 cent of postage with two 4-cent stamp and two 11-cent
stamp.
6. 22-cent of postage can be produced with two 4-cent stamp and one 11-cent stamp.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: By using two 4-cent stamp and one 11-cent stamp, 27-cent postage is
produced.

7. Which amount of postage can be formed using just 3-cent stamp and 10-cent stamps?
a) 27
b) 20
c) 11
d) 5
View Answer

Answer:a
Explanation: We can form 27 cent of postage with nine 3-cent stamp and 20-cent postage
can be formed by using two 10-cent stamps.

8. Suppose that P(n) is a propositional function. Determine for which positive integers n the
statement P(n) must be true if: P(1) is true; for all positive integers n, if P(n) is true then
P(n+2) is true.
a) P(3)
b) P(2)
c) P(4)
d) P(6)
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: By induction we can prove that P(3) is true but we can’t conclude about P(2),
p(6) and P(4).

9. Suppose that P(n) is a propositional function. Determine for which positive integers n the
statement P(n) must be true if: P(1) and P(2) is true; for all positive integers n, if P(n) and
P(n+1) is true then P(n+2) is true.
a) P(1)
b) P(2)
c) P(4)
d) P(n)
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: By induction, we can prove that P(n) is true.

10. A polygon with 25 sides can be triangulated into _______

a) 23
b) 20
c) 22
d) 21
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A simple polygon with n sides can be triangulated into n-2 triangles, where n >

1. Which of the following is contained in a recursive grammar?

a) semantic rules
b) production rules
c) recursive language
d) recursive function
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In natural language semantics, recursive grammar plays a vital role as well as
in syntax. A recursive grammar in a context free language is a formal grammar which
consists of recursive production rules.

2. ________ is the consequence of dynamic programming.

a) Bellman equation
b) Frobenius equation
c) Linear equation
d) Boolean expression
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Dynamic programming can lead to recursive optimization that can restate a
multistep optimization problem in its recursive form. The Bellman equation that writes the
value of the optimization problem at an earlier time in terms of its value at a later time is
the result of dynamic programming.

3. How many types of self-referential recursive data are there in computer programs?
a) 6
b) 2
c) 10
d) 4
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: There are two types of self-referential definitions and these are inductive and
coinductive definitions. An inductively defined recursive data definition must have to
specify how to construct instances of the data. For example, linked lists are defined as an
inductively recursive data definition.

4. _______ recursion consists of multiple self-references.

a) binary recursion
b) single recursion
c) multiple recursion
d) coinductive recursion
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A recursion which consists of multiple self-references and requires
exponential time and space is called multiple recursion. Multiple recursions include tree
traversal of a graph, such as in a depth-first search. However, single recursion is more
efficient than multiple recursion.

5. The argument of each recursive call is the content of a field of the original output. This
definite characteristic belongs to which of the following function?
a) Structurally recursive function
b) Generativity recursive function
c) General function
d) Indirect recursive function
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A structurally recursive function has a characteristic that the argument to each
recursive call is the content of a field of the original input. This recursion function includes
mostly all tree traversals which includes binary tree creation and search, XML processing
etc.

6. The mutual recursion is also termed as ______

a) indirect recursion
b) constructive recursion
c) generative recursion
d) definitive recursion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When a function is not called by itself but by another function which it has
called either directly or indirectly is termed as Indirect recursion. Mutual recursion is a
more symmetric term of Indirect recursion.

7. In which of the following problems recurrence relation holds?

a) Optimal substructure
b) Tower of Hanoi
c) Hallmark substitution
d) Longest common subsequence
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: We can have recurrence relation for tower of hanoi and that is hn = 2 hn-1 + 1h1
= 1, for n number of disks in one peg.

8. Which of the following functions generates new data at each step of a method?
a) corecursive function
b) structural recursive function
c) unirecursive function
d) indirect function
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The generatively recursive functions or corecursive functions is defined as
generation of the new data at each step that is successive approximation in Regula Falsi
method. In terms of loop variants, there is no such loop variant, and termination depends
on error of approximation.

9. Every recursive algorithm must have the problem of ________

a) overhead of repeated function calls
b) collision of different function calls
c) searching for all duplicate elements
d) make only two recursive calls
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Due to the overhead of repeated function calls and returns, recursive
algorithms may be inefficient for small data. Any recursion can be replaced by iteration
with an explicit call stack whereas iteration can be replaced with tail recursion.
10. If the height of a binary tree is 54, how many null pointers are there as children?
a) 1267
b) 358
c) 56

d) 255

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Depth-first search (DFS) algorithm of a binary tree, is a trivial example of
short-circuiting. We can have a standard recursive algorithm in case of DFS. Now, a perfect
binary tree of height h has 2h+1 Null pointers as children.
h = 54
254+1
255
.

1. How many even 4 digit whole numbers are there?

a) 1358
b) 7250
c) 4500
d) 3600
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The thousands digit cannot be zero, so there are 9 choices. There are 10
possibilities for the hundreds digit and 10 possibilities for the tens digit. The units digit can
be 0, 2, 4, 6 or 8, so there are 5 choices. By the basic counting principle, the number of even
five digit whole numbers is 9 × 10 × 10 × 5 = 45,00.

2. In a multiple-choice question paper of 15 questions, the answers can be A, B, C or D. The

number of different ways of answering the question paper are ________
a) 65536 x 47
b) 194536 x 45

c) 23650 x 49

d) 11287435

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: There are 415 = 65536 x 47 different ways of answering the exam paper of 15
MCQs.

3. How many words with seven letters are there that start with a vowel and end with an A?
Note that they don’t have to be real words and letters can be repeated.
a) 45087902
b) 64387659
c) 12765800
d) 59406880
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The first letter must be a vowel, so there are 5 choices. The second letter can
be any one of 26, the third letter can be any one of 26, the fourth letter can be any one of
26 and fifth and sixth letters can be any of 26 choices. The last letter must be an A, so there
is only 1 choice. By the basic counting principle, the number of ‘words’ is 5 × 26 × 26 × 26 ×
26 × 26 × 1 = 59406880.

4. Neela has twelve different skirts, ten different tops, eight different pairs of shoes, three
different necklaces and five different bracelets. In how many ways can Neela dress up?
a) 50057
b) 14400
c) 34870
d) 56732
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: By the basic counting principle, the number of different ways = 12 × 10 × 8 × 3
× 5 = 14400. Note that shoes come in pairs. So she must choose one pair of shoes from ten
pairs, not one shoe from twenty.

5. How many five-digit numbers can be made from the digits 1 to 7 if repetition is allowed?
a) 16807
b) 54629
c) 23467
d) 32354
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: 75 = 16807 ways of making the numbers consisting of five digits if repetition is
allowed.

6. For her English literature course, Ruchika has to choose one novel to study from a list of
ten, one poem from a list of fifteen and one short story from a list of seven. How many
different choices does Rachel have?
a) 34900
b) 26500
c) 12000
d) 10500
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: By the Basic Counting Principle, the number of different choices is 10 × 15 × 7
= 10500.

7. There are two different Geography books, five different Natural Sciences books, three
different History books and four different Mathematics books on a shelf. In how many
different ways can they be arranged if all the books of the same subjects stand together?
a) 353450
b) 638364
c) 829440
d) 768700
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: There are four groups of books which can be arranged in 4! different ways.
Among those books, two are Geography books, five are Natural Sciences books, three are
History books and four are Mathematics books. Therefore, there are 4! × 2! × 5! × 3! × 4! =
829440 ways to arrange the books.

8. The code for a safe is of the form PPPQQQQ where P is any number from 0 to 9 and Q
represents the letters of the alphabet. How many codes are possible for each of the
following cases? Note that the digits and letters of the alphabet can be repeated.
a) 874261140
b) 537856330
c) 549872700
d) 456976000
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: 103 × 264 = 456976000 possible codes are formed for the safe with the
alphanumeric digits.

9. Amit must choose a seven-digit PIN number and each digit can be chosen from 0 to 9.
How many different possible PIN numbers can Amit choose?
a) 10000000
b) 9900000
c) 67285000
d) 39654900
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: By the basic counting principle, the total number of PIN numbers Amit can
choose is 10 × 10 × 10 × 10 × 10 × 10 × 10 = 10,000000.
10. A head boy, two deputy head boys, a head girl and 3 deputy head girls must be chosen
out of a student council consisting of 14 girls and 16 boys. In how many ways can they are
chosen?
a) 98072
b) 27384
c) 36428
d) 44389
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: There are 16 × 15 × 14 + 14 × 13 × 12 × 11 = 27384 ways to choose from a
student council.

1. A drawer contains 12 red and 12 blue socks, all unmatched. A person takes socks out at
random in the dark. How many socks must he take out to be sure that he has at least two
blue socks?
a) 18
b) 35
c) 28
d) 14
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Given 12 red and 12 blue socks so, in order to take out at least 2 blue socks,
first we need to take out 12 shocks (which might end up red in worst case) and then take
out 2 socks (which would be definitely blue). Thus we need to take out total 14 socks.

2. The least number of computers required to connect 10 computers to 5 routers to

guarantee 5 computers can directly access 5 routers is ______
a) 74
b) 104
c) 30
d) 67
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Since each 5 computer need directly connected with each router. So 25
connections + now remaining 5 computer, each connected to 5 different routers, so 5
connections = 30 connections. Hence,

c1->r1, r2, r3, r4, r5c2->r1, r2, r3, r4, r5c3->r1, r2, r3, r4, r5c4->r1, r2,
r3, r4, r5c5->r1, r2, r3, r4, r5c6->r1c7->r2c8->r3c9->r4c10->r5
Now, any pick of 5 computers will have a direct connection to all the 5 routers.

3. In a group of 267 people how many friends are there who have an identical number of
friends in that group?
a) 266
b) 2
c) 138
d) 202
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Suppose each of the 267 members of the group has at least 1 friend. In this
case, each of the 267 members of the group will have 1 to 267-1=266 friends. Now,
consider the numbers from 1 to n-1 as holes and the n members as pigeons. Since there is
n-1 holes and n pigeons there must exist a hole which must contain more than one pigeon.
That means there must exist a number from 1 to n-1 which would contain more than 1
member. So, in a group of n members there must exist at least two persons having equal
number of friends. A similar case occurs when there exist a person having no friends.

4. When four coins are tossed simultaneously, in _______ number of the outcomes at most
two of the coins will turn up as heads.
a) 17
b) 28
c) 11
d) 43
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The question requires you to find number of the outcomes in which at most 2
coins turn up as heads i.e., 0 coins turn heads or 1 coin turns head or 2 coins turn heads.
The number of outcomes in which 0 coins turn heads is 4C0 = 1 outcome. The number of
outcomes in which 1 coin turns head is 4C1 = 6 outcomes. The number of outcomes in which
2 coins turn heads is,
4C2 = 15 outcomes. Therefore, total number of outcomes = 1 + 4 + 6 = 11 outcomes.

5. How many numbers must be selected from the set {1, 2, 3, 4} to guarantee that at least
one pair of these numbers add up to 7?
a) 14
b) 5
c) 9
d) 24
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: With 2 elements pairs which give sum as 7 = {(1,6), (2,5), (3,4), (4,3)}. So
choosing 1 element from each group = 4 elements (in worst case 4 elements will be either
{1,2,3,4} or {6,5,4,3}). Now using pigeonhole principle = we need to choose 1 more element
so that sum will definitely be 7. So Number of elements must be 4 + 1 = 5.

6. During a month with 30 days, a cricket team plays at least one game a day, but no more
than 45 games. There must be a period of some number of consecutive days during which
the team must play exactly ______ number of games.
a) 17
b) 46
c) 124
d) 24
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Let a1 be the number of games played until day 1, and so on, ai be the no
games played until i. Consider a sequence like a1,a2,…a30 where 1≤ai≤45, ∀ai. Add 14 to
each element of the sequence we get a new sequence a1+14, a2+14, … a30+14 where, 15 ≤
ai+14 ≤ 59, ∀ai. Now we have two sequences 1. a1, a2, …, a30 and 2. a1+14, a2+14, …,
a30+14. having 60 elements in total with each elements taking a value ≤ 59. So according to
pigeon hole principle, there must be at least two elements taking the same value ≤59 i.e., ai
= aj + 14 for some i and j. Therefore, there exists at least a period such as aj to ai, in which
14 matches are played.

7. In how many ways can 8 different dolls be packed in 5 identical gift boxes such that no
box is empty if any of the boxes hold all of the toys?
a) 2351
b) 365
c) 2740
d) 1260
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Dolls are different but the boxes are identical. If none of the boxes is to
remain empty, then we can pack the dolls in one of the following ways:
Case i. 2, 2, 2, 1, 1
Case ii. 3, 3, 1, 1
Case i: Number of ways of achieving the first option 2, 2, 2, 1, 1. Two dolls out of the 8 can
be selected in 8C2 ways, another 2 out of the remaining 6 can be selected in 6C2 ways,
another 2 out of the remaining 4 can be selected in 4C2 ways and the last two dolls can be
selected in 1C1 ways each. However, as the boxes are identical, the two different ways of
selecting which box holds the first two dolls and which one holds the second set of two
dolls will look the same. Hence, we need to divide the result by 2. Therefore, total number
of ways of achieving the 2, 2, 2, 1, 1 is = (8C2 * 6C2 * 4C2 * 1C1 * 1C1) / 2 = 1260.

8. A group of 20 girls plucked a total of 200 oranges. How many oranges can be plucked
one of them?
a) 24
b) 10
c) 32
d) 7
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Suppose all of them plucked the different number of oranges. A girl can pluck
at least 0 oranges and the number of oranges plucks by each student is distinct. So, total
number of plucked oranges should be less than 100. But 0+1+2…..+19+20 = 210>200 a
contradiction.
Thus there exist two girls who plucked the same number of oranges. If thus there exist two
girls who plucked the same number of oranges. It means each girl of remaining 18
students plucked different number of oranges. Number of oranges Plucked by 18 students
= 0+1+2+3…+17 = 153 oranges. Number of oranges plucked by remaining 2 student = 200 –
153 = 47. Both students plucked same number of oranges. So, Number of oranges plucked
by one of them = 47/2=24.

9. In a get-together party, every person present shakes the hand of every other person. If
there were 90 handshakes in all, how many persons were present at the party?
a) 15
b) 14
c) 16
d) 17
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Let the total number of persons present at the party be m, Then, [{x *(x−1)}/2]
= 90.
x = 14.

10. A bag contains 25 balls such as 10 balls are red, 7 are white and 8 are blue. What is the
minimum number of balls that must be picked up from the bag blindfolded (without
replacing any of it) to be assured of picking at least one ball of each colour?
a) 10
b) 18
c) 63
d) 35
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Consider three buckets red, white and blue and we want the total number of
balls such that each bucket contain at least one ball. Now consider the state of picking up a
ball without replacement : (normally you consider the worst case scenario in these cases)
Starting 10 balls all are red and thus goes to bucket name Red. Now again picking up the
ball gives 7 balls which are of same colour and put all of them in a bucket named White.
The next pick will definitely be of different colour thus: we picked 10 + 7 + 1 = 18.

1. How many substrings (of all lengths inclusive) can be formed from a character string of
length 8? (Assume all characters to be distinct)
a) 14
b) 21
c) 54
d) 37
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Let’s consider the given string is CLEAN, so set of string of length 1 =
{C,L,E,A,N} ; cardinality of set = 5 set of string of length 2 = {CL,EE,EA,NN}, set of string of
length 3 = {CLE,LEE,EAN}, set of strings of length 4 = {CLEN,LEAN}, set of strings of length 5
= {CLEAN} and set of string of length 0 = {} and we cannot have any substring of length 6 as
given string has only 5 length. So total no of substrings are possible = 0 length substring + 1
length substring + 2 length substrings +3 length substrings + 4 length substrings + 5 length
substrings = 1 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 16 means for 1 length string to n length substrings it will
sum of the n natural no from 1 to n.
so 1+2+3+…+n = n(n+1)2 so total no substrings possible = 0 length strings + n(n+1)2 = 1+
[n(n+1)2] so total no of substrings possible in n length string (All length inclusive )= 1 +
[n(n+1)2]=8(8+1)2 = 37.
2. The number of diagonals can be drawn in a hexagon is ______
a) 9
b) 32
c) 16
d) 21
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A hexagon has 6 sides. We obtain the diagonals by joining the vertices in pairs.
Total number of sides and diagonals = 6C2 = 6∗52∗1 = 5×3 = 15. This includes its 6 sides also.
So, Diagonals = 15 – 6 = 9. Hence, the number of diagonals is 9.

3. The number of binary strings of 17 zeros and 8 ones in which no two ones are adjacent is
___________
a) 43758
b) 24310
c) 32654
d) 29803
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: First place 17 zeroes side by side _ 0 _ 0 _ 0 … 0 _ and 8 1’s can be placed in any
of the (17+1) available gaps hence the number of ways = n+1Ck = 43758.

4. How many words that can be formed with the letters of the word ‘SWIMMING’ such that
the vowels do not come together? Assume that words are of with or without meaning.
a) 430
b) 623
c) 729
d) 1239
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The word ‘SWIMMING contains 8 letters. Of which, I occurs twice and M occurs
twice. Therefore, the number of words formed by this word = 8!2!∗2! = 10080. In order to
find the number of permutations that can be formed where the two vowels I and I come
together, we group the letters that should come together and consider that group as one
letter. So, the letters are S, W, M, M, N, G, (I, I). So, the number of letters are 7 the number
of ways in which 7 letters can be arranged is 7! = 5040. In I and I, the number of ways in
which I and I can be arranged is 2!. Hence, the total number of ways in which the letters of
the ‘SWIMMING’ can be arranged such that vowels are always together are 7!2!∗2! = 5040
ways. The number of words in which the vowels do not come together is = (10080 – 5040) =
5040.

5. A number lock contains 6 digits. How many different zip codes can be made with the
digits 0–9 if repetition of the digits is allowed upto 3 digits from the beginning and the first
digit is not 0?
a) 254307
b) 453600
c) 458760
d) 972340
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: For the first position, there are 9 possible choices (since 0 is not allowed). After
that number is chosen, there are 10 possible choices (since 0 is now allowed) for the
second digit, for the third digit there are 10 possible choices, 9 possible choices for the
fourth digit and 8 possible choices for the fifth digit and 7 possible choices for the sixth
digit. The count of number locks = 453600.

6. Let M be a sequence of 9 distinct integers sorted in ascending order. How many distinct
pairs of sequences, N and O are there such that i) each are sorted in ascending order, ii) N
has 5 and O has 4 elements, and iii) the result of merging N and O gives that sequence?
a) 84
b) 35
c) 194
d) 138
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Selecting any 3 elements from given 9 elements gives 9C3 = 84 number of
distinct pairs of sequences.

7. 14 different letters of alphabet are given, words with 6 letters are formed from these
given letters. How many number of words are there which have at least one letter
repeated?
a) 892742
b) 999988
c) 213216
d) 786730
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Number of words which have at least one letter replaced = total number of
words – total number of words in which no letter is repeated, => 10 6 – 12P6 => 1000000 − 924
= 999988.

8. In how many ways can 10 boys be seated in a row having 28 seats such that no two
friends occupy adjacent seats?
a) 13P5
b) P29
9

c) P10
19
d) P7
15

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: First let us take the 18 unoccupied seats. They create 19 slots i.e., one on the
left of each seat and one on the right of the last one. So we can place the 10 boys in any of
these 19 slots that are, 19P10 ways.

9. In how many ways can the letters of the word SANFOUNDRY be rearranged such that the
vowels always appear together?
a) (8+3)!2!
b) 6!2!
c) 8!*3!
d) 4!8!
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Take AOU together and treat it like 1 entity and arrange SNFNDRY in 8! Ways.
Then, the AOU can be arranged in 3! ways. So, total arrangements = 8! * 3! = 40320 * 6 =
241920.

10. How many ways can 8 prizes be given away to 7 students, if each student is eligible for
all the prizes?
a) 40325
b) 40320
c) 40520
d) 40720
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Now the first student is eligible to receive any of the 8 available prizes (so 8
ways), the second student will receive a prize from rest 7 available prizes (so 7 ways), the
third student will receive his prize from the rest 6 prizes available(so 6 ways) and so on. So
total ways would be 8! = 8*7*6*5*4*3*2*1 = 40320. Hence, the 7 prizes can be distributed
in 40320 ways.

1. In a playground, 3 sisters and 8 other girls are playing together. In a particular game,
how many ways can all the girls be seated in a circular order so that the three sisters are
not seated together?
a) 457993
b) 3386880
c) 6544873
d) 56549
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: There are 3 sisters and 8 other girls in total of 11 girls. The number of ways to
arrange these 11 girls in a circular manner = (11– 1)! = 10!. These three sisters can now
rearrange themselves in 3! ways. By the multiplication theorem, the number of ways so
that 3 sisters always come together in the arrangement = 8! × 3!. Hence, the required
number of ways in which the arrangement can take place if none of the 3 sisters is seated
together: 10! – (8! × 3!) = 3628800 – (40320 * 6) = 3628800 – 241920 = 3386880.

2. How many numbers of three digits can be formed with digits 1, 3, 5, 7 and 9?
a) 983
b) 120
c) 345
d) 5430
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Here number of digits, n = 5 and number of places to be filled-up r = 3. Hence,
the required number is 5P3 = 5!/2!*3! = 120.

3. The size of a multiset is 6 which is equal to the number of elements in it with counting
repetitions (a multiset is an unordered collection of elements where the elements may
repeat any number of times). Determine the number of multisets can be grouped from n
distinct elements so that at least one element occurs exactly twice?
a) 326
b) 28
c) 45
d) 62
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: There are six places to be filled in the multiset using the n distinct elements. At
least one element has to occur exactly twice and that would leave 4 more places in the
multiset means that at most four elements can occur exactly once. Thus there are two
mutually exclusive cases as follows: 1) Exactly one element occurs exactly twice and select
this element in n ways. Fill up the remaining four spots using 5 distinct elements from the
remaining n−1 elements in n-1C4 ways. 2) Exactly four elements that occur at least once each.
Hence, the total number of ways to form the multiset is
nC2 + n * n-1C4 = 6C2 + 6 * 6-1C4 = 45.
4. How many words can be formed with the letters of the word ‘CASTLE’ when ‘O’ and ‘A’
occupying end places.
a) 217
b) 48
c) 75
d) 186
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: When ‘O’ and ‘A’ are occupying end-places => A.S.T.L. (CE). We can see that (CE)
are fixed, hence A, S, T, L can be arranged in 4! Ways and (C, E) can be arranged themselves
is 2! ways. So, the number of words formed = 4! x 2! = 48 ways.

