Nta Ugc-Net HRM: 5 Previous Year Papers With Answer Key

5 Previous Year Papers with Answer Key
(Nov. 2017 to Dec. 2019)

NTA UGC-NET HRM
India's No. 1 Learning Community in NTA UGC-NET
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General Paper-I (Nov. 2017)
General Paper on Teaching and Research Aptitude

Previous Year Solved Paper (Nov. 2017)
Time : 1¼ hours Paper-I Maximum Marks : 100
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions, each question carries two (2)
marks. All questions are compulsory.
Answer the questions 1 to 5 based on the data given in the table below.
Table : Number of registered vehicles in India and India’s population.
Total Two Cars, Jeeps, Goods Population

Buses Others
Year vehicles wheelers Taxis Vehicles (India)
(Lakhs) (Lakhs)
(Lakhs) (Lakhs) (Lakhs) Lakhs) (Millions)
1961 6.65 0.88 3.1 0.57 1.68 0.42 439.23
1971 18.65 5.76 6.82 0.94 3.43 1.70 548.15
1981 53.91 26.18 11.60 1.62 5.54 8.97 683.32
1991 213.74 142.00 29.54 3.31 13.56 25.33 846.42
2001 549.91 385.56 70.58 6.34 29.48 57.95 1028.73
2011 1417.58 1018.65 191.23 16.04 70.64 121.02 1210.19
1. What was the per capita ownership of two wheelers in India in the year 2011 ?
(1) ~ 0.0084% (2) ~ 0.84%
(3) ~ 0.068% (4) ~ 0.084%
2. What was the average decadal growth in the number of cars during 1961 - 2011 ?
(1) ~ 68% (2) ~ 217%
(3) ~ 157% (4) ~ 131%
3. In the year 2001, out of total number of vehicles, the number of passenger vehicles (4 wheelers)
accounted for :
(1) ~ 24% (2) ~ 31%
(3) ~ 43% (4) ~ 14%
4. The maximum decadal growth in population of India is registered in the period :

(1) 1991-2001 (2) 2001-2011
(3) 1981-1991 (4) 1961-1971
5. In which year the decadal growth (%) in number of cars surpassed that of the two wheelers ?
(1) 2001 (2) 1981
(3) 2011 (4) 1991
6. The next term in the series ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, ......... is :
(1) SBL (2) PSK
(3) RUH (4) NSA
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7. Given below are four statements Among them two are related in such a way that they can both
be true but they cannot both be false. Select the code that indicates those two statements :
Statements :
(a) Honest people never suffer.
(b) Almost all honest people do suffer.
(c) Honest people hardly suffer.
(d) Each and every honest person suffers.
Code :
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (a) and (d)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (b)
8. In a classroom the probability of message reception can be enhanced by :

(1) Exposing the ignorance of students
(2) Increasing the information load
(3) Using high decibel audio tools
(4) Establishing a viewpoint
9. It is Truism to say that no one was there when life first appeared on earth. Any assertion about
life’s origin, thus, should be treated as a theory.
The above two statements constitute :
(1) A narrative (2) An argument
(3) A conjecture (4) A historical explanation
10. The spatial audio reproduction in a classroom can reduce the students :
(1) Respect for the teacher
(2) Motivation for excellence
(3) Interest in technology - orientation
(4) Cognitive load in understanding
11. A deductive argument is invalid if :

(1) Its premises and conclusion are all false.
(2) Its premises and all false but its conclusion is true.
(3) Its premises are all true but its conclusion is false.
(4) Its premises and conclusion are all true.
12. A good communicator begins his/her presentation with a :

(1) Non-sequitur (2) Repetitive phrase
(3) Ice-breaker (4) Complex question
13. In certain code, “COVALENT” is coded as BWPDUOFM. The code of “ELEPHANT” will be :
(1) QMUBIADH (2) QFMFUOBI
(3) EPHNTEAS (4) MFUIQRTW

14. In the series 1, 6, 15, 28, 45, ........... the next term will be :
(1) 76 (2) 56
(3) 84 (4) 66
15. Ajay is a friend of Rakesh. Pointing to an old man Ajay asked Rakesh who is he ? Rakesh said
“His son is my son’s uncle”. The old man is related to Rakesh as :
(1) Father-in-law (2) Father
(3) Uncle (4) Grandfather
16. The interaction between a teacher and students creates a zone of proximal :
(1) Confusion (2) Development
(3) Distortion (4) Difference
17. Given below are two premises (a and b). From those two premises four conclusions (i), (ii), (iii)
and (iv) are drawn. Select the code that states the conclusion/conclusions drawn validly (taking
the premises singularly or jointly).
Premises : (a) All bats are mammals.
(b) No birds are bats.
Conclusions : (i) No birds are mammals.
(ii) Some birds are not mammals.
(iii) No bats are birds.
(iv) All mammals are bats.
Code :
(1) (i) and (ii) only (2) (iii) only
(3) (iii) and (iv) only (4) (i) only
18. A postman walked 20 m straight from his office, turned right and walked 10 m. After turning left
he walked 10 m and after turning right walked 20 m. He again turned right and walked 70 m.
How far he is from his office ?
(1) 40 m. (2) 60 m.
(3) 20 m. (4) 50 m.
19. Just as melting ice-cubes do not cause a glass of water to overflow, melting sea - ice does not
increase oceanic volume.
What type of argument is it ?
(1) Hypothetical (2) Psychological
(3) Statistical (4) Analogical
20. The classroom communication should essentially be :

(1) Empathetic (2) Abstract
(3) Non-descriptive (4) Contrived

21. Which of the following set of statements best represents the nature and objective of teaching
and learning ?
(a) Teaching is like selling and learning is like buying.
(b) Teaching is a social act while learning is a personal act.
(c) Teaching implies learning whereas learning does not imply teaching.
(d) Teaching is a kind of delivery of knowledge while learning is like receiving it.
(e) Teaching is an interaction and is triadic in nature whereas learning is an active engagement
in a subject domain.
Code :
(1) (b), (c) and (e) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (a), (d) and (e)
22. From the list given below identify the learner characteristics which would facilitate teaching
learning system to become effective. Choose the correct code to indicate your answer.
(a) Prior experience of learner (b) learner’s family lineage
(c) Aptitude of the learner (d) Learner’s stage of development
(e) Learner’s food habits and hobbies (f) Learner’s religious affiliation
Code :
(1) (d), (e) and (f) (2) (a), (d) and (e)
(3) (b), (c) and (f) (4) (a), (c) and (d)
23. In finalizing a thesis writing format which of the following would form part of supplementary
pages ?
(1) Table of contents (2) Conclusions of the study
(3) Bibliography and Appendices (4) List of tables and figures
24. Which one of the following is a key behaviour in effective teaching ?

(1) Structuring
(2) Instructional variety
(3) Questioning
(4) Using student ideas and contribution
25. Which of the following research types focuses on ameliorating the prevailing situations ?
(1) Applied Research (2) Action Research
(3) Experimental Research (4) Fundamental Research
26. A researcher attempts to evaluate the effect of method of feeding on anxiety - proneness of
children. Which method of research would be appropriate for this ?
(1) Experimental method (2) Ex-post-facto method
(3) Survey method (4) Case study method
27. Which of the following is susceptible to the issue of research ethics ?

(1) Faulty research design
(2) Choice of sampling techniques
(3) Reporting of research findings
(4) Inaccurate application of statistical techniques

28. On the basis of summative tests, a teacher is interpreting his/her students, performance in terms
of their wellness life style evident in behaviour. This will be called :
(1) Continuous and comprehensive evaluation
(2) Norm - referenced testing
(3) Criterion - referenced testing
(4) Formative testing
29. In which of the following arrangements a wider spectrum of ideas and issues may be made
possible ?
(1) Workshop mode (2) Conference
(3) Symposium (4) Research Article
30. Assertion (A) : All teaching implies learning.

Reason (R) : Learning to be useful must be derived from teaching.
Choose the correct answer from the following :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(3) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
31. Occurrence of natural hazards is affected by :

(a) Land use changes (b) Drainage and construction
(c) Ozone depletion (d) Climate change
Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (c) and (d)
32. What is the name for a webpage address ?

(1) Directory (2) Protocol
(3) URL (4) Domain
33. Which of the following universities has received the Visitor’s Award for the best Central University
in India in Feb. 2017 ?
(1) Banaras Hindu University (2) Tezpur University
(3) University of Hyderabad (4) Jawaharlal Nehru University
34. Which of the following has been ranked the best college in the country (2017) as per the National
Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) ?
(1) St. Stephen’s College, Delhi (2) Fergusson College, Pune
(3) Maharaja’s College, Mysore (4) Miranda House, Delhi

35. Which of the following are the goals of higher education in India ?
(a) Access (b) Equity
(c) Quality and Excellence (d) Relevance
(e) Value based education (f) Compulsory and free education
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (a), (b), (e) and (f) (2) (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e)
(3) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) (4) (a), (b) and (e) only
36. Among the following fuels of energy, which is the most environment friendly ?
(1) Biogas (2) CNG
(3) Hydrogen (4) Ethanol
37. Which of the following pollutant gases is not produced both naturally and as a result of industrial
activity ?
(1) Nitrous oxide (2) Methane
(3) Carbon dioxide (4) Chlorofluoro carbons
38. Which of the following come(s) within the ambit of the term ‘corruption’ ?
(a) Misuse of official position
(b) Deviation from rules, laws and norms
(c) Non-action when action is required
(d) Harm to public good
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a) only
39. Who among the following can be removed by the President without Parliament’s resolution?
(1) Governor of a State
(2) Chief Election Commissioner
(3) Comptroller and Auditor-General
(4) Judge of a High Court
40. Assertion (A) : In urban areas, smog episodes occur frequently in winters.
Reason (R) : In winters, a lot of biomass is burnt’ by people for heating purposes or to keep
themselves warm.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true and (R) is false
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
41. Which of the following represents billion characters ?

(1) Megabytes (2) Kilobytes
(3) Gigabytes (4) Terabytes

42. Which of the following pollutants is the major cause of respiratory diseases ?
(1) Nitrogen oxides (2) Carbon monoxide
(3) Volatile organic compounds (4) Suspended fine particles
43. Which of the following domains is used for - profit businesses ?

(1) .net (2) .edu
(3) .com (4) .org
44. The data storage hierarchy consists of :

(1) Bits, bytes, fields, records, files and databases
(2) Bits, bytes, records, fields, files and databases
(3) Bits, bytes, fields, files, records and databases
(4) Bytes, bits, fields, records, files and databases
45. What is the full form of USB as used in computer related activities ?
(1) Universal Security Block (2) Universal Serial Bus
(3) United Serial Bus (4) Ultra Security Block
Read the passage carefully and answer question numbers from 46 to 50.
Climate change is considered to be one of the most serious threats to sustainable development,
with adverse impacts on the environment, human health, food security, economic activity, natural
resources and physical infrastructure. Global climate varies naturally. According to the
Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), the effects of climate change have already
been observed, and scientific findings indicate that precautionary and prompt action is necessary.
Vulnerability to climate change is not just a function of geography or dependence on natural
resources; it also has social, economic and political dimensions which influence how climate
change affects different groups. Poor people rarely have insurance to cover loss of property due
to natural calamities i.e. drought, floods, super cyclones etc. The poor communities are already
struggling to cope with the existing challenges of poverty and climate variability and climate
change could push many beyond their ability to cope or even survive. It is vital that these
communities are helped to adapt to the changing dynamics of nature. Adaptation is a process
through which societies make themselves better able to cope with an uncertain future. Adapting
to climate change entails taking the right measures to reduce the negative effects of climate
change (or exploit the positive ones) by making the appropriate adjustments and changes. These
range from technological options such as increased sea defences or flood - proof houses on
stilts to behavioural change at the individual level, such as reducing water use in times of
drought. Other strategies include early warning systems for extreme events, better water
management, improved risk management, various insurance options and biodiversity conservation.
Because of the speed at which climate change is happening due to global temperature rise, it
is urgent that the vulnerability of developing countries to climate change is reduced and their
capacity to adapt is increased and national adaptation plans are implemented. Adapting to
climate change will entail adjustments and changes at every level from community to national
and international. Communities must build their resilience, including adopting appropriate
technologies while making the most of traditional knowledge, and diversifying their livelihoods to
cope with current and future climate stress. Local coping strategies and knowledge need to be
used in synergy with government and local interventions. The need of adaptation interventions
depends on national circumstances. There is a large body of knowledge and experience within

local communities on coping with climatic variability and extreme weather events. Local communities
have always aimed to adapt to variations in their climate. To do so, they have made preparations
based on their resources and their knowledge accumulated through experience of past weather
patterns. This includes times when they have also been forced to react to and recover from
extreme events, such as floods, drought and hurricanes. Local coping strategies are an important
element of planning for adaptation. Climate change is leading communities to experience climatic
extremes more frequently as well as new climate conditions and extremes. Traditional knowledge
can help to provide efficient, appropriate and time - tested ways of advising and enabling
adaptation to climate change in communities who are feeling the effects of climate changes due
to global warming.
46. To address the challenge of climate change, developing countries urgently require :
(1) Implementation of national adaptation policy at their level
(2) Adoption of short-term plans
(3) Adoption of technological solutions
(4) Imposition of climate change tax
47. Given below are the factors of vulnerability of poor people to climate change. Select the code
that contains the correct answer.
(a) Their dependence on natural resources
(b) Geographical attributes
(c) Lack of financial resources
(d) Lack of traditional knowledge
Code :
(1) (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
48. Adaptation as a process enables societies to cope with :

(a) An uncertain future
(b) Adjustments and changes
(c) Negative impact of climate change
(d) Positive impact of climate change
Select the most appropriate answer from the following code :
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (c) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
49. The main focus of the passage is on :

(1) Co-ordination between regional and national efforts
(2) Adaptation to climate change
(3) Social dimensions of climate change
(4) Combining traditional knowledge with appropriate technology
50. The traditional knowledge should be used through :

(1) Improvement in national circumstances
(2) Synergy between government and local interventions
(3) Modern technology
(4) Its dissemination
ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
4 4 4 4 3 1 3 4 2 4
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
3 3 2 4 2 2 2 4 4 1
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
1 4 3 2 2 2 3 3 2 2
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
2 3 4 4 2 3 4 3 1 1
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
3 4 3 1 2 1 4 4 2 2

Human Resource Management Paper - II (Nov. 2017)
Human Resource Management

Previous Year Solved Paper (Nov. 2017)
Time : 1¼ hours Paper-II Maximum Marks : 100
marks. Attempt all the questions.
1. Who among the following are known for study of work arrangements to eliminate wasteful hand
and body motions ?
(1) Henry Gantt and C.I. Barnard (2) Frank and Lillian Gilbreth
(3) Elton Mayo and H. Emerson (4) F.W.Taylor and Henry Gantt
2. Which of the following represents the rights inherent in a managerial position to give orders and
expect them to be obeyed ?
(1) Power (2) Authority
(3) Influence (4) Responsibility
3. Match the following :

List–I List–II
(a) Robert Owen (i) Organisations based on group ethics rather
than individualism
(b) Hugo Munsterberg (ii) Social norms and standards of group
(c) Mary Parker Follett (iii) Employers treat their machines better than
workers
(d) Elton Mayo (iv) Scientific study of human behaviour to identify
general patterns and individual differences
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
4. Which of the following has specialists from different functional departments working on one or
more projects that are led by a project manager ?
(1) Functional Organisation (2) Cross–Functional Team
(3) Matrix Organisation (4) Product Organisation
5. Which one of the following is related to clan control ?

(1) Relies on administrative rules and regulations
(2) Employee’s behaviours are regulated by the shared values, norms, traditions, rituals and
beliefs of the organisation
(3) Emphasizes organisational authority
(4) Depends on standardisation activities

6. Which one of the following Acts, deals with the issue of complaints ?
(1) Factories Act, 1948
(2) Payment of wages Act, 1948
(3) Employees’ compensation Act, 1923
(4) Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946
7. Job Description implies :

(1) Identification of the qualities required in the job holder
(2) Performance of job in a methodical way
(3) Laying down systematically the duties and responsibilities of the job
(4) Determination of the performance standards of the job
8. The Human Resource Planning is a :

(1) Positive process (2) Negative process
(3) Reactive process (4) Pro–active process
9. The degree to which a particular selection device accurately predicts the level of performance is
known as :
(1) Construct Validity (2) Criterion–related validity
(3) Logical validity (4) Concurrent validity
10. Progressive Discipline is :

(1) For the growth of skills.
(2) A system of warnings and punishments that gradually become more severe.
(3) Discipline to meet future needs.
(4) A system of severe punishments right from the beginning.
11. Read this small passage on HRD and answer questions at the end by choosing appropriate
answer from the given alternatives.
HRD is a competence building exercise through which people everywhere (of the world, of the
nation, and of the organization) are enabled to recognize their potential so as to utilize their
capabilities and available resources and opportunities equitably for not only their own development
but also development of their organisations, Nations and the world on a sustainable basis.
Which of the following statements picked up from the passage is/are true or false ?
(a) It talks about Macro and Micro level HRD.
(b) At macro level it encompasses world and national development.
(c) It highlights the contents of HRD vividly.
(d) At all levels, HRD aims at sustainable development.
Code :
(1) (a), (b) are true, (c), (d) are false (2) (a), (b), (d) are true, (c) is false
(3) (a), (b), (c) are true, (d) is false (4) All the statements are true

12. Match the following concepts of career planning List–I with their propagators List–II :
List–I List–II
(a) Career Anchor (i) Mondy et al
(b) Career Stage Model (ii) John Holland
(c) Caree Path Model (iii) Edgar Schein
(d) Career Choice Model (iv) D. T. Hall
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
13. Quality of work Life is a combination of employee’s welfare, working conditions and workplace
democracy.
Who highlighted the concept of workplace democracy ?
(a) Eric Tryst (b) Udai Pareek
(c) Einar Thorsrud (d) Fred Emery.
Code :
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
14. ‘Bell curve’ is represented by which of the traditional methods of performance Appraisal ?
(1) Forced Choice Method (2) Free from Essay Method
(3) Critical Incidence Method (4) Forced Distribution Method
15. Match the following approaches of HRD List–I with the person or institution who or which advanced
the approach Lis–II :
List–I List–II
(a) Human Capital Approach (i) Human Development Report
(b) Socio/Psychological Approach (ii) T.U. Schultz
(c) Poverty Alleviation Approach (iii) David Mc Clelland
(d) World Human Development (iv) Mahbub Ul Haq.
Approach
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

16. Which of the following statements about the Organisational Behaviour (OB) system is/are true
and false ?
(a) OB believes in open system.
(b) It has three sub-systems namely formal Organisation System, Individual System and
Social System.
(c) There are no intervening mechanisms to lead Organisational Behaviour towards
organisational effectiveness.
(d) OB Mod and reinforcement are outside the purview of OB system.
Code :
(1) (a), (b), (c) are true, (d) is false.
(2) (a), (c), (d) are true, (b) is false.
(3) (a), (c) are true, (b) and (d) are false.
(4) (a) and (b) are true, (c) and (d) are false.
17. What is ’Neotony’ as a leadership trait advanced by Bennis and Thomas ?

(1) Calm, confident and predictable under stressful condition
(2) Youthful, curious, playful, fearless, warm and energetic
(3) Encouraging dissent, empathy and obsessive communication
(4) Ambitious, morally strong and competence
18. In which year, in which factory and by whom the first quality circle in India was introduced ?
(1) 1982 ; Bharat Electronics Ltd, S.R. Udpa
(2) 1981 ; Hindusthan Aeronautics Ltd, S.R. Udpa
(3) 1982 ; Hindusthan Machine Tools, R.S. Tarneja
(4) 1982 ; Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd, S.R. Udpa
19. Which of the following statements relating to ‘role’ is/are true and false ?
(a) The system of various roles that the individual carries and performs is ‘role set’.
(b) The system of various roles of which an individuals role is a part is ‘role space’.
(c) Self role integration, proactivity, creativity and confrontation are ingredients of the Role
making‘ dimension of Role efficacy.
(d) Role stress is caused by both Role space conflict and Role set conflict.
Code :
(1) (a), (c) are true, (b), (d) are false (2) (a), (b) are true, (c), (d) are false
(3) (a), (b) are false, (c), (d) are true (4) (a), (d) are true, (b), (c) are false
20. The characteristics of ‘Morale’ are depicted as

(i) The absence of conflict
(ii) feeling of happiness
(iii) good inter–personal adjustment
(iv) involvement in one’s job
(v) group cohesiveness
(vi) Positive job related attitudes
(vii) individual’s acceptance of the group goals.
Who is associated with this explanation ?
(1) Blum and Naylor (2) Hugo Munsterberg
(3) R.M. Guien (4) J.L. Moreno
21. Who regarded trade unions as “institutions for overcoming managerial dictatorship, to strengthen
individual labourers and to give them some voice in the determination of the conditions under
which they have to work” ?
(1) Karl Marx (2) Gandhi
(3) Sidney and Beatrice Webb (4) Selig Perlman
22. ‘Feather Bedding’ refers to :

(1) The prevalence of the work rules which permit employees to be paid for work they do not
perform.
(2) The practice of hiring local people as a ‘sons-of-the soil’ policy.
(3) The practice of providing mattresses as a welfare measure to the employees in the winter
season for taking rest at the workplace during the rest intervals.
(4) The practice of hiring people belonging to rural areas only.
23. Which of the following statements relating to the Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction
is correct ?
(1) It was established in 1986. (2) It was a non–Statutory body.
(3) It was located in Mumbai. (4) It was dissolved from December 1, 2016.
24. Who declared that a strike is an “inherent right of the working men for the purpose of securing
justice” ?
(1) Gandhi (2) Karl Marx
(3) Sidney and Beatrice Webb (4) John T. Dunlop
25. In which year, the Calcutta High Court held that a ‘gherao’ that involved wrongful restraint of a
person belonging to the management was a cognizable offence ?
(1) 1964 (2) 1965
(3) 1966 (4) 1967
26. In which year the International Federation of Chemical, Energy, Mining and General Workers
formed ?
(1) 1985 (2) 1995
(3) 2005 (4) 2016
27. Who took the initiative of setting up the Joint Consultative Board of Industry and Labour in 1951?
(1) V.V. Giri (2) G.L. Nanda
(3) Khandubhai Desai (4) Babu Jagjiwan Ram
28. In which year, India ratified the ILO Convention concerning the Right of Association for Agricultural
Workers ?
(1) 1923 (2) 1924
(3) 1925 (4) 2017

29. The headquarter of Trade Union International of Workers in Building, Wood and Building Materials
Industries is located at :
(1) New Delhi (2) Paris
(3) Kolkata (4) Helsinki
30. Which of the following statements relating to ILO Convention No. 182 is wrong ?
(1) The Convention relates to Worst Forms of Child Labour.
(2) It is one of the eight Fundamental Conventions of the ILO.
(3) It was adopted in 1999 by the ILO.
(4) This Convention has not been ratified by India.
31. What is the minimum number of days a woman employee must have actually worked under an
employer in the twelve months immediately proceeding the date of expected delivery for becoming
eligible for maternity benefit under the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 ?
(1) Eighty days (2) Ninety days
(3) One hundred twenty days (4) One hundred days
32. What is the maximum limit of monthly wages to be taken into account for calculation of the
compensation under the Employee’s Compensation Act, 1923 ?
(1) ` 10,000 (2) ` 18,000
(3) ` 8,000 (4) ` 15,000
33. Under which of the following legislation provisions for Rehabilitation and Re-employment are
Provided ?
(1) Employees State Insurance Act, 1948
(2) Employees Compensation Act, 1923
(3) Inter–State Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Services) Act,
1979
(4) Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970
34. Which one of the following is not covered under Article 39 of the Indian Constitution ?
(1) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
(2) Protection of Childhood and youth against exploitation
(3) Citizens, men and women equally have the right to adequate means of livelihood
(4) Securing just and human conditions of work
35. The Factories Act, 1948 came into force with effect from ?
(1) 1st April, 1948 (2) 1st January, 1948
(3) 1st August, 1948 (4) 1st October, 1948

36. Which of the following labour legislations are covered under the category of Protective Labour
Legislation ?
(a) Minimum wages Act, 1948
(b) Motor Transport workers Act, 1961
(c) Factories Act, 1948
(d) Trade Unions Act, 1926
(e) Employees compensation Act, 1923
Code :
(1) (a) and (e) only (2) (a), (c) and (e) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only (4) (b), (c) and (d) only
37. Which one of the following statements is true relating to the composition of the International
Labour Conference ?
(1) It consists of four delegates nominated by each member state.
(2) It consists of eight delegates nominated by each state.
(3) It consists of six delegates nominated by each state.
(4) It consists of three delegates nominated by each member state.
38. Which one of the statements is true relating to the representation of outsiders as office bearers
of any registered Trade Union under the Trade Unions Act, 1926 functioning other than in an
unorganised sector ?
(1) Not more than one - third of the total number of office bearers or five which ever is more
(2) Not more than one - third of the total number of office bearers or five which ever is less
(3) Not more than one - half of the total number of office bearers or six which ever is less
(4) Not more than one - half of the total number of office bearers.
39. Which of the following are true as per the provisions of the Industrial Employment (Standing
Orders) Act, 1946 ?
(a) Draft standing orders are to be submitted by the employer to the certifying officer within
six months from the date on which the Act becomes applicable
(b) Six copies of such draft standing orders are to be submitted to the certifying officer
(c) Draft standing orders are to be prepared in consultation of the workmen employed in the
industrial establishment along with the trade unions if any
(d) A statement with particulars of the workmen employed in this industrial establishment
including the name of the trade unions, if any to be submitted along with the draft standing
order
Code :
(1) (a), (b) and (d) (2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (d) (4) (b) and (c)
40. A commercial establishment has employed two hundred workmen. Then which of the following
provisions shall be applicable under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947.
(a) Setting up of Grievance Redressal Machinery
(b) Constituting Works Committee
(c) Provisions of chapter V - B
(d) Compulsory reference of disputes to arbitration
Code :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

41. Assertion (A) : Labour Welfare is a relative concept as it is related to time and space.
Reason (R) : Welfare is growing and dynamic. The welfare potential changes as a result of
which its content keeps on varying and has to keep pace with the changing times.
Code :
(1) Assertion (A) is wrong and Reason (R) fails to explain (A).
(2) Assertion (A) is correct and Reason (R) fully explains (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is wrong and Reason (R), therefore, cannot explain (A).
(4) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are wrong.
42. Assertion (A) : The aims and objectives of Labour Welfare have progressively changed during
the last few decades.
Reason (R) : It has gradually moved to the era of paternalism with philanthropic objectives from
the primitive policing and placating philosophy of Labour welfare.
Code :
(1) Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) fails to explain (A).
(2) Assertion (A) is correct and Reason (R) explains (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is wrong and Reason (R) is correct.
43. Labour Welfare Services were divided into two groups by the Committee of Experts on Welfare
facilities for industrial workers convened by the I.L.O. in 1963. They are within the precincts and
outside the establishment.
Match the facilities given in List–I with the type provided in List–II :
List–I List–II
(a) Shift allowance (i) Outside establishment
(b) Administrative arrangements (ii) Within precincts welfare
within a plant for
(c) Programme for the welfare of (iii) Outside establishment
women, youth and children
(d) Vocational training for dependants (iv) Within precincts
of workers
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

44. Work stress is a chronic ailment caused by conditions that negatively affect one’s performance
and/or overall well being of the body and mind. Employers, these days, are concerned about
managing stress.
Which of the following are not the typical symptoms of job related stress ?
(a) Insomnia (b) Lack of Concentration
(c) Anxiety, depression (d) Job insecurity
(e) Extreme anger and mood swings (f) Family conflicts
(g) Strict deadlines (h) Frustration
Code :
(1) (b) and (h) (2) (d) and (f)
(3) (d) and (g) (4) (g) and (h)
45. Theories of Labour Welfare have been propounded after careful study and observation of the
state of affairs prevalent during that particular period of time.
Which theory of labour welfare was propounded after observing “The factories and other industrial
workplaces provide ample opportunities for owners and manager of capital to exploit workers in
an unfair manner”,
(1) Placating Theory (2) Religions Theory
(3) Policing Theory (4) Philanthropic Theory
46. Supply–demand framework predicts that termination of any ambitious project depresses a particular
segment of Labour market. This type of prediction is an example of :
(1) Positive Economics (2) Equilibrium
(3) Normative Economics (4) State of Saturation
47. Let us presume that an individual consumes ` 500 of consumption of goods and 100 hours of
Leisure per week. The utility index would equal 50,000 ‘utils’. Suppose further that the individual
consumes ` 400 worth of goods and 125 hours of Leisure, the utility index would still equal 50,000
‘utils’.
Suppose then that we hold utility constant at 50,000 utils, many combinations of utility and Leisure
will generate this particular level of utility. The locus of such points is called an indifference curve.
Which among the following is an incorrect property of Indifference curve ?
(1) Indifference curves are downward sloping.
(2) Higher indifference curves indicate higher levels of utility.
(3) Indifference curves do not intersect.
(4) Indifference curves are concave to the origin.
48. Labour is remunerated through payment of wages. There are different methods of wage payment
prevalent in different industries in different countries. But the ideal wage system should fulfil
certain characteristics. Which among the following is not a characteristic :
(1) It should be conducive to the interest of Labour only.
(2) It should be devised as to avoid industrial conflict.
(3) It should be conducive to the interest of both parties–employer and employee.
(4) It should be fairly simple as well as flexible.

