Physics is THE MOST IMPORTANT section with highest number of questions in Indian

Maritime University Common Entrance Test, IMU-CET as well as for Companies’ Sponsorship
Exams. Maximum numbers of questions are being asked from Physics only.

While preparing for IMU CET and Companies’ Sponsorship Exam following things you must
keep in your mind in order to secure a good rank.

IMPORTANT TIPS

 Most of the questions are asked from 12th class syllabus.

 From 11th class syllabus Mechanics Part is very important.
 From 12th class syllabus you should concentrate more on Electricity, Magnetism and
Semiconductors part.
 All the questions are Basic concepts and Formula based.
 Standard of questions is not very high. So DON’T concentrate on very tough questions.
 In all Companies’ Sponsorship Examinations, PHYSICS is the most important subject.
Therefore concentrate MOST on physics.
 Use NCERT books ONLY to refer for theory part.
 Number of questions provided below are as per the previous year trends.
 Chapters are compiled as per their IMPORTANCE.
CONTENTS

1. Mechanics
a. Motion in straight line
b. Motion in plane
c. Laws of Motion
d. Work, Energy & Power
2. Newton’s Laws if Gravitation
3. Electricity
a. Electrostatics
b. Alternating current
c. Electromagnetic Induction
4. Magnetism
a. Magnetic effects of current
b. Magnetism
5. Optics and Wave Theory
a. Light Optics
b. Wave Optics
6. Thermodynamics
7. Kinetic Theory of Gases
8. Properties of Materials
9. Atoms & Nucleus
Ques 1. Work done for a certain spring when stretched through 1 mm is 10 Joule. The
amount of work that must be done on the spring to stretch it further by 1 mm is

(A) 30 J (B) 40 J (C) 10 J (D) 20 J

Answer: (A)

Ques 2. If x=at+bt2 where x is in meter(m) and t is in hour (hr) then unit of b will be

(A) m2/hr (B) m (C) m/hr (D) m/hr2

Answer: (D)

Ques 3. The acceleration ‘a’ (in ms–2) of a body, starting from rest varies with time t (in
s) following the equation a = 3t + 4 The velocity of the body at time t = 2s will be

(A) 10 ms–1 (B) 18 ms–1 (C) 14 ms–1 (D) 26 ms–1

Answer : (C)

Ques 4. A bullet is fired with a velocity u making an angle of 60° with the horizontal
plane. The horizontal component o the velocity of the bullet when it reaches the
maximum height is

(A) u (B) 0 (C) 2u / 2 (D) u/2

Answer : (D)

Ques 5. A particle is projected at 60° to the horizontal with a kinetic energy K. The
kinetic energy at the highest point is

(A) K (B) zero (C) K/4 (D) K/2

Answer : (C)

Ques 6. Consider a uniform square plate of side ‘a’ and mass ‘m’. The moment of inertia
of this plate about an axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through one of its corners
is
 (a) 4/6 ma2

(b) 3/4 ma2

(c) 2/3 ma2

(d) 1/5 ma2

Answer: (c) 2/3 ma2

Ques 7. A block of mass 0.50 kg is moving with a speed of 2.00 m/s on a smooth
surface. It strikes another mass of 1.00 kg and then they move together as a single body.
The energy loss during the collision is

(a) 0.16 J

(b) 1.00 J

(c) 0.67 J

(d) 0.34 J

Answer: (c) 0.67 J

Ques 8. A bomb of mass 16 kg at rest explodes into two pieces of masses of 4 kg and 12
kg. The velocity of the 12 kg mass is 4 ms−1. The kinetic energy of the other mass is

(a) 96 J

(b) 144 J

(c) 288 J

(d) 192 J

Answer : (c) 288 J

Ques 9. A particle of mass 100 g is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 5 m/s. the
work done by the force of gravity during the time the particle goes up is

(a) 0.5 J

(b) −0.5 J
 (c) −1.25 J

(d) 1.25 J

Answer: (c) −1.25 J

Ques 10. A player caught a cricket ball of mass 150 g moving at a rate of 20 m/s. If the
catching process is completed in 0.1 s, the force of the blow exerted by the ball on the
hand of the player is equal to

(a) 300 N

(b) 150 N

(c) 3 N

(d) 30 N

Answer (d) 30 N

Ques 11. A ball of mass 0.2 kg is thrown vertically upwards by applying a force by hand. If
the hand moves 0.2 m which applying the force and the ball goes upto 2 m height further,
find the magnitude of the force. Consider g = 10 m/s2

(a) 22 N

(b) 4 N

( c) 16 N

(d) 20 N

Answer (d) 20 N

Ques 12. The maximum velocity of a particle, executing simple harmonic motion with an
amplitude 7 mm, is 4.4 m/s. The period of oscillation is

(a) 100 s

(b) 0.01 s

(c) 10 s
 (d) 0.1 s

Answer (b) 0.01 s

Ques 13. It is easier to roll a stone up a sloping road than to lift it vertical upwards
because
A. work done in rolling is more than in lifting

B. work done in lifting the stone is equal to rolling it

C. work done in both is same but the rate of doing work is less in rolling

D. work done in rolling a stone is less than in lifting it

Answer: Option D

Ques 14. Light year is a unit of

A. time

B. distance

C. light

D. intensity of light

Answer: Option B

Ques 15. Out of the following pairs, choose the pair in which the physical quantities do
not have identical dimension?
A. Pressure and Young's modules

B. Planck's constant and Angular momentum

C. Impulse and moment of force

D. Force and rate of change of linear momentum

Answer: Option C

Ques 16. If two bodies of different masses, initially at rest, are acted upon by the same
force for the same time, then the both bodies acquire the same
A. velocity

B. momentum
 C. acceleration

D. kinetic energy

Answer: Option B

Ques 17. Pick out the scalar quantity

A. force

B. pressure

C. velocity

D. acceleration

Answer: Option B

Ques 18. It is more difficult to walk on a sandy road than on a concrete road because
A. sand is soft and concreter is hard

B. the friction between sand and feet is less than that between concrete and feet

C. the friction between sand and feet is more than that between concrete and feet

D. the sand is grainy but concrete is smooth

Answer: Option B

Ques 19. Find the maximum velocity for the overturn of a car moving on a circular track
of radius 100 m. The co-efficient of friction between the road and tyre is 0.2

A. 0.14 m/s

B. 140 m/s

C. 1.4 km/s

D. 14 m/s

Answer: Option D

Ques 20. Railway tracks are banked on curves

 A. necessary centrifugal force may be obtained from the horizontal component
weight of the train

B. to avoid frictional force between the tracks and wheels

C. necessary centripetal force may be obtained from the horizontal component of

the weight of the train

D. the train may not fly off in the opposite direction

Answer: Option C

Ques 21. Minimum number of unequal vectors which can give zero resultant are

A. two

B. three

C. four

D. more than four

Answer: Option B

Ques 22. Rain is falling vertically downwards. To a man running east-wards, the rain will
appear to be coming from

A. east

B. west

C. northeast

D. southeast

Answer: Option A

Ques 23. An aeroplane is flying horizontally with a velocity of 600 km/h and at a height of
1960 m. When it is vertically at a point A on the ground a bomb is released from it. The
bomb strikes the ground at point B. The distance AB is

A. 1200 m
 B. 0.33 km

C. 3.33 km

D. 33 km

Answer: Option C

Ques 24. The unit of work is joule. The other physical quantity that has same unit is

(a) power (b) velocity (c) energy (d) force

Answer. C

Ques 25. The spring will have maximum potential energy when

(a) It is pulled out (b) it is compressed

(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b)

Answer C

Ques 26. The energy possessed by an oscillating pendulum of a clock is

(a) kinetic energy (b) potential energy

(c) restoring energy. (d) mechanical energy

Answer. D

Ques 27. A ball is dropped from a height of 10 m.

(a) Its potential energy increases and kinetic energy decreases during the falls

(b) Its potential energy is equal to the kinetic energy during the fall.

(c) The potential energy decreases and the kinetic energy increases during the fall.

(d) The potential energy is �0� and kinetic energy is maximum while it is falling.

Answer. C
Ques 28. If the velocity of a body is doubled its kinetic energy

(a) Gets doubled (b) becomes half

(c) Does not change (d) becomes 4 times

Answer. D

Ques 29. How much time will be required to perform 520 J of work at the rate of 20 W?

(a) 24s (b) 16s (c) 20 s (d) 26 s

Answer. D

Ques 30. A students caries a bag weighing 5 kg from the ground floor to his class on the
first floor that is 2 m high. The work done by the boy is

(a) 1 J (b) 10 J (c) 100 J (d) 1000 J

Answer. C

Ques 31. Angular displacement is measured in

(A) Meter. (B) Time.

(C) Radian. (D) Steradian.

Answer : C

Ques 32. A flywheel rotates at a constant speed of 3000 r.p.m. The angle described by
the shaft in one second is :

(A) 3 π rad (B) 30 π rad

(C) 100 π rad (D) 3000 π rad

Answer : C

Ques 33. What is the angular speed of the seconds hand of a watch?
 (A) 60 rad/s (B) π rad/s

(C) π/30 rad/s (D) 2 rad/s

Answer : C

Ques 34. What is the angular velocity of the earth?

(A) 2π / 86400 rad/s

(B) 2π / 3600 rad/s

(C) 2π / 24 rad/s

(D) 2π / 6400 rad/s

Answer : A

Ques 35. In uniform circular motion,

(A) both velocity and acceleration are constant.

(B) velocity changes and acceleration is constant.

(C) velocity is constant and acceleration changes.

(D) both velocity and acceleration change.

Answer : D

Ques 36. The force required to keep a body in uniform circular motion is

(A) centripetal force.

(B) centrifugal force.

(C) frictional force.

(D) breaking force.

Answer : A

Ques 37. Fats can be separated from milk in a cream separator because of
 (A) cohesive force.

(B) gravitational force.

(C) centrifugal force.

(D) viscous force.

Answer : C

Ques 38. The safe speed of a vehicle on a horizontal curve road is independent of

(A) mass of vehicle.

(B) coefficient of friction between road surface and tyre of vehicle.

(C) radius of curve.

(D) acceleration due to gravity.

Answer : A

Ques 39. The angle of banking of the road does not depend upon
(A) acceleration due to gravity.

(B) radius of curvature of the road.

(C) mass of the vehicle.

(D) speed of the vehicle.

Answer : C

Ques 40. For a banked curved road, the necessary centripetal force on any vehicle is
provided by

(A) vertical component of normal reaction of the vehicle.

(B) horizontal component of the normal reaction of the vehicle.

(C) both vertical and horizontal components of the normal reaction of the vehicle.
 (D) weight of the vehicle.

Answer : B

Ques 41. If the radius of the circular track decreases, then the angle of banking

(A) increases.

(B) decreases.

(C) first increases then decreases.

(D) does not change.

Answer : A

Ques 42. A hollow sphere of external radius R and thickness t (<< R) is made of a metal of
density ρ, sphere will float in water if

(A) t ≤ R/ ρ (B) t ≤ R/3ρ (C) t ≤ R/2 ρ (D) t ≥ R/2ρ

Answer : (B)

Ques 43. A train is moving with a uniform speed of 33 m/s and an observer is approaching
the train with the same speed. If the train blows a whistle of frequency 1000 Hz and the
velocity of sound is 333 m/s then the apparent frequency of the sound that the observer
hears is

(A) 1220 Hz (B) 1099 Hz (C) 1110 Hz (D) 1200 Hz

Answer : (A)

Ques 44. Two particles A and B having different masses are projected from a tower with
same speed. A is projected vertically upward and B vertically downward. On reaching the
ground
(A) velocity of A is greater than that of B

(B) velocity of B is greater than that of A

(C) both A and B attain the same velocity

(D) the particle with the larger mass attains higher velocity
 Answer : (C)

Ques 45. A smooth mass less string passes over a smooth fixed pulley. Two masses m1
and m2 (m1 > m2) are tied at the two ends of the string. The masses are allowed to move
under gravity starting from rest. The total external force acting on the two masses is

(A) (m1 + m2 ) g

(B){ (m1-m2)2/(m1+m2)} g

(C) (m1 – m2 ) g

(D) ){ (m1+m2)2/(m1-m2)} g

Answer : (B)

Ques 46. A particle moves with constant acceleration along a straight line starting from
rest. The percentage increase in its displacement during the 4th second compared to that in
the 3rd second is

(A) 33% (B) 40% (C) 66% (D) 77%

Answer : (B)

Ques 47. A uniform solid spherical ball is rolling down a smooth inclined plane from a
height h. The velocity attained by the ball when it reaches the bottom of the inclined plane
is v. If the ball is now thrown vertically upwards with the same velocity v, the maximum
height to which the ball will rise is

(A) 5h/8 (B) 3h/5 (C) 5h/7 (D) 7h/9

Answer : (C)

Ques 48. The velocity of a car travelling on a straight road is 36 kmh–1 at an instant of
time. Now travelling with uniform acceleration for 10 s, the velocity becomes exactly
double. If the wheel radius of the car is 25 cm, then which of the following numbers is the
closest to the number of revolutions that the wheel makes during this 10 s?

(A) 84 (B) 95 (C) 126 (D) 135

Answer : (B)
Ques 49. Two spheres of the same material, but of radii R and 3R are allowed to fall
vertically downwards through a liquid of density σ. The ratio of their terminal velocities is
(A) 1 : 3 (B) 1 : 6 (C) 1 : 9 (D) 1 : 1

Answer : (C)

Ques 50. A shell of mass 5M, acted upon by no e ternal force and initially at rest, bursts
into three fragments of masses M, 2M and 2M respectively. The first tw fragments move in
opposite directions with velocities of magnitudes 2V and V respectively. The third fragment
will

(A) move with a velocity V in a direction perpendicular to the other two

(B) move with a velocity 2V in the direction of velocity of the first fragment

(C) be at rest

(D) move with a velocity V in the direction of velocity of the second fragment

Answer : (C)

Ques 51. A bullet of mass m travelling with a speed v hits a block of mass M initially at rest
and gets embedded in it. The combined system is free to move and there is no other force
acting on the system. The heat generated in the process will be

(A) Zero

(B) (mv2) / 2

(C) (Mmv2) / 2(M- m)

(D) mMv2 /2 (M +m)

Answer : (D)

Ques 52. What is the maximum resultant possible when adding a 2-N force to an 8-N
force?
(A) 2 N

(B) 6 N

(C) 8 N

(D) 10 N
 Answer : D

Ques 53. Equilibrium occurs when

(A) All the forces acting on an object are balanced.

(B) The sum of the +x forces on an object equals the sum of the –x forces.

(C) The net force on the object is zero.

(D) The sum of the upward forces equals the sum of the downward forces.

(E) All of the above

Answer : (E)

Ques 54. A girl whose weight is 500 N hangs from the middle of a bar supported by two
vertical strands of rope. What is the tension in each strand?

(A) 0 N

(B) 250 N

(C) 500 N

(D) 750 N

(E) 1000 N

Answer : (B)

Ques 55. A barge is being pulled along a canal by two ropes that make equal angles with
the direction in which the barge points. Assuming the two pulls on the barge are equal, in
what direction does the barge move?

(A) It oscillates back and forth between the two banks.

(B) It moves straight ahead.

(C) It moves in the direction of the resultant force on it.

(D) Both A and B

(E) Both B and C

 Answer : (E)

Ques 56. You are helping your aunt move a piano on wheels from one room to another.
When you push the piano horizontally, it moves at constant speed. What can you say about
the piano?

(A) It is in static equilibrium.

(B) It is in equilibrium because it experiences net force opposite to the friction force.

(C) It is in dynamic equilibrium.

(D) It is in equilibrium because it doesn’t experience a friction force.

Answer : (B)

Ques 57. The force of friction acts in a direction _____ to the direction of motion of
object.

(A) Same
(B) Opposite
(C) Perpendicular
(D) Downwards

Answer: (B)

Ques 58. The force of friction depends upon

(A) Nature of surface of contact
(B) Material of objects in contact
(C) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

Ques 59. The body will move only when

(A) Force of friction = applied force

(B) Force of friction < applied force
(C) Force of friction > applied force
 (D) All of the above

Answer: (B)

Ques 60. The ratio of the limiting force of friction (F) to the normal reaction (R) is known
as

(A) Coefficient of friction

(B) Force of friction
(C) Angle of friction
(D) None of the above

Answer: (A)

Ques 61. The force of friction (F) is equal to

(A) µR/2
(B) µR
(C) 2µR
(D) µR/3

Answer: (B)

Ques 62. The force of friction is maximum when the surface

(A) Is on the point of motion

(B) Is at rest
(C) Is moving
(D) The friction remains same at all points

Answer: (A)

Ques 63. In uniform circular motion,

(A) Both velocity and acceleration are constant.

(B) Velocity changes and acceleration is constant.
(C) Velocity is constant and acceleration changes.
 (D) Both velocity and acceleration change.

Answer: (D)

Ques 64. When a car is going round a circular track, the resultant of all the forces on the
car in an inertial frame is

(A) Acting away from the centre.

(B) Acting towards the centre.
(C) Zero.
(D) Acting tangential to the track.

Answer: (B)

Ques 65. The force required to keep a body in uniform circular motion is

(A) Centripetal force.

(B) Centrifugal force.
(C) Frictional force.
(D) Breaking force.

Answer: (A)

Ques 66. A vehicle moving on a horizontal road may be thrown outward due to

(A) Gravitational force.

(B) Normal reaction.
(C) Frictional force between tyres and road.
(D) Lack of proper centripetal force.

Answer: (D)

Ques 67. Select the WRONG statement.

(A) Centrifugal force has same magnitude as that of centripetal force.

(B) Centrifugal force is along the radius, away from the centre.
(C) Centrifugal force exists in inertial frame of reference.
(D) Centrifugal force is called pseudo force, as its origin cannot be explained.
Answer: (C)

Ques 68. An important consequence of centrifugal force is that the earth is,

(A) Bulged at poles and flat at the equator.

(B) Flat at poles and bulged at the equator.
(C) High tides and low tides.
(D) Rising and setting of sun.

Answer: (B)

Ques 69. A care goes from one end to the other end of a semi circular path of diameter
“d”. Find the ratio between path length and displacement.

(A) 3π/2
(B) Π
(C) 2
(D) π/2

Answer: (D)

Ques 70. A particle goes from Point A to B. Its displacement is X and path length is Y. So
(X/Y) ………?

(A) >1
(B) <1
(C) >=1
(D) <=1

Answer: (C)

Ques 71. Particle is thrown in upward direction with initial velocity of 60m/s. Find
average speed & average velocity after 10 seconds. Take g= 10 ms-2
(A) 26 ms-1, 16 ms-1
(B) 26 ms-1, 10 ms-1
(C) 20 ms-1, 16 ms-1
(D) 15 ms-1, 25 ms-1
Answer: (B)

Ques 72. A bus travels between two points A & B. V1 and V2 are its average speed and
average velocity then

(A) V1 > V2
(B) V1<V2
(C) V1=V2
(D) Depends on situation

Answer: (D)

Ques 73. Rohit completes a semicircular path of radius R in 10 seconds. Calculate

average speed and average velocity

(A) 2ΠR/10, 2R/10

(B) ΠR/10, R/10
(C) ΠR/10, 2R/10
(D) 2ΠR/10, R/10

Answer: (C)

Ques 74. A car moving over a straight line covers a distance x with constant speed 10ms-1
and then same distance with constant speed of V2. If average speed of the car is 16 ms-1,
then V2 =….?

(A) 30 m/s
(B) 20 m/s
(C) 40 m/s
(D) 25 m/s

Answer: (C)

Ques 75. A particle moves 4m in the south direction. Then it moves 3m in the west
direction. The time taken by the particle is 2 seconds. What is the ratio between average
speed and average velocity?

(A) 5/7
 (B) 7/5
(C) 14/5
(D) 5/14

Answer: (B)

Ques 76. A particle is projected vertically upward with velocity 30 m/s. Find the ratio of
average speed and instantaneous velocity after 6s. g=10m/s2

(A) ½
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

Answer: (B)

Ques 77. The motion of a particle along a straight line is described by the function x=(3t-
2
2) . Calculate the acceleration after 10 seconds.

(A) 9
(B) 18
(C) 36
(D) 6

Answer: (B)

Ques 78. A body starts its motion with zero velocity and its acceleration is 3 m/s2. Find
the distance travelled by it in fifth second.

(A) 15.5 m
(B) 17.5 m
(C) 13.5 m
(D) 14.5 m

Answer: (C)
Ques 79. What does a speedometer measures in motor bike ?

(A) Average velocity

(B) Average speed
(C) Instantaneous speed
(D) Instantaneous velocity

Answer: (C)

Ques 80. The displacement of a body moving in x direction is given by x=9-5t+4t2. Find
the velocity at time t=0.

(A) -8 m/s
(B) -5 m/s
(C) 3 m/s
(D) 10 m/s

Answer: (B)

Ques 81. A freely falling particle covers a building of 45m in one second. Find the height
of the point from where the particle was released. g=10 m/s2
(A) 120 m
(B) 125 m
(C) 25 m
(D) 80 m

Answer: (B)

Ques 82. The distance covered travelled by a particle is given by s=3+2t=5t2. The initial
velocity of the particle is…?

(A) 2 unit
(B) 3 unit
(C) 10 unit
 (D) 5 unit

Answer: (A)

Ques 83. A particle is thrown upward with velocity V. It passes through a point “P” of
height h at time t1 & t2. So t1+t2=…..?

(A) v/g
(B) 2v/g
(C) 2h/g
(D) h/2g

Answer: (B)

Ques 84. A particle is thrown upward with velocity V. It passes through a point “P” of
height h at time t1 & t2. So t1*t2=…..?

(A) 2h/g
(B) V2/2g
(C) 2v2/g
(D) h/2g

Answer: (A)

Ques 85. Particles A & B are released from the same height at an interval of 2seconds.
After some time t, the distance between A & B is 100m. Calculate time t.

(A) 8 s
(B) 6 s
(C) 3 s
(D) 12 s

Answer: (B)

Ques 86. A particle is moving in a circle of radius R with constant speed. It covers an
 angle x in some time interval. Find displacement in this interval of time.