5. Determine the number of ways of choosing a cricket team (consists of 11 players) out of
18 players if a particular player is never chosen.
a) 12798
b) 22800
c) 31824
d) 43290
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: If a particular player is never chosen that would mean 11 players are selected
out of 18 players. Hence, required number of ways = 18C11 = 31824.

6. How many different choices can be made from 5 roses, 4 marigold and 8 sunflowers if at
least one flower is to be chosen for making of garland?
a) 269
b) 270
c) 281
d) 320
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Number of ways of selecting roses = (5+1) = 6 ways, number of ways of
selecting marigold = (4+1) = 5 ways, and the number of ways of selecting sunflowers = (8+1)
= 9 ways. Total number of ways of selecting flowers= 6 * 5 * 9 = 270. But this includes when
no flowers or zero flowers is selected (There is no flowers of a different type, hence n=0 =>
2n = 20 = 1). Hence, the number of ways of selecting at least one fruit = 270 – 1 = 269.

7. In how many ways 6 pens can be selected from 15 identical black pens?
a) 9*3!
b) 21
c) 14!
d) 1
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Here the pens are identical, the total number of ways of selecting 6 pens is 1.

8. Determine the number of ways of selecting one or more letters from the letters
BBBBBB?
a) 6
b) 73
c) 23
d) 56
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The number of ways of selecting one ‘B’s = 1, selecting two ‘B’s = 1, selecting
three ‘B’s = 1, selecting four ‘B’s = 1, selecting five ‘B’s = 1 and selecting six ‘B’s = 1. Hence,
the required number of ways = 6.

9. Determine the number of ways such that 5 men and 5 women be seated at a round table
if no two women are seated together.
a) 654870
b) 144521
c) 362160
d) 5634
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The men and women can be seated alternately so that no two women will sit
together. Hence, 4 women can be seated on alternate seats at a round table in (4 – 1)! or 6
ways. Now, the 5 men can be seated in the remaining seats in 5! or 120 ways. Therefore the
total number of ways in this case will be (10-1)! – (120 * 6) = 362160.

10. Find the number of ways in which 4 people E, F, G, H, A, C can be seated at a round
table, such that E and F must always sit together.
a) 32
b) 290
c) 124
d) 48
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: E and F can sit together in all arrangements in 2! Ways. Now, the arrangement
of the 5 people in a circle can be done in (5 – 1)! or 24 ways. Therefore, the total number of
ways will be 24 x 2 = 48.

1. There are 6 equally spaced points A, B, C, D, E and F marked on a circle with radius R.
How many convex heptagons of distinctly different areas can be drawn using these points
as vertices?
a) 7! * 6
b) 7C5
c) 7!
d) same area
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Since all the points are equally spaced; hence the area of all the convex
heptagons will be the same.

2. There are 2 twin sisters among a group of 15 persons. In how many ways can the group
be arranged around a circle so that there is exactly one person between the two sisters?
a) 15 *12! * 2!
b) 15! * 2!
c) 14C2
d) 16 * 15!

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: We know that n objects can be arranged around a circle in (n−1)!2. If we
consider the two sisters and the person in between the brothers as a block, then there will
12 others and this block of three people to be arranged around a circle. The number of
ways of arranging 13 objects around a circle is in 12! ways. Now the sisters can be arranged
on either side of the person who is in between the sisters in 2! ways. The person who sits in
between the two sisters can be any of the 15 in the group and can be selected in 15 ways.
Therefore, the total number of ways 15 *12! * 2!.

3. The number of words of 4 consonants and 3 vowels can be made from 15 consonants
and 5 vowels, if all the letters are different is ________
a) 3! * 12C5
b) C4 * C4
16 4

c) 15! * 4

d)C4 * 5C3 * 7!
15

View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There are 4 consonants out of 15 can be selected in 15C4 ways and 3 vowels can
be selected in 5C3 ways. Therefore, the total number of groups each containing 4
consonants and 3 vowels = 15C4 * 4C3. Each group contains 7 letters which can be arranged in
7! ways. Hence, required number of words = 15C4 * 5C3 * 7!.

4. How many ways are there to arrange 7 chocolate biscuits and 12 cheesecake biscuits
into a row of 19 biscuits?
a) 52347
b) 50388
c) 87658
d) 24976
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Consider the situation as having 19 spots and filling them with 7 chocolate
biscuits and 19 cheesecake biscuits. Then we just choose 7 spots for the chocolate biscuits
and let the other 10 spots have cheesecake biscuits. The number of ways to do this job is
19
C7 = 50388.

5. If a, b, c, d and e are five natural numbers, then find the number of ordered sets(a, b, c,
d, e) possible such that a+b+c+d+e=75.
a) 65C5
b) C6
58

c) C7
72

d) C4
74

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Let assumes that there are 75 identical balls which are to be arranged in 5
different compartments (Since a, b, c, d, e are distinguishable). If the balls are arranged in
the row. We have 74 gaps where we can place a ball in each gap since we need 5
compartments we need to place only 4 balls. We can do this in 74C4 ways.

6. There are 15 people in a committee. How many ways are there to group these 15 people
into 3, 5, and 4?
a) 846
b) 2468
c) 658
d) 1317
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The number of ways to choose 3 people out of 9 is 15C3. Then, number of ways
to choose 5 people out of (15-3) = 12 is 12C5. Finally, the number of ways to choose 4 people
out of (12-4) = 8 is 8C4. Hence, by the rule of product, 15C3 + 12C5 + 8C4 = 1317.

7. There are six movie parts numbered from 1 to 6. Find the number of ways in which they
be arranged so that part-1 and part-3 are never together.
a) 876
b) 480
c) 654
d) 237
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The total number of ways in which 6 part can be arranged = 6! = 720. The total
number of ways in which part-1 and part-3 are always together: = 5!*2! = 240. Therefore,
the total number of arrangements, in which they are not together is = 720 − 240 = 480.

8. How many ways are there to divide 4 Indian countries and 4 China countries into 4
groups of 2 each such that at least one group must have only Indian countries?
a) 6
b) 45
c) 12
d) 76
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The number of ways to divide 4+4=8 countries into 4 groups of 2 each is as
follows: (10C2 * 10C2 * 10C2 * 10C2)/4! = 30. Since it is required that at least one group must have
only Indian countries, we need to subtract 30 from the number of possible groupings
where all 4 groups have 1 Indian country and 1 China country each. This is equivalent to
the number of ways to match each of the 4 Indian countries with one China country: 4! =
24. Therefore, the answer is 30 – 24 = 6.

9. Find the number of factors of the product 58 * 75 * 23 which are perfect squares.
a) 47
b) 30
c) 65
d) 19
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Any factor of this number should be of the form 5a * 7b * 2c. For the factor to
be a perfect square a, b, c has to be even. a can take values 0, 2, 4, 6, 8, b can take values 0,
2, 4 and c can take values 0, 2. Total number of perfect squares = 5 * 3 * 2 = 30.

10. From a group of 8 men and 6 women, five persons are to be selected to form a
committee so that at least 3 women are there on the committee. In how many ways can it
be done?
a) 686
b) 438
c) 732
d) 549
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: We may have (2 men and 3 women) or (1 men and 4 woman) or (5 women
only). The Required number of ways = (8C2 × 6C3) + (8C1 × 6C4) + (6C5) = 686.

1. Calculate sum of divisors of n = 1900.

a) 6530
b) 5346
c) 3387
d) 4123
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The prime factorization of 1800 is 19 * 22 * 52 and
S(22) = 1 + 2 + 4 = 7
S(52) = 1 + 5 + 25 = 31
Therefore, S(1800) = 19 * 7 * 31 = 4123.

2. Given the factorization of a number n, then the sum of divisors can be computed in
_______
a) linear time
b) polynomial time
c) O(logn)
d) o(n+1)
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The exact number of running time depends on the computational model.
When analyzing arithmetic with large numbers, we usually count either bit operations or
arithmetic operations of size O(logn) (where n is the input size). Now, given the
factorization of a number n, then the sum of divisors can be computed in polynomial time.
3. Calculate the sum of divisors of N = 9600.
a) 23250
b) 47780
c) 54298
d) 31620
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The prime factorization of 1800 is 3 * 27 * 52 and
S(3) = 1 + 3 = 4
S(22) = 1 + 2 + 4 + 8 + 16 + 32 + 64 + 128 = 255
S(52) = 1 + 5 + 25 = 31
Therefore, S(1800) = 4 * 255 * 31 = 31620.

4. Find the number of odd positive integers of the number 456.

a) 54
b) 27
c) 16
d) 8
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: To find the number of odd factors (which includes 1), we can exclude any
power of 2 and do the same. So, for 456, we have (3 + 1)(1 + 1) = 8 odd positive factors.

5. The number of even positive integers of 3200 is _______

a) 24
b) 32
c) 164
d) 209
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: To find the number of even factors, we can multiply the number of even
factors by the power of 2. For 3200, we have (5 + 1)(1 + 1)(2) = 24 even factors.

6. What is the sum of divisors of the number 1872?

a) 12493
b) 5438
c) 45862
d) 654
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The prime factorization of 1872 is 13 * 32 * 24 and S(24) = 1 + 2 + 4 + 8 + 16 = 31,
S(52) = 1 + 5 + 25 = 31. Therefore, S(1872) = 31 * 31 * 13 = 12493.

7. Find the odd positive integer of the number 6500.

a) 43
b) 17
c) 12
d) 87
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: To find the number of odd factors, we can exclude any power of 2 and do the
same. So, for 6500, we have (5 + 1)(1 + 1) = 6 * 2 = 12 odd positive factors.

8. How many even positive integers are there in the number 7362?
a) 16
b) 58
c) 35
d) 165
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: To find the number of even factors, we can multiply the number of even
factors by the power of 2. For 5065, we have (3 + 1)(1 + 1)(2) = 4 * 2 * 2 = 16 even factors.

9. Calculate sum of divisors of n = 8620.

a) 7549
b) 54201
c) 18102
d) 654
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The prime factorization of 1800 is 431 * 22 * 5 and
S(22) = 1 + 2 + 4 = 7
S(52) = 1 + 5 = 6
Therefore, S(1800) = 6 * 7 * 431 = 18102.

10. Find the odd positive integer of the number 4380.

a) 108
b) 48
c) 75
d) 8
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: To find the number

1. For a gaming competition, 8 girls are planning on splitting up into 3 (non-empty) groups.
How many ways can they split up into these groups?
a) 465
b) 1056
c) 966
d) 3215
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Using the inclusion-exclusion principle, the total number of ways of splitting
the girls into 3 groups is 38 + 3.(28) + 3.(18). However, since the three groups are identical we
need to divide by 3!. Hence, the answer is 966.

2. In a picnic with 20 persons where 6 chocolates will be given to the top 8 children(the
chocolates are distinct: first, second). How many ways can this be done?
a) 18C6
b) P6
20

c) C4 * 6!
25

d) 19P5
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: This is a permutation problem since the chocolates are distinct. The answer is
P(20, 6) -> the number of ways to arrange 20 things taken 6 at a time -> which is 20!(20−6)! =
20*19*18*17*16*15.

3. How many ways can one choose 20 cookies from 45 different types (assuming there are
at least 20 of each type)?
a) 64C21 * 15
b) 64C20
c) C20 * 2!
44

d) 65C22
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Imagine the 20 cookies one is choosing are indistinguishable dots. The 45
different types of cookies are like 45 distinguishable boxes and so the answer is C(45 + 20-
1, 20) = 64C20.
4. Assume that it is an afternoon. What is the time on the 24 hour clock after 146 hours?
a) 12:10 pm
b) 8:30 am
c) 3 am
d) 2 pm
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Divide 146 with 24. The remainder is the time on the 24 hour clock. So, 146 =
6*24 + 2 and the result is 2pm.

5. There are 28 identical oranges that are to be distributed among 8 distinct girls. How
many ways are there to distribute the oranges?
a) 22P7
b) C6
34

c) C7
35

d) C8
28

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: By the definition of star and bar problem, there are n+r-1Cr-1 possible
distributions of n identical objects among r distinct bins. Now, there are n = 28 identical
objects and r = 8 distinct bins. Using the formula above, there are 35C7 ways to distribute the
oranges.

6. There are 5 distinct fruits. How many ways can they be planted into identical fruit plants?
a) 87
b) 52
c) 76
d) 128
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: These fruits can be placed into 1, 2, 3, 4 or 5 fruit plants. The number of
distributions of fruits into fruit plants will thus be the sum of Stirling numbers of the
second kind: S(5,1) + S(5,2) + S(5,3) + S(5,4) + S(5,5) = 1 + 15 + 25 + 10 + 1 = 52.

7. A woman has 14 identical pens to distribute among a group of 10 distinct students. How
many ways are there to distribute the 14 pens such that each student gets at least one
pencil?
a) 15C10
b) C5 * 11
10

c) 15C8 * 4!
d) 13C9
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: For this type of problem, n>=r must be true and so according to stars and bars
model, the number of possible arrangements of stars and bars is n-1Cr-1 or equivalently,
there are n-1Cr-1 distributions of n identical objects into r distinct non-empty bins. In this
example, there are n = 14 identical objects to be distributed among r=10 distinct bins.
Using the above formula, the number of possible distributions is 13C9.

8. Suppose that M is the product of k distinct primes. Find the number of ways to write N as
the product of positive integers(>1), where the order of terms does not matter.
a) MCN-k
b) CM
N

c) N * Bk

d) Bk

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: To solve the problem first find the prime factorization of each term of the
product, and place the factors of each term into a box. Then, since N is the product of
distinct prime factors, each prime factor appears in a unique box. Since the product of all
of these terms is N, each prime factor must be in a box. Conversely, for any arrangement of
these n distinct primes into r identical boxes, multiply the primes in a box to create a term
and the product of these terms results in N. This establishes the bijection and the number
of ways is Bk which is Bell number.

9. How many ways are there to place 7 differently colored toys into 5 identical urns if the
urns can be empty? Note that all balls have to be used.
a) 320
b) 438
c) 1287
d) 855
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The problem can be described as distinct objects into any number of identical
bins and this number can be found with B7 = ∑S(7,k), where S(7,k) is the number of
distributions of 5 distinct objects into k identical non-empty bins, so that S(7,1) = 1, S(7,2) =
63, S(7,3) = 301, S(7,4) = 350 and S(7,5) = 140. These values can be found using the
recurrence relation identity for Stirling numbers of the second kind. Thus, B 7 = 1 + 63 + 301
+ 350 + 140 = 855.
10. Suppose, there are 7 of your friends who want to eat pizza (8 distinct people in total).
You order a 16-cut pizza (16 identical slices). How many distributions of pizza slices are
there if each person gets at least one slice of pizza?
a) 346
b) 6435
c) 3214
d) 765
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: This problem can be viewed as identical objects distributed into distinct non-
empty bins. Using the formula for these kind of distributions n-1Cr-1 = 15C7 = 6435.

1. The linear system Cx = d is known as _________ if d! = 0.

a) homogeneous
b) heterogeneous
c) nonhomogeneous
d) augmented system
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A linear system Cx = d is known as a homogeneous system if d! = 0. The
homogeneous linear system Ax = 0 is called its corresponding homogeneous linear system.

2. Every linear equation determines a _______ in n-dimensional space for n variables.

a) shipshape
b) hyperplane
c) cone
d) pyramid
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In an m-dimensional space, every linear equation produces a hyperplane for n
variables. The solution set is the intersection of these hyperplanes and is planar which may
have any dimension smaller than m.

3. Determine all possibilities for the number of solutions of the system of 7 equations in 5
unknowns and it has x1 = 0, x2 = −6, and x3 = 4 as a solution.
a) unique or infinitely many
b) unique
c) finitely many
d) zero
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Let i be the number of equations and j be the number of unknowns in the
given system. Since i> j, the system has at least one solution x1 = 0, x2 = −6, and x3 = 4 and so
it is consistent. Thus, it results in either a unique solution or infinitely many solutions.

4. Determine all possibilities for the solution set of the homogeneous system that has y 1 =
6, y2 = −4, y3 = 0 as a solution.
a) zero
b) infinitely many
c) finitely many
d) only one
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Since m<n, the system is either inconsistent or has infinitely many solutions.
Since y1 = 6, y2 = −4, y3 = 0 is a solution of the system, the system is not inconsistent. Thus
the only possibility is infinitely many solutions.

5. Determine all possibilities for the solution set of the homogeneous system of 5
equations in 3 unknowns and the rank of the system is 3.
a) more than two
b) only one
c) zero
d) infinite
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Since the rank of this homogeneous system(which is always consistent) and
the number of unknowns are equal, the only possible solution is zero and it is a unique
solution.

6. Determine all possibilities for the solution set of a homogeneous system that has y 1 = 5,
y2 = −3, y3 = 2 as a solution.
a) one
b) finitely many
c) infinitely many
d) either one or infinitely many
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The possibilities for the solution set for any homogeneous system is either a
unique solution or infinitely many solutions. Since the homogeneous system has the zero
solution and y1 = 5, y2 = −3, y3 = 2 is another solution, it has at least two distinct solution.
Thus the only possibility is infinitely many solutions.

7. Determine all possibilities for the solution set of the system of 2 equations in 3
unknowns that has x1 = 4, x2 = −7, x3 = 0 as a solution.
a) one or finitely many
b) infinite
c) finite
d) zero
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Since m1 = 4, x2 = −7, x3 = 0 is a solution of the system, the system is not
inconsistent. Thus the only possibility is infinitely many solutions.

8. Determine all possibilities for the solution set of a homogeneous system of 4 equations
in 4 unknowns.
a) only one
b) finitely many or zero
c) zero
d) one or infinitely many
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Here the number of equations and the number of unknowns are equal and
the system is homogeneous, so it may have the zero solution or infinitely many solutions.

9. Determine all possibilities for the solution set of a homogeneous system of 6 equations
in 5 unknowns.
a) only one
b) zero
c) one or infinitely many
d) finitely many
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Since the system is homogeneous and there are more equations than the
number of unknowns, so the possibilities are either a unique solution or infinitely many
solutions. However, if the rank r of the system is 5, then it can be a unique solution as well
as if r<5, then there are infinitely many solutions.

10. Determine all possibilities for the solution set of a homogeneous system of 5 equations
in 4 unknowns and the rank of the system is 3.
a) finite
b) zero or finitely many
c) only one
d) infinite
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A homogeneous system is

1. Determine the number of derangements of (2, 4, 6, 1, 3, 5) that end with integer 2, 4 and
6 in some order?
a) 128
b) 29
c) 54
d) 36
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The place of 2, 4, 6 is specified i.e. each of them will get their place out of the
last 3 places only. So 1, 3, 5 will automatically get one of the places in the first 3 places. This
must ensure that 2, 4 and 6 occupies one of the last 3 places each and 1, 3 and 5 one of 1st
3 places each. Hence, 1, 3 and 5 can be arranged in 3! ways and 2, 4 and 6 also in 3! Ways.
So, no of such derangements = 3! * 3! = 6 * 6 = 36.

2. A nursery teacher has 5 pencil boxes to give out to her five students. Determine the
probability that at least one student gets their name tag?
a) 1930
b) 2647
c) 123537
d) 1279
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: There are 5!= 120 ways to give out the pencil boxes. By using complementary
probability, the number of ways where nobody gets their pencil boxes is
5!(10!–11!+…–15!)
= 44. Hence, the required probability is 120–44120=1930.

3. Farhan has received 9 gifts from 9 different people. In how many ways can Farhan
receives the gifts such that no one gives him real gifts?
a) 133496
b) 326654
c) 218744
d) 745331
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: By the derangements formula, the number of possible derangements should
be 9!(10!–11!+…–19!) = 133496. Hence, there are a total of ways to give the gifts to him such
that no one distributes the real gifts.

4. There are 7 groups in a picnic who has brought their own lunch box, and then the 7
lunch box are exchanged within those groups. Determine the number of ways that they
can exchange the lunch box such that none of them can get their own.
a) 655
b) 328
c) 1854
d) 3765
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: This can be solved by the derangement formula:
!n = n!(1 – 11!+12!–13!+…+(−1)n1n!) ⇒ 7! = 1854.

5. Computational complexity of derangements is of __________

a) NP-complete
b) NP-hard
c) NP
d) P
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Computational complexity of derangements is NP-complete in order to
determine whether a given permutation group consists of any derangements or not.

6. There are 5 different-colored boxes in a room each with a distinct cover. Find out the
number of ways so that these covers can be put on the boxes such that none of the boxes
can have right covers on it? (Assume that all the covers must be on the boxes).
a) 208
b) 137
c) 239
d) 24
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Let the box covers be A, B, C, D and E. The possible ways for the covers to not
be in the exact order of A, B, C, D, E are: 4! = 24 ways. (Since correct order i.e., A, B, C, D and
E must be eliminated from such arrangements).

7. A postman can put 12 letters into their respective envelopes such that exactly 5 will go
into the right envelope. Find the number of ways of doing this work.
a) 2984300
b) 1610496
c) 5322167
d) 3768650
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The number of ways in which the 5 correct envelopes can be selected = 12C5 =
864
Derangement of the remaining 7 envelopes & letters = 1864 (derangement value for 7 is
1864)
Total No of ways of arrangement = 1864 * 864 = 1610496.

8. Determine the number of ways In a single competition a singing couple from 5 boys and
5 girls can be formed so that no girl can sing a song with their respective boy?
a) 123
b) 44
c) 320
d) 21
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: This is a case of derangement of 5 boys and 5 girls. The required number of
ways can be described as D = 5! (1 – 11!+12!–13!+14!–15!)=120(1130) = 44 ways.

