Sample Test
Sample Test
Note: This is a sample Test of 200 questions for practice purposes. How to use this Sample Test –
1) Save the entire file in another name with the highlighted answers intact.
2) Remove the highlights on the original set.
3) Start answering the questions. Give yourself exactly 4 hours.
4) Score yourself. Repeat as needed.
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1. On a Pacto de Retro contract of sale which there is no stipulation of the period to which the vendor shall have the
right to buy back or redeem of the property. The period of redemption shall be:
a. Two (2) years b. Four (4) years c. Eight (8) years d. Six (6) years e. Ten (10) years
2. The following agencies are attached to the Housing and Urban Development Coordinating Council except:
a. HIGC b. MHS c. NHMFC d.HGC
5. The act allowing the long term lease of private lands by foreign investors.
a. RA 8974 b. RA 7652 c. RA 6732 d. RA 6657 e. RA 3844
7. The Register of Deeds is an agency which keeps the original copies of the –
a) Certificate of Land Ownership Award b. Torrens Certificate of Title c. Approved Plan d. Tax Declaration
8. The document that conveys ownership and all appurtenant interests in a property is called the –
a) Certificate of ownership b. Contract to Sell c. Deed of Conveyance d. ertificate of authority to register
9. If one of the parties in a real estate transaction is a corporation, the following is required –
a) Secretary’s certificate of board resolution authorizing the transaction and corresponding signatory
b) Signature of the corporation’s president
c) Signature of the majority of the board of directors
d) All of the above
10. A deed of sale of property owned by spouses does not have to contain the following –
a. Identity of both Seller and Buyer;
b. Technical description of the property subject of the sale
c. Signature of the Seller’s spouse
d. Signature of the Buyer
13. This tax is not imposed by the BIR in the transfer of property –
a) Capital gains tax b. Value added tax c. Transfer tax d. Documentary stamps tax
14. A special requirement required for documents that are notarized outside the country --
a) Copy of the passport of the person signing the document
b) Authentication certificate of the foreign notary
c) Accreditation of the foreign notary with the Philippine consulate abroad
d) All of the above
15. The following is not part of the documents required by the BIR in a property sales transaction --
a) Certified true copy of the TCT
b) Notarized deed of sale
c) Income tax return of both parties
d) BIR receipts for payment of capital gains tax if applicable
16. The creditable withholding tax imposed by BIR in the sale of a property is --
a) 1.5% b) 6% c) a variable amount d) 12%
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17. Deadline for filing and paying the capital gains tax on the sale of property is --
a) 15 days after the sale
b) 30 days after the sale
c) 45 days after the sale
d) 5 days after the end of the month of sale
18. The tax clearance certificate for real property taxes is obtained from –
a. BIR b. City or municipal assessor c. Land tax division d. City or municipal mayor
19. The corporate documents required for presentation during registration of property need not include the –
a) Secretary’s certificate that the Board authorized the transaction and signatory
b) Copy of the corporate articles of incorporation and bylaws
c) Copy of the corporation’s latest audited financial statement
d) All of the above
20. If a property being transferred is “agricultural land”, the following is required by the Register of Deeds --
a. Certificate of land ownership award b. DAR conversión c. DAR clearance d) Approval of the Dept.of Agriculture
21. After buying a property, the new owner must bring the new title and go to the local government to –
a. Submit copy of the new title b. Apply for new tax declaration c. Pay for the realty tax d. None of the above
22. The “E-title” is a newly-coined term which refers to the new look of titles from Register of Deeds which is --
a) A new form of title document printed from an electronic database
b) A title document that was converted into a PDF file format
c) An electronic copy of the former title document
d) Any of the above
24. If CCT’s are being issued for the first time in a condominium project, the following is not one of the
requirements --
a. Master deed b. License to sell c. Certificate of management d. Certificate of registration with HLURB
25. Refers to the land and all those items which are attached to the land. It is the physical tangible entity, together with all
the additions or improvements on, above or below the ground.