(A) 2R cos (x/2)

(B) 2R sin(x/2)
(C) 2 R cos x
(D) 2 r sin x

Answer: (B)

Ques 87. A particle is moving in a straight line with initial velocity of 200 m/s.
Acceleration of the particle is given by a=3t2-2t. Find velocity of the particle at 10 second.

(A) 1100 m/s

(B) 300 m/s
(C) 900 m/s
(D) 100 m/s

Answer: (A)

Ques 88. A car is moving with speed of 30m/s. Due to application of brakes it travels 30
meter before stopping. Find its acceleration:

(A) 15 m/s2
(B) -15m/s2
(C) 30m/s2
(D) 10m/s2

Answer: (B)

Ques 89. A particle moves in a straight line with constant acceleration. At t=10s velocity
and displacement of the particle are 16m/s and 39m respectively. What will be the velocity
after 10 seconds?

(A) 22 m/s
 (B) 18 m/s
(C) 20 m/s
(D) 28 m/s

Answer: (C)

Ques 90. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 are dropped from heights H and 2H
respectively. The ratio of time taken by bodies to touch the ground is:

(A) ½
(B) 2
(C) 1/√2
(D) √2/1

Answer: (C)

Ques 91. A freely falling stone crashes through a horizontal glass plate at a time t and
looses half of its velocity. After time t/2 it falls on the ground. The glass plate is 60m high
from the ground. Find the total distance travelled by the stone. g=10 m/s2

(A) 120 m
(B) 80 m
(C) 100 m
(D) 140 m
Answer: (D)

Ques 92. A ball is thrown in vertically upward direction. Neglecting the air resistance
velocity of the ball in air will

(A) Zero
(B) Decrease when it is going up
(C) Decrease when it is coming down
(D) Remain constant

Answer: (B)
Ques 93. The minimum distance in which a car can be stopped is x. the velocity of the car
is v. If the velocity is 2v then find the stopping distance.

(A) 2x
(B) 4x
(C) 3x
(D) ½ x

Answer: (B)

Ques 94. A particle moves in one direction with acceleration 2m/s2 and initial velocity
3m/s. After what time its displacement will be 10 meter?

(A) 1 s
(B) 2 s
(C) 3 s
(D) 4 s

Answer: (B)

Ques 95. Displacement of a particle in y direction is given by y=t2-5t+5 where t is in

second. Calculate the time when its velocity is zero.

(A) 5 s
(B) 2.5 s
(C) 10 s
(D) 3 s

Answer: (B)

Ques 96. A ball is thrown vertically upward. What is the velocity and the acceleration of
the ball at the maximum height?

(A) –g t , 0
 (B) 0 , g
(C) g , 0
(D) 0, - g t

Answer: (B)

Ques 97. Note: Bold letters denote vector quantity and normal letter denotes magnitude
of that vector.
C=A+B and A=B=C, Find the angle between A & B

(A) π/3
(B) π/6
(C) 2π/3
(D) 0

Answer: (C)

Ques 98. The resultant of two vectors is maximum when they are :

(A) At right angles to each other.

(B) Act in opposite direction
(C) Act in same direction
(D) Are at 120 degree to each other

Answer: (C)

Ques 99. The resultant of two vectors A & B

(A) Can be smaller than A-B in magnitude
(B) Can be greater than A+B in magnitude
(C) Can’t be greater than A+B or smaller than A-B in magnitude
(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

Ques 100. The resultant of two forces of magnitude 2N and 3N can never be
 (A) 4N
(B) 1N
(C) 2.5N
(D) ½ N

Answer: (D)

Ques 101. A+B is perpendicular to A and B=2(A+B). what is the angle between A & B

(A) π/6
(B) 5π/6
(C) 2π/3
(D) π/3

Answer: (B)

Ques 102. Out of the following pair of forces, the resultant of which cannot be 18 N

(A) 11 N, 7 N
(B) 11 N, 8 N
(C) 11 N, 29 N
(D) 11 N, 5 N

Answer: (D)

Ques 103. A= 2i+2j-k and B= 2i-j-2k, Find 3A-2B

(A) 2i+7j+k
(B) 2i+8j-k
(C) 2i+8j+k
(D) I+7j+k

Answer: (C)
Ques 104. If dot product of A.B=0 then

(A) Magnitude of A must be zero

(B) Magnitude of B must be zero
(C) Either A=0, B=o or angle between them = 0
(D) Either A=0, B=o or angle between them = 90

Answer: (D)

Ques 105. If A x B = 0 then A . B = ??

(A) AB
(B) A/B
(C) AB/2
(D) 0

Answer: (A)

Ques 106. If A= 4i+3j-2k and B=8i+6j-4k, the angle between both the vectors is

(A) 45
(B) 0
(C) 60
(D) 90

Answer: (B)

Ques 107. A=2i-3j+k and B=8i+6j-4k, the magnitude of A x B = ?????

(A) 28
(B) 14
(C) 0
(D) 7
Answer: (C)

Ques 108. A = 2i+5j-k and B = 3i-2j-4k , the angle between vectors A and B is

(A) 0
(B) π/2
(C) π/4
(D) π/6

Answer: (B)

Ques 109. Which statement is true for vectors A & B

(A) A x B = B x A
(B) A x B = - B x A
(C) A . B = - B . A
(D) A . B = AB

Answer: (B)

Ques 110. (A+B) . (A x B) = ?? where are A & B are vector quantities.

(A) 0
(B) A2 + B2
(C) A + B
(D) A*B
Answer: (A)

Ques 111. The angle between (i+j )and z axis is

(A) 0
(B) 45
(C) 90
 (D) 180

Answer: (C)

Ques 112. A = pi-2pj-k and B= -3i+2j-14k are perpendicular to each other. Then p= ??

(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1

Answer: (C)

Ques 113. Train A is 56 m long and train B is 54 m long. They are travelling in opposite
direction with velocity 15 m/s and 5m/s respectively. The time of crossing is :

(A) 12 s
(B) 6 s
(C) 3 s
(D) 18 s

Answer: (B)

Ques 114. Velocity of particle A with respect to particle B is 4m/s while they are moving in
same direction. And it is 10m/s while they are in opposite direction. What are the
velocities of particles with respect to stationery frame of reference?

(A) 7m/s, 3m/s

(B) 4 m/s, 5 m/s
(C) 7 m/s, 4 m/s
(D) 10 m/s, 4 m/s

Answer: (A)

Ques 115. A car moves horizontally with a speed of 3m/s. A glass wind screen is kept on
the front side of the car. Rain drops strike the screen vertically with the velocity of 5 m/s.
 Calculate the velocity of rain drops with respect to the ground.

(A) 6 m/s
(B) 4 m/s
(C) 3 m/s
(D) 1 m/s

Answer: (B)

Ques 116. Equation of a projectile is given by y=Ax-Bx2. Find the range of the projectile.

(A) A/B
(B) A/4B
(C) A/2B
(D) 2A/B

Answer: (A)

Ques 117. A stone is projected with an angle x and velocity v from point P. It strikes the
ground at the point Q. If both P & Q are on same horizontal line, then find average velocity.

(A) V cos x
(B) V sin x
(C) V cos (x/2)
(D) V sin (x/2)

Answer: (A)

Ques 118. An object is projected with initial velocity of 100 m/s and angle of 60. Find the
vertical velocity when its horizontal displacement is 500 m. Take g=10

(A) 93.35 m/s

(B) -93.35 m/s
(C) -8.65 m/s
 (D) 98 m/s

Answer: (B)

Ques 119. Angle of projection of a projectile is changed, keeping initial velocity constant.
Find rate of change of maximum height. Range of the projectile is R.

(A) R/4
(B) R/3
(C) R/2
(D) R

Answer: (C)

Ques 120. A body travelling in a circle at constant speed

(A) Has a constant velocity

(B) Is not accelerated
(C) Has an outward radial acceleration
(D) Has an inward radial acceleration

Answer: (D)

Ques 121. The speed of a particle moving in a circle of radius r=4 meter is 10 m/x. What is
radial acceleration?

(A) 25 m/s2
(B) 20 m/s2
(C) 10 m/s2
(D) 15 m/s2

Answer: (A)

Ques 122. The velocity of a body of mass 20 kg decreases from 20 m/s to 5 m/s in a
distance of 100 m. Force on the body is
 (A) -27.5 N
(B) -47.5 N
(C) -37.5 N
(D) -67.5 N

Answer: (C)

Ques 123. A ball of mass 0.2 kg is thrown vertically upward by applying a force by hand. If
the hand moves 0.2 m while applying the force and the ball goes up to 2m height, find the
magnitude of the force. Take g=10

(A) 16 N
(B) 20 N
(C) 22 N
(D) 4 N

Answer: (C)

Ques 124. Force of 5 N acts on a body of weight 9.8 Kg. what is the acceleration produced
in the body in m/s2?

(A) 49.0
(B) 5
(C) 1.46
(D) 0.51

Answer: (B)

Ques 125. Same force acts on two bodies of different masses 2kg & 4 kg initially at rest. The
ratio of times required to acquire same final velocity is?
(A) 2:1
(B) 1:2
(C) 1:1
(D) 4:16
Answer: (B)

Ques 126. Which of the following quantities measured from different inertial reference
frame are same?

(A) Force
(B) Velocity
(C) Displacement
(D) Kinetic Energy

Answer: (A)

Ques 127. When the speed of a moving body is doubled

(A) Its acceleration is doubled

(B) Its momentum is doubled
(C) Its kinetic energy is doubled
(D) Its potential energy is doubled

Answer: (B)

Ques 128. A player caught a cricket ball mass 150g moving at a rate of 20 m/s. If the
catching process be completed in 0.1 seconds, the force of the blow exerted by the ball on
the hands of the player is

(A) 0.3 N
(B) 30 N
(C) 300 N
(D) 3000 N

Answer: (B)

Ques 129. A car is travelling at a speed of 30 km/h is brought to a halt in 8 meters by

applying brakes. If the same car is travelling at 60 km/h it can be brought to halt with the
 same braking power in

(A) 8 m
(B) 16 m
(C) 24 m
(D) 32 m

Answer: (D)

Ques 130. Two bodies of equal masses revolve in circular orbits of radius R1 & R2 with the
same period. Their centripetal forces are in the ratio.

(A) (R2/R1)2
(B) R1/R2
(C) (R1/R2)2
(D) R1.R2

Answer: (B)

Ques 131. A 0.5 kg ball moving with a speed of 12 m/s strikes a hard wall at an angle of 30
degree. With the wall. It is reflected with the same speed and at the same angle. If the ball
is in contact with the wall for 0.025 seconds, the average force acting on the wall is

(A) 96 N
(B) 48 N
(C) 24 N
(D) 12 N

Answer: (C)

Ques 132. A shell of mass 200g is ejected from a gun of mass 4kg by an explosion that
generates 1.05 KJ of energy. The initial velocity of the shell is

(A) 100 m/s

(B) 80 m/s
(C) 40 m/s
 (D) 120 m/s

Answer: (A)

Ques 133. A stone of mass 2kg is tied to a string of length 0.5m. If the breaking tension of
the string is 900N, then the maximum angular velocity the stone can have in uniform
circular motion is

(A) 30 rad/s
(B) 20 rad/s
(C) 10 rad/s
(D) 25 rad/s

Answer: (A)

Ques 134. A sparrow flying in air sits on a stretched telegraph wire. If the weight of the
sparrow is W, which of the following is true about the tension T produced in the wire

(A) T=W
(B) T<W
(C) T>W
(D) T=0

Answer: (C)

Ques 135. A body of mass 0.05 kg is falling with acceleration 9.4 m/s2. The force exerted by
air opposite to motion is……N ? g=9.8 m/s2

(A) 0.02
(B) 0.20
(C) 0.03
(D) Zero

Answer: (A)

Ques 136. The average force required to stop a hammer falling with 25 NS momentum
in0.04 second is ?
 (A) 625 N
(B) 125 N
(C) 50 N
(D) 25 N

Answer: (A)

Ques 137. Newton’s third law of motion leads to the law of conservation of

(A) Angular Momentum

(B) Energy
(C) Mass
(D) Momentum

Answer: (D)

Ques 138. A ball falls on surface from 10 m height and rebounds to 2.5 m. If duration of
contact with floor is 0.01 sec then average acceleration during contact is …………..m/s2

(A) 2100
(B) 1400
(C) 700
(D) 400

Answer: (A)

Ques 139. A vehicle of 100kg is moving with a velocity of 5m/s. To stop it in 1/10 sec, the
required force in opposite direction is ………………….Newton

(A) 50
(B) 500
(C) 5000
(D) 1000

Answer: (C)
Ques 140. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) A body has a constant velocity but a varying speed

(B) A body has a constant speed but a varying value of acceleration.
(C) A body has a constant speed and zero acceleration
(D) A body has a constant speed but velocity is zero.

Answer: (C)

Ques 141. A force of 8N acts on an object of mass 5kg in X- direction and another force of
6N acts on it in Y direction. Hence, the magnitude of acceleration of object will be

(A) 1.5 m/s2

(B) 2.0 m/s2
(C) 2.5 m/s2
(D) 3.5 m/s2

Answer: (B)

Ques 142. On the horizontal surface of a truck, a block of 1 kg is placed. If the truck is
accelerating at the rate of 5m/s2 then frictional force on the block will be?

(A) 5N
(B) 6N
(C) 5.88N
(D) 8N

Answer: (A)

Ques 143. Two blocks of 8 kg & 4 kg are connected with a string and placed on a rough
horizontal surface. The 4 kg block is pulled with a constant force F. the co-efficient of
friction between the blocks and surface is 0.5, what is the value of F, so that tension in the
string is constant throughout the motion of the blocks. g=10 m/s2
 (A) 40N
(B) 60N
(C) 50N
(D) 30N

Answer: (B)

Ques 144. A man is standing on a spring balance. Reading of balance is 60kgf. If man
jumps outside balance, then the reading of the balance………..

(A) First increase then decrease to zero

(B) Decreases
(C) Increases
(D) Remains same

Answer: (A)

Ques 145. A car turns on a slippery road at a constant speed of 10m/s. If the coefficient of
friction is 0.5, the minimum radius of the arc at which the car can turn is ?

(A) 20m
(B) 10m
(C) 5m
(D) 4m

Answer: (A)

Ques 146. A person standing on the floor of a lift drops a coin. The coin reaches the floor of
the lift in time t1 if the lift is stationery and the time t2 if the lift is moving upward with
acceleration. Then

(A) t1=t2
(B) t1<t2
(C) t1>t2
(D) Can’t say anything
Answer: (C)

Ques 147. A lift of mass 1000 kg is moving with an acceleration of 1 m/s2 in upward
direction. Tension developed in the rope of the lift is
(A) 9800N
(B) 10,000N
(C) 10800N
(D) 11,000N

Answer: (C)

Ques 148. A rope which can withstand a maximum tension of 400N hangs from a tree. If a
monkey of mass 30 kg climbs on the rope, in which of the following case will the rope
break? Take g=10 m/s2

(A) When the monkey climbs with constant speed of 5 m/s

(B) When the monkey climbs with constant acceleration of 2m/s2
(C) When the monkey climbs with constant acceleration of 5m/s2
(D) When the monkey climbs with constant speed of 12 m/s

Answer: (C)

Ques 149. An object of mass 3kg is moving with a velocity of 5m/s along a straight path. If
a force of 12 N is applied for 3 sec on the object in a perpendicular to its direction of
motion. The magnitude of velocity of the particle at the end of 3 sec is

(A) 5 m/s
(B) 12 m/s
(C) 13 m/s
(D) 4 m/s

Answer: (C)

Ques 150. Same forces act on two bodies of different mass 2kg and 5 kg initially at rest.
The ratio of times required to acquire same final velocity is
 (A) 5:3
(B) 25:4
(C) 4:25
(D) 2:5

Answer: (D)

Ques 151. A train is moving along a horizontal path. A pendulum suspended from the roof
makes and angle 4degree from the vertical. The acceleration of the train is

(A) 0.6 m/s2

(B) 0.7 m/s2
(C) 0.5 m/s2
(D) 0.2 m/s2

Answer: (B)

Ques 152. A bag of sand of mass m is suspended by rope; a bullet of mass m/30 is fired at it
with a velocity v and gets stuck into it. The velocity of the bag finally is

(A) 31v/30
(B) 30v/31
(C) v/31
(D) v/30

Answer: (C)

Ques 153. A car of mass 1000 kg travelling at 32 m/s crashes into rear of a truck of mass
8000 kg moving in the same direction with a velocity of 4 m/s. After the collision the car
bounces with a velocity of 8 m/s. The velocity of truck after the impact is

(A) 8 m/s
(B) 4 m/s
(C) 6 m/s
(D) 9 m/s

Answer: (D)
Ques 154. With what acceleration a, should a box descent so that a block of mass M placed
in it exerts a force Mg/4 on the floor of the box

(A) 4g/3
(B) 3g/4
(C) g/4
(D) 3g

Answer: (B)

Ques 155. How much is the work done in pulling up a block of wood weighing 2Kn for a
length of 10m on a smooth plane inclined at an angle of 30 degree with the horizontal?

(A) 1.732 KJ
(B) 17.32 KJ
(C) 10 KJ
(D) 100 KJ

Answer: (B)

Ques 156. A 60 kg man with 10 kg load on his head climbs 25 steps of 0.2m height each.
What is the work done in climbing? Take g=10

(A) 5J
(B) 350J
(C) 100J
(D) 3500J

Answer: (D)

Ques 157. The mass of a car is 1000 kg. How much work is required to be done on it to
make it move with a speed of 36 km/hr?

(A) 2.5x104 J
(B) 5x103 J
 (C) 500 J
(D) 5 x 104 J

Answer: (D)

Ques 158. A uniform chain of length 2m is kept on a table such that a length of 50cm
hangs freely from the edge of the table. The total mass of the chain is 5 kg. What is the
work done in pulling the entire chain on the table? Take g=10

(A) 7.2 J
(B) 3 J
(C) 4.6 J
(D) 120 J

Answer: (B)

Ques 159. A block of mass 5 kg is resting on a smooth surface. At what angle a force of
20N be acted on the body so that it will acquire a kinetic energy of 40J after moving 4m

(A) 30 degree
(B) 45 degree
(C) 60 degree
(D) 120 degree

Answer: (C)

Ques 160. Natural length of a spring is 60 cm and its spring constant is 2000N/m. A mass
of 20kg is hung from it. The extension produced in the spring is………? g=9.8 m/s2

(A) 4.9 cm
(B) 0.49 cm
(C) 9.8 cm
(D) 0.98 cm
Answer: (C)

Ques 161. A uniform chain of length L and mass M is lying on a smooth table and (1/4)th
of its length is hanging vertically down over the edge of the table. If g is acceleration due
to gravity the work required to pull the hanging part on to the table is

(A) MgL
(B) MgL/9
(C) MgL/18
(D) MgL/32

Answer: (D)

Ques 162. A mass of M kg is suspended by a weight less string, The horizontal force that is
required to displace it until the string makes an angle of 60 degree with the initial vertical
direction is:

(A) Mg/√3
(B) Mg√2
(C) Mg/√2
(D) Mg.√3

Answer: (A)

Ques 163. A spring with spring constant K when stretched through 2cm, the potential
energy is U. If it is stretched by 6cm, the potential energy will be…….

(A) 6U
(B) 3U
(C) 9U
(D) 18U

Answer: (C)

Ques 164. If linear momentum of body is increased by 1.5%, its kinetic energy increases by
……….%
 (A) 0%
(B) 10%
(C) 2.25%
(D) 3%

Answer: (D)

Ques 165. With what velocity should a student of mass 40 kg run so that his kinetic energy
becomes 160 J

(A) 4 m/s
(B) √8 m/s
(C) 16 m/s
(D) 8 m/s

Answer: (B)

Ques 166. A body of mass 1 kg is thrown upwards with a velocity 20m/s. It momentarily
comes to rest after a height of 18 m. How much energy is lost due to air friction? g=10
m/s2

(A) 20 J
(B) 30 J
(C) 40 J
(D) 10 J

Answer: (A)

Ques 167. Two bodies of masses m1 & m2 have equal kinetic energies. If P1 & P2 are their
respective momentum, what is the ratio of P2:P1

(A) m1 : m2
(B) √m2 : √m1
(C) √m1 : √m2
 (D) (m1)2 : (m2)2

Answer: (B)

Ques 168. Two bodies of masses m and 3m have same momentum. Their respective kinetic
energies E1 and E2 are in the ratio………

(A) 1 ; 3
(B) 3 : 1
(C) 6 : 1
(D) 1 : 6

Answer: (B)

Ques 169. A spring is compressed by 1 cm by a force of 4N. Find the potential energy of the
spring when it is compressed by 10 cm.

(A) 2 J
(B) 0.2 J
(C) 20 J
(D) 200 J

Answer: (A)

Ques 170. When 2 kg mass hangs to a spring of length 50 cm, the spring stretches by 2 cm.
The mass is pulled down until the length of the spring becomes 60 cm. What is the amount
of elastic Energy stored in the spring in this condition?

(A) 10 J
(B) 2 J
(C) 2.5 J
(D) 5 J

Answer: (D)

Ques 171. The potential energy of a projectile at its highest point is half the value of its
initial kinetic energy. Therefore its angle of projection is:
 (A) 30 degree
(B) 45 degree
(C) 60 degree
(D) 75 degree

Answer: (A)

Ques 172. If the KE of a body is increased by 44%, its momentum is increased by …..
(A) 20 %
(B) 22 %
(C) 2 %
(D) 120 %

Answer: (A)

Ques 173. A rifle bullet looses (1/10)th of its velocity in passing through a plank. The least
number of such planks required just to stop the bullet is:

(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 20

Answer: (A)

Ques 174. If the water falls from a dam into a turbine wheel 19.6 m below, then the
velocity of water at the turbine is …………..? g= 9.8 m/s2

(A) 9.8 m/s

(B) 19.6 m/s
(C) 39.2 m/s
(D) 98.0 m/s
Answer: (B)

Ques 175. A bomb of 12 kg divides in two parts whose ratio of masses is 1:4. If kinetic
energy of smaller part is 288J, then momentum of bigger part in kgm/sec will be:

(A) 48
(B) 72
(C) 108
(D) Data is incomplete

Answer: (A)

Ques 176. A bomb of mass 10 kg explodes into 2 pieces of mass 4kg and 6 kg. The velocity
of mass 4 kg is 1.5m/s, the KE of mass 6 kg is…….?