9. What is the sum of all 6 digit numbers which can be formed using the digits 2, 3, 5, 6 and
9 exactly once?
a) 986546600
b) 25611866
c) 433338798
d) 319999680
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Note that sum of all possible numbers = (n-1)!(sum of the digits involved)
(1111…n times), where n is the number of digits. Here n = 6, we have (6-1)!(2+3+5+6+9)
(111111) = 5!*(24)*(111111) = 319999680.
10. Determine the average of all four digit numbers that can be made using all the digits 2,
3, 5, 7 and 11 exactly once?
a) 3993
b) 1555
c) 5486
d) 1347
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: First we need to find the sum of all possible numbers and then divide it by the
total such numbers possible to gain an average of all the numbers. So, we have (n-1)!(sum
of digits)(1111…n times)/n!. Here n = 4. Therefore, (5-1)!(2+3+5+7+11)(1111)/5! = 1555.

1. In a blindfolded game, a boy can hit the target 8 times out of 12. If he fired 8 shots, find
out the probability of more than 4 hits?
a) 2.530
b) 0.1369
c) 0.5938
d) 3.998
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Here, n = 8, p = 0.6, q = 0.4. Suppose X = number of hits x 0 = 0 number of hits,
x1 = 1 hit, x2 = 2 hits, and so on.
So, (X) = P(x5) + P(x6) + P(x7) + P(x8) = 8C5(0.6)5(0.4)3 + 8C5(0.6)6(0.4)2 + 8C7(0.6)7(0.4)1 + 8C8(0.6)8(0.4)0
= 0.5938.

2. A fair coin is tossed 15 times. Determine the probability in which no heads turned up.
a) 2.549 * 10-3
b) 0.976

c) 3.051 * 10-5

d) 5.471

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: According to the null hypothesis it is a fair coin and so in that case the
probability of flipping at least 59% tails is = 15C0(0.5)15 = 3.051 * 10-5.

3. When a programmer compiles her code there is a 95% chance of finding a bug every
time. It takes three hours to rewrite her code when she finds out a bug. Determine the
probability such that she will finish her coding by the end of her workday. (Assume, a
workday is 7 hours)
a) 0.065
b) 0.344
c) 0.2
d) 3.13
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A success is a bug-free compilation, and a failure is the finding out of a bug.
The programmer has 0, 1, 2, or 3 failures and so her probability of finishing the program is :
Pr(X=0) + Pr(X=1) + Pr(X=2) + Pr(X=3) = (0.95)0(0.05) + (0.95)0(0.05) + (0.95)0(0.05) + (0.95)0(0.05)
= 0.2.

4. Determine the probability when a die is thrown 2 times such that there are no fours and
no fives occur?
a) 49
b) 5689
c) 1346
d) 397
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In this experiment, throwing a die anything other than a 4 is a success and
rolling a 4 is failure. Since there are two trials, the required probability is
b(2; 2, 56) = 2C2 * (46)2 * (26)0 = 49.

5. In earlier days, there was a chance to make a telephone call would be of 0.6. Determine
the probability when it could make 11 successes in 20 attempts of phone call.
a) 0.2783
b) 0.2013
c) 0.1597
d) 3.8561
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Probability of success p=0.6 and q=0.4. X=success in making a telephone call.
Hence, the probability of 11 successes in 20 attempts = P(X=11) = 20C11(0.6)11(0.4)20 – 11 =
0.1597.

6. By the expression (x3+1x)5, evaluate the middle term in the expression.

a) 10*(x5)
b) 15∗(x4)
c) 10*(x3)
d) 6*(x3)
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: By using Binomial theorem,the expression (x3+1x)5 can be expanded as
(x3+1x)5=5C0(x3)5+5C1(x3)4(1x)1+5C2(x3)3(1x)2
+5C3(x3)2(1x)3+5C4(x3)1(1x)4 = (x3)5+5.(x3)+10.(x3)+10.(13x)+5(13x3). Hence, the middle
term is 10*(x3).

7. Evaluate the expression (y+1)4 – (y-1)4.

a) 3y2 + 2y5
b) 7(y4
+ y2 + y)
c) 8(y3 + y1)
d) y + y2 + y3
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: By using Binomial theorem,the expression (y+1) 4 – (y-1)4 can be expanded as =
(y+1)4 = 4C0y4 + 4C1y3 + 4C2y2 + 4C3y1 + 4C4y0 and (y-1)4 = 4C0y4 – 4C1y3 + 4C2y2 – 4C3y1 + 4C4y0. Now, (y+1)4
– (y-1)4 = (4C0y4 + 4C1y3 + 4C2y2 + 4C3y1 + 4C4y0) – (4C0y4 – 4C1y3 + 4C2y2 – 4C3y1 + 4C4y0) = 2(4C1y3 + 4C3y1) =
8(y3 + y1).

8. Find the coefficient of x7 in (x+4)9.

a) 523001
b) 428700
c) 327640
d) 129024
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: It is known that (r+1)th term, in the binomial expansion of (a+b)n is given by, Tr+1
= nCran-rbr. Assuming that x7 occurs in the (r+1)th term of the expansion (x+4)9, we obtain Tr+1 =
129024x4.

9. Determine the 7th term in the expansion of (x-2y)12.

a) 6128y7
b) 59136y6

c) 52632x6

d) 39861y5

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: By assuming that x7 occurs in the (r+1)th term of the expansion (x-2y)12, we
obtain Tr+1 = nCran-rbr = 12C6 x6 (2y)6 = 59136y6.

10. What is the middle term in the expansion of (x/2 + 6y) 8?

a) 45360x4
b) 34210x3

c) 1207x4

d) 3250x5

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: We know that in the expansion of (x+y)n, if n is even then the middle term is
(n/2 + 1)th term. Hence, the middle term in the expansion of (x/2 + 6y)8 is (8/2+1)th = 5th term.
Now, assuming that x5 occurs in the (r+1)th term of the expansion (x/2+6y)8, we obtain Tr+1
=nCrxn-ryr = 8C4(x/2)4(6y)4 = 45360x4.

1. Calculate the value of 8C5.

a) 79
b) 43
c) 120
d) 56
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: We can use the formula nCk = n!k!(n−k)! to calculate the value of 8C5 = 8!5!(8−5)! =
56.

2. In how many ways can you select 9 cupcakes from a box containing 17 cupcakes?
a) 42769
b) 45398
c) 24310
d) 36214
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The number of ways to choose 9 cupcakes out of a set of 17 is 17C9 = 17!9!(17−9)!
= 24,310.

3. How many 4-digit numbers can be formed by using 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12 without repetition of
digits?
a) 15
b) 42
c) 70
d) 127
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Here making a 4-digit number is equivalent to filling 4 places with 6 numbers.
So, the number of ways of filling all the four places is 6C4 = 15. Hence, the total possible 4-
digit numbers from the above 6 numbers are 15.

4. What is the coefficient of x9 in the expansion of (x+5)14?

a) 5! * 14C6
b) C5
14

c) 54 * C5
14

d) 34 * C5
11

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: the binomial theorem is (x+y)a = Σ aCi xa-i yi. In order to get the coefficient of x9,
we need to have a-i=9. Since a=14, i=5. Thus, the answer is aC5 * y4 = 54 * 14C5.

5. Determine the independent term of x7 in the expansion of (3x2 + 4)12.

a) 220 * 46
b) 230

c) 548* 3!

d) 220 * 36
* 46
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: By using Binomial theorem = n∑k=0 (nk) xkyn-k = n0x0yn + n1x1yn-1 + n2x2yn-2 + … + nnxny0,
where (nk) = n!k!(n−k)!. Now, Tr+1 = nCran-rbr, T9+1 = 12C6a12-6b6 = 220 * (3x2)6 * (4)6 = 220 * 36 * 46.
Hence the coefficient is 220 * 36 * 46.

6. In a game, a fair coin is tossed 6 times. Each time the coin comes up tails, A will pay Rs.
15 but if each time heads come up, A will pay nothing. Determine the probability that A will
win Rs. 45 by playing the game?
a) 516
b) 431
c) 37
d) 1265
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: By using the binomial distribution, to calculate how likely to win Rs. 45 (or
equivalently, the likelihood the coin comes up tails 3 times). The possible outcomes of this
game are to win Rs. 45. Therefore, the required probability is 6C326=516.

7. Find the coefficient of x8 in the expansion of (x+2)11.

a) 640
b) 326
c) 1320
d) 456
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The coefficient of the 8th term is 11C8 = 165. Hence, the 8th term of the expansion
is 165 * 23 * x8 = 1320x8, where the coefficient is 1320.

8. Determine the coefficient of the x5y7 term in the polynomial expansion of (m+n)12.
a) 792
b) 439
c) 382
d) 630
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Note that, the “x” in the binomial has to be chosen 5 times out of 12. Thus, the
coefficient of the term x5y7 must be equal to the number of combinations of 5 objects out of
12: 12C5 = 792.

9. The last digit of the number ((51−−√ + 1)51 – 51−−√ – 1)51 is _______
a) 32
b) 8
c) 51
d) 1
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Consider the binomial expansion of (m+1)71 and (m-1)71 which gives these two
expressions below respectively: 1) m51 + 51C1m50 + 51C2m49 + 51C3m48 + … + 51C50m1 + 51C51m0
2) m51
– 51C1m50 + 51C2m49 – 51C3m48 + … + 51C50m1 – 51C51m0 .
By taking the difference we have, 2(51C1m50 + 51C3m48 – 51C5m46 + … + 51C50m2 – 51C51m0 ).
In this case, m = 51−−√ and 2(51C1m50 + 51C3m48 – 51C5m46 + … + 51C50m2 – 51C51m0 ).
Consider, module 10 on the powers(for any natural number n): (51) n ≡ (51 mod 10n) ≡ 1
gives 2(51C1 + 51C3 + 51C5 + … + 51C50 + 51C51). Now, by adding the odd terms of the 51st row of the
Pascal Triangle 2.(12 * 251) = 251 = 2(51 mod 4) = 23 = 8.

10. The independent term of x is 80000 in the expansion of (3x+b/x) 6, where b is a positive
constant. What the value of b?
a) 3.97
b) 6.87
c) 8.3
d) 5.2
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: By using the Binomial Theorem, the terms are of the form 6Cn * (4x)6-n * (b/x)n.
For the term to be independent of x, we need x6-n(1/x)n = x0 ⇒ x6-n(x-1)n = x0 ⇒ x6-nx-n = x0 ⇒ 6 – n
= n ⇒ 2n = 6 and n = 3. Thus, we have a constant term of 6C3 * 33 * b3 = 8000
20 * 27 * b3 = 80000
540 * b3 = 80000
b3 = 148.14 ⇒ b= 5.2.

1. Consider the recurrence relation a 1=4, an=5n+an-1. The value of a64 is _________
a) 10399
b) 23760
c) 75100
d) 53700
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: an=5n+an-1
= 5n + 5(n-1) + … + an-2

= 5n + 5(n-1) + 5(n − 2) +…+ a1

= 5n + 5(n-1) + 5(n − 2) +…+ 4 [since, a1=4]

= 5n + 5(n-1) + 5(n − 2) +…+ 5.1 – 1

= 5(n + (n − 1)+…+2 + 1) – 1

= 5 * n(n+1)/ 2 – 1

an = 5 * n(n+1)/ 2 – 1
Now, n=64 so the answer is a64 = 10399.

2. Determine the solution of the recurrence relation Fn=20Fn-1 − 25Fn-2 where F0=4 and F1=14.
a) an = 14*5n-1
n = 7/2*2 −1/2*6
b) a n n

n = 7/2*2 −3/4*6
c) a n n+1

n = 3*2 −1/2*3
d) a n n

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The characteristic equation of the recurrence relation is → x2−20x+36=0
So, (x-2)(x-18)=0. Hence, there are two real roots x1=2 and x2=18. Therefore the solution to
the recurrence relation will have the form: an=a2n+b18n. To find a and b, set n=0 and n=1 to
get a system of two equations with two unknowns: 4=a20+b180=a+b and 3=a21+b61=2a+6b.
Solving this system gives b=-1/2 and a=7/2. So the solution to the recurrence relation is,
an = 7/2*2n−1/2*6n.
3. What is the recurrence relation for 1, 7, 31, 127, 499?
a) bn+1=5bn-1+3
b) bn=4bn+7!
c) bn=4bn-1+3
d) bn=bn-1+1
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Look at the differences between terms: 1, 7, 31, 124,…. and these are growing
by a factor of 4. So, 1⋅4=4, 7⋅4=28, 31⋅4=124, and so on. Note that we always end up with 3
less than the next term. So, bn=4bn-1+3 is the recurrence relation and the initial condition is
b0=1.

4. If Sn=4Sn-1+12n, where S0=6 and S1=7, find the solution for the recurrence relation.
a) an=7(2n)−29/6n6n
n=6(6 )+6/7n6
b) a n n

n=6(3 )−5n
c) a n+1

d) an=nn−2/6n6n
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The characteristic equation of the recurrence relation is → x2−4x-12=0
So, (x-6)(x+2)=0. Only the characteristic root is 6. Therefore the solution to the recurrence
relation will have the form: an=a.6n+b.n.6n. To find a and b, set n=0 and n=1 to get a system
of two equations with two unknowns: 6=a60+b.0.60=a and 7=a61+b.1.61=2a+6b. Solving this
system gives a=6 and b=6/7. So the solution to the recurrence relation is, a n=6(6n)−6/7n6n.

5. Find the value of a4 for the recurrence relation an=2an-1+3, with a0=6.
a) 320
b) 221
c) 141
d) 65
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: When n=1, a1=2a0+3, Now a2=2a1+3. By substitution, we get a2=2(2a0+3)+3.
Regrouping the terms, we get a4=141, where a0=6.

6. The solution to the recurrence relation an=an-1+2n, with initial term a0=2 are _________
a) 4n+7
b) 2(1+n)
c) 3n2
d) 5*(n+1)/2

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: When n=1, a1=a0+2. By substitution we get, a2=a1+2 ⇒ a2=(a0+2)+2 and so on. So
the solution to the recurrence relation, subject to the initial condition should be
an=2+2n=2(1+n).

7. Determine the solution for the recurrence relation b n=8bn-1−12bn-2 with b0=3 and b1=4.
a) 7/2*2n−1/2*6n
b) 2/3*7n
-5*4n
c) 4!*6n

d) 2/8n

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Rewrite the recurrence relation bn-8bn-1+12bn-2=0. Now from the characteristic
equation: x2−8x+12=0 we have x: (x−2)(x−6)=0, so x=2 and x=6 are the characteristic roots.
Therefore the solution to the recurrence relation will have the form: b n=b2n+c6n. To find b
and c, set n=0 and n=1 to get a system of two equations with two unknowns:
3=b20+c60=b+c, and 4=b21+c61=2b+6c. Solving this system gives c=-1/2 and b=7/2. So the
solution to the recurrence relation is, bn=7/2*2n−1/2*6n.

8. What is the solution to the recurrence relation a n=5an-1+6an-2?

a) 2n2
b) 6n

c) (3/2)n

d) n!*3

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Check for the left side of the equation with all the options into the recurrence
relation. Then, we get that 6n is the required solution to the recurrence relation a n=5an-1 +
6an-2.

9. Determine the value of a2 for the recurrence relation a n = 17an-1 + 30n with a0=3.
a) 4387
b) 5484
c) 238
d) 1437
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: When n=1, a1=17a0+30, Now a2=17a1+30*2. By substitution, we get
a2=17(17a0+30)+60. Then regrouping the terms, we get a2=1437, where a0=3.
10. Determine the solution for the recurrence relation a n = 6an-1−8an-2 provided initial
conditions a0=3 and a1=5.
a) an = 4 * 2 n
– 3n
b) a
n = 3 * 7n – 5*3n
c) a
n = 5 * 7n
d) a
n = 3! * 5n
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The characteristic polynomial is x −6x+8. By solving the characteristic
2

equation, x2−6x+8=0 we get x=2 and x=4, these are the characteristic roots. Therefore we
know that the solution to the recurrence relation has the form a n=a*2n+b*4n, for some
constants a and b. Now, by using the initial conditions a 0 and a1 we have: a=7/2 and b=-1/2.
Therefore the solution to the recurrence relation is: an = 4 * 2n – 1*3n = 7/2 * 2n – 1/2*3n.

1. Neha has 4 yellow t-shirts, 6 black t-shirts, and 2 blue t-shirts to choose from for her
outfit today. She chooses a t-shirt randomly with each t-shirt equally likely to be chosen.
Find the probability that a black or blue t-shirt is chosen for the outfit.
a) 813
b) 56
c) 12
d) 712
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Define the events A and B as follows: A=Neha chooses a black t-shirt. B= Neha
chooses a blue skirt. Neha cannot choose both a black t-shirt and a blue t-shirt, so the
addition theorem of probability applies:
P(A U B) = P(A) + P(B) = (612)+(212)=36=12.

2. If a fair 15-sided dice is rolled, then is the probability that the roll is an odd number or
prime number or both?
a) 320
b) 419
c) 920
d) 1720
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: There are 7 even numbers on the 20-sided dice: 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 13, 15. There are 6
prime numbers on the 20-sided dice: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13. There are 4 numbers that are both
odd and prime: 3, 5, 7, 13. By the rule of sum, the probability that an odd or prime number
is rolled is (720)+(620)–(420)=920.
3. There are a total of 50 distinct books on a shelf such as 20 math books, 16 physics books,
and 14 chemistry books. Find is the probability of getting a book that is not a chemistry
book or not a physics book.
a) 417
b) 4350
c) 1231
d) 1
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The probability of not getting chemistry book = 1 – (probability of chemistry
book)
= 1 – 1430=1630 and the probability of not getting chemistry book = 1 – (probability of
physics book) = 1 – 1630=1430. So, the required probability is = 1630+1430 = 1.

4. A number is selected from the first 20 natural numbers. Find the probability that it would
be divisible by 3 or 7?
a) 1946
b) 2467
c) 1237
d) 720
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Let X be the event that the number selected would be divisible by 3 and Y be
the event that the selected number would be divisible by 7. Then A u B denotes the event
that the number would be divisible by 3 or 7. Now, X = {3, 9, 12, 15, 18} and Y = {7, 14}
whereas S = {1, 2, 3, …,20}. Since A n B = Null set, so that the two events A and B are
mutually exclusive and as such we have,
P(A u B) = P(A) + P(B) ⇒ P(A u B) = 520+220
Therefore, P(A u B) = 720.

5. There are 24 red marbles in a bag 68 marbles, and 8 of those marbles are both red and
white striped. 27 marbles are white striped and of those marbles, the same 8 marbles
would be both red and white striped). Find the probability of drawing out a marble from
the bag that is either red or white striped.
a) 1235
b) 4368
c) 2668
d) 3255
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The “or” indicates finding the probability of a union of events. Let R be the
event that a red marble is drawn and W be the event that a striped marble is drawn. R U W
is the event that a marble that is either a red and a white striped is drawn. By the rule of
sum of probability,
P(R U W) = P(R) + P(W) – p(R ⋂ W) = 2468+2768–868=4368.
Hence, the probability of drawing a red or white striped marble is 4368.

6. If spinner has 3 equal sectors colored yellow, blue and red, then the probability of
landing on red or yellow after spinning this spinner is _______
a) 23
b) 47
c) 617
d) 2347
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: We can have, P(red) = 13, P(yellow) = 13, P(red or yellow) = P(red) + P(yellow) =
13+13=23.

7. In a secondary examination, 75% of the students have passed in History and 65% in
Mathematics, while 50% passed in both History and Mathematics. If 35 candidates failed in
both the subjects, what is the total number of candidates sit for that exam?
a) 658
b) 398
c) 764
d) 350
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: 50% passed in both the subjects, (75-50)% or 25% passed only in History and
(65-50)% or 15% passed only in Mathematics, (50 + 25 + 15)% or 90% passed in both the
subjects and 10% failed in both subjects. From the question, 10% of total candidates = 35.
So, total candidates = 350.

8. In a Press Conference, there are 450 foreign journalists. 275 people can speak German,
250 people can speak English, 200 people can speak Chinese and 260 people can speak
Japanese. Find the maximum number of foreigners who cannot speak at least one
language.
a) 401
b) 129
c) 324
d) 415
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The total number of journalists = 350.People who speak German = 275 ->
people who do not speak German = 75, people who speak English = 250-> people who do
not speak English = 100,people who speak Chinese = 200 -> people who do not speak
Chinese = 150, people who speak Japanese = 260 -> people who do not speak Japanese =
90. The total number of people who do not know at least one language will be maximum
when the sets of people not knowing a particular language are mutually exclusive. Hence,
the maximum number of people who do not know at least one language = 75 + 100 + 150 +
90 = 415.

9. There is a class of 40 students out of which 16 are girls. There are 27 students who are
right-handed. How many minimum numbers of girls who are left-handed in this class?
a) 17
b) 56
c) 23
d) 3
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Number of girls in the class is 16. Number of left-handed pupils + Number of
right-handed pupils = 40. So, Number of left-handed pupils + 27 = 40, Number of left-
handed pupils = 13. Therefore, the minimum number of right-handed girls is 16 – 13 = 3.

10. How many positive integers less than or equal to 100 are divisible by 2, 4 or 5?
a) 12.3
b) 87.2
c) 45.3
d) 78.2
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: To count the number of integers = 1002+1004+1005–1008–10020+100100
= 50 + 25 + 20 – 12.8 – 5 + 1 = 78.2.

1. How many ways are there to select exactly four clocks from a store with 10 wall-clocks
and 16 stand-clocks?
a) 325
b) 468
c) 398
d) 762
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: To choose any clock for the first pick, there are 10+16=26 options. For the
second choice, we have 25 clocks left to choose from and so on. Thus, by the rule of
product, there are 26 * 25 * 24 * 23 = 650 possible ways to choose exactly four clocks.
However, we have counted every clock combination twice. Hence, the correct number of
possible ways are 650/2 = 325.

2. If a 12-sided fair die is rolled twice, find the probability that both rolls have a result of 8.
a) 219
b) 347
c) 164
d) 29
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Each die roll is independent, that is, if the first die roll result is 8, it will not
affect the probability of the second die roll resulting in 8. The probability of rolling one die
is 18. Now, P (1st roll is 8 ∩ 2nd roll is 8). By using the rule of product: 18∗18. Hence, the
probability that both die rolls are 8 is 164.

