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New simCLAT - 6 (2020)


(As per New CLAT Pattern)

Duration : 120 Minutes Max. Marks : 150

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. There are 150 multiple choice objective type questions.


2. Each question carries ONE mark.
3. For every wrong answer, 0.25 marks will be deducted.
4. Candidates have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses provided, with
HB PENCIL in the OMR Answer Sheet.
The candidate should darken the corresponding circle as indicated below:
Example: For the question, “Where is the Taj Mahal located?”.
(a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi

Right Method Wrong Methods
_________________ ________________________________________________________

a c d a b c d a c d a c d
ü
b b

5. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong answer


6. The candidates shall not write anything on the OMR Answer Sheet other than the details required
in the spaces provided for
7. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, pagers or calculators etc. are strictly not permitted inside the
Test Centre/Hall.
8. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the Test is over.

Regd. Office: IMS Learning Resources Pvt. Ltd.


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All copyrights to this material vests with IMS Learning Resources Pvt. Ltd. No part
of this material either in part or as a whole shall be copied, reprinted, reproduced,
sold, distributed or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical,
photocopying, recording or otherwise, or stored in any retrieval system of any nature
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would entail initiation of suitable legal proceedings.

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SCORE SHEET
Name of the Candidate:

PERMANENT IMS Instructions


NUMBER (PIN)
• Use HB Pencil only on this sheet.

• Erase completely to change responses.
• Darken the circles fully.
• Do not make any stray marks on this sheet.

a b c d a b c d a b c d a b c d a b c d
1 31 61 91 121
2 32 62 92 122
3 33 63 93 123
4 34 64 94 124
5 35 65 95 125

6 36 66 96 126
7 37 67 97 127
8 38 68 98 128
9 39 69 99 129
10 40 70 100 130

11 41 71 101 131
12 42 72 102 132
13 43 73 103 133
14 44 74 104 134
15 45 75 105 135

16 46 76 106 136
17 47 77 107 137
18 48 78 108 138
19 49 79 109 139
20 50 80 110 140

21 51 81 111 141
22 52 82 112 142
23 53 83 113 143
24 54 84 114 144
25 55 85 115 145

26 56 86 116 146
27 57 87 117 147
28 58 88 118 148
29 59 89 119 149
30 60 90 120 150

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New SimCLAT - 6
SECTION - I 1. A suitable title for the passage would be:
(English Language) a) The role of role models in life
b) The role of luck in life success
Directions for questions 1 to 30: Each set of questions in c) The role of internal traits in life outcomes
this section is based on a single passage. Please answer
d) The role of mindset in achieving success
each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in
the corresponding passage. In some instances, more than 2. Which of the following examples supports the
one option may be the answer to the question; in such a argument made in the passage?
case, please choose the option that most accurately and
a) The display of middle initials increases positive
comprehensively answers the question.
evaluations of people’s intellectual capacities
Questions 1 to 4: and achievements.
b) The chance of becoming a CEO is influenced by
What does it take to succeed? What are the secrets of
your skill and hard work and not your name or
the most successful people? Judging by the popularity of
month of birth.
magazines such as Success, Forbes, Inc., and Entrepreneur,
there is no shortage of interest in these questions. There is c) People with easy to pronounce names are not
a deep underlying assumption, however, that we can learn judged more positively than those with difficult-
from them because it’s their personal characteristics such to-pronounce names.
as talent, skill, mental toughness, hard work, tenacity, d) All of the above
optimism, growth mindset, and emotional intelligence
that got them where they are today. This assumption 3. Which of the following weakens the argument made
doesn’t only underlie success magazines, but also how we in the passage?
distribute resources in society, from work opportunities a) The most talented individuals are rarely the
to fame to government grants to public policy decisions. most successful.
We tend to give out resources to those who have a past
history of success, and tend to ignore those who have been b) The most qualified individuals are rarely the
unsuccessful, assuming that the most successful are also the most powerful.
most competent. c) The most talented individuals are always the
most successful.
But is this assumption correct? I have spent my entire
career studying the psychological characteristics that d) The most powerful individuals are always born
predict achievement and creativity. While I have found that in rick households.
a certain number of traits-- including passion, perseverance,
4. Which of the following is a valid conclusion based
imagination, intellectual curiosity, and openness to
on the passage?
experience-- do significantly explain differences in success,
I am often intrigued by just how much of the variance is a) You don’t know whether you’re going to be
often left unexplained. born rich or poor, male or female, infirm or able-
bodied.
In recent years, a number of studies and books including
those by risk analyst Nassim Taleb, investment strategist b) As you become more successful in an absolute
Michael Mauboussin, and economist Robert Frank have sense, we can attribute a greater proportion of
suggested that luck and opportunity may play a far greater your success to hardwork.
role than we ever realized, across a number of fields, c) It doesn’t matter how successful or unsuccessful
including financial trading, business, sports, art, music, you are right now. What matters is whether
literature, and science. Their argument is not that luck your habits are putting you on the path toward
is everything; of course talent matters. Instead, the data success.
suggests that we miss out on a really important piece of the d) Chances and opportunity play an under
success picture if we only focus on personal characteristics appreciated role in determining the final level of
in attempting to understand the determinants of success. individual success.

SimCLAT 2020 3

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Questions 5 to 8: c) Rimi uses a pack of detergent and instead of


Ten months ago, Szaky launched Loop, an online delivery throwing the packet, she uses it to store other
service that uses sturdy, reusable containers. The bold part items.
of his venture or risk, if you are one of his financial backers d) Jenny uses bottles of water that can be recycled
is that Loop pushes far beyond the uniformity of returnable and reused.
beverage bottles and sells more than 300 items, from food to
laundry detergent, in containers of various sizes and made 8. Which of the following is an appropriate title for the
from various materials. His signature product is Häagen- passage?
Dazs ice cream that comes packed inside a sleek, insulated a) Loop- a new revolution
stainless steel tub guaranteed to prevent its contents from b) An old school plan to fight plastic
melting.
c) Loop- an innovation in creation
He figured out a way to recycle diapers, cigarette butts,
d) Invention of repackaging
and a long list of other non-recyclables. In time, he became
more interested in restoring the circularity of that earlier era
Questions 9 to 14:
. Simply put, Loop brings back the old “milkman model.”
I note the obvious differences
“Loop’s theory is let’s learn from the past and go back
to a model where when you buy your deodorant, you’re in the human family.
borrowing the package and just paying for the content,” he Some of us are serious,
says. Some thrive on comedy.
The beverage industry is expanding its use of returnable
Some declare their lives are lived
bottles; an Oregon brewery claims to have started the
United States’ first state-wide refillable beer system. More as true profundity,
significantly, efforts like Loop’s to reinvent packaging for and others claim they really live
products that don’t fit easily into the refillable category the real reality.
have attracted startups and some of the world’s largest
corporate players. The variety of our skin tones
can confuse, bemuse, delight,
5. The primary concern of Loop is:
brown and pink and beige and purple,
a) to make plastic magically biodegradable.
tan and blue and white.
b) to remake disposable plastic packaging into new
plastic packaging. I’ve sailed upon the seven seas
c) to resuscitate refillables as an alternative to and stopped in every land,
plastic waste.
I’ve seen the wonders of the world
d) to recycle the wastes into something useful.
not yet one common man.
6. Which of the following is NOT true to the passage?
I know ten thousand women
a) Loop follows a minimum waste packaging.
called Jane and Mary Jane,
b) Companies are looking for new ways to address
but I’ve not seen any two
packaging and reduce waste.
who really were the same.
c) The economics of packaging has changed.
d) Loop uses stainless steel and other insulated Mirror twins are different
materials for packaging. although their features jibe,
7. Which of the following would be most supported by and lovers think quite different thoughts
Szaky to model Loop? while lying side by side.
a) Prisha buys a burger and a pepsi can in
We love and lose in China,
disposable containers.
we weep on England’s moors,
b) After using shampoo X, Sameer keeps the empty
bottle outside his gate for the delivery person to and laugh and moan in Guinea,
refill. and thrive on Spanish shores.