(A) 3.84 J
(B) 9.6 J
(C) 3.00 J
(D) 2.5 J

Answer: (C)

Ques 177. A bomb of mass 3 kg explodes in air into two pieces of masses 2 kg and 1 kg.
The smaller mass goes at a speed of 80m/s. The total energy imparted to the two
fragments is

(A) 1.07 KJ
(B) 2.14 KJ
(C) 2.4 KJ
(D) 4.8 KJ

Answer: (D)

Ques 178. The bob of simple pendulum of mass m and length l is dropped from a
horizontal position. It strikes a block of the same mass elastically placed on a horizontal
frictionless table. The KE of the block will be?
 (A) 2mgl
(B) mgl/2
(C) mgl
(D) zero

Answer: (C)

Ques 179. A gun fires a bullet of 40g with a velocity of 50m/s. Because of this the gun is
pushed back with a velocity of 1 m/s. The mass of the gun is

(A) 1.5 Kg
(B) 3 Kg
(C) 2 Kg
(D) 2.5 Kg

Answer: (C)

Ques 180. The decrease in the potential energy of a ball of mass 25 kg which falls from a
height of 40 cm is

(A) 968 J
(B) 100 J
(C) 1980 J
(D) 200 J

Answer: (B)

Ques 181. A nucleus at rest splits into two nuclear parts having same density and radii in
the ratio 1:2. Their velocities are in the ratio

(A) 2:1
(B) 4:1
(C) 6:1
 (D) 8:1

Answer: (D)

Ques 182. A body initially at rest undergoes one dimensional motion with constant
acceleration. The power delivered to it at time t is proportional to…..

(A)
t1/2
(B) t
(C) t/2
(D) t2

Answer: (B)

Ques 183. An electric motor develops 5kw of power. How much time will it take to lift a
water of mass 100 kg to a height of 20 meter? g=10 m/s2

(A) 4 sec
(B) 5 sec
(C) 8 sec
(D) 10 sec

Answer: (A)

Ques 184. 1 kg apple gives 25 KJ energy to a monkey. How much height he can climb by
using this energy if his efficiency is 40%. Mass of the monkey is 25 kg and g=10 m/s2

(A) 20 m
(B) 4 m
(C) 30 m
(D) 40 m

Answer: (D)

Ques 185. If a force F is applied on a body and it moves with a velocity v, the power will be?
 (A) Fv
(B) F/v
(C) F/v2
(D) Fv2

Ques 186. From an automatic gun a man fires 240 bullets per minute with a speed of 360
km/h. If each bullet weighs 20g the power of the gun is

(A) 400W
(B) 300 W
(C) 150 W
(D) 600 W

Answer: (A)

Ques 187. A ccolie 2m tall raises a load of 75 kg in in 2 seconds from the ground to his head
and then walks a distance of 40 m in another 2 seconds. The power developed by coolie is?
g= 10 m/s2

(A) 0.25 kw
(B) 0.50 kw
(C) 0.75 kw
(D) 1.00 kw

Answer: (C)

Ques 188. The coefficient of restitution e for a perfectly elastic collision is

(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) Infinity
(D) -1

Answer: (A)

Ques 189. Two balls at same temperature collide. What is conserved?

 (A) Temperature
(B) Velocity
(C) Kinetic energy
(D) Momentum

Answer: (D)

Ques 190. A rubber ball is dropped from a height of 5 m on a planet where the acceleration
due to gravity is not known. On bouncing, it rises to 1.8 m. The ball looses its velocity on
bouncing back by a factor of

(A) 16/25
(B) 9/25
(C) 3/5
(D) 2/5

Answer: (D)

Ques 191. Two solid rubber balls p and Q having masses 200g and 400g respectively are
moving in opposite directions with velocity of P equals to 0.3 m/s. After collision the two
balls come to rest then the velocity of Q is

(A) 0.15 m/s

(B) 1.5 m/s
(C) -0.15 m/s
(D) Zero

Answer: (C)

Ques 192. A sphere collides with another sphere of identical mass. After collision, the two
spheres move. The collision is inelastic. Then the angle between the directions of the two
spheres is

(A) 90 degree
(B) Different from 90 degree
(C) 0 degree
(D) 45 degree
Answer: (A)

Ques 193. A ball is allowed to fall from a height 20m. If there is 30% loss of energy due to
impact, then after one impact ball will go upto?

(A) 18 m
(B) 16 m
(C) 12 m
(D) 14 m

Answer: (D)

Ques 194. A metal ball of mass 2kg moving with a velocity of 36km/h has a head on
collision with a stationery ball of mass 3kg. If after the collision, the two balls move
together, the loss in kinetic energy due collision is
(A) 40 J
(B) 60 J
(C) 100 J
(D) 140 J

Answer: (B)

Ques 195. A ball dropped from a height of 4 m rebounds to a height of 2.4 m after hitting
the ground. Then the percentage of energy lost is

(A) 40
(B) 50
(C) 30
(D) 600

Answer: (A)

Ques 196. A billiard ball moving with a speed of 8m/s collides with an identical ball
originally at rest. If the first ball stops after collision, then the second ball will move forward
with a speed of…………..(elastic collision)

(A) 8 m/s
(B) 4 m/s
(C) 16 m/s
 (D) 1 m/s

Answer: (A)

Ques 197. A body of mass m1 is moving with a velocity v. It collides with another stationary
body of mass m1. They get embedded at the time of collision. The velocity of the system

(A) Increases
(B) Decreases but does not become zero
(C) Remains same
(D) Becomes zero

Answer: (B)

Ques 198. A planet in a distant solar system is 10 times more massive than the earth and
its radius is 10 times smaller. Given that the escape velocity from the earth is 11 kms−1,
the escape velocity from the surface of the planet would be

(a) 1.1 kms−1

(b) 11 kms−1

(c) 110 kms−1

(d) 0.11 kms−1

Answer : (c) 110 kms−1

Ques 199. A body of mass 1kg is attracted by the earth with a force which is equal to

A. 9.8N

B. 6.67x 1011

C. 1 N

D. 9.8m/s

Answer. A

Ques 200. What is the gravitational force between two objects?

 A. attractive at large distances only

B. attractive at small distances only

C. attractive at all distances

D. attractive at large distances but repulsive at small distances

Answer. C

Ques 201. The value of ‘g’

A. Increases as we go above the earth’s surface

B. Decreases as we go to the centre of the earth

C. Remains constant

D. Is more at equator and less at poles

Answer. B

Ques 202. The ball is thrown up, the value of ‘g’ will be

A. Zero

B. positive

C. negative

D. negligible

Answer. C

Ques 203. The gravitational force causes

A. Tides

B. Motion of moon

C. None of them

D. Both a n b
Answer. D

Ques 204. The mass of the body on moon is 40kg, what is the weight on the earth.

A. 240kg

B. 392N

C. 240N

D. 400kg

Answer. B

Ques 205. Newton’s law of gravitation applies to

A. Small bodies only

B. Plants only

C. All bodies irrespective of their size

D. For solar system

Answer. C

Ques 206. The gravitational force between two objects is F. If masses of both the objects
are halved without altering the distance between them, then the gravitational force would
become

A. f/4

B. f/2

C. f

D. 2f

Answer. A

Ques 207. The Earth attracts the moon with a gravitational force of 1020N. The moon
attracts the earth with a gravitational force of
 A. Less than 1020N

B. 1020N

C. Greater than 1020N

D. 10-20N

Answer. C

Ques 208. The distance between two bodies becomes 6 times more than the usual
distance. The F becomes

A. 36 times

B. 6 times

C. 12 times

D. 1/36 times

Answer. D

Ques 209. The gravitational potential energy of an object is due to

(a) Its mass

(b) Its acceleration due to gravity

(c) Its height above the earth�s surface

(d) all of the above.

Answer. D

Ques 210. Two particles of mass m1 and m2 ,approach each other due to their mutual
gravitational attraction only. Then
(A) accelerations of both the particles are equal

(B) acceleration of the particle of mass m1 is proportional to m1

(C) acceleration of the particle of mass m1 is proportional to m2

(D) acceleration of the particle of mass m1 is inversely proportional to m1

 Answer : (C)

Ques 211. A satellite has kinetic energy K, potential energy V and total energy E. Which of
the following statements is true ?
(A) K = –V/2

(B) K = V/2

(C) E = K/2

(D) E = –K/2

Answer : (A)

Ques 212. An artificial satellite moves in a circular orbit around the earth. Total energy of
the satellite is given by E. The potential energy of the satellite is

(A) –2E (B) 2E (C) 2E/3 (D) –2E/3

Answer : (B)

Hints : P.E. = 2(T.E.)

Ques 213. A mass M at rest is broken into two pieces having masses m and (M-m). The
two masses are then separated by a distance r. The gravitational force between them will
be the maximum when he ratio of the masses [m:(M-m)] of the two parts is
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 1: 3 (D) 1 : 4

Answer : (A)

Ques 214. A planet moves around the sun in an elliptical orbit with the sun at one of its
foci. The physical quantity associated with the motion of the planet that remains constant
with time is
(A) velocity

(B) centripetal force

(C) linear momentum

(D) angular momentum

Answer : (D)

Ques 215. Two spheres of mass m1 & m2 are situated in air and the Gravitational force
between them is F. The space around the masses is now filled with liquid of specific gravity
 3. The Gravitational force will now be :

(A) F (B) 3F (C) F/3 (D) F/9

Answer : (A)

Ques 216. A satellite of the earth is revolving in a circular orbit with a uniform speed v. If
the Gravitational force suddenly disappears, the satellite will

(A) Continue to move with velocity v along the original orbit.

(B) Move with the velocity v, tangentially to the original orbit.

(C) Fall down with increasing velocity

(D) Ultimately come to rest somewhere on the original orbit.

Answer : (B)

Ques 217. The distance of the moon and Earth is D, the mass of Earth is 81 times the
mass of moon. At what distance from the center of the Earth, the gravitational force will
be zero :

(A) D/2 (B) 12D/3 (C) 4D/3 (D) 9D/10

Answer : (D)

Ques 218. As we go from equator to the poles, the value of g ______?

(A) Remains Constant

(B) Decreases

(C) Increses

(D) Decreases upto latitude of 45 degrees

Answer : (C)

Ques 219. If the Earth rotates faster than its present speed the weight of an object will
be :
 (A) Increases at the Equator but remains unchanged at the poles

(B) Decreases at the Equator but remains unchanged at the poles

(C) Remains unchanged at the Equator but decreases at the poles

(D) Remains unchanged at the Equator but increases at the poles

Answer : (B)

Ques 220. If mass of a body is M on the earth surface, then the mass of same body on the
moon surface is :

(A) M/6 (B) M/3 (C) M (D) None of these

Answer : (C)

Ques 221. At what distance from the center of Earth, the value of acceleration due to
gravity g will be half that of the surfaces ? ( R = Radius of earth )

(A) 2R (B) R (C) 1.414 R (D) 0.414 R

Answer : (C)

Ques 222. In a gravitational field, at a point where the gravitational potential is Zero,

(A) The gravitational field is necessarily zero

(B) The gravitational field is not necessarily zero

(C) Nothing can be said definitely about the gravitational field

(D) None of these

Answer : (A)

Ques 223. The gravitational force Fg between two objects does not depend on

(A) Sum of the masses

(B) Product of masses
 (C) Gravitational constant
(D) Distance between the masses

Answer: (A)

Ques 224. The atmosphere is held to the earth by

(A) Clouds
(B) Gravity
(C) Winds
(D) None of the above

Answer: (B)

Ques 225. Two spheres of masses m1 and m2 are situated in air and the gravitational
force between them is F. The space around the masses is now filled with liquid of specific
gravity 3. The gravitational force will now be

(A) F
(B) 3F
(C) F/3
(D) F/9

Answer: (A)

Ques 226. A satellite of the earth is revolving in a circular orbit with a uniform speed v. If
the gravitational force suddenly disappears, the satellite will

(A) Continue to move with velocity v along the original orbit

(B) Move with a velocity v tangentially to the original orbit
(C) Fall down with increasing velocity
(D) Ultimately come to rest somewhere on the original orbit

Answer: (B)
Ques 227. Mass M is divided into two parts xM and (1-x)M. For a given separation, the
value of x for which the gravitational force between the two pieces becomes maximum is

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) ½
(D) 4/5

Answer: (A)

Ques 228. The distance of the moon and earth is D. the mass of earth is 81 times of the
moon. At what distance from the center of the earth, the gravitational force will be zero?

(A) D/2
(B) 12D/3
(C) 4D/3
(D) 9D/10

Answer: (D)

Ques 229. Which of the following statement about gravitational constant is true

(A) It is a force
(B) It has no unit
(C) It has same value in all system of unit
(D) It depends on the value of the masses

Answer: (A)

Ques 230. As we go from equator to the poles, the value of g…………..

(A) Remains constant

(B) Decreases
(C) Increases
 (D) Decreases upt o latitude of 45 degree

Answer: (C)

Ques 231. The time period of a simple pendulum on a freely moving artificial satellite is
………………….seconds?

(A) 0
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) Infinite

Answer: (D)

Ques 232. A body weighs 700 g on the surface of earth. How much it weight on the
surface of planet whose mass is 1/7 and radius is half that of the earth?

(A) 200 g
(B) 400 g
(C) 50 g
(D) 300 g

Answer: (B)

Ques 233. If earth rotates faster than its present speed the weight of an object will

(A) Increases at the equator but remain unchanged at the poles

(B) Decreases at the equator but remain unchanged at the poles
(C) Remain unchanged at the equator but decreases at the poles
(D) Remain unchanged at the equator but increases at the poles

Answer: (B)

Ques 234. The moon’s radius is ¼ that of earth and its mass is 1/80 times that of earth. If g
represents acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the earth, then on the surface of
 the moon is……….

(A) g/4
(B) g/5
(C) g/6
(D) g/8

Answer: (B)

Ques 235. If the density of small planet is same as that of the earth while the radius of the
planet is 0.2 times that of the earth, the gravitational acceleration on the surface of the
planet is……….

(A) 0.2 g
(B) 0.4 g
(C) 2 g
(D) 4 g

Answer: (A)

Ques 236. If mass of a body is M on the earth surface, then the mass of the same body on
the moon surface is

(A) M/6
(B) 56
(C) M
(D) NONE of these

Answer: (C)

Ques 237. An object weighs 72N on the earth. Its weight at a height R/2 from earth is …..?

(A) 32
(B) 56
 (C) 72
(D) Zero

Answer: (A)

Ques 238. If the radius of earth is R then height h at which value of g becomes one-fourth
is

(A) R/4
(B) 3R/4
(C) R
(D) R/8

Answer: (C)

Ques 239. If mass of the earth is 80 times of that of a planet and diameter is double that
of planet and g on the earth is 9.8 m/s2 then the value of g on that planet is …..

(A) 4.9
(B) 0.98
(C) 0.49
(D) 49

Answer: (C)

Ques 240. Assuming earth to be a sphere of a uniform density, what is value of

gravitational acceleration g in mine 100 km below the earth surface?

(A) 9.66 m/s2

(B) 7.64 m/s2
(C) 5.00 m/s2
(D) 3.1 m/s2

Answer: (A)
Ques 241. A body weight 500N on the surface of the earth. How much it will weight half
way below the surface of earth?

(A) 125 N
(B) 1250 N
(C) 500 N
(D) 1000 N

Answer: (B)

Ques 242. Weight of the body is maximum at

(A) Moon
(B) Poles of earth
(C) Equator of earth
(D) Center of earth

Answer: (B)

Ques 243. At what distance from the center of the earth, the value of acceleration due to
gravity g will be half that of the surface. ( R= radius of earth)

(A) 2R
(B) R
(C) 1.414 R
(D) 0.414 R

Answer: (C)

Ques 244. The acceleration due to gravity near the surface of a planet of Radius R and
density d is proportional to

(A) d/R2
(B) dR2
 (C) dR
(D) d/R

Answer: (C)

Ques 245. The density of a newly discovered planet is twice that of earth. The acceleration
due to gravity at the surface of the planet is same as that of surface of the earth. If the
radius of the earth is R, the radius of the planet would be….?

(A) 2R
(B) 4R
(C) ¼ R
(D) R/2

Answer: (D)

Ques 246. Density of earth is doubled keeping its radius unchanged. Acceleration due to
gravity will be………..m/s2

(A) 19.6
(B) 9.8
(C) 4.9
(D) 2.45

Answer: (A)

Ques 247. If density of the earth increased 4 times and its radius becomes half then our
weight will be

(A) Four times

(B) Double
(C) Remain same
(D) Half
Answer: (B)

Ques 248. A research satellite of mass 200 kg circles the earth in an orbit of average radius
3R/2 where R is radius of earth. Assuming the gravitational pull 10N, the pull on the
satellite will be………….N

(A) 880
(B) 889
(C) 890
(D) 892

Answer: (B)

Ques 249. The acceleration of a body due to pull of the earth (radius R) at a distance 2R
from the surface of the earth is……………..

(A) g/9
(B) g/3
(C) g/4
(D) 9

Answer: (A)

Ques 250. The height at which the weight of a body becomes 1/16th of its weight on the
surface of earth ( radius R) is:

(A) 3R
(B) 4R
(C) 5R
(D) 15R

Answer: (C)

Ques 251. In a gravitational field, at a point where the gravitational potential is zero
 (A) The gravitational field is necessarily zero
(B) The gravitational field is NOT necessarily zero
(C) Nothing can be said definitely about the gravitational field
(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

Ques 252. A rocket is launched with velocity 10 km/s. If radius of earth is R then maximum
height attained by it will be………….

(A) 2R
(B) 3R
(C) 4R
(D) 5R

Answer: (C)

Ques 253. A body is projected vertically upward from the surface of a planet of radius R
with a velocity equal to half the escape velocity for that planet. The maximum height
attained by the body is………

(A) R/3
(B) R/2
(C) R/4
(D) R/5

Answer: (A)

Ques 254. The escape velocity for a rocket from earth is 11.2 km/s. On a planet where
acceleration due to gravity is double that on earth and diameter of the planet is twice that
of earth will be…………….. km/s

(A) 11.2
(B) 22.4
(C) 5.6
 (D) 53.6

Answer: (B)

Ques 255. Energy required to move a body of mass m from an orbit of radius 2R to
3R…………

(A) GMm/(12R2)
(B) GMm/( 3R2)
(C) GMm/8R
(D) GMm/6R

Answer: (D)

Ques 256. The escape velocity from the earth is about 11 km/s. The escape velocity from a
planet having twice the radius and the same mean density as the earth is……………km/s

(A) 22
(B) 11
(C) 5.5
(D) 15.5

Answer: (A)

Ques 257. If g is acceleration due to gravity on earth and r is the radius of the earth, the
escape velocity for the body to escape out of earth’s gravitational field is……..

(A) gr
(B) √2gr
(C) g/r
(D) r/g

Answer: (B)

Ques 258. The escape velocity of a projectile from the earth is approximately……km/s
 (A) 11.2
(B) 112
(C) 11.2
(D) 1120

Answer: (C)

Ques 259. An artificial satellite is revolving round the earth in a circular orbit. Its velocity is
half the escape velocity. Its height from the earth surface is……………….km

(A) 6400
(B) 12800
(C) 3200
(D) 1600

Answer: (A)

Ques 260. The escape velocity of a planet having mass 6 times and radius 2 times as that
of earth is………(V is the escape velocity of earth)

(A) √3V
(B) 3V
(C) √2V
(D) 2V

Answer: (A)

Ques 261. The escape velocity of a body on the earth surface is 11.2 km/s. If the mass of
the earth increases to twice its present value and the radius of the earth becomes half, the
escape velocity becomes…………………mk/s

(A) 5.6
(B) 11.2
 (C) 22.4
(D) 494.8

Answer: (C)

Ques 262. Given mass of the moon is 1/81 of the mass of the earth and corresponding
radius is ¼ of the earth. If escape velocity on the earth surface is 11.2 km/s, the value of
same on the surface of moon is……………..km/s

(A) 0.14
(B) 0.5
(C) 12.5
(D) 5

Answer: (C)

Ques 263. The velocity with which a projectile must be fired so that it escapes earth’s
gravitational, does not depend on………….

(A) Mass of earth

(B) Mass of the projectile
(C) Radius of the projectile’s orbit
(D) Gravitational constant

Answer: (B)

Ques 264. The escape velocity for a body projected vertically upwards from the surface of
the earth is 11 km/s. If the body is projected at an angle of 45 degree with the vertical, the
escape velocity would be……………..km/s

(A) 11/√2
(B) 11√2
(C) 22
(D) 11
Answer: (D)

Ques 265. The acceleration due to gravity on a planet is same as earth and its radius is
four times that of earth. What will be the value of escape velocity on that planet if if it is V
on the earth

(A) V
(B) 2V
(C) 4V
(D) V/2

Answer: (B)

Ques 266. A satellite which is geo stationery in a particular orbit is taken to another orbit.
Its distance from the center of earth in new orbit is two times of the earlier orbit. The time
period in second orbit is………………..hours

(A) 4.8
(B) 48√2
(C) 24
(D) 24√2

Answer: (B)

Ques 267. An astronaut orbiting the earth in a circular orbit 120 km above the surface of
the earth, gently drops a spoon out of space ship. The spoon will

(A) Fall vertically down to the earth

(B) Move towards the moon
(C) Will move along with the space ship
(D) Will move in an irregular way then fall down to earth.

Answer: (C)

Ques 268. The period of a satellite in circular orbit around a planet is independent of
 (A) The mass of the planet
(B) The radius of the planet
(C) Mass of the satellite
(D) All of the above

Answer: (C)

Ques 269. Two satellites A and B go round a planet p in circular orbits having radius 4R
and R respectively. If the speed of the satellite A is 3V, the speed of the satellite B will be

(A) 12 V
(B) 6 V
(C) 4V/3
(D) 3V/2

Answer: (B)

Ques 270. A small satellite is revolving near earth’s surface. Its orbital velocity will be
nearly ……………km/s

(A) 8
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 11.2

Answer: (A)

Ques 271. A satellite revolves around the earth in an elliptical orbit. Its speed

(A) Is the same at all points in the orbit

(B) Is greatest when it is closest to the earth
(C) Is greatest when it is farthest to the earth
(D) Goes on increasing or decreasing continuously depending upon the mass of satellite.
Answer: (B)

Ques 272. If the height of a satellite from the earth is negligible in comparison of the
radius of the earth R, the orbital velocity of the satellite is………….