3. How many positive divisors does 4000 = 25 53 have?

a) 49
b) 73
c) 65
d) 15
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Any positive divisor of 4000 must be of the form 2x5y, where x and y are
integers satisfying o<=x<=5 and 0<=y<=3. There are 5 possibilities for x and 3 possibilities
for y and hence there are 3*5 = 15(rule of product) positive divisors of 4000.

4. Mina has 6 different skirts, 3 different scarfs and 7 different tops to wear. She has exactly
one orange scarf, exactly one blue skirt, and exactly one black top. If Mina randomly selects
each item of clothing, find the probability that she will wear those clothings for the outfit.
a) 1321
b) 1126
c) 4411
d) 273
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There is a 13 probability that Mina would randomly select the orange scarf, a
16 probability to select the blue skirt, and a 17 probability to select the black top. These
events are independent, that is, the selection of the scarf does not affect the selection of
the tops and so on. Hence, the probability that she selects the clothings of her choice is
13∗16∗17 = 126.

5. There are 6 possible routes (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6) from Chennai to Kochi and 4 routes (7, 8, 9,
10) from the Kochi to the Trivendrum. If each path is chosen at random, what is the
probability that a person can travel from the Chennai to the via the 4th and 9th road?
a) 367
b) 59
c) 231
d) 124
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: There is a 16 chance of choosing the 4th path, and there is a 14 chance of
choosing the 9th path. The selection of the path to the Kochi is independent of the selection
of the path to the Trivendrum. Hence, by the rule of product, there is a 16∗14=124 chance
of choosing the 4th-9th path.

6. If two 14-sided dice one is red and one is blue are rolled, find the probability that a 3 on
the red die, a 5 on the blue die are rolled.
a) 4167
b) 3197
c) 5216
d) 1196
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Using the rule of product, there are 196 possible combinations of rolls. Since
having the red die = 3 and the blue die = 5 are one of the 196 combinations, the required
probability is 114∗114=1196.

7. Suraj wants to go to Delhi. He can choose from bus services or train services to
downtown Punjab. From there, he can choose from 4 bus services or 7 train services to
head to Delhi. The number of ways to get to Delhi is?
a) 51
b) 340
c) 121
d) 178
View Answer
8. Two cards are chosen at random from a standard deck of 52 playing cards. What is the
probability of selecting a jack and a Spade from the deck?
a) 413
b) 113
c) 413
d) 152
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The required probability is : P(Jack or spade) = P(Jack) * P(spade) =
452∗1352=152.

9. If I throw 3 standard 7-sided dice, what is the probability that the sum of their top faces
equals to 21? Assume both throws are independent to each other.
a) 1273
b) 2235
c) 165
d) 29
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: To obtain a sum of 21 from three 7-sided dice is that 3 die will show 7 face up.
Therefore, the probability is simply 17∗17∗17=1273.

10. A box consists of 5 yellow, 12 red and 8 blue balls. If 5 balls are drawn from this box
one after the other without replacement, find the probability that the 5 balls are all yellow
balls.
a) 5144
b) 6321
c) 467
d) 1231
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The total number of the balls in the box is 25. Let events Y: drawing black
balls,
R: drawing red balls,

1. Suppose, R is a random real number between 5 and 9. What is the probability R is closer
to 5 than it is to 6?
a) 12.5%
b) 18%
c) 73%
d) 39.8%
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Since there are infinitely many possible outcomes for the value of X we will
take the equally likely outcomes as random points along the number line from 5 to 9. R will
be closer to 5 than it is to 6 if R<5.5. We can easily see it by drawing a probability line. Here,
P(R is closer to 5 than to 6) = (length of segment where 5<R<5.5)/(length of segment where
(5<R<9) = 0.5/4 = 0.125 = 12.5%.

2. A ball is thrown at a circular bin such that it will land randomly over the area of the bin.
Find the probability that it lands closer to the center than to the edge?
a) 51%
b) 25%
c) 72%
d) 34%
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The set of outcomes are all of the points on the bin, which make up an area of
where is the radius of the circle. The points which are closer to the center than to the edge
are those that lie within the circle of radius around the center. Hence, the area of the
success outcomes is π(r/2)2 = πr2/4. Thus, P(closer to center than edge)=(area of the desired
outcome)/(area of the total outcome) = πr2/4 /πr2 = 1/4 = 0.25 = 25%.

3. A programmer has a 95% chance of finding a bug every time she compiles his code, and
it takes her three hours to rewrite the code every time she discovers a bug. Find the
probability that she will finish her program by the end of her workday. (Assume that a
workday is 9 hours)
a) 76%
b) 44%
c) 37%
d) 28%
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In this instance, a success is a bug-free compilation, and a failure is the
discovery of a bug. The programmer needs to have 0, 1 or 2 failures, so her probability of
finishing the program is: P(X=0) + P(X=1) + P(X=2) = (0.95) 0(0.1) + (0.95)1(0.1) + (0.95)2(0.1) =
0.28% = 28%.

4. A football player has a 45% chance of getting a hit on any given pitch. What is the
probability that the player earns a hit ignoring the balls before he strikes out (that requires
four strikes)?
a) 0.36
b) 0.95
c) 0.67
d) 0.59
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: IA success is a hit and a failure is a strike. The player requires either 0, 1, 2 or 3
failures in order to get a hit before striking out, so the probability of a hit is:
P(X=0) + P(X=1) + P(X=2) + P(X=3) = (0.45)0(0.55) + (0.45)1(0.55) + (0.45)2(0.55) + (0.45)3(0.55) =
0.95.

5. What is variance of a geometric distribution having parameter p=0.72?

a) 54%
b) 76%
c) 13%
d) 69%
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The variance of a geometric distribution with parameter p is
1−pp2=(1−0.72)0.722 = 0.54 or 54%. However, the variance of the geometric distribution and
the variance of the shifted geometric distribution are identical.

6. The probability that it rains tomorrow is 0.72. Find the probability that it does not rain
tomorrow?
a) 65%
b) 43%
c) 28%
d) 32%
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: we know that the sum of the probability that it rains and the probability that it
does not rain must be 1. To determine the probability that it does not rain, calculate 1 –
0.72 = 0.28.

7. Suppose a rectangle edges equals i = 4.7 and j = 8.3. Now, a straight line drawn through
randomly selected two points K and L in adjacent rectangle edges. Find the condition for
the probability such that the drawn triangle area is smaller than c = 9.38.
a) K-L≤18.76
b) K+L≤18.76
c) KL≤18.76
d) K/L≤18.76
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The random sides of the triangle are K and L. These are the uniform random
variables with uniform distributions on [0,8.3] and [0,4.7] respectively. They are
independent and their joint distribution is uniform on the rectangle R = [0,8.3] ∗[0,4.7]. The
condition is KL/2≤9.38 ⇒ KL≤18.76. The probability that one needs is the ratio between the
area under the hyperbola inside R and the area of R.

8. Find the expectation for how many bacteria there are per field if there are 2350 bacteria
are randomly distributed over 340 fields (all having the same size) next to each other.
a) 4.98
b) 3.875
c) 6.91
d) 7.37
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The probability to land in a field for a bacterium is p = 1/340 and since we
have n = 2350 bacteria. So, the expectation is m = np = 2350/340 = 6.91.

9. What is the possibility such that the inequality x2 + b > ax is true, when a=32.4 and b=76.5
and x∈[0,30].
a) 1.91
b) 4.3
c) 2.94
d) 6.1
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: x2+76.5>32.4x is equivalent to x −32.4x+76.5 > 0. By completing the square, x 2
2

− 32.4x + 266.44 – 266.44 + 76.5 = (x−16.2) 2 − 189.94>0, which is the same as (x−16.2) 2 >
189.94, which implies that either x−16.2 > 13.78 ⇒ x > 29.98, or x−16.2 < −2.42 ⇒ x < 13.78.
Assume that it is a uniform distribution. So, the probability that x > 29.98 is 30 − 29.98 =
0.02 and the probability that x < 189.94 is 1.89. The desired probability is 0.02 + 1.89 = 1.91.

10. In a bucket there are 5 purple, 15 grey and 25 green balls. If the ball is picked up
randomly, find the probability that it is neither grey nor purple?
a) 59
b) 1213
c) 5143
d) 27
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: If the ball is neither grey nor purple then it must be blue. There are 45 balls in
total of which 25 are green and so the probability of picking a purple ball is 2545=59.

1. Two fair coins are flipped. As a result of this, tails and heads runs occurred where a tail
run is a consecutive occurrence of at least one head. Determine the probability function of
number of tail runs.
a) 12
b) 56
c) 3219
d) 673
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The sample space of the experiment is S = {HH, HT, TH, TT}. Let X is the
number of tails and It takes up the values 0, 1 and 2. Now, P(no tail) = p(0) = 14, P(one tail) =
p(1) = 24 and P(two tails) = p(2) = 14. So, X is the number of tail runs and it takes up the
values 0 and 1. P(X = 0) = p(0) = 24=14.

2. The length of alike metals produced by a hardware store is approximated by a normal

distribution model having a mean of 7 cm and a standard deviation of 0.35 cm. Find the
probability that the length of a randomly chosen metal is between 5.36 and 6.14 cm?
a) 0.562
b) 0.2029
c) 3.765
d) 1.576
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Let L be the random variable that represents the length of the component. It
has a mean of 7 cm and a standard deviation of 0.35 cm. To find P( 5.36 < x < 6.14). For x =
5.36, z = 5.36–60.35 = -1.82. For x = 6.14, z = 6.14–60.35 = 0.4 ⇒ P(5.36 < x < 6.14) = P( -1.82 < z
< 0.4) = 0.2029.

3. A personal computer has the length of time between charges of the battery is normally
distributed with a mean of 66 hours and a standard deviation of 20 hours. What is the
probability when the length of time will be between 58 and 75 hours?
a) 0.595
b) 3.44
c) 0.0443
d) 1.98
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Suppose x be the random variable that represents the length of time. It has a
mean of 66 and a standard deviation of 20. Find the probability that x is between 70 and 90
or P(70 < x < 90). For x = 70, z = 58–6620 = -4. For x = 75, z = 75–6620 = 0.45. P(70 < x < 90) =
P(-4 < z < 0.75) = [area to the left of z = 0.75] – [area to the left of z = -4] = 0.0443. The
required probability when the length of time between 58 and 75 hours is 0.0443.

4. The length of life of an instrument produced by a machine has a normal distribution with
a mean of 9.4 months and a standard deviation of 3.2 months. What is the probability that
an instrument produced by this machine will last between 6 and 11.6 months?
a) 0.642
b) 0.4098
c) 0.16
d) 0.326
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: We have to find P(6 < x < 11.6). Now, for x = 6, z becomes -1.062 and for z =
11.6, z = 0.687. So, P(6 < x < 11.6) = P(-1.062 < z < 0.687) = 0.326.

5. The speeds of a number of bicycles have a normal distribution model with a mean of 83
km/hr and a standard deviation of 9.4 km/hr. Find the probability that a bicycle picked at
random is travelling at more than 95 km/hr?
a) 0.1587
b) 0.38
c) 0.49
d) 0/278
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Let x be the random variable that represents the speed of bicycle. x has μ = 90
and σ = 9.5. We have to find the probability that x is higher than 95 or P(x > 95). For x = 95, z
= 95–839.4 = 1.27, P(x > 95) = P(z > 1.27) = [total area] – [area to the left of z = 1] = 1 – 0.620 =
0.38. The probability that a car selected at a random has a speed greater than 100 km/hr is
equal to 0.38.

6. Let us say that X is a normally distributed variable with mean(μ) of 43 and standard
deviation (σ) of 6.4. Determine the probability of X<32.
a) 0.341
b) 0.962
c) 6.231
d) 0.44
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The area is defined as the area under the standard normal curve.Now, for x =
32, z becomes 32–436.4 = -1.71. Hence, the required probability is P(x < 32) = P(z < -1.71) =
0.341.

7. The time taken to assemble a machine in a certain plant is a random variable having a
normal distribution of 32 hours and a standard deviation of 3.6 hours. What is the
probability that a machine can be assembled at this plant in less than 25.4 hours?
a) 0.61
b) 0.674
c) 0.298
d) 1.823
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: We have to find P(x < 25.4). Now, for x = 25.4, z becomes 25.4–323.6 = -1.83.
Hence, P(z < -1.83) = 0.298.

8. The scores on an admission test are normally distributed with a mean of 640 and a
standard deviation of 105.7. A student wants to be admitted to this university. He takes the
test and scores 755. What is the probability of him to be admitted to this university?
a) 65.9%
b) 84.6%
c) 40.9%
d) 54%.
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Let k be the random variable that represents the scores. k is normally
distributed with a mean of 640 and a standard deviation of 124.7. The total area under the
normal curve represents the total number of students who take the test. If we multiply the
values of the areas under the curve by 124.7, we obtain percentages. Now, for k = 755, z =
755–640105.7 = 1.087. The proportion of the students who scored below 755 is given by, P =
[area to the left of z = 1.087] = 0.846. Hence, the required probability is 84.6 %.

9. The annual salaries of workers in a large manufacturing factory are normally distributed
with a mean of Rs. 48,000 and a standard deviation of Rs. 1500. Find the probability of
workers who earn between Rs. 35,000 and Rs. 52,000.
a) 64%
b) 76.2%
c) 42.1%
d) 20%
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: For x = 45000, z = -2 and for x = 52000, z = 0.375. Now, area between z = -2
and z = 0.375 is equal to 0.421 or 42.1% earn between Rs. 45,000 and Rs. 52,000.

10. Discrete probability distribution depends on the properties of ___________

a) data
b) machine
c) discrete variables
d) probability function
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: We know that discrete probability function largely depends on the properties
and types of data such as Binomial distribution can lead to model binary data such as
flipping of coins.

1. Two t-shirts are drawn at random in succession without replacement from a drawer
containing 5 red t-shirts and 8 white t-shirts. Find the probabilities of all the possible
outcomes.
a) 1
b) 13
c) 40
d) 346
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Let X denote the number of red t-shirts in the outcome. Here, x 1 = 2, x2 = 1, x3 =
1, x4 = 1, x5 = 0. Probability of first t-shirt being red = 513.
Probability of second t-shirt being red = 412.

So: P(x1) = 513×412=20146. Likewise, for the probability of red first followed by black is 812
(as there are 8 red t-shirts still in the drawer and 12 t-shirts all together).
So, P(x2) = 513∗812=40146. Similarly for white then red: P(x 3) = 813×412=32146. Finally, for 2
black balls: P(x4) = 813×712=56146. So, 20146+40146+32146+40146=1. Hence, all the t-shirts
have been found.
2. A jar of pickle is picked at random using a filling process in which an automatic machine
is filling pickle jars with 2.5 kg of pickle in each jar. Due to few faults in the automatic
process, the weight of a jar could vary from jar to jar in the range 1.7 kg to 2.9 kg excluding
the latter. Let X denote the weight of a jar of pickle selected. Find the range of X.
a) 3.7 ≤ X < 3.9
b) 1.6 ≤ X < 3.2
c) 1.7 ≤ X < 2.9
d) 1 ≤ X < 5
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Possible outcomes should be 1.7 ≤ X < 2.9. That is the probable range of X for
the answer.

3. A probability density function f(x) for the continuous random variable X is denoted as
_______
a) ∫ f(x)dx = ∞, -1<=x<=1
b) ∫ f(x)dx = 1, -∞<=x<=∞
c) ∫ f(x)dx = 0, -∞<=x<=∞
d) ∫ f(x+2)dx = .5, -∞<=x<=∞
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A probability density function f(x) for the continuous random variable X is
denoted as ∫ f(x)dx = 1, -∞<=x<=∞. The area under the curve between any two ordinates x =
a and x = b is a probability that X lies between a and b. So, ∫f(x)dx = P(a≤X≤b).

4. Let X is denoted as the number of heads in three tosses of a coin. Determine the mean
and variance for the random variable X.
a) 4.8
b) 6
c) 3.2
d) 1.5
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Let H represents a head and T be a tail. X denotes the number of heads in
three tosses of a coin. X can take the value 0, 1, 2, 3. P(X = 0) = 18, P(X = 1) = 38, P(X = 2) = 38,
P(X = 3) = 18. The probability distribution of X is E(X) = Σ ixipi = 1 × 38+2×38+3×18 = 1.5. E(X2)
= 12×38+22×38+32×18 = 3. So, Variance of X = V(X) = E(X2) – [E(X)]2 = 3 – 1.5 = 1.5.
5. A football player makes 75% of his 5-point shots and 25% his 7-point shots. Determine
the expected value for a 7-point shot of the player.
a) 4.59
b) 12.35
c) 5.25
d) 42.8
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Multiply the outcome by its probability, so the expected value becomes 0.75 *
7 points = 5.25.

6. In a card game Reena wins 3 Rs. if she draws a king or a spade and 7 Rs. if a heart or a
queen from an pack of 52 playing cards. If she pays a certain amount of money each time
she will lose the game. What will be the amount so that the game will come out a fair
game?
a) 15
b) 6
c) 23
d) 2
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: We know that E(X) = ∑{x i * P(xi)} = 3 * 213+7∗213−x∗1013=2013−10x13.
Suppose the expected value should be 0 Rs. for the game to be fair. So 2013−10x13 = 0 ⇒
x=2. So she should pay Rs.2 for it to be a fair game.

7. A Random Variable X can take only two values, 4 and 5 such that P(4) = 0.32 and P(5) =
0.47. Determine the Variance of X.
a) 8.21
b) 12
c) 3.7
d) 4.8
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Expected Value: μ = E(X) = ∑x * P(x) = 4 × 0.32 + 5 × 0.47 = 3.63. Next find ∑x * 2

P(x): ∑x2 * P(x) = 16 × 0.32 + 25 × 0.47 = 16.87. Therefore, Var(X) = ∑x 2P(x) − μ2 = 16.87 − 13.17
= 3.7.

8. A 6-sided die is biased. Now, the numbers one to four are equally likely to happen, but
five and six is thrice as likely to land face up as each of the other numbers. If X is the
number shown on the uppermost face, determine the expected value of X when 6 is shown
on the uppermost face.
a) 134
b) 35
c) 27
d) 2187
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Let P(1) = P(2) = P(3) = P(4) = p; P(5) = P(6) = 2p. We know that the sum of all
probabilities must be 1 ⇒ p + p + p + p + 2p + 2p = 1
⇒ 8p = 1 ⇒ p = 18
Expected Value:
μ = E(X) = ∑x * P(x) = 1∗18+2∗18+3∗18+4∗18+5∗28+6∗28=134.

9. A fair cubical die is thrown twice and their scores summed up. If the sum of the scores of
upper side faces by throwing two times a die is an event. Find the Expected Value of that
event.
a) 48
b) 76
c) 7
d) 132
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Sample space = {2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12}.Suppose: P(2) = 136, P(3) = 236,
P(4) = 336, P(5) = 436, P(6) = 536, P(7) = 636, P(8) = 536, P(9) = 436, P(10) = 336, P(11) = 236 and
P(12) = 136. Now, Expected Value:
μ = E(A) = ∑x * P(x) = 2∗136+3∗236+4∗336+5∗436+6∗536
+7∗636+8∗536+9∗436+10∗336+11∗236+12∗136=25236 = 7.

10. A random variable X can take only two values, 2 and 4 i.e., P(2) = 0.45 and P(4) = 0.97.
What is the Expected value of X?
a) 3.8
b) 2.9
c) 4.78
d) 5.32
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: We know that E(X) = ∑ x*P(x) = 2 × 0.45 + 4 × 0.97 = 4.78, where x={2,4}
1. A single card is drawn from a standard deck of playing cards. What is the probability that
the card is a face card provided that a queen is drawn from the deck of cards?
a) 313
b) 13
c) 413
d) 152
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The probability that the card drawn is a queen = 452, since there are 4 queens
in a standard deck of 52 cards. If the event is “this card is a queen” the prior probability
P(queen) = 452=113. The posterior probability P(queen|face) can be calculated using Bayes
theorem: P(king|face) = P(face|king)/P(face)*P(king). Since every queen is also a face card,
P(face|queen) = 1. The probability of a face card is P(face) = (313). [since there are 3 face
cards in each suit (Jack, Queen, King)]. Using Bayes theorem gives P(queen|face) =
133∗113=13.

2. Naina receives emails that consists of 18% spam of those emails. The spam filter is 93%
reliable i.e., 93% of the mails it marks as spam are actually a spam and 93% of spam mails
are correctly labelled as spam. If a mail marked spam by her spam filter, determine the
probability that it is really spam.
a) 50%
b) 84%
c) 39%
d) 63%
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: 18% email are spam and 82% email are not spam. Now, 18% of mail marked
as spam is spam and 82% mail marked as spam are not spam. By Bayes theorem the
probability that a mail marked spam is really a spam = (Probability of being spam and being
detected as spam)/(Probability of being detected as spam) = (0.18 * 0.82)/(0.18 * 0.82) +
(0.18 * 0.82) = 0.5 or 50%.

3. A meeting has 12 employees. Given that 8 of the employees is a woman, find the
probability that all the employees are women?
a) 1123
b) 1235
c) 29
d) 18
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Assume that the probability of an employee being a man or woman is (12). By
using Bayes’ theorem: let B be the event that the meeting has 3 employees who is a woman
and let A be the event that all employees are women. We want to find P(A|B) = P(B|
A)∗P(A)P(B). P(B|A) = 1, P(A) = 112 and P(B) = 812. So, P(A|B) = 1∗112812=18.

4. A cupboard A has 4 red carpets and 4 blue carpets and a cupboard B has 3 red carpets
and 5 blue carpets. A carpet is selected from a cupboard and the carpet is chosen from the
selected cupboard such that each carpet in the cupboard is equally likely to be chosen.
Cupboards A and B can be selected in 15 and 35 ways respectively. Given that a carpet
selected in the above process is a blue carpet, find the probability that it came from the
cupboard B.
a) 25
b) 1519
c) 3173
d) 49
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The probability of selecting a blue carpet = 15∗48+35∗58=440+1540=1940.
Probability of selecting a blue carpet from cupboard, P(B) = 35∗58=1540. Given that a
carpet selected in the above process is a blue carpet, the probability that it came from the
cupboard A is = 15401940=1519.