4 SimCLAT 2020

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We seek success in Finland, b) The common man can live for as long as he likes
are born and die in Maine. if he has the passion to travel.
In minor ways we differ, c) Across the vastness of the world, no two people
are alike.
in major we’re the same.
d) It takes a lifetime to see the entire world and
I note the obvious differences admire its beauty.
between each sort and type,
14. Why does the poet use the example of “mirror
but we are more alike, my friends, twins” and “lovers”?
than we are unalike. a) Both groups are highly connected with one
another and are still very competitive with each
We are more alike, my friends, other.
than we are unalike.
b) Both groups share strong bonds and have the
same ideas of love, success, failure, grief and
We are more alike, my friends,
pain.
than we are unalike.
c) Both groups share a strong urge to hurt one
9. A suitable title for the poem could be another and also a strong need to protect each
other.
a) The head of the family
d) Both groups typically share lifelong connections
b) The humans are alive
with one another and are yet unlike each other.
c) Friendship never fades
d) The human family Questions 15 to 19:
Garry Golden sits in a small cafe in Brooklyn, New York. In
10. The fundamental theme of the poem is about: front of him, sheets of paper with diagrams litter the table.
a) Life resulting in death He rapidly sketches trains, cars and highways as he explains
b) Bonds beyond borders his ideas. The science of how to move people from place
to place fascinates him. He spends his days studying the
c) Rising from failure relationships between cars, subways, and trains. But he’s
d) Nurturing with patience most excited about imagining the way these relationships
will change in the next 20 years.
11. The poet can be described as:
Golden is a futurist. These are the opposite of historians,
a) Cynical b) Apprehensive
who try to better understand the present through studying
c) Observant d) Pessimistic the past.
12. What does the poet want to communicate in the Some futurists study the environment. Some study human
second stanza? society. Golden earned his graduate degree in Future Studies
a) Members of the human race are achieving the from the University of Houston. Living in Houston for
same ends through different means. those two years changed the way he viewed transportation
in the United States.
b) Some members of the human race live better
lives than others because of their wisdom. Many public transportation advocates dislike Houston.
They argue the city is too sprawling and that there aren’t
c) Members of the human race are all existing but
enough buses and subways. However, Houston was a
not living a full content life.
source of inspiration for Golden.
d) Members of the human race are profoundly
intelligent but have lost their sense of reality. “Houston is a really interesting place, and their transportation
is a fascinating story it’s worth watching. When you think
13. What does the poet want to emphasize through the about it, what is the U.S. like? It’s more like Houston. So
line “I’ve seen the wonders of the world not yet one you need to understand how Houston approaches things to
common man.”? understand the country as a whole. New York City is the
exception,” said Golden in an interview with The New York
a) Travelling helps you understand the privilege
Times.
that you have over the less fortunate.

SimCLAT 2020 5

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Golden points out that people in New York City own fewer b) Golden would analyze the present situation to
cars and walk much more than anywhere else in the United predict about the same in the future .
States. “It’s a unique environment,” says Golden. “Very c) Golden had the ability to predict the future and
different from the rest of the country.” give solutions to the problems thereafter.
However, Golden believes American cities will become d) Golden had developed the habit of predicting
more similar to New York City in several ways over the during his stay at Houston.
next 20 years. He explains, “All these vehicles cost the
city: in services, in having to repair roads and all of the 18. Which of the following is the most suitable tone for
other things.” Cars also take up a lot of space. Houston, for the passage?
example, has 30 parking spaces for every resident. That’s a) Speculative b) Patronizing
64.8 million parking spaces in only one city.
c) Dogmatic d) Commiserating
Golden points out that having so many parking spaces is
inefficient. Much of the time the parking spaces sit empty. 19. Which of the following is true according to the
At high-use times for example, Saturday afternoon when passage?
everyone is running errands every parking space at a a) Golden’s fixation about cars was all about
shopping center is full. But at 3 a.m. on a Monday, no one improvement in the traffic congestion on roads.
is at the shopping center. What is the solution? “I think
b) Golden’s fascination revolved around the
cities are going to start to legislate cars in very new ways,”
varieties of cars and their relationship.
says Golden. He explains that cities will make new laws
to limit the number of cars people can have within city c) Cities have to bear the cost of car ownership .
limits. Instead, people will use taxis, subways and buses. d) People will be inclined to curb the usage of cars
New technology, like smartphones, can make these forms in the coming future .
of public transportation even better.
Questions 20 to 24:
15. The passage is mainly about:
One of the most important tasks of ethical analysis is to
a) an educator who imparts valuable lessons on the deliver us from our unrecognized prejudices about right
present trend of transportation in the US. and wrong. For ethicist Paul Taylor perhaps no prejudice is
b) a passionate city lover, who dreams big about so deeply ingrained as speciesism, the view that members
his city and finds ways to achieve them. of the human species deserve treatment superior to that
accorded members of other species.
c) a futurist who envisages the change in
transportation in the years to come. In place of speciesism, Taylor proposes a new theory of
d) a futurist who condemns the inefficient use of environmental ethics based on “the biocentric outlook.”
resources. This outlook asserts that humans are equal members of
the earth’s community of life and that they and members
16. Which of the following can be inferred from the of other species are interdependent. It further sees all
passage? organisms as teleological centers of life in the sense that
a) The ones disapproving Houston feel unlike each is a unique individual pursuing its own best interests
Golden about the environment of the place. by its own means and that “humans are not inherently
superior to other living things.”
b) One had to drive his own car to go from one side
of the city to the other during rush hour. Taylor insists on recognizing that wild plants and animals
have inherent worth, and following the moral norm that
c) Both New York and Houston residents relied
“living things ought not to be harmed or interfered with
very less on cars to travel.
in nature.” Taylor claims that human behavior toward
d) The years of stay at Houston shaped up the nonhumans ought to be guided by the rules of nonmaleficence
mentality of Golden about its distinctiveness in and noninterference, as well the rule of fidelity and the rule
travelling. of restitutive justice. These rules prohibit, respectively:
harming any entity in the natural environment; restricting
17. What can be understood when the author says that
the freedom of natural entities or ecosystems so that they
Golden is a futurist?
cannot exist in a wild state; mistreating any wild animal, as
a) Golden loved studying human society and often occurs during hunting or fishing; and failing to make
tracking the process of changes. amends when one wrongs a wild plant or animal in any way.