(A) gR
(B) gR/2
(C) √(g/R)
(D) √(g.R)

Answer: (D)

Ques 273. A satellite is moving around the earth with speed v in a circular orbit of radius r.
If the orbit radius is decreased by 1% , its speed will

(A) Increase by 1%
(B) Increase by 0.5%
(C) Decrease by 1%
(D) Decrease by 0.5%

Answer: (B)

Ques 274. Orbital velocity of an artificial satellite does not depend upon

(A) Mass of earth

(B) Mass of satellite
(C) Radius of earth
(D) Acceleration due to gravity

Answer: (B)

Ques 275. Two identical satellites are at R and 7R away from each surface, the wrong
statement is….( R= radius of earth)
 (A) Ratio of total energy will be 4
(B) Ratio of kinetic energy will be 4
(C) Ratio of total potential will be 4
(D) Ratio of total energy will be 4 but ratio of potential and kinetic energies will be 2

Answer: (D)

Ques 276. Which one of the following statements regarding artificial satellites of earth is
incorrect

(A) The orbital velocity depends on the mass of satellite

(B) A maximum velocity of 8 km/s is required by a satellite to orbit close to the earth
(C) The period of revolution is large if the radius of its orbit is large
(D) The height of geo stationery satellite is about 36000 km from earth

Answer: (A)

Ques 277. The weight of an astronaut in an artificial satellite revolving around the earth is

(A) Zero
(B) Equal to that on the earth
(C) More than that on the earth
(D) Less than that on the earth

Answer: (A)

Ques 278. The distance of a geo stationery satellite from the center of the earth is nearest
to

(A) 5R
(B) 7R
(C) 10R
(D) 18R
Answer: (B)

Ques 279. A satellite moves around the earth in a circular orbit of radius r with speed v, if
mass of the satellite is M, its total energy is

(A) –MV2/2
(B) MV2/2
(C) 3MV2/2
(D) MV2

Answer: (A)

Ques 280. A person sitting in a chair in a satellite feels weightless because

(A) The earth does not attract the objects in a satellite

(B) The normal force by the chair on the person balances the earth’s attraction
(C) The normal force is zero
(D) The person in satellite is not accelerated

Answer: (C)

Ques 281. Two satellites A and B go round a planet in circular orbits having radii 4R and R
respectively. If the speed of satellite A is 3v, then speed of satellite b is

(A) 3v/2
(B) 4v/2
(C) 6v
(D) 12v

Answer: (C)

Ques 282. Rockets are launched in eastward direction to take advantage of

(A) The clear sky on eastern side

 (B) The thinner atmosphere on eastern side
(C) Earth’s rotation
(D) Earth’s tilt

Answer: (C)

Ques 283. The period of satellite in a circular orbit of radius R is T. The period of another
satellite in a circular orbit of radius 4R is

(A) 4T
(B) T/4
(C) 8T
(D) T/8

Answer: (C)

Ques 284. If the earth is at ¼ th of its present distance from the sun the duration of year
will be

(A) Half the present year

(B) 1/8 th of present year
(C) ¼ the of present year
(D) 1/6 th of present year

Answer: (B)

Ques 285. The orbital speed of Jupiter is

(A) Greater than the orbital speed of the earth

(B) Less than the orbital speed of the earth
(C) Equal to the orbital speed of the earth
(D) Zero

Answer: (B)
Ques 286. The period of revolution of planet A around the sun is 8 times that of B. the
distance of A from the sun is how many times greater than that of B from the sun?

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

Answer: (C)

Ques 287. The earth revolves round the sun in one year. If the distance between them
becomes double the new period will be …………….. years.

(A) 0.5
(B) 2√2
(C) 4
(D) 8

Answer: (B)

Ques 288. The radius of orbit of a planet is two times that of earth. The time period of
planet is…………….years.

(A) 4.2
(B) 2.8
(C) 5.6
(D) 8.4

Answer: (C)

Ques 289. Angle between an equipotential surface and electric lines of force is
(A) 0° (B) 90° (C) 180° (D) 270°

Answer : (B)

Ques 290. One Kg of copper is drawn into a wire of 1mm diameter and a wire of 2 mm
 diameter. The resistance of the two wires will be in the ratio
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1:2 (C) 16 : 1 (D) 4:1

Answer : (C)

Ques 291. A wire of resistance 5 Ω is drawn out so that its new length is 3 times its original
length. What is the resistance of the new wire?
(A) 45Ω (B) 15Ω (C) 5/3 Ω (D) 5Ω

Answer : (A)

Ques 292. Two identical cells each of emf E and internal resistance r are connected in
parallel with an external resistance R. To get maximum power developed across R, the
value of R is
(A) R = r/2 (B) R=r (C) R = r/3 (D) R = 2r

Answer : (A)

Ques 293. An alternating current of rms value 10 A is passed through a 12 Ω resistor. The
maximum potential difference across the resistor is
(A) 20V (B) 90V (C) 1969.68V (D) none

Answer : (C)

Ques 294. Two rods of equal length and diameter have thermal conductivities 3 and 4
units respectively. If they are joined in series, the thermal conductivity of the combination
would be
(A) 3.43 (B) 3.5 (C) 3.4 (D) 3.34

Answer : (A)

Ques 295. The number of electron in 2 coulomb of charge is

(A) 5 × 1029 (B) 12.5 × 1018 (C) 1.6 × 1019 (D) 9 × 1011

Answer : (B)

Ques 296. The current flowing through a wire depends on time as I = 3t2 +2t + 5. The
charge flowing through the cross section of the wire in time from t = 0 to t = 2 sec. is
(A) 22 C (B) 20 C (C) 18 C (D) 5C

Answer : (A)
Ques 297. If the charge on a capacitor is increased by 2 coulomb, the energy stored in it
increases by 21%. The original charge on the capacitor is
(A) 10 C (B) 20 C (C) 30 C (D) 40 C

Answer : (B)

Ques 298. A electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° to a non-uniform electric field. The
dipole will experience

(a) a torque only

(b) a translational force only in the direction of the field

(c) a translational force only in a direction normal to the direction of the field

(d) a torque as well as a translational force

Answer : (d) a torque as well as a translational force

Ques 299. A material ‘B’ has twice the specific resistance of ‘A’. A circular wire made of ‘B’
has twice the diameter of a wire made of ‘A’. Then for the two wires to have the same
resistance, the ratio A / B of their respective lengths must be

(a) 2

(b) ½

(c) 4

(d) 1/3

Answer (a) 2

Ques 300. Metals are good conductors of electricity because

A. they contain free electrons

B. the atoms are lightly packed

C. they have high melting point

D. All of the above

Answer: Option A
Ques 301. Point A is at a lower electrical potential than point B. An electron between
them on the line joining them will
A. move towards A

B. move towards B

C. move at right angles to the line joining A and B

D. remain at rest

Answer: Option B

Ques 302. One should not connect a number of electrical appliances to the same power
socket because

A. this can damage the appliances due to overloading

B. this can damage the domestic wiring due to overloading

C. this can damage the electrical meter

D. the appliance will not get full voltage

Answer: Option B

Ques 303. A 5 µF capacitor is connected in series with a 10 µF capacitor. When a 300 Volt
potential difference is applied across this combination, the energy stored in the capacitors is

(A) 15 J (B) 1.5 J (C) 0.15 J (D) 0.10 J

Answer : (C)

Ques 304. A charge q is placed at one corner of a cube. The electric flux through any of the
three faces adjacent to the charge is zero. The flux through any one of the other three faces
is

(A) q / 3 ∈0

(B) q / 6 ∈0

(C) q / 12 ∈0
 (D) q / 24 ∈0

Answer : (D)

Ques 305. Three capacitors, 3μF, 6μF and 6μF are connected in series to a source of 120V.
The potential difference, in volts, across the 3μF capacitor will be

(A) 24 (B) 30 (C) 40 (D) 60

Answer : (D)

Ques 306. A galvanometer having internal resistance 10Ω requires 0.01 A for a full scale
deflection. To convert this galvanometer to a voltmeter of full-scale deflection at 120V, we
need to connect a resistance of

(A) 11990 Ω in series

(B) 11990 Ω in parallel

(C) 12010 Ω in series

(D) 12010 Ω in parallel

Answer : (A)

Ques 307. A parallel plate capacitor is charged an then disconnected from the charging
battery. If the plates are now moved farther apart by pulling at them by means of insulating
handles, then

(A) the energy stored in the capacitor decreases

(B) the capacitance of the capacitor increases

(C) the charge on the capacitor decreases

(D) the voltage across the capacitor increases

Answer : (D)

Ques 308. Four cells, each of emf E and intern l resistance r, are connected in series across
an external resistance R. By mistake one of the cells is connected in reverse. Then the
current in the external circuit is
 (A) 2E/ ( 4r + R)

(B) 3E/ ( 4r + R )

(C) 3E/ ( 3r + R)

(D) 2E/ ( 3r + R)

Ans wer : (A)

Ques 309. An alternating current in a circuit is given by I = 20 sin (100πt + 0.05π) A. The
r.m.s. value and the frequency of current respectively are

(A) 10A & 100 Hz

(B) 10A & 50 Hz

(C) 10 √2 A & 50Hz

(D) 10 √2 A & 100 Hz

Answer : C

Ques 310. Two point charges repel each other with a force of 100 N. One of the charges is
increased by 10% and other is reduced by 10%. The new force of repulsion at the same
distance would be ........ N.

(A) 121 (B) 100 (C) 99 (D) 89

Answer : (C)

Ques 311. An electric circuit requires a total capacitance of 2µF across a potential of 1000
V. Large number of 1µF capacitances are available each of which would breakdown if the
potential is more then 350 V. How many capacitances are required to make the circuit ?

(A) 24 (B) 12 (C) 20 (D) 18

Answer : (D)

Ques 312. A parallel plate air capacitor has a capacitance C. When it is half filled with a
dielectric of dielectric constant 5, the percentage increase in the capacitance will be
(A) 200 % (B) 33.3 % (C) 400 % (D) 66.6 %

Answer : (D)

Ques 313. Two metal plate form a parallel plate capacitor. The distance between the plates
is d. A metal sheet of thickness d/2 and of the same area is introduced between the plates.
What is the ratio of the capacitance in the two cases ?

(A) 4 : 1 (B) 3 : 1 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 5 : 1

Answer : (C)

Ques 314. Two spherical conductors A and B of radii 1mm and 2mm are separated by a
distance of 5mm and are uniformly charged. If the spheres are connected by a conducting
wire then in equilibrium condition, the ratio of the magnitude of the electric fields at the
surfaces of sphere of A and B is

(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 4

Answer : (B)

Ques 315. Alternating current can not be measured by dc ammeter because

(a) ac cannot pass through dc ammeter

(b) Average value of complete cycle is zero

(c) ac is virtual

(d) ac changes its direction

Answer: (B)

Ques 316. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor would be decreased by...

A. increasing the separation of the plates

B. increasing the area of overlap of the plates

C. replacing the air between the plates by paper

D. replacing the air between the plates by mica

Answer: (A)

Ques 317. A piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room
temperature to 80K. The resistance of...

A. each of them increases

B. each of them decreases

C. copper increases and germanium decreases

D. copper decreases and germanium increases

Answer: (D)

Ques 318. When a slab of insulating material is introduced in a capacitor, its capacitance

A. becomes zero

B. decreases considerably

C. increases considerably

D. does not change

Answer: (C)

Ques 319. A 50-V battery is connected across a 10-ohm resistor and a current of 4.5 A
flows. The internal resistance of the battery is...

A. 0

B. 0.5 ohm

C. 1.1 ohm

D. 5 ohm

Answer: (C)

Ques 320. 30. In an LCR series circuit Q-factor is given by...

 A. 1/√LC

B. √(L/C)

C. (1/R).√(L/C)

D. R/(√LC)

Answer: (C)

Ques 321. Which of the following combinations of length(l) and cross-sectional area(A) will
give a certain volume of copper the least resistance?

A. l and A

B. 2l and A/2

C. l/2 and 2A

D. none

Answer: (C)

Ques 322. When the voltage are in phase in an a.c. circuit...

A. impedance is zero

B. reactance is zero

C. resistance is zero

D. phase angle is 90°

Answer: (B)

Ques 323. The potential energy of a charged capacitor(charge=Q, potential difference=V,

capacitance=C) is not represented by...

A. QV/2

B. CV2/2

C. Q2/2C
 D. CQ2/2

Answer: (D)

Ques 324. The voltage lags behind the current by 1/4 cycle in...

A. a pure capacitor

B. a pure inductor

C. a pure resistor

D. a circuit with capacitance and inductance

Answer: (A)

Ques 325. A fuse is rated at 10 A. In an A.C. circuit, the maximum instantaneous current it
could handle would be about...
A. 7 A

B. 10 A

C. 14 A

D. 20 A

Answer: (C)

Ques 326. A hollow insulated brass sphere is positively charged. The electric potential
inside the sphere is...

A. zero

B. greater than the potential at the surface

C. smaller than the potential at the surface

D. the same as that on the surface

Answer: (D)

Ques 327. When capacitors are in parallel...

A. they are all at the same potential

 B. they are at different potentials

C. their capacitances are equal

D. the equivalent capacitance is zero

Answer: (A)

Ques 328. Impedance is a maximum at resonance in...

A. a series RLC circuit

B. a parallel RLC circuit

C. all RLC circuits

D. no RLC circuit

Answer: (B)

Ques 329. A charge Q is divided into two parts and then they are placed at a fixed distance.
The force between the two charges is always maximum when the charges are…………

(A) Q/3, 2Q/3

(B) Q/2, Q/2
(C) Q/4, 3Q/4
(D) Q/5, 4Q/5

Answer: (B)

Ques 330. Two point charges repel each other with a force of 100N. One of the charges is
increased by 10% and other is reduced by 10%. The new force of repulsion at the same
distance would be……….N

(A) 121
(B) 100
(C) 99
(D) 89

Answer: (C)
Ques 331. Three charges 2q, -q, -q are located at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. At
the center of the triangle

(A) The field is zero but potential is non zero

(B) The field is non zero but potential is zero
(C) Both field and potential are zero
(D) Both field and potential are non zero.

Answer: (B)

Ques 332. Two positive point charges of 12 c and 8 c are 10 cm apart each other. The work
done in bringing them 4 cm closer is

(A) 5.8 J
(B) 13eV
(C) 5.8 eV
(D) 13 J

Answer: (D)

Ques 333. Two electric charges 12 c and -6 c are placed 20 cm apart in air. There will be a
Point P on the line joining these charges and outside the region between them, at which the
electric potential is zero. The distance of P from -6c charge is…….

(A) 0.20 m
(B) 0.10 m
(C) 0.25 m
(D) 0.15 m

Answer: (A)

Ques 334. Point charges q1= 2 c and q2= -1 c are kept at points x=0 and x=6 repectively.
Electrical potential will be zero at points……….

(A) x=-2, x=2

(B) x=1, x=5
(C) x=4, x=12
(D) x=2, x=9
Answer: (C)

Ques 335. Two parallel plate capacitors have their plate areas 110 and 500 cm2
respectively. If they have the same charge and potential and the distance between the
plates of first capacitor is 9.5 mm, what is the distance between the plates of the second
capacitor?

(A) 0.25 cm
(B) 0.50 cm
(C) 0.75 cm
(D) 1 cm

Answer: (A)

Ques 336. The effective capacitances of two capacitors are 3µF and 16 µF when they are
connected in series and parallel respectively. The capacitance of each capacitor is

(A) 2µF, 14µF

(B) 4µF, 12µF
(C) 6µF, 8µF
(D) 10µ F, 6µF

Answer: (C)

Ques 337. Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor becomes 4/3 times its original value if a
dielectric slab of thickness t=d/2 is inserted between the plates. ( d is the separation
between the plates). The dielectric constant of the slab is

(A) 8
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 2

Answer: (D)

Ques 338. The plates of a parallel capacitor are charged up to 100 V. If 2 mm thick plate is
inserted between the plates, then to maintain the same potential difference, the distance
between the capacitor plates is increased by 1.6mm. The dielectric constant of the plate is
 (A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 1.25
(D) 2.5

Answer: (A)

Ques 339. A parallel plate air capacitor has a capacitance 18µF. If the distance between the
plates is tripled and a dielectric medium is introduced, the capacitance becomes 72 µF. The
dielectric constant of the medium is

(A) 4
(B) 12
(C) 9
(D) 2

Answer: (B)

Ques 340. The capacitors of capacitance 4µF, 6µF and 12 µF are connected first in series
and then in parallel. What is the ratio of equivalent capacitance in the two cases?

(A) 2:3
(B) 11:1
(C) 1:11
(D) 1:3

Answer: (C)

Ques 341. A battery is used to charge a parallel plate capacitor till the potential difference
between the plates becomes equal to the EMF of the battery. The ratio of the energy stored
in the capacitor and work done by the battery will be

(A) ½
(B) 2/1
(C) 1
(D) ¼
Answer: (A)

Ques 342. Two spherical conductors A and B of radii 1mm and 2mm are separated by a
distance of 5mm and are uniformly charged. If the spheres are connected by a conducting
wire then in equilibrium condition the ratio of the magnitude of the electric fields at the
surfaces of sphere A and B is

(A) 1:2
(B) 2:1
(C) 4:1
(D) 1:4

Answer: (B)

Ques 343. A parallel plate air capacitor has a capacitance C. When it is half filled with a
dielectric of constant 5, the percentage increase in the capacitance will be

(A) 200%
(B) 33.3%
(C) 400%
(D) 66.6%

Answer: (D)

Ques 344. Find the equivalent capacitance of the system across the terminals A and B. All
the capacitors have equal capacitances

(A) 2C
(B) 4C
(C) 3C
(D) 5C
Answer: (A)

Ques 345. For the circuit shown in the figure, the charge on 4µF capacitor is

(A) 20 c
(B) 40 c
(C) 30 c
(D) 54 c

Answer: (B)

Ques 346. In the arrangement of capacitors shown in the figure, each capacitor is of 9µF,
then the equivalent capacitance between the points A and B is

(A) 18 µF
(B) 9 µF
(C) 15 µF
(D) 4.5 µF

Answer: (C)

Ques 347. For circuit equivalent capacitance between points p and Q is

 (A) 6C
(B) 4C
(C) 3C/2
(D) 6C/11

Answer: (D)

Ques 348. A network of 6 identical capacitors, each of value C is made as shown in figure.
Equivalent capacitance between points A and B is

(A) C/4
(B) 3C/4
(C) 4C/3
(D) 3C

Answer: (C)

Ques 349. Two different lops are concentric and lie in the same plane. The current in outer
loop is clockwise and increasing with time. The induced current in the inner loop is……….

(A) Clockwise
(B) Zero
(C) Anti clockwise
(D) Direction depends on the rtio of loop radius

Answer: (C)

Ques 350. A bar magnet is moving along the common axis of two coils A & B. Current is
induced in
 (A) Only in A
(B) Only in B
(C) Both in A & B in same direction
(D) Both in A & B in opposite direction

Answer: (D)

Ques 351. Two circular loops carry equal currents in the same direction. On moving the
coils further apart the electric current will

(A) Remain unchanged

(B) Increasing in both
(C) Increasing in one decreasing in other
(D) Decreasing in both

Answer: (B)

Ques 352. When the number of turns in a coil made four times without any change in
length of the coil, its self inductance becomes

(A) Unchanged
(B) Two times
(C) Four times
(D) Sixteen times

Answer: (D)

Ques 353. The self inductance of a straight conductor is……

(A) Zero
(B) Very large
(C) Very small
(D) Infinite
Answer: (A)

Ques 354. Two coils of self inductances 2mH and 8mH are placed so close together that the
effective flux in one coil is completely half with the other. The mutual inductance between
these coils is……..

(A) 4mH
(B) 4mH
(C) 2mH
(D) 16mH

Answer: (C)

Ques 355. In circular coil when number of turns are doubled and resistance becomes half of
the initial then inductance becomes………

(A) 4 times
(B) 2 times
(C) 8 times
(D) No change

Answer: (A)

Ques 356. The armature of DC motor has 20 ohm resistance. It draws current of 1.5 A when
run by 220 V dc supply. The value of back emf induced in it will be

(A) 150V
(B) 190V
(C) 170V
(D) 180v

Answer: (B)

Ques 357. Two identical circular loops of metal wire are lying on a table near to each other
without touching. Loop A carries a current which is increasing with time. In response the
loop B……………

(A) Is repelled by Loop A

(B) Is attracted by Loop A
 (C) Rotates about its center of mass
(D) Remains stationery

Answer: (A)

Ques 358. The self inductance of a coil is 5H, a current of 1A changes to 2A within 5 sec.
through the coil. The value if induced emf will be

(A) 10 V
(B) 0.1 V
(C) 1 V
(D) 100 V

Answer: (C)

Ques 359. A coil of inductance 300 mH and resistance 2 ohm is connected to a source of
voltage 2V. The current reaches half of its steady state value in……..

(A) 0.15 sec

(B) 0.3 sec
(C) 0.05 sec
(D) 0.1 sec

Answer: (D)

Ques 360. In transformer, core is made of soft iron to reduce ……..

(A) Hysteresis loss

(B) Eddy current losses
(C) Force opposing current
(D) The weight

Answer: (C)

Ques 361. A primary winding of transformer has 500 turns whereas its secondary has 5000
turns. Primary is connected to ac supply of 20V, 50Hz. The output of secondary is………

(A) 200 V, 25 Hz
 (B) 200 V , 50 Hz
(C) 2 V, 100 Hz
(D) 2 V, 50 Hz

Answer: (B)

Ques 362. A step down transformer is connected to main supply 200 V to operate a 6V, 30
w, bulb. The current in primary is……

(A) 3A
(B) 1.5 A
(C) 0.3 A
(D) 0.15 A

Answer: (B)

Ques 363. AC current cannot be measured by DC ammeter because…..