5. Mangoes numbered 1 through 18 are placed in a bag for delivery. Two mangoes are
drawn out of the bag without replacement. Find the probability such that all the mangoes
have even numbers on them?
a) 43.7%
b) 34%
c) 6.8%
d) 9.3%
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The events are not independent. There will be a 1018=59 chance that any of
the mangoes in the bag is even. The probability that the first one is even is 12, for the
second mango, given that the first one was even, there are only 9 even numbered balls that
could be drawn from a total of 17 balls, so the probability is 917. For the third mango, since
the first two are both odd, there are 8 even numbered mangoes that could be drawn from
a total of 16 remaining balls and so the probability is 816 and for fourth mango, the
probability is = 715. So the probability that all 4 mangoes are even numbered is
1018∗917∗816∗716 = 0.068 or 6.8%.

6. A family has two children. Given that one of the children is a girl and that she was born
on a Monday, what is the probability that both children are girls?
a) 1327
b) 2354
c) 1219
d) 4358
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: We let Y be the event that the family has one child who is a girl born on
Tuesday and X be the event that both children are boys, and apply Bayes’ Theorem. Given
that there are 7 days of the week and there are 49 possible combinations for the days of
the week the two girls were born on and 13 of these have a girl who was born on a
Monday, so P(Y|X) = 1349. P(X) remains unchanged at 14. To calculate P(Y), there are 142 =
196 possible ways to select the gender and the day of the week the child was born on.
There are 132 = 169 ways which do not have a girl born on Monday and which 196 – 169 =
27 which do, so P(Y) = 27196. This gives is that P(X|Y) = 1319∗1427196=1327.

7. Suppose a fair eight-sided die is rolled once. If the value on the die is 1, 3, 5 or 7 the die is
rolled a second time. Determine the probability that the sum of values that turn up is at
least 8?
a) 3287
b) 1243
c) 613
d) 2364
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Sample space consists of 8*8=64 events. While (8) has 18 probability of
occurrence, (1,7) has only 164 probability. So, the required probability =
16+(9∗164)=69192=2364.

8. A jar containing 8 marbles of which 4 red and 4 blue marbles are there. Find the
probability of getting a red given the first one was red too.
a) 413
b) 211
c) 37
d) 815
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Suppose, P (A) = getting a red marble in the first turn, P (B) = getting a black
marble in the second turn. P (A) = 48 and P (B) = 37 and P (A and B) = 48∗37=314 P(B/A) =
P(AandB)P(A)=31412=37.

9. A bin contains 4 red and 6 blue balls and three balls are drawn at random. Find the
probability such that both are of the same color.
a) 1028
b) 15
c) 110
d) 47
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Total no of balls = 10. Number of ways drawing 3 balls at random out of 10 =
10
C3 = 120. Probability of drawing 3 balls of same colour = 4C3 + 6C3 = 24. Hence, the required
probability is 24120=15.

10. A bucket contains 6 blue, 8 red and 9 black pens. If six pens are drawn one by one
without replacement, find the probability of getting all black pens?
a) 8213
b) 84807
c) 51204
d) 74328
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Total number of pens = 23, number of pens we have chosen = 6, total number
of black pens = 9. According to the combination probability formula it states that nCr = n!r!
(n−r)!,

where n = total number of outcomes, r = random selection, P = 9C623C6=84807.

1. What is the sequence depicted by the generating series 4 + 15x 2 + 10x3 + 25x5 + 16x6+⋯?
a) 10, 4, 0, 16, 25, …
b) 0, 4, 15, 10, 16, 25,…
c) 4, 0, 15, 10, 25, 16,…
d) 4, 10, 15, 25,…
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Consider the coefficients of each xn term. So a0=4, since the coefficient of x0 is 4
(x0=1 so this is the constant term). Since 15 is the coefficient of x2, so 15 is the term a2 of the
sequence. To find a1 check the coefficient of x1 which in this case is 0. So a1=0. Continuing
with these we have a2=15, a3=10, a4=25, and a5=16. So we have the sequence 4, 0, 15, 10, 25,
16,…

2. What is the generating function for the sequence 1, 6, 16, 216,….?

a) (1+6x)x3
b) 1(1−6x)

c) 1(1−4x)
d) 1-6x2
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: For the sequence 1, 6, 36, 216,… the generating function must be 1(1−6x, when
basic generating function: 11−x.

3. What is the generating function for generating series 1, 2, 3, 4, 5,… ?

a) 2(1−3x)
b) 1(1+x)
c) 1(1−x)2
d) 1(1−x2)

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Basic generating function is 11−x. If we differentiate term by term in the power
series, we get (1 + x + x2 + x3 +⋯)′ = 1 + 2x + 3x2 + 4x3 +⋯ which is the generating series for 1,
2, 3, 4,….

4. What is the generating function for the generating sequence A = 1, 9, 25, 49,…?
a) 1+(A-x2)
b) (1-A)-1/x
c) (1-A)+1/x2
d) (A-x)/x3

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The generating function for the sequence A. Using differencing:
A = 1 + 9x + 25x2 + 49x3 + ⋯(1)
−xA = 0 + x + 9x2 + 25x3 + 49x4 + ⋯(2)
(1−x)A = 1 + 8x + 16x2 + 24x3 +⋯. Since 8x + 16x2 + 24x3 + ⋯ = (1-x)A-1 ⇒ 8 + 16x + 24x2 +…=
(1-A)-1/x.

5. What is the recurrence relation for the sequence 1, 3, 7, 15, 31, 63,…?
a) an = 3an-1−2an+2
b) an = 3an-1−2an-2

c) an = 3an-1−2an-1
d) an = 3an-1−2an-3
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The recurrence relation for the sequence 1, 3, 7, 15, 31, 63,… should be a n =
3an-1−2an-2. The solution for A: A=1/1 − 3x + 2x2.

6. What is multiplication of the sequence 1, 2, 3, 4,… by the sequence 1, 3, 5, 7, 11,….?

a) 1, 5, 14, 30,…
b) 2, 8, 16, 35,…
c) 1, 4, 7, 9, 13,…
d) 4, 8, 9, 14, 28,…
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The first constant term is 1⋅1, next term will be 1⋅3 + 2⋅1 = 5, the next term: 1 ⋅5
+ 2⋅3 + 3⋅1 = 14, another one: 1⋅7 + 2⋅5 + 3⋅3 + 4⋅1 = 30. The resulting sequence is 1, 5, 14,
30,…

7. What will be the sequence generated by the generating function 4x/(1-x)2?

a) 12, 16, 20, 24,…
b) 1, 3, 5, 7, 9,…
c) 0, 4, 8, 12, 16, 20,…
d) 0, 1, 1, 3, 5, 8, 13,…
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The sequence should be 0, 4, 8, 12, 16, 20,…for the generating function 4x/(1-
x)2, when basic generating function: 1/(1-x).

8. What is the generating function for the sequence with closed formula a n=4(7n)+6(−2)n?
a) (4/1−7x)+6!
b) (3/1−8x)
c) (4/1−7x)+(6/1+2x)
d) (6/1-2x)+8
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: For the given sequence after evaluating the formula the generating formula
will be (4/1−7x)+(6/1+2x).

9. Suppose G is the generating function for the sequence 4, 7, 10, 13, 16, 19,…, the find a
generating function (in terms of G) for the sequence of differences between terms.
a) (1−x)G−4/x
b) (1−x)G−4/x3
c) (1−x)G+6/x

d) (1−x)G−x2

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: (1−x)G = 4 + 3x + 6x2 + 9x3 +⋯ which can be accepted. We can compute it like
this:
3 + 6x + 9x2 + ⋯ = (1−x)G−4/x.

10. Find the sequence generated by 1/1−x2−x4.,assume that 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8,… has generating
function 1/1−x−x2.
a) 0, 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8,…
b) 0, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8,…
c) 1, 1, 2, 2, 4, 6, 8,…
d) 1, 4, 3, 5, 7,…
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Based on the given generating function, the sequence will be 0, 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5,
8,

1. There are 70 patients admitted in a hospital in which 29 are diagnosed with typhoid, 32
with malaria, and 14 with both typhoid and malaria. Find the number of patients diagnosed
with typhoid or malaria or both.
a) 39
b) 17
c) 47
d) 53
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: By using the inclusion-exclusion principle: |T ∪ M| = |T| + |M| – |T ∩ M| =
(29 + 32) – (14) = 47. Thus 47 patients are diagnosed with either typhoid or malaria.

2. At a software company, skilled workers have been hired for a project. Out of 75
candidates, 48 of them were software engineer; 35 of them were hardware engineer; 42 of
them were network engineer; 18 of them had skills in all three jobs and all of them had
skills in at least one of these jobs. How many candidates were hired who were skilled in
exactly 2 jobs?
a) 69
b) 14
c) 32
d) 8
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Since 18 are skilled in all 3. Subtract 18 from all three to get a total with single
skilled and double skilled workers including the duplicates. Software engineers = 48 – 18 =
30, Hardware engineers = 35 – 18 = 17, Network engineers = 42 – 18 = 24 making a total of
71 and this is a total set of single and double skilled workers including duplicates. Out of 75
candidates, 18 were skilled in three areas. So, 75 – 18 = 57 (actual no of workers skilled with
single and both skills) Now the difference between the number without duplicates (57) and
with duplicates (71), 71 – 57 = 14. So, 14 are skilled in exactly two jobs.

3. The numbers between 1 and 520, including both, are divisible by 2 or 6 is _______
a) 349
b) 54
c) 213
d) 303
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: We add the number of numbers that are divisible by 2 and 6 and subtract the
numbers which are divisible by 12. Hence, the required probability is
5202+5206–52012 = 303.3 = 303(Approximately).

4. In a renowned software development company of 240 computer programmers 102

employees are proficient in Java, 86 in C#, 126 in Python, 41 in C# and Java, 37 in Java and
Python, 23 in C# and Python, and just 10 programmers are proficient in all three languages.
How many computer programmers are there those are not proficient in any of these three
languages?
a) 138
b) 17
c) 65
d) 49
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Let U denote the set of all employed computer programmers and let J, C and P
denote the set of programmers proficient in Java, C# and Python, respectively. So, |U| =
240, |J| = 102, |C| = 86, |P| = 126, |J ∩ C| = 41, |J ∩ P| = 37, |C ∩ P| = 23 and |J ∩ C ∩ P| =
10. The number of computer programmers that are not proficient in any of these three
languages is said to be same as the cardinality of the complement of the set J ∪ C ∪ P. First,
we have to calculate |J ∪ C ∪ P| = 102 + 86 + 126 – 41 – 37 – 23 + 10 = 223. Now calculate |
(J ∪ C ∪ P)’ | = |U| – |J ∪ C ∪ P| = 240 – 223 = 17. 17 programmers are not proficient in any
of the three languages.

5. In class, students want to join sports. 15 people will join football, 24 people will join
basketball, and 7 people will join both. How many people are there in the class?
a) 19
b) 82
c) 64
d) 30
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: There are 15 people who wish to join football, but 9 of those people also join
basketball. By using the principle of inclusion and exclusion, we have: 15 people joining
football + 24 people joining basketball – 9 people who will join both = 30 people total.

6. The sum of all integers from 1 to 520 that are multiples of 4 or 5?

a) 187
b) 208
c) 421
d) 52
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: PIE is used to count the elements of a set and stated as the sum of elements
in A or B is equal to the sum of elements in A plus the sum of elements in B minus the sum
of elements in A and B. Let A be the set of multiples of 4 and B be the set of multiples of 5,
then A ⋂ B is the set of multiples of 20, and hence
5204+5205–52020 = 208.

7. There are 9 letters having different colors (red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo, violet)
and 4 boxes each of different shapes (tetrahedron, cube, polyhedron, dodecahedron). How
many ways are there to place these 9 letters into the 4 boxes such that each box contains
at least 1 letter?
a) 260100
b) 878760
c) 437102
d) 256850
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Let N be the total number of ways we can distribute the letters. Each letter can
be placed into any one of the 4 boxes, so |N| = 49. Let T be the set of ways such that the
tetrahedron box has no letters, C be the set of ways such that the cube box has no letters,
P be the set of ways such that the cube box has no letters, and D be the set of ways such
that the dodecahedron box has no letters. Now, to find |N| – |T U C U P U D|. We have |T|
=|C|=|P|=|D|=27 and since the letters can be placed into one of the two other boxes, and
|TUC| = |C U P| = |P U D| = |D U T| = 17, since all the letters must be placed in the
remaining box, and T ⋂ C ⋂ P ⋂ D| = 0. Hence, PIE implies |N| – |T U C U P U D| = 4 9 – 4 x
29 + 4 x 19 – 0 = 260100.

8. A card is drawn randomly from a standard deck of cards. Determine the probability that
the card drawn is a queen or a heart.
a) 14
b) 1356
c) 413
d) 552
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Let M be the event that the card is a queen, and let N be the event that the
card is a heart. Then Since there are 13 different ranks of cards in the deck, P(M) = 113 and
since there are 4 suits in the deck, P(N) = 14. There is only one card that is both a queen and
a heart, so P(M ⋂ N) = 152. Therefore, P(M U N) = 14+113–152=1652=413.

9. An integer from 300 through 780, inclusive is to be chosen at random. Find the
probability that the number is chosen will have 1 as at least one digit.
a) 171900
b) 43860
c) 231546
d) 31701
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The number of numbers that don’t have one anywhere 9 3 = 729 is (9
possibilities for each individual digit), and there are 9*102 = 900 numbers overall (9
possibilities for hundreds, 10 for the tens and units), so there are 900 – 729 = 171 numbers
with at least a one and thus 171900 probability.

10. From 1, 2, 3, …, 320 one number is selected at random. Find the probability that it is
either a multiple of 7 or a multiple of 3.
a) 72%
b) 42.5%
c) 12.8%
d) 63.8%
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Number of multiples of 7=45 and number of multiples of 3=10 6 and number of
numbers which are multiples of both 7 and 3 = 15 Thus, P (selecting either a multiple of 7
or a multiple of 3) = 45320+106320–15320=136320=25 = 0.425 or 42.5%.

1. Computation of the discrete logarithm is the basis of the cryptographic system _______
a) Symmetric cryptography
b) Asymmetric cryptography
c) Diffie-Hellman key exchange
d) Secret key cryptography
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A discrete logarithm modulo of an integer to the base is an integer such that a x
≡ b (mod g). The problem of computing the discrete logarithm is a well-known challenge in
the field of cryptography and is the basis of the cryptographic system i.e., the Diffie-
Hellman key exchange.

2. Solve the logarithmic function of ln(1+5x1+3x).

a) 2x – 8x2 + 152x33 – …
b) x2 + 7x22–12x35 + …
c) x – 15x22+163x34 – …
d) 1 – x22+x44 – …
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: To solve the logarithmic function ln(1+5x1+3x) = ln(1+5x) – ln(1+3x) = (5x –
(5x)22+(5x)33 – …) – (3x – (3x)22+(3x)33 – …) = 2x – 8x2 + 152x33 – …

3. Determine the logarithmic function of ln(1+5x)-5.

a) 5x + 25x22+125x33+625x44 …
b) x – 25x22+625x33–3125x44 …
c) 125x23–625x3+3125x45 …
d) -25x + 125x22–625x33+3125x44 …
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Apply the logarithmic law, that is logax = xlog(a). Now the function is ln(1+5x) -5
= -5log(1+5x). By taking the series = -5(5x – (5x)22+(5x)33–(5x)44 + …) = -25x + 125x22–
625x33+3125x44 …

4. Find the value of x: 3 x2 alog x = 348?

a

a) 7.1
b) 4.5
c) 6.2
d) 4.8
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Since, alog x = x. The given equation may be written as: 3x2 x = 348 ⇒ x = (116)1/3 =
a

4.8.

5. Solve for x: log2(x2-3x)=log2(5x-15).

a) 2, 5
b) 7
c) 23
d) 3, 5
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: By using the property if logax = logay then x=y, gives 2x2-3x=10-6x. Now, to
solve the equation x2-3x-5x+15=0 ⇒ x2-8x+15 ⇒ x=3, x=5
For x=3: log2(32-3*3) = log2(5*3-15) ⇒ true
For x=5: log2(52-3*5) = log2(5*5-15) ⇒ true
The solutions to the equation are : x=3 and x=5.

6. Solve for x the equation 2x + 3 = 5x + 2.

a) ln (24/8)
b) ln (25/8) / ln (2/5)
c) ln (32/5) / ln (2/3)
d) ln (3/25)
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Given that 2x + 3 = 5x + 2. By taking ln of both sides: ln (2x + 3) = ln (5x + 2)
⇒ (x + 3) ln 2 = (x + 2) ln 5
⇒ x ln 2 + 3 ln 2 = x ln 5 + 2 ln 5
⇒ x ln 2 – x ln 5 = 2 ln 5 – 3 ln 2
⇒ x = ( 2 ln 5 + 3 ln 2 ) / (ln 2 – ln 5) = ln (52 / 23) / ln (2/5) = ln (25/8) / ln (2/5).
7. Given: log4 z = B log2/3z, for all z > 0. Find the value of constant B.
a) 2/(3!*ln(2))
b) 1/ln(7)
c) (4*ln(9))
d) 1/(2*ln(3))
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: By using change of base formula we can have ln (x) / ln(4) = B ln(x) / ln(2/3) ⇒
B = 1/(2*ln(3)).

8. Evaluate: 16x – 4x – 9 = 0.
a) ln [( 5 + 21−−√) / 2] / ln 8
b) ln [( 2 + 33−−√) / 2] / ln 5
c) ln [( 1 + 37−−√) / 2] / ln 4
d) ln [( 1 – 37−−√) / 2] / ln 3
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Given: 16x – 4x – 9 = 0. Since 16x = (4x)2, the equation may be written as: (4x)2 – 4x
– 9 = 0. Let t = 3x and so t: t2 – t – 9 = 0 which gives t: t = (1 + 37−−√) / 2 and (1 – 37−−√) / 2
Since t = 4x, the acceptable solution is y = (1 + 37−−√) / 2 ⇒ 4x = (1 + 37−−√)/2. By using ln
on both sides: ln 4x = ln [ (1 + 37−−√) / 2] ⇒ x = ln [ ( 1 + 37−−√)/2] / ln 3.

9. Transform 54y = n+1 into equivalent a logarithmic expression.

a) log12 (n+1)
b) log41 (n2)
c) log63 (n)
d) log54 (n+1)
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: By using the equivalent expression: ay = x ⇔ y = loga (x) to write 3x = m as a
logarithm: y = log54 (n+1).

10. If loga(18)=−34, than what is x?

a) 287
b) 469
c) 512
d) 623
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: By using exponential form: a-5/9 = 2/8. Now, raise both sides of the above
equation to the power -9/5: (x-5/9)-9/5 = (1/32)-9/5. By simplifying we get, a = 329/5 = 29 = 512.

1. The explicit formula for the geometric sequence 3, 15, 75, 375,… is _______
a) 2*6! * 3n-1
b) 3 * 5n-1

c) 3! * 8n-1

d) 7 * 4n-1

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The initial term is 3 and each subsequent term is the product of its previous
term, the common ratio is 5. Thus the formula generating this sequence is a n = 3 * 5n-1.

2. The third term of a geometric progression with common ratio equal to half the initial
term is 81. Determine the 12 th term.
a) 312
b) 415

c) 68

d) 59

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Let the initial term be a and the common ratio r. The 3 term is ar = 27 and
rd 2

the initial term is a=3r so 3r3 = 81 ⇒ r=3 ⇒ a=3. The a12 = a * r11 = 3 * 311 = 312.

3. Which of the following series is called the “formal power series”?

a) b0+b1x+b2x2+…+bnxn
1x+b2x +…+bnx
b) b 2 n

0+1/3b1x+1/4b2x +…+1/nbnx
c) 1/2b 2 n

d) n2
(b0+b1x+b2x2+…+bnxn)
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A formal power series is also called a “formal series”, of a field F is an infinite
sequence b0, b1, b2, … over F. It is a function from the set of nonnegative integers to F i.e., 0,
1, 2, 3, … → F. A formal power series can also be written as b0+b1x+b2x2+…+bnxn.

4. sec(x) has a trigonometric series that is given by _______

a) ∞∑n=0 ((-1) E2n
n
/ (2n)!)*x2n
b) ∞∑
n=0 ((-1)nE2n)
c) ((-1) B2n
n
/ (2n)!)*x2n
d) ∞∑
n=0 ((2n)!)*x2n+1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A trigonometric series is an example of a Maclaurin series. Here, sec(x) can be
represented as ∞∑n=0 ((-1)nE2n / (2n)!)*x2n.

5. Determine the interval and radius of convergence for the power series: ∞∑ n=17n/n(3x−1)n-1.
a) (2x+1)/6
b) 7|3x−1|
c) 5|x+1|
d) 3!*|4x−9|
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Okay, let’s start off with the Ratio Test to get our hands on L = lim n→
∞∣7 (3x−1)n/(n+1)n7n(3x−1)n-1∣=limn→∞∣7n(3x−1)n+1∣=|3x−1|limn→∞7n/(3n-1)=7|3x−1|.
n+1

6. Determine a power series representation for the function g(x)=ln(7−x).

a) ∞∑n=0 xn+1/7n+1
n=0 xn+1/7n
b) ln(14)∞∑

c) ln(7)∞∑n=0 xn+1/7n+1
n=0 x/7n+1
d) ln∞∑

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: We know that ∫1/7−x dx=−ln(7−x) and there is a power series representation
for 1/7−x. So, ln(7−x)=−∫1/7−xdx
=−∫ ∞∑n=0 xn/7n+1dx=C
⇒ ∞∑n=0 xn+1/7n+1
n=0 x /7n+1.
So, the answer is, ln(7−x)=ln(7)∞∑ n+1

7. An example of Maclaurin series is _______

a) ∞∑n=0 (xn/n!)
b) ∞∑n=0 (x/5+n!)
c) ∞∑n=0 (x /(n-1)!)
n+1

d) (xn/n)
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The exponential function e can described as ∞∑n=0 (x /n!) which is an example
x n

of a Maclaurin series. This series converges for all x.