49. Wages of the workers are Normally, the proportionality derived from their efficiency. But the
concept of efficiency of labour is itself vague such as amount of physical output, output per man
hour or output per man shift. But output is not the function of man alone. There are other factors
which affect the output. Which among the following is/are not the factor(s) that would affect the
output directly :
(a) Physical condition of work (b) Nature of machinery
(c) Technical process (d) Quality of raw material
(e) System of management (f) Role of fellow workers
(g) Competitors in the market
Code :
(1) (a) and (e) (2) (e) and (f)
(3) (f) and (g) (4) (d) and (f)
50. Match the following theories of wages List–I with their propagators List–II :
List–I List–II
(a) Standard of Living theory (i) J.S. Mill
(b) Wage Fund theory (ii) J.B. Clark
(c) Residual Claimant theory (iii) Karl Marx
(d) Marginal Productivity theory (iv) Francis A. Walker
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
2 2 2 3 2 4 3 4 2 2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
2 4 2 4 3 4 2 4 3 3
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
3 1 4 1 4 2 2 1 4 4
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
1 3 1 4 9 3 1 2 3 2
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
2 2 3 3 3 1 4 1 3 1
9 = ALL, A = 12, B = 13, C = 14, D = 123, E = 124, F = 134, G = 1234, H = 23, I = 24, J = 234, K = 34

Human Resource Management Paper - III (Nov. 2017)

Previous Question Paper (Nov. 2017)
Time : 2½ hours Paper-III Maximum Marks : 150
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions, each question carries
two (2) marks. Attempt all the questions.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given at the end by picking up the
appropriate answer from the given alternatives.
In principle, a cohesive group-one whose members generally agree with one another and support
one another’s judgements-can do a much better job at decision-making than it could if it were
non-cohesive. When cohesiveness is low or lacking entirely, compliance out of fear of recrimination
is likely to be strongest. To overcome this fear, participants in the group’s deliberations need to
be confident that they are members in good standing and that the others will continue to value
their role in the group, whether or not they agree about a particular issue under discussion. As
a member of a group feel more accepted by the others, they acquire greater freedom to say what
they really think, becoming less likely to use deceitful arguments or to play it safe by dancing
around issues with conventional comments. Typically, then, the more cohesive a group becomes,
the less its members will deliberately censor what they say out of fear of being punished socially
for antagonizing their fellow members.
But group cohesiveness can have pitfalls as well. While the members of a highly cohesive group
can feel much free to deviate from the majority, their desire for genuine concurrence on every
important issue often inclines them not to use this freedom. In a highly cohesive group of decision
makers, the danger is not that individuals will conceal objections they harbour regarding a proposal
favoured by the majority, but that they think the proposal is a good one without attempting to carry
out a critical scrutiny that could reveal grounds for strong objections. Members may then decide
that any misgivings they feel are not worth pursuing- that the benefit of any doubt should be given
to the group consensus. In this way, they may fall victim to a syndrome known as ‘groupthink’.
Collective decision making has been defined as “a deterioration of mental efficiency, reality testing
and moral judgement that results from in-group pressures”.
Based on analyses of major fiascos of international diplomacy and military decision making,
researchers have identified groupthink behaviour as a recurring pattern that involves several
factors; overestimation of the groups power and morality, manifested, for example, in an illusion
of invulnerability, which creates excessive optimism; close- mindedness to warnings of problems
and to alternative view points; and unwarranted pressures toward uniformity, including self-
censorship with respect to doubts about the group’s reasoning and a concomitant shared illusion
of unanimity concerning group decisions. Cohesiveness of the decision making group is an
essential antecedent condition of this syndrome but not a sufficient one. So it is important to work
toward identifying the additional factors that determine whether group cohesiveness will deteriorate
into groupthink or allow for effective decision making.

1. Why the author does think that the cohesive group can do a much better job at decision making
than it could if it were non-cohesive ?
(a) The members of a highly cohesive group can feel much free to deviate from the majority
(b) Individuals will not conceal objection they harbour regarding a proposal favoured by the
majority.
(c) Participants in the group’s deliberations are confident that they are members in good
standing and that the others will continue to value their role in the group, whether or not
they agree about a particular issue under discussion.
Code :
(1) only (a) (2) only (b)
(3) both (a) and (c) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
2. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the passage ?
(1) Despite its value in encouraging frank discussions, high cohesion can lead to a debilitating
type of group decision making called groupthink.
(2) Group members can guard against group thinking if they have a good understanding of
the critical role played by cohesion.
(3) Only diplomacy and military affairs would suffer if there is tendency of groupthink
(4) Low cohesion is better than high cohesion resulting in groupthink.
3. A group of closely associated colleagues has made a disastrous diplomatic decision after a
series of meetings marked by disagreement over conflicting alternatives. It can be inferred from
the passage that the author would most likely to say that this Scenario.
(1) Provides evidence of chronic indecision, thus indicating a weak level of cohesion in general.
(2) Indicates that the group’s cohesiveness was coupled with some other factor to produce
a groupthink fiasco.
(3) Provides no evidence that groupthink played an effective role in group decision making.
(4) Provides evidence that groupthink can develop even in some groups that do not demonstrate
an ‘Illusion of Unanimity’.
4. The passage mentions which one of the following as a component of groupthink ?

(1) Unjustified suspicions among group members regarding an adversary’s intentions
(2) Group members working under unusually high stress, leading to illusions of invulnerability.
(3) strong belief that the group’s decision are right.
(4) The deliberate use of conventional comments.
5. What the author of the passage ultimately concludes ?

(1) Group cohesiveness is always good
(2) It is important to work towards identifying the additional factors that determine whether
group cohesiveness will deteriorate into groupthink or allow for effective decision-making.
(3) Groupthink is solely responsible for ineffective decision-making.
(4) The causal factors that transform group cohesion into groupthink are unique to each case.

6. When driven by group cohesion, a decision is taken only to be lamented for later is called :
(1) Abilene effect (2) Placebo effect
(3) Hawthorne effect (4) Halo effect
7. In which year the Amalgamated Society of Engineers was established in Great Britain ?
(1) 1837 (2) 1850
(3) 1854 (4) 1859
8. Assertion (A) : Workforce diversity requires employers to be more sensitive to the differences
that each group brings to the work setting.
Reason (R) : Employees need to be responsive to the values, needs, interests and expectations
of fellow employees.
Code :
(1) (A) is right but (R) is wrong.
(2) (A) is wrong but (R) is right.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are right but (R) does not explain (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) explains (A).
9. A Commercial establishment has engaged one hundred and fifty workmen. If it wants to retrench
any workman who has completed one year of continuous service in the establishment, then
which of the conditions are to be followed under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 ?
(a) It has to serve one month notice in writing in advance or pay in lieu of such notice, wages
for the notice period.
(b) It has to serve three months notice in writing in advance or pay in lieu of such notice,
wages for the notice period.
(c) Pay retrenchment compensation at the rate of fifteen days average pay for every completed
year of continuous service or any part thereof in excess of six months.
(d) Notice in the prescribed manner is served on the appropriate Government.
(e) Prior permission of the appropriate Government has been obtained on an application
made in this behalf.
Code :
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (b), (c) and (e)
(3) (b), (d) and (e) (4) (a), (c), (d) and (e)
10. The National Association of Letter Carriers was started in USA in the year :
(1) 1887 (2) 1888
(3) 1889 (4) 1890
11. Which one of the following is not a benefit of Total Quality management ?
(1) Maximising cost
(2) Providing greater satisfaction to all concerned
(3) creating quality consciousness
(4) Creating good public image

12. A worker retires from a factory after putting in twenty years of continuous service. His last monthly
wages drawn was ` 45,500. What is the amount of gratuity the worker is entitled to under the
payment of Gratuity Act, 1972.
(1) ` 5,75,000 (2) ` 5,25,000
(3) ` 7,50,000 (4) ` 4,55,000
13. Who had given the pluralist approach to industrial relations indicating ‘job regulation’ drawing from
the theories of anomie, collective bargaining and industrial democracy ?
(1) H.A. Clegg (2) Alan Fox
(3) R. Commons (4) Allan Flanders
14. Buzz-Sessions help in :

(a) making workers versatile
(b) making labour become more skilled and hard working
(c) eliminating those employees who sit through the conference session but do not participate
(d) stimulating discussion and participation from each member of group
Code :
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (c), and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
15. An employee engaged in an industrial establishment draws wages of ` 20,000 per month. What
is the amount of bonus he shall be entitled to, if it is to be paid at the rate of 9% by the employer
for an accounting year under the provisions of the payment of Bonus Act, 1965 ?
(1) Rupees Seven thousand five hundred sixty only
(2) Rupees Eighteen thousand only
(3) Rupees Eight thousand one hundred thirty only
(4) Rupees Ten thousand six hundred forty only
16. Assertion (A) : Collective bargaining provides for procedural and substantial rules.
Reason (R) : It incorporates mechanism for dealing with interpretations and implementation of
agreements as well as resolving conflicts and substantial rules concerning the substance of the
agreements in both markets and managerial relationships.
Code :
(1) Assertion (A) is wrong and, thus, Reason (R) fails to explain (A).
(2) Assertion (A) is only partially true and, therefore, the Reason (R) only partially explains (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is correct and Reason (R) explains (A).
(4) Assertion (A) is correct and Reason (R) is wrong.

17. In March 2017, the Government of India in the Ministry of labour and Employment has revised the
administrative charges payable by the employers under the Employees Provident Fund Scheme,
1952. Which one of the following statements given is correct ?
(1) 0.65 percent (Zero point six five percent) of the pay subject to a minimum of seventy five
rupees per month for every non-functional establishments having no contributory member
and five hundred rupees per month for other establishments
(2) 0.67 percent (Zero point six seven percent) of the pay subject to a minimum of one
hundred rupees per month for every non-functional establishment having no contributory
member and five hundred rupees per month for other establishments
(3) 0.75 percent (Zero point seven five percent) of the pay subject to a minimum of one
hundred rupees per month for every non-functional establishment having no contributory
member and one thousand rupees per month for other establishments
(4) 0.50 percent (Zero point five zero percent) of the pay subject to a minimum of seventy five
rupees per month for every non-functional establishment having no contributory member
and one thousand rupees per month for other establishments.
18. Assertion (A) : Both Weber’s Bureaucracy and Taylor’s scientific management emphasise on
rationality, predictability, impersonality, technical competence and authoritarianism.
Reason (R) : Though Weber’s writings were less operational than Taylor’s, yet ‘ideal bureaucracy‘
describes many contemporary organisations.
Code :
(1) (A) is right and (R) is wrong. (2) (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are right. (4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
19. Which of the following are the trends in International Industrial Relations System ?
(a) MNCs try to cultivate centralised ethnocentric approach to the extent of pressurising the
national Governments to bring out unprecedented economic and labour reforms.
(b) MNCs aspire for hassle free business climate and for this, adopt the practice of replacing
expensive labour with cheap labour through outsourcing.
(c) MNCs promote individual centric Human Resource policies to keep trade unions at bay.
(d) MNCs act like ‘octopus’. Nations, trade unions and other actors of Industrial Relations only
grapple with the unfathomable strength of MNCs.
Code :
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
20. Match List – A with List – B and select correct answer by using the code given below :
List – A List – B
(a) Application of psychology to (i) Henry L. Gantt
industry and management
(b) Program Evaluation and (ii) Walter Dill Scott
Review Technique
(c) Widely acclaimed first lady (iii) Lillian Gilbreth
of management
(d) Application of psychology to (iv) Hugo Munsterberg
advertising, marketing and
personnel.

Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
21. Recently the Government of India has enforced ‘the Ease of compliance to Maintain Registers
under various Labour Laws Rules, 2017’ for maintenance of combined registers provided under
various labour legislations. Which of the following legislations is not covered under the above
Rules ?
(1) Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 (2) Mines Act, 1952
(3) Factories Act, 1948 (4) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
22. According to which one of the following approaches, management is the function of planning,
organising, leading and controlling ?
(1) Process approach (2) Systems approach
(3) Quantitative approach (4) Human behaviour approach
23. Which of the following statements about the definition of ‘Trade Union‘ as given in the Trade
Unions Act, 1926 is not true ?
(a) A trade union is any combination, whether temporary or permanent.
(b) It regulates the relations between workmen and employer.
(c) It does not regulate the relations between workmen and workmen.
(d) It regulates relations between employers and employers.
Code :
(1) only (a) (2) (a) and (b)
(3) only (c) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
24. Calculate the amount of compensation to be paid to the dependants of a deceased employee,
where death results from the injury, under the provisions of Employees, Compensation Act, 1923.
(Monthly wages drawn was ` 15,000 and Relevant factor is 139.13)
(1) ` 1,20,000 (2) ` 4,52,400
(3) ` 6,50,210 (4) ` 5,56,520
25. Which one of the following is not a barrier to communication ?

(1) feedback (2) ambiguity
(3) lack of trust (4) distortions in communication
26. Whichof the following statements relating to the industrial relations policy in India is/are not true ?
(a) Industrial relations in India is highly regulated by state intervention.
(b) Industrial relations policy in India tried to shift from Courts to Codes.
(c) Tripartism was a strong policy shift in industrial relations in India.
(d) Free and compulsory collective bargaining was the chief characteristic feature of industrial
relations policy in India.
Code :
(1) only (a) (2) only (b)
(3) (a), (b), (c) (4) only (d)

27. For the first time in India, medical benefit as a non-cash benefit was provided under :
(1) Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 (2) Employees State Insurance Act, 1948
(3) Factories Act, 1948 (4) Mines Act, 1952
28. Who has propagated the bipartite, tripartite and multi-partite aspects of industrial relations with
human relations as the invisible energy binding them ?
(1) Sidney and Beatrice Webb (2) H.A. Clegg
(3) John H. Richardson (4) Alan Fox
29. In a conflict situation, which of the following errors makes the bargainers assume that their gain
must come at the expense of the other party ?
(1) Mythical Fixed Pie (2) Conflict Dilemma
(3) Winner’s Curse (4) Escalation of Commitment
30. Under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, which one of the following is not a prescribed wagesperiod
for fixation of minimum rate of wages ?
(1) by the hour (2) by the day
(3) by the week (4) by the month
31. Allocable surplus for a banking company under the provisions of the payment of Bonus Act, 1965
means :
(1) Sixty seven percent of the available surplus in an accounting year
(2) Sixty percent of the available surplus in an accounting year
(3) Sixty six percent of the available surplus in an accounting year
(4) Sixty six percent of the available surplus in the financial year
32. Arrange the steps of designing Management Information System in correct sequence :
(a) Analyse information requirements
(b) Aggregate the decisions
(c) Design information processing
(d) Analyse the decision system
Code :
(1) (a), (c), (b), (d) (2) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(3) (d), (a), (b), (c) (4) (a), (d), (b), (c)
33. Which of the following statements relating to primary unions in India is correct ?
(1) These unions fall only under the category of industrial unions
(2) These unions fall only under the category of general unions
(3) These unions fall only under the category of craft unions
(4) These unions fall under all the three categories i.e., industrial unions, general unions and
craft unions

34. In which year the National Renewal Fund was abolished by the Government ?
(1) 1992 (2) 1996
(3) 2000 (4) 2004

List–I List–II
(a) Ethnocentric Approach (i) Primary positions held by nationals from host
country
(b) Polycentric Approach (ii) Qualified people are hired at home and from
abroad irrespective of nationality
(c) Regiocentric Approach (iii) Primary positions are held by citizens of home
country
(d) Geocentric Approach (iv) Primary positions are held by people from
same region with similar cultures, experiences
and management practices
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
36. An industrial establishment employing one thousand employees has to pay the wages to the
employees within which period after the last day of the wage period in respect of which the wages
are payable under the provisions of the payment of Wages Act, 1936 ?
(1) Before the expiry of the seventh day
(2) Before the expiry of the fifth day
(3) Before the expiry of the tenth day
(4) Before the expiry of the eighth day
37. Two distinct schools of thought have emerged in industrial relations. The first one, known as
‘Personnel Management School’, emphasised the “employers’ solution” to labour problems. The
second school of thought, known as ‘Institutional Labour Economics School’ emphasized the
workers’ solution of trade unionism and the communities’ solution of protective labour legislation
and social insurance to labour problems.
Which of the following inferences are right relating to the broad themes of the above two schools?
(a) The first school takes an “internal” or inside-the-firm perspective on the solution of labour
problems.
(b) The second school favoured institutional forms of power balancing and joint governance
in the employment relationship.
(c) The first school takes an “external” or outside-the-firm perspective on the solution of
labour problems.
(d) The second school emphasized upon building a community of interest between labour
and management for which the employer has to take the initiative.
Code :
(1) only (a) and (b) (2) only (b) and (c)
(3) only (b) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d)

38. Which of the following is not a characteristic of culture according to Hofstede ?

(1) Power distance
(2) Person’s relationship with natural world
(3) Masculinity and Femininity
(4) Individualism Vs Collectivism
39. Which of the following facilities is to be provided by an employer employing two hundred fifty
workers covered under the Factories Act, 1948 ?
(1) Ambulance Room (2) Canteen
(3) Shelter and rest rooms (4) Cooling drinking water
40. Which of the following statements relating to the source of industrial disputes in the Indian context
is/are correct ?
(a) Disputes relating to the implementation of labour laws and regulations fall under the
category of ‘disputes concerning rights’.
(b) Disputes relating to standing orders fall under the category of ‘disputes concerning rights.’
(c) Disputes concerning collective agreements and settlements fall under the category of
‘disputes concerning rights.’
Code :
(1) only (a) is correct. (2) only (a) and (b) are correct.
(3) only (b) and (c) are correct. (4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
41. Which of the following are the three dimensions of Mendenhall and Oddou Training Model for
expatriates ?
(a) Training Methods (b) Effectiveness Measurement
(c) Levels of Training (d) Duration of Training
(e) Selection of Trainer
Code :
(1) (a), (b), (c) (2) (a), (c), (d)
(3) (a), (c), (e) (4) (b), (d), (e)
42. A woman who legally adopts a child below the age of three months shall be entitled to maternity
benefit from the date the child is handed over to the adopting mother for a period of how many
weeks under the provisions of the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017 ?
(1) Twelve weeks (2) Twenty six weeks
(3) Eighteen weeks (4) Eight weeks
43. Which of the following laydown Universal Ethical principles for multinationals ?
(a) The United Nations Declaration of Human Rights
(b) The OECD Guidelines for Multinational Enterprises
(c) The Caux Roundtable Principles of Business
Code :
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)

44. Various schemes of workers participation in management were launched in different years and
with varied objectives. Match the schemes (List-I) with year of their introduction (List–II) :
List–I List–II
(a) Employees Director in (i) 1958
Nationalised banks
(b) Workers’ share in equity (ii) 1970
(c) Workers participation in industry (iii) 1985
at the levels of plant and shop floor
(d) Joint Management Council (iv) 1975
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
45. In which of the following employments the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 was first enforced ?
(1) Employments under Central and State Governments
(2) Plantations to which the Plantations Labour Act, 1951 applies.
(3) Mines as defined under the Mines Act, 1952
(4) Local Authorities
46. Who has advanced ‘coping styles’ for role stress combining avoidance and approach to role
stress with laws of control of internality and externality ?
(1) Lorsch and Lawrence (2) Litwin and Stringer
(3) Udai Pareek (4) T.V. Rao
47. Selig Perlman, whose views are known as ‘Job-Consciousness Theory’ of trade Unionism, observed
that the trade Union is the outcome of pessimistic outlook of a ‘manualist’ worker. Which statement
is not true in the context of Perlman’s theory :
(1) In order to protect one’s limited job opportunity, a worker starts uniting with his/her fellow
‘manualists’.
(2) Emergence of trade unions mainly from ‘Job-Consciousness’ is not tenable in all situations.
(3) Genuine Trade Unions are inherently ‘bread and butter’ trade unions.
(4) After studying the American situation, Perlman observed that during periods of expansion
of economy, the American worker had the consciousness of abundance, but this
phenomenon existed only for a few years. The optimism of the period of plenty was
superseded by pessimism of scarcity. The moment such a situation emerged, trade
unions also emerged.

48. Which of the following statements about disciplinary process are true ?
(a) Under Master-Servant doctrine, servant worked at the will of the master, with no subsisting
right to continue in employment under laissez fair policy.
(b) Now no workman can be charge sheeted and punished unless one has committed a
misconduct as per the relevant standing orders.
(c) Misconduct is not defined in any Act but given under the model standing orders which can
be adopted in certified standing orders.
Code :
(1) (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (b)
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
49. Under the power to make exempting orders of the Factories Act, 1948, the State Government can
fix the maximum time of overtime work for any quarter is :
(1) Fifty hours (2) Seventy five hours
(3) Sixty hours (4) Ninety hours
50. Which one of the following statements relating to payment of subsistence allowance under the
Industrial Employment (standing orders) Act, 1946 is not correct ?
(1) Subsistence allowance shall be at the rate of fifty percent of the wages which the workman
was entitled to immediately preceding the date of such suspension, for the first ninety
days
(2) Subsistence allowance shall be at the rate of Seventy-five percent of such wages for the
remaining period of suspension if the delay in the completion of disciplinary proceedings
against such workman is not directly attributable to the conduct of such workman
(3) If any dispute arises regarding the subsistence allowance payable to a workman, the
workman or the employer concerned may refer the dispute to the Labour Court Constituted
under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(4) If any dispute arises regarding the subsistence allowance payable to a workman, the
appropriate Government may refer the dispute to the Industrial Tribunal constituted under
the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
51. ‘Knowledge workers’ are :

(a) the workers whose main capital is knowledge
(b) the workers whose jobs are designed around the acquisition and application of information
(c) the workers whose jobs concentrate on routine problems
Code :
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
52. Which of the following is a statutory workers’ participation in management forum ?

(1) Joint Management Council (2) Shop Council
(3) Joint Council (4) Works Committee

53. ‘Pygmalion effect’ is associated with :

(1) Self-aggredisement (2) Self-defence
(3) Self fulfilling prophecy (4) Self denial
54. An adolescent who has been given a certificate of fitness to work, has worked for 232 days during
the calendar year 2016 in a factory. He has been on leave with wages for ten days during the
year. How many days of leave with wages he shall be entitled to during the year 2017 ?
(1) Ten days (2) Twelve days
(3) Fifteen days (4) Nil
55. When a union signs an agreement with management for wage revision and other benefits, in
most of the cases non-members also get the benefit without either paying subscription or
participating in union meetings and other struggles.
Such non members are called :
(1) Parasites (2) Fence sitters
(3) Free riders (4) Opportunists
56. Match the following theories of leadership (List-I) with their propagator (List-II) :
List–I List–II
(a) Leader Member Exchange Theory (i) Robert House
(b) Path Goal Theory (ii) Ken Blanchard
(c) Situational Theory (iii) Fred Fiedler
(d) Contingency Theory (iv) George Graen
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
57. Which of the following is the correct set of contingencies identified by William Beveridge in his
comprehensive social security scheme ?
(1) Want, sickness, disability, squalor and idleness
(2) Want, disease, old age, squalor and unemployment
(3) Want, disease, ignorance, squalor and idleness
(4) Disease, invalidity, old age, unemployment and ignorance
58. Who is associated with the approaches to Disciplinary action such as judicial approach, human
relations approach, human resource approach, group discipline approach and leadership approach?
(1) N.N. Chatterjee (2) Mirza S. Saiddain
(3) Arun Monappa (4) C.B. Mamoria

59. Match phases of change process (List–I) with their propagators (List–II) :
List–I List–II
(a) Unfreezing, Changing, Freezing (i) Nadler and Tushman
(b) Awakening, Mobilising, Reinforcing (ii) Beckhard and Renbern Harris
(c) Energizing, Envisioning, and (iii) Kurt Lewin
Enabling
(d) Dissatisfaction with the status (iv) Neol Tirchy & Devanna
quo, goal, awareness of practical
first steps
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
60. Who among the following shall be the chairperson of the National Security Board constituted
under the Unorganised Workers’ Social Security Act, 2008 ?
(1) Chief Labour Commissioner (Central)
(2) Director General (Labour Welfare)
(3) Chief Commissioner (Labour Welfare)
(4) Union Minister for Labour and Employment
61. Who defined grievance as, “any discontent or dissatisfaction, whether expressed or not and
whether valid or not, arising out of anything connected with the company that an employee thinks,
believes or even feels is unfair, unjust, or inequitable” ?
(1) Dale Yoder (2) Paul Pigors
(3) Michael J. Jucius (4) Charles A. Myers
62. Who has developed the ‘Learning and Performance Wheel’ ?

(1) Paul Brenthal et. al (2) F.J. Roethlisberger et. al
(3) Leonard and Zeace Nadlar (4) Udai Pareek et. al
63. Match the following List–I with List–II :

List–I List–II
(a) Malaviya Committee (i) Minimum wages
(b) B. P. Adarkar Report (ii) Social security for unorganised labour
(c) D. Aykroid’s formula (iii) Labour welfare
(d) Arjun Sengupta Committee (iv) Employees’ State Insurance
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
64. A dispute has arisen regarding admission of membership of a union which is a registered and
recognised Trade Union. Few workers had filed a joint application for membership of that union.
The application was not considered because the application was not in accordance with the
procedure laid down by the union. Aggrieved by this, the workers filed a complaint before the
Registrar of Trade Unions under Section 28 (1-A). Which one among the following is competent
authority to settle the issue ?
(1) Registrar of Trade Unions
(2) Industrial Tribunal
(3) High Court
(4) Civil Court of the competent jurisdiction
65. The HRD matrix linking HRD subsystems to development dimensions has been advanced by :
(1) Dharani P. Sinha (2) D.M. Pestonjee
(3) Udai Pareek (4) T.V. Rao
66. Before the enactment of the Inter-State Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and
Conditions of Service) Act, 1979 by the Union Government which of the following States had an
exclusive law relating to the migrant labour ?
(1) Odisha (2) Assam
(3) Bihar (4) Tamilnadu
67. The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 empowers the appropriate Government to constitute a court of
inquiry to inquire into any matter appearing to be connected with or relevant to an industrial
dispute. It is the duty of the court of inquiry to inquire into matters referred to it and submit its
report to the appropriate Government, ordinarily within which period from the commencement of
its inquiry :
(1) One month (2) Two months
(3) Four months (4) Six months
68. Associate the following conditions (List-I) with the period in which they prevailed (List-II) :
List–I List–II
(a) Unbridled individualism, freedom (i) Welfarism and Post Welfarism
of contract and laissez-faire
(b) Rise of Trade Unionism (ii) Political Liberalism
(c) Rise of socialist and Revolutionary (iii) Early Industrialism
ideas
(d) Rise of Labour Parties (iv) Marxism
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

69. Which of the following statements about HR score-card are true ?

(a) Measurement is central to HR score-card
(b) HR architecture inclusive of sum of HR function; the broader HR system and the resulting
employee behaviour is crucial to HR scorecard
(c) Measurements generally include total compensation, cost per hire, employee turnover, job
satisfaction levels, appraisal categories etc.
(d) Capability, commitment, competencies, learning outcomes are difficult to be measured
resulting into a difference between ‘What is measured’ and what is important in HR
Code :
(1) (a), (d) (2) (a), (c), (d)
(3) (a), (b), (d) (4) (a), (b), (c), (d)
70. Which one of the following Acts, explains the meaning of “Badli workman” ?
(1) Factories Act, 1948
(2) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(3) Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946
(4) Trade Unions Act, 1926
71. Which one of the following is not correct relating to working hours for children under the Factories
Act, 1948 ?
(1) Maximum hours of work is four and half hours in any day
(2) No child shall be employed during night
(3) The hours of work including rest should be limited to a maximum spread over period of
five and half hours
(4) No female child shall be allowed to work in any factory between 7 pm. to 8 am.
72. Assertion (A) : Between ‘hire and fire’ policy and VRS, the later is considered as a strategy of
less severe severance.
Reason (R) : VRS is conceived as a win-win situation because organisations gain by reducing
the surplus and in right sizing the employee structure. Employees, on the other hand may lose
jobs, but gain sizeable severance benefits to face post-VRS problems.
Code :
(1) (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
(2) (A) and (R) are right and (R) explains the (A).
(3) (A) and (R) are right but (R) doesn’t explain the (A).
(4) (A) is right and (R) is wrong.
73. Michael Porter has given the ‘Five Forces’ model of strategic management. The sixth force is
given by G. Ghemawat and D. Collis called ‘COMPLEMENTORS’. Which of the following statements
about the 6th force are true ?
(a) Complementors are groups from which buyers purchase complementary services and
groups to whom suppliers sell complementary products.
(b) These are different competitive forces from the rest of the 5 forces given by Michael
Porter.
(c) Complementors can help both buyers and suppliers to increase their pie by add-on values.
(d) If Complimentors are too Powerful ; then both buyers and suppliers can form coalitions.
Code :
(1) (a), (c), (d) only (2) (a), (b), (d) only
(3) (b), (c), (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

74. Arrange the following Acts in a sequence according to their years of their enactment in USA
starting from the earliest to the latest :
(a) Wagner Act (b) Landrum-Griffin Act
(c) Norris-LaGuaradia Act (d) Taft-Hartley Act Code :
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) (2) (c), (a), (d), (b)
(3) (a), (c), (b), (d) (4) (b), (c), (a), (d)
75. Which one of the following does not find place under the Factories (Amendment) Bill 2016
initiated by the Government ?
(1) Enhance the limit of overtime hours to a maximum of one hundred hours per quarter
under section 64.
(2) Enhance the limit of overtime hours to a maximum of one hundred twenty five hours per
quarter in public interest under section 65.
(3) Empower the Central Government in addition to the State Governments to make exempting
rules and exempting orders in respect of hours of work on overtime in a quarter.
(4) Enhance the limit of total number of hours of work in a week including overtime to a
maximum of seventy five hours.
ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
4 1 2 3 2 1 2 3 1 3
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
1 2 4 3 1 3 1 3 4 2
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
3 1 3 4 1 4 2 3 1 3
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
2 3 4 3 4 3 1 2 3 4
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
2 1 4 1 2 3 2 4 2 4
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
2 4 3 2 3 1 3 1 2 4
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
3 1 3 2 4 1 4 1 4 3
71 72 73 74 75
3 2 4 2 4
9 = ALL, A = 12, B = 13, C = 14, D = 123, E = 124, F = 134, G = 1234, H = 23, I = 24, J = 234, K = 34

General Paper-I (July 2018)

Previous Year Solved Paper (July 2018)
Time : 1 hours Paper-I Maximum Marks : 100
The table below embodies data on the production, exports and per capita consumption
of rice in country P for the five year from 2012 to 2016. Answer questions 1 – 5 based on
the data contained in the table.
Year-wise Production, Exports and Per Capita Consumption of Rice

Production Exports Per Capita Consumption
Year
(in million kg) (in million kg) (in kg)
2012 186.5 114 36.25
2013 202 114 35.2
2014 238 130 38.7
2015 221 116 40.5
2016 215 88 42
Where, per Capita Consumption = (Consumption in million kg)  (Population in million) and
consumption (in million kg) = Production – Exports.
1. What is the average consumption of rice (in million kg) over the years 2012–2016 ?
(1) 102.1 (2) 108
(3) 100.1 (4) 104
2. What is the population of the country in the year 2014 (in million) ?
(1) 2.72 (2) 2.79
(3) 2.85 (4) 2.64
3. The ratio of exports to consumption in the given period was the highest in the year :
(1) 2013 (2) 2014
(3) 2015 (4) 2012
4. The percentage increase in the consumption of rice over the previous year was the highest in
which year ?
(1) 2014 (2) 2015
(3) 2016 (4) 2013
5. In which year, the population of country was the highest ?

(1) 2014 (2) 2015
(3) 2016 (4) 2013

6. Put the following units of storage into the correct order, starting with the smallest unit first and
going down to the largest unit :
(a) Kilobyte (b) Byte
(c) Megabyte (d) Terabyte
(e) Gigabyte (f) Bit
Give your answer from the following code :
(1) (f), (b), (a), (d), (e), (c) (2) (f), (b), (a), (c), (e), (d)
(3) (f), (b), (a), (d), (c), (e) (4) (f), (b), (a), (c), (d), (e)
7. Which of the following is considered as major source of pollution in rivers of India ?

(1) Untreated sewage (2) Agriculture run-off
(3) Thermal power plants (4) Unregulated small scale industry
8. Given the following email fields, which of the email addresses will ‘swami’ be able to see when
he receives the message ?
To… [email protected]
Cc… [email protected]; [email protected]
Bcc… [email protected]; [email protected]
(1) [email protected]; [email protected]; [email protected]
(2) [email protected]; [email protected]
(3) [email protected]; [email protected]; [email protected]; [email protected]
(4) [email protected]
9. Assertion (A) : Indoor air pollution is a serious health hazard.