6 SimCLAT 2020

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One problem is with Taylor’s scheme that both accords d) Dhriti has five dogs and only three cats as her
“inherent worth” to all plants, animals, and humans, and pets.
then requires compensation for every intrusion, use,
or control (done even for a good reason) affecting any 22. Which of the following can be inferred from the
living entity. If everyone has duties of compensation to passage?
virtually every other living entity, as indeed we must under a) Taylor claimed superior moral rights of plants
Taylor’s scheme, then applying Taylor’s ethics is complex, and animals.
cumbersome, and unworkable. There is also the problem b) The theory of environmental ethics is not
with the applicability of Taylor’s concepts and duties. comprehensive enough to deal with many
He claims repeatedly that “all wild living things in the ethical issues.
Earth’s natural ecosystems” possess inherent worth “in c) Taylor felt the need to give the same moral
the same sense” as humans .Yet he admits that there are consideration to the welfare of all other
very few wild things in genuinely natural ecosystems - organisms as we do to our own human concerns.
ecosystems wholly free from any human intrusion. This
d) Speciesism stressed on all species belonging
raises at least two problems. First, why does Taylor claim
to the same community because they share a
that we have duties only to wild living things in natural
common origin.
ecosystems? If we have only these duties, and if most living
things are not wild and not in natural ecosystems, then 23. Which of the following is NOT true of biocentric
Taylor may fail to deal with the bulk of problems arising outlook?
in environmental ethics. Also, if natural ecosystems are
those that have experienced no human intrusion or control, a) The theory of environmental ethics is based on
then Taylor seems to say that humans are not part of the respect of nature.
“natural” world. b) There is a difference between humans and other
species, and it affects their moral status.
Taylor does deserve praise because he avoids many of
the errors of earlier theorists of environmental ethics. c) Each organism is a teleological center of life
For example, Taylor explicitly rejects Leopold’s highly with a good of its own.
questionable belief that inanimate objects can be moral d) Biocentric outlook posits that all human and
subjects; he also disavows an organicist or Gaia view of nonhuman beings are essential constituent
environmental ethics, as pursued by Leopold, Goodpaster, elements in a system of interdependence.
Lovelock, and others, and shows why organicism errs in
giving no place to the good of individual organisms. 24. Which of the following will Taylor agree with?
a) The natural environment and its wildlife
20. Which of the following is a flaw in the theory are valued only as objects for human use or
proclaimed by Taylor? enjoyment.
a) He intentionally avoids the core of environmental b) The use of domesticated laboratory animals in
ethics. medical experiments should be restricted.
b) The theory is based only on the interests of c) Inanimate objects have the same rights as living
animals. organisms.
c) The theory debunks the reality that humans are d) Humans would likely become extinct very
morally superior. quickly without the support of many life forms.
d) The theory contradicts Taylor’s claim that
humans are members of earth’s community. Questions 25 to 30:
There’s no denying that Section 498A was enacted with
21. Which one of the following conforms to the logic of
the commendable aim of cracking down on dowry deaths
speicism?
and cruelty against women in their matrimonial homes.
a) A goat is left to stray on its own. However, by making provisions of the law too stringent, the
b) The goat is given fruits rather than meat and pendulum has swung too far in the other direction whereby
fish. the innocent can be victimised. Several women’s rights
groups have also acknowledged the draconian nature of the
c) Rajesh rejects consumption of fruits and
stipulation that allows for automatic arrests.
vegetables but accepts the consumption of
chickens and meat.

SimCLAT 2020 7

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Against this backdrop, it is welcome that the Supreme c) impatient yet unambiguous
Court has directed the police to first satisfy themselves of d) authoritative yet sagacious
the necessity for arrest under Section 41 of the Criminal
Procedure Code before making arrests in anti-dowry 29. Which of the following most clearly means
cases. Further, the magistrate too would have to record its ‘draconian’?
satisfaction before authorising detention of the accused. In a) relentless b) impulsive
this regard, there is an urgent need to review our approach
towards gender crime laws in general. c) prolonged d) unobjectionable

Hitherto the dominant thinking has been to ramp up the 30. Which of the following can be inferred from the
quantum of punishment or stringency of prosecution or even passage?
to reverse the basic assumption of Indian jurisprudence that a) The Supreme Court has honoured women by
one is innocent until proven guilty, in order to serve as a cracking down on dowry deaths and cruelty
deterrent against gender crimes. This approach does little against women.
to protect genuine victims . Nuanced laws that recognise
the degree of offence and recommend commensurate b) Justice delayed is justice denied.
punishment along with their consistent enforcement are the c) The anti-dowry law was being used as a weapon
only way to boost genuine reporting of gender crimes . rather than a protective shield.
d) Gender crimes can only dwindle when the
25. Which of the following is true of the passage? Supreme Court and the police work hand in
a) The apex court took a stern decision to scrap glove.
Section 498A.
b) Some charges are brought with the mala fide SECTION - II
intention of harassing. (Logical Reasoning)
c) Arbitrary arrests of people have caused the apex
court to involve the lower courts in the matter of Directions for questions 31 to 50: Each set of questions
deciding Section 498A . in this section is based on the reasoning and arguments
d) To ensure justice, defining the level of set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each
prosecution should be made mandatory. question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the
corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information
26. The primary concern of the author is : or facts other than the ones supplied to you. In some
a) to implement a revised act that ensures the instances, more than one option may be the answer to
stringent punishment for the guilty. the question; in such a case, please choose the option
b) to safeguard to prevent misuse of anti-dowry law. that most accurately and comprehensively answers the
question.
c) to redefine the term ‘guilty’ and change the
adage ‘one is innocent until proven guilty’. Questions 31 to 35:
d) the upsurge of crimes against women. I didn’t need genetic testing to tell me I’d get cancer. Given
my family history (three aunts with breast cancer, cousin
27. The reason for the Supreme Court seeking the
Becky with thyroid, cousin Chris – who never smoked –
police’s intervention is:
with lung), I’ve long felt that it wasn’t so much a matter
a) the anticipation of an uprising, if failed to of “if,” but of “when.” Still, last year, when I noticed that
deliver justice. a mole on my knee suddenly seemed darker than usual, my
b) the apprehension that people may go against “matter-of-fact” attitude faded, and I went into denial mode.
Section 498A.
“Whatever it is, it’s not serious,” I told myself. “It’s always
c) Section 498A is susceptible to misuse. looked that way.” And when I could no longer ignore the
d) ensuring an authenticated check on the voice in my head – the one that knew better – I procrastinated
background of the accused. for a few more weeks with the tried-and-true excuse of “I
just don’t have time for this right now.”
28. The attitude of the Supreme Court is:
As someone who writes about health for a living, I know
a) hesitant yet balanced just how quickly a person’s health status can change
b) intrepid yet judgmental when they stubbornly refuse to seek help. Yet there I was,

8 SimCLAT 2020

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willfully ignoring a symptom that I would have told anyone d) It is easy for people who have high earnings
else to get checked out, immediately. When I finally did see to see doctors, I will manage through self-
my family doctor for something unrelated, I tacked it on as examination.
a “By the way,” to the end of the appointment. Sure enough,
it was melanoma. 33. If the statements in the given passage are true, then
which of the following would also be true?
Ignoring symptoms of a disease with a high mortality rate is
a) Doctors must find a way to help patients being
a surprisingly common phenomenon, says Dr. Kim Lavoie,
calm and evade any warning signs of health
co-director of the Montreal Behavioural Medicine Centre
risks.
and a psychology professor at the University of Quebec at
Montreal. “People will cognitively avoid things they don’t b) Doctors must find a way to help patients
want to be real; it’s a natural defence mechanism,” she says. acknowledge a serious illness.
Studies have shown the different ways it manifests – from c) Doctors must find a way to help patients manage
using humour, to outright refusal to acknowledge that an their medical insurance so they have a hassle
illness might exist. free health care experience.
“Many people delay seeing their doctors, and won’t d) All of the above
even tell their spouses,” Dr. Lavoie says. And when they
finally make an appointment, they tend to minimize their 34. Which of the following must follow the concluding
symptoms. “Patients will lead the discussion in a certain paragraph of the passage?
way, so that the doctor will be more likely to reassure a) Dr. Whitaker says many people are afraid to
them,” she says, which means that doctors often don’t get even book an appointment because they’re
a true history and may make important decisions based on worried about what a doctor might find.
inaccurate information. Denying that something is amiss,
b) Men and women have different reasons for going
Lavoie says, leads to delayed diagnosis and treatment, and
to the doctor. Men go to prove their strength is
poorer outcomes. So why do otherwise rational people take
untouchable and women go to calm their nerves.
an “if I don’t see it, it isn’t there” approach to symptoms
that can have a devastating effect on their health? c) Past studies have shown that people who live
in poorer communities are more likely to be
31. Which of the following situations is similar in diagnosed late.
nature to the one the author describes? d) When you see a patient like that, you think,
I. People will say ‘I’ll deal with it once X or Y is ‘How could you possibly have thought this
done, then I’ll be in a better place to take some didn’t need to be dealt with?’
time to look after it.
35. Which of the following, if true, most weakens the
II. A study published in the British Journal of author’s arguments in the given passage?
General Practice in 2015 found that almost half
of tuberculosis patients realize and act upon a) In 2015, a study in the Annals of Internal
early warning signs such as a persistent cough Medicine found that only one in five people
or an unexplained lump. who have heart attack warning symptoms call
for help.
a) Only I b) Only II
b) Dr. Simpson recalls a patient with heart failure
c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II who gained 50 pounds before she finally
ventured into the hospital with huge, fluid-laden
32. Which of the following, based on the author’s
legs.
arguments, would be the best approach for people
to take ? c) We’ve discovered that people are reluctant
to even mention the word ‘cancer’ in their
a) If you are busy use your busyness as a reason for
responses to us, almost as though if you mention
not seeking help.
it, you’re doomed.
b) I eat right, I exercise, I’m in good shape, there
d) In 2014, a study in the Indian Journal of
can be nothing wrong with me.
Healthcare found that visiting a doctor for
c) If I have a concern and I cannot figure out what routine checks is surprisingly common among
to do, I better seek professional care. old adults.