8. Find the power series representation for the function f(x)=x/4−x.

a) ∞∑n=0xn+1/4n+1
n=0x 4
b) ∞∑ n+1 n
c) ∞∑
xn4n
n=0

n=0x
d) ∞∑ n+1

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: So, again, we’ve got an x in the numerator. f(x)=x*1/4−x. If there is a power
series representation for g(x)=1/4−x, there will be a power series representation for f(x).
Suppose, g(x)=1/4*1/1−x4. To get a power series representation is to replace the x with x 4.
Doing this gives, g(x)=1/4 ∞∑n=0 xn/4n (xn/4 nprovided ∣x/4∣<1) ⇒ g(x) = 1/4 ∞∑ n=0 xn/4n = ∞∑n=0
xn/4n+1. The interval of convergence for this series is, ∣x/4 ∣<1 ⇒1/4 |x|<1 ⇒|x|<4. Now,
multiply g(x) by x and we have f(x)=x*1/4−x=x ⇒ ∞∑n=0 xn/4n+1 = ∞∑n=0xn+1/4n+1 and the interval of
convergence will be |x|<4.

9. What is the radius of convergence and interval of convergence for the power series
∞∑n=0m!(2x-1)m?
a) 3, 12
b) 1, 0.87
c) 2, 5.4
d) 0, 1/2
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Suppose, L=limn→∞ |(m+1)!(2x+1) /m!(2x+1) |
m+1 m

= limm→∞∣(m+1)m!(2x-1)/m!|
= |2x-1|limm→∞(m+1)
So, this power series will only converge if x=1/2. We know that every power series will
converge for x=a and in this case a=1/2. Remember that we get a from (x−a) n. In this case,
the radius of convergence is R=0 and the interval of convergence is x=1/2.

10. Determine the radius of convergence and interval of convergence for the power series:
∞∑n=0 (x−7)n+1/nn.
a) 0, −1<x<1
b) ∞, −∞<x<∞
c) 1, −2<x<2
d) 2, −1<x<1
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: So, L=limn→∞∣(x−7) /n ∣
n+1 n

L=limn→∞∣x−7/n∣
L=|x−7|limn→∞1/n=0
So, since L=0<1 any of the value of x, this power series will converge for every x. In these
cases, the radius of convergence is R=∞ and interval of convergence is −∞<x<∞.

1. How many binary relations are there on a set S with 9 distinct elements?
a) 290
b) 2100

c) 281

d) 260

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: S is the set with 9 elements. A relation on S is defined as S x S. There are 9 2
number of ordered pairs in relation. So, the number of binary relations is 2 (9*9) = 281.

2. _________ number of reflexive relations are there on a set of 11 distinct elements.

a) 2110
b) 3121

c) 290

d) 2132

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Let A be a set consists of n distinct elements. There are 2 (n*n)-n
number of
reflexive relations that can be formed. So, here the answer is 2 (11*11)-11
=2 .
110

3. The number of reflexive as well as symmetric relations on a set with 14 distinct elements
is __________
a) 4120
b) 270

c) 3201

d) 291

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Let A be a set consists of n distinct elements. There are 2 (n*(n-1))/2
number of
reflexive and symmetric relations that can be formed. So, here the answer is 2 14*(14-1)/2
= 291.

4. The number of symmetric relations on a set with 15 distinct elements is ______

a) 2196
b) 250

c) 2320

d) 278

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Let S be a set consists of n distinct elements. There are 2 (n-1)*(n-1)
number of
reflexive and symmetric relations that can be formed. So, here the answer is 2 (15-1)*(15-1)
= 2196.
5. Suppose S is a finite set with 7 elements. How many elements are there in the largest
equivalence relation on S?
a) 56
b) 78
c) 49
d) 100
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Let R is an equivalence relation on the set S and so it satisfies the reflexive,
symmetric and transitive property. The largest equivalence relation means it should
contain the largest number of ordered pairs. Since we can have n 2 ordered pairs in R x R
where n belongs to S and all these ordered pairs are present in this relation; its the largest
equivalence relation.So there are n2 elements i.e 72 = 49 elements in the largest equivalence
relation.

6. ________ is the rank of the largest equivalence relation on a set of 20 elements.

a) 320
b) 2400

c) 20

d) 1

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The rank of an equivalence relation is the number of an equivalence classes. If
we have a1, a2, a3, …, an elements then a1 and a2 will be in the same equivalence class
because everything is related and so on. In this case, there is only one equivalence class.

7. How many elements are there in the smallest equivalence relation on a set with 8
elements?
a) 102
b) 8

c) 48

d) 32

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Let R is an equivalence relation on the set S with n elements and so it satisfies
reflexive, symmetric and transitive properties. The smallest equivalence relation means it
should contain minimum number of ordered pairs i.e along with symmetric and transitive
properties it must always satisfy reflexive property. So, the smallest equivalence relation
will have n ordered pairs and so the answer is 8.

8. The rank of smallest equivalence relation on a set with 12 distinct elements is _______
a) 12
b) 144
c) 136
d) 79
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In the case of smallest equivalence relation, each element is in one
equivalence class like {a1}, {a2}, … are equivalence classes. So, the rank or number of
equivalence classes is n for a set with n elements and so the answer is 12.

9. If a set A has 8 elements and a set B has 10 elements, how many relations are there from
A to B?
a) 290
b) 380

c) 164

d) 280

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Let, a relation R from A to B is a subset of A×B. As the maximum number of
subsets (Elements in the powerset) is 2mn, there are 2mn number of relations from A to B and
so the answer is 280.

10. Synonym for binary relation is _______

a) equivalence relation
b) dyadic relation
c) orthogonal relation
d) one to many relations
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A binary relation on a set S is a set of ordered pairs of elements of S. It is a
subset of the cartesian product S2 = S x S. The terms correspondence, dyadic relation and 2-
place relation are synonyms for the binary relation

1. R is a binary relation on a set S and R is reflexive if and only if _______

a) r(R) = R
b) s(R) = R
c) t(R) = R
d) f(R) = R
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Let reflexive closure of R:r(R) = R. If R is reflexive, it satisfies all the condition in
the definition of reflexive closure. So, a reflexive closure of a relation is the smallest
number of reflexive relation contain in R. Hence, R = r(R).

2. If R1 and R2 are binary relations from set A to set B, then the equality ______ holds.
a) (Rc)c = Rc
b) (A x B)c
=Φ
c) (R1 U R2)c = R1c ∪ R2c
1 U R2) = R1 ∩ R2
d) (R c c c

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: To proof (R1 U R2)c = R1c ∪ R2c,
if <x,y> belongs to (R1 U R2)c
1 U R2)
⇔ <y,x> ∈ (R

⇔ <y,x> ∈ R1 or <y,x> ∈ R2
⇔ <x,y> ∈ R1 or <x,y> ∈ R2
c c

1 ∪ R2 .
⇔ <x,y> ∈ R c c

3. The condition for a binary relation to be symmetric is _______

a) s(R) = R
b) R ∪ R = R
c) R = Rc
d) f(R) = R

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: If <a,b> ∈ R then <b,a> ∈ R, where a and b belong to two different sets and so
its symmetric.
Rc also contains <b,a>
Rc = R.

4. ______ number of reflexive closure exists in a relation R = {(0,1), (1,1), (1,3), (2,1), (2,2),
(3,0)} where {0, 1, 2, 3} ∈ A.
a) 26
b) 6

c) 8

d) 36

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The reflexive closure of R is the relation, R ∪ Δ = { (a,b) | (a,b) R (a,a) | a A }.
Hence, R ∪ Δ = {(0,1), (1,1), (1,3), (2,1), (2,2), (3,0)} and the answer is 6.

5. The transitive closure of the relation {(0,1), (1,2), (2,2), (3,4), (5,3), (5,4)} on the set {1, 2, 3,
4, 5} is _______
a) {(0,1), (1,2), (2,2), (3,4)}
b) {(0,0), (1,1), (2,2), (3,3), (4,4), (5,5)}
c) {(0,1), (1,1), (2,2), (5,3), (5,4)}
d) {(0,1), (0,2), (1,2), (2,2), (3,4), (5,3), (5,4)}
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Let R be a relation on a set A. The connectivity relation on R* consists of pairs
(a,b) such that there is a path of length at least one from a to b in R. Mathematically, R* = R 1
∪ R2 ∪ R3 ∪ … ∪ Rn. Hence the answer is {(0,1), (0,2), (1,2), (2,2), (3,4), (5,3), (5,4)}.

6. Amongst the properties {reflexivity, symmetry, antisymmetry, transitivity} the relation

R={(a,b) ∈ N2 | a!= b} satisfies _______ property.
a) symmetry
b) transitivity
c) antisymmetry
d) reflexivity
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: It is not reflexive as aRa is not possible. It is symmetric as if aRb then bRa. It is
not antisymmetric as aRb and bRa are possible and we can have a!=b. It is not transitive as
if aRb and bRc then aRc need not be true. This is violated when c=a. So the answer is
symmetry property.

7. The number of equivalence relations of the set {3, 6, 9, 12, 18} is ______
a) 4
b) 25
c) 22

d) 90

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Number of equivalence Relations are given by BELL number. The nth of these
numbers i.e, Bn counts the number of different ways to partition a set that has exactly n
elements, or equivalently, the number of equivalence relations on it. Let’s say, 1 ->
Equivalence relation with 1 element; 1 2 -> Equivalence relation with 2 element; 2 3 5 ->
Equivalence relation with 3 element; 5 7 10 15 -> Equivalence relation with 4 element.
Hence, the answer is 4.

8. Let R1 and R2 be two equivalence relations on a set. Is R 1 ∪ R2 an equivalence relation?

a) an equivalence relation
b) reflexive closure of relation
c) not an equivalence relation
d) partial equivalence relation
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: R1 union R2 is not equivalence relation because transitivity property of closure
need not hold. For instance, (x, y) can be in R 1 and (y, z) be in R2 and (x, z) not in either R1 or
R2. However, R1 intersection R2 is an equivalence relation.

9. A relation R is defined on the set of integers as aRb if and only if a+b is even and R is
termed as ______
a) an equivalence relation with one equivalence class
b) an equivalence relation with two equivalence classes
c) an equivalence relation
d) an equivalence relation with three equivalence classes
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: R is reflexive as (a+b) is even for any integer; R is symmetric as if (a+b) is even
(b+a) is also even; R is transitive as if ((a+b)+c) is even, then (a+(b+c)) is also even.
So, R is an equivalence relation. For set of natural numbers, sum of even numbers always
give even, sum of odd numbers always give even and sum of any even and any odd
number always give odd. So, must have two equivalence classes -> one for even and one
for odd.
{…, -4, -2, 0, 2, … } and {…, -3, -1, 1, 3, … }.

10. The binary relation U = Φ (empty set) on a set A = {11, 23, 35} is _____
a) Neither reflexive nor symmetric
b) Symmetric and reflexive
c) Transitive and reflexive
d) Transitive and symmetric
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: U = Φ (empty set) on a set A = {11, 23, 35} need to be hold Irreflexive,
symmetric, anti-symmetric, asymmetric and transitive closure property, but it is not
Reflexive as it does not contain any self loop in itself.

1. The binary relation {(1,1), (2,1), (2,2), (2,3), (2,4), (3,1), (3,2)} on the set {1, 2, 3} is __________
a) reflective, symmetric and transitive
b) irreflexive, symmetric and transitive
c) neither reflective, nor irreflexive but transitive
d) irreflexive and antisymmetric
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Not reflexive -> (3,3) not present; not irreflexive -> (1, 1) is present; not
symmetric -> (2, 1) is present but not (1, 2); not antisymmetric – (2, 3) and (3, 2) are present;
not asymmetric -> asymmetry requires both antisymmetry and irreflexivity. So, it is
transitive closure of relation.

2. Consider the relation: R’ (x, y) if and only if x, y>0 over the set of non-zero rational
numbers,then R’ is _________
a) not equivalence relation
b) an equivalence relation
c) transitive and asymmetry relation
d) reflexive and antisymmetric relation
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Reflexive: a, a>0
Symmetric: if a, b>0 then both must be +ve or -ve, which means b, a > 0 also exists
Transitive: if a, b>0 and b, c>0 then to have b as same number, both pairs must be +ve or
-ve which implies a, c>0. Hence, R’ is an equivalence relation.

3. Let S be a set of n>0 elements. Let be the number B r of binary relations on S and let B f be
the number of functions from S to S. The expression for B r and Bf, in terms of n should be
____________
a) n2 and 2(n+1)2
b) n3
and n(n+1)
c) n and n(n+6)

d) 2(n*n)
and nn
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: For a set with n elements the number of binary relations should be 2 and
(n*n)

the number of functions should be nn. Hence Br = 2(n*n) and Bf = nn.

4. Let A be a set of k (k>0) elements. Which is larger between the number of binary
relations (say, Nr) on A and the number of functions (say, N f) from A to A?
a) number of relations
b) number of functions
c) the element set
d) number of subsets of the relation
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: For a set with k elements the number of binary relations should be 2 and (n*n)

the number of functions should be n n. Now, 2(n*n) => n2log (2) [taking log] and n n => nlog (n)
[taking log]. It is known that n 2log (2) > nlog (n). Hence, the number of binary relations > the
number of functions i.e, Nr > Nf.

5. Consider the binary relation, A = {(a,b) | b = a – 1 and a, b belong to {1, 2, 3}}. The
reflexive transitive closure of A is?
a) {(a,b) | a >= b and a, b belong to {1, 2, 3}}
b) {(a,b) | a > b and a, b belong to {1, 2, 3}}
c) {(a,b) | a <= b and a, b belong to {1, 2, 3}}
d) {(a,b) | a = b and a, b belong to {1, 2, 3}}
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: By definition of Transitive closure we have that a is related to all smaller b (as
every a is related to b – 1) and from the reflexive property a is related to a.

6. Let R1 be a relation from A = {1, 3, 5, 7} to B = {2, 4, 6, 8} and R2 be another relation from

B to C = {1, 2, 3, 4} as defined below:
i. An element a in A is related to an element b in B (under R 1) if a * b is divisible by 3.
ii. An element a in B is related to an element b in C (under R 2) if a * b is even but not
divisible by 3. Which is the composite relation R 1R2 from A to C?
a) R1R2 = {(1, 2), (1, 4), (3, 3), (5, 4), (5,6), (7, 3)}
b) Φ
c) R1R2 = {(1, 2), (1,6), (3, 2), (3, 4), (5, 4), (7, 2)}
d) R 1 R2 = {(2,2), (3, 2), (3, 4), (5, 1), (5, 3), (7, 1)}
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: By definition, i) R1 = {(1,6), (3,2), (3,4), (3,6), (3,8), (5,6), (7,6)} and ii) R 2 = {(1,2),
(1,4), (1,8), (5,2), (5,4), (5,8), (7,2), (7,4), (7,8)}. So, R1R2 = Φ.

7. The time complexity of computing the transitive closure of a binary relation on a set of n
elements should be ________
a) O(n)
b) O(logn)
c) O(n(n+(3/2)))
d) O(n3)
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Calculation of transitive closure results into matrix multiplication. We can do
matrix multiplication in O(n3) time. There are better algorithms that do less than cubic time.

8. Let A and B be two non-empty relations on a set S. Which of the following statements is
false?
a) A and B are transitive ⇒ A∩B is transitive
b) A and B are symmetric ⇒ A∪B is symmetric
c) A and B are transitive ⇒ A∪B is not transitive
d) A and B are reflexive ⇒ A∩B is reflexive
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In terms of set theory, the binary relation R defined on the set X is a transitive
relation if, for all a, b, c ∈ X, if aRb and bRc, then aRc. If there are two relations on a set
satisfying transitive property then there union must satisfy transitive property.

9. Determine the characteristics of the relation aRb if a2 = b2 .

a) Transitive and symmetric
b) Reflexive and asymmetry
c) Trichotomy, antisymmetry, and irreflexive
d) Symmetric, Reflexive, and transitive
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Since, x2 = y2 is just a special case of equality, so all properties that apply to x =
y also apply to this case. Hence, the relation satisfies symmetric, reflexive and transitive
closure.

10. Let R be a relation between A and B. R is asymmetric if and only if ________

a) Intersection of D(A) and R is empty, where D(A) represents diagonal of set
b) R-1 is a subset of R, where R-1 represents inverse of R
c) Intersection of R and R -1
is D(A)
d) D(A) is a subset of R, where D(A) represents diagonal of set
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A relation is asymm

1. Let a set S = {2, 4, 8, 16, 32} and <= be the partial order defined by S <= R if a divides b.
Number of edges in the Hasse diagram of is ______
a) 6
b) 5
c) 9
d) 4
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Hasse Diagram is:

32 / 16 / 8 / \ 2 4

So, the number of edges should be: 4.

2. The less-than relation, <, on a set of real numbers is ______

a) not a partial ordering because it is not asymmetric and irreflexive equals antisymmetric
b) a partial ordering since it is asymmetric and reflexive
c) a partial ordering since it is antisymmetric and reflexive
d) not a partial ordering because it is not antisymmetric and reflexive
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Relation less than a set of real numbers is not antisymmetric and reflexive.
Relation is not POSET because it is irreflexive. Again, aRb != bRa unless a=b and so it is
antisymmetric. A relation may be ‘not asymmetric and not reflexive but still antisymmetric,
as {(1,1) (1,2)}. So, the relation is not a partial ordering because it is not asymmetric and
irreflexive equals antisymmetric.

3. If the longest chain in a partial order is of length l, then the partial order can be written
as _____ disjoint antichains.
a) l2
b) l+1

c) l

d) ll

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: If the length of the longest chain in a partial order is l, then the elements in the
POSET can be partitioned into l disjoint antichains.

4. Suppose X = {a, b, c, d} and π1 is the partition of X, π1 = {{a, b, c}, d}. The number of
ordered pairs of the equivalence relations induced by __________
a) 15
b) 10
c) 34
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ordered pairs of the equivalence relations induced = {(a,a), (a,b), (a,c),
(b,a), (b,b), (b,c), (c,a), (c,b), (c,c), (d,d)}. Poset -> equivalence relations = each partition power
set – Φ.

5. A partial order P is defined on the set of natural numbers as follows. Here a/b denotes
integer division. i)(0, 0) ∊ P. ii)(a, b) ∊ P if and only if a % 10 ≤ b % 10 and (a/10, b/10) ∊ P.
Consider the following ordered pairs:
i. (101, 22) ii. (22, 101) iii. (145, 265) iv. (0, 153)
The ordered pairs of natural numbers are contained in P are ______ and ______
a) (145, 265) and (0, 153)
b) (22, 101) and (0, 153)
c) (101, 22) and (145, 265)
d) (101, 22) and (0, 153)
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: For ordered pair (a, b), to be in P, each digit in a starting from unit place must
not be larger than the corresponding digit in b. This condition is satisfied by options (iii)
(145, 265) => 5 ≤ 5, 4 < 6 and 1 < 2; (iv) (0, 153) => 0 < 3 and no need to examine further.

6. The inclusion of ______ sets into R = {{1, 2}, {1, 2, 3}, {1, 3, 5}, {1, 2, 4}, {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}} is
necessary and sufficient to make R a complete lattice under the partial order defined by set
containment.
a) {1}, {2, 4}
b) {1}, {1, 2, 3}
c) {1}
d) {1}, {1, 3}, {1, 2, 3, 4}, {1, 2, 3, 5}
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A lattice is complete if every subset of partial order set has a supremum and
infimum element. For example, here we are given a partial order set R. Now it will be a
complete lattice if whatever be the subset we choose, it has a supremum and infimum
element. Here relation given is set containment, so supremum element will be just union of
all sets in the subset we choose. Similarly, the infimum element will be just an intersection
of all the sets in the subset we choose. As R now is not complete lattice, because although
it has a supremum for every subset we choose, but some subsets have no infimum. For
example, if we take subset {{1, 3, 5}, {1, 2, 4}}, then intersection of sets in this is {1}, which is
not present in R. So clearly, if we add set {1} in R, we will solve the problem. So adding {1} is
necessary and sufficient condition for R to be a complete lattice.
7. Consider the ordering relation a | b ⊆ N x N over natural numbers N such that a | b if
there exists c belong to N such that a*c=b. Then ___________
a) | is an equivalence relation
b) It is a total order
c) Every subset of N has an upper bound under |
d) (N,|) is a lattice but not a complete lattice
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A set is called lattice if every finite subset has a least upper bound and
greatest lower bound. It is termed as a complete lattice if every subset has a least upper
bound and greatest lower bound. As every subset of this will not have LUB and GLB so (N,|)
is a lattice but not a complete lattice.

8. Consider the set N* of finite sequences of natural numbers with a denoting that
sequence a is a prefix of sequence b. Then, which of the following is true?
a) Every non-empty subset of has a greatest lower bound
b) It is uncountable
c) Every non-empty finite subset of has a least upper bound
d) Every non-empty subset of has a least upper bound
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Consider any sequence like “45, 8, 7, 2” – it can have many (infinite) least
upper bounds like “45, 8, 7, 2, 5”, “45, 8, 7, 2, 1” and so on but it can have only 1 greatest
lower bound – “45, 8, 7” because we are using the prefix relation. So, every non-empty
subset has a greatest lower bound.

9. A partial order ≤ is defined on the set S = {x, b1, b2, … bn, y} as x ≤ bi for all i and bi ≤ y for
all i, where n ≥ 1. The number of total orders on the set S which contain the partial order ≤
is ______
a) n+4
b) n2
c) n!

d) 3

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: To make this partial order a total order, we need the relation to hold for every
two element of the partial order. Currently, there is no relation between any b i and bj. So,
for every bi and bj, we have to add either (bi, bj) or (bj, bi) in total order. So, this translates to
giving an ordering for n elements between x and y, which can be done in n! ways.
10. Let (A, ≤) be a partial order with two minimal elements a, b and a maximum element c.
Let P:A –> {True, False} be a predicate defined on A. Suppose that P(a) = True, P(b) = False
and P(a) ⇒ P(b) for all satisfying a ≤ b, where ⇒ stands for logical implication. Which of the
following statements cannot be true?
a) P(x) = True for all x S such that x ≠ b
b) P(x) = False for all x ∈ S such that b ≤ x and x ≠ c
c) P(x) = False for all x ∈ S such that x ≠ a and x ≠ c
d) P(x) = False for all x ∈ S such that a ≤ x and b ≤ x
View Answer

Answer: d

1. Suppose a relation R = {(3, 3), (5, 5), (5, 3), (5, 5), (6, 6)} on S = {3, 5, 6}. Here R is known as
_________
a) equivalence relation
b) reflexive relation
c) symmetric relation
d) transitive relation
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Here, [3] = {3, 5}, [5] = {3, 5}, [5] = {5}. We can see that [3] = [5] and that S/R will
be {[3], [6]} which is a partition of S. Thus, we can choose either {3, 6} or {5, 6} as a set of
representatives of the equivalence classes.