Reason (R) : The dispersal of air pollutants is rather limited in indoor environment.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are false.
10. Prime Minister Research Fellowship is for students pursuing Ph.D programme in :
(1) Central Universities, IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs and IIITs
(2) IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs, IIITs, State and Central Universities
(3) IITs and IISc
(4) State and Central Universities
11. In terms of their contribution to the total power generation in India, identify the correct sequence
of energy sources - Thermal Power Plants (TPP), Large Hydropower Projects (LHP), Nuclear
Energy (NE) and Renewable Energy (RE) which includes solar energy, wind energy, biomass and
small hydropower projects.
(1) TPP > LHP > RE > NE (2) LHP > TPP > RE > NE
(3) LHP > TPP > NE > RE (4) TPP > RE > LHP > NE

12. Which of the following statements are correct about gender budgeting ?
(a) It is a separate budget addressing the specific needs of women.
(b) It assesses the impact of government budget on women.
(c) It is an accounting exercise.
(d) It is another budgeting innovation.
(1) (a) and (d) only (2) (a), (c) and (d) only
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only (4) (b) and (d) only
13. A new Laptop has been produced that weighs less, is smaller and uses less power than previous
Laptop models.
Which of the following technologies has been used to accomplish this ?
(1) Faster Random Access Memory (2) Blu Ray Drive
(3) Solid State Hard Drive (4) Universal Serial Bus Mouse
14. Leader of the Opposition is a member of committees which select :

(a) the Central Information Commissioner
(b) the Central Vigilance Commissioner
(c) the Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission
(d) the Chairperson of National Commission for Women
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) (a), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
15. Which of the following types of natural disasters has no definite beginning and end ?
(1) Landslides (2) Hurricanes
(3) Droughts (4) Earthquakes
16. ‘Fly ash’ produced in thermal power plants is an eco friendly resource for use in :
(a) agriculture as micro-nutrient (b) wasteland development
(c) dam and water holding structures (d) brick industry
(1) (b), (c) and (d) only (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d) only
17. Which of the following are the barriers to citizen-centric administration in India ?
(a) Wooden and inflexible attitude of the civil servants
(b) Ineffective implementation of laws and rules
(c) Awareness of rights and duties of citizens
(d) Lack of job opportunities for the youth
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) (a), (b) and (d) only
(3) (a) and (b) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

18. India has the largest Higher Education System in the World after :
(a) The United States of America (b) Australia
(c) China (d) United Kingdom (U.K.)
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
19. With regard to computer memory, which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE ?
P : Read Only Memory (ROM) is ‘volatile’ memory.
Q : Random Access Memory (RAM) is ‘volatile’ memory.
R : Secondary Memory is ‘volatile’ memory
(1) Q only (2) P and Q only
(3) P and R only (4) P only
20. Which of the following statements, regarding the term ICT is/are TRUE ?
P : ICT is an acronym that stands for Indian Classical Technology.
Q : Converging technologies that exemplify ICT include the merging of audio-visual, telephone
and computer networks through a common cabling system.
(1) Q only (2) P and Q
(3) Neither P nor Q (4) P only
21. In the two sets given below Set-I indicates methods of teaching while Set-II provides the “basic
requirements for success/ effectiveness. Match the two sets and indicate your answer “by choosing
from the code :
Set-I Set-II
(Method of Teaching) (Basic Requirements
for Success/Effectiveness)
(a) Lecturing (i) Small step presentation with feedback
provided
(b) Discussion in groups (ii) Production of large number of ideas
(c) Brainstorming (iii) Content delivery in a lucid language
(d) Programmed Instructional (iv) Use of teaching-aids
procedure.
(v) Theme based interaction among participants
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(2) (iii) (v) (ii) (i)
(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

22. In which of the following activities, potential for nurturing creative and critical thinking is relatively
greater ?
(1) Presenting a seminar paper
(2) Participation in research conference
(3) Participation in a workshop
(4) Preparing research summary
23. Which of the following set of statements best describes the nature and objectives of teaching ?
Indicate your answer by selecting from the code.
(a) Teaching and learning are integrally related.
(b) There is no difference between teaching and training.
(c) Concern of all teaching is to ensure some kind of transformation in students.
(d) All good teaching is formal in nature.
(e) A teacher is a senior person.
(f) Teaching is a social act whereas learning is a personal act.
Code :
(1) (b), (c) and (e) (2) (a), (c) and (f)
(3) (d), (e) and (f) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
24. There are two sets given below. Set - I specifies the types of research, while Set - II indicates
their characteristics. Match the two and give your answer by selecting the appropriate code.
Set-I Set-II
(Research types) (Characteristics)
(a) Fundamental research (i) Finding out the extent of perceived impact of
an intervention
(b) Applied research (ii) Developing an effective explanation through
theory building.
(c) Action research (iii) Improving an existing situation through use of
interventions
(d) Evaluative research (iv) Exploring the possibility of a theory for use in
various situations
(v) Enriching technological resources
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
25. The problem of 'research ethics' is concerned with which aspect of research activities ?
(1) Data analysis through qualitative or quantitative techniques
(2) Defining the population of research
(3) Evidence based research reporting
(4) Following the prescribed format of a thesis
26. Which of the following sequences of research steps is nearer to scientific method ?
(1) Perceiving the problem situation, Locating the actual problem and its definition,
Hypothesizing, Deducing the consequences of the suggested solution and Testing the
hypothesis in action.
(2) Defining a problem, Identifying the causes of the problem, Defining a population, Drawing
a sample, Collecting data and Analysing results.
(3) Identifying the causal factors, Defining the problem, Developing a hypothesis, Selecting a
sample, Collecting data and arriving at generalizations and Conclusions.
(4) Suggested solution of the problem, Deducing the consequences of the solution, Perceiving
the problem situation, Location of the difficulty and testing the solutions.
27. Which of the sets of activities best indicate the cyclic nature of action research strategy ?
(1) Observe, Act, Reflect, Plan (2) Act, Plan, Observe, Reflect
(3) Plan, Act, Observe, Reflect (4) Reflect, Observe, Plan, Act
28. Which of the following learner characteristics is highly related to effectiveness of teaching ?
(1) Educational status of the parents of the learner
(2) Peer groups of the learner
(3) Family size from which the learner comes
(4) Prior experience of the learner
29. From the list of evaluation procedures given below identify those which will be called ' formative
evaluation'. Indicate your answer by choosing from the code :
(a) A teacher awards grades to students after having transacted the course work.
(b) During interaction with students in the classroom, the teacher provides corrective feedback.
(c) The teacher gives marks to students on a unit test.
(d) The teacher clarifies the doubts of students in the class itself.
(e) The overall performance of a students is reported to parents at every three months
interval.
(f) The learner’s motivation is raised by the teacher through a question-answer session.
Codes :
(1) (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (c) and (e)
(3) (b), (d) and (f) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
30. Assertion (A) : All teaching should aim at ensuring learning.

Reason (R) : All learning results from teaching.
Choose the correct answer from the following code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 31 to 35 :

If India has to develop her internal strengths, the nation has to focus on the technological
imperatives, keeping in mind three dynamic dimensions : the people, the overall economy and the
strategic interests. These technological imperatives also take into account a ‘fourth’ dimension,
time, an offshoot of modern day dynamism in business, trade, and technology that leads to
continually shifting targets. We believe that technological strengths are especially crucial in dealing
with this fourth dimension underlying continuous change in the aspirations of the people, the
economy in the global context and the strategic interests. The progress of technology lies at the
heart of human history. Technological strengths are the key to creating more productive employment
in an increasingly competitive market place and to continually upgrade human skills. Without a
pervasive use of technologies, we cannot achieve overall development of our people in the years
to come. The direct linkages of technology to the nation's strategic strengths are becoming more
and more clear, especially since 1990s. India's own strength in a number of core areas still puts
it in a position of reasonable strength in geo-political context. Any nation aspiring to become a
developed one needs to have strengths in various strategic technologies and also the ability to
continually upgrade them through its own creative strengths. For people-oriented actions as well,
whether for the creation of large scale productive employment or for ensuring nutritional and
health security for people, or for better living conditions, technology is the only vital input. The
absence of greater technological impetus could lead to lower productivity and wastage of precious
natural resources. Activities with low productivity or low value addition, in the final analysis hurt
the poorest most. The technological imperatives to lift our people to a new life, and to a life they
are entitled to is important. India, aspiring to become a major economic power in terms of trade
and increase in GDP, cannot succeed on the strength of turnkey projects designed and built
abroad or only through large-scale imports of plant machinery, equipment and know how. Even
while being alive to the short-term realities, medium and long-term strategies to develop core
technological strengths within our industry are vital for envisioning a developed India.
31. Envisioning a developed India requires :
(1) Dependence upon projects designed abroad
(2) Focus on short-term projects
(3) Development of core technological strengths
(4) Aspiration to become a major economic player
32. Absence of technology would lead to :

(a) Less pollution
(b) Wastage of precious natural resources
(c) Low value addition
(d) Hurting the poorest most
Codes :
(1) (b), (c) and (d) only (2) (a), (b) and (d) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) only
33. The advantage of technological inputs would result in :

(1) Importing plant machinery
(2) Sidelining environmental issues
(3) Lifting our people to å life of dignity
(4) Unbridled technological growth

34. According to the above passage, which of the following are indicative of the fourth dimension ?
(a) Aspirations of people (b) Modern day dynamism
(c) Economy in the global context (d) Strategic interests
Codes :
(1) (b), (c) and (d) only (2) (a), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) only
35. More productive employment demands :

(1) Limiting competitive market place (2) Geo-political considerations
(3) Large industries (4) Pervasive use of technology
36. Introducing Rakesh to her husband a women said, "His brother's father is the only son of my
grandfather". The woman is related to Rakesh as :
(1) Mother (2) Sister
(3) Daughter (4) Aunt
37. Which of the following set of statements is correct for describing the human communication
process ?
(a) Non-verbal communication can stimulate ideas.
(b) Communication is a learnt ability.
(c) Communication is not a universal panacea
(d) Communication cannot break-down
(e) More communication means more effective learning by students.
(f) Value of what is learnt through classroom communication is not an issue for students.
Codes :
(1) (b), (d), (e) and (f) (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (d), (e) and (f) (4) (a), (c), (e) and (f)
38. Assertion (A) : The initial messages to students in the classroom by a teacher need not be
critical to establish interactions later.
Reason (R) : More control over the communication process means more control over what the
students are learning.
Codes :
39. Which one among the following is a presupposition in inductive reasoning ?

(1) Unchangeability in nature (2) Harmony in nature
(3) Uniformity of nature (4) Law of identity

40. The next term in the series

ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, SBL, ____,
is :
(1) ZCA (2) ZKW
(3) KZU (4) ZKU
41. Two numbers are in the ratio 2 : 5. If 16 is added to both the numbers, their ratio becomes 1 :
2. The numbers are :
(1) 20, 50 (2) 28, 70
(3) 32, 80 (4) 16, 40
42. If the proposition 'domestic animals are hardly ferocious' is taken to be false, which of the
following proposition/ propositions can be claimed to be certainly true ? Select the correct code :
Propositions :
(a) All domestic animals are ferocious.
(b) Most of the domestic animals are ferocious.
(c) No domestic animal is ferocious.
(d) Some domestic animals are non-ferocious.
Codes :
(1) (a) only (2) (c) and (d)
(3) (b) only (4) (a) and (b)
43. Assertion (A) : To communicate well in the classroom is a natural ability.

Reason (R) : Effective teaching in the classroom demands knowledge of the communication
process.
Codes :
44. Which one of the following statements is not correct in the context of Venn diagram method ?
(1) It represents both the premises of a syllogism in one diagram.
(2) It requires two overlapping circles for the two premises of a standard-form categorical
syllogism.
(3) It can be used to represent classes as well as propositions.
(4) It is a method of testing the validity of arguments.
45. Superiority of intellect depends upon its power of concentration on one theme in the same way
as a concave mirror collects all the rays that strike upon it into one point.
What type of reasoning is entailed in the above statement ?
(1) Psychological (2) Analogical
(3) Deductive (4) Mathematical

46. Differentiation between acceptance and non-acceptance of certain stimuli in classroom

communication is the basis of :
(1) selective affiliation to peer groups
(2) selective attention
(3) selective morality.
(4) selective expectation of performance
47. If VARANASI is coded as WCUESGZQ, then the code of KOLKATA will be :

(1) HLZEOOQ (2) ZELHOQO
(3) LQOOFZH (4) LOQOZEH
48. Assertion (A) : Classroom communication is a transactional process.

Reason (R) : A teacher does not operate under the assumption that students' responses are
purposive.
Select the correct code for your answer :
49. The next term in the series

–1, 5, 15, 29, _____,
is :
(1) 47 (2) 59
(3) 63 (4) 36
50. Given below are two premises (A and B). Four conclusions are drawn from them. Select the code
that states validly drawn conclusion(s) (taking the premises individually or jointly).
Premises :
(1) Most of the dancers are physically fit.
(2) Most of the singers are dancers.
Conclusions :
(a) Most of the singers are physically fit.
(b) Most of the dancers are singers.
(c) Most of the physically fit persons are dancers.
(d) Most of the physically fit persons are singers.
Codes :
(1) (b) and (c) (2) (c) and (d)
(3) (d) and (a) (4) (a) and (b)

ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
3 2 4 1 3 2 1 1 4 3
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
4 4 3 1 3 3 3 3 1 1
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
2 2 2 4 3 1 3 4 3 2
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
3 1 3 2 4 2 2 3 3 2
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
3 4 3 2 2 2 3 2 1 1

HRM Paper-II (July 2018)
HRM
Previous Year Solved Paper (July 2018)
Time : 2 hours Paper-II Maximum Marks : 200
Note : This paper contains hundred (100) objective type questions, each question carries two
(2) marks. Attempt all the questions.
Read the Passage carefully and answer the questions that follow : (1-5)
Change is ‘alien’ to an organisation, yet needs to be accepted. Unless a change is internalised
and integrated, it remains ‘alien’. Introduction of change in an organisation is a kin to the transplantation
of an organ in a body. An organism and an organisation have some common features. The transplanted
part in a body has to be integrated with that body. It may be rejected and so a watch has to be kept to
ensure that it is not and steps have to be taken to facilitate integration. The same applies to an organisation.
it is necessary to ensure that the change gets integrated into the organisation, is stabilised and becomes
a part of the working of the organisation. This is a part of implementation process. Implementation starts
after a decision has been taken to plan a programme of change. Several contextual factors have been
found significant to the success of implementation.
Fullan and Pomfret have suggested four different dimensions of implementation. These relate to
the characteristics of innovation (its explicitness and complexity, or degree and difficulty, of change),
strategies and tactics (in-service training, resource-support, feedback mechanism and participation in
decision making), characteristics of the adopting unit (the adoption process, the organisational climate,
environmental support and demographic factors) and characteristics of macro socio-political units (design
issues, incentive system, evaluation and political complexity). Implementation has been treated as an
issue of control versus decentralisation and felicitation of change through participation.
Implementation may be seen as a multidimensional process. Paul has proposed the concept of
strategic management for the implementation of public programmes as an interaction between four
dimensions environment (opportunity, needs, constraints, threat, scope, diversity and uncertainty), strategy
(service-client sequence and demand-supply, resource mobilisation), process (planning and allocation,
monitoring and control, human resource development and motivational compliance) and structure
(differentiation-integration of tasks, structural forms, degree of decentralisation and degree of autonomy).
1. Out of the statements given below, which one is not true ?
(a) Change is always unwarranted.
(b) Change has to be internalised and integrated.
(c) Organisations and organism have no common features.
(d) It is necessary to keep continuous watch on the change process.
Codes :
(1) Only (a) (2) Only (a) and (c)
(3) Only (c) (4) Only (b) and (c)
2. Which is not a stage of Implementation process ?

(1) Integration into organisation (2) Becoming stable
(3) Becoming part of the working (4) Maintaining alien status

3. Which among the following is not a pre-requisite before starting the process of implementation ?
(1) After taking a decision to plan a programme of change.
(2) After finding several contextual factors significant to the success of implementation.
(3) After finishing inservice training.
(4) After resolving political complexity.
4. Who has proposed the concept of strategic management for the implementation of public
programmes as an interaction between four dimensions ?
(1) Paul (2) Fullan
(3) Pomfret (4) Cooper
5. The process of Implementation has various phases. The number of phases comprising the
process of implementation is :
(1) Four Phases (2) Three Phases
(3) Two Phases (4) Six Phases
6. Match the stages of Process of Organisational Change (List-I) with their possible descriptions
(List-II) given below :
List-I List-II
(a) Diagnosis (i) The stage for framing a proposal in relation to
the problems or issues identified.
(b) Stabilisation (ii) The attempt to search for the main cause
underlying the symptoms encountered.
(c) Motivation (iii) The stage where people are involved in
detailed consideration of the proceed change
(d) Action Proposal (iv) The stage of internalizing the change and
making it a part of the organisation’s normal
life
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
7. Match the basic content of the theory (List-I) with the theories (List-II) :
List-I List-II
(a) Wages paid are equal to the (i) Taussig’s Theory of Wages
productivity of the last worker
hired
(b) Wages, hours and working (ii) Marginal Productivity Theory
conditions are largely a matter of
relative bargaining strength of two
sides

(c) Wages are residue left over after (iii) The Bargaining Theory of Wages
the other factors of production
have been paid
(d) Wages equal the total product of (iv) Residual Claimant Theory
labour of the marginal firm minus
the amount discounted by the
employer for advance support of
the worker
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
8. Which one of the following is not a fundamental right under the provisions of the constitution of
India ?
(1) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
(2) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
(3) Prohibition of employment of children in factories etc.
(4) Just and human condition of work and maternity relief
9. The concept of ‘invisible hand theorem’ in the context of labour market was put forward by :
(1) Adam Smith (2) Karl Marx
(3) J.S. Mill (4) Ricardo
10. Which of the following statements relating to the Model Grievance procedure is/are correct ?
(a) As per the procedure, an aggrieved employee shall first present the grievance verbally (in
person) to the officer designated by the management for this purpose.
(b) As per the procedure, an aggrieved worker who is not satisfied with the decision of the
officer at the first stage or fails to receive an answer within a stipulated period of 48 hours
from the said officer, he/she shall, either in person or accompanied by his/her departmental
representative, present his/her grievance to the Head of the Department designated by the
management for the purpose of handling grievances.
(c) According to the procedure, if a grievance arises out of an order given by management
the said order shall be complied with before the worker concerned invokes the procedure
laid down for redressal of grievances.
Codes :
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only
(3) (a) and (b) (4) (a), (b) and (c)

11. Match the provisions given in List-I with their respective Articles given in List-II provided under the
Constitution of India.
List-I List-II
(a) Right to work (i) Article 39
(b) Equal pay for equal work for both (ii) Article 43
men and women
(c) Human Conditions of work (iii) Article 42
(d) Living wage and decent standard (iv) Article 41
of life
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
12. Assertion (A) : While all programming strategies need to provide for all three phases of individual
and organisational learning, they differ according to the training modalities chosen for implementing
them.
Reason (R) : The chosen modality provides the frame for designing and sequencing training
inputs and selecting methods to produce the desired results.
Codes :
(1) Assertion (A) is not correct, Reason (R) is correct.
(2) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are not correct.
(3) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct, but Reason (R) does not explain Assertion
(A).
(4) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct, Reason (R) explains Assertion (A).
13. Assertion (A) : Occupational Wage differentials provide an incentive to young persons to incur
the costs of training and education and encourage workers to develop skills in anticipation of
higher earnings in future.
Reason (R) : Occupational Wage differentials perform a social function by way of determining
the social status of workers.
Codes :
(1) Assertion (A) is wrong and Reason (R) is right.
(2) Assertion (A) is right and Reason (R) explains Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is right and Reason (R) fails to explain Assertion (A).
(4) Assertion (A) is right and Reason (R) is wrong.

14. Match List-A Management Function with their possible explanation List-B :
List-A List-B
(a) Controlling/Monitoring (i) Making optimum use of the resources required
to enable successfully carrying out the plans
(b) Leading/Motivating (ii) Deciding what needs to happen in future and
generating plans for action
(c) Organising (iii) Checking process against plans, which may
need modification based on feedback
(d) Planning (iv) Getting others to play an effective part in
achieving plans
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
15. Apart from legislations which of the following institutions operate in controlling and directing
individual actions into desirable channels ?
(a) Religious prescriptions
(b) Social customs, traditions and conventions
(c) Socialist and Revolutionary ideas
(d) Political freedom and Extension of franchise
Codes :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (b) only (4) (a), (b) and (d) only
16. Who proposed the three-tier structure of industrial relations activity ?

(1) John T. Dunlop (2) Kochan, Katz and McKersie
(3) J.H. Richardson (4) H.A. Clegg
17. Experienced managers have a simple and effective way to check whether their goals are good
or not-they use the acronym “SMART”, which stands for :
(1) Specific, Manageable, Attainable, Reasonable and Timely
(2) Sophisticated, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant and Targetted
(3) Simple, Measurable, Ambitious, Relative and Target Oriented
(4) Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant and Timely
18. A worker working in a factory has worked for 225 days during the calendar year 2017. He has
been laid off for 20 days as per the standing order and has also availed 10 days of leave with
wages during the said year. How many days of leave with wages he shall be entitled to during
the calendar year 2018 ?
(1) NIL (2) 13 Days
(3) 11 Days (4) 12 Days

19. Which of the following theoretical perspectives implies stewardship without ownership in the
context of industrial relations ?
(1) The Unitary Perspective (2) The Pluralist Perspective
(3) The Radical Perspective (4) The Trusteeship Perspective
20. Assertion (A) : The basic planning process always involves setting objectives, forecasting and
assessing basic planning “premises” or assumptions, determining alternatives cause of actions,
evaluating which options are best and then choosing and implementing plan.
Reason (R) : There is usually a hierarchical aspect to managerial planning. Top management
approves a long-term or strategic plan. Then each department creates its own budgets and other
plans to fit and to contribute to company’s long term plan.
Codes :
(1) Assertion (A) is right and Reason (R) is wrong.
(3) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are right, Reason (A) explains Assertion (A).
(4) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are right, Reason (R) does not explains Assertion (A).
21. Indifference curves relating to supply of labour have a number of properties some of which are
mentioned below :
(a) Indifference curves are downward slopping.
(b) Indifference curves are upward slopping.
(c) Higher indifference curves indicate lower levels of utility.
(d) Higher indifference curves indicate higher levels of utility.
(e) Indifference curves do not intersect.
(f) Indifference curves intersect.
(g) Indifference curves are concave to the origin.
(h) Indifference curves are convex to the origin.
Which among the following properties are not true ?
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) (2) (b), (f), (g), (h)
(3) (a), (c), (e), (g) (4) (b), (c), (f), (g)
22. Under the Employee’s Compensation Act, 1923 the list of occupational diseases is provided
under which schedule ?
(1) Schedule-I (2) Schedule-II
(3) Schedule-III (4) Schedule-IV
23. Assertion (A) : In a planned economy a certain degree of wage regulation by the state becomes
inevitable as an integral part of planning itself.
Reason (R) : It is socially desirable for wage earners to live on a healthy and decent plane and
to participate freely in industrial government and that the state should interfere in the economic
relationship of its citizens whenever these attainable ideal are not realised.
Codes :
(1) Assertion (A) is correct and Reason (R) explains Assertion (A).
(4) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct but Reason (R) fails to explain Assertion
(A).
24. Which of the following statements relating to N.M. Lokhande is/are true ?
(a) He was instrumental for the establishment of Bombay Mill Hands Association in 1896.
(b) He was a philanthropic promoter of labour legislation and workers’ welfare.
(c) He is considered as the Father of Trade Union Movement in India.
Codes :
(1) Only (a) (2) (a) and (b)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
25. Which one of the following statements is not true as per the provisions of the Employees’ State
Insurance Act, 1948 ?
(1) Benefits under the Act are not extended to the apprentices.
(2) Inspectors are re-designated as social security officers.
(3) Medical benefits to the insured person and his spouse have been extended under
circumstances where insured person retires under Voluntary Retirement Scheme.
(4) The age limit of the dependants has been enhanced from the age of 18 to 25.
26. A human resource specialist normally collects which of the following information via the Job
analysis ?
(a) Work Activities
(b) Human Behaviours
(c) Machines, Tools, Equipments and Work Aids
(d) Performance Standards
(e) Job Context
(f) Human Requirements
Codes :
(1) (a), (b), (d) and (e) only (2) (a), (b), (c) and (f) only
(3) (a), (b), (c), (d) (e) and (f) (4) (a) and (e) only

List-I List-II
Japanese Word Under English Equivalent
the 5S Concept
(a) Shitseke (i) Clearing
(b) Seiton (ii) Cleanliness
(c) Seiketsu (iii) Sweeping/Washing
(d) Seiri (iv) Orderliness
(e) Seiso (v) Discipline
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(1) (v) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(2) (iv) (iii) (v) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (v) (iii)

28. Match the content given in List-I with the Theories of Labour Welfare given in List-II :
List-I List-II
(a) Without compulsion, employers (i) The Trusteeship Theory
do not provide even the minimum
facilities for workers.
(b) Any good work is considered as (ii) The Philanthropic Theory
an investment by which both the
benefactor and beneficiary are
rewarded.
(c) Man is believed to have an (iii) The Religious Theory
instinctive urge by which he
strives to remove the suffering
of others and promote their well
being.
(d) Employers should provide funds (iv) The Police Theory
on an on-going basis for the well
being of their employees.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(4) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
29. Which of the following correctly explains a ‘recruiting yield pyramid’ ?

(1) Company records showing present performance and promotability of inside candidates
for the most important positions.
(2) A forecasting technique for determining future staff needs by using ratios between, for
example, sales volume and number of employees needed.
(3) The historical arithmetic relationships between recruitment leads and invitees, invitees
and interviews, interviews and offers made and offers made and offers accepted.
(4) Finding and/or attracting applicants for the employer’s open positions.
30. Which of the following pairs is/are not correctly matched ?

Organisation Year of Formation
(a) Trades Union Congress (England) (i) 1868
(b) Indian National Trade Union (ii) 1947
Congress
(c) International Confederation of Free (iii) 1948
Trade Unions
Codes :
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) (b) only (4) (c) only

31. A Conciliation officer declares an industrial dispute to have ended in failure on 15th October 2017
and submits the failure report to the appropriate Government on 18th October. The said report is
being received by the Government on 29th October and the Government refers the dispute to the
Labour Court on 5th November 2017. From the above information on which date it is deemed that
the conciliation has been concluded ?
(1) 15th October (2) 18th October
(3) 29th October (4) 5th November
32. Convention No. 138 of the ILO relates to :

(1) Abolition of Forced Labour
(2) Right to Collective Bargaining
(3) Worst Form of Child Labour
(4) Minimum Age for Admission to Employment
33. Identify the correct sequence of procedure in creating ‘Structured Situational Interview’.
(a) Analyze the job
(b) Appoint the interview panel and conduct interviews
(c) Create interview questions
(d) Create benchmark answers
(e) Rate the job’s main duties
Codes :
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) (2) (a), (c), (b), (e), (d)
(3) (a), (e), (c), (d), (b) (4) (a), (e), (d), (b), (c)
34. Match the Techniques of Training List-I with the possible discriptions there of List-II given below :
List-I List-II
(a) Ice Breakers (i) One Role played alternatively by two
participants
(b) Tag Teams (ii) Listing of alternative solutions to problems
(c) Morphological Analysis (iii) Games to get team members know each
other
(d) Gordon Technique (iv) Steering a discussion to Crystallise solutions
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
35. What is the total period of maternity leave admissible for a woman employee having two or more
than two surviving children under the provisions of the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017 ?
(1) Fourteen Weeks (2) Sixteen Weeks
(3) Twelve Weeks (4) Twenty Six Weeks

36. Which of the following is a statutory body ?

(1) Indian Labour Conference
(2) Standing Labour Committee
(3) Industrial Committee meant for Plantations
(4) Safety Committee
37. Match the authorities provided under List-I with the respective legislation under which they are
covered as provided under List-II :
List-I List-II
(a) The Controlling Authority (i) The Mines Act, 1952
(b) Commissioner (ii) The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972
(c) Certifying Surgeon (iii) The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition)
Act, 1970
(d) Licensing Officer (iv) The Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
38. Identify the correct sequence of steps in developing a BARS (Behaviourally Anchored Rating
Scales) as suggested by Gary Dessler :
(a) Scale the incidents (b) Reallocate incidents
(c) Develop performance dimensions (d) Write critical incidents
(e) Develop a final instrument
Codes :
(1) (c), (b), (d), (a), (e) (2) (b), (a), (d), (c), (e)
(3) (d), (c), (b), (a), (e) (4) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e)
39. As per the provisions of the Building and other construction workers (Regulation of Employment
and Conditions of Services) Act, 1996. Who among the following is the Ex-officio member in the
Central Advisory Committee ?
(1) The Chief Inspector
(2) The Chief Labour Commissioner
(3) The Chairperson of the Expert Committee
(4) The Director General
40. ‘Welfare implies welfare of man his family and his community’. Which of the following concepts
explains this ?
(1) The total concept of welfare (2) The positive concept of welfare
(3) The social concept of welfare (4) The relative concept of welfare

41. For which industry the first non-statutory Wage Board was set up in India ?
(1) Cotton Textile (2) Cement
(3) Iron and Steel (4) Coal Mining
42. Assertion (A) : It has been suggested that while roles answer the question ‘how to be interfaced
with other people to reach our goals’ ? Functions answer the question ‘what do you do to
accomplish our goals ?’
Reason (R) : Roles are more relational while functions go beyond interpersonal relations. Functions
such as planning, decision-making etc. may not necessarily involve working with others and
several managerial functions can be performed without communication with people.
Codes :
(1) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are right, Reason (R) explains Assertion (A).
(2) Assertion (A) is true, Reason (R) is not true.
(3) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are not true.
(4) Assertion (A) is wrong, hence Reason (R) is not an explanation of Assertion (A).
43. Which of the following statements relating to the second National Commission on Labour is/are
not true ?
(a) The commission envisaged a system of Labour courts, Lok Adalats and Labour Relations
Commissions as the integrated adjudicatory system in labour matters.
(b) The commission recommended that the Essential Services Maintenance Act should be
withdrawn.
(c) The commission was in favour of setting up wage boards for fixing was rates workers in
any industry.
Codes :
(1) Only (a) (2) (a) and (b)
(3) Only (c) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
44. As per the amendment to the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, made in 2017, the Act shall apply
to wages payable to an employed person drawing a monthly wage not exceeding :
(1) ` 28,000 (2) ` 26,000
(3) ` 24,000 (4) ` 30,000
45. Which of the following stages of group development will witness the following trend of group
member’s behaviour :
‘Confront the differences, feel angry or frustrated, result formal leadership, lot of competition, and
hostilities’ ?
(1) Forming (2) Storming
(3) Norming (4) Adjourning
46. For a person employed in a seasonal establishment, what is the rate of gratuity payable under
the payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 ?
(1) Fifteen day’s wages for each Season
(2) Seven day’s wages for each Season
(3) Ten day’s wages for each Year
(4) Teh day’s wages for each Season

47. The strikes that are intended to put pressure on the government to do something to desist from
doing something are categorised as :
(1) Jurisdictional strikes (2) Political strikes
(3) General strikes (4) Quickie strikes
48. Under the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, who among the following cannot be
appointed as the authority by the appropriate Government to hear and decide claims arising out
of deductions from wages or delay in payment of wages and penalty for malicious or Vexatious
claims ?
(1) Any Commissioner for workmen’s Compensation
(2) Regional Labour Commissioner appointed by the Central Government
(3) Any Assistant Labour Commissioner appointed by the State Government
(4) Any other officer with experience as a Judge of a Civil Court or a Judicial Magistrate
49. An organisation structure defines how job, tasks are formally divided, grouped, and coordinated.
Managers need to address six key elements when they design their organisation’s structure.
Match List-I with List-II given below :
List-I : Refers to the six key elements encountered by managers in designing their organisation
structure.
List-II : Provides possible answer to address the key elements encountered in organisation
designing.
List-I List-II
(a) To what degree are activities (i) Span of Control
subdivided into separate jobs ?
(b) On what basis will jobs be (ii) Centralisation and Decentralisation
grouped together ?
(c) To whom do individuals and (iii) Departmentalization
groups report ?
(d) How many individuals can a (iv) Work specialization
manager efficiently and
effectively direct ?
(e) Where does decision-making (v) Chain of Command
authority lie ?
(f) To what degree will there be (vi) Formalisation
rules and regulations to direct
employees and managers ?
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f)
(1) (iii) (iv) (v) (ii) (i) (vi)
(2) (iv) (iii) (v) (i) (ii) (vi)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (vi) (v)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (vi) (v) (i)

50. The need for labour welfare was also emphasized by the constitution of India. There are Articles
in Indian Constitution which contain provisions for labour welfare. Which among the following
Articles does not contain provision for Labour Welfare ?
(1) Article 38 (2) Article 39
51. Which of the following statement regarding the ‘Socialist Manifesto’ are true ?
(a) It was drafted by Sidney and Beatrice Webb.
(b) It was drafted by Karl Marx and Engels.
(c) It was drafted for converting capitalist Britain into to mixed economy.
(d) It was strongly opposed by the Labour Party in Britain.
Codes :
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (c) and (d)
52. In which of the following countries there exists a predominantly adversarial approach to industrial
relations ?
(1) USA (2) Germany
(3) Sweden (4) Denmark
53. Which of the following statements regarding stress related factors is/are true/false ?
(a) Burnout Stress Syndrome (BOSS) is a debilitating psychological condition brought about
by unrelieved work stress.
(b) ‘Good’ and ‘bad’ stress are also referred to as ‘Distress’ and ‘Eustress’ respectively.
(c) It is natural and healthy to maintain optimal level of stress.
(d) Rustout Stress Syndrome (ROSS) is indicative of stress overload.
(e) Anxiety is a state of emotional tension characterised by Apprehension, fearfulness and
psychic pain.
Codes :
(1) (a), (b) and (d) are true, (c) and (e) are false.
(2) (b), (c) and (d) are true, (a) and (e) are false.
(3) (a), (c) and (e) are ture, (b) and (d) are false.
(4) (b), (d) are (e) are true, (a) and (c) are false.
54. Which of the following statements relating to the Central Advisory Board under the provisions of
the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 is not correct ?
(1) Chairman to be appointed by the Central Government.
(2) The Chief Labour Commissioner (Central) as an ex-officio member.
(3) The Labour Commissioners of all the states as ex-officio member.
(4) Such number of members, not exceeding seventeen but not less than eleven as the
Central Government may nominate representing Government, Railways, Coal industry,
mining industry, the contractors, the workmen.