a. Real Estate b. Real Property c. Realty d. Estate
26. It is a mode of acquiring ownership by transferring ownership over a thing certain to another the primary
consideration being love and affection, during one’s lifetime
a. Sale b. Prescription c. Succession d. Donation
27. Which among the following cannot avail of the Dual Citizenship Law?
a. An American citizen who is married to a Filipino
b. An American citizen whose father is a Filipino
c. An American citizen whose mother is a Filipino
d. All of the Above
28. Land which does not have access to a public road which is given a right of way through an adjoining land.
a. Escheat b. Dominant Estate c. Servient Estate d. Paraphernal Property
30. An annotation in the title which serves as notice that the property is subject to a pending litigation –
a.Eminent Domain b. Judicial Note c. Expropriation d. Lis Pendens
31. A person appointed by the court to handle the estate of one who died intestate is called a(n):
a. Administrator b. Executor c. Trustor d. Vendor
32. Which of these words does not belong with the others?
a. Will b. Executor c. Sale d. Heir
33. Spouses who were married after the effectivity of the Family Code without any pre-nuptial agreement shall be
governed by:
a. Conjugal partnership of gains b. Co-ownership c. Partial community of property d. Absolute community of property
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34. It is a contract by which the fruits of real property is used to secure an obligation.
a. Usufructuary b. Real Estate Mortgage c. Antechresis d. Escheat
36. Patrimonial property of the state is that which it owns in what capacity?
a. Sovereign b. Ancestral c. Private d. Public
37. What is the property regime for people who live together without the benefit of marriage?
a. Absolute Community b. Absolute Separation c. Conjugal Partnership of Gains d. Co-ownership
38. How can inalienable land of the public domain be transformed to alienable agricultural land?
a. By the Government b. By legislative act c. By land grant d. By agrarian or urban land reform
39. It is a mode of acquiring ownership by occupying the property in open, continuous, exclusive and notorious
manner in the concept of the owner.
a. Sale b. Prescription c. Squatting d. Occupation
44. Husband and wife cannot sell property to each other except when a separation of property is agreed upon in the
pre-nuptial contract and:
A. When their property relationships is one of absolute community of property
B. When one of the spouses is still a minor
C. When there is s pending annulment of their marriage
D. When there is a judicial separation of property
45. Which of the following real property is within the commerce of man?
a. Bedrock of a dried river bed b. Resettlement site c. Foreshore properties d. All of the above
46. Under a property regime of Absolute Community Property, which among the following properties are excluded?
a. A property exclusively owned by the husband before their marriage
b. A property bought during the marriage
c. Real property inherited by the husband during the marriage
d. Real property inherited by the wife before the marriage when she was still single
48. A corporation can buy real property provided it must be _________ owned by Filipinos
a. 0% b. 60% c. 75% d. 80%
49. The real estate practitioner, in relation to the government, is expected to perform as such, except:
a. Secure the all necessary licenses, permits and authority
b. Pay any and all taxes, fees, dues, levies or charges
c. Encourage, tolerate, or participate in the aversion or illegal reduction in the payment of taxes, fees, dues, levies or
charges
d. Should not offer or agree to pay, split or rebate any commission or fee
50. With regards to the relation with a client or customer, the practitioner, in accepting an appointment or authority
to act and in behalf on the client, can perform such, except:
a. Acquire an interest or buy himself or members of his family within the 4th civil degree
b. Endeavor to make buyer and seller conclude a fair contract, advantageous to both parties
c. Assist his client acquire possession and ownership of the property bought in accordance with the terms and conditions
agreed upon
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d. Should not accept any commission or fee from any party in any transaction except from his client
51. The following are tricks employed by unethical real estate brokers when bringing clients to view their listings.
Which one is not unethical?
a. Using a roundabout route to avoid eyesores near the neighborhood
b. Employing a cleaning company to freshen the smell of the house interiors
c. Forecasting changes from residential to commercial zoning to hint at high rates of value appreciation
d. Showing another inferior property to position his listing as better alternative
52. After the sale is consummated, the broker should do the following, except:
a. Accept commission from both the seller and buyer without knowledge of either of the parties
b. Should assist the buyer to acquire possession and ownership of the real property bought in accordance with the terms
and conditions agreed upon
c. Should see to it that both the buyer and seller concluded a fair contract advantages to both
d. In case of court proceedings and called upon to act as witness, should give testimonies in the most unbiased, honest,
truthful and professional manner
53. If the broker, while acting as an agent in a sale of real estate property, misrepresents the principal’s property to a
buyer, the broker may cause the principal to be subjected to:
a. Rescission of the sale by the buyer
b. A court action for damages by the buyer
c. Tort liability
d. All of the above
54. Romy lists his house for sale at Php 500,000.00. Alice offers Romy Php400,000. Romy counteroffers with
Php 480,000. Alice then offers Php 410,000. Romy gets mad and raises his counteroffer to Alice back up to
Php 500,000. Can he do this?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Yes, but only if he counteroffers within 24 hours
d. Yes, but only if his broker agrees
55. The declaration of Principle of the Code of Ethics for Realty Service Practitioners clearly states the Golden Rule
which says:
a. Treat others as you wanted them to be treated
b. Do not do unto others what you want others do unto you
c. Do unto others what you do not want other do unto you
d. Treat others as you like them to be treat you
56. How would you best describe a professional real estate service practitioner’s responsibility to one’s client?
a. Pay all the necessary fees and taxes
b. Practicing the National Code of Ethics and Standards
c. Participating in social and civil works
d. None of the above
57. A real estate broker attempts to generate listings by contacting people in particular neighborhood and
suggesting that their property values might be going down soon because a particular unwanted group is coming
into the neighborhood. This practice is called:
a. Soliciting b. Prospecting c. Farming d. Blockbusting
58. Several people are involved in most real estate transactions. The duty of loyalty requires you, as the broker to
put their interest in what order of priority?
a. Yourself, customer, client b. Yourself, client, customer c. Client, Customer, yourself d. Client, yourself, customer
59. Your seller client needs to sell property quickly because he is going abroad. He ask you to keep this information
confidential. What should you do?
a. You tell buyers this so the house sells quickly
b. You keep this information confidential
c. You tell the buyers only if they ask
d. You reveal this information only to cash buyers
60. Romy takes the following steps as a licensed estate broker. Which of these actions can be considered unethical?
a. He accepted an exclusive listing for an abandoned house and lot even with his knowledge that somebody died violently
in the property
b. He proceeds to entertain prospective buyers all the while disclosing to them the crime committed inside the property
c. He advertised the listing giving the exact address for an open house on one weekend
d. He invites his friends to attend the open house hoping that real buyers will feel that there are many others interested in
the property
61. Three of the four enumerated acts of a broker are considered unethical. Which is not?
a. Encouraging the parties to a sale to indicate a consideration lower than the actual selling price
b. Keeping a special bank account, separate and distinct from his own funds, for all monies received in trust for other
persons such as client’s money and similar items
c. Disclosing his client’s confidential personal information to a fellow broker in order to facilitate the sale of his client’s
property.
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CRESAR 2014 Part I Set B
d. Delaying submission of a formal offer that he had received from a prospective buyer in the hope of getting a higher
offer.
62. A broker has just received from a fellow broker’s client/buyer a written offer to purchase a property of his
client/seller, together with a check for earnest payment. Which of the following steps is the most proper and
ethical for him to take?
a. Call another fellow whose client is also interested in the property in the hope that they can top the offer
b. Show the offer to another prospective buyer in the hope of getting a better price for the seller
c. Call the seller immediately to inform him about the offer and the earnest money payment
d. Receive the offer and earnest money but not informing the owner and just wait for another high offer
63. Novice real estate brokers have limitations and should refrain from accepting some listings. Which of these
limitations is not a bar to accepting such listings?
a. The broker does not have a data base of regular clients
b. The broker’s lacks the expertise for some listings which requires higher skills or knowledge beyond their capability
c. The location of the listing is too far to assure diligent efforts to service prospective buyers
d. The broker is a part- time brokers and cannot give full attention to listings.
64. You are representing Seller Sharon and you bring Buyer Ruffa, to see the house. Ruffa makes an offer. Ruffa has
confidentially told you about the bankruptcy she went through two years ago, but she thinks she will financially be
approved to buy the house. What should you do with the information about the bankruptcy?
a. Tell Seller Sharon
b. Keep the information confidential like Ruffa asked you to.
c. Keep the information confidential unless the deal doesn’t go through
d. Contact the bank to verify Ruffa’s financial status
65. The PRB-RES shall adopt __________ to be strictly observed by all licensed real estate service practitioners
a. National Code of Ethics and Responsibilities
b. Continuing Professional Education Council
c. Association of Integrated Professional Organization
d. National Real Estate Professionals Month
66. Which one of the following newspaper line ads is blatantly unethical?
a. House on a very quiet neighborhood
b. Flood-free subdivision
c. The value of property will double in one year
d. Beautiful View
67. Broker A and Broker B meet to discuss a listing that both of them are working on. They discuss the commission
that they will share. Which of the following is true?