(A) AC cannot pass through DC ammeter

(B) Average value of complete cycle is zero
(C) AC is virtual
(D) AC changes its direction

Answer: (B)

Ques 364. An AC of rms value 10 A is passed through a 12 ohm resistance. The maximum
potential difference across the resistor is:

(A) 20 V
(B) 90 V
(C) 169.68 V
(D) None of these

Answer: (C)

Ques 365. A lamp consumes only 50% of peak power in an ac circuit. What is the phase
difference between the applied voltage and the current in the circuit?
 (A) π/6
(B) π/3
(C) π/4
(D) π/2

Answer: (B)

Ques 366. A choke coil has

(A) High inductance and low resistance

(B) Low inductance and high resistance
(C) High inductance and high resistance
(D) Low inductance and low resistance

Answer: (A)

Ques 367. A resistor and a capacitor are connected in series with an AC source. If the
potential drop across the capacitor is 5 V and that across resistor is 12 V, the applied voltage
is

(A) 13 V
(B) 17 V
(C) 5 V
(D) 12 V

Answer: (A)

Ques 368. Same current is flowing in two AC circuits. The first circuit contains only
inductance and the other contains only a capacitor. If the frequency of the emf of ac is
increased the effect on the value of the current will be..

(A) Increase in the first circuit and decrease in the other

(B) Increase in both the circuits
(C) Decrease in both the circuits
(D) Decrease in the first and increase in other

Answer: (D)

Ques 369. A 20 volts AC is applied to a circuit consisting of a resistance and a coil with
 negligible resistance. If the voltage across resistance is 12 V, the voltage across the coil is :

(A) 16 v
(B) 10 v
(C) 8 v
(D) 6 v

Answer: (A)

Ques 370. An alternating voltage E=200√2 sin (100t) is connected to 1 microfarad capacitor
through an as ammeter. The reading of the ammeter shall be……..

(A) 10 mA
(B) 20 mA
(C) 40 mA
(D) 80 mA

Answer: (B)

Ques 371. The impedance of a circuit consists of 3 ohm resistance and 4 ohm reactance.
The power factor of the circuit is

(A) 0.4
(B) 0.6
(C) 0.8
(D) 1

Answer: (B)

Ques 372. The power factor of a good choke coil is

(A) Nearly zero

(B) Exactly zero
(C) Nearly one
(D) Exactly one

Answer: (A)
Ques 373. For high frequency a capacitor offers

(A) More reactance

(B) Less reactance
(C) Zero reactance
(D) Infinite reactance

Answer: (B)

Ques 374. The coil of a choke in a circuit

(A) Increase the current

(B) Decrease the current
(C) Does not change the current’
(D) Has high resistance to ac circuit

Answer: (B)

Ques 375. In a LCR circuit capacitance changed from C to 2C. For the resonant frequency to
remain unchanged, the inductance should be changed from L to

(A) 4L
(B) 2L
(C) L/2
(D) L/4

Answer: (C)

Ques 376. In an LCR series AC circuit the voltage across each of the components L,C and R is
50 V. The voltage across the LC combination will be

(A) 50 V
(B) 70 V
(C) 100 V
(D) ZERO

Answer: (D)
Ques 377. A coil of inductive reactance 31 ohm has a resistance of 8 ohm. It is placed in
series with a condenser of capacitive reactance 25 ohm. The combination is connected to an
AC source of 110 v. The power factor of the circuit is

(A) 0.8
(B) 0.33
(C) 0.56
(D) 0.64

Answer: (A)

Ques 378. Length of the wire of resistance R ohm is increased to 10 times, so its resistance
becomes 1000 ohm. Therefore R=……? (The volume of the wire remains same during
increase in length.)

(A) 0.01 ohm

(B) 0.1 ohm
(C) 1 ohm
(D) 10 ohm

Answer: (D)

Ques 379. Two batteries each of emf 2V and internal resistance 1 ohm are connected in
series to a resistor R. Maximum possible power consumed by the resistor =……..

(A) 3.2 w
(B) 16/9 w
(C) 8/9 w
(D) 2 w

Answer: (D)

Ques 380. Two wires of the same metal have same length but their cross sections are in the
ratio 3:1. They are joined in series. The resistance of the thicker wire is 10 ohm. The total
resistance of the combination will be…….

(A) 40
(B) 40/3
 (C) 5/2
(D) 100

Answer: (A)

Ques 381. A wire of length L is drawn such that its diameter is reduced to half of its original
diameter. If the resistance of the wire were 10 ohm, its new resistance would be…

(A) 40 ohm
(B) 60 ohm
(C) 120 ohm
(D) 160 ohm

Answer: (D)

Ques 382. A parallel combination of three resistors takes a current of 7.5 A from a 30 V
supply. If the two resistors are 10 ohm and 12 ohm, find the value of third one in ohm.

(A) 4
(B) 15
(C) 12
(D) 2

Answer: (B)

Ques 383. Two resistors when connected in parallel have an equivalent of 2ohm and when
in series of 9ohm. The value of two resistors are

(A) 2,9
(B) 3,6
(C) 4,5
(D) 2,7

Answer: (B)

Ques 384. How would you arrange 48 cells each of emf 2V and internal resistance 1.5 ohm
so as to pass maximum current through the external resistance of 2 ohm
 (A) 2 cells in 24 groups
(B) 4 cells in 12 groups
(C) 8 cells in 6 groups
(D) 3 cells in 16 groups

Answer: (C)

Ques 385. How many dry cells, each of emf 1.5 V and internal resistance 0.5 ohm, must be
joined in series with a resistor of 20 ohm to give a current of 0.6 A in the circuit

(A) 2
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 12

Answer: (C)

Ques 386. Two electric bulbs whose resistances are in the ratio of 1:2 are connected in
parallel to a constant voltage source. The power dissipated in them have the ratio:

(A) 1:2
(B) 1:1
(C) 2:1
(D) 1:4

Answer: (C)

Ques 387. Two electric bulbs whose resistances are in the ratio of 1:2 are connected in
series to a constant voltage source. The power dissipated in them have the ratio:

(E) 1:2
(F) 1:1
(G) 2:1
(H) 1:4

Answer: (A)

Ques 388. An electric kettle has two coils. When one of them is switched on, the water in
the kettle boils in 6 minutes. When the other one is switched on water boils in 3 minutes. If
 the two coils are connected in series, the time taken to boil water in the kettle is :

(A) 3 minutes
(B) 6 minutes
(C) 2 minutes
(D) 9 minutes

Answer: (D)

Ques 389. An electric kettle has two coils. When one of them is switched on, the water in
the kettle boils in 6 minutes. When the other one is switched on water boils in 3 minutes. If
the two coils are connected in parallel, the time taken to boil water in the kettle is :

(E) 3 minutes
(F) 6 minutes
(G) 2 minutes
(H) 9 minutes

Answer: (C)

Ques 390. Two heater wires of equal length are first connected in series and then in
parallel. The ratio of heat produced in the two cases is

(A) 2:1
(B) 1:2
(C) 4:1
(D) 1:4

Answer: (D)

Ques 391. Masses of three conductors of same material are in proportion of 1:2:3 and their
lengths are in the proportion 3:2:1 then their resistance will be in the proportion of

(A) 1:1:1
(B) 1:2:3
(C) 9:4:1
(D) 27:6:1
Answer: (D)

Ques 392. Resistance of a wire at 500C is 5 ohm, and at 1000C it is 6 ohm. Find its resistance
at 00C.

(A) 4 ohm
(B) 3 ohm
(C) 2 ohm
(D) 1 ohm

Answer: (A)

Ques 393. 4 cells each of emf 2V and internal resistance of 1 ohm are connected in parallel
to a load resistor of 2 ohm. Then the current through the load resistor is.

(A) 2 A
(B) 1.5 A
(C) 1 A
(D) 0.888 A

Answer: (D)

Ques 394. Two electric bulbs are marked 25W-220V and 100W-220V are connected in
series to a 440V supply. Which of the bulbs will fuse?

(A) 100 W
(B) 25 W
(C) None
(D) Both

Answer: (B)

Ques 395. In the circuit shown in the figure current I 2 = 0. The value of E is……..
 (A) 3V
(B) 6V
(C) 9V
(D) 12V

Answer: (D)

Ques 396. In the circuit shown in figure the reading of ammeter is………

(A) 1A
(B) 2A
(C) 3A
(D) 4A

Answer: (A)

Ques 397. In figure the galvanometer shows no deflection. What is the resistance X?

(A) 7 ohm
(B) 14 ohm
 (C) 21 ohm
(D) 28 ohm

Answer: (D)

Ques 398. Figure shows a network of eight resistors numbered 1 to 8, each eaqual to 2
ohm, connected to a 3V battery of negligible internal resistance. The current I in the circuit
is?

(A) 0.25A
(B) 0.5A
(C) 0.75A
(D) 1.0A

Answer: (D)

Ques 399. Seven resistors each of resistance 5 Ohm are connected as shown in the figure.
The equivalent resistance between points A and B is…….
 (A) 1 ohm
(B) 7 ohm
(C) 3 ohm
(D) 49 ohm

Answer: (B)

Ques 400. Figure, shows a network of seven resistors number 1 to 7 each equal to 1 Ohm,
connected to a 4V battery of negligible internal resistance. The current I in the circuit
is…………

(A) 0.5 A
(B) 1.5 A
(C) 2.0 A
(D) 3.5 A

Answer: (D)

Ques 401. In the circuit shown in figure, the effective resistance between A and B is………
 (A) R/2
(B) R
(C) 2R
(D) 4R

Answer: (A)

Ques 402. Eight cells marked 1 to 8, each of EMF 5V and internal resistance 0.2 ohm are
connected as shown in figure. What is the reading of the ideal voltmeter V ?

(A) 40 V
(B) 20 V
(C) 5 V
(D) ZERO

Answer: (D)

Ques 403. The potential difference through the 3 Ohm resistor shown in the figure is…..

(A) Zero
(B) 1V
(C) 3.5 V
(D) 7 V
Answer: (A)

Ques 404. Calculate net resistance between A and B

(A) 4r/5
(B) 5r/2
(C) 4r
(D) 5r/4

Answer: (A)

Ques 405. Calculate net resistance between A and B

(A) 2 r
(B) 3 r
(C) r/2
(D) r

Answer: (D)

Ques 406. Calculate net resistance between A and B

 (A) 3 Ohm
(B) 1/3 Ohm
(C) 5 Ohm
(D) 1/5 Ohm

Answer: (C)

Ques 407. Calculate net resistance between A and B

(A) 6 Ohm
(B) 10 Ohm
(C) 9 Ohm
(D) 4 Ohm

Answer: (B)

Ques 408. Calculate net resistance between A and B

 (A) 10 Ohm
(B) 30 Ohm
(C) 25 Ohm
(D) 1/25 Ohm

Answer: (B)

Ques 409. Calculate net resistance between A and B

(A) 3 Ohm
(B) 1/3 Ohm
(C) 2 Ohm
(D) ½ Ohm

Answer: (C)

Ques 410. What is the equivalent resistance across the terminals A and B ?
 (A) 15r/7
(B) 7r/15
(C) 15r/14
(D) 8r/15

Answer: (C)

Ques 411. What is the P.D. between the terminals A and B

(A) 12 V
(B) 24 V
(C) 36 V
(D) 48 V

Answer: (B)

Ques 412. In the circuit shown, the current sources are of negligible internal resistances.
What is the potential difference between the points B and A ?

(A) – 4 V
(B) 4 V
(C) - 8 V
(D) 8 V
Answer: (B)

Ques 413. What is the potential across the points A and B ?

(A) 0.9 V
(B) 1.1 V
(C) 1.3 V
(D) 0.7 V

Answer: (B)

Ques 414. Six resistors of 3 Ohm each are connected and three resistors of 6 Ohm each are
connected as shown in the figure. The equivalent resistance between A and B is equal to……

(A) 3 Ohm
(B) 9 Ohm
(C) 2 Ohm
(D) 16 Ohm

Answer: (C)

Ques 415. The total resistance between the points A and B for the circuit shown in the
 below figure is……

(A) 0 Ohm
(B) 15 Ohm
(C) 30 Ohm
(D) 100 Ohm

Answer: (A)

Ques 416. The effective resistance between points A and B is……..

(A) R
(B) R/3
(C) 2R/3
(D) 3R/5

Answer: (C)

Ques 417. The given figure shows an infinite ladder network of resistances. The equivalent
resistance between points A and B is……
 (A) Infinite
(B) 3.73 Ohm
(C) 2.73 Ohm
(D) 2/3 Ohm

Answer: (C)

Ques 418. In the arrangement of resistances shown in the figure, the potential difference
between B and D will be zero when the unknown resistance X is…….

(A) 4 Ohm
(B) 2 Ohm
(C) 3 Ohm
(D) 6 Ohm

Answer: (B)

Ques 419. In given circuit total power consumed is 150 Watts. Then value of R =
 (A) 2 Ohm
(B) 6 Ohm
(C) 5 Ohm
(D) 4 Ohm

Answer: (B)

Ques 420. In the figure all the seven resistances joined in the circuit have a value of 5 Ohm
each. The equivalent resistance of AB is…….

(A) 35 Ohm
(B) 25 Ohm
(C) 7 Ohm
(D) 15 Ohm

Answer: (C)

Ques 421. If power dissipated in 5 Ohm resistor is 20 Watts, then power dissipated across 4
Ohm resistor will be……..

(A) 1 W
 (B) 2 W
(C) 3 W
(D) 4 W

Answer: (D)

Ques 422. A current of 3 A flows from A to B through the wire shown in figure. If the
potential at A is 45 V, then the potential at B will be…….

(A) 17 V
(B) 9 V
(C) 12 V
(D) 6 V

Answer: (A)

Ques 423. Find the equivalent resistance across AB

(A) 1 Ohm
(B) 2 Ohm
(C) 3 Ohm
(D) 4 Ohm

Answer: (A)
Ques 424. Two coils of self inductances 6mH and 8mH are connected in series and are
adjusted for highest co-efficient of coupling. Equivalent self inductance L for the assembly
is approximately

(A) 50 mH (B) 36 mH (C) 28 mH (D) 18 mH

Answer : (C)

Ques 425. At a certain place, the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is √3
times the vertical component. The angle of dip at that place is

(A) 30° (B) 60° (C) 45° (D) 90°

Answer : (A)

Ques 426. Magnetic field intensity H at the centre of a circular loop of radius r carrying
current I e.m.u is

(A) r/I oersted (B) 2nI/r oersted (C) I/2nr oersted (D) 2nr/I oersted

Answer : (B)

Ques 427. The dimension of magnetic field in M, L, T and C (Coulomb) is given as

(a) MLT−1C−1

(b) MT2C−2

(c) MT−1C−1

(d) MT−2C−1

Answer (c) MT−1C−1

Ques 428. In a region, steady and uniform electric and magnetic fields are present. These
two fields are parallel to each other. A charged particle is released from rest in this region.
The path of the particle will be a

(a) circle
 (b) helix

(c) straight line

(d) ellipse

Answer : (c) straight line

Ques 429. Large transformers, when used for some time, become very hot and are cooled
by circulating oil. The heating of the transformer is due to
A. The heating effect of current alone

B. Hysteresis loss alone

C. Both the heating effect of current and hysteresis loss

D. Intense sunlight at noon

Answer: Option C

Ques 430. Magnetism at the centre of a bar magnet is

A. minimum

B. maximum

C. zero

D. minimum or maximum

Answer: Option C

Ques 431. Inside a solenoid, the magnetic field...

A. is zero

B. is uniform

C. increases with distance from the axis

D. decreases with distance from the axis

Answer: Option B

Ques 432. Inductance is an opposition to...

 A. increasing current

B. decreasing current

C. both increasing current and decreasing current

D. anything but current

Answer: Option C

Ques 433. The sensitiveness of a moving-coil galvanometer can be increased by...

A. increasing the number of turns of the coil

B. decreasing the number of turns of the coil

C. decreasing the area of the coil

D. none of the above

Answer: Option A

Ques 434. A current of 5 A passes along a wire of length 1.0 m. the wire is at right angles
to a magnetic field of flux density of 0.15 T. The force acting on the wire is...

A. 0

B. 0.03 N

C. 0.75 N

D. 33 N

Answer: Option C

Ques 435. The self inductance of a long solenoid is directly affected by changes in all but...

A. the number of turns

B. the current

C. the area of cross section

 D. the relative permeability of the core

Answer: Option B

Ques 436. The magnitude of the field within a conductor...

A. depends on the shape of the conductor

B. is always zero

C. is always positive

D. may be zero or positive

Answer: Option B

Ques 437. A permanent magnet does not exert force on...

A. an unmagnetized iron bar

B. a magnetized iron bar

C. a stationary electric charge

D. a moving electric charge

Answer: Option C

Ques 438. A transformer uses the principle of...

A. self-induction

B. mutual induction

C. variable resistance

D. electrostatic attraction

Answer: Option B

Ques 439. The magnitude of the magnetic field B at a point on the axis near the centre of
the infinitely long solenoid having n turns per unit length and carrying a current I is given
by...
 A. μ 0 nI

B. μ 0 I/n

C. (μ 0 nI)/4π

D. μ 0 I/4πn

Answer: Option A

Ques 440. The impedance of a circuit does not depend on...

A. f

B. I

C. C

D. R

Answer: Option B

Ques 441. The origin of all magnetic fields lies in...

A. atoms of iron

B. magnetic domains

C. moving charges

D. permanent magnets

Answer: Option C

Ques 442. Eddy currents can be of use in...

A. dynamo armatures

B. moving coil galvanometers

C. transformer cores
 D. all of the above.

Answer: Option B

Ques 443. The field at any point on the surface of the conductor is...

A. zero

B. parallel to the surface

C. perpendicular to the surface

D. neither parallel nor perpendicular to the surface

Answer: Option C

Ques 444. A magnetic iron bar is strongly heated. Its magnetic field...

A. becomes stronger

B. becomes weaker

C. reverses its direction

D. does not change

Answer: Option B

Ques 445. The strength of magnetic field at a point y near a long straight current carrying
wire is B. the field at a distance y/2 will be…………….

(A) B/2
(B) B/4
(C) 2B
(D) 4B

Answer: (C)

Ques 446. The direction of magnetic field lines close to a straight conductor carrying
current will be ……………
 (A) Along the length of the conductor
(B) Radially outward
(C) Circular in plane perpendicular to the conductor
(D) Helical

Answer: (C)

Ques 447. For a magnetic field to be maximum due to a small element of current carrying
conductor at a point, the angle between the element and the line joining the element to
the given point must be

(A) 0 degree
(B) 90 degree
(C) 180 degree
(D) 45 degree

Answer: (B)

Ques 448. When the current flowing in a circular coil is doubled and the number of turns
of the coil in it is halved, the magnetic field at its center will become

(A) Four times

(B) Same
(C) Half
(D) Double

Answer: (B)

Ques 449. The forces existing between two parallel current carrying conductors is F. If the
current in each conductor is doubled, then the value of force will be

(A) 2F
(B) 4F
(C) 5F
(D) F/2
Answer: (B)

Ques 450. A magnet of magnetic moment M and pole strength m is divided in two equal
parts. Then magnetic moment of each part will be

(A) M
(B) M/2
(C) M/4
(D) 2M

Answer: (B)

Ques 451. If a magnet of pole strength m divided into 4 parts such that the length and
width of each part is half that of initial one, then the pole strength of each part will be

(A) m/4
(B) m/2
(C) m/8
(D) 4m

Answer: (B)

Ques 452. The magnetism of magnet is due to

(A) The spin motion of electron

(B) Earth
(C) Pressure inside the earth core region
(D) Cosmic rays

Answer: (A)

Ques 453. In case of bar magnet, line of magnetic induction

 (A) Start from north pole and end at the south pole
(B) Run continuously through the bar and outside
(C) Emerge in circular paths from the middle of the bar
(D) Are produced only at the north pole like rays of light from a bulb

Answer: (B)

Ques 454. A small bar magnet of moment M is placed in a uniform field of H. If magnet
makes an angle of 30 degree with field, the torque acting on the magnet is

(A) MH
(B) MH/2
(C) MH/3
(D) MH/4

Answer: (B)

Ques 455. In the case of bar magnet, lines of magnetic induction

(a) Start from the north pole and end at the south pole

(b) Run continuously through the bar and outside

(c) Emerge in circular paths from the middle of the bar

(d) Are produced only at the north pole like rays of light from a bulb

Answer : (B)

Ques 456. Points A and B are situated perpendicular to the axis of a 2cm long bar magnet
at large distances X and 3X from its centre on opposite sides. The ratio of the magnetic
fields at A and B will be approximately equal to

(a) 1:9 (b) 2:9

(c) 27 : 1 (d) 9:1

Answer : (C)
Ques 457. A long magnet is cut in two parts in such a way that the ratio of their lengths is
2 : 1. The ratio of pole strengths of both the section is

(a) Equal (b) In the ratio of 2 : 1

(c) In the ratio of 1 : 2 (d) In the ratio of 4 : 1

Answer : (A)

Ques 458. What happens to the force between magnetic poles when their pole strength
and the distance between them are both doubled

(a) Force increases to two times the previous value

(b) No change

(c) Force decreases to half the previous value

(d) Force increases to four times the previous value

Answer : (B)

Ques 459. A small bar magnet of moment M is placed in a uniform field H. If magnet
makes an angle of 30° with field, the torque acting on the magnet is
(a) MH (b) MH/2

(c) MH/3 (d) MH/4

Answer : (B)

Ques 460. If a hole is made at the centre of a bar magnet, then its magnetic moment will

(a) Increase (b) Decrease

(c) Not change (d) None of these

Answer : (C)

Ques 461. A magnet of magnetic moment M is rotated through 360° in a magnetic field H,
the work done will be
 (a) MH (b) 2MH

(c) 2πMH (d) Zero

Answer : (D)

Ques 462. The direction of line of magnetic field of bar magnet is

(a) From south pole to north pole

(b) From north pole to south pole

(c) Across the bar magnet

(d) From south pole to north pole inside the magnet and from north pole to south pole
outside the magnet

Answer : (D)

Ques 463. Magnetic lines of force due to a bar magnet do not intersect because

(a) A point always has a single net magnetic field

(b) The lines have similar charges and so repel each other

(c) The lines always diverge from a single point

(d) The lines need magnetic lenses to be made to intersect

Answer : (A)