55. Which of the following is/are not Team Building Approaches ?

(a) Positive Reinforcement (b) Johari Window
(c) Behaviour Modification (d) Domain Reshuffling
Codes :
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (d)
56. What is the maximum time that can be imposed on any person who supplies false information
regarding a Trade Union under the provisions of the Trade Union Act, 1926 ?
(1) ` 100 (2) ` 200
(3) ` 300 (4) ` 500
57. Distributive bargaining, as described by Walton and Mckersie, is also called :

(1) Win-Win bargaining (2) Zero sum bargaining
(3) Composite bargaining (4) Concession bargaining
58. Which of the following statements are true/false ?

(a) Organisation Behaviour (OB) has been influenced by the Contingency Approach and The
Interactional Approach.
(b) Hawthorne studies led to Human Relations Movement.
(c) Human Relations Movement’s main emphasis was as economic needs i.e. people were
more motivated by economic needs rather than Social needs.
(d) Mcgregor and Maslow were not the main proponents and figure heads of the Human
Relations movement.
Codes :
(1) (a), (b), (c) are true, (d) is false.
(2) (c) and (d) are true, (a) and (b) are false.
(3) (b) and (d) are true, (a) and (c) are false.
59. Labour welfare movement has witnessed some distinctive developments. They are :
(a) Voluntary organisations engaged in labour welfare expanded in number and influences.
(b) State through legislations tried to regulate and improve the lot of labour.
(c) Some enlightened employers took the initiative to improve the working and living conditions
of labour.
(d) Trade Unions faught to bring about an improvement in the working conditions of labour and
to raise their status socially and economically.
Arrange the developments in correct order from latest to earliest.
Codes :
(1) (a), (b), (d), (c) (2) (a), (d), (c), (b)
(3) (b), (c), (d), (a) (4) (b), (d), (a), (c)

60. Assertion (A) : It has been observed that the approach to Labour Legislations in India underwent
a change after the country became independent.
Reason (R) : The basis philosophy has undergone change being influenced by the concept of
social justice and welfare state.
Codes :
(2) Assertion (A) is correct and Reason (R) fully explains Assertion (A).
(4) Assertion (A) is correct and Reason (R) does not explain Assertion (A).
61. The National Labour Relations Board (NLRB) having the responsibility to investigate Unfair Labour
Practices and Complaints, was established under :
(1) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 (2) The Wagner Act, 1935
(3) Trade Unions Act, 1926 (4) The Norris-La Guardia Act, 1932
62. Which one of the following statements relating to protected workman under the Industrial Disputes
Act, 1947 is not correct ?
(1) A protected workman cannot be discharged or dismissed from the services during the
pendency of any such proceeding in respect of an industrial dispute without the express
permission in writing from the authority before which the proceeding is pending.
(2) A member of the executive or other office bearer of registered trade union can only be
recognised as protected workmen.
(3) The number of protected workman to be recognised shall be within a range of a minimum
five to a maximum one hundred.
(4) Two percent of the total workmen can be recognised protected workman.
63. Which of the following statements is/are true/false regarding modes of Conflict Management
Styles ?
(a) The avoidance modes of Conflict Management aim at avoiding or postponing conflicts.
(b) The compromise mode involves coercion and is likely to fail to reach a solution.
(c) The main objective of the defusion mode of conflict resolution is to buy time for dealing
with a conflict.
(d) Withdrawal is a form of approach mode that involves getting away from a conflict situation.
Codes :
(2) (a) and (d) are true, (b) and (c) are false.
(3) (a) and (c) are true, (b) and (d) are false.
(4) (b) and (d) are true, (a) and (c) are false.
64. Which among the following statements relating to the features of collective bargaining is/are
correct ?
(a) It is a two-way process. (b) It involves Civilised Confrontation.
(c) It is a Static Process. (d) It is a Complementary Process.
Codes :
(1) (a) and (d) only (2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only (4) (b), (c) and (d) only

65. Hans Selye’s (1956) “General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)” has been widely held as comprehensive
model to explain the stress phenomenon. This three stage model state that when an organism
is confronted with a threat, the general physiological response occurs is three stages.
Which of the following stages is not a part of GAS model ?
(1) Intrapsychic Disorder Stage (2) Alarm Stage
(3) Exhaustion Stage (4) Resistance Stage
66. As per the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, under which of the conditions a strike
declared by the workmen of public utility service shall be illegal ?
(1) Resorting to strike after a lapse of fourteen days of giving a notice of strike.
(2) Resorting to strike within seven days from the conclusion of conciliation proceedings
pending before a conciliation officer.
(3) Resorting to strike after seven days of conclusion of such proceedings pendings before
a Board of Conciliation.
(4) Resorting to strike within two months from conclusion of such proceedings pending before
a Labour Court.
67. In which of the following states there exists a legislation having a provision for recognition of Trade
Unions ?
(1) Odisha (2) Karnataka
(3) Maharastra (4) Bihar
68. Which of the following statements is/are not true about the “Grid Organisation Development” (Grid
OD) Program designed by Robert R. Blake and Jane S. Mouton ?
(a) It is a eight phase program lasting about three to five years.
(b) Through this program as organisation can move systematically from the state of examining
managerial behaviour and style to the development and implementation of an “ideal strategic
corporate model”.
(c) Behavioural science concepts and rigorous business logic are combined in the Grid OD
Program’s six phases.
(d) The single most significant premise on which Grid OD rests in that the 5, 5 way of doing
business which is acknowledged universally by managers as the soundest way to manage
to achieve excellence.
Codes :
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (d) only
(3) (a) and (d) only (4) (b) and (c) only
69. Assertion (A) : Labour Welfare Movement acquired new dimensions after independence.
Reason (R) : It was realised that Labour Welfare had a positive role to play in increasing
productivity and reducing industrial tensions.
Codes :
(2) Assertion (A) is correct and Reason (R) is fully explains Assertion (A).

70. Who among the following is not a Contractor in relation to an establishment under the provisions
of the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 ?
(1) Any person who undertakes to produce a given result for the establishment through
Contract Labour.
(2) Any person who supplies contract labour for any work of the establishment.
(3) Any person who supplies goods and articles of manufacture to such establishment.
(4) Any person who works as a sub-contractor.
71. “An agreement between an employee and the employer stating that the employer will neither Join
nor participate in union activities as a condition of employment” is called :
(1) Union Shop Contract (2) Employment Contract
(3) Yellow - dog Contract (4) Business Contract
72. Assertion (A) : Some of the earliest piece of Labour Legislation in India appear to have been
enacted to protect the interest of the employers.
Reason (R) : The policy of the Government was to protect the social system rather than to
protect workers.
Codes :
(2) Assertion (A) is correct and Reason (R) explain Assertion (A).
(4) Assertion (A) is correct and Reason (R) does not explain Assertion (A).
73. The Managerial Grid Theory was propounded by Black and Mouton (1978), having popular application
of both Task and Person Orientation. Each leader can be rated somewhere along each of the
axes from 1 to 9 depending on his/her orientation.
Which of the following descriptions given below refers to ‘The Leader’ ?
(1) The leader reflects middle ground position.
(2) The leader is extremely concerned about the task and also the people.
(3) The leader is primarily concerned for people and only incidently concerned with production.
(4) The leader is concerned with neither production nor people.
74. As per the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, if deductions are made for payments
to co-operative societies, the maximum deductions for any wage period for any employed person
shall not exceed :
(1) Fifty percent (2) Sixty percent
(3) Seventy Five percent (4) Eighty percent
75. Which of the following authorities is not an adjudicatory body under the Industrial Disputes Act,
1947 ?
(1) Labour Court (2) Industrial Tribunal
(3) National Tribunal (4) Arbitration

76. Which of the following countries does/do not figure in the list of Nations of Chief Industrial
Importance that hold permanent membership in the Governing Body of ILO ?
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Russian Federation
(c) Mexico (d) Brazil
Codes :
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (c) and (d)
77. In which year the first indication of industrial unrest and earliest work stoppage came to the fore
in India at the initiative of weavers of Empress Mills, Nagpur ?
(1) 1877 (2) 1878
(3) 1879 (4) 1881
78. Which of the following characteristics of Transactional and Transformational Leaders are not
correctly matched ?
Leader Characteristics
(a) Transaction Leader - Idealised Influence
(b) Transformational Leader - Management by Exception
(c) Transformational Leader - Laissez-Faire
(d) Transactional Leader - Contingent Reward
(e) Transformational Leader - Intellectual Stimulation
Codes :
(1) (a), (b) and (d) only (2) (c), (d) and (e) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (d) and (e) only
79. The general pattern of behaviour, shared beliefs and values that organisation members have in
common is called :
(1) Organisational Climate (2) Organisational Culture
(3) Organisational Effectiveness (4) Organisational Structure
80. What is the maximum aggregate fine that can be imposed on a Trade Union for continuous
default in submitting the return under the provisions of the Trade Unions Act, 1926 ?
(1) ` 50 (2) ` 250
(3) ` 500 (4) ` 1000
81. Which of the following is a group incentive plan ?

(1) Barth Variable Incentive Plan (2) Hayne’s Incentive Plan
(3) Rowan Incentive Plan (4) Scanlon Incentive Plan
82. As per the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, industrial disputes relating the subject matters covered
under Second Schedule and Third Schedule are to be adjudicated upon by the Labour Court and
Industrial Tribunal. But under which of the following conditions subject matter covered under the
Third Schedule can be referred to the Labour Court for adjudication ?
(1) If it is not likely to affect more than one hundred workmen.
(2) If the dispute has been raised by a trade union not registered under the Trade Union Act,
1926.
(3) If it is likely to affect more than one hundred workmen.
(4) If the dispute has been raised by the recognised trade Union.

83. Which one of the following methods is not a Behavioural method of performance appraisal ?
(1) Balanced score card method (2) Critical incident method
(3) Assessment centre method (4) Behavioural check list method
84. Match List-I with List-Ii and select answer codes given below :
List-I List-II
(a) Frank B. Gilbreth (i) Theory of bureaucracy
(b) Max Weber (ii) Time and Motion studies
(c) F.W. Taylor (iii) Application of Psychology to Industry and
Management
(d) Hugo munsterberg (iv) Scientific Management
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
85. A factory has engaged two hundred fifty workers/workmen. If the employer wants to retrench any
workman who has completed one year of continuous service in the establishment, then which
of the conditions are to be followed by the employer under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 ?
(a) It has to serve three months notice in writing in advance or pay in lieu of such notice, wage
(b) It has to serve one month notice in writing in advance or pay in lieu of such notice, wage
(c) Notice in the prescribed manner is served on the appropriate Government.
(d) Prior Permission of the appropriate Government has been obtained on an application
made in this behalf.
(e) Pay retrenchment compensation at the rate of fifteen days average pay for every completed
year of continuous service or any part there of in excess of six months.
Codes :
(1) (a), (c) and (e) only (2) (a), (d) and (e) only
(3) (a) and (e) only (4) (a), (c), (d) and (e) only
86. Which of the following central organisations of labour was not a signatory to the Inter-Union Code
of Conduct, 1958 ?
(1) INTUC (2) BMS
(3) HMS (4) AITUC
87. Which one of the following is not a health provision under the Factories Act, 1948 ?
(1) Cleanliness (2) Drinking Water
(3) Latrines and Urinals (4) First-Aid Appliances

88. Among the following who is known for scientific selection of workers and “Harmonious Co-
operation between labour and management” :
(1) Gilbreth (2) Elton Mayo
(3) Max Weber (4) Henery L. Gantt
89. An employee engaged in an industrial establishment draws wages of ` 20,500/- per month. What
is the amount of bonus to be paid to him if it is paid at the rate of 10% by the employer for an
accounting year under the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 ?
(1) Rupees Nine thousand two hundred only.
(2) Rupees Eight thousand four hundred only.
(3) Rupees Ten thousand two hundred fifty only.
(4) Rupees Nine thousand six hundred only.
90. What is the amount of compensation to be paid to an employee suffering from permanent total
disablement under the provisions of the Employee’s Compensation Act, 1923 ? (Hints-monthly
wage under drawn was ` 15,000 and relevant factor 159.80)
(1) ` 10,38,200 (2) ` 11,98,500
(3) ` 6,39,200 (4) ` 7,67,040
91. Which one of the following falls under ‘Dry promotion’ category ?
(1) responsibilities remain the same but pay increases.
(2) responsibilities increase but there is no increase in the pay.
(3) responsibilities reduce but pay remains the same.
(4) responsibilities reduce but pay increases.
92. The displacement allowance to be paid by the contractor to every inter-state migrant workman
at the time of recruitment as per the Inter-State Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and
Conditions of Service) Act, 1979 shall be equal to :
(1) Fifty percent of the monthly wages payable to his or seventy five rupees whichever is
higher.
(2) Seventy five percent of the monthly wages payable to him or one hundred rupees whichever
is higher.
(3) Sixty percent of the monthly wages payable to him or Seventy five rupees whichever is
higher.
(4) Fifty percent of the monthly wages payable to him or one hundred rupees whichever is
higher.
93. According to which of the following methods of human resource accounting present value of
future earning of human resources is taken into account ?
(1) Standard cost method (2) Economic value method
(3) Opportunity cost method (4) Replacement cost method

94. The record keeping functions for the purpose of the Unorganised Worker’s Social Security Act,
2008 shall be performed by :
(1) The Labour Directorate of the State
(2) The District Administration
(3) The State Social Security Board
(4) The Department of Labour of the State
95. The control based on norms, shared values, expected behaviour and other cultural variables in
an organisation is known as :
(1) Bureaucratic Control (2) System Control
(3) Tailoring Control (4) Clan Control
96. Multinational Corporations are categorised into four categories namely multidomestic, global,
international and transnational on the basis of their response to two factors namely; global integration
and national responsiveness. Keeping this in view match the type of Multinationals given in List-I
with their respective characteristics given in List-II.
List-I List-II
(a) Multidomestic (i) High national responsiveness and high global
integration.
(b) Global (ii) High national responsiveness and low global
integration.
(c) International (iii) High global integration and low national
responsiveness.
(d) Transnational (iv) Low to moderate global integration and low to
moderate national responsiveness.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
97. In UK, when the parties to dispute fail to settle their dispute through collective bargaining and
having exhausted all internal procedures available to them in their establishments for settlement
of disputes, can seek settlement through _______ .
(1) Advisory Conciliation and Arbitration Services.
(2) Central Arbitration Committee
(3) House of Lords
(4) Employment Appeal Tribunals

98. “The state shall take steps, by suitable legislation or in any other way, to secure the participation
of workers in the management of undertakings, establishments or other organisations engaged
in any industry”.
The above statements was provided under :
(1) Article 43A of Constitution (42 Amendment) Act, 1976.
(2) Article 19(C) of the Indian Constitution.
(3) Convention No. 11 of I.L.O.
(4) Article 14 of the Indian Constitution.
99. Assertion (A) : With the evoluation of industrial and employment relations in the face of rapid
changes and significant advances in technology among other things, collective bargaining became
an instrument of social change.
Reason (R) : Shifts in the labour and product markets created pressures as well as opportunities
for a new approach.
Codes :
(2) Assertion (A) is correct and Reason (R) is a proper explanation of Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is correct and but Reason (R) is wrong.
(4) Reason (R) is not an explanation of Assertion (A).
100. Which of the following statements relating to the system of collective bargaining in United Kingdom
is true ?
(a) It is covered under the Trade Unions and Labour Relations Act, 1974.
(b) It is covered under the Trade Unions and Labour Relations (Consolidation), Act, 1992.
(c) It is covered under the Employment Relations Act, 1999.
(d) It is not covered under any legislation.
Codes :
(3) (c) only (4) (d) only

ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
3 4 3 1 2 4 3 4 1 4
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
1 4 2 4 3 2 4 3 4 3
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
4 3 1 3 1 3 1 1 3 4
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
3 4 3 4 3 4 1 3 4 3
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
1 1 3 3 2 2 2 3 2 3
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
3 1 3 3 4 9 2 4 2 2
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
2 4 3 3 1 3 3 3 2 3
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
9 2 9 3 4 3 1 3 2 1
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
4 1 1 2 2 2 4 4 2 4
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
2 1 2 2 4 1 1 1 2 4

General Paper-1 (Dec. 2018)

Previous Year Solved Paper (Dec. 2018)
1. Which of the following specify the factors affecting teaching. For your answer select from the
code given below :
(a) Availability of teaching aids and their use
(b) School-community linkages
(c) Interest of parents in the school programmes
(d) Subject-knowledge of the teacher
(e) Frequency of organizing co-curricular activities
(f) Verbal and non-verbal communication skills of the teacher
Code :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (d), (e) and (f)
(3) (b), (c) and (e) (4) (a), (d) and (f)
2. In which of the modalities of teaching-learning arrangements there is more scope for critical and
creative interchange ?
(1) Dialogic presentations involving teachers, students and the content
(2) Instructional presentations involving scope for information processing
(3) Conditioning to promote sensitivity
(4) Training session
3. The issue of research ethics is pertinent at which of the following stages, of research?
(1) Defining the population, sampling procedures and techniques
(2) Deciding the quantitative or qualitative tracks or both for pursuing the research problem
(3) Data collection, data analysis and reporting of research findings/results
(4) Identification, definition and delimitation of research problem
4. Which of the following implies the correct sequence in an action research paradigm ?
(1) Plan, act, observe and reflect (2) Observe, reflect, plan and act
(3) Act, reflect, plan and observe (4) Reflect, act, observe and plan
5. In which of the following, target related specifications will be considered necessary ?

(1) Symposium (2) Conferences
(3) Workshops (4) Seminars

6. In the two sets given below, Set-I embodies the list of research types while Set-II provides their
nature and characteristics. Match the two sets and give your answer from the code which
follows :
Set-I (Research types) Set-II (Nature and characteristics)
(a) Experimental research (i) Generalizations follow rather than precede the
observations in due course
(b) Exports facts research (ii) Emphasizing the access to reality by sharing the
perspectives of people
(c) Participant observation (iii) Getting at causal facts by retrospective analysis
based research
(d) Grounded theory approach (iv) Describing the status and conditions as obtainable
based research
(v) Controlling the extraneous variables and observing
the effect of independent variable manipulated by the
researcher on dependent variable
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (v) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
7. In which of the following research methods the emphasis is laid on naturalistic settings and
meaning-giving processes ?
(1) Ex post facto method (2) Descriptive survey method
(3) Experimental method (4) Case study method
8. In the two sets given below, Set-I embodies the domain of ‘teaching competencies’ while Set-II
provides the specific competencies which make a teacher effective. Match the two sets and
select appropriate code.
Set-I (Domain of teaching competencies) Set-II (Specific competencies)
(a) Personality and attitude related (i) Dynamism and flexibility
competencies
(b) Behavioural competencies (ii) Subject and general knowledge
(c) Substantive competencies (iii) Good physique and appearance
(d) Style related competencies (iv) Self efficacy and locus of control
(v) Teaching and managing
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (v)
(4) (iv) (v) (ii) (i)

9. Which of the following are considered as key behaviours of effective teaching as evident from
researches ?
(a) Structuring through comments made for organizing what is to come.
(b) Asking process or content based questions.
(c) Lesson clarity implying the extent, to which teacher’s presentation is clear to the class.
(c) Using student ideas and contributions while the teacher is presenting the subject.
(e) Instructional variety involving teacher’s variability and flexibility during presentation.
(f) Student success rate implying the rate at which students understand and correctly complete
the exercises.
Code :
(1) (c), (e) and (f) (2) (a), (c) and (f)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
10. Below are given the characteristic features of formative and summative assessment procedures
used in various teaching-learning contexts.
(a) It is used for judging learning standard.
(b) It is used for improvement of capacity and quality.
(c) Its use is extended to performance appraisal of teachers, students and institutions.
(d) It is used during instruction.
(e) Assessment is formal and post instructional in nature.
(f) It is based on participation of both teacher and student.
Which of the given codes relate to formative procedures ?
Code :
(1) (b), (c) and (d) (2) (b), (d) and (f)
(3) (a), (c) and (e) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
Direction (11-15) : Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers.
It is easy to see that there is nothing particularly unusual, or especially contrary to reason, for a
person to choose to pursue a goal that is not exclusively confined to his or her own self-interest.
As Adam Smith noted, we do have many different motivations, taking us well beyond the single-
minded pursuit of our interest. There is nothing contrary to reason in our willingness to do things
that are not entirely self-serving. Some of these motivations, like ‘humanity, justice, generosity and
public spirit’, may even be very productive for society, as Smith noted. There tends to be,
however, more resistance to accepting the possibility that people may have good reasons even
to go beyond the pursuit of their own goals. The argument runs : if you are consciously not
pursuing what you think are your goals, then clearly those cannot be your goals. Indeed, many
authors have taken the view that the claim that one can have reason not to be confined to the
pursuit of one's goals is ‘nonsensical’ since even strongly heterogeneous or altruistic agents
cannot pursue other people’s goals without making their own. The point here is that in denying
that rationality demands that you must act single-mindedly according to your own goals. You do
not necessarily dedicate yourself to the promotion of others. We can reason our way towards
following decent rules of behaviour that we see being fair to others as well. This can restrain the
unique dominance of single-minded pursuit of our own goals. There is nothing particularly mysterious

about our respect for sensible rules of conduct. This can qualify the pursuit of what we rightly -
and reasonably-see as goals that we would in general like to advance. What we can say about
your choice ? There is no difficulty in understanding that you are not averse to helping your
neighbour-or anyone else-pursue his or her well-being. But it so happens that you do not think
that your neighbour’s well-being is, in fact, best advanced by his wasting time on playing a silly
game. Your action is not corollary of any general pursuit of well-being.
11. The moral derived from the passage is
(1) Assist your neighbours to engage in any activity of their choice
(2) Not to think of our neighbour
(3) Pro-active move to support others
(4) Force people to take on the other people’s goals as their own
12. What can stand in the way of single-minded pursuit of one’s goals ?
(1) Giving priority to our own goals
(2) Respect for sensible rules of conduct
(3) Compulsion to consider the goals of others
(4) Pursuit of paradoxical parameters
13. The observation of Adam Smith in going beyond self-serving interest is :

(1) Motivations like justice and public spirit
(2) Having one’s own goals
(3) Willingness to do different things
(4) Issues contrary to reasons
14. According to the passage, decent rules of behaviour are needed :

(1) Due to dominance of our own goals
(2) For being fair to others
(3) Because of self-imposed restraints
(4) To be rational
15. In the view of many authors, not pursuing one’s own goal is .
(1) Natural (2) Altruistic
(3) Nonsensical (4) Rational
16. If 7, 13, 2, 14, 6 is to flame, then 3, 13, 16, 2, 21 is to :

(1) Blown (2) Bloat
(3) Voice (4) Blade
1 1
17. If R + = 1 and S + = 1, then R × S × T = _________ .
S T
(1) 2 (2) 1
(3) –2 (4) –1

18. Internal cues of non-verbal behaviour in the classroom help diagnose

(1) Mass beliefs (2) Inter-personal dynamics
(3) Student movement (4) Spatial proximation
1
19. Before death a man left the following instructions for his fortune : half to his wife; of what was
7
2
of what was left to his daughter; the man’s pet dog got the remaining ` 20000.
left to his son;
3
How much money did the man leave behind altogether ?
(1) ` 100000 (2) ` 40000
(3) ` 140000 (4) ` 70000
20. In the sequence of numbers 1, 2, 6, 33, 49, 174, 210, x, ..., the term x is :
(1) 444 (2) 259
(3) 510 (4) 553
21. ‘Every law is an evil, for every law is an infraction of liberty’. The above is :
(1) A justification of beliefs (2) An explanation of facts
(3) A proposition of facts (4) An argument
22. A woman introduces a man as the son of the brother of her mother. How is the man related to
the woman ?
(1) Son (2) Grandson
(3) Uncle (4) Cousin
23. Given below are two premises (i) and (ii). Four conclusions are drawn from them (taking singly
or together).
Premises :
(i) Some prisoners are dacoits.
(ii) Some dacoits are murderers.
Conclusions :
(a) Some prisoners are murderers.
(b) All prisoners are murderers.
(c) Some dacoits are prisoners.
(d) Some murderers are dacoits.
Select the code that states the validly drawn conclusions :
(1) Only (a) and (d) (2) Only (b) and (c)
(3) Only (b) and (d) (4) Only (c) and (d)
24. When the conclusion of an argument follows from its premises necessarily, the argument is
called.
(1) Inductive argument (2) Deductive argument
(3) Analogical argument (4) Circular argument

25. In pre-learning preparation, an important stage of communication is :

(1) Iconisation of encoder
(2) Information acquisition and its processing
(3) Ignoring semantic noise
(4) Conditional feedback
26. Among the following propositions (a, b, c and d) two are related in such a way that both of them
together cannot be false although they may both be true. Select the code that states those two
propositions.
(a) All students are intelligent. (b) Some students are intelligent.
(c) No students are intelligent. (d) Some students are not intelligent.
Code :
(1) (b) and (d) (2) (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (b) (4) (b) and (c)
27. Communication variables involved in a model of performance are :

(a) Encoding (b) Decoding
(c) Passive resistance (d) Channelisation
(e) Indifference
Select the correct option from the code given below :
(1) (b), (c), (d) and (e) only (2) (a), (b) and (d) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (e) only
28. Given below are an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R). Consider them and select the correct code
given below :
Assertion (A) : Honesty is a great virtue.
Reason (R) : Honesty does not harm anybody.
Code :
(1) (R) is true and (A) is false.
29. To communicate effectively with students, teachers should use :

(a) Affinity-seeking strategies (b) Immediacy behaviours
(c) Humour (d) Collaborative filters
Choose most appropriate code :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (a) and (d) only (4) (a), (c) and (d)

30. Assertion (A) : Classroom communication behaviours imply making the contents relevant.
Reason (R) : It is none of the functions of teachers to make students organise information “for
effective interaction.
Code :
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true.
Direction (31-35) : The following table indicates the percentage of students enrolled in various faculties
of a University. The total number of students in the University is 12000, out of which 52% are males and
remaining are females.
Based on the table, answer the questions that follow :
Percentage of Students Facultywise

Name of The Faculty Percentage (%) of Students
Science 17%
Education 30%
Engineering 8%
Performing Arts 26%
Social Sciences 19%
31. The difference in the number of students enrolled in the faculty of Science as compared to the
number of students enrolled in the faculty of Engineering, is :
(1) 960 (2) 1180
(3) 1080 (4) 2040
32. The number of male students exceeding female students is :

(1) 480 (2) 1400
(3) 800 (4) 1680
33. Supposing, the number available in the faculty of Engineering doubles keeping the total number
in the University to be the same by reducing the student numbers in faculty of Performing Arts
and faculty of Education equally, the number of students available in the faculty of Education will
be :
(1) 2680 (2) 3120
(3) 2960 (4) 3125
34. If half of the students from the faculty of Education and all of the students from the faculty of
Social Sciences are females, then the number of female students in the three remaining faculties
altogether will be :
(1) 840 (2) 960
(3) 1240 (4) 1680
35. Approximately, how many female students are there in the faculty of Performing Arts if the
proportion of males and females is the same for this faculty as for the whole University ?
(1) 1498 (2) 610
(3) 2560 (4) 2678

36. In the following two sets, Set-I mentions an apex level institution in India while Set-Il indicates their
formal concerns. Match the two sets and give your answer from the code.
Set-I (Apex level Institution) Set-Il (Formal concerns)
(a) University Grants Commission (i) Adjudication of legal matters in education
(b) All India Council of (ii) Coordination, recognition and quality issues
Technical Education related to teacher education institutions
(c) National Council of (iii) Coordination and quality maintenance in
Teacher Education institutions of higher education
(d) National Assessment and (iv) Recognition and quality issues in technical
Accreditation Council institutions
(v) Evaluation of quality and determining grade
of excellence
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (v)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)
37. In the institutions of higher education in India which of the following has the formal authority to
approve the courses and programmes of studies ?
(1) The University Court / Senate (2) Academic Council
(3) Board of Studies (4) Departmental Council
38. Which one of the following pairs least matches in respect of computers ?
(1) Megabyte : (1024) × (1024) × (8) Bits
(2) www : World Wide Web
(3) PDF : Portable Document Format
(4) HTTPS : Hypertext Transfer Protocol Standard
39. Read the following spreadsheet (MS-EXCEL) :
A B C
1 10 16
2 20
3 8
4 12
5 0
The equation in cell B2 is A2 + $ B $ 1.