2. Consider the congruence 45≡3(mod 7). Find the set of equivalence class representatives.
a) {…, 0, 7, 14, 28, …}
b) {…, -3, 0, 6, 21, …}
c) {…, 0, 4, 8, 16, …}
d) {…, 3, 8, 15, 21, …}
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Note that a set of class representatives is the subset of a set which contains
exactly one element from each equivalence class. Now, for integers n, a and b, we have
congruence a≡b(mod n), then the set of equivalence classes are {…, -2n, -n, 0, n, 2n,…}, {…,
1-2n, 1-n, 1, 1+n, 1+2n,…}. The required answer is {…, 0, 7, 14, 28, …}.

3. Which of the following relations is the reflexive relation over the set {1, 2, 3, 4}?
a) {(0,0), (1,1), (2,2), (2,3)}
b) {(1,1), (1,2), (2,2), (3,3), (4,3), (4,4)}
c) {,(1,1), (1,2), (2,1), (2,3), (3,4)}
d) {(0,1), (1,1), (2,3), (2,2), (3,4), (3,1)
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: {(1,1), (1,2), (2,2), (3,3), (4,3), (4,4)} is a reflexive relation because it contains set
= {(1,1), (2,2), (3,3), (4,4)}.

4. Determine the partitions of the set {3, 4, 5, 6, 7} from the following subsets.
a) {3,5}, {3,6,7}, {4,5,6}
b) {3}, {4,6}, {5}, {7}
c) {3,4,6}, {7}
d) {5,6}, {5,7}
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: {3,5}, {3,6,7}, {4,5,6}. It is not a partition because these sets are not pairwise
disjoint. The elements 3, 5 and 6 appear repeatedly these sets. {1}, {2,3,6}, {4}, {5} – this is a
partition as they are pairwise disjoint. {3,4,6}, {7} – this is not a partition as element 5 is
missing.
{5,6}, {5,7} – this is not a partition because it is missing the elements 3, 4 in any of the sets.

5. Determine the number of equivalence classes that can be described by the set {2, 4, 5}.
a) 125
b) 5
c) 16
d) 72
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Suppose B={2, 4, 5} and B×B = (2,2), (4,4), (5,5), (2,4), (4,2), (4,5), (5,4), (2,5), (5,2).
A relation R on set B is said to be equivalence relation if R is reflexive, Symmetric, transitive.
Hence, total number of equivalence relation=5 out of 23=8 relations.

6. Determine the number of possible relations in an antisymmetric set with 19 elements.

a) 23585
b) 2.02 * 1087
c) 9.34 * 791

d) 35893

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Number of antisymmetric relation is given:-|A|=n, |AxA|=n xn. Then, N=total
number of diagonal will n and we know that N = 2 n * 3(n -n)/2. So, the number of relations
2

should be = 2.02 * 1087.

7. For a, b ∈ Z define a | b to mean that a divides b is a relation which does not satisfy
___________
a) irreflexive and symmetric relation
b) reflexive relation and symmetric relation
c) transitive relation
d) symmetric relation
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Suppose, a=0, then we know that 0 does not divide 0, 0 ∤ 0 and it is not
reflexive. Again, 2 | 4 but 4 does not 2 and so it is not a symmetric relation.

8. Which of the following is an equivalence relation on R, for a, b ∈ Z?

a) (a-b) ∈ Z
b) (a +c)
2
∈ Z
c) (ab+cd)/2 ∈ Z
d) (2c )/3
3
∈ Z
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Let a ∈ R, then a−a = 0 and 0 ∈ Z, so it is reflexive. To see that a-b ∈ Z is
symmetric, then a−b ∈ Z -&gt say, a−b = m, where m ∈ Z ⇒ b−a = −(a−b)=−m and −m ∈ Z.
Thus, a-b is symmetric. To see that a-b is transitive, let a, b, c ∈ R. Thus, a−b ∈ Z; b−c ∈ Z.
Let a−b = i and b−c = j, for integers i,j ∈ Z. Then a−c ='(a−b)+(b−c)=i + j. So, a−c ∈ Z.
Therefore a – c is transitive. Hence, (a-b) is an equivalence relation on the set R. Rest of the
options are not equivalence relations.

9. Determine the set of all integers a such that a ≡ 3 (mod 7) such that −21 ≤ x ≤ 21.
a) {−21, −18, −11, −4, 3, 10, 16}
b) {−21, −18, −11, −4, 3, 10, 17, 24}
c) {−24, -19, -15, 5, 0, 6, 10}
d) {−23, −17, −11, 0, 2, 8, 16}
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: For an integer a we have x ≡ 3 (mod 7) if and only if a = 7m + 3. Thus, by
calculating multiples of 7, add 3 and restrict the value of a, so that −21 ≤ x ≤ 21. The set for
a = {−21, −18, −11, −4, 3, 10, 17, 24}.

10. For a, b ∈ R define a = b to mean that |x| = |y|. If [x] is an equivalence relation in R.
Find the equivalence relation for [17].
a) {,…,-11, -7, 0, 7, 11,…}
b) {2, 4, 9, 11, 15,…}
c) {-17, 17}
d) {5, 25, 125,…}
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: We can find

1. A directed graph or digraph can have directed cycle in which ______

a) starting node and ending node are different
b) starting node and ending node are same
c) minimum four vertices can be there
d) ending node does not exist
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: If the start node and end node are same in the path of a graph then it is
termed as directed cycle i.e, c0 = cn. For instance, a c b a is a simple cycle in which start and
end nodes are same(a). But, a c b b a is not a simple cycle as there is a loop <b,b>.

2. Let, D = <A, R> be a directed graph or digraph,then D’ = <A’, R’> is a subgraph if

___________
a) A’ ⊂ A and R’ = R ∩ (A’ x A’)
b) A’ ⊂ A and R ⊂ R’ ∩ (A’ x A’)
c) R’ = R ∩ (A’ x A’)
d) A’ ⊆ A and R ⊆ R’ ∩ (A’ x A’)
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A directed graph or digraph is an ordered pair D<A, R> where A(is a set of
nodes of D) is a set and R(the elements of R are the arcs of D) is a binary relation on A. The
relation R is called the incidence relation on D. Now, a digraph is a subgraph of D if i)A’ ⊂ A
and ii)R’ = R ∩ (A’ x A’). If D’ D, D’ is a proper subgraph of D.

3. The graph representing universal relation is called _______

a) complete digraph
b) partial digraph
c) empty graph
d) partial subgraph
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Consider, A is a graph with vertices {a, b, c, d} and the universal relation is A x
A. The graph representing universal relation is called a complete graph and all ordered
pairs are present there.

4. What is a complete digraph?

a) connection of nodes without containing any cycle
b) connecting nodes to make at least three complete cycles
c) start node and end node in a graph are same having a cycle
d) connection of every node with every other node including itself in a digraph
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Every node should be connected to every other node including itself in a
digraph is the complete digraph. Now, graphs are connected, strongly connected and
disconnected

5. Disconnected components can be created in case of ___________

a) undirected graphs
b) partial subgraphs
c) disconnected graphs
d) complete graphs
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: By the deletion of one edge from either connected or strongly connected
graphs the graph obtained is termed as a disconnected graph. It can have connected
components separated by the deletion of the edges. The edge that has to be deleted called
cut edge.

6. A simple graph can have _______

a) multiple edges
b) self loops
c) parallel edges
d) no multiple edges, self-loops and parallel edges
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: If a graph say G = <V, E> has no parallel or multiple edges and no self loops
contained in it is called a simple graph. An undirected graph may have multiple edges and
self-loops.

7. Degree of a graph with 12 vertices is _______

a) 25
b) 56
c) 24
d) 212
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Number of edges incident on a graph is known as degree of a vertex. Sum of
degrees of each vertex is called total degree of the graph. Total degree = 2 * number of
vertices. So, if there are 24 vertices then total degree is 24.

8. In a finite graph the number of vertices of odd degree is always ______

a) even
b) odd
c) even or odd
d) infinite
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In any finite graph, sum of degree of all the vertices = 2 * number of edges.
Sum of degree of all the vertices with even degree + sum of degree of all the vertices with
odd degree = 2 * number of edges. Now, even number + sum of degree of all the vertices
with odd degree = even number. It is possible if and only if number of odd degree vertices
are even.

9. An undirected graph has 8 vertices labelled 1, 2, …,8 and 31 edges. Vertices 1, 3, 5, 7 have
degree 8 and vertices 2, 4, 6, 8 have degree 7. What is the degree of vertex 8?
a) 15
b) 8
c) 5
d) 23
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Vertices 1, 3, 5, 7 have degree 8 and vertices 2, 4, 6, 8 have degree 7. By
definition, sum of degree= 2 * No of edges
Let x = degree of vertex 8
8 + 7 + 8 + 7 + 8 + 7 + 8 + x = 2 * 31
53 + x = 61
x=8
Hence, degree of vertex 8 is 8.

10. G is an undirected graph with n vertices and 26 edges such that each vertex of G has a
degree at least 4. Then the maximum possible value of n is ___________
a) 7
b) 43
c) 13
d) 10
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Let m be min degree and M be a max degree of a graph, then m ≤ 2E/V ≤ M.
Here, m=4, E=26, v=?
So, 4 ≤ (2*26)/V
V ≤ (52/4)
V ≤ 13 ⇒ V = 13.

1. Hasse diagrams are first made by ______

a) A.R. Hasse
b) Helmut Hasse
c) Dennis Hasse
d) T.P. Hasse
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Hasse diagrams can be described as the transitive reduction as an abstract
directed acyclic graph. This graph drawing techniques are constructed by Helmut
Hasse(1948).

2. If a partial order is drawn as a Hasse diagram in which no two edges cross, its covering
graph is called ______
a) upward planar
b) downward planar
c) lattice
d) biconnected components
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In a Hasse diagram if no two edges cross each other in the drawing of partial
order Hasse diagram, then its covering graph called the upward planar.

3. If the partial order of a set has at most one minimal element, then to test whether it has
a non-crossing Hasse diagram its time complexity __________
a) NP-complete
b) O(n2)
c) O(n+2)
d) O(n3)
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: If the partial order has at most one minimal element, or it has at most one
maximal element, then to test whether a partial order with multiple sources and sinks can
be drawn as a crossing-free Hasse diagram or not it’s time complexity is NP-complete.

4. Which of the following relation is a partial order as well as an equivalence relation?

a) equal to(=)
b) less than(<)
c) greater than(>)
d) not equal to(!=)
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The identity relation = on any set is a partial order in which every two distinct
elements are incomparable and that depicts the relation of both a partial order and an
equivalence relation. For non-linear orders, there are many advanced properties of posets.

5. The relation ≤ is a partial order if it is ___________

a) reflexive, antisymmetric and transitive
b) reflexive, symmetric
c) asymmetric, transitive
d) irreflexive and transitive
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Let A is a set and ≤ is a relation on A, then ≤ is a partial order if it satisfies
reflexive, antisymmetric, and transitive, i.e., for all x, y and z in P. That means, x ≤ x
(reflexivity);
if x ≤ y and y ≤ x then x = y (antisymmetry) and if x ≤ y and y ≤ z then x ≤ z (transitivity).

6. In which of the following relations every pair of elements is comparable?

a) ≤
b) !=
c) >=
d) ==
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In the ≤(or less than and equal to) relation, every pair of elements is
comparable.
7. In a poset (S, ⪯), if there is no element n∈S with m<n, then which of the following is true?
a) an element n exists for which m=n
b) An element m is maximal in the poset
c) A set with the same subset of the poset
d) An element m is minimal in the poset
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: By the definition, an element m exists in a poset (S, ⪯) is maximal if and only if
there is no n∈S with m≺n.

8. In a poset P({v, x, y, z}, ⊆) which of the following is the greatest element?

a) {v, x, y, z}
b) 1
c) ∅
d) {vx, xy, yz}
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: We know that, in a Hasse diagram, the maximal element(s) are the top and the
minimal elements are at the bottom of the diagram. In the given poset, {v, x, y, z} is the
maximal or greatest element and ∅ is the minimal or least element.

9. Suppose P1 is a partially ordered class and a cut of P1 is pair (D, T) of nonempty

subclasses of P1 satisfies which of the following properties?
a) D∩T=Ø
b) D∪T=P1
c) xyz∈T

d) z∈T and zx∈D

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Suppose P1 is a partially ordered class and a cut of P1 is pair (D, T) of nonempty
subclasses of P1 satisfies the following properties: i) D∩T=Ø and D∪T=P1 ii) If z∈D and y≤z,
then y∈D and iii) If z∈T and y≥z, then y∈T.

10. Let G be the graph defined as the Hasse diagram for the ⊆ relation on the set S{1, 2,…,
18}. How many edges are there in G?
a) 43722
b) 2359296
c) 6487535
d) 131963
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Here the total number of elements in S is 18 and so number of vertices in
Hasse diagram are 218. Hence, the number of edges in Hasse diagram are 18 * 218-
1
=2359296.

1. A Poset in which every pair of elements has both a least upper bound and a greatest
lower bound is termed as _______
a) sublattice
b) lattice
c) trail
d) walk
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A poset in which every pair of elements has both a least upper bound and a
greatest lower bound is called a lattice. A lattice can contain sublattices which are subsets
of that lattice.

2. In the poset (Z+, |) (where Z+ is the set of all positive integers and | is the divides relation)
are the integers 9 and 351 comparable?
a) comparable
b) not comparable
c) comparable but not determined
d) determined but not comparable
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The two integers 9 and 351 are comparable since 9|351 i.e, 9 divides 351. But
5 and 127 are not comparable since 5 | 127 i.e 5 does not divide 127.

3. If every two elements of a poset are comparable then the poset is called ________
a) sub ordered poset
b) totally ordered poset
c) sub lattice
d) semigroup
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A poset (P, <=) is known as totally ordered if every two elements of the poset
are comparable. “<=” is called a total order and a totally ordered set is also termed as a
chain.
4. ______ and _______ are the two binary operations defined for lattices.
a) Join, meet
b) Addition, subtraction
c) Union, intersection
d) Multiplication, modulo division
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Join and meet are the binary operations reserved for lattices. The join of two
elements is their least upper bound. It is denoted by V, not to be confused with disjunction.
The meet of two elements is their greatest lower bound. It is denoted by ∧ and not to be
confused with a conjunction.

5. A ________ has a greatest element and a least element which satisfy 0<=a<=1 for every a
in the lattice(say, L).
a) semilattice
b) join semilattice
c) meet semilattice
d) bounded lattice
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A lattice that has additionally a supremum element and an infimum element
which satisfy 0<=a<=1, for every an in the lattice is called a bounded lattice. A partially
ordered set is a bounded lattice if and only if every finite set (including the empty set) of
elements has a join and a meet.

6. The graph given below is an example of _________

a) non-lattice poset
b) semilattice
c) partial lattice
d) bounded lattice
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The graph is an example of non-lattice poset where b and c have common
upper bounds d, e and f but none of them is the least upper bound.

7. A sublattice(say, S) of a lattice(say, L) is a convex sublattice of L if _________

a) x>=z, where x in S implies z in S, for every element x, y in L
b) x=y and y<=z, where x, y in S implies z in S, for every element x, y, z in L
c) x<=y<=z, where x, y in S implies z in S, for every element x, y, z in L
d) x=y and y>=z, where x, y in S implies z in S, for every element x, y, z in L
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A sublattice S of a lattice L is a convex sublattice of L, if x ≤ z ≤ y and x, y in S
implies that z belongs to S, for all elements x, y, z in L.

8. The graph is the smallest non-modular lattice N5. A lattice is _______ if and only if it does
not have a _______ isomorphic to N5.

a) non-modular, complete lattice

b) moduler, semilattice
c) non-modular, sublattice
d) modular, sublattice
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A lattice (L, ∨, ∧) is modular if for all elements a, b, c of L, the following identity
holds->modular identity: (a ∧ c) ∨ (b ∧ c) = [(a ∧ c) ∨ b] ∧ c. This condition is equivalent to
the following axiom -> modular law: a ≤ c implies a ∨ (b ∧ c) = (a ∨ b) ∧ c. A lattice is
modular if and only if it does not have a sublattice isomorphic to N5.

9. Every poset that is a complete semilattice must always be a _______

a) sublattice
b) complete lattice
c) free lattice
d) partial lattice
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A poset is called a complete lattice if all its subsets have both a join and a
meet. Every complete lattice is a bounded lattice. Every poset that is a complete semilattice
must always be a complete lattice.

10. A free semilattice has the _______ property.

a) intersection
b) commutative and associative
c) identity
d) universal
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Any set X may be used t

1. The maximum number of edges in a bipartite graph on 14 vertices is ___________

a) 56
b) 14
c) 49
d) 87
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Maximum number of edges occur in a complete bipartite graph when every
vertex has an edge to every opposite vertex in the graph. Number of edges in a complete
bipartite graph is a*b, where a and b are no. of vertices on each side. This quantity is
maximum when a = b i.e. when there are 7 vertices on each side. So answer is 7 * 7 = 49.

2. In a ______ the degree of each and every vertex is equal.

a) regular graph
b) point graph
c) star graph
d) euler graph
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A regular graph has the same degree in each of its vertices. In a regular
bipartite graph, if the common degree of each vertices is 1, the two parts are of the same
size.
3. The time complexity to test whether a graph is bipartite or not is said to be _______ using
depth first search.
a) O(n3)
b) linear time
c) O(1)
d) O(nlogn)
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: It is possible to test whether a graph is bipartite, and to return either a two-
coloring (if it is bipartite) or an odd cycle (if it is not) in linear time i.e, O(n) using depth first
search. In case of the intersection of n line segments or other simple shapes in the
Euclidean graph, it is possible to test whether the graph is bipartite and it will return either
a two-coloring or an odd cycle in time O(nlogn), even though the graph itself has up to O(n 2)
edges.

4. The partition V = V 1 ∪ V2 in a bipartite graph G1 is called ________

a) bipartition of G1
b) 2-vertex set of G1

c) sub bipartite graphs

d) disjoint vertex set

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A graph G1(V, E) is called bipartite if its vertex set V(G) can be decomposed into
two non-empty disjoint subsets V1(G1) and V2(G1) in such a way that each edge e ∈ E(G) has
its one end joint in V1(G1) and other endpoint in V 2(G1). The partition V = V1 ∪ V2 in a bipartite
graph G1 is called bipartition of G1.

5. What is the maximum number of edges in a bipartite graph on 14 vertices?

a) 78
b) 15
c) 214
d) 49
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: By definition, the maximum possible number of edges in a bipartite graph on
‘n’ vertices = (1/4) x n 2.
Substituting n = 14, we get maximum number of edges in a bipartite graph on 14 vertices,=
(1/4) x (14)2
= (1/4) x 14 x 14

= 49

∴ Maximum number of edges in a bipartite graph on 14 vertices = 49.

6. In a complete bipartite graph, the intersection of two sub graphs is ______
a) 1
b) null
c) 210
d) 412

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In a complete Bipartite graph, there must exist a partition say, V(G)=X ∪Y and
X∩Y=∅, that means all edges share a vertex from both set X and Y.

7. Bipartite graphs are used in ________

a) modern coding theory
b) colouring graphs
c) neural networks
d) chemical bonds
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: All types of cyclic graphs are examples of cyclic graphs. A cyclic graph is
considered bipartite if all the cycles involved are of even length. Bipartite graphs are widely
used in modern coding theory apart from being used in modeling relationships.

8. All closed walks are of ______ length in a bipartite graph.

a) infinite
b) even
c) odd
d) odd prime
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In a bipartite graph G all closed walks must be of even length as well as all
cycles in G are of even length. Then only the graph is considered a bipartite graph.

9. Every complete bipartite graph must not be _______

a) planar graph
b) line graph
c) complete graph
d) subgraph
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The below bipartite graph is not a complete graph as there is no edge
between A-B, B-C, C-D, C-Q, P-Q, Q-R, Q-D and so it is not a complete graph.

10. The spectrum of a graph is _______ if and only if it is _______ graph.

a) symmetry, bipartite
b) transitive, bipartite
c) cyclic, Euler
d) reflexive, planar
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A graph is bipartite if and only if it does not contain an odd cycle. The
spectrum of a graph is symmetric if and only if it is a bipartite graph. These are the
characteristics of the graph.

1. In a 7-node directed cyclic graph, the number of Hamiltonian cycle is to be ______

a) 728
b) 450
c) 360
d) 260
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A Hamiltonian cycle in a connected graph G is defined as a closed path that
traverses every vertex of G exactly once except the starting vertex, at which the path also
terminates. In an n-complete graph, there are (n-1)!/2 hamiltonian cycles and so the answer
is 360.

2. If each and every vertex in G has degree at most 23 then G can have a vertex colouring of
__________
a) 24
b) 23
c) 176
d) 54
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A vertex colouring of a graph G = (V’,E’) with m colours is a mapping f:V’ -> {1,
…,m} such that f(u)!=f(v) for every (u,v) belongs to E’. Since in worst case the graph can be
complete, d+1 colours are necessary for graph containing vertices with degree at most ‘d’.
So, the required answer is 24.

3. Triangle free graphs have the property of clique number is __________

a) less than 2
b) equal to 2
c) greater than 3
d) more than 10
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In an undirected triangle-free graph no three vertices can form a triangle of
edges. It can be described as graphs with clique number less than 2 and the graphs with
girth greater than 4.

4. Berge graph is similar to ______ due to strong perfect graph theorem.

a) line graph
b) perfect graph
c) bar graph
d) triangle free graph
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In a perfect graph, the chromatic number of each and every induced subgraph
is equal to the size of the largest clique of that subgraph. These perfect graphs are same as
Berge graphs due to strong perfect graph theorem.