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Questions 36 to 40: d) In prison, many seek redemption for their


The full body tattoos, obnoxious screaming, and violent mistakes and consciously work to become better
conflict resolution were foreign to me as a nerdy, upper- men.
middle class kid with thin wire-frame glasses. Keeping my 38. Which of the following behaviors is unlike that of
head down and ears open was the only thing I could do to the author?
prevent myself from getting caught in the wrong situation.
a) I let go of my attachments and managed to enjoy
From age 17 to 20, I stole historical documents and sold the simple joys of prison life.
them to fund my college education abroad. In an ill-fated
b) In prison, the mind spirals downward out of
attempt to follow a woman, my insecurities led me to a
control until worst-possible scenarios become
prison cell. I was arrested and spent three-and-a-half years
tense, anxiety-ridden realities.
free until my conviction. My six months in the Texas state
penitentiary taught me much about living righteously. c) It is easy to tell when an inmate had let go. His
Minding my own business left me ample time for reflection. face would be calm, breath full and smiles or
Lessons I learned from prison have changed my perception laughter were always close by.
on life and what it means to be a successful entrepreneur. d) In prison, it feels like there’s nothing to do but
It’s impossible to control things from prison. The guards dwell on the things you could have or should
controlled the daily schedule, the food I ate, everything have done.
down to the people with whom I associated. Even gangsters,
39. Which of the following can be assumed from the
who felt powerful, still had to wait in line for egregious-
passage?
tasting prison food.
a) Your socio-economic status decides your
Power and control are illusions that prison made evident. criminal activity.
Likewise in life, and especially in entrepreneurship, there
b) Abusive parents and bad genetics will produce
are few things in our control. We can’t control competitors,
adult criminals.
market forces, or the economy, but all of those things can
ruin a business. c) People in prison aren’t totally evil.
I am far more successful when I relinquish control in my d) Life is about surviving not thriving.
business. When I launched my recent ecommerce store, I
40. Which of the following best concludes the passage?
tried to control an affiliate’s ad-copy. It failed miserably
and I realized I had to let him try his own way. My desire a) Make the best out of every situation, no matter
for control is usually driven by insecurities. When I am how negative.
too afraid to let go or detach myself from something, I b) Blatantly take advantage of your experiences in
invariably try so hard to make it work to my advantage that prison.
I precipitate the very event I’m trying to avoid.
c) Not everyone is capable of giving and receiving
goodness.
36. Which of the following best represents the main
point of the given passage? d) What enriches our life is a relationship with
another in the presence of compassion.
a) Let go of control
b) Remember your actions have consequences Questions 41 to 45:
c) Self-acceptance is the key to confidence Your children are not your children.
d) We should be vulnerable and emotionally open They are the sons and daughters of Life’s longing for itself.
37. Which of the following can be inferred from the They come through you but not from you,
author’s description of his experience? And though they are with you yet they belong not to you.
a) Asking for help makes you feel diminished and You may give them your love but not your thoughts,
vulnerable.
For they have their own thoughts.
b) Each individual is doing the best that they can
You may house their bodies but not their souls,
with what they have been given.
c) Laziness and egotistical thinking prevent For their souls dwell in the house of tomorrow,
productive decisions. which you cannot visit, not even in your dreams.

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You may strive to be like them, b) I want my son to study economics in college.
but seek not to make them like you. c) I will let my son play the guitar if he reads his
books.
For life goes not backward nor tarries with yesterday.
d) I will parent my child the way my parents
You are the bows from which your children
parented me.
as living arrows are sent forth.
45. Which of the following can we infer from the given
The archer sees the mark upon the path of the infinite,
passage?
and He bends you with His might
a) Parents will be with their children forever.
that His arrows may go swift and far.
b) Parents and children are loved by the Divine.
Let your bending in the archer’s hand be for gladness; c) When parents dream children get stability.
For even as He loves the arrow that flies, d) The human race is connected by destiny.
so He also loves the bow that is stable.
Questions 46 to 50:
41. Why does the poet say that “your children are not
As the world faces a global pandemic, there are millions of
your children”?
people we all should be thanking the doctors, nurses, and
a) Because the poet is a child other medical personnel who are on the front line of the war
b) Because the poet wants to end slavery against Coronavirus COVID-19.
c) Because the poet sees children as independent While many of us are trying to figure out how to stay away
d) Because the poet wants to highlight the social from people as much as possible to avoid illness, these
evil of child sexual abuse folks are gearing up for battle and running into the fire.
People who work in clinics, hospitals, and care facilities are
42. If the statements in the given passage are true, then the courageous heroes of this worldwide story, knowingly
which of the following would also be true? putting themselves at risk to save lives.
a) One should not take parenting opinions from In China, it was a young physician an opthamologist named
someone who doesn’t have kids of their own. Li Wenliang who first sounded the alarm in Wuhan about
b) If there’s one thing that’s hard to find as a parent, the virus. He was also among the first wave of people to die
it’s level-headed detachment. from it. Liu Zhiming, a neurosurgeon who was the director
of Wuhan’s Wuchang Hospital and who led its coronavirus
c) It is a parent’s duty to constantly teach and response, also succumbed to the virus. Doctors there have
protect his/her child. worked tirelessly to treat an outbreak of an illness that
d) It is the moral responsibility of every human to none of them had seen before, some dying of fatigue and
bring more humans into the world so that human exhaustion as well as the infection.
legacy continues.
Doctors in current outbreak epicenters, such as northern
43. Which of the following does not weaken the Italy, are working round the clock as hospitals are
conclusions made in the passage? overwhelmed with critically ill patients. In some places,
they are having to choose which patients they will treat with
a) Children are the reflection of their parents.
the equipment they have, and which will be left to perish a
b) We have a moral obligation to teach children horrifying position to be put in, but reality when there are
right from wrong. more patients than hospital apparatus.
c) Children are born to fulfil the dreams of their Nurses, who rarely get the recognition they should for
families. the vital work they do already, are also making sacrifices
d) We can’t imagine what potential lies within our above and beyond the call of duty. A nurse named Alessia
children. Bonari from Tuscany, Italy shared a selfie on Instagram
that illustrated what doctors and nurses are going through
44. Which of the following situations is similar in in a country where more than 10,000 people have been
nature to the one the author wants? diagnosed and more than 800 have died of the virus.
a) I will make mistakes as a parent and learn along
the way.