The equation is then copied and pasted to cells B3, B4 and B5. What should be the value in B3 ?
(1) 56 (2) 24
(3) 36 (4) 44

40. Which of the following methods would be most appropriate in reducing acid rain and acid deposition
problems ?
(1) Adding lime to the acidic lakes
(2) Promotion of acid-resistant crops
(3) Increasing the height of smokestacks
(4) Reducing the use of fossil fuels
41. Computer data files that are included with an email message are often referred to as :
(1) Cookies (2) Spam mails
(3) Carbon copy (4) Attachments
42. Human populations have historically settled in flood plains due to which of the following reasons ?
(a) Flood plains are close to rivers for transportation.
(b) The soils in the flood plains are usually fertile.
(c) The terrain in flood plains is found as flat.
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) only
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a) and (b) only
43. Assertion (A) : Mapping of landslide prone areas and construction of houses, felling of trees and
grazing in landslide prone areas should be prohibited.
Reason (R) : Afforestation in the vulnerable areas is an effective way of durable landslides
control.
Choose the correct code :
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is false and (R) is true.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
44. The two major processes involved in the carbon cycle are :
(1) Photosynthesis and respiration (2) Deposition and erosion
(3) Evaporation and transpiration (4) Fixation and denitrification
45. Which piece of the computer hardware is known as the “brain” of the computer and is responsible
for processing instructions ?
(1) RAM (2) Motherboard
(3) ROM (4) CPU

46. Below are given two sets- Set-I provides stages of value development while Set-Il indicates their
critical features from the point of view of value education. Match the two sets and choose your
answer from the code :
Set-I (Stages of value Set-Il (Critical features in terms
development) of value education)
(a) Value collection (i) Providing opportunity for imitation
(b) Value assessment (ii) Characterization through integration of values
(c) Value clarification (iii) Providing hints for inner evaluation
(d) Value consolidation (iv) Exposure to other values
(v) Discussions and debates
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (v)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (v)
47. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of the greenhouse effect in earth’s
atmosphere ?
(1) Cosmic radiation from the space is absorbed by gases in the atmosphere.
(2) Infrared radiation from earth's surface is absorbed by gases in the atmosphere.
(3) Gamma radiation from the sun is absorbed at ground level by dust particles in the
atmosphere.
(4) Ultraviolet radiation from the sun is absorbed by Ozone layer in the stratosphere.
48. For pursuing a Ph.D. programme through our University system, what has become a mandatory
provision now ?
(1) Guidance from a supervisor outside the University
(2) Compulsory attendance for three years
(3) Course work
(4) Enrolment for Ph.D.
49. Which option would complete the following sentences about digital communication system by
using the words - short/long, low/high ?
Bluetooth is a ____________ range wireless technology. It is used to connect devices together
for data transfer. Bluetooth is a ____________ cost means of data transfer.
(1) long, low (2) long, high
(3) short, low (4) short, high

50. To improve access and quality in higher education, the Knowledge Commission recommendations
include which of the following ?
(a) Use of ICT for production of knowledge
(b) Closure of non-performing Universities in the country
(c) Establishment of a network of institutions of higher learning
(d) Increase in the enrollment of students in the institutions of higher learning
Code :
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) (2) (a), (b), (d) only
(3) (a), (b), (c) only (4) (a), (c), (d) only
ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
4 1 3 1 3 1 4 4 1 2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
3 2 1 2 3 2 4 2 3 4
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
4 4 4 2 2 1 2 3 1 2
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
3 1 2 4 1 2 2 4 3 4
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
4 1 2 1 4 3 2 3 3 4

Human Resource Management Paper-II (Dec. 2018)

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :
Ethics refer to the principles of conduct governing an individual or a group; specifically, the
standard one uses to decide what one’s conduct should be. Making ethical decisions always
involves normative judgements. Ethical decisions always involve questions of morality which is
society’s highest accepted standards of behaviour. Moral standards guide behaviours of the most
serious consequence to society’s well being. Authoritative bodies like legislatures cannot change
what morality means. Moral judgements also trigger strong emotions. Violating moral standards
may therefore make someone feel ashamed or remorseful. Asking ‘Is what I am doing legal ?’
would not necessarily reveal if it is ethical. Firing a 39-year-old employee with 20 years’ tenure
without cause may be legal but some would view it as unethical. Ethics means making decisions
that represent what you stand for, not just what the laws are.
1. Which among the following is not a characteristic of ethical decision ?

(1) It should involve question of morality.
(2) It evokes strong emotions.
(3) It should lead to most serious consequences to make society’s well being.
(4) It can be change by legislatures.
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :
Ethics refer to the principles of conduct governing an individual or a group; specifically, the
standard one uses to decide what one’s conduct should be. Making ethical decisions always
involves normative judgements. Ethical decisions always involve questions of morality which is
society’s highest accepted standards of behaviour. Moral standards guide behaviours of the most
serious consequence to society’s well being. Authoritative bodies like legislatures cannot change
what morality means. Moral judgements also trigger strong emotions. Violating moral standards
may therefore make someone feel ashamed or remorseful. Asking ‘Is what I am doing legal ?’
would not necessarily reveal if it is ethical. Firing a 39-year-old employee with 20 years’ tenure
without cause may be legal but some would view it as unethical. Ethics means making decisions
that represent what you stand for, not just what the laws are.
2. Which among the following cannot be a parameter of being called ethical ?

(1) Standard one uses to decide what one’s conduct should be
(2) Decisions involving normative judgements
(3) Conduct governing an individual or group
(4) Decisions involving authoritative judgements

3. Consider the following :

(i) Supportive leadership behaviour
(ii) Participative leadership behaviour
(iii) Instrumental leadership behaviour
(iv) Achievement-Oriented leadership behaviour
The above leadership behaviours are related to which of the following ?
(1) Path-goal approach of leadership
(2) Situational theory of leadership
(3) Managerial grid approach of leadership
(4) Fiedler’s contingency model of leadership
4. “A process by which an organisation responds to employee needs for developing mechanisms

to allow them to share fully in making decisions that design their lives at work” is called
(1) Social Security (2) Performance Management
(3) Quality of Work Life (4) Career Planning
5. What is the minimum number of days an employee should have served in an accounting year
to be entitled for receiving bonus under the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 ?
(1) Ninety days (2) One hundred days
(3) Sixty days (4) Thirty days
6. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason
(R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below.
Assertion (A) : Structural unemployment creates a great deal of concern and dominates the
policy discussions.
Reason (R) : Structural unemployment arises of mismatch between the skills that workers are
supplying and the skills that firms are demanding.
Code :
(1) (R) is wrong and therefore (A) cannot be said to be a correct assumption.
(2) (A) is correct and (R) is not a proper explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(4) (A) is correct and (R) explains (A).
7. Who said, “Management Development concerns the means by which a cultivates those skills
application of which will improve the efficiency and effectiveness with which the anticipated
results of particular are achieved” ?
(1) Flippo (2) Dale Yoder
(3) Koontz and O’Donnell (4) Robert Owen
Assertion (A) : Trade unions have to change their own attitudes and activities to sustain themselves
in future.
Reason (R) : Trade unions have to change their attitude from antagonism to understanding and
from militancy to mutual cooperation.

Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not an interpretation of (A).
(4) (A) is correct and (R) interprets (A).
9. The Directive Principles of State policy as contained in the Constitution of India provide for a
number of Articles.
Provision for just and human conditions of work and maternity relief is contained under which
Article of the Constitution ?
10. Which of the following core conventions of the International Labour Organisation has not been
ratified by India ?
(1) Minimum Age Convention No. 138
(2) Equal Remuneration Convention No. 100
(3) Abolition of Forced Labour Convention No. 105
(4) Freedom of Association and Right to Organise Convention No. 87
11. What is the time period within which a complaint relating to an offence has to be made before
a court from the date on which the alleged commission of the offence came to the knowledge
of the inspector or authorised person concerned under the provisions of the Inter-State Migrant
Workmen (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act, 1979 ?
(1) Two months (2) Six months
(3) One month (4) Three months
12. Which of the following statements relating to the Model Standing Orders are correct ?
(i) The Model Standing Orders classify workers into six categories.
(ii) According to the Model Standing Orders, in order to terminate the employment of a
permanent monthly rated worker, the employer has to give one month’s notice in writing
or pay in lieu thereof.
(iii) The Model Standing Orders provide a list of acts and omissions, which are to be treated
as misconducts.
(iv) The Model Standing Orders provide that every permanent worker shall be entitled to a
service certificate at the time of dismissal, discharge or retirement from service.
Code :
(1) (i), (iii) and (iv) (2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Labour Law Term Meaning
(a) Puisne (i) Junior or subordinate
(b) Ratio decidendi (ii) The ground decision
(c) Res judicata (iii) A thing decided

Code :
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii) (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii)
14. Matrix organisation is the combination of

(1) Project and Line organisation
(2) Line and Staff organisation
(3) Project and Functional organisation
(4) Functional organisation and Product organisation
Assertion (A) : In India, inequality between contracting parties in employment relationship have
warranted third party intervention.
Reason (R) : As a custodian of the broader social interest, the government has to ensure that
the economic needs of the community are satisfied by an uninterrupted flow of goods and
services.
Code :
(2) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
16. A situation in which the parties to a conflict, each desire to satisfy fully the concern of all parties
is known as
(1) Competing (2) Collaborating
(3) Accommodating (4) Compromising
17. If there is a dispute regarding the subsistence allowance payable to a workman under the provisions
of the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946, then workman or the employer concerned
may refer the dispute to
(1) The Labour Court constituted under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(2) Industrial Tribunal constituted under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(3) The Labour Commissioner
(4) The Certifying Officer
18. The Directive Principles of State Policy as contained in the Constitution of India provide for a
number of Articles.
“Securing and protecting effectively a social order in which justice shall inform all institutions of
national life” is contained under which Article of the Constitution ?
(1) Article 43(A) (2) Article 38

19. Which of the following approaches of leadership focuses on ‘personal competence’ and ‘social
competence’ ?
(1) Situational approach of leadership (2) Trait theory of leadership
(3) Emotional intelligence approach (4) Charismatic leadership approach
20. Which one of the following authorities is a subordinate office under the Ministry of Labour in India?
(1) Directorate General of Mines Safety
(2) Labour Bureau
(3) Directorate General, Factory Advice Service and Labour Institutes
(4) Directorate General, Employment and Training
21. Who among the following was the Founder President of the International Trade Union Confederation
(ITUC) ?
(1) Sharan Burrow (2) Guy Ryder
(3) Jeremy Bentham (4) Pascal Lamy
22. Provisions relating to rehabilitation and re-employment schemes for employees are provided
under which of the following legislations ?
(1) The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970
(2) The Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923
(3) The Inter-State Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service)
Act, 1979
(4) The Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948
23. Under the provisions of the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970, what is the time
period within which a case is to be filed for an offence punishable under the Act from the date
on which the alleged commission of offence came to the knowledge of an inspector ?
(1) Six months (2) Four months
(3) Two months (4) Three months
24. In which type of strike, some of the union workers are posted at the factory gate for the purpose
of watching and dissuading those who go to work ?
(1) Picketing (2) Stay away strike
(3) Protest strike (4) Cat-call strike
25. Related to group, when the tendency for individuals to expend less effort when working collectively
than when working individually is called
(1) Group think (2) Group cohesiveness
(3) Social loafing (4) Group conflict
26. What is the maximum percent of its total from the ‘Building and Other Construction Workers’
Welfare Fund during a financial year that shall be met towards salaries, allowances and other
remuneration to its members and other employees ?
(1) Five percent (2) Ten percent
(3) Six and one-fourth percent (4) Eight percent

27. An ideal wage system should fulfil certain characteristics. Which among the following is not a
characteristic of an ideal wage system ?
(1) It should develop harmonious relationship between parties.
(2) It should be conducive to the interests of both the parties – the employer and the employees.
(3) It should be capable of providing certain incentives to workers necessary to accelerate
production.
(4) It should be fairly complex and rigid.
28. Match the provisions given under List-I with the respective legislations under which they are
covered as given under List-II.
List-I List-II
(a) Subsistence Allowance (i) The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972
(b) Compulsory Insurance (ii) The Minimum Wages Act, 1948
(c) Scheduled Employment (iii) The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders)
Act, 1946
(d) Recovery Officer (iv) The Employees Provident Fund and
Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952
Code :
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
29. Match the theories given in List-I with its propounders given in List-II :
List-I List-II
(a) Subsistence Theory of Wage (i) Walker
(b) The Wage Fund Theory (ii) Karl Marx
(c) Residual Claimant Theory (iii) Ricardo
(d) Theory of Exploitation (iv) J.S. Mill
Code :
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) (2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
30. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

(1) Job classification – Grouping of job on some specified basis
(2) Job enlargement – Horizontal expansion of job
(3) Job enrichment – Vertical loading of job
(4) Job analysis – Deciding the content of job and relationship
31. Any person aggrieved by the decision of the Apprenticeship Advisor, relating to a dispute between
an employer and an apprentice arising out of contract of apprenticeship, may prefer an appeal
against the decision to which of the following under the Apprenticeship Act, 1961 ?
(1) The National Council of Technical Education
(2) The Apprenticeship Council
(3) The All India Council
(4) The National Council

32. The determination of the basic long-term objectives of an organisation/enterprise and the adoption
of courses of action and allocation of resources necessary to achieve goals is called
(1) Goal (2) Strategy
(3) Procedure (4) Policy
33. In the context of Human Resource Management ‘Head Hunting’ refers to which of the following?
(1) Training (2) Compensation
(3) Recruitment (4) Retrenchment
Assertion (A) : Labour Welfare is a relative concept.
Reason (R) : This is so because it is related to time and space.
Code :
35. Who among the following can be appointed as the authority to hear and decide any claims arising
out of deductions from wages or delay in payment of wages under the Payment of Wages Act,
1936 ?
(i) Any Commissioner for Employees’ Compensation Act
(ii) Any Regional Labour Commissioner appointed by the Central Government
(iii) Any Assistant Labour Commissioner appointed by the Central Government
(iv) Any Assistant Labour Commissioner appointed by the State Government with at least two
years of experience
(v) A Judge of a Civil Court
Code :
(1) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) (2) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(3) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v) (4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
36. Which one of the following in not a quantitative method for forecasting supply of Human resource?
(1) Markov Analysis (2) Regression Analysis
(3) Goal Programming (4) Turnover Analysis
37. Arrange the following unions in a chronological order, on the basis of the years of their establishment
in USA, starting from the oldest.
(i) International Brotherhood of Electrical Workers, USA
(ii) United Auto Workers, USA
(iii) Transport Workers Union of America
Code :
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) (2) (i), (iii), (ii)
(3) (ii), (i), (iii) (4) (iii), (i), (ii)

38. Who among the following are eligible for appointment as Presiding Officers of the Employees
Provident Fund Appellate Tribunal ?
(i) A Judge of a High Court
(ii) A District Judge
(iii) An Additional District Judge with at least three years of experience in the grade
(iv) An Officer of Indian Legal Service with five years of experience in Grade Ill
Code :
(1) (i), (ii) and (iv) only (2) (i) and (ii) only
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
39. Which of the following features relating to the Participation of Workers in Management Bill introduced
in the year 1990 are correct ?
(i) This was the first comprehensive legislative effort towards promotion of workers’ participation
in management.
(ii) The Bill envisaged a two-tier system of participation in management.
(iii) It proposed to delete Section 3 of the Industrial Disputes Act concerning the Works
Committee.
(iv) It proposed for appointment of Inspectors.
Choose the answer from the code given below :
(1) (i), (ii) and (iv) (2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
40. Which of the following statements are true/false ?

(i) The First Industrial Policy Resolution in India was introduced in 1948.
(ii) The Indian Parliament accepted the ‘socialist pattern of society’ as the national objective
of its social and economic policy in December 1955.
(iii) The Second Industrial Policy Resolution in India was made in 1956.
(iv) Under the Second Industrial Policy Resolution, industries were classified into three
categories on the basis of the role the State would play in each of them.
Code :
(1) (iii) and (iv) are true and (i) and (ii) are false.
(2) (i), (iii), (iv) are true and (ii) is false.
(3) (i) and (ii) are true and (iii) and (iv) are false.
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) are true and (iv) is false.
41. Among the following statements, which one is not true ?

(1) Ethical decisions represent what one stands for.
(2) Ethical decisions involve questions of morality.
(3) Ethical decisions are always legal.
(4) A decision may be legal, but may not be ethical.

42. The Building and Other Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of
Service) Act, 1996 shall become applicable to an establishment engaged in building and construction
work employing a minimum number of
(1) Ten building workers (2) Thirty building workers
(3) Twenty building workers (4) Fifty building workers
43. An adolescent worker employed in a factory who has not attained the age of seventeen years but
has been granted a certificate of fitness shall not be allowed to work between
(1) 8 pm to 5 am (2) 8 pm to 6 am
(3) 7 pm to 6 am (4) 9 pm to 5 am
44. In which of the following establishments was the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 first enforced ?
(1) Mines covered under the Mines Act, 1952
(2) Plantations covered under the Plantation Labour Act, 1951
(3) Hospitals, Nursing homes and Dispensaries
(4) Local Authorities
45. Who suggested that changes in organisations occur in three phases called unfreezing, changing
and refreezing ?
(1) David Nadler (2) Kurt Lewin
(3) Gary Hamel (4) Noel Tichy
46. Which of the following statements relating to the All India Manufacturers Organisation are correct?
(i) It was up in 1942.
(ii) It was set up under the leadership of M. Vishweswarayya.
(iii) It was established to represent the trade and labour interests of the member firms in the
medium and small sectors.
Code :
(1) (i) and (iii) only (2) (i) and (ii) only
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) (ii) and (iii) only
47. A leadership theory which proposed that effective group performance depended on the proper
match between a leader’s style and degree to which the situation allowed the leader to control
and influence is called
(1) Trait theory (2) Situational theory
(3) Fiedler’s contingency model (4) Path goal theory
48. The Trades Union Congress, U.K. is affiliated to

(1) International Confederation of Free Trade Unions
(2) World Federation of Trade Unions
(3) International Trade Union Confederation
(4) International Federation of Christian Unions

49. Who among the following introduced Quality Control in Japan ?

(1) Thomas Peters (2) W. Edwards Deming
(3) Robert R Blake (4) Laurence Peter
50. The provisions relating to ‘Continuous Service’ (Section 2-A) was inserted in the Payment of
Gratuity Act, 1972 by an amendment in the year
(1) 1981 (2) 1984
(3) 1987 (4) 1980
51. Which one of the following statements is correct to the ‘Rajiv Gandhi Shramik Kalyan Yojna’
scheme provided under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948 ?
(1) The unemployed person should have contributed to the scheme for at least five years
prior to loss of employment.
(2) The rate of unemployment allowance is at the rate of 50% of the daily wages.
(3) The minimum period of unemployment in a spell should be fifteen days for entitlement of
the benefit.
(4) The allowance is payable for a maximum period of six months in one spell or different
spells.
52. A general impression of an individual that is influenced by single characteristic is called

(1) Personal prejudice (2) Stereotyping
(3) Halo effect (4) Group effectiveness
53. Out of the following activities of trade unions, which are considered as social activities ?
(i) Initiating and developing workers’ education scheme.
(ii) Running cooperatives.
(iii) Organising welfare and recreational activities such as mutual insurance, providing monetary
and other help during periods of strikes and economic distress.
Code :
(1) (ii) and (iii) only (2) (i) and (ii) only
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) (i) and (iii) only
54. Which among the following is not an objective of Labour Welfare ?

(1) To further the political interests of employers
(2) To combat the influence of outside agencies on employees
(3) Desire to show-off and advertise concern for labour
(4) Avoiding payment of taxes on surplus

Type of Unions Example
(a) Craft Unions (i) The International Wood-carvers’ Association
(b) Industrial Unions (ii) Tata Workers’ Union
(c) General Unions (iii) Jamshedpur Labour Union

Code :
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii) (2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii) (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i)
56. Information relating to which one of the following is not covered under job specification ?
(1) Training (2) Job identification
(3) Education (4) Experience
57. The six stages of training evaluation model suggested by Brinkerhoff given below are jumbled up.
Choose the alternative which gives the correct from the codes given below :
(i) Programme Design (ii) Goal Setting
(iii) Immediate Outcomes (iv) Impact and Worth
(v) Intermediate on usage Outcomes (vi) Programme Implementation
Code :
(1) (ii), (i), (iii), (v), (iv), (vi) (2) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii), (v), (vi)
(3) (ii), (i), (v), (iii), (vi), (iv) (4) (ii), (i), (vi), (iii), (v), (iv)
58. Which of the statements relating to the protected workman is not correct under the Industrial
Disputes Act, 1947 ?
(1) The maximum number of protected workmen is limited to one hundred.
(2) The minimum number of protected workmen is limited to ten.
(3) It shall be limited to one percent of the total number of workmen employed.
(4) It is limited to the executives or office bearers of registered trade unions connected with
the establishment.
Assertion (A) : Violation of moral standards makes someone feel remorseful.
Reason (R) : In the event of violation of moral standards, inner sense of guilt starts haunting.
Code :
60. Which of the following statements relating to representation of parties under the provisions of The
Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is not correct ?
(1) Any of the parties can be represented by legal practitioner in any conciliation proceedings.
(2) A party to a dispute may be represented by a legal practitioner with the consent of the
other parties in any proceeding before a Labour Court or Tribunal.
(3) A workman who is a party to a dispute shall be represented in any proceeding under the
Act by any office bearer of a registered trade union of which he is a member.
(4) Any employer who is a party to a dispute shall be entitled to be represented in any
proceeding under the Act by an officer of an association of employers of which he is a
member.

61. Under the provisions of the Trade Union Act, 1926, what is the maximum amount of fine to be
imposed for supplying false information regarding Trade Unions ?
(1) One hundred rupees (2) Two hundred fifty rupees
(3) One hundred fifty rupees (4) Two hundred rupees
62. An order issued to public officials and public bodies to carry out their legal duties is known
(1) Mandamus (2) Quo warranto
(3) Res judicata (4) Certiorari
63. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason
Assertion (A) : Principle of Compulsory Arbitration leads to an authoritarian imposition of terms
and conditions of employment and supresses the possible self-governance in industries.
Reason (R) : In a democratic society, industrial democracy, implying collective and joint
determination of the terms and conditions of employment and settlement of their disputes, should
prevail without any outside interference.
Code :
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) presents only one-sided view to justify (A).
64. A conscious change that occurs as a result of logic is called

(1) Subsystem change (2) Emergent change
(3) Remedial change (4) Planned change
65. The first Wage Board in India was established for which of the following industries ?
(1) Iron and steel (2) Cement
(3) Textile (4) Coal
66. Theory ‘Y’ of Motivation assumes that

(1) People do not hate work
(2) A person has inherent dislike for work
(3) A person works only when coerced
(4) An average employee cannot be motivated
67. Which of the following conventions of the ILO was ratified by the Government of India in the year
2017 ?
(1) Freedom of Association and Right to Organise (Convention No. 87)
(2) Forced Labour Convention (No. 29)
(3) Discrimination (Employment/occupation) Convention (No. 111)
(4) The Minimum Age for Admission to Employment (Convention No. 138)

68. Which of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India has provided the three lists namely
Union List, State List and Concurrent List for making laws by the Parliament and by the legislatures
of the States ?
(1) Sixth Schedule (2) Eighth Schedule
(3) Seventh Schedule (4) Fourth Schedule
69. The right delegated to an individual or a department to control specified processes, practices,
policies or other matters relating to activities undertaken by persons in other departments is
called.
(1) Functional authority delegation (2) Empowerment of employees
(3) Delegation of power (4) Centralisation of power
70. The distinct patterns of self-perceived talents, attitudes, motives and values that direct and stabilize
an individual’s career are called
(1) Career Goals (2) Career Paths
(3) Career Anchors (4) Career Planning
71. The American Federation of Labour was established in the year

(1) 1885 (2) 1884
(3) 1886 (4) 1887
72. What is the minimum amount of compensation payable to an employee who is permanently and
totally disabled from an injury by accident arising out of and in course of employment under ‘The
Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923 ?
(1) ` 1,40,000 (2) ` 1,20,000
(3) ` 1,50,000 (4) ` 1,60,000
73. The Kochan, Katz and McKersie’s framework of industrial relations a three-tier structure of
industrial relations activities.
Match the three categories of the activities with the respective levels where they take place, as
given below :
Level/Tier Category of activity
(a) Top-tier (i) Collective bargaining and personnel policy
(b) Middle-tier (ii) Workplace, individual and organisational
relationship
(c) Bottom-tier (iii) long-term strategy and policy-making
Code :
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii) (2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii) (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii)
74. An organisation that provides autonomy to its business units operating in other countries, is called
(1) Global Corporation (2) International Corporation
(3) Multinational Corporation (4) Transnational Corporation

75. Which among the following is not a determinant of supply of labour ?

(1) Non-wage aspects of the job (2) Number of firms
(3) Other wage rates (4) Non-wage income
76. The Committee of Experts on Welfare Facilities for Industrial Workers constituted by ILO in 1963
had divided Labour Welfare Services in two groups, Intra-mural and Extra-mural.
Which among the following is not an Extra-mural welfare amenity ?
(1) Occupational safety
(2) Social insurance measures including sports
(3) Maternity benefit
(4) Leave travel facilities
77. Under the provisions of the Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976, what is the extent of
punishment for a person, who compels any person to render any bonded labour ?
(1) Imprisonment for a maximum period of three years and also with fine which may extend
to four thousand rupees.
(2) Imprisonment for a maximum term of five years and also with fine which may extend to
five thousand rupees.
(3) Imprisonment for a maximum period of two years and also with fine which may extend
to three thousand rupees.
(4) Imprisonment for a maximum term of three years and also with fine which may extend
to two thousand rupees.
78. Who has given the system theory of organisation ?

(1) Laurence Peter (2) Frank and Lillian
(3) Elton Mayo (4) Chester Barnard
79. A strike that is conducted with a view to force an employer to recognise or bargain with a
particular trade union instead of another is known as
(1) Jurisdictional strike (2) Political strike
(3) General strike (4) Ordinary strike
80. Who is the present leader of the Labour Party, UK ?

(1) Ed Miliband (2) Jeremy Bernard Corbyn
(3) Mary Bousted (4) Sally Hunt
81. Who among the following made significant contributions to early unions of Great Britain ?
(i) Francis Blake (ii) Robert Owen
(iii) Sidney and Beatrice Webb (iv) Pelloutier
Code :
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv) (4) (i), (iii) and (iv)

82. Which of the following statements relating to the Second Industrial Truce Resolution are correct?
(i) It was passed in 1962.
(ii) It emphasised that all disputes should be settled through adjudication, especially those
relating to dismissal, discharge and retrenchment of workers.
(iii) It emphasised that all disputes should be settled by voluntary arbitration, especially those
relating to dismissal, discharge and retrenchment of workers.
Code :
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (ii) (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
83. A firm engaging in social actions in response to some popular social needs is called
(1) Social obligations (2) Social responsibility
(3) Social action (4) Social responsiveness
84. Arrange the following participative schemes in a chronological order starting from the latest to the
earliest.
(i) The scheme which was introduced and made applicable to all Central public sector
enterprises.
(ii) The scheme that was extended to commercial and services organisations employing 100
or more employees.
(iii) The scheme which was meant for the manufacturing and mining industries employing 500
or more workers.
Code :
(1) (i), (iii) and (ii) (2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii), (ii) and (i) (4) (ii), (i) and (iii)
85. The behaviour of a person under the Adult ego state under Transactional Analysis is
(1) Evaluative and judgemental (2) Protective and critical
(3) Impulsive and emotional (4) Rational and logical
86. Who is the President of the Trades Union Congress, UK for the year 2018 ?
(1) Mary Bousted (2) Sally Hunt
(3) Liz Snape (4) William Henry Wood
87. Under the provisions of the Maternity Benefits Act, 1961 every woman employee who joins duty
after delivery of a child shall be entitled to nursing breaks until the child attains the age of
(1) Twenty-four months (2) Twelve months
(3) Fifteen months (4) Eighteen months
88. Under the provisions of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, what is maximum amount of fine that can
be imposed on an employer for contravention of any of the provisions of the Act ?
(1) One thousand rupees (2) Seven hundred rupees
(3) Two hundred fifty rupees (4) Five hundred rupees

Assertion (A) : Imperfections existing in the employment markets are the causative factor for
wage differentials.
Reason (R) : In developed countries, inter-industry wage differentials are narrowing.
Code :
90. Match the contents of different schedules given in List-I with their respective schedules given in
List-II under the provisions of the Factories Act, 1948.
List-I List-II
(a) Permissible levels of certain (i) First Schedule
chemicalsubstances in work
environment
(b) List of Notifiable Disease (ii) Second Schedule
(c) List of Industries involving (iii) Third Schedule
hazardous processes
Code :
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i) (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii) (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii)
91. Who among the following is associated with the idea that “The human personality progresses
along a continuum from immaturity as an infant to maturity as an adult ?”
(1) Sigmund Freud (2) Erik Erikson
(3) Chris Argyris (4) Daniel Levinson
92. The British Trades Union Congress was formed in the year
(1) 1878 (2) 1858
(3) 1888 (4) 1868
93. Who have coined the term “strategic intent” to refer to the determination of an organisation to
achieve goals that are out of all proportion to their resources and capabilities ?
(1) Gary Hamel and C.R. Prahalad
(2) David Nadler and Michael
(3) John W. Meyer and W. Richard Scott
(4) Tom Burns and G.M. Stalker
94. Which of the following statements relating to the recommendations of the Second National
Commission on Labour are correct ?
(i) The Commission recommended that the ITIs need to run market-driven courses, review,
and if necessary, revise curriculum every 5 years to keep them contemporary.
(ii) The Commission recommended for a Skill Development Fund.