a. They have violated RESA Law on price fixing
b. They have violated the local real estate board practice
c. They cannot discuss the commission rates
d. They have not violated the RESA Law
68. Under the Code of Ethics, the following are considered ethical, except:
a. Negotiate a property listed directly with the owner since the listing broker is out of town and cannot be contacted
b. Cooperate with other brokers on property listed who are fellow members of his national real estate broker’s association
c. Use the services of the salesperson of another broker without consent provided the salesperson is paid a fee
d. Willingly shares with other brokers the lessons from his experience and study
69. Real estate practitioners shall be governed by the following rules of conduct and practice, except:
a. Relation to family
b. Relation to government
c. Relation to fellow practitioners
d. Relation to client
70. Which one of the following acts of a broker can be considered within the bounds of the Code of Ethics?
a. Encouraging parties to a sale to indicate a consideration lower than the actual selling price
b. Serving as a witness in court proceedings involving a property owned by his client
c. Disclosing his client’s confidential personal information to a fellow broker in order to facilitate the sale of his client’s
property
d. Delaying submission of a formal offer that he had received from a prospective buyer in the hope of securing a higher
offer
71. The ethical broker always strives to protect his client’s interest. Which of the following is not in the best interest of
your client/seller?
a. Maintain utmost confidentially on matters not directly related to the property
b. Strive to be familiar with laws and ordinances on real estate
c. Tell your client that his price is too high and give your opinion on the fair market value of the property
d. Inform your client about the forthcoming commercial development in the area
72. With respect to fellow practitioners, a broker who does this might still violate the code --
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a. Apply for accreditation with a property owner who is known to give open listings;
b. Puts up a sign on the property for sale with other brokers so long as authorized by Owner;
c. Passes on to a third party the listing extended by an original broker after obtaining consent;
d. Does not seek an unfair advantage over fellow practitioners.
74. From whom may a freelance real estate salesperson demand a fee, commission or compensation of any kind for any
service rendered or work done by him in any real estate transaction
a. Buyer b. Real Estate Developer c. Real Estate Broker d. All of the Above
75. A person who possesses the necessary qualifications, license, ability and experience to execute or direct the
valuation/appraisal of real property
a. Assessor b. Appraiser c. Consultant d. Broker
77. The policies , rules and regulations by the PRB-RES shall be subject to the review and approval by:
a. Office of the President
b. Accredited Professional Organization
c. Professional Regulations Commission
d. Civil Service Commission
79. Under the provision of RESA, a violation of any real estate service practitioner whose licensed expired or suspended
shall be as follows:
a. Penalty of Php 100,000 or two years imprisonment or both upon the discretion of the court
b. Penalty of Php 200,000 or two years imprisonment or both upon the discretion of the court
c. Penalty of Php 100,000 or four years imprisonment or both upon the discretion of the court
d. Penalty of Php 200,000 or four years imprisonment or both upon the discretion of the court
80. Maximum number of agents which can be accommodated by a licensed real estate broker -
a. 1 b. 10 c. 20 d. 50
81. Any of these acts shall be ground for revocation of license, except:
a. Misappropriation b. Paying and receiving rebate c. Misrepresentation d. Non-payment of dues
82. Who is not qualified to be a member of the Continuing Professional Education Council?
a. PRBRES Board Member b. Academe Representative c. APO Representative d. None of the Above
83. Who shall act as prosecutors against illegal practitioners and other violators of R.A. No. 9646 and its IRR?
a. The PRBRES b. The Lawyers of the PRC c. The Municipal Trial Court d. None of the above
84. The PRBRES in cooperation with the CHED or the concerned Colleges and Universities will undertake the evaluation
of the following in the offering of the course of BSREM, except:
a. Curriculum of the school offering BSREM
b. Facilities of the school offering BSREM
c. Screening in the Recruitment of faculty members
d. All of the above
85. Under the provision of RESA, a violation of any unlicensed real estate service practitioner shall be as follows:
a. Penalty of Php 100,000 or two years imprisonment or both upon the discretion of the court
b. Penalty of Php 200,000 or four years imprisonment or both upon the discretion of the court
c. Penalty of Php 100,000 or four years imprisonment or both upon the discretion of the court
d. Penalty of Php 200,000 or two years imprisonment or both upon the discretion of the court
87. The Continuing Professional Education Council shall be composed of the Chairman and how many members?
a. Two Members b.Three Members c. Four Members d. None of the Above
88. Who is licensed in giving an objective and independent expert advice to a client, frequently before a decision is made
concerning a real estate matter?
a. Real Estate Advisor b.Real Estate Appraiser c.Property Manger d. Real Estate Consultant
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89. The word “Commission” in RA 9646 stands for?