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46. Which of the following best represents the main d) Disasters in one part of the world affect the
point of the given passage? economies of all the countries and affects global
a) We owe a huge thank you to the heroes on the development.
frontline of the coronavirus pandemic. 50. Which of the following is an assumption, on which
b) It is the duty of medical and health professionals the arguments in the passage are based?
to put all personal work aside and focus on a) There are few highly qualified doctors in the
eradicating health hazards. world.
c) When we are struck by global health calamities b) The coronavirus is highly contagious.
we prioritize our own needs above those of
others’. c) Coronavirus deaths among the nursing
community are being ignored.
d) No education teaches us to socially and
emotionally distance ourselves from people d) Symptoms of coronavirus include breathlessness
who need attention and care. and high fever.

47. Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the 51. The 2019 World Happiness Report ranked 156
author’s arguments in the given passage? countries and for the second consecutive year
has given Finland the top spot based on factors
a) Doctors in Italy are afraid because the mask used including generosity, life expectancy and freedom.
to protect them might not stick properly to the The country has also been previously ranked among
face causing vulnerability to the coronavirus. the countries with the highest quality of life by the
b) Iran has announced that the country will Legatum Institute’s Prosperity Index and among the
designate medical staff who have died from most peaceful countries in the world by the Global
COVID-19 as “martyrs,” giving them the same Peace Index.
honor as slain soldiers. Which of the following statements strengthen the
c) The World Health organization states that the argument made in the passage?
best formula for coping with a disaster is to a) Europe’s last naturally caused famine occurred
combine technical expertise with community 150 years ago, making it the safest continent to
knowledge. live in.
d) None of the above b) Finland’s inhabitants are the third most gender-
48. Which of the following, if true, most weakens the equal in the world and have the fifth lowest
author’s arguments in the given passage? income inequality.
A. Doctors are psychologically tired with constant c) In the past, in a poor and backward part of the
caregiving and no rest but they continue to serve Russian empire called Finland, more than a
the patients. quarter of a million people – nearly 10% of the
population – starved to death.
B. Doctors are psychologically tired with the
increasing number of patients leading to glitches d) Since independence, nearly 30% of Finland’s
in accuracy of diagnosis and treatment. heads of state and government have been
school dropouts, including half its early prime
a) only A b) only b ministers.
c) both a and b d) neither a nor b
52. A small 1982 study by the psychologist Graham
49. Why does the author say that the coronavirus is a Tyson found that “people who consult astrologers”
“global pandemic”? did so in response to stressors in their lives
a) Doctors from all over the world have come particularly stress “linked to the individual’s social
together to find a cure for the virus. roles and to his or her relationships,” Tyson wrote.
“Under conditions of high stress, the individual is
b) During disasters humanitarianism is required prepared to use astrology as a coping device even
to show solidarity towards people who are though under low-stress conditions he does not
affected. believe in it.”
c) The said disaster is affecting people around Which of these strengthens the argument made in
the world and is not pertaining to a particular the passage?
geography.

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a)
According to American Psychological 56. If L is 7 m East of R and J is 5 m South of L, then
Association survey data, since 2014, Millennials what is the distance between L and S?
have been the most stressed generation a) 6 m b) 10 m c) 17 m d) 5 m
b) Astrologers are always trying to confuse people
about giant concepts related to relationships, 57. In which direction is N with respect to Q?
success and happiness into digestible pieces of a) North-West b) East
knowledge.
c) North-East d) South-West
c) Astrology offers those in crisis the comfort of
imagining a better future, a reminder that “This 58. Hiten walks 2 m towards North from point P, takes
too shall pass.” a right turn and walks for 8 m. How far will he be
d) Humans are narrative creatures, constantly from point Q?
explaining their lives and selves by weaving a) 15 m b) 7 m c) 17 m d) 8m
together the past, present, and future (in the
form of goals and expectations). Directions for questions 59 and 60: Read the information
provided and answer the questions that follow.
Directions for questions 53 to 55: Read the information
provided and answer the questions that follow. 59. How many persons are standing between L and K in
Ramesh, Kailash, Avinash and Jagan are good friends a straight line of 19 persons?
studying in a school. Three of them stay away from the
Note: All are standing in a straight line, facing north
school and one stays nearer to it. Two study in class IV, one
in class V and one in class VI. They study Hindi, Maths, I. Y stands on the extreme left end of the line.
Social Science and Science. Only five persons stand between Y and K. Only
One of these four friends is good in all the four subjects six persons stand between K and R. Only four
while another is weak in all the four subjects. Ramesh stays persons stand between R and L.
away from the school and is good in Maths only while II. J stands exactly in the middle of the line. Only
Kailash is weak in Maths only and stays close to the school. two persons stand between I and J. Only five
Neither of the two study in class V or VI. One who is good persons stand between I and L. I stands to the
in all the subjects is studying in class V. Avinash is not left of L. K stands third to the left of J.
studying in class VI.
a) The data even in both Statements I and II
53. Name the boy who is good in all the subjects. together are not sufficient to answer the question
a) Kailash b) Jagan b) The data in both Statements I and II together are
c) Avinash d) Ramesh necessary to answer, the question
54. Name the boy who is weak in all the subjects. c) The data in Statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question while the data in Statement
a) Ramesh b) Kailash
I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
c) Jagan c) Avinash
d) The data in Statement I alone are sufficient to
55. Which two boys are good in Mathematics? answer the question while the data in Statement
II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
a) Jagan and Kailash
b) Kailash and Avinash 60. Among six persons A, B, C, D, E and F standing
c) Ramesh and Avinash around a circle, some of them are facing the centre
while others are facing outside i.e. opposite to the
d) Ramesh and Jagan
centre. What is the position of A with respect to E?
Directions for questions 56 to 58: Read the information Note: Facing the same direction means, if one is
provided and answer the questions that follow. facing the centre, then the other is also facing the
S is 11 m East of N. S is 8 m North of P. P is 4 m West of centre and vice-versa. Facing the opposite directions
O. Point O is the mid-point of points P and R, such that P, O means, if one is facing the centre, then the other is
and R form a straight line. Q is 13 m South of R. facing outside and vice-versa.

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I. C stands second to right of E. E faces outside. C a) 15.3kmph b) 21.4kmph


is an immediate neighbour of both D and B. F c) 27.7kmph d) 32.5kmph
stands second to the left of D. D faces the same
direction as E. 64. What is the average speed for the entire journey for
II. Only two persons stand between B and E. Both B Praveen?
and E face outside. E is an immediate neighbour a) 45kmph b) 60kmph
of both D and F. B is an immediate neighbour of c) 67.5kmph d) 75kmph
both C and A. A is not an immediate neighbour
of D. Directions for questions 65 to 68: Read the information
a) The data in both Statements I and II together are provided and answer the questions that follow.
necessary to answer the question
There are five friends who share marbles among themselves
b) The data in Statement II alone are sufficient to
in a way that Ravi had twice as many marbles as Geeta,
answer the question while the data in Statement
Mansi had 50% more marbles than Jackson. Geeta had
I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
one-third as many marbles as Vijay. Mansi had 25% fewer
c) The data even in both Statement I and II together marbles than Ravi.
are not sufficient to answer the question
d) The data in Statement I alone are sufficient to 65. Who among the following had an equal number of
answer the question while the data in stament II marbles?
alone are not sufficient to answer the question. a) Ravi & Geeta b) Geeta & Jackson
c) Vijay & Mansi d) Mansi & Jackson
SECTION - III
66. Who among the following had half the number of
(Quantitative Techniques)
marbles compared to Vijay?
a) Geeta
Directions for questions 61 to 64: Read the information
provided and answer the questions that follow. b) Jackson
c) Both Geeta & Jackson
Praveen, who is interested in numismatics, came across
some old coins 200 km away from his home, in an old town d) Mansi
and drove at a speed double that of his regular speed with
67. If Vijay had 30 Marbles, then how many more
which he drove backwards to his home after collecting
marbles did Mansi have compared to Geeta?
them. He then travelled to the archaeological department
office, 15 km from his home, and reached in 20 min. After a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 20
45 min, he travelled to Govt. Information office located at
68. If Ravi distributed half of his marbles equally to
30 km away from the archaeological office, with his regular
Geeta and Jackson, then what is the ratio of the
speed and had a meeting there for 30 min. He drove back to
number of marbles that Vijay had to that of Ravi?
his home after meeting on the same route.
a) 1:3 b) 3:1 c) 2:3 d) 3:2
61. In how many hours did Praveen reach the old city
from his home while collecting the coins? Directions for questions 69 to 72: Read the information
a) 1.1 hours b) 2.2 hours provided and answer the questions that follow.