(iii) The Commission recommended the some ITIs may be selected, on a pilot basis, for
development into institutes of excellence.
Code :
(1) (ii) and (iii) only (2) (i) and (ii) only
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) (i) and (iii) only
95. Match the provisions provided under the Directive Principles of State Policy given in List-I with the
respective Articles under which they are covered given in List-Il :
List-I List-Il
(a) Equal pay for equal work for (i) Article 39
both men and women
(b) Participation of workers in (ii) Article 42
management of industries
(c) Public assistance in cases of (iii) Article 43 A
unemployment, old age, sickness
and disablement
(d) Just and humane conditions of (iv) Article 41
work
Code :
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
Assertion (A) : Some of the earliest pieces of legislation in India appear to have been enacted
to protect the interest of the employers.
Reason (R) : The policy of the Government was to protect the social system rather than to
protect the workmen.
Code :
(1) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
97. Who has been referred to as the ‘Father of Personnel Management’ ?

(1) Max Weber (2) Robert Owen
(3) Peter Drucker (4) Louis A. Allen
98. Which one of the following is not a modern method of performance appraisal ?
(1) Ranking method (2) 360
(3) M.B.O. (4) BARS

99. Which of the following trade union federations was formed with the objective of “dictatorship of
the proletariat” ?
(1) All India Trade Union Congress (2) All India Railwaymen’s Federation
(3) All India Trade Union Federation (4) Red Trade Union Congress
100. Two lists are given below. Match both the lists and choose the correct answer from the code
given below :
List-I List-II
(a) Programme Evaluation and (i) F.W. Taylor
Review Technique (PERT)
(b) Managerial Role Approach (ii) Hugo Münsterberg
(c) Application of Psychology to (iii) Mintzberg
Industry and Management
(p) Principles of Scientific Management (iv) Henry L. Gantt
Code :
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
4 4 1 3 4 4 3 3 3 4
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
4 3 3 3 1 2 1 2 3 1
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
1 4 4 1 3 1 4 2 3 4
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
2 2 3 2 3 2 2 2 3 2
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
3 1 3 2 2 4 3 3 2 2
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
3 3 3 1 2 2 4 2 4 1
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
4 1 3 4 3 1 4 3 1 3
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
3 1 3 4 2 1 4 4 1 2
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
1 1 4 2 3 2 3 4 4 1
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
3 4 1 3 1 3 2 1 4 3

General Paper-1 (June 2019)

Previous Year Solved Paper (June 2019)
marks. Attempt all the questions.
1. During research, while recording observations if an observer rates an individual based on the
rating given in another aspect of the interaction, this is termed as the
(1) Evaluation effect (2) Error of central tendency
(3) Halo effect (4) Categorical effect
2. Inclusive education implies

(1) Ensuring learning outcome of every child to be the same
(2) Including the disabled in the main stream
(3) Provides compulsory education for children below 14 years
(4) Ensuring that no child is left behind in education
3. The study of 'why does stressful living result in heart attack' ? Can be classified as
(1) Descriptive research (2) Explanatory research
(3) Correlational research (4) Feasibility research
4. Listening is important for a teacher to

(1) address the requirement of the learner
(2) gain knowledge
(3) keep the learner in good humour
(4) evaluate the learner for the progress made
5. Reflective Practice implies use of one's

(1) Cognition (2) Metacognition
(3) Metacognition on cognition (4) Reinforcement of learning
6. Mailed questionnaire, observation, interview and collective questionnaire are instances of

(1) Secondary sources (2) Personal sources
(3) Primary sources (4) Tertiary sources
7. Peer group interaction in a classroom helps in

(1) Concept understanding
(2) Realization of One's misunderstanding
(3) Rapport Building
(4) Questioning

8. When the learning outcomes of students are ensured with employment of less resources and
effort on the part of a teacher and more initiative for self-learning is evident, which of the
following expression will describe the teacher most appropriately ?
(1) Teacher is successful (2) Teacher is effective
(3) Teacher is intelligent (4) Teacher is practical
9. A hypothesis should be conceptually

(1) convoluted, complex and generic (2) complex, tough and general
(3) simple, clear and specific (4) obscure, complicated and simple
10. The formulation of a research problem can be compared to

(1) Laying the foundation of a building
(2) Building the walls of a home
(3) Polishing the doors of a building
(4) Constructing the ceiling of a house
Direction (Q. 11 to 15)

A business will usually go through a clear set of stages that will make up its organisational life
cycle. These stages include introduction, early growth, continuous growth, maturity and decline.
The first stage, the introduction stage, is the start-up phase where a business decides what its
core strengths and capabilities are and starts selling its product or service. At this early stage,
the founder or founders will be a part of every aspect of the daily process of the business. The
main goal at this stage is to take off to a good start and make a place in the market.
The next stage, the early growth phase, aims at increased sales and more development. The
focus at this stage remains on the original product or service but the effort is to increase the
market share and venture into related products or services. The main goal is to move the founder
to a more managerial role so more time is spent on managing and building the business. At this
stage, documents and policies need to be developed so any member of the organisation can see
the business any time.
The third stage, the continuous growth stage, requires a systematic structure and more formal
relationships among its participants. At this stage, the resource requirements of the business
need careful handling. The focus is on the expansion of the business keeping in mind its core
strength and capability. A formal organisational structure and a clear delegation plan are important
at this stage.
At the fourth stage of maturity, a business often slows down as the level of innovative energy
may have become weak and the formal structures may have become obstacles. A lot of care
is required to prevent decline.
11. The slowing down of a business can happen if,
(1) there is a decline in the market share
(2) the level of innovative energy weakens
(3) the managerial roles are not clear
(4) the level of investment declines
12. The resource requirements of a business need careful handling at which stage ?
(1) Fourth (2) First
(3) Third (4) Second

13. Venturing into related products and services does not mean that a business will
(1) ignore the original product
(2) move the founder to a more managerial role
(3) delegate more responsibilities
(4) ignore the related products and services
14. When will a business create its place in the market ?

(1) At maturity (2) At introduction
(3) At early growth (4) At late growth
15. The founder of a business does not move to a more managerial role at which stage ?
(1) Early growth stage (2) Maturity stage
(3) Decline stage (4) Start up stage
16. Which of the following signifies non-verbal communication in an essential way ?

(1) Instructions written on a question paper
(2) Learner attending an online class
(3) The dress code followed by an individual
(4) Yoga instructor teaching yoga poses to the pupils
17. If RED is coded as 6720, then how would GREEN be coded ?

(1) 16717209 (2) 1677209
(3) 9207716 (4) 1677199
18. No Musicians are Japanese

All Barbers are Musicians
No barbers are Japanese
Identify the Middle Term in the above syllogism
(1) Subject in the first premise and predicate in the second premise
(2) Predicate in the first premise and subject in the second premise
(3) Predicate in the both premises
(4) Subject in both the premises
19. Which of the following is a characteristic of modern mass media ?

(1) Capital intensive (2) Labour intensive
(3) Sustainable (4) Developmental
20. Which of the following is a stage of intrapersonal communication ?

(1) Phatic stage (2) Intimate stage
(3) Personal stage (4) Transcendental communication

21. A man travelled from the village to the railway station at the rate of 20 kmph and walked back
at the rate of 5 kmph. If the whole journey took 5 hours, find the distance of the railway station
from the village.
(1) 10 km (2) 15 km
(3) 20 km (4) 40 km
22. Among the five friends, Vineet is taller than Monika, but not as tall as Ram. Jacob is taller than
Dalip but shorter than Monika. Who is the tallest in their group ?
(1) Ram (2) Monika
(3) Vineet (4) Jacob
23. Inductive argument proceeds from

(1) Universal to Particular (2) Particular to Universal
(3) Universal to Universal (4) Particular to Particular
24. Semantic barrier of communication is implied when the

(1) signal is lost before reaching the receiver
(2) message transmitted by the source is unclear
(3) receiver's attention is diverted
(4) receiver does not understand the meaning of the message
25. A trader mixes three varieties of refined oil costing Rs.100, Rs.40 and Rs.60 per litre in the ratio
2 : 4 : 3 in terms of litre, and sells the mixture at Rs.66 per litre. What percentage of profit does
he make ?
(1) 12% (2) 10%
(3) 9% (4) 8%
26. If the average of five numbers is – 20 and the sum of three of the numbers is 32, then what
is the average of the other two numbers ?
(1) – 66 (2) – 33
(3) – 34 (4) – 132
27. Consider the example given below :

Devadatta is growing fat.
He does not eat food during the day.
Therefore, He must be eating food during the night, other things being equal.
Identify the logic involved in the example provided above by choosing the correct answer from
options given below :
(1) Arthapatti (2) Anupalabdi
(3) Anumana (4) Sabda

yx
28. If 0.75 x = 0.02 y, then the value of   is
yx
73 75
(1) (2)
75 77
73 730
(3) (4)
77 75
29. Consider the argument provided below :

"Sound is permanent because it is a product like the jar".
Identify the fallacy involved in the above argument on the basis of Indian logic from the options
given below.
(1) Fallacy of contradictory reason (2) Fallacy of wrong assertion
(3) Fallacy of irrelevant reason (4) Fallacy of trivial reason
30. Assertion (A) : Communication presupposes a shared, symbolic environment, a social relationship
even among nonparticipants.
Reason (R) : It leads to social interaction, which in combination with other factors contributes
to a sense of community.
Choose the correct option given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Direction (Q. 31 to 35) : Consider the following table that shows the production of fertilizers by a
company (in 10000 tonnes) during the year 2011 to 2018.
Answer the questions based on the data contained in the table :
Year : 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018

Production of Fertilizers : 35 50 70 55 75 60 85 90
31. What was the percentage decline in the production of fertilizers from 2013 to 2014 ?
(1) 20.4% (2) 21.4%
(3) 22.6% (4) 24.2%
32. What was the approximate percentage increase in production of fertilizers in 2018 compared to
that in 2011 ?
(1) 157% (2) 165%
(3) 177% (4) 182%
33. In how many of the given years was the production of fertilizers more than the average production
of the given years ?
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5

34. The average production of 2012 and 2013 was exactly equal to the average production of which
of the following pairs of years ?
(1) 2011 and 2012 (2) 2011 and 2017
(3) 2012 and 2014 (4) 2015 and 2016
35. In which year, the percentage increase in production as compared to the previous year was
maximum ?
(1) 2012 (2) 2013
(3) 2015 (4) 2018
36. Permafrost is defining characteristic of which biome ?

(1) Taiga (2) Tundra
(3) Grassland (4) Desert
37. The report of which of the following Education Commissions carries the sub-title Education for
National Development' ?
(1) Radhakrishnan Commission
(2) Mudaliar Commission
(3) Calcutta University Education Commission
(4) Kothari Commission
38. In Audio and Video compression, the term RGB means

(1) Red, Grey, Blue (2) Red, Green, Blue
(3) Red, Green, Black (4) Red, Grey, Black
39. The mangroves exist in

(1) Fresh water system (2) Temperate areas
(3) Semi-arid areas (4) Saline waters
40. Which of the following statements best explains the concept of sustainable development ?
(1) Use of natural resources minimally
(2) Use of natural resources for our benefit
(3) Use of natural resources judiciously so that they are available for future generations
(4) Preserve our natural resources for our future generation
41. Chemical oxygen demand in eutrophic water is

(1) Low (2) High
(3) Medium (4) Extremely low

List-I List-II
(a) First Generation (i) Transistor
(b) Second Generation (ii) VLSI microprocessor
(c) Third Generation (iii) Vacuum tube
(d) Fourth Generation (iv) Integrated circuit

Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
43. Which of the following is not a/an web browser ?

(1) Internet Explorer (2) Mozilla Firefox
(3) Google chrome (4) Yahoo
44. One Tera Byte (TB) of memory is equal to

(1) 1024 KB (2) 1024 × 1024 KB
(3) 1024 × 1024 × 1024 KB (4) 1024 × 1024 × 1024 Bytes
45. The expansion of SANKALP is,

(1) Sanskrit Awareness and Knowledge Acquisition of Language Programme
(2) Skills Acquisition and Karatae Awareness for Livelihood Promotion
(3) Skills Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion
(4) Sanskrit Awareness and Knowledge Acquisition for Livelihood Promotion
46. In which year the modern Indian University got established ?

(1) 1957 (2) 1857
(3) 1947 (4) 1964
47. A/An _________ is a computer program that spreads by inserting copies of itself into other
executable code or documents.
(1) Operating System (2) Computer Virus
(3) Firewall (4) Anti-virus
48. In which era given below, higher education in India got a set back ?
(1) British Era (2) Buddhist Era
(3) Mughal Era (4) Post-Independence Era
49. The target set by Indian government for generating power from wind energy by the year 2022
is
(1) 60 GW (2) 50 GW
(3) 40 GW (4) 15 GW
50. Which pollutant is the major source of marine pollution ?

(1) Agricultural run-off (2) Oil spill
(3) Industrial waste water (4) Sewage

ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
3 4 2 1 2 3 1 2 3 1
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
2 3 1 2 4 3 2 1 1 4
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
3 1 2 4 2 1 1 3 1 4
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
2 1 3 2 1 2 4 2 4 3
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
2 2 4 3 3 2 2 3 1 1 or 4

Human Resource Management Paper-II (June 2019)

Previous Year Solved Paper (June 2019)
Direction (Q. 1 to 5) :
Biased appraisals have a variety of causes. One study of bias (the tendency for individual
differences to affect judgements) focused on rater personality. Raters who scored higher on
'conscientiousness' tended to give their peers lower ratings–they were stricter, in other words; those
more 'agreeable' gave higher ratings–they were more lenient. Managers also tend to be more lenient
when appraising subordinates for administrative purposes like pay raises than for development purposes.
Furthermore, "performance ratings amplify the quality of the personal relationship between boss and
employee. Good relationships tender to create good [appraisal] experiences, bad relationships bad ones."
Unfortunately, subordinates' demographic traits (age, race, gender, and so on) also affect ratings.
A 36-year-old supervisor ranked a 62-year-old subordinate at the bottom of the department's rankings,
and then fired him. The court held that the younger boss's discriminatory motives might have prejudiced
the dismissal decision, In one study, promoted women had to have received higher performance ratings
than promoted men to be promoted, "suggesting that women were held to stricter standards for promotion."
In another study, raters penalized successful women for their success. The point is that the appraisal
often says more about the appraiser than about the appraisee. (Or, as one researcher said, "Rater
idiosyncratic biases account for the largest percentage of the observed variances in performance ratings.")
Potential bias is one reason to use multiple raters, have the supervisor's boss review the rating, and/
or have 'calibration' meetings where supervisors discuss their reasons for the appraisals they gave each
of their subordinates.
1. Which one is the correct statement ?
(1) Age of the rater and ratee has nothing to do in rating.
(2) Gender of the ratee is not taken into consideration while rating.
(3) Age of the rater and ratee have bearing on rating.
(4) Demographic traits do not influence rating.
2. Two statements are given below. First statement will be called Assertion and the second will be
called Reason.
Assertion : Rater's idiosyncratic biases account for the largest percentage of the observed
variance in performance rating.
Reason : Potential bias is one reason to use multiple raters.
Select the alternative that best establishes relationship between Assertion and Reason :
(1) Assertion is not true
(2) Reason is not correct
(3) Reason explains Assertion
(4) Assertion and Reason have no relationship

3. A rater has to rate an employee for the purpose of pay increase. The rater will
(1) have liberal approach
(2) have stricter approach
(3) have unchanged approach without being affected by the purpose
(4) refuse the job
4. Who are likely to give lower rating to their peer ?

(1) Agreeable rater (2) Liberal rater
(3) Conscientiousness rater (4) Aged rater
5. Choose the correct statement :

(1) Relationship plays no role in rating.
(2) Good relationship leads to lower rating.
(3) Better the relationship, higher is the rating.
(4) Strained relationship leads to higher rating.
6. Which of the following statements relating to Dunlop's industrial relations framework is NOT
correct ?
(1) Dunlop's framework was designed to broaden the industrial relations horizon from collective
bargaining to the full spectrum of present-day industrial relations.
(2) This framework cannot be used for a study of industrial relations within a country as a
whole.
(3) Dunlop's industrial relations framework puts emphasis on rule-making by management,
workers and specialised government agencies concerned with workers, enterprises and
their relationships.
(4) Dunlop's framework focuses on the ideology of the industrial relations system.
7. As per the provisions of the Mines Act, 1952 the special officer duly authorised in writing by the
Chief Inspector, shall enter into any mine for the purpose of surveying, levelling and measuring
after giving notice to the manager of the mine for not less than
(1) Three days (2) Seven days
(3) Ten days (4) Thirty days
8. Two statements are given below. We will consider the first statement as Assertion and the
second one as Reason.
Assertion : Social security has wider aims than prevention or relief of poverty.
Reason : The fundamental purpose of social security is to give individuals and families the
confidence that their level of living and quality of life will not be eroded, as far as possible, by any
social or economic eventuality.
On the basis of the above given statements, choose the correct answer :
(1) Assertion is wrong
(2) Reason is wrong
(3) Individuals or their families cannot be given confidence
(4) The Reason given justifies Assertion

9. "State to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people" is mentioned in which
Article of the Directive Principle of State Policy of the Constitution of India ?
(1) Article 43A (2) Article 43
10. The goal of training is that the trainees learn the task or material presented and the same are
retained by them. Which of the following issues influences the retention process ?
(1) Contiguity, the law of effect and practice
(2) Task analysis, task achievement and task sequencing
(3) Meaningfulness of material, degree of original learning and interference
(4) Active practice, mental practice and overlearning
11. Under the provisions of the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 who among the
following can apply for modifications in the standing orders ?
(1) Any employer or the workmen
(2) Any workmen, trade union or representative of workmen
(3) Any employer, workmen, trade union or representative of workmen on agreement
(4) Only trade union
12. Under the provision of the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 in order to determine the bonus of an
employee, who is not covered under the Scheduled Employment under the Minimum Wages Act,
what amount of monthly wage from the following to be taken into consideration ?
(1) Two thousand five hundred rupees
(2) Three thousand five hundred rupees
(3) Five thousand rupees
(4) Seven thousand ruppes
13. Personal cause of industrial accident is one of the important cause of accident.
Among the cause given below, which one is not a personal cause of industrial accident ?
(1) Neglect in housekeeping
(2) Carelessness, ignorance and inadequate skill
(3) Relationship with supervisor
(4) Improper supervision
14. The dynamic balance of the driving force and restraining force of change is associated with which
of the following ?
(1) Force field analysis model (2) Force analytical model
(3) Force field balancing (4) Force field contingent model
15. There are two sets, that are given below. List-I gives the list of terms and List-II indicates their
meanings :
List-I List-II
(a) Orbiter dictum (i) A cursory remark
(b) Puisne (ii) Subordinate
(c) Mens rea (iii) Guilty mind
(d) Ultra vires (iv) Beyond one's powers

Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
16. Who is called Sidney Webb in the United States ?

(1) John R. Commons (2) Noel Arnold Levin
(3) Robert F. Hoxie (4) Frank Tannenbaum
17. As per the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 'fine' imposed on any employed person
cannot be recovered after expiry of how many days from the day the fine was imposed ?
(1) Ninety Days (2) One hundred days
(3) One hundred twenty days (4) One hundred eighty days
18. Provisions for ensuring occupational health and safety for workers are contained in Articles 24,
39(e), 39(f) and 42 of the Directive Principles of State Policy of the Constitution of India. Based
on the spirit of these, rules have been framed. The subject matter of the rules are both in Union
List and Concurrent List. Which among the following is not in Concurrent List ?
(1) Conditions of work (2) Safety in mines
(3) Provident funds (4) Maternity benefits
19. "Take my physical assets, leave my people, and in five years I will have it all back." Who said
this ?
(1) Alfred Sloan (2) Peter F. Drucker
(3) Bill Gates (4) Rensis Likert
20. List-I below gives some names who have contributed for development of different management
functions/activities and List-II gives the specific functions they are associated with :
List-I List-II
(a) Robert Owen (i) Scientific Management
(b) Henry Fayol (ii) Modern Personnel Management
(c) F. W. Taylor (iii) Work Study
(d) H. L. Gantt (iv) Modern Management Theory
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

21. Which of the following statements relating to the Model Grievance Procedure is correct ?
(1) According to the Model Grievance Procedure, an aggrieved worker who is not satisfied
with the decision of the departmental head in respect of his grievance, may directly
present his grievance to the grievance committee.
(2) The Model Grievance Procedure has a provision regarding reference of a grievance to
voluntary arbitration.
(3) According to the Model Grievance Procedure, an aggrieved worker shall have the right to
leave the department during working hours without obtaining the prior permission of his
superior.
(4) The procedure laid down for the redressal of grievances has to be followed even in the
case of any grievance arising out of the dismissal of a worker.
22. Talent management starts with understanding what jobs need to be filled, and the human traits
and competencies employee need to do those jobs effectively. Two lists are given below. List-I
is term and List-II is their appropriate meaning :
List-I List-II
(a) Job analysis (i) A list of job's 'human requirements' that is the
requisite education, skills, personality and so
on.
(b) Job description (ii) A list of job's duties, responsibilities, reporting
relationships, working conditions and
supervisory responsibilities.
(c) Job specification (iii) The procedure for determining the duties and
skill requirements of a job and the kind of
person who should be hired for it.
(d) Work Flow analysis (iv) A detailed study of the flow of work from job
to job in a work process.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
23. As per the recommendations of the Second National Commission on Labour, what should be the
percentage of support of workers, a union should have in an establishment for claiming recognition
as a single negotiating agent on the basis of check-off system ?
(1) 25 percent (2) 33 percent
(3) 50 percent (4) 66 percent
24. Under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947, the employer of any industry declares
lay-off, is required to provide alternate employment to the workmen laid-off in any other industry
belongs to him and located at a distance not more than
(1) eight miles (2) six miles
(3) five miles (4) seven miles

25. "A technique by which a new employee is adjusted into the changed surrounding and introduced
to the practices, policies and purpose of the organisation" is called
(1) placement (2) induction
(3) training (4) development
26. According to Henry Mintzberg managers perform ten different highly interrelated roles, which are
grouped under three broad roles, namely, Interpersonal roles, information roles and decisional
roles. From among the following which one is associated with the Interpersonal role ?
(1) Monitor and Disseminator (2) Leader and Figurehead
(3) Spokesperson and Entrepreneur (4) Negotiator and Resource allocator
27. Based upon a study on cultural diversity in multinational corporations the following four dimensions
emerged that differentiated national cultures in terms of their managerial ideologies :
(i) Organisation as a political system
(ii) Organisation as an authority system
(iii) Organisation as role formalisation system
(iv) Organisation as hierarchial-relation system
Who among the following is associated with the study ?
(1) Hofstede (2) Triandris
(3) Laurent (4) Maurice
28. Under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947, the total members of the Grievance
Redressal Committee shall not exceed
(1) Ten (2) Six
(3) Eight (4) Twelve
29. The representation of the independent members in the Central Advisory Board constituted under
the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 shall not exceed what portion of its total members ?
(1) One-fourth (2) One-third
(3) One-half (4) Two-third
30. In order to hear and decide any claims arising out of payment of less than the minimum rate of
wages, under the provisions of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, the State Governments shall
appoint any officer not below the rank of
(1) Chief Inspector under the Minimum Wages Act
(2) Asst. Labour Commissioner
(3) Labour Commissioner
(4) Dy. Labour Commissioner
31. Process orientation concept of management was developed by numerous authors. Who among
the following is not associated with this concept ?
(1) McFarland (2) E. F. L. Breech
(3) Lawrence A. Appley (4) George R. Terry

32. On-the-job training is based on the principle of 'learning by doing'. Which one of the following is
NOT an on-the-job training method ?
(1) Coaching (2) Understanding
(3) Role playing (4) Job rotation
33. Performance appraisal means evaluating an employee's current and/or past performance relative
to his or her performance standards. Performance appraisal always involves the three steps.
Which one of the following is NOT a step of performances appraisal process ?
(1) Setting work standards
(2) Assessing the employee's actual performance relating to those standards
(3) Providing feedback to the employee with the aim of helping him or her to eliminate
performance deficiencies or to continue to perform above par.
(4) Grading on a curve predetermined percentages of ratees are placed in various performance
categories.
34. As per the provisions of the Trade Union Act 1926, who among the following shall not be eligible
to be the executive or office bearer of the trade union ?
(1) A member of the Legislative Assembly
(2) A member of the Parliament
(3) An elected representative of local body
(4) A minister in the Union cabinet
35. How many days advance notice is to be given to the affected workmen for change in the
conditions of service of workmen, when no proceeding is pending before any adjudicative authorities
under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 ?
(1) Thirty days (2) Fourteen days
(3) Twenty-one days (4) Seven days
36. There are four new approaches to compensation rewards. Two Lists are given below.
List-I relates with Approach and List-II related to appropriate benefits and features :
List-I List-II
(a) Skill-based pay (i) Support for participative organisational
structures and improved effectiveness of work
teams
(b) Broad banding (ii) Greater scope for recognising individual
difference in employee performance
(c) Variable pay (iii) Motivation of sustained high performance and
better linkages between individual and
organisational goals
(d) Team rewards (iv) Multi-skilled workforce, job assignment,
flexibility and higher employee satisfaction and
commitment

Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
37. The process of change namely coercive, mimetic and normative isomorphism are associated
with which of the following perspectives on organisational change ?
(1) Resource dependence perspective (2) Contingency perspective
(3) Population-ecology perspective (4) Institutional Perspective
38. The Indian Labour Conference approved 'illustrative lists' of items which the Works Committees
should normally deal with and those which they should not of the following items figures in the
list of items to be dealt with by the Works Committees ?
(1) Bonus and profit-sharing
(2) Rationalization and matters connected with the fixation of workload.
(3) Adjustment of festival and national holidays
(4) Housing and transport services
39. As per the provisions of the Employees' Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952
the determination of the escaped amount to be recovered from the employer shall be made within
which period from the date of communication of the order passed by the authorised officer ?
(1) Three years (2) Five years
(3) Seven years (4) Ten years
40. Under the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 establishments which are not covered
under the Act, the state government after giving how months notice may extend the provisions
of the Act to such establishments ?
(3) Three months (4) Six months
41. Given below are different statements, some of which are only relevant to productivity bargaining:
(a) Productivity bargaining is a management-initiated process
(b) It has an element of input-output relationship
(c) It is based on the principle of mutuality
(d) It is not a continuous process
From among the following, which alternative presents the relevant features of productivity
bargaining?
(1) Only (a) and (b) (2) Only (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
42. The term 'management exploitation' was given by

(1) Mrs. John Robinson (2) Prof. Chamberlin
(3) J. B. Clark (4) J. M. Keynes

43. Who among the following have suggested that learning outcomes can be three types, namely
cognitive, skill based and affective ?
(1) Kirkpatrick and Ford (2) Kraiger, Ford and Salas
(3) Holton and Galvin (4) Phillips and Brinkerhoff
44. "A horizontal set of divisional reporting relationship is superimposed on a hierarchical functional
structure. This is known as grid organisation or project management organisation." What type of
structure it has? Choose the correct one from the alternatives given below
(1) Hybrid structure (2) Functional structure
(3) Matrix structure (4) Divisional structure
45. Two lists are given below, List-I is related to terms of managing career and List-II is related to their
appropriate meaning :
List-I List-II
(a) Career planning (i) The process for enabling employees to better
understanding and develop their career skills
and interests and to use these skills and
interests more effectively
(b) Career management (ii) The deliberate process through which some
one becomes aware of personal skills.
interest, knowledge, motivations and other
characteristics and establishes action plan to
attain specific goals
(c) Career development (iii) The lifelong series of activities that contribute
to a person's career exploration,establishment,
success and fulfillment
(d) Career coaching (iv) Focuses on teaching, educating, instructing
and training subordinates
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
46. Industrial safety is primarily whose responsibility under the Factories Act, 1948 ?
(1) Central Government (2) State Government
(3) Occupier/Management (4) Safety Committee
47. Who among the following is associated with the Human Relation approach to industrial relations?
(1) Charles A. Myers (2) Dale Yoder
(3) Michael Poole (4) Elton Mayo

48. As per provisions of the Factories Act, 1948 under power to make exempting orders, the total
number of hour of work in any day for a worker shall not exceed :
(1) Eleven hours (2) Twelve hours
(3) Thirteen hours (4) Ten hours
49. According to Vroom's expectancy theory of motivation, which of the following refers to the term
'valence' ?
(1) Subjective probability of achieving an outcome
(2) Efforts made by an individual for the first level outcome
(3) Relation between the first level and second level outcomes to each other
(4) Strength to an individual's preference for a particular outcome
50. As per the provisions of the Inter-State Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and Conditions
of Service) Act 1979, who is required to issue the passbook duly affixed with a passport size
photograph of the workman to the migrant workman ?
(1) The Licensing Officer (2) The Registering Officer
(3) The Contractor (4) The Inspector
51. The Behavioural School of Management has developed many behavioural theories. Arrange the
correct sequence of the major contributors to the behavioural school from the earliest to the latest
(a) Mary Parker Follet (b) Abraham Maslow
(c) Elton Mayo (d) Douglas McGregor
(e) Chris Argyris
Select the correct options :
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) (2) (a), (c), (b), (d), (e)
(3) (a), (c), (d), (b), (e) (4) (b), (c), (d), (a), (e)
52. As per the provisions of the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 an employee working in a seasonal
establishment, shall get his gratuity after superannuation from the employment at the rate for how
many days wages for each season, he had worked in that establishment ?
(1) Fifteen days (2) Ten days
(3) Eight days (4) Seven days
53. The competitive strategies for multinational corporations are given in List-I and their features in
List-II as below :
List-I List-II
(a) Multidomestic strategy (i) Gives prime importance to efficiency.
(b) Global strategy (ii) Gives prime importance to development and
diffusion of innovations worldwide
(c) International strategy (iii) Gives prime importance to global efficiency,
national responsiveness and worldwide
learning at the same time
(d) Transnational strategy (iv) Gives prime importance to national
responsiveness

From among the following which one gives the right combination between the strategies and their
features ?
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
54. Given below are the major contributors in List-I and their contributions in List-II of Behavioural
School of Management :
List-I List-II
(a) Mary Parker Follett (i) Group influences in the workplace.
(b) Elton Mayo (ii) Relates human motivation to a hierarchy of
needs.
(c) Abraham Maslow (iii) Effects of human motivation on productivity
and output.
(d) Douglas McGregor (iv) Emphasizes human characteristics theory X
and theory Y and the corresponding style of
leadership
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
55. Which of the following is not an attached office of the Ministry of Labour, Government of India ?
(1) Office of the Chief Labour Commissioner
(2) Labour Bureau
(3) V. V. Giri National Labour Institute
(4) Office of the Director General, Factory Advice Service and Labour Institutes
56. A multinational company appointing a person in a subsidiary, belonging to the country where its
subsidiary is located reflects which of the following approaches ?
(1) Ethnocentrism (2) Geocentrism
(3) Regiocentrism (4) Polycentrism
57. The office of the Director General of Mines Safety is located at

(1) New Delhi (2) Asansol
(3) Dhanbad (4) Kolkata

58. An employer of an establishment can only employ contract labour, under which one of the
following provisions of the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 ?
(1) Obtaining a licence from the Licensing officer
(2) Obtaining a certificate of registration from the registering officer
(3) Obtaining a written permission from the inspector
(4) Obtaining the permission form the appropriate government
59. Occupational diseases are those which arise out of and in the course of employment. Industrial
workers fall prey of these occupational diseases.
Two lists are given below. List-I contains the names of the diseases, while List-II contains the type
of workers who are likely to suffer from these diseases :
List-I List-II
(Name of the disease) (Type of workers)
(a) Mercury poisoning (i) Barometer worker, refiners of gold and silver
(b) Anthrax (ii) Workers likely to inhale bagasse or sugarcane
dust
(c) Bagassois (iii) Textile workers
(d) Byssionosis (iv) Workers engaged in handling wood, hair bristles
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
60. "If the leadership style allows substantial participation by members of the group in the management
and decision-making process, subordinates are frequently consulted by the manager on wide-
ranging problems and are allowed sufficient freedom to communicate with the leader and also
with their fellow subordinates, " It is called
(1) autocratic style of leadership (2) democratic style of leadership
(3) laissez faire style of leadership (4) paternalistic style of leadership
61. In rural India, which type of unemployment is common ?