a. Professional Fee b. Real Estate Board c. Broker’s Commission d. PRC
90. Refers to a duly registered and licensed natural person who, for a professional fee, commission or other valuable
consideration, acts as an agent of a party in a real estate transaction to offer, advertise, solicit, list, promote, mediate,
negotiate of effect the meeting of the minds on the sale, purchase, exchange, mortgage, lease or joint venture, or other
similar transactions on real estate or any interest therein.
a. Assessor b. Appraiser c. Consultant d. Broker
91. Refers to an official in the local government unit who performs appraisal and assessment of real properties, including
plants, equipment, and machineries, essentially for taxation purposes.
a. Assessor b. Appraiser c. Consultant d. Broker
93. Licensed real estate service practitioners as defined in the RA 9646 are the following, except:
a. Licensed Real Estate Salesperson
b. Licensed Real Estate Broker
c. Licensed Real Estate Appraise
d. None of the Above
94. What is the term used when an American citizen is allowed to practice real estate here in the Philippines because the
Filipinos are also allowed to practice in the US?
a. Chaplan b. Foreign Reciprocity c. Caveat Emptor d. Realtor
95. Real Estate Investment Trust (REIT) Law is Republic Act No. _________
a. 9856 b. 9865 c. 8956 d. 9646
96. BIR Revenue Regulation No. 16-2011 increases the threshold amounts for VAT-except transaction for house and lot
packages and other residential development from _______Million to _________ Million
a. P2.5M to P3,199,200 b. P2.5M to P3.5M c. P1.5M to P2.5M d. P2M to P3,999,000
97. An act strengthening and amending some provision of the Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Law
a. RA 6657 b. RA 7279 c. RA 9700 d. RA 6552
98. Under the Maceda Law, when a contract to sell is rescinded, what percentage of the cash surrender value
should be returned to the buyer in case he has been paying his amortizations for the past 10 years?
a. 50% b. 75% c. 90% d. 60%
99. Broker Romy have just closed the sale of a 700 sq.m. commercial lot in Pasig. The selling price agreed upon is
Php 35,000 per sq.m. What amounts should he indicate for the capital gains tax? The zonal valuation of the lot is Php
37,000 per sq.m.
a. Php 1,470,000 b. Php 1,654,000 c. Php 1,554,000 d. Php 1,454,000
101. Which of the following may file a mechanic’s lien if not paid?
a. Building contractor b. An Electrician c . Mechanical Contractor d. All of the above
102. Based on the local government code, how often shall real property values be revised?
a. Every three (3) years b. Every one (1) year c. Every two (2) years d. None of the above
103. The Documentary Stamps for the Sale of property shall be paid on:
a. After 20th day of the following month from notarization of deed
b. After 15th day of the following month from notarization of deed
c. After 10thday of the following month from notarization of deed
d. None of the Above
104. Your client Sarah has a property in a residential area that is actually being used as a beauty salon. The tax
declarations of the lot and the structure indicate the following data. What is the total combined assessed value of the
land and the improvement?
104. What is the tax payable to the local government unit for sale, transfer or other disposition of real estate, whether the
real estate is capital or ordinary asset?
a. Transfer Taxb. Capital Gains Tax c. Withholding Tax d. Value Added Tax
105. The Creditable Withholding Tax in the sale of an acquired foreclosed asset of a bank in the amount of Php 850,000.00
is:
a. 1.5% b. 3.0% c. 5.0% d. 6.0%
106. The sale and transfer of title from real estate dealer to a buyer of a house and lot at P2,000,000.00 is subject to the
following, except:
a. Transfer Tax b. Documentary Stamp Tax c. Capital Gains Tax d. Creditable Withholding Tax
107. What is the maximum area that can be granted to any one beneficiary of CARPER?
a. 2 hectares b. 3 hectares c. 4 hectares d. 5 hectares
110. The Documentary Stamps for the Estate Tax shall be paid on:
a. After 30 days from notarization of Deed
b. After 10th day of the following month from notarization of Deed
c. After 5th day of the following month from notarization of Deed
d. None of the Above
111. Property held by the owner as inventory or stock in trade in connection with trade business or source of income is
referred to as:
a. Capital Asset b. Ordinary Asset c. Fixed Asset d. None of the above
112. A licensed real estate broker, buying and selling many properties for himself, may have his profits taxed as:
a. Long-term capital gains
b. Short-term capital gains
c. Deferred capital Gains
d. Ordinary Income
113. Which of the following is not included in the primary purpose of the establishment of RA 9646?
a. To enhance collection of taxes by government in the real estate transaction
b. To protect the general public of any illegal act of practitioners in the conduct of real estate business
c. To limit practitioners in the real estate industry
d. To enhance qualification of the Real Estate Service Practitioner
114. The creditable withholding Tax for the sale of a residential condominium worth Php 1,800,000 which is being used as
residence by the owner is:
a. 3.0% b.1. 5.0% c. 5.0% d. None of the above
116. The penalties that the Bureau of Internal Revenue collects from a late filer and late payment of Expanded
Withholding Tax, except -
a. Facilitation Fee b. Interest c. Surcharge d. Compromise Penalty
117. The schedule of Zonal Valuation used in the computation of the capital gains tax is prepared by:
a. The Assessor’s Office b. National Tax Research Center c. The BIR d. Department of Finance
118. A contract of sale whereby part of the purchase price is paid upon execution of the contract and the balance to be
paid within stipulated period and the property is mortgaged back to the vendor to secure the payment of the balance
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a. Deed of sale with usufruct
b. Deed of sale with assumption of mortgage
c. Deed of sale with Pacto de Retro
d. Deed of sale with mortgage
119. A kind of registration whereby the act is done through the courts:
a. Voluntary b. Judicial c. Compulsory d.. Administrative
121. The records at the Assessor’s Office containing the list of all properties whether taxable or exempt is:
a.Tax Declaration b. Records of Assessment c . Assessment Roll d. All of the Above
122. The administrative reconstitution under R.A. 6732 of lost or destroyed certifies in the Registry of Deeds may be
availed when the number of certificates lost or destroyed is at least ______ of all times in the Registry
a. 40% b. 10% c. 25% d. 50%
123. What is the length of a subdivision block that requires mandatory provision of a two meter alley approximately at its
mid-length?
a. A block exceeding 200 meters
b. A block exceeding 250 meters
c. A block exceeding 300 meters
d. A block exceeding 400 meters
124. A professional person who determines the shape, contour and measure of land:
a. Broker b. Real Estate Consultant c. Appraiser d. Geodetic Engineer
125. If the second owner died without any debt or obligation, the document to be executed to transfer title to the sole heir
is:
a. Deed of Conveyance
b. Affidavit of Self-adjudication as Sole Heir
c. Extrajudicial Settlement of Estate
d. Transfer Rights
127. An adverse claim lapses after how many days from annotation in the certificate of land title?
a. 100 days b. 60 days c. 30 days d. 120 days
128. The Assessor’s Office is an agency where we inquire and conduct research on:
a. Title verification b. Market value c. Zonal value d. Cadastral map / tax map
130. An annotation on the title which serves as a notice that the property is being held in reserve for whatever judgment
may be rendered against the owner:
a. Writ of Preliminary Attachment b. Adverse Claim c. Deficiency Judgment d. Notice of Lis Pendens
131. A form of ownership in which a corporation owns the land and improvements, and the residents own stock in the
corporation. Then, the corporation signs an exclusive lease with the tenant-stockholder
a. Condominium b. Cooperative c. Fee Simple d. Time-share
132. Defined as the inscription, recording or annotation of an act and contracts resulting to the ownership of and other
rights over land:
a. Land Registration b. Land Title c. Land Dispute d. Land Ownership
133. The following are the basic needs in any Human Settlement areas as specified in BP 220, except:
a. Power b. Parks & Playground c. Water d.Telephone & Internet Access
135. A lease that requires the landlord to pay the operating expense of the property is called
a. A gross lease b. A Percentage lease c. An Assigned lease d. A net lease
137. A parcel of land bounded on the sides by streets or alleys or pathways or other natural or manmade features, and
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occupied by or intended for buildings
a. Cluster b. Open Space c. Block d. Amenities
140. Present Land Registration in the Philippines covers both original and subsequent registration of titles which is more
popularly known as:
a. Torrens System b. Torrens Titling c. Land Registration d. Title Registration
141. Refers to housing programs and projects covering houses and lots for homeless only undertaken by the government
or the private sector for the under privileged and homeless citizens
a. Socialized housing b. Mass housing c. Low-cost housing d. Affordable housing
143. For subdivision development, how long is the validity of the approved preliminary development plan?
a. 90 days b. 180 days c. 120 days d. 360 days
144. When is the appropriate time to start marketing and selling subdivided lots?
a. The subdivision has already have a Development Permit
b. The License to Sell has already been issued by the HLURB
c. The main road and entrance gate of the subdivision is already completed
d. The developer has already conducted a Grand Open House
145. If a person died leaving a will, what is that special court proceedings that must be instituted to determine the validity
of the testamentary disposition of the deceased?