c) 3.3 hours d) 4.4 hours Ambika, bought three types of the precious stones- emerald,
jade and topaz, totalling 27 and costing totally Rs.60,000.
62. How long did it take to reach the Government The prices of which being Rs.1500, Rs.2000 and Rs.2500
information office from the archaeological in that order. He has bought more than 3 stones of each
department? variety and he has not bought the same number of stones of
a) 30minutes b) 35minutes any two varieties.
c) 20minutes d) 40minutes
69. How many Emeralds and Jades together can
63. What is the average speed of his entire journey from Ambika buy?
home to Government information office & return a)
10 b)
15 c)
20 d)
23
including the time he spent in between?

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70. Which precious stone was bought in the maximum number?


a) Emerald b) Jade c) Topaz d) Cannot be determined

71. How many Topaz stones can Ambika buy?


a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25

72. In how many different ways Ambika can purchase the precious stones with the given information?
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

Directions for questions 73 to 75: Study the Line graph provided and answer the questions that follow.

The vertical number scale on the left side of the graph applies to both data sets, but for Average Temperature the units are
°F and for Electric Energy Cost the units are Rupees. For example, in January the average temperature was between 30°F
and 40°F and the electric energy cost was about Rs.70 per unit.

150
150 145

120
100

90
75
70 85 85
65 65 80 65
75
60 55 70
60

50 50 50
30
35
30
25

0
Jan Feb Mar April May June Jul Aug Sep Oct Nov Dec

Average temperature (F) Electric energy cost (Rs)

73. Electric energy cost changed least between which two consecutive months?
a) July and August b) January and February
c) March and April d) April and May

74. Approximately what was the average electric energy cost per month in the first half of the year?
a) Rs.45 b) Rs.50 c) Rs.60 d) Rs.75

75. In which month was the electric energy cost per °F of average temperature least?
a) April b) May c) October d) November

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SECTION - IV 79. This year Abhijeet Banerjee and Esther Dufflo


became the 6th Couple to receive Nobel Prize. Who
(Current Affairs, including General Knowledge)
was the first Couple to receive Nobel Prize, that too
in Physics?
Directions for questions 76 to 81: Read the following
a) Irene Curie and Frederic Joliot
passage and answer the questions given below.
b) Gerty and Carl Cori
A Canadian American cosmologist and two Swiss scientists
c) Marie and Pierre Curie
won this year's Nobel Prize in Physics on Tuesday for [I]
and [J], with implications for that nagging question: Does d) May-Britt and Edward Moser.
life exist only on earth Canadian born [K], 84, an emeritus
80. How many Indians have received Nobel Prize so
professor at Princeton University, won for his theoretical
far?
discoveries in cosmology. Swiss stargazers [L] 77, and [M]
53, both of the University of Geneva, were honored for their a)
9 b)
6 c)
8 d)
5
finding. “This year's Nobel laureates in physics have painted
a picture of the universe far stranger and more wonderful 81. In which year was the Nobel prize introduced in the
than we ever could have imagined,” said Ulf Danielsson of first five categories?
the [N] which selected the laureates. “Our view of our place a)
1901 b)
1913 c)
1895 d)
1887
in the universe will never be the same again.”[K], hailed as
one of the most influential cosmologists of his time, who Directions for questions 82 to 86: Read the following
realized the importance of the cosmic radiation background passage and answer the questions given below.
born of the Big Bang, will collect one half of The 9 million
kronor ($918,000) cash award The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has given a “last
opportunity” to the Union Environment Ministry to issue
- Source: www.post-gazette.com notifications pertaining to prohibition on the use of [X]
systems, which result in wastage of almost 80% of water.
76. Point out the contribution made by the Nobel The NGT was referring to an order passed by it in May 2019
laureates marked as [I] and [J] in the passage. where it had directed that “Wherever [X] is to be permitted,
a) For the groundbreaking inventions in the field of condition of recovery of water to the extent of more than
laser physics. 60% is required”.A Bench headed by NGT Chairperson
[Y] warned of action against concerned officials if the
b) For exploring the evolution of the Universe and
order is not complied with by December 31.“During the
discovery of a new kind of Planet, Exoplanet.
hearing, the officials have not shown any valid reason for
c) For decisive contributions to the LIGO detector non compliance...Delay in compliance of order is causing
and the observation of Gravitational waves. harm to public health and environment in terms of an expert
d) For the invention of efficient bluelight - emitting committee report to which the (environment ministry) is a
diodes which has enabled bright and energy- party,” the Bench observed. The Bench said that in case of
saving white light sources non compliance of orders the concerned officials will not
be entitled to draw salaries from January 2020.“Further
77. Match the names of the laureates correctly, marked provision must be laid down for recovery of water upto
as [K], [L], [M] in the passage. 75% and use of such [X] reject water for purposes such as
a) James Pebbles, Michel Mayor, Didier Queloz. utensil washing, flushing, gardening, cleaning of vehicles
and mopping,”the bench had held, based on are port
b) Michel Mayor, Didier Queloz, James Pebbles.
furnished by an NGT appointed committee
c) John Goodenough, Didier Queloz, James
Pebbles. - Source: The Hindu
d) Michel Mayor, John Goodenough, Peter J 82. In the above passage, what is [X] that NGT has
Ratlciffe. issued notification pertaining to its use?
78. [N] represents _______. a) Water Conservation
a) The Nobel Assembly at Karolinska Institute. b) Reverse Osmosis
b) The Norwegian Nobel Committee. c) Water Harvesting
c) The Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences d) Ground Water System
d) The Swedish Academy.

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83. Who is NGT chairperson, addressed as [Y] in the judicial independence.“The office of the CJI has put itself
passage? under scrutiny,” Ms. Bhardwaj said.“In practical terms,this
a) Js. Swatanter Kumar means that citizens can file RTI applications to the SC,and
the CPIO of the court cannot deny information saying it is
b) Js. UD Salvi held by the CJI’s office and not the registry,” she added
c) Js. Kuldeep Singh
- Source: www.news18.com
d) Js. Adarsh Kumar Goel
87. In which of the following recent landmark judgment
84. NGT was established in _______. did the Supreme Court hold the office of the Chief
a) 2005 b) 2008 c) 2010 d) 2013 Justice of India as a public authority under the RTI
Act?
85. Who is currently holding the portfolio of Ministry
of Environment, Forest and Climate Change? a) Joseph Shine v.Chief Information Commissioner

a) Babul Supriyo b) Prakash Javadekar b) Subhash Chandra Agrawal v. Supreme Court of