(1) Educated unemployment (2) Cyclical unemployment
(3) Disguised unemployment (4) Voluntary unemployment
62. As per the provisions of the Factories Act, 1948 a worker of a factory, who quits the employment,
shall be paid high wages for the days of unavailed leave before
(1) the expiry of two months from the date of quitting the employment
(2) the expiry of the second working day from the date of quitting
(3) the expiry of one month form the date of quitting
(4) the expiry of his wage period
63. The term 'grapevine' is associated with which one of the following communication networks of
an organisation ?
(1) Formal communication (2) Horizontal communication
(3) Informal communication (4) Vertical communication

64. According to Lord Keynes, unemployment in advanced economies was due to

(1) lack of supply (2) deficiency of effective demand
(3) business cycle (4) lack of both demand and supply
65. What is true about weekly status unemployment ?

(a) It is measured in number of persons and shows chronic unemployment
(b) It shows both open and chronic unemployment
(c) It is measured in person, days or years and shown underemployment
(d) It shows only open unemployment
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Only (a) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Only (b) (4) Only (d)
66. Child labour shall not be employed or permitted to work in any of the processes in any workshop
set forth in which part of the schedule attached to the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation)
Act, 1986 ?
(1) Part A (2) Part B
(3) Part C (4) Part D
67. Three theories of learning are given in List-I and their characteristics in List-II below :
List-I List-II
(a) Classical conditioning (i) People can learn through observation and
direct experience
(b) Operant conditioning (ii) A type of conditioning in which an individual
responds to some stimulus that would not
ordinarily produce such a response
(c) Social learning theory (iii) A type of conditioning in which desired
voluntary behaviour leads to a reward or
prevents a punishment
Which one of the following gives the correct combination between the theories and their
characteristics ?
Codes :
(a) (b) (c)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i)
68. As per the provisions of the Building and Other Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment
and Conditions of Service) Act, 1996, because of financial hardship, if a beneficiary under the Act
has not paid his contribution, the Board may waive the contribution at a time for a period
(1) not exceeding three months (2) not exceeding six months
(3) not exceeding nine months (4) not exceeding twelve months

69. The function of the management which is associated with measuring results against pre-established
standards and taking corrective action for maintaining the system is known as
(1) Controlling (2) Planning
(3) Coordinating (4) Directing
70. There are different techniques to Human Resource Accounting. Which one of the following is
NOT human resources accounting technique ?
(1) Historical Cost Method (2) Replacement Cost Method
(3) Quality Cost Method (4) Opportunity Cost Method
71. Which one of the following statements are true relating to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator of
personality ?
(1) There are sixteen personality types generated on the basis of four basic elements.
(2) There are twenty personality types generated on the basis of five basic elements.
(3) There are ten personality types generated on the basis of four basic elements.
(4) There are eighteen personality types generated on the basis of six basic elements.
72. As per the provisions of the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 the Certifying
Officer is required to send copies of the modified standing orders to the employer and the trade
union within how many days from the date of notification ?
(1) Five days (2) Seven days
(3) Twelve days (4) Fifteen days
73. An indifference curve between income and leisure shows

(1) various combinations of income and leisure which give different levels of satisfaction
(2) various combinations of income and leisure which give equal satisfaction
(3) same amount of income and leisure at each point on it which give different levels of
satisfaction
(4) same amount of income and leisure which give same amount of satisfaction
74. The demand curve of labour of the monopsonist is given by

(1) the curve of value of the marginal product
(2) the curve of marginal revenue productivity
(3) the average factor cost curve
(4) average wage curve
75. Which one of the following is NOT a Human Resource Planning technique ?
(1) Predictor variables (2) Zero-base techniques
(3) Simulation techniques (4) Managerial Grid Techniques
76. A group consisting of members working together to attain a specific objective with which each
is concerned, is known as
(1) informal group (2) task group
(3) friendship group (4) interest group

77. Under the provisions of the Building and Other Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment
and Conditions of Service) Act, 1996 in order to apply for registration as a beneficiary under the
Act, a construction worker must have worked for a minimum period of how many days in the
preceding twelve months
(1) Not less than two hundred forty days
(2) Not less than one hundred twenty days
(3) Not less than one hundred eighty days
(4) Not less than ninety days
78. Which of the following statements relating to the 'Participation of Workers in Management Bill' is
wrong ?
(1) The Bill was introduced in the Rajya Sabha on May 30, 1990.
(2) The Bill was the first comprehensive legislative effort towards promotion of workers'
participation in management in the country.
(3) It has provision for constitution of Shop-floor Councils in every establishment.
(4) The Bill does not have any provision regarding the representation of the workers on the
Board of Management.
79. The authority constituted by the Central Government under the Provident Fund and Miscellaneous
Provision Act, 1952 to decide the cases regarding the determination of money due to be recovered
from the employers is
(1) Employees' Provident Funds Tribunal
(2) Employees' Provident Funds Organisation
(3) Employees' Provident Funds Court
(4) Employees' Provident Funds Appellate Tribunal
80. The Inter-State Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act,
1979 will apply to the establishment employing a minimum of
(1) twenty or more migrant workmen
(2) fifteen or more migrant workmen
(3) ten or more migrant workmen
(4) five or more migrant workmen
81. The Bombay Mill Hands Association was established under the presidentship of
(1) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (2) C. F. Andrews
(3) N. M. Joshi (4) N. M. Lokhande
82. Which of the following factors identified by Dunning in his Eclectic Theory are to be simultaneously
met by a company that wishes to set up production unit in a foreign country and wants to operate
as a multinational ?
(1) Advantages relating to labour, land and capital
(2) Advantages relating to ownership, location and internationalization
(3) Advantages relating to capital, technology and products
(4) Advantages relating to cost, capital and labour

83. The ILO's Tripartite Consultation (International Labour Standards) Convention, 1976 was ratified
by India in the year
(1) 1978 (2) 1982
(3) 1996 (4) 2016
84. Which one of the following is NOT associated with the three facets of career motivation ?
(1) Career resilience (2) Career insight
(3) Career counselling (4) Career identity
85. Whether an individual will supply more effort or less as a result of the rise in the wage rate
depends on
(1) income effect only
(2) substitution effect only
(3) the relative strength of income and substitution effects
(4) neither income effect nor substitution effect
86. Values are core of the culture. Both values and belief provide guidelines for employee to follow
in their work. Some organisations have created their own value. Two lists are given below. List-
I indicates the name of organisation and List-II indicates their value :
List-I List-II
(a) Caterpillar(USA) (i) "In 24 hours parts services anywhere in the
world."
(b) Larsen and Turbo (India) (ii) "Faith in youth and tap the youth."
(c) Microsoft (USA) (iii) "Computer on every desk and every house."
(d) TERI (India) (iv) "People are prime movers."
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
87. The appropriate government is empowered under Sec 7 of the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 to
appoint authorities for hearing and deciding claims and complaints, persons not below the rank of
(1) Labour Commissioner (2) Asst. Labour Commissioner
(3) Labour Inspector (4) Labour Officer
88. A registered trade union of workmen functioning in an industry having five hundred workmen
should have to maintain a minimum of what number of workmen as members in order to continue
the registration of the trade union ?
(1) Seven (2) Fifty
(3) One hundred (4) Twenty

89. Placement aims at placing right man at the right job at right time. It is an attempt to correlate job
requirement and individual characteristics. In this context, placement, being a continuous process
should come after
(1) recruitment (2) selection
(3) training (4) development
90. As per 'Johari window', the 'closed area, is explained by which one of the following ?
(1) An individual's behaviour is known to himself or herself and to those with whom the
individual interacts
(2) Those aspects of the person's behaviour style that others know, but not known to the
person himself or herself
(3) The aspects of the person's behaviour and style which are knwon to the person but not
revealed to others
(4) The aspects of behaviour and style neither known to the person nor others
91. Harvard model of Human Resource Management centered on four C's of Human Resource
Practices. Which among the following has not been described as the HR Practices under Harvard
model ?
(1) Commitment (2) Competitiveness
(3) Competence (4) Cost effectiveness
92. As per the managerial grid given by Blake and Mouton, the leadership style focussing on low task
and high concern for the people is known as
(1) impoverished management (2) club country management
(3) team management (4) middle of the road management
93. The Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh was formed under the leadership of
(1) S. A. Dange (2) S. V. Ghate
(3) Dattopant Thengadi (4) K. N. Joglekar
94. 'Compulsory Insurance' provision finding its due place under which of the following legislations ?
(1) The Employees' Provident Fund Act, 1952
(2) The Employees' Compensation Act, 1923
(3) The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972
(4) The Employees' State Insurance Act, 1948
95. Human Capital Appraisal Approach of HRD function was outlined in 1998. Who among the
following has developed the Human Capital Appraisal Approach ?
(1) T. V. Rao (2) Udai Pareek
(3) Friedman (4) Ulrich and Lake
96. Who among the following is authorised by the Chief Inspector by a special order in writing to enter
the mine for the purpose of surveying, levelling and measuring the mine or part there of as per
the provisions of the Mines Act, 1952 ?
(1) Surveyor (2) Special Officer
(3) Analyst (4) Survey Inspector

97. Which of the following perspectives concerning industrial relations is based on the assumption
that conflict is irrational in an organisation ?
(1) Unitary perspective (2) Pluralistic perspective
(3) Trusteeship perspective (4) Radical perspective
98. Labour welfare is dependent on certain basic principles. Each of these principles has its own
content. Two lists are given below. In List-I, principles are given and in List-II, content of the
principles are given :
List-I List-II
(a) Principles of adequacy of wages (i) Welfare is a total concept. coordinated
approach will promote healthy development
(b) Principle of re-personalisation (ii) Employer should not bargain labour welfare
as substitute to wages
(c) Principle of democratic value (iii) Consultation with and the agreement of
workers in formulation and implementation of
welfare services
(d) Principle of integration (iv) Development of human personality should be
the goal of labour welfare
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
99. Two statements, namely Assertion and Reason, are given below :
Assertion : Organisation involves the grouping of activities necessary to accomplish goals and
plans, the assignment of these activities to appropriate departments and the provision for authority
delegation and coordination.
Reason : Organisation is an executive function that consists of breaking up the entire work into
different segments, assigning each segment to the qualified individuals and coordinating the
efforts of job holders to attain the organisational goals.
Which alternative is most appropriate among the one's given below which exhibits their relationship?
(1) Assertion is incorrect and has no relationship with Reason.
(2) Reason is incorrect and has no relationship with Assertion.
(3) No inter-relationship can be established between the two statements.
(4) Reason appropriately explains Assertion
100. Professor J. Barney and Prof Patrick Wright have developed a comprehensive model in 1997 to
establish Human Resources as a competitive advantage of the firm, which is known as
(1) VRIO Framework (2) Soft Model of HRM
(3) Multiple Stakeholder Model (4) Business Process Model

ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
3 4 1 3 3 2 1 4 3 3
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
3 4 1 1 1 1 1 2 1 3
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
2 2 4 3 2 2 3 2 2 3
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
3 * 4 4 3 2 4 3 2 3
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
3 1 2 3 1 3 4 2 4 3
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
2 4 1 1 3 4 3 2 2 2
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
3 2 3 2 1 2 4 1 1 3
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
1 2 2 2 4 4 4 4 4 4
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
4 2 1 3 3 2 4 2 2 3
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
2 2 3 3 3 2 1 1 4 1


1. Which of the following will help overcome communication barriers?

(1) Focused listening (2) Neglecting semantic noise
(3) Top-down command structure (4) Use of clichéd idioms
2. A circle has the same area as that of a square of diagonal of length 11.0 cm. What is the
diameter of the circle?
(1) 8.7 cm (2) 17.4 cm
(3) 7.8 cm (4) 15.6 cm
3. Effective educational communication is

(1) Non-reciprocal (2) Repetitive
(3) Continuous (4) Coercive
4. A shopkeeper sells a refrigerators for Rs. 22,000.00 and makes a profit of 10%. If he desires
to make a profit of 18%, what should be his selling price?
(1) Rs. 23, 600 (2) Rs. 39,600
(3) Rs. 36,000 (4) Rs. 24600
5. Determine the term ‘X' in the following series

2, 9, 20, 35, 54, 77, ‘X’
(1) 104 (2) 102
(3) 89 (4) 110
6. A student obtains overall 78% marks in his examination consisting of Physics, Chemistry,
Mathematics, Computer Science and General English. Marks obtained in each subject and the
maximum marks are indicated in the following table
Physics Chemistry Mathematics Computer General
Science English
Subject 200 Max Marks 100 Max Marks 200 Max Marks 200 Max Marks 100 Max Marks
Marks 155 80 165 140 X
Obtained
The marks (X) obtained by the student in General English would be
(1) 68 (2) 74
(3) 84 (4) 90

7. Successful educational communication is dependent upon the skills of

(a) Understanding the negative characteristics of the audience
(b) Verbal communication and body language
(c) Estimating time for audience impact
(d) Analyzing the audience needs
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(3) (c) and (d) only (4) (b) and (d) only
8. A college teacher presents a research paper in a seminar. The research paper cites references
which are pretty old. This situation will be described as the case of
(1) Technical lapse
(2) Ethical lapse
(3) Academic ignorance
(4) Inability of updating research source
9. Consider the following with reference to the Indian School of Logic

(a) It is related to form of the argument only
(b) It is related to the content of the argument only
(c) It is related to perceptual knowledge alone
(d) It is related to presenting analogies alone
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Both (c) and (d)
10. The converse of "All cats are mammals" is

(1) Some mammals are not cats (2) No mammals are cats
(3) Some mammals are cats (4) All mammals are cats
11. At the stage of data analysis, in which quantitative techniques have been used by a researcher,
the evidence warrants the rejection of Null Hypothesis (H0). Which of the following decisions of
the researcher will be deemed appropriate?
(1) Rejecting the (H0) and also the substantive research hypothesis
(2) Rejecting the (H0) and accepting the substantive research hypothesis
(3) Rejecting the (H0) without taking any decision on the substantive research hypothesis
(4) Accepting the (H0) and rejecting the substantive research hypothesis
12. Which of the following is not a necessary step when you present an argument based on
inference before the others according to the Classical Indian School of Logic?
(1) Nigamana (2) Upamana
(3) Upanaya (4) Udaharana
13. Which of the following theories can be applied to classroom communication?

(1) Theory of Social Constructivism (2) Audience Marginalization Theory
(3) Ritualistic Theory (4) Theory of Hegemony

14. Which of the following factors have been labelled as 'social competence' in influencing learning?
(a) Socio-economic status
(b) Motivation
(c) Intelligence - general and specific
(d) Emotional well-being
(e) Inability to translate thoughts into action
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only (4) (c), (d) and (e) only
15. The main purpose of using ICT for classroom teaching is to

(1) Make the classroom instructions interesting
(2) Divert students' attention in the class
(3) Keep students engaged in the class
(4) Optimize learning outcomes of teaching
16. Which of the following will be considered key teaching behaviour belonging to the category of
effectiveness?
(a) Making ideas clear to learners who may be at different level of understanding
(b) Showing enthusiasm and animation through variation in eye contact, voice and gestures
(c) Using student ideas by acknowledging and summarizing
(d) Probing through general questions and shifting a discussion to some higher thought level
(e) Using meaningful verbal praise to get and keep students actively participating in the
learning process
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) (a), (b) and (e) only
(3) (b,), (c) and (d) only (4) (c), (d) and (e) only
17. In the statement "No dogs are reptiles", which terms are distributed?
(1) Only subject term (2) Only predicate term
(3) Both subject and predicate terms (4) Neither subject nor predicate term
18. "Mr X lives in a slum and is unemployed. Therefore, Mr X deserves to be a minister."

Which kind of fallacy is committed in this argument?
(1) Fallacy of Composition (2) Ad misericordium
(3) Fallacy of Division (4) Fallacy of Accident
19. If data has been recorded using technical media, which among the following is a necessary step
on the way to its interpretation?
(1) Transcription (2) Structural Equation Modelling
(3) Sequential Analysis (4) Sampling

20. The two cities P and Q are 360 km apart from each other. A car goes from P to Q with a speed
of 40 km/hr and returns to P with a speed of 60 km/hr. What is the average speed of the car?
(1) 45 km/hr (2) 48 km/hr
(3) 50 km/hr (4) 55 km/hr
21. Identify the sequence which correctly indicates the order for ensuring teaching-learning activities
in a constructivist approach
(1) Explore, Explain, Engage, Extend and Evaluate
(2) Evaluate, Extend, Engage, Explain and Explore
(3) Explain, Engage, Explore, Evaluate and Extend
(4) Engage, Explore, Explain, Evaluate and Extend
22. In an intervention based action research process, which of the following is the usually recommended
sequence?
(1) Plan, Act, Observe and Reflect (2) Observe, Plan, Act and Reflect
(3) Reflect. Plan, Act and Observe (4) Observe, Act, Reflect and Plan
23. Match Set I with Set II
Set I Set II
(Research Tools) (Measurement Scale)
(a) Questionnaire and Interview (i) Ratio scale of measurement
(b) Intelligence and Aptitude Tests (ii) Ordinal Scale of measurement
(c) Attitude and Value Tests (iii) Interval Scale of measurement
(d) Speed and Frequency Tests (iv) Nominal Scale of measurement
(1) (a) - (i); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iii); (d) - (iv)
(2) (a) - (iii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv); (d) - (ii)
(3) (a) - (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (ii); (d) - (i)
(4) (a) - (ii); (b) - (iii); (c) - (i); (d) - (iv)
24. The compositional skills and creativity in presentation of students can be most effectively evaluated
by which of the following tests?
(1) Objective type tests (2) Essay type tests
(3) Short answer tests (4) Projective type tests
25. Given below are two statements, one is labelled Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : Pedagogy and social interaction are two major result-oriented activities of a
teacher
Reason (R) : Communication has a limited role in both these activities
In the light of the above two statements, choose the correct option from those given below
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)

Based on the data in the table, answer the questions that follow (26 to 30)
The table shows the percentage (%) profit earned by the Company A income of Company B and
expenditure of Company B during the years, 2013 - 18 as well as formula to compute percentage
(%) profit.
Year wise Financial Details (in Rs. Lakhs)
Year % Profit of A Income of B Expenditure of B

(in Rs Lakhs) (in Rs Lakhs)
2013 40% 48.6 36
2014 25% 35 25
2015 60% 62.4 48
2016 40% 77 44
2017 10% 80 50
2018 20% 72 45
(Income–Expenditure)
where Profit (%) =  100
(Expenditure)
26. If the income of the Company A in the year 2014 happened to be Rs 32.5 Lakhs, then what was
the sum of the net profit (in Rs Lakhs) of Company A and Company B in 2014?
(1) Rs 128 Lakhs (2) Rs 13.2 Lakhs
(3) Rs 15 Lakhs (4) Rs 16.5 Lakhs
27. If the income of Company A in the year 2018 was Rs 90 Lakhs, then the net profit (in Rs Lakhs)
of Company B in 2018 is what percent more than the net profit (in Rs Lakhs) of Company A?
(1) 30% (2) 60%
(3) 75% (4) 80%
28. The percent profit of Company B was maximum in the year ?

(1) 2014 (2) 2015
(3) 2016 (4) 2017
29. What is the difference between percent (%) profit of Company A and Company B in the year
2013 ?
(1) 5% (2) 7%
(3) 12% (4) 15%
30. If the expenditure of Company A in year 2017 was Rs 45 Lakhs, then the net profit (in Rs Lakhs)
of Company A is what percent of net profit (in Rs Lakhs) of Company B in the same year?
(1) 15% (2) 25%
(3) 40% (4) 75%
31. Select the option that contains exclusively the text file formats
(1) JPEG, MP3, RTF (2) CSV, RTF, TXT
(3) GIF, JPEG, MP3 (4) CSV, MP3, PDF

32. Identify the correct group of diseases caused by polluted water

(1) Cholera, Acute Diarrhoea, Typhoid and Polio
(2) Cholera, Typhoid, Enteritis and Tuberculosis
(3) Typhoid, Enteritis and Tuberculosis
(4) Cholera, Acute Diarrhoea, Typhoid and Tuberculosis
33. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(a) A Local Area Network (LAN) is usually located on one brand of computer
(b) The acronym 'ISP' stands for Internet Standard Provider
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b)
34. Suppose the concentration of Carbon dioxide, a greenhouse gas responsible for climate change,
is 400 ppm. What is its concentration in air in percentage terms?
(1) 0.04% (2) 0.4%
(3) 0.004% (4) 4.0%
35. The National Skills Qualifications Framework is based on which of the following?
(1) Competency (2) Technology
(3) Economic development (4) Evaluation
36. Given below are two statements, one is labelled Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R)
Assertion (A): The clock speed of CPUs has not increased significantly in recent years
Reason (R): Software now being used is faster and therefore processors do not have to be faster
In the light of the above two statements, choose the correct option from those given below
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
37. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(a) The clock speed of a CPU is measured in hertz (Hz)
(b) Bluetooth technology consumes more power than Wi-Fi technology.
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b)
38. As per provisions of Paris Agreement, the Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (lNDCs)
are to be reviewed every
(1) 15 years (2) 10 years
(3) 5 years (4) 3 years

39. Which among the following is the statutory function of the UGC?
(1) To appoint teaching faculty in universities
(2) To control the conduct of examination in universities
(3) To determine and maintain the standards of teaching and research in universities
(4) To develop curriculum for university courses
40. Match List I with List II
List I List II
(Software) (Description)
(a) Web browser (i) Prepare written documents
(b) Word processor (ii) Create and edit web pages
(c) Spreadsheed (iii) Connect to websites and display web pages
(d) Web authoring (iv) Analyze and summarize numerical data
(1) (a) - (ii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i); (d) - (iii)
(2) (a) - (iii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv); (d) - (ii)
(3) (a) - (iii); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iv)
(4) (a) - (ii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv); (d) - (iii)
41. Hazardous solid waste from Industrial urban sources. Which sequence of the following salvage
sequences is of increasing desirability in sequence?
(1) Disorganized Dumping < Landfill < Incineration < Reuse
(2) Compost Composting < Landfill < Reuse < Incineration
(3) Landfill < Compost Manure < Reuse < Incineration
(4) Incineration < Compost Composting < Reuse < Landfill
42. Who among the following scholars carried back scriptures from Nalanda University and wrote
about architecture and learning of this university?
(1) Kim Huang (Korea) (2) Jin Tan Vang (Korea)
(3) Xuan Zang (China) (4) Junha Meng (China)
43. Identify the correct sequence of biomass fuels in terms of their energy content per unit mass
(1) Dung (Dry) > Coconut Shells > Unsorted Domestic Refuse
(2) Unsorted Domestic Refuse > Coconut Shells > Dung (Dry)
(3) Wood (Dry) > Coconut Shells > Unsorted Domestic Refuse
(4) Coconut Shells > Dung (Dry) > Unsorted Domestic Refuse
44. Which among the following is a Massive Open Online Course platform created by the Ministry
of Human Resource Development, Government of India?
(1) PRATHAM (2) SWAYAM
(3) FUTURELEARN (4) OPEN LEARN

45. Which among the following recommended the establishment of State Council for Higher Education
in each state?
(1) Report of the Estimates Committee (1965 - 66)
(2) Review Committee on UGC (1977), Ministry of Education
(3) National Policy on Education (1986)
(4) Report of the UGC Committee (1990)
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow (46 to 50)
The motives for direct investments abroad are generally the same as earning higher returns,
possibly resulting from higher growth rates abroad, more favorable tax treatment or greater
availability of infrastructure and diversifing risks. Indeed, it has been found that firms with a
strong international orientation, either through exports or through foreign production and/or sales
facilities, are more profitable, and have a much smaller variability in profits than purely domestic
firms. Although these reasons are sufficient to explain international investments they leave one
basic question unanswered with regard to direct foreign investments. That is, they cannot explain
why the residents of a nation do not borrow from other nations and themselves make real
investments in their own nation rather than accept direct investments from abroad. After all, the
residents of a nation can be expected to be more familiar with local conditions, and thus to be
at a competitive advantage with respect to foreign investors. There are several explanations for
this. The most important is that many large corporations, usually in monopolistic and oligopolistic
markets, often have some unique production knowledge or managerial skill that could easily and
profitably be utilized abroad and over which the corporation wants to retain direct control. In such
a situation, the firm will make direct investments abroad. This involves horizontal integration or
the production abroad of a differentiated product that is also produced at home. This helps serve
the foreign market better by adapting to local conditions than through exports.
46. The passage focuses on the aspects mainly related to
(1) Indirect control over investments
(2) International orientation of investment
(3) Sales facilities
(4) Risks involved in integration of production
47. The possible reasons for direct foreign investment can be

(a) Higher returns
(b) getter tax regimes
(c) Availability of infrastructure
(d) Risk mitigation
(e) Financial support from local investors
(1) (a), (d) and (e) only (2) (b), (c) and d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only (4) (d), (e) and f) only
48. Purely domestic firms are affected by

(1) Law interest rates (2) Small variability of profits
(3) Larger variability of profits (4) Export controls

49. What advantage do large corporations have in oligopolistic markets?

(1) Direct control over profitability
(2) Large production of undifferentiated products
(3) Localization of managerial skills
(4) Eliminating barriers to higher profits
50. In the case of direct foreign investments, what factor remains unaddressed?
(1) Acceptance of foreign investment
(2) Non-acceptance of foreign investment
(3) Absence of competitive edge
(4) Role of monopolistic corporations
ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
1 1 3 1 1 3 4 4 3 3
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
2 2 1 3 4 2 3 2 1 2
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
4 1 3 2 3 4 4 3 1 1
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
2 1 4 1 1 3 1 3 3 2
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
1 3 4 2 3 2 3 3 1 2

HRM Paper II (Dec. 2019)
HRM
1. Under the provisions of the Mines Act, 1952 an owner or agent of a mine is required to provide
which of the following facilities for the persons employed in the mine?
(a) Drinking water (b) Conservancy
(c) Medical appliances (d) Recreation facilities
Choose the correct option from the following :
(1) (a), (b) and (d) only (2) (a), (c) and (d) only
2. Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
(Forms of knowledge) (Description)
(a) Shallow knowledge (i) Information that is directly related to context
(b) Procedural knowledge (ii) Information that some individuals are not
aware of what they know
(c) Casual knowledge (iii) Information that finds cause-effect relationship
(d) Specific knowledge (iv) Information that tells people why something
occurs
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
3. Given below are some of the terms along with authors associated with them. Which of the
following pairs are correctly matched.
(a) Product Life Cycle – Vernon
(b) Core Competence – Reich
(c) Zero-sum Nationalism – Prahalad and Hamel
(d) Balanced Score Card – Norton
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) (b) and (d) (4) (a) and (d)

4. Who said that, "Coordination is the orderly arrangement of group efforts to provide unity of action
in the pursuit of a common purpose?
(1) George R. Terry (2) Ralph C. Davis
(3) Chester Barnard (4) James D. Mooney
5. What is the time limit within which the employer is required to pay bonus to the employees, in
case of any dispute relating to bonus, on which the award becomes enforceable or the settlement
comes into operation as per the provisions of the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965?
(3) Six months (4) Eight months
6. Some of the areas relating to organizational change are given below :

(a) Marketing (b) Structure
(c) Strategy (d) Technology
(e) Costs (f) Managing people
Choose the correct option from those given below, which includes the areas relating to the
process of change.
(1) (a), (c) and (e) (2) (b), (d) and (f)
(3) (b), (c) and (f) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
7. 'Open Unemployment' is also known as :

(1) Weekly Status Unemployment
(2) Daily Status Unemployment
(3) Usual Principal Status Employment
(4) Seasonal Unemployment
8. Given below are different bodies provided under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
(a) Works Committee (b) Court of Inquiry
(c) Board of Conciliation (d) Grievance Redressal Committee
From among the following, which alternative includes the bodies whose functioning is based on
the principle of bipartite representation?
(1) Only (a) and (b) (2) Only (a) and (d)
(3) Only (b) and (c) (4) Only (a), (b) and (d)
9. Arrange the following in correct sequence basing on the years in which they came into force/
passed/setup, starting from the earliest to latest :
(a) Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction
(b) The Second Industrial Truce Resolution
(c) Code of Discipline
(d) National Institution for Transforming India Aayog
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (c), (b), (a) and (d)
(3) (b), (c), (a) and (d) (4) (d), (a), (c) and (b)

10. Which of the following strikes are categorized as 'strikes based on generic purposes'?
(a) Sympathetic strikes (b) Jurisdictional strikes
(c) Political strikes (d) General strikes
Choose the correct option :
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
11. The Propinquity Theory of group formation explains that groups are formed on the basis of :
(1) Spatial or geographical proximity
(2) Similar attitudes towards commonly relevant objects and goals
(3) Activities, interactions and sentiments
(4) Reward-cost outcomes of interactions
12. Arrange the following in a correct sequence basing on the years of their formation, starting from
the earliest to the latest :
(a) Federation of Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industry
(b) Associated Chamber of Commerce
(c) Employer's Federation of India
(d) All India Organisation of Industrial Employers
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) (2) (b), (c), (d), (a)
(3) (b), (a), (d), (c) (4) (a), (c), (b), (d)
13. Taylor advocated 'Functional Foremanship' to introduce :

(1) Differential piece-wage plane (2) Standardisation
(3) Work study (4) Specialisation

List-I List-II
(Training Techniques) (Description)
(a) Skill games (i) Games to test ability to plan ahead
(b) Mirroring (ii) Insight into a given interaction
(c) Strategic Planners (iii) Test to develop analytical skills
(d) Monodrama (iv) Training with an external perspective
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)


List-I List-II
(Phases) (Purpose)
(a) Domestic (i) Career and organizational development
(b) International (ii) Project and career development
(c) Multinational (iii) Project to get job done
(d) Global (iv) Reward
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
16. In which three Articles of the Constitution of India, provisions have been specified for ensuring
health and safety of workers?
(1) Articles 24, 25 and 26 (2) Articles 38, 39 (e and f) and 37
(3) Articles 24, 39 (e and f) 42 (4) Articles 41, 42 and 43
17. Which of following is NOT an item of job description statement?