Ques 464. For protecting a sensitive equipment from the external magnetic field, it should
be

(a) Placed inside an aluminium cane

(b) Placed inside an iron cane

(c) Wrapped with insulation around it when passing current through it

(d) Surrounded with fine copper sheet

Answer : (B)

Ques 465. The magnet can be completely demagnetized by

(a) Breaking the magnet into small pieces

(b) Heating it slightly

(c) Droping it into ice cold water

(d) A reverse field of appropriate strength

Answer : (D)

Ques 466. Two like magnetic poles of strength 10 and 40 SI units are separated by a
distance 30 cm. The intensity of magnetic field is zero on the line joining them

(a) At a point 10 cm from the stronger pole

(b) At a point 20 cm from the stronger pole

(c) At the mid-point

(d) At infinity

Answer : (B)

Ques 467. The intensity of magnetic field is H and moment of magnet is M. The maximum
potential energy is

(a) MH (b) 2 MH

(c) 3 MH (d) 4 MH

Answer : (A)

Ques 468. A bar magnet is held perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field. If the couple
acting on the magnet is to be halved by rotating it, then the angle by which it is to be
rotated is

(a) 30o (b) 45o

 (c) 60o (d) 90o

Answer : (C)

Ques 469. There is no couple acting when two bar magnets are placed coaxially separated
by a distance because

(a) There are no forces on the poles

(b) The forces are parallel and their lines of action do not coincide

(c) The forces are perpendicular to each other

(d) The forces act along the same line

Answer : (D)

Ques 470. If a magnet is hanged with its magnetic axis then it stops in

(a) Magnetic meridian (b) Geometric meridian

(c) Angle of dip (d) None of these

Answer : (A)

Ques 471. Earth's magnetic field always has a horizontal component except at or
Horizontal component of earth's magnetic field remains zero at

(a) Equator (b) Magnetic poles

(c) A latitude of 60o (d) An altitude of 60o

Answer : (B)

Ques 472. At magnetic poles of earth, angle of dip is

(a) Zero (b) 45o

(c) 90o (d) 180o

Answer : (C)
Ques 473. The poisson’s ratio of a material is 0.5. If a force is applied to a wire of this
material, there is a decrease in the cross-sectional area by 4%. The percentage increase in
the length is :

(A) 1 % (B) 2% (C) 2.5% (D) 4%

Answer : (D)

Ques 474. A spring of force constant k is cut into two equal halves. The force constant of
each half is

(A) K / √2 (B) K (C) K/2 (D) 2K

Answer : (D)

Ques 475. It is difficult to cook rice in an open vessel by boiling it at high altitudes because
of

(A) low boiling point and high pressure (C) high boiling point and low pressure

(B) low boiling point and low pressure (D) high boiling point and high pressure

Answer : (B)

Ques 476. The height of a waterfall is 50 m. If g = 9.8 ms–2 the difference between the
temperature at the top and the bottom of the waterfall is:

(A) 1.17 °C (B) 2.17° C (C) 0.117° C (D) 1.43° C

Answer : (C)

Ques 477. On a clean glass plate a drop of water spreads to form a thin layer whereas a
drop of mercury remains almost spherical because

A. mercury is a metal

B. density of mercury is greater than that of water

C. cohesion of mercury is greater than its adhesion with glass

 D. cohesion of water is greater than its adhesion with glass

Answer: Option C

Ques 478. It takes much longer to cook food in the hills than in the plains, because

A. in the hills the atmospheric pressure is lower than that in the plains and
therefore water boils at a temperature lower than 100oC causing an increase in cooking time

B. due to low atmospheric pressure on the hills, the water boils at a temperature
higher than 100oC and therefore water takes longer to boil

C. in the hills the atmospheric density is low and therefore a lot of heat is lost to
the atmosphere

D. in the hills the humidity is high and therefore a lot of heat is absorbed by the
atmosphere leaving very little heat for cooking

Answer: Option A

Ques 479. A small metal sphere of radius a is falling with a velocity ν through a vertical
column of a viscous liquid. If the coefficient of viscosity of the liquid is η, then the sphere
encounters an opposing force of

(A) 6πηa2 ν (B) 6ην/ πa (C) 6πηaν (D) πην/6a3

Answer : (C)

Ques 480. A wooden block is floating on water kept in a beaker. 40% of the block is above
the water surface. Now the beaker is kept inside a lift that starts going upward with
acceleration equal to g/2. The block will then :

(A) sink

(B) float with 10% above the water surface

(C) float with 40% above the water surface

(D) float with 70% above the water surface

Answer : (C)
Ques 481. A wire of initial length L and radius r is stretched by a length l. Another wire of
same material but with initial length 2L and radius 2r is stretched by a length 2l. The ratio
of the stored elastic energy per unit volume in the first and second wire is,

(A) 1 : 4 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 1 : 1

Answer : (D)

Ques 482. The force required to make the length of a wire three times its original length
is ____ when the area of cross-section is unity and Y is the Young's modulus.

A. 2Y

B. 3Y

C. Y

D. Y/2

Answer : (A)

Ques 483. The buoyancy depends on

A. the depth to which the body is immersed

B. the shape of the body

C. the mass of the body

D. the mass of the liquid displaced

Answer : (D)

Ques 484. Two wires C and D of the length in the ratio 2 : 3, diameter in the ratio 2 : 3 and
of the same material, are subjected to same force. Then the ratio of their extensions lc : ld
is...

A. 3 : 2

B. 2 : 3
 C. 4 : 9

D. 8 : 27

Answer : (A)

Ques 485. Bulk modulus of a liquid is...

A. higher than that for a solid

B. higher than that for a gas

C. lower than that for a gas

D. zero

Answer : (B)

Ques 486. 18. The approximate relationship between the coefficient of linear
expansion(α) and the coefficient of cubical expansion(γ) is...

A. γ = α2

B. γ = α3

C. α = 3 γ

D. γ = 3 α

Answer : (D)

Ques 487. Out of the following which is the most elastic ?

A. rubber

B. glass

C. steel

D. plastic

Answer : (C)
Ques 488. In order to emit electromagnetic radiation, an object must be at a
temperature...

A. above 0 K

B. above 0°C

C. above that of its surroundings

D. high enough for it to glow

Answer : (A)

Ques 489. A wire loaded by 6 kg at its one end, the increase in length is 12 mm. If the
radius of the wire is doubled and all other magnitudes are unchanged, then increase in
length will be……..

(A) 6 mm
(B) 3 mm
(C) 24 mm
(D) 48 mm

Answer: (B)

Ques 490. A force F is needed to break a copper wire having radius R. The force needed to
break a copper wire of radius 2R will be…..

(A) F/2
(B) 2F
(C) 4F
(D) F/4

Answer: (C)

Ques 491. A and B are two wires. The radius of A is twice that of B. They are stretched by
the same load. Then what is the stress on B?
 (A) Equal to that on A
(B) Four times that on A
(C) Two times that on A
(D) Half that on A

Answer: (B)

Ques 492. If the length of wire is reduced to half then it can hold the ……………load.

(A) Half
(B) Same
(C) Double
(D) One fourth

Answer: (B)

Ques 493. There are two wires of same material and same length. While the diameter of
second wire is 2 times the diameter of first wire. Then what will be the ratio of extension
produced in the wire by applying same load?

(A) 1:1
(B) 2:1
(C) 1:2
(D) 4:1

Answer: (D)

Ques 494. Two wires of equal lengths are made of the same material wire. A has a
diameter that is twice as that of wire B. If identical weights are suspended from the end of
these wires the increase in length is………..

(A) Four times for wire A as for wire B

(B) Twice for wire A ass for wire B
(C) Half of wire A as for wire B
(D) One fourth of wire A as for wire B
Answer: (D)

Ques 495. If longitudinal strain for a wire is 0.03 and its poison’s ratio is 0.5, then what is
its lateral strain?

(A) 0.003
(B) 0.0075
(C) 0.015
(D) 0.4

Answer: (C)

Ques 496. The ratio of diameter of two wires of same material is n:1, the length of wires
are 4m each. On applying the same load, what will be the increase in length of the wires?

(A) n2 times
(B) n times
(C) 2n times
(D) None of the above

Answer: (A)

Ques 497. A steel wire is stretched with a definite load. The young’s modulus of the wire is
Y. For decreasing the value of Y………..

(A) Radius to be decreased

(B) Radius to be increased
(C) Length to be increased
(D) None of the above

Answer: (D)

Ques 498. A wire of diameter 1 mm breaks under a tension of 1000 N. Another wire of
same material and of diameter 2mm breaks under a tension of……………
 (A) 500 N
(B) 1000 N
(C) 10,000 N
(D) 4000 N

Answer: (D)

Ques 499. Two wires of same diameter of the same material having the length l and 2l. If
the force F is applied on each, what will be the ratio of the work done in the two wires?

(A) 1:2
(B) 1:4
(C) 2:1
(D) 1:1

Answer: (A)

Ques 500. If the force constant of a wire is K. What is the work done in increasing the
length of wire by l?

(A) Kl/2
(B) Kl
(C) Kl2/2
(D) Kl2

Answer: (C)

Ques 501. Wire A and B are made from the same material. A has twice the diameter and
three times the length of B. If the elastic limits are not reached, when each stretched by
the same tension, what is the ratio of energy stored in A and B?

(A) 0.1 J
(B) 0.2 J
 (C) 10 J
(D) 20 J

Answer: (A)

Ques 502. If a spring extends by x cm due to loading then what is the energy stored by the
spring? ( T is tension in the spring and K is spring constant)

(A) T2/2x
(B) T2/2K
(C) 2x/T2
(D) 2T2/K

Answer: (B)

Ques 503. The bulk modulus of an ideal gas at constant temperature is……..

(A) Equal to its volume V

(B) Is equal to P/2
(C) Is equal to its pressure P
(D) Cannot be determined

Answer: (C)

Ques 504. There is no change in the volume of a wire due to change in its length on
stretching. What is the poison’s ratio of the material of the wire

(A) +0.5
(B) -0.5
(C) 0.25
(D) -0.25

Answer: (A)
Ques 505. The poison’s ratio cannot have the value……….

(A) 0.7
(B) 0.2
(C) 0.1
(D) 0.5

Answer: (A)

Ques 506. The value of poison’s ratio lies between………..

(A) -1 to ½
(B) -3/4 to -1/2
(C) -1/2 to 1
(D) 1 to 2

Answer: (A)

Ques 507. For a given material the Young’s modulus is 2.4 times that of rigidity modulus.
What is its poison’s ratio?

(A) 2.4
(B) 1.2
(C) 0.4
(D) 0.2

Answer: (D)

Ques 508. A wire is stretched to double the length. Which of the following is false in this
context

(A) Its volume increased

(B) Its longitudinal strain is I
(C) Stress = Young’s modulus
 (D) Stress = 2 x Young’s Modulus

Answer: (D)

Ques 509. When more than 20 kg mass is tied to the end of a wire, it breaks. What is the
maximum mass that can be tied to the end of a wire of same material with half the radius?

(A) 20 kg
(B) 5 kg
(C) 80 kg
(D) 160 kg

Answer: (B)

Ques 510. Young’s modulus of a rigid body is

(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) Infinite
(D) 0.5

Answer: (C)

Ques 511. Cross sectional area of wire of length L is A. Young’s modulus of material is Y. If
this wire acts as a spring what is the value of force constant?

(A) YA/L
(B) YA/2L
(C) 2YA/L
(D) YL/A

Answer: (A)

Ques 512. Soap helps in cleaning because

 (A) Chemicals of soap clean
(B) It increase the surface tension of the solution
(C) It absorbs the dirt
(D) It lowers the surface tension of the solution

Answer: (D)

Ques 513. The pressure on a swimmer 20 m below the surface of coater at sea level is

(A) 1 atm
(B) 2 atm
(C) 2.5 atm
(D) 3 atm

Answer: (B)

Ques 514. A body floats in water with 1/3 of its volume above the surface of the water. It
is placed in oil, it floats with half of its volume above the surface of the oil. The specific
gravity of the oil is….

(A) 5/3
(B) 4/3
(C) 3/2
(D) 1

Answer: (B)

Ques 515. A piece of solid weighs 120 g in air, 80 g in water and 60 g in liquid. The relative
density of the solid and that of the liquid are respectively………

(A) 3,2
(B) 2, ¾
(C) ¾, 2
 (D) 3, 3/2

Answer: (D)

Ques 516. Ice pieces are floating in a beaker A containing water and also in a beaker B
containing miscible liquid of specific gravity 1.2. If ice melts, the level of

(A) Water increases in A

(B) Water decreases in A
(C) Liquid in B decreases
(D) Liquid in B increases

Answer: (D)

Ques 517. An engine pumps water continuously through a hose. Water leaves the hose
with a velocity V and m is the mass per unit length of the water jet. What is the rate at
which kinetic energy is imparted to water?

(A) mv2/2
(B) mv3
(C) mv3/2
(D) m v

Answer: (C)

Ques 518. The height of a dam in an hydro electric power station is 10 m. In order to
generate 1MW of electric power, the mass of water (in kg) that must fall per second on
the blades of turbine is…………

(A) 106
(B) 105
(C) 103
(D) 104
Answer: (D)

Ques 519. A cylinder of height 2.0 meter is completely filled with water. The velocity of
efflux of water in m/s through a small hole on the side wall of the cylinder near its bottom
is

(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 25.5
(D) 5

Answer: (B)

Ques 520. A block of ice floats on a liquid of density 1.2 in a beaker, then level of liquid
when ice completely melts
(A) Remains same
(B) Rises
(C) Lowers
(D) All of the above

Answer: (B)

Ques 521. At what temperature Celsius and Fahrenheit readings are same

(A) -40
(B) + 40
(C) 36.6
(D) -37

Answer: (A)

Ques 522. If temperature of an object is 1400F then its temperature in centigrade is

(A) 105
(B) 32
 (C) 140
(D) 60

Answer: (D)

Ques 523. When room temperature become equal to Dew point, then relative humidity of
room is

(A) 100%
(B) 0%
(C) 70%
(D) 85%

Answer: (A)

Ques 524. A beaker is completely filled with water at 40C. It will overflow if

(A) Heated more

(B) Cooled down
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

Ques 525. Melting point of ice

(A) Increases with increasing pressure

(B) Decreases with increasing pressure
(C) Is independent of pressure
(D) Is proportional to pressure

Answer: (B)

Ques 526. Amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a body through 1K is
 called

(A) Water equivalent

(B) Thermal capacity
(C) Entropy
(D) Specific heat

Answer: (B)

Ques 527. The temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid becomes equal to the
external pressure is called

(A) Melting point

(B) Boiling point
(C) Sublimation point
(D) Critical temperature

Answer: (B)

Ques 528. The internal energy of an ideal gas is dependent on...

A. its temperature only

B. its temperature and volume

C. its temperature and pressure

D. its temperature, pressure and volume

Answer : (A)

Ques 529. Atoms forming a molecule attain the arrangement in which they obtain...

A. zero potential energy

B. minimum potential energy

 C. maximum potential energy

D. none of the above

Answer : (B)

Ques 530. When the velocity of the molecules is zero, the temperature is...

A. 0°C

B. 273 K

C. -273°C

D. -273 K

Answer : (C)

Ques 531. A 4 litre gas cylinder contains neon gas at 12 kPa. Another cylinder with 8 litre
capacity is at same temperature and contains argon gas at 24 kPa. When the two are
connected, the total pressure will be...

A. 16 kPa

B. 18 kPa

C. 20 kPa

D. 36 kPa

Answer : (C)

Ques 532. The volume of a gas sample is directly proportional to its...

A. Fahrenheit temperature

B. Celsius temperature

C. Kelvin temperature

D. pressure

Answer : (C)
Ques 533. The equation of state for n moles of an ideal gas is PV = nRT, where R is a
constant. The SI unit for R is

(A) JK–1 per molecule (B) JK–1 mol–1 (C) J Kg–1 K–1 (D) JK–1 g–1

Answer : (B)

Ques 534. At 100K and 0.1 atmospheric pressure the volume of helium gas is 10 litres. If
volume and pressure are doubled, its temperature will change to

(A) 127 K
(B) 400 K
(C) 25 K
(D) 200 K

Answer: (B)

Ques 535. What is the mass of 2 liters of nitrogen at 22.4 atmospheric pressure and 273 K.
( R= 8.314 J mol/k)

(A) 14 x 22.4 g
(B) 56 g
(C) 28 g
(D) None of these

Answer: (C)

Ques 536. A vessel contains 1 mole of oxygen gas (relative molar mass 32) at a
temperature T. The pressure of the gas is P. An identical vessel containing 1 mole of He gas
(Molar mass 4) at a temperature 2T has pressure of…………

(A) 8 P
(B) P/8
(C) 2 P
(D) P
Answer: (C)

Ques 537. The equation of state for 5 g of oxygen at a pressure P and temp T when
occupying a volume V, will be

(A) PV=(5/32)RT
(B) PV=(5/16)RT
(C) PV=(5/2)RT
(D) PV=5RT

Answer: (A)

Ques 538. A gas at 1 atmosphere and having volume 100 ml is mixed with another gas of
equal moles at 0.5 and having volume 50 ml in flask of one liter. What is the final
pressure?

(A) 0.125 atm

(B) 0.75 atm
(C) 1 atm
(D) 0.5 atm

Answer: (A)

Ques 539. The quantity (PV)/(k B T ) represents

(A) Mass of gas

(B) Number of mole of gas
(C) Number of molecules in gas
(D) K.E. of gas

Answer: (C)

Ques 540. Oxygen gas is filled in a vessel. If pressure is doubled, temperature becomes
four times, how many times its density will become?
 (A) 4
(B) ¼
(C) 2
(D) ½

Answer: (D)

Ques 541. At a given volume and temperature the pressure of a gas

(A) Varies inversely as the square of its mass

(B) Varies inversely as its mass
(C) Is independent of its mass
(D) Varies linearly as its mass

Answer: (C)

Ques 542. To decrease the volume of a gas by 5% at constant temperature the pressure
should be

(A) Increased by 5.26 %

(B) Decreased by 5.26%
(C) Decreased by 11%
(D) Increased by 11%

Answer: (A)

Ques 543. A gas at the temperature 250K is contained in a closed vessel. If the gas is
heated through 1K, then the percentage increase in its pressure will be

(A) 0.4%
(B) 0.1%
(C) 0.8%
(D) 0.2%
Answer: (A)

Ques 544. The product of pressure and volume of an ideal gas is

(A) A constant
(B) Directly proportional to its temperature
(C) Inversely proportional to its temperature
(D) Approx. equal to the universal gas constant

Answer: (B)

Ques 545. The volume of a gas at 200C is 200 ml. If the temperature is reduced to -200C at
constant pressure, its volume will be…..

(A) 172.6 ml
(B) 17.26 ml
(C) 19.27 ml
(D) 192.7 ml

Answer: (A)

Ques 546. 2g of oxygen gas is taken at 270C and pressure 76 cm Hg. Find out volume of
gas in liter.

(A) 3.08
(B) 44.2
(C) 1.53
(D) 2.44

Answer: (C)

Ques 547. I mole of gas occupies a volume of 100 ml at 50 mm pressure. What is the
volume occupied by two moles of gas at 100 mm pressure and at same temperature.
 (A) 50 ml
(B) 200 ml
(C) 100 ml
(D) 500 ml

Answer: (C)

Ques 548. Suppose ideal gas equation follows VP3=constant. Initial temp and volume of
gas are T and V respectively. If gas expands to 27V then temperature will become….

(A) 9 T
(B) 27 T
(C) T/9
(D) T

Answer: (C)

Ques 549. The temperature of a gas at pressure P and Volume V is 270C. Keeping its
volume constant if its temperature is raised to 9270C , then its pressure will be

(A) 3 P
(B) 2 P
(C) 4 P
(D) 6 P

Answer: (C)

Ques 550. Air is filled in a bottle at atmospheric pressure and it is corked at 350C . If the
cork can come out at 3 atmospheric pressure then up to what temperature should the
bottle be heated in order to remove the cork in degree Celsius?

(A) 325.5
(B) 651
(C) 851
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)

Ques 551. At what temperature volume of an ideal gas becomes triple?

(A) 819 0C
(B) 182 0C
(C) 646 0C
(D) 546 0C

Answer: (D)

Ques 552. At constant temperature increasing the pressure of a gas 5%, its volume will
decrease by

(A) 5%
(B) 5.26%
(C) 4.76%
(D) 4.26%

Answer: (C)

Ques 553. At on 00 C pressure measured by barometer is 760mm. What will be pressure at

1000C

(A) 780 mm
(B) 760 mm
(C) 730 mm
(D) None of these

Answer: (D)

Ques 554. Hydrogen gas is filled in a balloon at 200C. If temperature is made 400C,
pressure remaining same, what fraction of hydrogen will come out?
 (A) 0.75
(B) 0.07
(C) 0.25
(D) 0.5

Answer: (B)

Ques 555. When the pressure on 1200 ml of gas is increased from 70 cm to 120 cm of
mercury at constant temperature, the new volume of the gas will be

(A) 400 ml
(B) 600 ml
(C) 700 ml
(D) 500 ml

Answer: (C)

Ques 556. The pressure and temperature of two different gases P and T having the
volumes V for each. They are mixed keeping the same volume and temperature, the
pressure of the mixture will be

(A) P
(B) P/2
(C) 4P
(D) 2P

Answer: (D)

Ques 557. The pressure is exerted by the gas on the walls of the container because

(A) It sticks with the wall

(B) It is accelerated towards the wall
(C) It loses kinetic energy
(D) On collision with the walls there is a change in momentum
Answer: (D)

Ques 558. The relation between the gas pressure P and average Kinetic Energy per unit
volume E is

(A) P=2E/3
(B) P=3E/2
(C) P=E
(D) P=E/2

Answer: (A)

Ques 559. Gas at a pressure P is contained in a vessel. If the masses of all molecules are
halved and their speeds are doubled, the resulting pressure will be equal to

(A) 2P
(B) 4P
(C) P/2
(D) P

Answer: (A)

Ques 560. The ratio of mean kinetic energy of hydrogen and oxygen at a given
temperature is

(A) 1:8
(B) 1:4
(C) 1:16
(D) 1:1

Answer: (D)

Ques 561. The ratio of mean Kinetic Energy of Hydrogen and Nitrogen at temperature
300K and 450 K respectively is
 (A) 2:3
(B) 3:2
(C) 4:9
(D) 2:2

Answer: (A)

Ques 562. Pressure of an ideal gas is increased by keeping temperature constant. What is
the effect on kinetic energy of molecules?