India
c) Dr.Harsh Vardhan d) JP Nadda
c) ML Sharma v.Union of India
86. The Principal Bench of NGT is in New Delhi. d) Snehil Tripathi v Supreme Court of India
Where is the zonal Bench of NGT not located?
a) Kolkata b) Chennai 88. Who was the first Chief Information Commissioner
in India?
c) Bhopal d) Mumbai
a) Deepak Sandhu b) Anwara Taimur
Directions for questions 87 to 90: Read the following c) Wajahat Habibullah d) Pankaj Bhadauria
passage and answer the questions given below.
89. When did the Right to Information Act come into
Right to Information activists on Wednesday welcomed force?
the Supreme Court verdict declaring the office of the Chief a)
2008 b)
2005 c)
2002 d)
2000
Justice of India as a public authority under the RTI Act.
They said the apex court’s decision would now serve as a 90. Which state was the first state in India to have
precedent to help usher in more transparency, especially passed a law on the Right to Information, as early as
on the part of institutions that had hitherto been reluctant 1997, before a central RTI Act was put in place?
to comply with the act.“It’s a Landmark judgment which a) Rajasthan b) Gujarat
I welcome whole heartedly and which will prove to be a
milestone in the journey to transparency,” said [X], the c) Tamil Nadu d) Kerala
RTI activist, who was the petitioner in the case. “The SC
has Dismissed the appeal of its own CPIO [Chief Public Directions for questions 91 to 95: Read the following
Information Officer] and brought the office of the CJI passage and answer the questions given below.
under the Act,” he added. The entire case stems from Mr. The Chairman of Lokpal Justice (retired) [X] on Tuesday
[X]’s original RTI application seeking information on the launched the new logo for the apex anti corruption
complete correspondence between the collegium and the ombudsman. A new motto, ‘Ma Gridhah Kasyasvidhanam’,
government on certain judicial appointments, as well as the was also adopted. Lokpal members and its functionaries
correspondence between a Madras High Court judge and were present on the occasion. Earlier,an open competition
the CJI regarding allegations of corruption. He said that the was conducted, inviting entries for the logo and the motto.
judgment had far reaching implications and sets an example A total of 2,236 entries for the logo and 4,705 entries for
for other bodies which resist transparency. The most well- the motto were received. A logo designed by [Y], a resident
known hold outs are political parties, but a number of of Prayagraj in Uttar Pradesh, was finally selected.“The
schools, trusts and public private partnerships have also logo symbolises how Lokpal protects and cares for the
resisted categorization as ‘public authorities’ under the Act. people of India by establishing justice as per law,” said
Anjali Bhardwaj, co-convenor of the National Campaign for an official release.“The logo figuratively symbolises the
People’s Right to Information said that the most significant essence of Lokpal, with the Inclusion of shapes such as
aspect of the judgment was the court’s acknowledgment the ombudsman [Judges’ Bench], the people [three human
that “transparency and accountability go hand in hand, figures], vigilance [an Ashoka Chakra forming an eye],
and that transparency need not lead to any compromise in the law [a shape of a book] and the judiciary [two tricolor

SimCLAT 2020 17

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hands placed below, forming a unique balance],”it said. For upward journey for the country in a rank list that is an
the motto, none of suggestions made were found suitable. important input in the plans of global investors. The latest
“The Lokpal has decided its motto/slogan based on their improvement has come on the back of the implementation
own inputs and discussions held on October17, 2019,”said of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC). India’s rank
the body,adding that the bench unanimously decided the has improved from 108 to 52 in the “resolving insolvency”
motto. The Lokpal became functional after the appointment category with the overall recovery rate for lenders moving
of its Chairman and members in March up from 26.5% to 71.6% to the dollar according to [L].
This is despite the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC)
- Source: Economic Times
process being bogged down in courts as interested parties
91. Name the first ‘Lokpal of India’ designated as [X] in attempt to delay eventual resolution that may work against
the given passage. their interests. The reforms in trade procedures and paper
work as a result of India signing the Trade Facilitation
a) J. HL Dattu Agreement at the WTO are beginning to show. The
b) J. B S Chauhan country’s ranking in the “Trading across borders” category
c) J. Pinaki Chandra Ghose jumped 12 places from 80 to 68 signifying the abatement of
paper work in favour of electronic filing of documents and
d) J. Patanjali Shastri single window customs procedures. Interestingly, there has
92. The motto ‘Ma Gridhah Kasyasvidhanam’, adopted been improvement in a parameter that most industrialists
by the apex anti-corruption body, translates to would consider as a problem even now: “Dealing with
_______ in English. construction permits”. The country’s ranking has improved
by 25 places from 52 to 27.
a) Do not be greedy for anyone’s wealth
- Source - The Hindu
b) Impartiality and Integrity
c) Where there is dharma there is victory 96. What is India’s rank in the Ease of Doing Business
d) Wide awake day and night 2020 Report denoted as [K] In the excerpt?
a)
72 b)
83 c)
56 d)
63
93. Who has been credited for designing the new logo?
a) Kapil Dubey b) Vivek Prasad 97. The Ease of Doing Business 2020 Report is
published by [L]
c) Prashant Mishra d) Pratibha Ranjan
a) World Economic Forum
94. Which legislation provides for the establishment of b) Welthungerhilfe and concern worldwide.
the institution of Lokpal?
c) IMF
a) The Prevention of Corruption Act
d) World Bank
b) Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act
c) The Prevention of Money Laundering Act 98. Which country topped the ease of doing business
index 2020?
d) The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act
a) Germany b) Switzerland
95. The Act referred in the above question was c) New Zealand d) Denmark
introduced in Parliament in 2011 after the massive
protest from social activist ________. 99. When did the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code
a) Arvind Kejriwal b) Anna Hazare (IBC) come into existence in India?
c) Prashant Bhushan d) Manohar Lal Sharma a)
2018 b)
2016 c)
2019 d)
2015

100. When did India sign the Trade Facilitation


Directions for questions 96 to 102: Read the following
agreement at the WTO?
passage and answer the questions given below.
a)
2015 b)
2018 c)
2016 d)
2014
For an economy starved of good news, the news of arise
in India’s ranking by 14 places to [K] in the [L]’s Ease of 101. Which entity is responsible for the implementation
Doing Business 2020 survey is a positive development. of IBC?
India also figures in the top ten most improved countries a) FIPB
in the world for the third consecutive year. From being
b) IBBI
ranked 142 in 2014 to [K] in 2020, it has been a significant

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c) RBI 105. What is [C] in the passage?


d) Ministry of Commerce & Industry a) Environment (Protection) Act,1986.

102. In India’s federal set up, _______ have a big say b) The Hazardous Wastes (Management, Handling
in several parameters that go into Ease of Doing and Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2008.
Business ranking such as securing building permits, c) The Plastic Waste (Management and Handling)
land approvals, electricity connections, registering Rules, 2011
assets. d) Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016
a) Co-operative & scheduled banks
106. Which of the following does not come under the
b) Private lenders conventional definition of e-waste?
c) Industrialists a) Cell phones b) Printed circuit boards
d) States c) LED lamps d) Furniture
Directions for questions 103 to 106: Read the following Directions for questions 107 to 112: Read the following
passage and answer the questions given below. passage and answer the questions given below.
The [A] and the [B] have joined hands to set up the Less than a week after his election win, Sri Lanka’s
country’s first e-waste clinic, that would enable segregation, president [X] swore in former president [Y], as prime
processing and disposal of waste from both household minister on thursday. Mr. [Y], 74, who quit following his
and commercial units. After inspecting the garbage and party candidate Sajith Premadasa’s poll defeat despite
plastic Recovery centres in a local catchment, [B] officials having a parliamentary majority. Mr. [Y] will be the
discussed the clinic with [A] officials. premier in a caretaker government until general elections
A three month pilot project, the clinic, if successful, would due in 2020. Mr. [X], 70, won the November 16 presidential
be replicated elsewhere in the country. “Electronic waste election with a clear majority. The former military man
will be collected door-to-door or could be deposited turned bureaucrat’s ascent to the country’s most powerful
directly at the clinic in exchange for a fee. The [B] will office marked the return of the [X] to the helm, five years
provide technical support at the unit,” said the additional after Mr. [Y] was defeated in the 2015 presidential election.
commissioner. At present, there was no estimate of the However, as the seventh Executive President of Sri Lanka,
quantity of electronic waste generated in the city, he Mr. [X] will have to share power with the Prime Minister,
added.“Hazardous waste will be sent to Bengaluru for due to a 2015 legislation, the 19th Amendment, that clipped
recycling,” he said. Door to door collection will happen presidential powers and empowered parliament, effectively
in two ways.Either separate carts for the collection of creating two power centres
e-waste will be designed, or separate bins will be attached - Source: Livemint
to existing ones meant for solid and wet waste. The clinic is
being conceived in compliance with the [C] 107. Identify [X] in the above passage
- Source: The Hindu a) Maithripala Sirisena
b) Gotabaya Rajapaksa
103. Name the entity that has been talked about as [A] in
the above passage c) Sirimavo Bandarnaike
a) Varanasi Municipal Corporation. d) Ranil Wickremesinghe
b) Bhopal Municipal Corporation 108. Identify [Y] in the above passage
c) Raipur Municipal Corporation a) Ranil Wickremesinghe
d) Chennai MunicipalCorporation b) JR Jayewardene
104. Name the body referred to as [B] above c) Mahinda Rajapaksa
a) State Pollution Control Board d) Maithripala Sirisena
b) Central Pollution Control Board 109. Which political party does Mr. [Y] represent?
c) National Green Tribunal, Principal Bench. a) Sri Lanka Podujana Peramuna
d) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate b) Sri Lanka Progressive Front
Change