a. Reconstitution of title
b. Petition of quite title
c. Probate Proceedings
d. Petition to remove cloud on title
146. It is kind of surveying in which photographs are used to determine configuration of land, man-made and natural
features
a. Hydrographic survey b. Relocation survey c. Aerial survey d.Photogrammetric survey
147. A lease that requires that all or part of the tenant’s rent can be based on the tenant’s revenue is
a. A lease at will b. A percentage lease c. A flat lease d. A gross lease
148. A subdivision scheme where the resulting blocks are more or less rectangular in shape –
a. Gridiron subdivision b. Simple subdivision c. Complex subdivision d. Open market subdivision
149. In general, a mortgagor who mortgaged his real property and later was foreclosed extra judicially and sold to public
auction may redeem the property within the period of:
a. Ninety (90) days from the date of auction sale
b. One (1) year from registration of certificate of sale
c. One (1) year from date of auction sale
d. One (1) month from date of auction sale
151. A government regulation intended to promote orderly development of land is referred to as:
a. Building Code b. Zoning c. Land Development d. Taxation
152. An order for the mortgagor to pay the balance of an obligation if the proceeds of the foreclosure sale are not
sufficient to cover the mortgage obligation
a. Writ of Preliminary Attachment b. Deficiency Judgment c. Adverse Claim d. Notice of Lis Pendens
153. The following are types of property descriptions ordinarily used in deeds, contracts, offer to sell and lease, except:
a. Lot number b. Bearings and azimuth c. Monuments d. Rectangular survey e. Metes and bounds
154. Inherent power of the state to raise income of revenue to defray government expenses for public use:
a. Lease b. BIR c. Income Tax d. Capital Gains Tax e. Taxation
155. The principle that all lands originally belong to the state is:
a. Res Nullius b. Lis Pendens c. Regalian Doctrine d. Ownership
156. The following are the powers and duties of the Bureau of Internal Revenue, except:
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a. Enforcement of all forfeitures, penalties, and fines
b. Assessment and collection of all local government taxes and fees.
c. Execution of judgments in all cases decided in its favor by the Court of Tax Appeals and the ordinary courts.
d. Administer the supervisory and police powers conferred to it by NIRC or other laws
e. Collection of value added tax
158. Tests for determination that income is earned for income tax purposes
a. Severance test theory
b. Ownership, command or control of income
c. Doctrine of proprietary interest
d. Doctrine of actual or constructive receipt
e. All of the above
160. Taxes which are deemed NOT to be National Internal Revenue Taxes
a. Value-Added Tax b. Excise Taxes c. Taxes on business d. Mining Taxes e. None of the above
161. An ordinary assets which have not been used for business for ____ years may be converted into capital assets.
a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2 e. None of the above
162. A form of title that can be obtained by people are already living or occupying the land for 30 years prior to 1990 and
shall have paid the real estate tax.
a. Free living patent b. Free document patent c. Free patent d. All of the above
164. The tax on the transfer of the net estate of the decedent is ______.
a. Donor’s tax b. Excise tax c. Estate tax d. Capital gain tax e. Both a and c
165. The following income- generating real estate holding s are not regulated by the HLURB:
a. Hotels b. Recreational properties c. Commercial building d. All of the above
166. Master Deed and Restriction to be valid must first be approved by the:
a. Registry of Deeds b. DENR c. HLURB d. LGU e. None of the above
167. In case of controversy between real estate brokers which entity has initial jurisdiction to resolve issues between
them?
a. SEC b. NLRC c. AIPO d. DENR e. HLURB
169. The Professional Identification card shall bear the ff. except:
a. Expiry Date b. Residence cert. c. Date of issuance d. Registration number
170. The purpose of this law is to reduce the cost of economic and socialized housing by establishing different levels of
standard and technical requirements for development.
a. BP220 b. PD1216 c. PD957 d. RA4726
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d. Approve master deed and declaration of condo projects
e. Manage and dispose alienable and disposable lends
172. What should we take into account when planning and designing a subdivision?
a. Judicious allocation of land uses for diversity and amenity
b. Preservation of wildlife
c. Proper sitting or orientation of lots
d. a and c only
e. a, b and c
173. What are some of the modes of acquiring title to alienable lands?
a. Sales patent
b. Uninterrupted possession for a period of time under a claim of title.