(1) Experience (2) Job summary
(3) Working conditions (4) Hazards
18. Explaining the relationship between satisfaction and performance, which of the following models
suggests that performance leads to satisfaction?
(1) Maslow's Need Hierarchy Model (2) Herzberg's Two Factors Model
(3) Adam's Equity Model (4) Porter-Lawler Model
19. The following were some of the developments that took place in the trade union movements in
India. Arrange the same in the correct sequence starting from the earliest to the latest.
(a) Formation of National Front of Indian Trade Unions
(b) Formation of Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh
(c) Formation of Centre of Indian Trade Union
(d) Formation of Indian Federation of Labour
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) (2) (d), (b), (a), (c)
(3) (b), (c), (d), (a) (4) (c), (a), (b), (d)
20. Who among the following introduced the 'principle of bounded rationality?
(1) Herbert Simon (2) Max H. Bazerman
(3) Teresa M. Amabile (4) Weihrich and Koontz

21. Based on the statement given below, choose the correct option :
'For the industry as a whole, the supply of labour is not infinitely elastic'.
(1) The statement is not true
(2) The statement is true
(3) Supply of labour to a given firm is inelastic
(4) The elastic character is not relevant in the context of supply of labour
22. The three learning outcomes are given in List-I, and the aspects covered under them in List-II.
List-I List-II
(Learning outcomes) (Aspects Covered)
(a) Cognitive (i) Knowledge organization
(b) Skill based (ii) Compilation
(c) Affective (iii) Attitudinal
Codes :
(a) (b) (c)
(1) (ii) (i) (iii)
(2) (i) (iii) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii)
23. A systematic procedure for collecting, storing, maintaining, retrieving and validating data needed
by an organization about its human resources is termed as :
(1) Human Resource Forecasting
(2) Human Resource Information System
(3) Human Resource Scanning
(4) Human Resource Succession Planning
24. What is the limitation period for filing prosecution, from the date on which the alleged commission
of offence comes to the knowledge of the Inspector under the provisions of the Contract Labour
(Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970?
(1) Within two months (2) Within three months
(3) Within six months (4) Within twelve months
25. Given below are some of the barriers of communication :

(a) Perceptions (b) Interpersonal sensitivity
(c) Differing frames of reference (d) Information overload
From among the above identity the barriers, which are considered as sender-related barriers?
(1) (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (b)
(3) (b) and (d) (4) (c) and (d)

26. The Government of India has ratified few conventions of ILO relating to child labour. Arrange the
conventions in a sequence from the earliest to the latest as per the years of their adoption by ILO
(a) Night work of Young Persons (Industry) Convention
(b) Medical Examination of Young Person (Sea) Convention
(c) Night Work of Young Persons (Industry) Convention (Revised)
(d) Minimum Age (Underground Work) Convention
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (b), (c), (d) and (a)
(3) (d), (c), (d) and (a) (4) (a), (c), (d) and (b)
27. Which one of the following matter does NOT fall within the jurisdiction of the 'Industrial Tribunal'
constituted under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
(1) Classification by Grades
(2) Rationalisation
(3) Leave with Wages and Holidays
(4) Illegality or otherwise of a strike or lockout
28. Among the following, who is known as the father of Human Relation Approach?
(1) Henri Fayol (2) F.W. Taylor
(3) J. Woodward (4) Elton Mayo
29. Given below are the names of scholars in List-I, and the approaches to industrial relation with
which they are associated in List-II
List-I List-II
(Scholars) (Approaches to Industrial Relations)
(a) John R. Commons (i) Industrial Sociology Approach
(b) Elton Mayo (ii) Oxford Approach
(c) Allan Flanders (iii) Human Relations Approach
(d) G. Margerison (iv) Economic Approach
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
30. "Same work or work of a similar nature" is defined under which one of the following legislations?
(1) The Payment of Wages Act (2) The Minimum Wages Act
(3) The Equal Remuneration Act (4) The Payment of Bonus Act

31. Which of the following matters are specified in Schedule II of 'Participation of Workers in
Management Bill, 1990'?
(a) Matters relating to operational areas
(b) Matters relating to economic and financial areas
(c) Matters relating to welfare areas
(d) Matters relating to environmental areas
(1) Only (a) and (b) (2) Only (b) and (c)
(3) Only (a), (b) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
32. Which of the following statements relating to the Grievance Redressal Machinery envisaged
under Chapter II of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 are correct?
(a) Every industrial establishment employing twenty or more workmen shall have one or more
Grievance Redressal Committee for the resolution of disputes arising out of individual
grievances.
(b) The Grievance Redressal Committee shall consist of equal number of members from the
employer and the workmen.
(c) The total number of member of the Grievance Redressal Committee shall not exceed
more than four.
(d) The Grievance Redressal Committee may complete its proceedings within thirty days of
receipt of an application by or on behalf of the aggrieved party.
Select correct option :
(1) Only (a), (b) and (c) are correct (2) Only (b), (c) and (d) are correct
(3) Only (a), (b) and (d) are correct (4) Only (a), (c) and (d) are correct
33. In which Section of the Industrial Employment (Standing Order) Act, 1946, there is a provisions
for payment of subsistence allowance?
(1) Section 10 (2) Section 10 A
(3) Section 11 (4) Section 12 A
34. Given below are some of the provisions laid down under the Factoriest Act, 1948 in List-I, and
number of workers that should be working in a factory given in List-II for providing those facilities.
List-I List-II
(Provisions) (Number of workers)
(a) Cool drinking water (i) More than one hundred fifty
(b) Welfare Officer (ii) One thousand or more
(c) Shelter Room (iii) Five hundred or more
(d) Safety Officer (iv) More than two hundred fifty
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

35. Arrange the following elements of the process of interpersonal communication in sequential order
(a) the message (b) the channel
(c) feedback (d) the sender
(e) the receiver (f) the encoding
(g) the decoding
(1) (d), (f), (a), (b), (g), (e) and (c) (2) (a), (d), (e), (g), (b), (c) and (f)
(3) (a), (b), (d), (f), (e), (c) and (g) (4) (b), (a), (c), (d), (f), (g) and (e)
36. Consider the following management theories

(a) Systems theory (b) Quantitative theory
(c) Behavioural Science theory (d) Contingency theory
Which of the above are modern management theories?
(1) Only (a) and (b) (2) Only (a) and (c)
(3) Only (a), (b) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
37. As per the provisions of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 a claim shall be presented within which
time period from the date on which, the minimum wages become payable?
(1) Two months (2) Three months
(3) Six months (4) Twelve months
38. Given below are the step involved in the selection process :
(a) Application Blank (b) Employment interview
(c) Physical Examination (d) Employment tests
(e) Appointment Letter (d) Reference checks
Choose the alternative from the option given below mentioning the right sequence of the steps
starting from the beginning :
(1) (a), (d), (c), (b), (f), (e) (2) (a), (b), (c), (d), (f), (e)
(3) (a), (d), (b), (c), (e), (f) (4) (a), (d), (b), (f), (c), (e)
39. Which one of the following is NOT associated with authority?

(1) Right to issue directions
(2) Obligation to perform the assigned tasks
(3) Delegated from superior to subordinates
(4) Flows from top to bottom
40. As per the provisions of the Industrial Employment (Standing orders) Act, 1946, a Standing Order
finally certified shall not be modified until the expiry of how many days/months?
(1) Fifteen days (2) Thirty days
(3) Three months (4) Six months

41. Dunning's eclectic theory has identified three conditions which must be met by a company that
wishes to set up production in a foreign country and wants to operate as a multinational. Which
of the following is NOT included in the three conditions given by Dunning?
(1) Location advantages (2) Internationalization advantages
(3) Ownership advantages (4) Quality advantages
42. Which of the following is NOT included in the definition of 'Wages' as mentioned in the Payment
of Wages Act, 1936?
(1) Bonus as a part of salary
(2) Remuneration payable under any award or settlement between the parties or order of a
Court
(3) Remuneration in respect of overtime work or any leave period
(4) Any travelling allowances or the value of any travelling concession.
43. In a developing economy like India, unemployment is the result of :

(1) Deficiency of effective demand in the Keynesian sense
(2) Displacement of workers
(3) Shift from Primary to Tertiary Sector
(4) Shortage of capital equipment or other complimentary resources
44. Which of the following is the first convention adopted by the International Labour Organisation in
the year 1919?
(1) Hours of Work (Coal Mines) Convention
(2) Hours of Work (Industry) Convention
(3) Hours of Work (Commerce and Offices) Convention
(4) Hours of Work and Rest Periods (Road Transport) Convention
45. Safety departments industrial units have both Human Resource Unit and Safety Managers. From
amongst the functions mentioned below. Which is NOT the function of Human Resource Unit in
a safety department?
(1) Coordinating health and safety programme
(2) Investigating accidents
(3) Accidents investigation expertise
(4) Providing technical expertise on accident prevention
46. Given below are some of the methods of Demand Forecasting relating to Human Resource
Planning.
(a) Managerial Judgement (b) Work-Study Technique
(c) Expert Opinion (d) Delphi Technique
(e) Group Brainstorming (f) Nominal Group Technique
Choose the correct option from those given below, which come under the qualitative methods for
demands forecasting:
(1) (a), (b) and (e) (2) (c), (d) and (f)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d)

47. Arrange in a proper sequence the authorities mentioned in the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 in
resolving grievances or disputes of workmen, starting from the beginning :
(a) Labour court
(b) Grievance Redressal Machinery
(c) Conciliation Officer
(1) (a), (b), (c) (2) (b), (a), (c)
(3) (c), (b), (a) (4) (b), (c), (a)
48. As per the provisions of the payment of Bonus Act, 1965, set off can be done for next how many
accounting years?
(1) Five years (2) Four years
(3) Two years (4) Six years
49. Two statements namely Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given below :
Assertion (A) : Labour welfare implies the setting up of minimum desirable standards and the
provision of facilities
Reason (R) : Such facilities enable the worker and his/her family to lead a good work, family and
social life.
In the light of the above two statements, choose the correct option :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true
50. Factors with the high probability of impact and high degree of impact are known as :
(1) High priority factors (2) Low priority factors
(3) Critical factors (4) Factors to be watched
51. From among the following,which one is NOT an avoidance mode of conflict management?
(1) Resignation (2) Appeasement
(3) Negotiation (4) Defusion
52. Which of the following are considered to be the Principles of Labour Legislation?
(a) Principle of Protection
(b) Principle of Social Justice
(c) Principle of Welfare
(d) Principle of Reasonable Standard of Living
(1) (a), (b) and (d) only (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
53. Which of the following two leadership behaviour patterns were identified by Oho State Studies?
(1) Employee Orientation and Production Orientation
(2) Initiating Structure and Consideration
(3) Concern for production and Concern for people
(4) Personalism/Materialism and Opportunism
54. There exist certain essential element of social Insurance. Which amongst the following are NOT
elements of Social Insurance?
(a) Compulsory participation
(b) Contributory finance
(c) No governmental sponsorship
(d) Benefits directly related to contribution
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (b) and (d)
55. What percent of the number of days, an employee of a seasonal establishment has to work, out
of the total number of the days the establishment is operational, in order to claim to be in
continuous service under the provisions of the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972?
(1) Fifty percent (2) Sixty percent
(3) Seventy five percent (4) Ninety percent
56. While staffing a multinational company, if the top management considers national subsidiaries as
independent units and allows them to fill management posts themselves with host-country nationals,
then the approach is known as :
(1) Ethnocentricity (2) Polycentricity
(3) Geocentricity (4) Regiocentricity
57. Edgar Schein has identified different dimensions of organizational roles, one of which is a social
dimension. Which one of the following terms is associated with the social dimension?
(1) Inclusionary (2) Functional
(3) Hierarchial (4) Exclusionary
58. Some of the areas relating to organizational change are given below :
(a) Marketing (b) Technology
(c) Quality (d) Structure
(e) Strategy (f) Managing people
Choose the correct options from those given below, which gives the list relating to content of
change :
(1) (a), (b), (e) and (f) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (c), (d) and (e) (4) (b), (c), (d) and (f)

59. Given below are two statements – one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Management development is one major way for organizations to increase the
chances that managers will be effective.
Reason (R) : While many have believed that ability to manage was primarily an inborn quality,
the current view is that capabilities required to be an effective manager can be learned and
enhanced
(1) Both (A) are (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
60. Match the themes relating to the definition of labour welfare given in List-I with the scholars/
institutions who have put formed the themes given in List-II
List-I List-II
(Themes) (Scholars/Institutions)
(a) Attitude of mind (i) A.J. Todd
(b) Improvement in existing industrial (ii) Encyclopaedia of Social Science
system
(c) Voluntary efforts beyond what is (iii) G.A. Almond
required by law
(d) Comfort and improvement in (iv) E.S. Proud
intellectual and social state
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(2) (i) (iv) (ii) (ii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
61. Systematically arrange the five step process of human resource planning given below and choose
the correct option :
(a) Forecast of personnel needs and supply
(b) HR Programming
(c) Defining Organisational Objectives and Policies
(d) HRP Implementation
(e) Control and evaluation of programmes
Choose the correct option form the following :
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) (2) (b), (a), (c), (d), (e)
(3) (b), (a), (c), (d), (e) (4) (c), (a), (b), (d), (e)

62. Given below are different Committees/Commissions set up in India relating to Labour
(a) First National Commission of Labour
(b) Adarkar Committee
(c) Second National Commission on Labour
(d) Rege Committee
Choose the option which gives chronological sequence of their set up starting from the earliest
to the latest :
(1) (b), (d), (a), (c) (2) (c), (b), (d), (a)
(3) (a), (c), (b), (d) (4) (b), (a), (c), (d)
63. Who described the mechanistic and organic or behavioural organization structures?
(1) Tom Burns and G.M. Stalker
(2) Terry and Franklin
(3) Robert H Miles
(4) Kathryn M. Bartol and David C. Martin
64. Under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, a minimum rate of remuneration to apply in the case of
employees employed on piece work, for the purpose of securing such employees minimum rate
of wages on a time work basis is known as :
(1) A minimum time rate (2) A minimum piece rate
(3) A guaranteed time rate (4) Overtime rate
65. Based on the statement given below, choose the correct option :
'The strength of the demand for any particular type of labour will depend upon the marginal
productivity of labour and the market value of the product'.
(1) The statement is correct
(2) The statement is wrong
(3) Marginal productivity of labour has nothing to do with demand for labour
(4) Market value of price of the product and demand for labour are not related.
66. Arrange in a sequence, the following legislation in the order of years in which those were enacted
from the latest to the earliest.
(a) The Mines Act
(b) The plantation Labour Act
(c) The Beedi and Cigar Workers (conditions of Employment) Act
(d) The Factories Act
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) (2) (b), (a), (d), (c)
(3) (c), (a), (b), (d) (4) (d), (c), (b), (a)

67. Given below are two statements – one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Industrial relations constitute one of the most delicate and complex problems of
modern industrial society, which is characterized by rapid change, industrial unrest and conflicting
ideologies in the national and international spheres
Reason (R) : It is a dynamic concept with depends upon the pattern of society, economic system
and political set-up of a country and changes with the changing economic and social order
68. Which amongst the following are NOT the characters of labour market in India?
(a) Labour markets lack mobility
(b) Labour markets are perfect markets
(c) Relationship between buyer and seller is expected to continue for sometime barring 'casual
labour' market
(d) Monopoly in labour market no more exists today
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (b) and (d)
69. As per the amendment made in the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 in the year 2005, who shall
appoint inspectors for the purpose of the Payment of Wages Act in respect of all person employed
upon a railway (otherwise than in a factory) to whom the provisions of the Act apply?
(1) The Central Government (2) The State Government
(3) The appropriate Government (4) The Chief Inspector
70. Match List-I with List-II

List List-II
(Authors) (Books)
(a) Douglas C McGregor (i) Function of the Executive
(b) Elton Mayo (ii) The New Science of Management Decision
(c) Herbert A. Simon (iii) The Human Side of Enterprise
(d) Chester Barnard (iv) Human Problems of an Industrial Civilization
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

71. Taking into consideration the four different layers of culture as suggested by Hofstede, identity
which one of the following is the first or outermost level?
(1) Rituals (2) Heroes
(3) Symbols (4) Values
72. Which one of the following is to be held as in 'Industry', under the definition of 'Industry' mentioned
in the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
(1) Posts and Telegraph Department
(2) Construction and Maintenance of Highways
(3) Central Institute of Fisheries
(4) The Dock Labour Board
73. Given below are two statements – one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason
(R) :
Assertion (A) : Trade Unionism in India, as in most other countries, has been the natural outcome
of modern factory system
Reasons (R) : In order to counter exploitation, efforts towards organizing the workers for safe-
guarding their legitimate position were made by the unions
74. Given below are two statements – one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason
(R) :
Assertion (A) : In the early stages of internationalization of business organization, it was based
on the notion that the logic of industrialism has a homogenizing effect upon business organization,
irrespective of the country they were located in
Reasons (R) : The cultural approach emphasised national differences between the organisations,
differences which have cultural factors at their root.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are false (2) (A) is true and (R) are is false
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true (4) (A) is false and (R) is true
75. Consider the following statement related to HR Audit :

(a) HR Audit is a method of evaluating the current Human Resource Development
(b) HR Audit also helps in calculating the investments made in training and estimating the
returns on such investments
(c) HR Audit assesses the training needs and utilization of training as a tool for organizational
learning, growth and development
Which of the above is/are correct
(1) Only (a) (2) Only (b)
(3) Only (a) and (c) (4) (a), (b) and (c)

76. Choose the correct answer regarding the theories of motivation from the following statements:
(a) The concept of ERG theory is similar to Maslow's hierarchy of needs
(b) Theory 'X' and 'Y' are similar to each other
(c) Two factor theory is similar to Vroom's theory
(1) Only (a) (2) Only (b)
(3) Only (a) and (b) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
77. Given below are three types of competencies in List-I and their characteristics in List-II
List-I List-II
(Competencies) (Characteristics)
(a) Universal competency (i) Competencies refer to specialized know-how
or abilities required within a specific role
(b) Transferrable competency (ii) Competencies emphasize that all the
employees of an organization must reflect the
company's value, culture and business
imperatives
(c) Unique competency (iii) Competencies include skills and abilities
needed to perform several roles in varying
degrees of importance and mastery
Codes :
(a) (b) (c)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i)
78. Which one of the following is NOT a principle of coordination?

(1) Direct contact
(2) Early start
(3) Precise and comprehensive programmes and policies
(4) Continuity
79. Given below are different stages of group formation :

(a) Storming (b) Norming
(c) Adjourning (d) Forming
(e) Performing
Choose the right option which gives the correct sequence of the steps starting from the beginning
(1) (a), (d), (e), (b), (c) (2) (d), (a), (b), (e), (c)
(3) (a), (b), (e), (d), (c) (4) (e), (d), (b), (a), (c)

80. Consider the following :

(a) Challenging work (b) Responsibility
(c) Status (d) Job security
(e) Recognition
Which of the above are motivators under Herzberg's Two Factor Theory?
(1) (a) and (c) only (2) (c), (d) and (e) only
(3) (a), (b) and (e) only (4) (b), (c), (d) and (e) only
81. Labour Welfare in the present context is the combination of which two of the following theories
(a) The Police Theory (b) The Philanthropic Theory
(c) The Placating Theory (d) The Functional Theory
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (b) and (d)
82. The four methods of job evaluation are given below :

(a) Ranking Method (b) Factor Comparison Method
(c) Job Classification Method (d) Point Rating Method
Choose the correct option from those given below which come under the Quantitative/Analytical
methods :
(1) (b) and (d) (2) (a) and (c)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (d)
83. Given below are different modes of conflict management.

(a) Resignation (b) Confrontation
(c) Appeasement (d) Negotiation
(d) Defusion
From among the following, choose the alternative, which gives the approach modes of conflict
management
(1) (b) and (d) (2) (a) and (e)
(3) (c) and (e) (4) (c) and (d)
84. The employment of young persons on dangerous machines is prohibited under which Section of
the Factories Act, 1948?
(1) Section 21 (2) Section 22
(3) Section 23 (4) Section 24
85. Which of the following statements relating to the Governing Body of the ILO are correct?
(a) The Governing Body is a non-legislative body
(b) The tenure of the office of the Governing Body is ten years
(c) The Governing Body seeks advisory opinion from the International Court of Justice
(d) It scrutinises the budget of the ILO with the consent of the International Labour Conference
Select the correct option :
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only (4) (b), (c) and (d) only

86. Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the prohibition of Employment of Children in
Factories etc.?
87. Given below are the various stages of the conflict process
(a) Cognition and personalisation
(b) Interventions
(c) Potential opposition or incompatibility
(d) Outcomes
(d) Behaviour
Choose the right option which gives the correct sequence of the stages starting from the beginning
(1) (a), (c), (b), (d), (e) (2) (b), (a), (c), (e), (d)
(3) (b), (c), (e), (d) (4) (c), (a), (b), (e), (d)
88. Which of the following statements relating to the ILO are correct?
(a) The ILO was established by Versailles Peace Conference on April 12, 1919.
(b) India became member of ILO in 1921.
(c) The ILO became a specialized agency of United Nations in 1946.
(d) The International Labour Conference is the policy making organ of the ILO.
Select the correct option :
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (c) and (d) only

List-I List-II
(Performance Appraisal Methods) (Description)
(a) Alternation Ranking Method (i) An appraisal method that aims at combining
the benefits of narrative critical incidents and
quantified ratings by anchoring a quantified
scale with specific narrative examples of good
and poor performance
(b) Paired Comparison Method (ii) Keeping a record of uncommonly good or
undesirable examples of an employee's work
related behaviour and reviewing it with the
employee at predetermined times.
(c) Behaviourally-anchored rating (iii) Ranking employees from best to worst on a
Method particular trait, choosing highest, then lowest,
until all are ranked
(d) Critical Incident Method (iv) Ranking employees by making a chart of all
possible pairs of the employees for each trait
and indicating which is the better employee of
the pair

Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
90. Chronologically arrange the following chapters, which were inserted in the Industrial Disputes Act,
1947 by way of amendments starting from the earliest to the latest?
(a) Chapter II A (b) Chapter II B
(c) Chapter V A (d) Chapter V B
Choose the right option from the following :
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) (2) (c), (a), (d), (b)
(3) (b), (d), (a), (c) (4) (a), (c), (d), (b)
Read the passage carefully and answer the question (91-95) :

"A principle fruit of friendship", Francis Bacon wrote in his timeless meditation on the subject is
the case and discharge of the fullness and swellings of the heart, which passions of all kinds do cause
and induce'. For Thoreau, friendship was one of life's great rewards. But in today's cultural landscape
of muddled relationship scattered across various platforms for connecting, amid constant debates about
whether our Facebook 'friendship's are making us more or less happy, it pays to consider what friendship
actually is : That's precisely what 'CUNY' Philosophy Professor Massimo Pigliucci explores in answers
for Aristotle : How science and philosophy can lead us to a more meaningful life, which also gave us
time provocative read on science of what we call 'intuition'.
Philosophers and cognitive scientists agree that friendship is an essential ingredient of human
happiness. But beyond the dry academic definitions – like, say, 'voluntary interdependence between two
persons overtime, which is intended to facilitate socio-emotional goals of the participants and may
involve varying types and degrees of companionship, intimacy, affection and mutual assistance' – lies
a body of compelling research that sheds light on how, precisely, friendship augments happiness.
The way friendship enhances will-being, it turns out, has nothing to do with quantity and everything
to do with quality – researchers confirm that it is not the number of friends or, in case of Facebook,
'friendships'.
91. Whether the views expressed in the passage advocate that friendship is an essential component
of well-being? Choose the correct option :
(1) Researches have proved that friendship does lead to happiness
(2) There exists no relationship between passage and happiness
(3) Friends cannot make each other happy
(4) One needs to find one's happiness alone with peace of mind
92. In the context of the passage, which of the following is true about friendship?
(1) It is important to have quantity of friends
(2) What is important is comments on social media, not quality of friends
(3) What is important is quality of friends
(4) Quality automatically comes with quantity

93. What is being debated according to the content given in the first paragraph? Choose the correct
option.
(1) The debate is centred whether our facebook friends are helping us become more or less
happy
(2) There are no debates.
(3) The quality of comments on social media is debated.
(4) It is debated that Thoreau's and Aristotle's thinking are at loggerheads.
94. Which of the following is true in the context of Pigliucci's books?

(1) Pigliucci's book discusses science only
(2) The book explains science and philosophy only
(3) The book discusses Aristotle's theories only
(4) Pigliucci's book discusses 'intuition'.
95. Which one change effected in the present situation hassled to a re-thinking of the concept of
friendship?
(1) Bacon the Thoreau's Theories
(2) The arrival of social media on the scene
(3) There is more interest in science
(4) Friendships are not possible in the real world anymore due to over-competition
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow (Q.96 to 100):
The International Cricket Council (ICC) announced that the then Pepsico Chairman and CEO
Indra Nooyi has been appointed to the ICC Board as the organisations' first independent female Director.
Mrs. Nooyi joined the Board in June 2018 to align with the term of ICC Independent Chairman, following
the Unanimous confirmation of her appointment at Board's meeting.
The introduction of an independent Director, who must be female, was approved by the ICC full
council in June 2017 as part of wide ranging constitutional change aimed at improving the global governance
of the sport.
Mrs. Nooyi is a global business leader, consistently ranked by Fortune Magazine among the
world's most powerful women. As Chairman and CEO of Pepsico, Mrs. Nooyi was responsible for a
global food and beverage portfolio that includes 22 brands generating more than $ 1 billion each in annual
retail sales, including Quaker, Tropicana, Gatorade, Frito-lay and Pepsi cola. Mrs. Nooyi is also the chief
architect of performance with purpose. Pepsico's vision to deliver top tier financial performance over the
long term by integrating sustainability into company's business strategy. Under her leadership, since
2006 Pepsico has focused on offering more nutrious food and beverages, minimizing their impact on the
environment and creating opportunities for their employees and people across the markets they serve.
ICC Chairman Shashank Manohar said : "We are delighted to welcome Indra to ICC. Adding
another independent director, particularly a female, is such an important step forward in improving our
governance. To have someone of Indra's calibre is fantastic news for the global game. She is frequently
recognized as one of the most important and influential people in business today, running one of the
world's biggest corporations". "We undertook a global search looking for the right candidate who would
complement the existing skills and experience already on our Board. A cricket enthusiast with experience
in the commercial sector and independent of ICC, any member or state or associated organization were
the primary criteria and in Indra, we have found an exceptional new colleague and we look forward to
working with her in future".
The independent director will be appointed for a two-year term although she may be re-appointed
for two further terms with maximum six year consecutive period of service.
In accordance with international standards of good governance, the Independent Ethics Officer
for the ICC and Pepsico's General Counsel have reviewed and both formally approved the appointment,
providing a clear framework for appropriately managing any potential or perceived conflicts of interest that
might arise in the future.
96. Which amongst the following is NOT true in the context of the passage?
(1) Quaker is a product of Pepsico
(2) Mrs. Nooyi headed over 22 food and beverage brands under the flagship of Pepsico
(3) In order to earn more profit, Pepsico ignores the environment
(4) Mrs. Nooyi was elected unanimously as the Director of ICC
97. Which amongst the following is true in the context of the passage?
(1) Indra Nooyi is the first female chairman of International Cricket Council
(2) She may be re-appointed for two further terms resulting in nine years of total service
(3) She may be re-appointed for two further terms with a maximum six years consecutive
period of service
(4) Indra Nooyi is ranked number one in the list of most powerful woman by Fortune Magazine
98. What does the writer want to convey by saying 'Mrs. Nooyi is also the chief architect of performance
with purpose?
(1) Mrs. Nooyi has started objective based planning in Pepsico
(2) Mrs. Nooyi has driven the concept of corporate social responsibility
(3) Mrs. Nooyi does not want to make profit at the cost of consumer's health
(4) With her vast experience of leadership, Mrs. Nooyi's induction in ICC will improve its global
performance
99. What was the purpose of introducing female independent director in International Cricket Council?
(1) To improve global governance of the sport
(2) To prove that women are better than men
(3) To set an example of gender equality
(4) To fulfill the requirements of constitutional change
100. Which amongst the following confirmed the appointment of Indra Nooyi?
(1) Board of International Cricket Council
(2) General Council of Pepsico
(3) Independent Ethics Officer of ICC
(4) Chairman of ICC

ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
3 2 4 4 1 3 3 2 2 4
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
1 3 4 4 1 3 1 4 2 1
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
2 4 2 2 1 1 4 4 1 3
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
4 3 2 3 1 3 3 4 2 4
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
4 4 4 2 2 2 4 2 1 3
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
3 3 2 2 3 2 1 2 1 3
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
4 1 1 3 1 3 1 1 3 2
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
3 4 2 3 4 1 4 3 2 3
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
2 1 1 3 3 3 4 4 1 2
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
1 3 1 1 2 3 3 4 4 1

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5 Previous Year Papers with Answer Key

(Nov. 2017 to Dec. 2019)

India's No. 1 Learning Community in NTA UGC-NET

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General Paper on Teaching and Research Aptitude

Time : 1¼ hours Paper-I Maximum Marks : 100

Total Two Cars, Jeeps, Goods Population

4. The maximum decadal growth in population of India is registered in the period :

8. In a classroom the probability of message reception can be enhanced by :

11. A deductive argument is invalid if :

12. A good communicator begins his/her presentation with a :

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20. The classroom communication should essentially be :

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24. Which one of the following is a key behaviour in effective teaching ?

27. Which of the following is susceptible to the issue of research ethics ?

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30. Assertion (A) : All teaching implies learning.

31. Occurrence of natural hazards is affected by :

32. What is the name for a webpage address ?

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41. Which of the following represents billion characters ?

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43. Which of the following domains is used for - profit businesses ?

44. The data storage hierarchy consists of :

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48. Adaptation as a process enables societies to cope with :

49. The main focus of the passage is on :

50. The traditional knowledge should be used through :

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Human Resource Management

Time : 1¼ hours Paper-II Maximum Marks : 100

3. Match the following :

5. Which one of the following is related to clan control ?

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7. Job Description implies :

8. The Human Resource Planning is a :

10. Progressive Discipline is :

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17. What is ’Neotony’ as a leadership trait advanced by Bennis and Thomas ?

20. The characteristics of ‘Morale’ are depicted as

22. ‘Feather Bedding’ refers to :

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Human Resource Management

Time : 2½ hours Paper-III Maximum Marks : 150

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4. The passage mentions which one of the following as a component of groupthink ?

5. What the author of the passage ultimately concludes ?

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14. Buzz-Sessions help in :

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