(A) Decrease
(B) Increase
(C) No change
(D) Can’t be determined

Answer: (C)

Ques 563. A sealed container with negligible co-efficient of volumetric expansion contains
helium. When it is heated from 200K to 600K, the average K.E. of helium atom is

(A) Halved
(B) Doubled
(C) Unchanged
(D) Increased by factor √2

Answer: (B)

Ques 564. The mean kinetic energy of a gas at 300K is 100J. Mean energy of the gas at
450K is equal to

(A) 100J
(B) 150J
(C) 300J
 (D) 450J

Answer: (B)

Ques 565. At what temperature is the Kinetic energy of a gas molecule is double that of its
0
value at 27 C

(A) 540C
(B) 1080C
(C) 3270C
(D) 3000C

Answer: (C)

Ques 566. At 0K which of the following properties of gas will be zero?

(A) Kinetic energy

(B) Density
(C) Potential energy
(D) Vibration energy

Answer: (A)

Ques 567. At a given temperature the rms velocity of molecules of the gas is

(A) Proportional to molecular weight

(B) Inversely proportional to molecular weight
(C) Inversely proportional to square root molecular weight
(D) Proportional to square of molecular weight

Answer: (C)

Ques 568. According to kinetic theory of gases rms velocity of gas molecules is directly
proportional to
 (A) T2
(B) √T
(C) T
(D) 1/√T

Answer: (B)

Ques 569. RMS velocity of a molecule is v at pressure P. If pressure is increased two times,
then the rms velocity becomes

(A) 3v
(B) 2v
(C) 0.5v
(D) V

Answer: (D)

Ques 570. For a gas, the rms speed at 800K is

(A) Four time the value at 200 K

(B) Twice the value at 200 K
(C) Half the value at 200 K
(D) Same as at 200 K

Answer: (B)

Ques 571. At a given temperature the rms velocities of Oxygen and Hydrogen molecules
are in the ratio

(A) 1:4
(B) 1:16
(C) 16:1
(D) 4:1
Answer: (A)

Ques 572. A mono atomic gas molecule has

(A) Three degrees of freedom

(B) Five degrees of freedom
(C) Six degrees of freedom
(D) Four degrees of freedom

Answer: (A)

Ques 573. A diatomic molecule has how many degrees of freedom?

(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 6
(D) 5

Answer: (D)

Ques 574. The degrees of freedom for tri atomic gas is………. (At room temp)

(A) 8
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 2

Answer: (B)

Ques 575. The specific heat of an ideal gas is

(A) Proportional to T2
 (B) Proportional to T3
(C) Proportional to T
(D) Independent of T

Answer: (D)

Ques 576. Three bodies of the same material and having masses m, m and 3m are at
temperatures 400C, 500C and 600C respectively. If the bodies are brought in thermal
contact, the final temperature will be

(A) 450C (B) 540C (C) 520C (D) 480C

Answer : (B)

Ques 577. In which of the following phenomena, the heat waves travel along straight lines
with the speed of light ?

(A) Thermal conduction

(B) Forced convection

(C) Natural convection

(D) Thermal radiation

Answer : (D)

Ques 578. The first law of thermodynamics is a special case of...

A. law of conservation of momentum

B. law of conservation of energy

C. Boyle's law

D. Charles' law

Answer : (B)

Ques 579. Which of the following engines is the most efficient?

 A. gasoline

B. diesel

C. gas turbine

D. Carnot

Answer : (D)

Ques 580. If the absolute temperature of a gas is doubled, then Vrms will become

A. 2 times

B. √ 2 times

C. 1/2 times

D. 4 times

Answer : (B)

Ques 581. When the temperature of a black body is lowered to half its original value then
the amount of heat radiated will be reduced to...

A. 1/2

B. 1/4

C. 1/8

D. 1/16

Answer : (D)

Ques 582. A type of process that does not need outside energy to reverse is one that
occurs at constant...

A. temperature

B. pressure

C. volume
 D. speed

Answer : (A)

Ques 583. When a vapour condenses into liquid...

A. it absorbs heat

B. it volves heat

C. its temperature rises

D. its temperature falls

Answer : (B)

Ques 584. In an adiabatic process, what does not change is...

A. pressure

B. volume

C. temperature

D. none of the above

Answer : (D)

Ques 585. If V0 is the stopping potential, f the frequency of radiation and W0 is the work
function of metal, then (V0 + W0) is equal to...

A. hf

B. h/e

C. hf/e

D. f 0

Answer : (C)

Ques 586. A lead bullet at 300 K is fired with the speed of 300 m/s. If the specific heat
capacity of lead is 130 J/(kg K), then upon impact its temperature will reach a maximum
 value of...

A. 636 K

B. 646 K

C. 666 K

D. 676 K

Answer : (B)

Ques 587. Steam at 100°C is passed into 1.1 kg of water contained in a calorimeter with
water equivalent 0.02 kg at 15°C till the temperature of the calorimeter and its content
rises to 80°C. The mass of the steam condensed in kg is...

A. 0.130

B. 0.065

C. 0.260

D. 0.135

Answer : (A)

Ques 588. The equation applicable in the adiabatic process of n mole ideal gas is...

A. ΔU = nCpΔT

B. ΔU = nCvΔT

C. ΔQ = nCvΔT

D. ΔQ = nCpΔT

Answer : (B)

Ques 589. In a Carnot's engine, the working substance is...

A. ideal gas

B. steam
 C. petrol

D. CO2

Answer : (A)

Ques 590. For an IC engine, the thermal efficiency depends on...

A. the compression ratio

B. the speed of the piston

C. the temperature of working medium

D. the diameter of the cylinder

Answer : (A)

Ques 591. The temperature at which the thermo emf becomes zero is known as the...

A. neutral temperature

B. absolute temperature

C. inverse temperature

D. thermoelectric temperature

Answer : (C)

Ques 592. A frictionless heat engine can be 100% efficient only its exhaust temperature
is...

A. equal to its input temperature

B. 0°C

C. less than the input temperature

D. 0 K

Answer : (D)
Ques 593. A certain container holds 1 kg air at atmospheric pressure. When an additional
1 kg of air is pumped into the container at constant temperature, the pressure is...

A. 0.5 atm

B. 1 atm

C. 2 atm

D. 4 atm

Answer : (C)

Ques 594. An ideal heat engine absorbs heat at 127° and rejects heat at 77°. Efficiency of
the engine is...

A. 12.5%

B. 28%

C. 68%

D. 39%

Answer : (A)

Ques 595. A difference of temperature of 250C is equivalent to a difference of

(A) 720F
(B) 450F
(C) 320F
(D) 250F

Answer : (B)

Ques 596. At what temperature the density of water id maximum?

(A) 4 degree F
(B) 42 degree F
 (C) 32 degree F
(D) 39.2 degree F

Answer : (D)

Ques 597. One mole of mono atomic ideal gas is mixed with one mole of a diatomic ideal
gas. The molas specific heat of the mixture at constant volume is

(A) 4R
(B) 3R
(C) R
(D) 2R

Answer : (D)

Ques 598. The first law of thermodynamics is concerned with the conservation of

(A) Momentum
(B) Energy
(C) Mass
(D) Temperature

Answer : (B)

Ques 599. If heat given to a system is 6 kcal and work done is 6kj. The change in internal
energy is ………………KJ

(A) 12.4
(B) 25
(C) 19.1
(D) 0

Answer : (C)
Ques 600. The internal energy change in a system that has absorbed 2 Kcal heat and done
500J of work is

(A) 7900J
(B) 4400J
(C) 6400J
(D) 8900J

Answer : (A)

Ques 601. A thermodynamic process in which temperature T of the system remains

constant throughout, variable p and V may change is called

(A) Isothermal process

(B) Isochoric process
(C) Isobaric process
(D) None

Answer : (A)

Ques 602. The specific heat of a gas in an isothermal process is

(A) Zero
(B) Negative
(C) Infinite
(D) Remains same

Answer : (C)

Ques 603. In an isochoric process T1=270C and T2=1270C then P1/P2 will be equal to

(A) 9/59
(B) 2/3
(C) 4/3
 (D) ¾

Answer : (D)

Ques 604. If the doors of a refrigerator are kept open, then which of the following is true

(A) Room is cooled

(B) Refrigerator is cooled
(C) Room is neither heated nor cooled
(D) Room is heated

Answer : (C)

Ques 605. A Zener diode having break-down voltage 5.6 V is connected in reverse bias
with a battery of emf 10 V and a resistance of 100 Ω in series. The current flowing through
the Zener is

(A) 88 mA (B) 0.88 mA (C) 4.4 mA (D) 44 mA

Answer : (D)

Ques 606. Rectifiers are used to convert

A. Direct current to Alternating current

B. Alternating current to Direct current

C. high voltage to low voltage

D. low voltage to high voltage

Answer: Option B

Ques 607. Suitable impurities are added to a semiconductor depending on its use. This is
done in order to

A. increase its life

 B. enable it to withstand higher voltages

C. increase its electrical conductivity

D. increase its electrical resistivity

Answer: Option C

Ques 608. Superconductors are substances which

A. conduct electricity at low temperature

B. offer high resistance to the flow of current

C. offer no resistance to the flow of electricity

D. conduct electricity at high temperatures

Answer: Option C

Ques 609. To get an OR gate from a NAND gate, we need

(a) Only two NAND gates.

(b) Two NOT gates obtained from NAND gates and one NAND gate.

(c) Four NAND gates and two AND gates obtained from NAND gates.

(d) None of these

Answer. (b)

Ques 610. If the band gap between valence band and conduction band in a material is 0
eV, then the material is

(A) semiconductor

(B) good conductor

(C) superconductor

(D) insulator
Answer : (D)

Ques 611. Diode can work as ?

A. Demodulaor

b. Modulator

c. Amplifier

d. Rectifier

Answer : (D)

Ques 612. Three amplifiers each with gain of 10 V, are connected in series. Then over all
amplification is ?

A. 10/3

b. 13

c. 1000

d. None of these

Answer : (C)

Ques 613. In P – type semiconductor Germanium is doped with ?

A. Aluminium

b. Boron

c. Gallium

d. All of these

Answer : (D)

Ques 614. The logic behind NOR gate is that which gives ?

A. High output when both inputs are high

 b. Low output when both inputs are low

c. High output when both inputs are low

d. None of these

Answer : (C)

Ques 615. The depletion layer in the p-n junction region is caused by

A. Drift of holes

b. Diffusion of charge carriers

c. Migration of impurity ions

d. Drift of Electrons

Answer : (B)

Ques 616. When n type semiconductor is heated

A. Number of electrons increases while that of holes decreases

b. Number of holes increases while that of electrons decreases

c. Number of electrons and holes remain same

d. Number of electrons and holes increases equally

Answer : (D)

Ques 617. If a full wave rectifier is operating from 50 Hz mains, the fundamental
frequency in the ripples will be

(A) 100 Hz

(B) 25 Hz

(C) 50 Hz

(D) 70.7 Hz
Answer : (A)

Ques 618. In forward biasing of the PN junction

(A) The positive terminal of the battery is connected to P side and the depletion
region becomes thick.

(B) The positive terminal of the battery is connected to N side and the depletion
region becomes thin.

(C) The positive terminal of the battery is connected to N side and the depletion
region becomes thick.

(D) The positive terminal of the battery is connected to P side and the depletion
region becomes thin.

Answer : (D)

Ques 619. The device that can act as a complete electronic circuit is

(A) Junction Diode

(B) Integrated circuit

(C) Junction Transistor

(D) Zener Diode

Answer : (B)

Ques 620. Reverse bias applied to a junction diode

(A) Increases the minority carrier current

(B) Lower the potential barrier

(C) Raise the potential barrier

(D) Increases the majority carrier current

Answer : (C)

Ques 621. In PN Junction

 (A) The potential of P and N side becomes higher alternately

(B) The P side is at higher electrical potential than the N side

(C) The N side is at higher electrical potential than the P side

(D) Both P and N side are at same potential

Answer : (B)

Ques 622. Transmission of light through optical fiber is due to

(A) Scattering

(B) Diffraction

(C) Polarization

(D) Multiple total internal reflections

Answer : (D)

Ques 623. An n-p-n transistor conducts when

(A) Both collector and emitter are negative with respect to the base

(B) Both collector and emitter are Positive with respect to the base

(C) Collector is positive and emitter is negative with respect to the base

(D) Collector is positive and emitter is at the same potential as the base

Answer : (C)

Ques 624. The output of OR gate is 1

(A) If either input is Zero

(B) If both inputs are Zero

 (C) If either or both input are 1

(D) Only if both inputs are 1

Answer : (C)

Ques 625. Which of the following is added as impurity , into the silicon , produces n type
semiconductor

(A) Phosphorus

(B) Aluminum

(C) Magnesium

(D) Both B and C

Answer : (A)

Ques 626. When the n-p-n transistor is used as amplifier then

(A) The electrons flow from emitter to collector

(B) The holes flow from emitter to collector

(C) The electrons flow from collector to emitter

(D) The electrons flow from battery to emitter

Answer : (A)

Ques 627. When Arsenic is added as impurity material to silicon, the resulting material is

(A) N-type semiconductor

(B) P-type semiconductor

(C) N type conductor

(D) Insulator

Answer : (A)
Ques 628. The part of the transistor which is heavily doped to produce large number of
majority carrier is

(A) Emitter

(B) Base

(C) Collector

(D) Any of the above depending upon type of transistor

Answer : (A)

Ques 629. Barrier potential of p-n junction diode does not depend on

(A) Doping density

(B) Diode design

(C) Temperature

(D) Forward Bias

Answer : (B)

Ques 630. An oscillator is nothing but an amplifier with

(A) Positive feedback

(B) Negative feedback

(C) Large gain

(D) No feedback

Answer : (B)

Ques 631. In a common-base circuit the current gain is...

A. 0
 B. 1

C. greater than 1

D. smaller than 1

Answer : (D)

Ques 632. By adding ……………….. impurity in semiconductor P type semiconductor is

made. Charge of these P type semiconductor is…………

(A) Trivalent, neutral

(B) Pentavalent, Neutral
(C) Pentavalent, positive
(D) Trivalent , negative

Answer : (A)

Ques 633. For p-n junction , which statement is incorrect

(A) Donor atoms are depleted of their holes in junction

(B) No net charge exists far from junction
(C) Barrier potential V is generated
(D) They are made by adding two semiconductors separately

Answer : (D)

Ques 634. The intrinsic semi conductor has

(A) A finite resistance which does not change with temperature

(B) Infinite resistance which decreases with temperature
(C) Finite resistance which decreases with temperature
(D) Finite resistance which does not change with temperature

Answer : (C)
Ques 635. A current gain for transistor working as CB amplifier is 0.90. If emitter current is
10 mA, then base current is……………….

(A) 1 mA
(B) 2 mA
(C) 0.1 mA
(D) 0.2 mA

Answer : (A)

Ques 636. For a transistor I C /I E = 0.96, then CE current gain is :

(A) 12
(B) 6
(C) 24
(D) 48

Answer : (C)

Ques 637. At 0 K temperature, a N-type semi conductor :

(A) Does not have any charge carriers

(B) Has few holes but no free electrons
(C) Few holes and few electrons
(D) Has equal number of holes and electrons

Answer : (A)

Ques 638. A N-P-N transistor conducts when collector is ………… and emitter is ………… with
respect to base.

(A) Positive , negative

(B) Positive , positive
(C) Negative , negative
 (D) Negative , positive

Answer : (B)

Ques 639. A full wave rectifier is operating at 50hz, 220v, the fundamental frequency of
ripple will be

(A) 5o hz
(B) 75 hz
(C) 110 hz
(D) 100 hz

Answer : (D)

Ques 640. Reverse bias applied on a junction diode:

(A) Raises the barrier potential

(B) Increases majority charge carrier current
(C) Lowers the potential barrier
(D) Increases the temperature of junction

Answer : (A)

Ques 641. In an PNP transistor circuit, the collector current is 10 mA. If 90% of the
electrons emitted reach the collector

(A) I E = 9mA
(B) I E = 10mA
(C) I E = 1mA
(D) I E = -1mA

Answer : (C)

Ques 642. When a p type semi conductor is heated:

 (A) Number of holes increase while that of electrons decrease
(B) Number of electrons increase while holes decrease
(C) Number of electrons and holes remain same
(D) Number of electrons and holes increase equally

Answer : (D)

Ques 643. The depletion layer in PN junction diode is caused by

(A) Drift of holes

(B) Diffusion of impurity ions
(C) Diffusion of charge carriers
(D) Drift of electrons

Answer : (C)

Ques 644. NAND gate is

(A) A basic gate

(B) Not a universal gate
(C) A universal gate
(D) Multipurpose gate

Answer : (C)

Ques 645. The number of holes and electrons in an intrinsic conductors are x and y
respectively. Which of the following options are true at room temperature

(A) x>y
(B) y>x
(C) x=y
(D) x<<y
Answer : (C)

Ques 646. In forward bias made, the PN junction diode resistance will ……….

(A) Infinity
(B) Zero
(C) Less
(D) More

Answer : (C)

Ques 647. To obtain OR gate from NOR gate you will need……………..

(A) One NOR gate

(B) One NOT gate
(C) Two NOT gate
(D) One OR gate

Answer : (A)

Ques 648. A zener diode used as voltage regulator is connected ………………

(A) In forward bias

(B) In reverse bias
(C) In parallel with load
(D) In series with load

Answer : (B) & (C)

Ques 649. When a PN junction diode is forward biased, then the depletion region is
…………… and barrier height is……………
(A) Reduced, increases
(B) Widened, reduced
(C) Reduced, reduced
(D) Increased, increased
Answer : (C)

Ques 650. Zener diode is used as

(A) Full wave rectifier

(B) Amplifier
(C) AC voltage regulator
(D) DC voltage regulator

Answer : (D)

Ques 651. Break down voltage of a diode is 5v. By which effect this breakdown occurs in
diode

(A) Only avalanche effect

(B) Only zener effect
(C) Avalanche or zener effect
(D) None of the above

Answer : (C)

Ques 652. When NPN transistor is used as an amplifier then……….

(A) Electron moves from base to collector

(B) Holes travel from emitter to base
(C) Holes go to emitter from base
(D) Electrons go to base from collector

Answer : (C)

Ques 653. For ………….gate, the output is 1 only when both input are ‘0”

(A) AND
 (B) NAND
(C) OR
(D) NOR

Answer : (D)

Ques 654. How many free electrons does a p type semiconductor contain?

(A) Many
(B) None
(C) Only those produced by thermal energy
(D) Same number as holes

Answer : (C)

Ques 655. The load current is constant when zener diode is …………

(A) Forward biased

(B) Reverse biased
(C) Operating in breakdown region
(D) Unbiased

Answer : (C)

Ques 656. For normal operation of the transistor, the collector diode has to be…….

(A) Forward biased

(B) Reverse biased
(C) Non conducting
(D) Operating in breakdown region

Answer : (B)

Ques 657. In Bohr model the hydrogen atom, the lowest orbit corresponds to
 (A) Infinite Energy
(B) Zero Energy
(C) The minimum Energy
(D) The maximum Energy

Answer : (C)

Ques 658. According to Bohr’s theory the radius of electron in an orbit described by
Principal quantum number n and atomic number Z, is proportional to

(A) Z2n2
(B) N2/Z
(C) Z2/n
(D) n2/Z2
Answer : (B)

Ques 659. The number of De-Broglie wavelengths contained in the second Bohr orbit of
Hydrogen atom is

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

Answer : (B)

Ques 660. If the electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from an orbit with level n1 = 2 to an
orbit with level n2 = 1 the emitted radiation has a wavelength given by

(A) Z = 5/3R (B) Z = 4/3 R (C) Z = R/4 (D) Z = 3R/4

Answer : (B)

Ques 661. Out of the following, which is not emitted by radioactive substance?

A. Electrons

B. Electromagnetic radiations

C. Alpha particles
 D. Neutrons

Answer: Option D

Ques 662. Radiocarbon dating technique is used to estimate the age of

A. rocks

B. monuments

C. soil

D. fossils

Answer: Option D

Ques 663. In Rutherford model of the atom, the path of an electron will be...

A. a straight line

B. parabolic

C. circular

D. spiral

Answer: Option C

Ques 664. The element whose nuclei contain the most tightly bound nucleons is...

A. He

B. C

C. Fe

D. U

Answer: Option C

Ques 665. The end product of most radioactive decay series is usually some form of
 A. carbon

B. helium

C. hydrogen

D. lead

Answer: Option D

Ques 666. The penetration power of beta particles is 1. Then the relative penetration
power of gamma rays is...

A. 1

B. 100

C. 1/1000

D. 1000

Answer: Option B

Ques 667. As a sample of a radioactive element decays, its half-life...

A. decreases

B. increases

C. remains the same

D. changes exponentially

Answer: Option C

Ques 668. The process by which a heavy nucleus splits into two nuclei is known as...

A. fusion

B. β-decay

C. fission
 D. γ-emission

Answer: Option C

Ques 669. In Bohr model the hydrogen atom, the lowest orbit corresponds to

(A) Infinite energy

(B) Zero energy
(C) The minimum energy
(D) The maximum energy

Answer: (C)

Ques 670. Which of the following cannot be emitted in radioactive decay of the
substance?

(A) Helium nucleus

(B) Electrons
(C) Neutrons
(D) Proton

Answer: (D)

Ques 671. In gamma ray emission from a nucleus

(A) There is no change in the proton number and neutron number

(B) Both the numbers are changed
(C) Only proton number changes
(D) Only neutron number changes

Answer: (A)

Ques 672. For Fraunhoffer diffraction to occur

(A) Light source should be at infinity

 (B) Both source and screen should be at infinity

(C) Only the source should be at finite distance

(D) Both source and screen should be at finite distance

Answer : (B)

Ques 673. The distance between an object and a divergent lens is m times the focal length
of the lens. The linear magnification produced by the lens is

(A) m (B) 1 / m (C) m+1 (D) 1/ (m+1)

Answer : (D)

Ques 674. A 2.0 cm object is placed 15 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 10
cm. What is the size and nature of the image?