5. Let D be a simple graph on 10 vertices such that there is a vertex of degree 1, a vertex of
degree 2, a vertex of degree 3, a vertex of degree 4, a vertex of degree 5, a vertex of degree
6, a vertex of degree 7, a vertex of degree 8 and a vertex of degree 9. What can be the
degree of the last vertex?
a) 4
b) 0
c) 2
d) 5
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: We know that sum of degrees of all vertices = 2X no of edges. Say number of
edges is E. Degree of last vertex is x, 1+2+3+4+5+6+7++8+9+x = 2XE
=>45+x = 2XE
Now putting options we get answer 0 or 5
But one vertex of degree 9 means it connected to all other vertexes. So, the degree must
be 5.

6. A ______ is a graph which has the same number of edges as its complement must have
number of vertices congruent to 4m or 4m modulo 4(for integral values of number of
edges).
a) Subgraph
b) Hamiltonian graph
c) Euler graph
d) Self complementary graph
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: It is the definition of self complementary graph. It is a graph that is isomorphic
to its complement.

7. In a ______ the vertex set and the edge set are finite sets.
a) finite graph
b) bipartite graph
c) infinite graph
d) connected graph
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In graph theory, most common graphs are considered to be finite otherwise it
is an infinite graph. Now, a finite graph is a graph in which the vertex set and the edge set
are described as the finite sets.

8. If G is the forest with 54 vertices and 17 connected components, G has _______ total
number of edges.
a) 38
b) 37
c) 17/54
d) 17/53
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Here we are given a forest with 54 vertices and 17 components. A component
is itself a tree and since there are 17 components means that every component has a root,
therefore we have 17 roots. Each new vertex of the forest contributes to a single edge to a
forest. So for remaining 54-17 = 37 vertices we can have m-n=37 edges. Hence, answer is
37.

9. The number of edges in a regular graph of degree 46 and 8 vertices is ____________

a) 347
b) 230
c) 184
d) 186
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In a complete graph which is (n-1) regular (where n is the number of vertices)
has edges n*(n-1)/2. In the graph n vertices are adjacent to n-1 vertices and an edge
contributes two degree so dividing by 2. Hence, in a d regular graph number of edges will
be n*d/2 = 46*8/2 = 184.

10. An undirected graph G has bit strings of length 100 in its vertices and there is an edge
between vertex u and vertex v if and only if u and v differ in exactly one bit position.
Determine the ratio of the chromatic number of G to the diameter of G?
a) 1/2101
b) 1/50

c) 1/100

d) 1/20

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: For the given condition we can simply design a K-Map and mark an edge
between every two adjacent cells in K-map. Hence, that will give us a Bi

1. A bridge can not be a part of _______

a) a simple cycle
b) a tree
c) a clique with size ≥ 3 whose every edge is a bridge
d) a graph which contains cycles
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In a connected graph, a bridge is an edge whose removal disconnects the
graph. In a cycle if we remove an edge, it will still be connected. So, bridge cannot be part
of a cycle. A clique is any complete subgraph of a graph.
2. Any subset of edges that connects all the vertices and has minimum total weight, if all
the edge weights of an undirected graph are positive is called _______
a) subgraph
b) tree
c) hamiltonian cycle
d) grid
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: If all the edge weights of an undirected graph are positive, any subset of edges
that connects all the vertices and has minimum total weight is termed as a tree. In this
case, we need to have a minimum spanning tree need to be exact.

3. G is a simple undirected graph and some vertices of G are of odd degree. Add a node n
to G and make it adjacent to each odd degree vertex of G. The resultant graph is ______
a) Complete bipartite graph
b) Hamiltonian cycle
c) Regular graph
d) Euler graph
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In any simple undirected graph, total degree of all vertices is even (since each
edge contributes 2 degrees). So number of vertices having odd degrees must be even,
otherwise, their sum would have been odd, making total degree also odd. Now single
vertex n is connected to all these even number of vertices (which have odd degrees). So,
degree of n is also even. Moreover, now degree of all vertices which are connected to v is
increased by 1, hence earlier vertices which had odd degree now have even degree. So
now, all vertices in the graph have even degree, which is necessary and sufficient condition
for euler graph.

4. Let G be a directed graph whose vertex set is the set of numbers from 1 to 50. There is
an edge from a vertex i to a vertex j if and only if either j = i + 1 or j = 3i. Calculate the
minimum number of edges in a path in G from vertex 1 to vertex 50.
a) 98
b) 13
c) 6
d) 34
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Edge set consists of edges from i to j using either 1) j = i+1 OR 2) j=3i. The trick
to solving this question is to think in a reverse way. Instead of finding a path from 1 to 50,
try to find a path from 100 to 1. The edge sequence with the minimum number of edges is
1 – 3 – 9 – 10 – 11 – 33 which consists of 6 edges.

5. What is the number of vertices in an undirected connected graph with 39 edges, 7

vertices of degree 2, 2 vertices of degree 5 and remaining of degree 6?
a) 11
b) 14
c) 18
d) 19
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: We know that, sum of degree of all the vertices = 2 * number of edges
2*7 + 5*2 + 6*x = 39*2
x=9
Number of vertices = 7 + 2 + 9 = 18.

6. ______ is the maximum number of edges in an acyclic undirected graph with k vertices.
a) k-1
b) k2
c) 2k+3

+4
d) k3

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: This is possible with spanning trees since, a spanning tree with k nodes has k –
1 edges.

7. The minimum number of edges in a connected cyclic graph on n vertices is _____________

a) n – 1
b) n
c) 2n+3
d) n+1
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: For making a cyclic graph, the minimum number of edges have to be equal to
the number of vertices. SO, the answer should be n minimum edges.

8. The maximum number of edges in a 8-node undirected graph without self loops is
____________
a) 45
b) 61
c) 28
d) 17
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In a graph of n vertices we can draw an edge from a vertex to n-1 vertex we
will do it for n vertices and so total number of edges is n*(n-1). Now each edge is counted
twice so the required maximum number of edges is n*(n-1)/2. Hence, 8*(8-1)/2 = 28 edges.

9. Let G be an arbitrary graph with v nodes and k components. If a vertex is removed from
G, the number of components in the resultant graph must necessarily lie down between
_____ and _____
a) n-1 and n+1
b) v and k
c) k+1 and v-k
d) k-1 and v-1
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: If a vertex is removed from the graph, lower bound: number of components
decreased by one = k-1 (remove an isolated vertex which was a component) and upper
bound: number of components = v-1 (consider a vertex connected to all other vertices in a
component as in a star and all other vertices outside this component being isolated. Now,
removing the considered vertex makes all other (v-1) vertices isolated making (v-1)
components.

10. The 2n vertices of a graph G corresponds to all subsets of a set of size n, for n>=4. Two
vertices of G are adjacent if and only if the corresponding sets intersect in exactly two
elements.
The number of connected components in G can be ___________
a) n+2
b) 3n/2
c) n2

d) 2n

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: n+1(subsets of size < 2 are all disconnected) (subsets of size >= 2 are all
connected)+1(subset of size >= 2 are all connected)=n+2 is the numb
1. A graph which has the same number of edges as its complement must have number of
vertices congruent to ______ or _______ modulo 4(for integral values of number of edges).
a) 6k, 6k-1
b) 4k, 4k+1
c) k, k+2
d) 2k+1, k
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: By using invariant of isomorphism and property of edges of graph and its
complement, we have: a) number of edges of isomorphic graphs must be the same.
b) number of edge of a graph + number of edges of complementary graph = Number of
edges in Kn(complete graph), where n is the number of vertices in each of the 2 graphs
which will be the same. So we know number of edges in Kn = n(n-1)/2. So number of edges
of each of the above 2 graph(a graph and its complement) = n(n-1)/4. So this means the
number of vertices in each of the 2 graphs should be of the form “4x” or “4x+1” for integral
value of number of edges which is necessary. Hence the required answer is 4x or 4x+1 so
that on doing modulo we get 0 which is the definition of congruence.

2. Every Isomorphic graph must have ________ representation.

a) cyclic
b) adjacency list
c) tree
d) adjacency matrix
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A graph can exist in different forms having the same number of vertices,
edges and also the same edge connectivity, such graphs are called isomorphic graphs. Two
graphs G1 and G2 are said to be isomorphic if −> 1) their number of components (vertices
and edges) are same and 2) their edge connectivity is retained. Isomorphic graphs must
have adjacency matrix representation.

3. A cycle on n vertices is isomorphic to its complement. What is the value of n?

a) 5
b) 32
c) 17
d) 8
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A cycle with n vertices has n edges. Number of edges in cycle = n and number
of edges in its complement = (n*(n−1)/2) – n. To be isomorphism, both graphs should have
equal number of edges. This gives, (n*(n-1)/2) – n = n
⇒n=5

4. How many perfect matchings are there in a complete graph of 10 vertices?

a) 60
b) 945
c) 756
d) 127
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Perfect matching is a set of edges such that each vertex appears only once
and all vertices appear at least once (exactly one appearance). So for n vertices perfect
matching will have n/2 edges and there won’t be any perfect matching if n is odd. For n=10,
we can choose the first edge in 10C2 = 45 ways, second in 8C2=28 ways, third in 6C2=15 ways
and so on. So, the total number of ways 45*28*15*6*1=113400. But perfect matching
being a set, order of elements is not important and the permutations 5! of the 5 edges are
same only. So, total number of perfect matching is 113400/5! = 945.

5. A graph G has the degree of each vertex is ≥ 3 say, deg(V) ≥ 3 ∀ V ∈ G such that 3|V| ≤ 2|
E| and 3|R| ≤ 2|E|, then the graph is said to be ________ (R denotes region in the graph)
a) Planner graph
b) Polyhedral graph
c) Homomorphic graph
d) Isomorphic graph
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A simple connected planar graph is called a polyhedral graph if the degree of
each vertex is(V) ≥ 3 such that deg(V) ≥ 3 ∀ V ∈ G and two conditions must satisfy i) 3|V| ≤
2|E| and ii) 3|R| ≤ 2|E|.

6. A complete n-node graph Kn is planar if and only if _____________

a) n ≥ 6
b) n2 = n + 1
c) n ≤ 4
d) n + 3
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Any graph with 4 or less vertices is planar, any graph with 8 or less edges is
planar and a complete n-node graph Kn is planar if and only if n ≤ 4.
7. A graph is ______ if and only if it does not contain a subgraph homeomorphic to k 5 or k3,3.
a) bipartite graph
b) planar graph
c) line graph
d) euler subgraph
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A graph is known as planar graph if and only if it does not contain a subgraph
homeomorphic to k5 or k3,3.

8. An isomorphism of graphs G and H is a bijection f the vertex sets of G and H. Such that
any two vertices u and v of G are adjacent in G if and only if ____________
a) f(u) and f(v) are contained in G but not contained in H
b) f(u) and f(v) are adjacent in H
c) f(u * v) = f(u) + f(v)
d) f(u) = f(u)2 + f(v)2
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Two graphs G and H are said to be isomorphic to each other if there exist a
one to one correspondence, say f between the vertex sets V(G) and V(H) and a one to one
correspondence g between the edge sets E(G) and E(H) with the following conditions:-
(i) for every vertex u in G, there exists a vertex u’ in H such that u’=f(u) and vice versa.
(ii) for every edge uv in G, g(uv)=f(u)*f(v)=u’v’ is H.

9. What is the grade of a planar graph consisting of 8 vertices and 15 edges?

a) 30
b) 15
c) 45
d) 106
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: If G is a planar graph with n vertices and m edges then r(G) = 2m i.e. the grade
or rank of G is equal to the twofold of the number of edges in G. So, the rank of the graph
is 2*15=30 having 8 vertices and 15 edges.

10. A _______ is a graph with no homomorphism to any proper subgraph.

a) poset
b) core
c) walk
d) trail
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A core can be defined as a graph that does not retract to any proper
subgraph. Every graph G is homomorphically equivalent to a unique core called the core of
G.

1. Which algorithm efficiently calculates the single source shortest paths in a Directed
Acyclic Graph?
a) topological sort
b) hash table
c) binary search
d) radix sort
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: For Directed Acyclic graph, single source shortest distances can be calculated
in O(V+E) time. For that purpose Topological Sorting can be used. Topological Sorting of any
graph represents a linear ordering of the graph.

2. The _______ of a graph G consists of all vertices and edges of G.

a) edge graph
b) line graph
c) path complement graph
d) eulerian circuit
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: we know that he Eulerian circuit in a graph G is a circuit that includes all
vertices and edges of G. A graph that can have Eulerian circuit, also can have a Eulerian
graph.

3. A ______ in a graph G is a circuit which consists of every vertex (except first/last vertex) of
G exactly once.
a) Euler path
b) Hamiltonian path
c) Planar graph
d) Path complement graph
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The Eulerian path in a graph say, G is a walk from one vertex to another, that
can pass through all vertices of G as well as traverses exactly once every edge of G.
Therefore, an Eulerian path can not be a circuit. A Hamiltonian path is a walk that contains
every vertex of the graph exactly once. Hence, a Hamiltonian path is not a circuit.

4. A walk has Closed property if ____________

a) v0=vk
b) v0>=vk

c) v < 0

>1
d) vk

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A walk in a graph is said to be closed if the starting vertex is the same as the
ending vertex, that is v0=vk, it is described as Open otherwise.

5. A trail in a graph can be described as ______________

a) a walk without repeated edges
b) a cycle with repeated edges
c) a walk with repeated edges
d) a line graph with one or more vertices
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Suppose in a graph G a trail could be defined as a walk with no repeated
edges. Suppose a walk can be defined as efgh. There are no repeated edges so this walk is
a trail.

6. Let a graph can be denoted as ncfkedn a kind of ____________

a) cycle graph
b) line graph
c) hamiltonian graph
d) path graph
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In the graph ncfkedn, no edges are repeated in the walk, which makes it a trail
and then start and end vertex n is same making it a cycle graph.

7. Determine the edge count of a path complement graph with 14 vertices.

a) 502
b) 345
c) 78
d) 69
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Let, an n-path complement graph Pn’ is the graph complement of the path
graph Pn. Since Pn is self-complementary, P4’ is isomorphic to P4. Now, Pn’ has an edge count
= 1⁄2(n-2)(n-1). So, the required edge count is=78.

8. The sum of an n-node graph and its complement graph produces a graph called _______
a) complete graph
b) bipartite graph
c) star graph
d) path-complement graph
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Suppose, the complement G’ of a graph G is known as edge-complement
graph which consists of with the same vertex set but whose edge set contains the edges
not present in G. The graph sum G+G’ on an n-node graph G is called the complete graph
say, Kn.

9. In a directed weighted graph, if the weight of every edge is decreased by 10 units, does
any change occur to the shortest path in the modified graph?
a) 209
b) 65
c) 57
d) 43
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The shortest path will change in the modified graph. Suppose that the
shortest path is of weight 21 and has 7 edges and there is another path with 4 edges and
total weight 17. Now, the weight of the first shortest path is increased by 7*10 and
becomes 21 + 70 and the weight of the second path is increased by 4*10 and becomes 17 +
40. So the shortest path changes to the other path with weight as 57.

10. Let G(V, E) be a directed graph where every edge has weight as either 1, 2 or 5, what is
the algorithm used for the shortest path from a given source vertex to a given destination
vertex to get the time complexity of O(V+E)?
a) BFS
b) DFS
c) Binary search
d) Radix sort
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In BFS due to the least number of edges between two vertices and so if all the
edges in a graph are of same weight, then to find the shortest path BFS can be used for
efficiency. So we have to split all edges of weight 5 into two edges of weight 2 each and one
edge of weight 1. In the worst case, all edges are of weight 1. To split all edges, O(E)
operations can be done and so the time complexity becomes which is equal to O(V+E).

1. The chromatic number of a graph is the property of ____________

a) graph coloring
b) graph ordering
c) group ordering
d) group coloring
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A graph coloring is an assignment of labels to the vertices of a graph such that
no two adjacent vertices share the same labels is called the colors of the graph. Now, the
chromatic number of any graph is the minimal number of colors for which such an
assignment is possible.

2. If a graph G is k-colorable and k<n, for any integer n then it is ___________

a) n-colorable
b) n2 nodes
c) (k+n)-colorable
d) (k +n +1)
3 3
nodes
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The chromatic number of a graph is the minimal number of colors for which a
graph coloring is possible. A graph G is termed as k-colorable if there exists a graph
coloring on G with k colors. If a graph is k-colorable, then it is n-colorable for any n>k.

3. If Cn is the nth cyclic graph, where n>3 and n is odd. Determine the value of X(C n).
a) 32572
b) 16631
c) 3
d) 310
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Here n is odd and X(Cn)! = 2. Since there are two adjacent edges in C n. Now, a
graph coloring for Cn exists where vertices are colored red and blue alternatively and
another edge is with a different colour say orange, then the value of X(C n) becomes 3.

4. Determine the density of a planar graph with 34 edges and 13 nodes.

a) 22/21
b) 12/23
c) 328
d) 576
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The density of a planar graph or network is described as the ratio of the
number of edges(E) to the number of possible edges in a network with(N) nodes. So, D = E
− N + 1/ 2 N − 5. Hence, the required answer is: D=(34-13+1)/(2*13-5) = 22/21. A completely
sparse planar graph has density 0 and a completely dense planar graph has degree 1.

5. If the number of vertices of a chromatic polynomial P G is 56, what is the degree of PG?
a) 344
b) 73
c) 265
d) 56
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The chromatic polynomial PG of a graph G is a polynomial in which every
natural number k returns the number P G(k) of k-colorings of G. Since, the degree of P G is
equal to the number of vertices of G, the required answer is 56.

6. For a connected planar simple graph G=(V, E) with e=|E|=16 and v=|V|=9, then find the
number of regions that are created when drawing a planar representation of the graph?
a) 321
b) 9
c) 1024
d) 596
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: We know that the number of regions in a planar representation of the graph is
r=e-v+2, then the required answer is r=16-9+2=9.
7. For a connected planar simple graph G=(V, E) with e=|E|=16 and v=|V|=9, then find the
number of regions that are created when drawing a planar representation of the graph?
a) 321
b) 9
c) 1024
d) 596
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Note that K3,3 and K5 are the “smallest” non-planar graphs because in that every
non-planar graph contains them. According to Kuratowski’s theorem, a graph is defined as
non-planar if and only if it contains a subgraph homomorphic to K3,3 or K5.

8. Suppose G be a connected planar graph of order n≥5 and size m. If the length of the
smallest cycle in G is 5, then which of the following is true?
a) (m+n) >=mn
4

b) m≤5/3(n−2)
c) (m2+n)/3
d) n>=(6/5)(n+1)
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Because G is connected and planar, Euler’s theorem is bound to be involved.
Let f denote the number of faces so that n−m+f=2. Because the length of the smallest cycle
in G is 5, every face has at least 5 edges adjacent to it. This means 2m≥5f because every
edge is adjacent to two faces. Plugging this in yields 2=n−m+f≤n−m+2/5m=n−3/5m, and
hence m≤5/3(n−2).

9. What is the number of edges of the greatest planar subgraph of K 3,2 where m,n≤3?
a) 18
b) 6
c) 128
d) 702
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The plane graph with an edge at most 6+2(m−3) is the greatest planar graph.
So, in this case the number of edges is 6.

10. A non-planar graph can have ____________

a) complete graph
b) subgraph
c) line graph
d) bar graph
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A non-planar graph can have removed edges and vertices so that it contains
subgraphs. However, non-planar graphs cannot be drawn in a plane and so no

1. A direct product of a group G possess which of the following characteristics?

a) a multiplication of subgroups of G
b) a factorization via subgroups of G
c) a superset of subgroups of G
d) a maximal power set of subgroups
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A direct product of a group G is a factorization via subgroups of G when the
intersection is nontrivial, say X and Y, such that G = XY, X intersect Y = 1, and [X, Y]=1 and X,
Y are normal in G.

2. In invariant algebra, some generators of group G1 that goes either into itself or zero
under ______ with any other element of the algebra.
a) commutation
b) permutation
c) combination
d) lattice
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Some generators of group G1 in group theory which goes either into itself or
zero under commutation with any other element of the whole algebra is called invariant
subalgebra.

3. Which of the following can be embedded in an algebraically closed group?

a) infinite group
b) stargraph
c) a countable group
d) a semilattice
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: We know that any countable group can always be embedded in an
algebraically closed group.
4. Which of the following is the set of m×m invertible matrices?
a) a permutation group of degree m2
b) a general linear group of degree m

c) a sublattice group of degree m

d) a isomorphic graph of m nodes

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The general linear group of degree m is the set of m×m invertible matrices,
consists of a general linear group of degree m having the ordinary matrix multiplication
operation.

5. If any group is a manifold what is the dimension of that group?

a) same as manifold
b) same as vector space
c) infinite
d) finite
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: If a group is a (topological) manifold, then the dimension of a group will be the
dimension of this manifold. A linear representation F of a group G 1 on a vector space V’ has
the dimension of V’.

6. A Latin square graph is a representation of a _______

a) quasi group
b) homomorphic group
c) semigroup
d) subgroup
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: We know that any group is a representation of a graph. Now, a Quasi Group
can be represented by a Latin Square matrix or by a Latin Square graph.

7. There exists _______ between group homology and group cohomology of a finite group.
a) homomorphism
b) isomorphism
c) automorphism
d) semilattice structure
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: We know that there exists an isomorphism between group homology and
group cohomology of finite group. Let S’ denote the set of all integers, and let G’ be a finite
cyclic Group and for every S then G’-module N, we have S’S’ n(G’, A) is isomorphic to S’n+1(G’,
A).

8. In basic ring theory, any ring R1 may be embedded in its own ________
a) semilattice
b) endomorphism ring
c) homomorphic ring
d) subgroup
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: We know that in basic ring theory, any ring R with its identity can be
embedded in its own endomorphism ring and this is one of the most important
characterization of rings. The endomorphism ring can contain a copy of its ring.

9. In Modern particle physics there must exist ______________

a) group theory
b) graph theory
c) lattice structure
d) invariant semigroup
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Modern particle physics exists with group theory. Group theory can predict
the existence of many elementary particles. Depending on different symmetries, the
structure and behaviour of molecules and crystals can be defined.

10. For any graph say G, Cayley graph is ______________

a) canonial
b) not canonical
c) isomorphic
d) homomorphic
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A different Cayley graph will be given for each choice of a generating set.
Hence, the