c. Only a
d. a and b
174. A wall which separates 2 abutting living units, extends vertically from lowest portion of the wall which adjoins 2
living units up to a minimum height of 0.30 meter above the highest portion.
a. Lot line wall b. Party wall c. Firewall d. Fire resistant asbestos wall
175. The provision for minimum “open space” in subdivisions is required by:
a. PD 1096 b. PD 1216 c. PD 1185 d. PD 957 e. All of the above
176. Which of these is the standard land allocation of usable versus open space for a residential subdivision project?
a. 70/30 usable vs open space; b. 60/40; c. 80/20 d. 50/50; e. None of the above
177. This law refers to the situation where in a buyer is given a grace period of 1 month for every 1 year of installment
payments made, also known as the Maceda law.
a. RA 7652 b. RA 6552 c. BP 185 d. RA 7042 e. PD 471
178. An object that has been attached to land so as to become real estate is called a ____.
a. Section b. Area c. Fixture d. Attachment
179. A subdivision plan with street, passageway or open street defined is ____.
a. Simple subdivision plan b. Complex subdivision plan c. Condominium project d. Complex plan
180. The curvilinear boundary at the corner of the lot, the purpose of which for better visual at intersection is called
___________.
a. Curb b. Culvert c. Chaplan d. Cul-de-sac
181. A lot where the front and rear are fronting the streets.
a. Flag lot b. T-lot c.Through lotd. d. Corner-through lot
182. Prior to HLURB, what government agency exercised exclusive jurisdiction to regulate the real estate trade and
business?
a. HUDCC b. HSRC c. NHA d. HSC
183. What is the pre capita average daily demand on water for both open market medium cost housing project?
a. 100 LCPD b. 120 LCPD c. 150 LCPD d. 160 LCPD e. 180 LCPD
186. A quasi-contract obligation arises when a person voluntarily takes charge of the agency or management of another
without any power from the latter.
a. Negotiorum gestio b. Solution indebiti c. Aleatory d. Both b and c e. None of the above
187. In what situation may a husband and wife sell property to each other?
a. When the husband is an OFW
b. If there’s a pre-nuptial agreement
c. When an abandonment case is filed
d. None of the above
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188. All are included as a basic requirement for the validity of contract except:
a. Consent of contracting parties
b. Cause of the obligation
c. Object certain
d. Consideration if a sale is involved
e. Love and affection
190. In the classification of lands of public domain, all are not alienable except:
a. Forest and timber b. Mineral lands c. National parks d. Agricultural
191. Transfer to another person of the right to enjoy the fruits of the property.
a. Free patents b. Usufruct c. Servient d. Foreclosure
193. Ownership of a piece of land can be acquired through any of the following modes except:
a. Tradition b. Accretion c. Occupation d. Succession e. Prescription
194. When a property is sold through public auction by the city government due to delinquent taxes: The mode of
acquisition in this case is referred to as
a. Public Grant b. Voluntary Grant c. Involuntary Grant d. Private Grant e. Local Government Grant
195. Under the local government code, the appraisal of the fair market value of real property shall be based on
a. Current fair market value
b. Declaration of lot owner
c. Independent appraiser’s value
d. BIR zonal value
e. Industry trend
196. The property relation of a couple who will get married on December 1, 2009 if there is no pre-nuptial agreement
before the marriage will be --
a. Absolute community of property
b. Conjugal partnership of gains
c. Separation of property
d. Marriage settlement
e. Marriage contract
197. In the licensure examination for the applicants for real estate brokers, a subject for examinations common to real
estate service practitioners is --
a. Fundamentals of property ownership
b. Legal requirement for real estate service practice
c. Subdivision development
d. Real estate finance and economics
198. Under the Urban Land Reform Law (P.D. 1517), an area is considered urban when it has a population density of at
least ______ and where at least 50% of economically active residents are engaged in non-agricultural activities.
a. 500 residents per square kilometers
b. 1, 500 residents per square kilometers
c. 1, 000 residents per square kilometers
d. 2, 000 residents per square kilometers
199. The areas reserved for parks, playgrounds and recreational areas of subdivision projects are:
a. Exclusively owned by the owner-developer
b. Co-owned by the developer and the purchasers of subdivision lots
c. Non-alienable public lands
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d. Alienable public lands
e. Buyer developer owned property
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