(A) 4 cm. real (B) 4 cm, virtual (C) 1.0 cm, real (D) None

Answer : (A)

Ques 675. Two identical light waves, propagating in the same direction, have a phase
difference 6. After they superpose the intensity of the resulting wave will be proportional
to

(A) cos 6 (B) cos (6/2) (C) cos2 (6/2) (D) cos2 (6 )

Answer : (C)

Ques 676. A string is stretched between fixed points separated by 75 cm. It is observed to
have resonant frequencies of 420 Hz and 315 Hz. There are no other resonant frequencies
between these two. Then, the lowest resonant frequency for this string is

(a) 10.5 Hz

(b) 105 Hz

(c) 1.05 Hz

(d) 1050 Hz
Answer (b) 105 Hz

Ques 677. Mirage is due to

A. unequal heating of different parts of the atmosphere

B. magnetic disturbances in the atmosphere

C. depletion of ozone layer in the atmosphere

D. equal heating of different parts of the atmosphere

Answer: Option A

Ques 678. Sound waves in air are

A. transverse

B. longitudinal

C. electromagnetic

D. polarised

Answer: Option B

Ques 679. Of the following properties of a wave, the one that is independent of the other
is its

A. amplitude

B. velocity

C. wavelength

D. frequency

Answer: Option A

Ques 680. Lux is the SI unit of

A. intensity of illumination
 B. luminous efficiency

C. luminous flux

D. luminous intensity

Answer: Option A

Ques 681. RADAR is used for

A. locating submerged submarines

B. receiving a signals in a radio receiver

C. locating geostationary satellites

D. detecting and locating the position of objects such as aeroplanes

Answer: Option D

Ques 682. Sound of frequency below 20 Hz is called

A. audio sounds

B. infrasonic

C. ultrasonic

D. supersonics

Answer: Option B

Ques 683. Stars twinkle because

A. the intensity of light emitted by them changes with time

B. the distance of the stars from the earth changes with time

C. the refractive index of the different layers of the earth's atmosphere changes
continuously, consequently the position of the image of a start changes with time

D. the light from the star is scattered by the dust particles and air molecules in the
earth's atmosphere
Answer: Option C

Ques 684. Sound travels with a different speed in mediA. In what order does the velocity
of sound increase in these media?

A. Water, iron and air

B. Iron, air and water

C. Air, water and iron

D. Iron, water and air

Answer: Option C

Ques 685. Sound travels at the fastest speed in

A. steel

B. water

C. air

D. vacuum

Answer: Option A

Ques 686. Sound produced at a point is heard by a person after 5 second, while the same
sound is heard by another person after 6 seconds. If the speed of sound is 300 m/s, what
could be the maximum and minimum distances between the two persons?

A. 1.8 km, 0.15 km

B. 2.2 km, 0.20 km

C. 2.8 km, 0.25 km

D. 3.3 km, 0.30 km

Answer: Option D

Ques 687. Intensity of sound at a point is ____ its distance from the source.
 A. directly proportional to

B. inversely proportional to

C. directly proportional to square of

D. inversely proportional to square of

Answer: Option D

Ques 688. Radio telescopes are better than optical telescopes because

A. they can detect faint galaxies which no optical telescope can

B. they can work even in cloudy conditions

C. they can work during the day and night

D. All of the above

Answer: Option D

Ques 689. Light Emitting Diodes (LED) is used in fancy electronic devices such as toys emit

A. X-rays

B. ultraviolet light

C. visible light

D. radio waves

Answer: Option C

Ques 690. Mercury is commonly used as a thermometric fluid rather than water because

A. specific heat of mercury is less than water

B. specific heat of mercury is more than water

C. mercury has greater visibility than water

D. density of mercury is more than the water

Answer: Option C

Ques 691. Optical fibre works on the

A. principle of refraction

B. total internal reflection

C. scattering

D. interference

Answer: Option B

Ques 692. Rainbow is due to

A. absorption of sunlight in minute water droplets

B. diffusion of sunlight through water droplets

C. ionisation of water deposits

D. refraction and reflection of sunlight by water droplets

Answer: Option D

Ques 693. An object approaches a convergent lens from the left of the lens with a uniform
Speed of 5 m/s and stops at the focus. The image

(a) Moves away from the lens with an uniform speed 5 m/s

(b) Moves away from the lens with an uniform acceleration

(c) Moves away from the lens with a non-uniform acceleration

(d) Moves towards the lens with a non-uniform acceleration

Answer. (c)

Ques 694. The radius of curvature of the curved surface of a plano-convex lens is 20 cm. If
 the refractive index of the material of the Lens be 1.5, it will

(a) Act as a convex lens only for the objects that lie on its curved side

(b) Act as a concave lens for the objects that lie on its curved side

(c) Act as a convex lens irrespective of the side on which the object lies

(d) Act as a concave lens irrespective of side on which the object lies

Answer (c)

Ques 695. An object is located 4 m from the first of two thin converging lenses of focal
lengths 2m and 1m respectively. The lenses are separated by 3 m. The final image formed
by the second lens is located from the source at a distance of

(A) 8.0 m (B) 7.5 m (C) 6.0 m (D) 6.5 m

Answer : (B)

Ques 696. A simple pendulum of length L swings in a vertical plane. The tension of the
string when it makes an angle θ with the vertical and the bob of mass m moves with a
speed v is (g is the gravitational acceleration)

(A) mv2 /L

(B) mg cosθ + mv2 /L

(C) mg cosθ– mv2 /L

(D) mg cosθ

Answer : (B)

Ques 697. When light is refracted from a surface, which of its following physical
parameters does not change ?

(A) velocity (B) amplitude (C) frequency (D) wavelength

Answer : (C)
Ques 698. A luminous object is separated from a screen by distance d. A convex len is
placed between the object and the screen such that it forms a distinct image on the
screen. The maximum possible focal length of this convex lens is

(A) 4d (B) 2d (C) d/2 (D) d/4

Answer : (D)

Ques 699. The intermediate image formed by the objective of a compound microscope is

(A) real, inverted and magnified

(B) real, erect and magnified

(C) virtual, erect and magnified

(D) virtual, inverted and magnified

Answer : ( A)

Ques 700. An object is placed 30 cm away from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm and a
sharp image is formed on a screen. Now a concave lens is placed in contact with the
convex lens. The screen now has to be moved by 45 cm to get a sharp image again. The
magnitude of focal length of the concave len is (in cm)

(A) 72 (B) 60 (C) 36 (D) 20

Answer : (D)

Ques 701. An object placed at a distance of 16 cm from a convex lens produces an image
of magnification m (m > 1). If the object is moved towards the lens by 8 cm then again an
image of magnification m is obtained. The numerical value of the focal length of the lens is

(A) 12 cm (B) 14 cm (C) 18 cm (D) 20 cm

Answer : (A)

Ques 702. Focal length of plane mirror is

A. At infinity
 b. Zero

c. Negative

d. None of these

Answer : (A)

Ques 703. Image formed by plane mirror is

A. Real and erect

b. Real and inverted

c. Virtual and erect

d. Virtual and inverted

Answer : (C)

Ques 704. A concave mirror gives real, inverted and same size image if the object is placed

A. At F

b. At infinity

c. At C

d. Beyond C

Answer : (C)

Ques 705. Power of the lens is -40, its focal length is

A. 4m

b. -40m

c. -0.25m

d. -25m

Answer : (C)
Ques 706. A concave mirror gives virtual, refract and enlarged image of the object but
image of smaller size than the size of the object is

A. At infinity

b. Between F and C

c. Between P and F

d. At E

Answer : (C)

Ques 707. In optics an object which has higher refractive index is called

A. Optically rarer

b. Optically denser

c. Optical density

d. Refractive index

Answer : (B)

Ques 708. The optical phenomena, twinkling of stars, is due to

A. Atmospheric reflection

b. Total reflection

c. Atmospheric refraction

d. Total refraction

Answer : (C)

Ques 709. Convex lens focus a real, point sized image at focus, the object is placed

A. At focus

b. Between F and 2F
 c. At infinity

d. At 2F

Answer : (C)

Ques 710. The unit of power of lens is

A. Metre

b. Centimeter

c. Diopter

d. M-1

Answer : (C)

Ques 711. The radius of curvature of a mirror is 20cm the focal length is

A. 20cm

b. 10cm

c. 40cm

d. 5cm

Answer : (B)

Ques 712. The pitch of a musical sound depends on the sound wave's

A. wavelength.

b. frequency.

c. speed.

d. amplitude.

e. all of these.

Answer : (B)
Ques 713. A Doppler effect occurs when a source of sound moves

A. toward you.

b. away from you.

c. both of these.

d. none of these.

Answer : (C)

Ques 714. The Doppler effect is characteristic of

A. water waves.

b. sound waves.

c. light waves.

d. all of these.

e. none of these.

Answer : (D)

Ques 715. Sound is an example of

A. a longitudinal wave.

b. a wave that can travel through a vacuum.

c. a transverse wave.

d. a wave that does not transmit energy.

Answer : (A)

Ques 716. Sound waves cannot travel in

A. air.
 b. water.

c. steel.

d. a vacuum.

e. sound can travel in all of these.

Answer : (D)

Ques 717. The loudness of a musical sound is a measure of the sound wave's

A. wavelength.

b. frequency.

c. speed.

d. amplitude.

e. all of these.

Answer : (D)

Ques 718. The vibrations of a transverse wave move

A. in the same direction as the wave travels.

b. at right angles to the direction of wave travel.

c. above and below the moving wave.

d. opposite to the direction of wave travel.

Answer : (B)

Ques 719. Sound travels faster in

A. air.

b. water.

c. steel.
 d. a vacuum.

e. Sound travels at about the same speed in all of these.

Answer : (C)

Ques 720. Compressions and rarefactions are characteristic of

A. longitudinal waves.

b. transverse waves.

c. both of these.

d. neither of these.

Answer : (A)

Ques 721. All waves have

A. amplitude.

b. frequency.

c. wavelength.

d. speed.

e. all of these.

Answer : (E)

Ques 722. The distance between two consecutive crests of a wave is called the

A. amplitude

b. frequency

c. wave speed

d. wavelength

Answer : (C)
Ques 723. The speed of any wave depends upon

A. its energy.

b. the medium through which it travels.

c. its angle of reflection.

d. its amplitude.

Answer : (B)

Ques 724. The phenomenon of interference is shown by

(a) Longitudinal mechanical waves only

(b) Transverse mechanical waves only
(c) Electromagnetic waves only
(d) All the above types of waves

Answer : (D)

Ques 725. By a monochromatic wave, we mean

(a) A single ray

(b) A single ray of a single color
(c) Wave having a single wavelength
(d) Many rays of a single colour

Answer : (C)

Ques 726. Two waves having intensity in the ratio 25 : 4 produce interference. The ratio of
the maximum to the minimum intensity is

(a) 5:2
(b) 7:3
(c) 49 : 9
(d) 9 : 49
Answer : (C)

Ques 727. Which of the following is not a property of light

(a) It requires a material medium for propagation

(b) It can travel through vacuum
(c) It involves transportation of energy
(d) It has finite speed

Answer : (A)

Ques 728. In a certain double slit experimental arrangement interference fringes of width
1.0 mm each are observed when light of wavelength 5000 Å is used. Keeping the set up
unaltered, if the source is replaced by another source of wavelength 6000 Å, the fringe
width will be

(a) 0.5 mm
(b) 1.0 mm
(c) 1.2 mm
(d) 1.5 mm

Answer : (C)

Ques 729. In Young's experiment, the distance between the slits is reduced to half and the
distance between the slit and screen is doubled, then the fringe width

(a) Will not change

(b) Will become half
(c) Will be doubled
(d) Will become four times

Answer : (D)

Ques 730. The maximum intensity of fringes in Young's experiment is I. If one of the slit is
closed, then the intensity at that place becomes Io. Which of the following relation is true ?
 (a) I = Io
(b) I = 2Io
(c) I = 4Io
(d) There is no relation between I and Io

Answer : (C)

Ques 731. The velocity of light is maximum in a medium of________________.

(A) diamond (B) water (C) glass (D) vaccum

Answer : (D)

Ques 732. A light of wavelength 320 nm enters in a medium of refractive index 1.6 from the
air of refractive index 1.0 The new wavelength of light in the medium will
be____________nm.

(A) 520 (B) 400 (C) 320 (D) 220

Answer : (C)

Ques 733. A ray of light is incident at an angle 300 on a mirror, The angle between normal
and reflected ray is___________.

(A)15ο (B) 30ο (C) 45ο (D) 60ο

Answer : (D)

Ques 734. The no. of images formed between two parallel plane mirror are
______________.

(A) ∞ (B) 0 (C) 180 (D) 360

Answer : (A)

Ques 735. To get five images of a single object one shold have two plane mirrors at an
angle of___________.
 (A) 36ο (B) 72ο (C) 180ο (D) 302ο

Answer : (B)

Ques 736. If a glass rod is immersed in a liquid of the same refractive index, then it
will______________.

(A) appear bent (B) appear longer (C) disappear (D) appear shorter

Answer : (C)

Ques 737. A Plane mirror produces a magnification of_____________.

(A) 0 (B) +1 (C) –1 (D) ∞

Answer : (B)

Ques 738. A convex lens forms a real image of an object for it s two different positions on a
screen if height of the image in both cases be 16 cm and 4 cm then height of the object
is__________cm.

(A) –4 (B) 4 (C) –8 (D) 8

Answer : (D)

Ques 739. The power of plane glass is__________.

(A) ∞ (B) 0 (C) 2D (D) 4D

Answer : (B)

Ques 740. If thin prism of 5 ο gives a deviation of 2 ο then the refractive index of material
of prism is_________.

(A) 1.4 (B) 1.5 (C) 1.6 (D) 1.0

Answer : (A)

Ques 741. It is difficult to see through the fog because _________________

 (A) light is scattered by the droplets in the fog.

(B) fog absorbs light.

(C) refractive index of fog is infinity.

(D) light suffers total internal refraction.

Answer : (A)

Ques 742. In which of the following cases a man will not see image greater than himself.

(A) convex mirror

(B) concave mirror

(C) plane mirror

(D) none of these

Answer : (A)

Ques 743. A glass slab (n =1.5) of thickness 9 cm is placed over a written paper what is the
Shift in the letters ?

(A) 6 cm (B) 3 cm (C) 2 cm (D) 0 cm

Answer : (B)

Ques 744. A concave mirror of focal length 20 cm forms an virtual image having twice the
linear dimensions of the object, the position of the object will be ___________cm

(A) 7.5 (B) –10 (C) 10 (D) –7.5

Answer : (C)

Ques 745. A mark at the bottom of the liquid appears to rise by 0.2 m, If depth of the liquid
is 2.0 m then refractive index of the liquid is________________.

(A) 1.80 (B) 1.60 (C) 1.33 (D) 1.11

Answer : (D)
Ques 746. A Sound wave travels from air to water. the angle of incidence is α1 and the
angle of reflection is α2 If the snell's Law is valid then,___________________.

(A) α1 2 ≥α (B) α1 = α2 (C) α1 > α2 (D) α1 < α2

Answer : (D)

Ques 747. 1.6 is a refractive index of plano-convex lens, then the redius of curvature of the
curved surface is 60 cm. The focal length of the lens is_______ cm

(A) 50 (B) 100 (C) –50 (D) –100

Answer : (B)

Ques 748. One convex lens and one concave lens placed is contact with each other. If the
ratio of their power is 2/3 and focal length of the combination is 30 cm, then individual
focal lengths are__________.

(A) 15 cm and –10 cm

(B) –15 cm and 10 cm

(C) 30 cm and –20 cm

(D) –30 cm and –30 cm

Answer : (B)

Ques 749. A double convex lens of focal length 6 cm is made of glass of refractive index 1.5,
The radius of curvature of one surface is double than that of the other surface. The value of
small radius of curvature is_________.

(A) 6 (B) 9 (C) 12 (D) 4.5

Answer : (D)

Ques 750. Which of the following colors is scattered minimum ?

(A) Violet (B) red (C) blue (D) yellow

Answer : (B)

Ques 751. An observer look at a tree of height 10 meters away with a telescope of
magnifying power 10. To him, the tree appears______________.

(A) 10 times taller

(B) 10 times smaller

(C) 10 times nearer

(D) 20 times nearer

Answer : (C)

Ques 752. A normal person wants to see two pillars at a distant 11 km away separately. The
distance between two pillars should be approximately_________.

(A) 1 m (B) 3.2 m (C) 0.5 m (D) 1.6 m

Answer : (B)

Ques 753. When the length of microscope tube increases, its magnifying power________.

(A) Decreases

(B) Increases

(C) does not change

(D) none of these

Answer : (A)

Ques 754. A concave mirror has a focal length 30 cm The distance between the two
position of the object for which image size is double of the object is_____________.

(A) 30 cm (B) 15 cm (C) –25 cm (D) –15 cm

Answer : (A)

Ques 755. A concave lens forms the image of an object such that the distance between the
 object and the image is 10 cm and the magnification produced is 1 4 , the focal length of
lens will be__________cm

(A) –6.2 (B) –12.4 (C) –4.4 (D) –8.8

Answer : (C)

Ques 756. A prism of certain angle deviates the red and blue rays by 8 ο and 12ο
respectively. Another prism of the same prism angle deviates the red light at small angle
and made of different materials The dispersive powers of the materials of the prisms are in
the ratio_________.

(A) 5:6 (B) 9:11 (C) 6:5 (D) 11:9

Answer : (C)

Ques 757. The velocity of the light is maximum in a medium of…………..

(A) Diamond
(B) Water
(C) Glass
(D) Vacuum

Answer: (D)

Ques 758. A light of wavelength 320 nm enters in a medium of refractive index 1.6 from the
air of refractive index 1.0. The new wave length of light in the medium will be……..nm

(A) 520
(B) 400
(C) 320
(D) 220

Answer: (C)

Ques 759. A boy runs towards a plane mirror with a speed of 20 m/s. What is the speed of
his image?
 (A) 45 m/s
(B) 20 m/s
(C) 15 m/s
(D) 7.5 m/s

Answer: (B)

Ques 760. A ray of light is incident at an angle 30 degree on a mirror. The angle between
normal and reflected ray is …………..degree

(A) 15
(B) 30
(C) 45
(D) 60

Answer: (D)

Ques 761. The number of images formed between two parallel plane mirror are

(A) Infinite
(B) 0
(C) 180
(D) 360

Answer: (A)

Ques 762. To get five images of a single object one should have two plane mirror at an
angle of…………degree

(A) 36
(B) 72
(C) 180
(D) 302

Answer: (B)

Ques 763. If a glass rod is immersed in a liquid of the same refractive index, then it
will……….
 (A) Appear bent
(B) Appear longer
(C) Disappear
(D) Appear shorter

Answer: (C)

Ques 764. A plane mirror produces a magnification of ………

(A) 0
(B) +1
(C) -1
(D) Infinity

Answer: (B)

Ques 765. A convex lens forms a real image of an object for its two different positions on a
screen. If height of the image in both cases be 16 cm and 4 cm then height of the object
is…………..cm

(A) -4
(B) 4
(C) -8
(D) 8

Answer: (D)

Ques 766. The power of plane glass is

(A) Infinite
(B) Zero
(C) 2D
(D) 4D

Answer: (B)

Ques 767. A convex lens is made up of three materials as shown in the figure. For point
object placed on its axis, the number of images formed are…………………
 (A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 1

Answer: (C)

Ques 768. If thin prism of 5 degree gives a deviation of 2 degree then the refractive index of
material of prism is……………….

(A) 1.4
(B) 1.5
(C) 1.6
(D) 1.0

Answer: (A)

Ques 769. It is difficult to see through the fog because…………..

(A) Light is scattered by the droplets in the fog

(B) Fog absorbs light
(C) Refractive index of fog is infinity
(D) Light suffers total internal refraction

Answer: (A)

Ques 770. In which of the following cases a man will not see image greater than himself?

(A) Convex mirror

(B) Concave mirror
(C) Plane mirror
 (D) None of these

Answer: (A)

Ques 771. A glass slab (n=1.5) of thickness 9 cm is placed over a written paper. What is the
shift in the letters?

(A) 6 cm
(B) 3 cm
(C) 2 cm
(D) 0 cm

Answer: (B)

Ques 772. A concave mirror of focal length 20 cm forms a virtual image having twice the
linear dimensions of the object. The position of the object will be……………

(A) 7.5
(B) -10
(C) 10
(D) -7.5

Answer: (C)

Ques 773. A mark at the bottom of the liquid appears to rise by 0.2m. If depth of the liquid
is 2.0 m then refractive index of the liquid is………………

(A) 1.80
(B) 1.60
(C) 1.33
(D) 1.11

Answer: (D)

Ques 774. 1.6 is a refractive index of plano convex lens. Then the radius of curvature of the
curved surface is 60 cm. The focal length of the lens is …………………..cm

(A) 50
 (B) 100
(C) -50
(D) -100

Answer: (B)

Ques 775. Which of the following colors is scattered minimum?

(A) Violet
(B) Red
(C) Blue
(D) Yellow

Answer: (B)

Ques 776. A plano convex lens of f=20 cm is silvered at plane surface. New f will
be………………cm

(A) 20
(B) 40
(C) 30
(D) 60

Answer: (C)

Ques 777. The radius of curvature of convex surface of thin plano-convex lens is 15 cm and
refractive index of its material is 1.6. The power of the lens will be……………

(A) 6 D
(B) 5 D
(C) 4 D
(D) 3 D

Answer: (C)

Ques 778. An air bubble inside glass slab (n=1.5) appear from one side at 6 cm and from
other side at 4 cm. Then the thickness of glass slab is ………………….cm
 (A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) 20

Answer: (C)

Ques 779. A concave mirror has a focal length 30 cm. The distance between the two
positions of the object for which image size is double of the object is……………..

(A) 30 cm
(B) 15 cm
(C) -25 cm
(D) -15 cm

Answer: (A)

Ques 780. Interference is possible in ……………….

(A) Light waves only

(B) Sound waves only
(C) Both light and sound waves
(D) None of these

Answer: (C)