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c) Sri Lanka Vanguard Party Force majeure provisions import the principle that upon
d) Sri Lanka Freedom Party the occurrence of an event or circumstance that is not
reasonably within the control of and would not have be1. en
110. In Prime Minister Election, whom did Mr. [Y] avoided or overcome by a party, which prevents or delays
succeed? that party from performing some or all of its contractual
a) Ranil Wickremesinghe obligations, that party will be relieved from liability which
might otherwise arise as a result of that party’s failure to
b) Sajith Premadasa perform those affected obligations.
c) Mahinda Rajapaksa
Force majeure provisions do not suspend the requirement
d) Maithripala Sirisena for performance and typically require the affected party
to continue to perform its obligations to the extent not
111. The new prime minister is popular with the _______ prevented by the event of force majeure. In some contracts,
majority for overseeing the end of a 26-year long after a period of prolonged event of force majeure, parties
civil war may be permitted to terminate the contract with moneys
a) Indian Tamil b) Sri Lankan Tamil being payable depending on the nature of the force majeure
c) Sinhalese d) Christian event.
The practical utility of force majeure contrasts with the
112. The Sri Lankan civil war ended in _______ with the
rigid common law doctrine of frustration, although they are
death of LTTE supremo Velupillai Prabhakaran.
similar in the sense that they both deal with occurrences
a) 2011 b) 2009 c) 2015 d) 2005 beyond the control of parties to an agreement.
Under the doctrine of frustration, where subsequent to
SECTION - V
the execution of a contract, the emergence of supervening
(Legal Reasoning)
circumstances beyond the control of the parties renders
further performance of the contract impossible or radically
Directions for questions 113 to 118: The questions in different from what had been contemplated in the contract,
this section are based on what is stated or implied in the the contract will be terminated and the parties will be
passage given below. For each question, choose the option discharged from the requirement of further performance.
that most accurately and completely answers the question.
The doctrine evolved as a means of mitigating the perceived
On 11 March, 2020, the World Health Organisation (WHO) harshness of the law’s requirement for strict compliance
classified the outbreak as a “pandemic”, which is considered with a promisor’s promises. Under Indian law, the doctrine
more severe than an “epidemic” because of its geographical of frustration is well-developed by judicial precedents.
spread. There is scarcely an area of economic activity that is
[Extracted from ‘The fallacy of forcing force majeure’.
untouched by the outbreak.
Published in LiveMint]
In India, certain industries have been especially affected by
the outbreak like the pharmaceutical industry. There is an 113. Which of the following elements is not a must for
apprehension that if the epidemic continues, manufacturing the force majeure clause as mentioned in the above
facilities of pharmaceutical companies in India, which is passage?
the world’s largest manufacturer of generic drugs, will be a) The event must not be reasonably within the
affected. India has announced restrictions on the export of control of a party.
twenty-six ingredients and the medicines made from them.
b) The event must directly prevents or delays
At the time of this article, it is not clear whether there exists that party from performing its contractual
in law valid grounds for affected parties to receive relief obligations.
from liability for delayed or failed performance of contracts c) Due to a delay because if such an event, the
in the aftermath of the outbreak of SARS-CoV-2. party will be relieved from liability.
The doctrine of force majeure is a creature of contractual d) Had the event, unable to be controlled by the
innovation. Its precise scope is agreed between the parties party not occurred, the party would still not have
in the terms of the underlying contract. Force majeure is attracted party’s failure to perform.
not a term of art and the contract will have to define with
care the parameters of the relief that will be afforded to the 114. During the recent spread of COVID-19, WHO
parties. recommended social distancing as the most

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effective method. As a result of which many c) The circumstance must be beyond the control of
offices and workplaces gave a work from home the parties
to its employees. In a law firm, BAZ & Partners, d) The circumstance shall render further
the decision of work from home was still under performance of the contract impossible or
consideration. Meanwhile, an employee of BAZ different from what was agreed.
& Partners stopped coming to office. On enquiry,
it was found out that it was due to the corona virus 118. As per the above passage, which of the following is
scare that she did not turn to office. However, she a result of the presence of the doctrine of frustration
also stopped replying to calls and emails from the in a contract between two or more parties?
office. BAZ & Partners revoked her contract. She I. The terms of contract can be changed as per the
challenged the revocation of the contract on the mutual agreement of both the parties considering
basis of the force majeure provision. Decide. the changed supervening circumstance.
a) The employee’s challenge will sustain as the II. The contract will be terminated and the parties
spread of corona virus is an event uncontrollable will be discharged from the requirement of
by the parties. further performance.
b) The employee’s challenge will sustain as the a) Only I b) Only II
spread of corona virus is not allowing her to
perform her contract. c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II
c) The employee’s challenge will not sustain as Directions for questions 119 to 124: The questions in
the spread of corona virus requires her to be at this section are based on what is stated or implied in the
home, but she can still continue to work. passage given below. For each question, choose the option
d) The employee’s challenge will not sustain as the that most accurately and completely answers the question.
decision of work from home for employees was
still under consideration. The Supreme Court of India's judgement in Shreya
Singhal v. Union of India is a unicorn in Indian free
115. Which of the following is mentioned as a similarity speech jurisprudence. It was the first and only time a
between a force majeure clause and the doctrine of speech restricting law was struck down as unconstitutional
frustration? instead of merely being read down. The fact that impugned
I. The practical utility of force majeure and the provision, Section 66A was a post-constitutional law which
doctrine of frustration are the same. was routinely used by the police sets it apart from other pre-
constitutional and rarely applied provisions like Section
II. Both the doctrine requires the happening of an
377, IPC and Section 497, IPC which were struck down
event which is beyond the control of the parties
later by the Supreme Court. The case involved challenges
to a contract.
to three key provisions under the Information Technology
a) Only I b) Only II Act, 2000 ('IT Act').
c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II The doctrine of void for vagueness had previously been
applied by the Supreme Court in a non-speech context in
116. Which statute governs the contracts between two
State of MP v. Baldeo Prasad where the Court struck
parties in India?
down provisions of the Goondas Act because it failed to
a) Indian Contracts Act, 1872 define who was a goonda, and in AK Roy v. Union of India
b) Uniform Commercial Code, 1872 where the Court struck down provisions of the National
Security Ordinance for failing to define essential supplies
c) Code of Civil Procedure, 1986
and services. However, in Shreya Singhal v. Union of India,
d) Contractual Liability Act, 1962 Justice Nariman took the argument to its logical conclusion
and struck down Section 66A for being too nebulous to
117. As per the above passage, which of the following
prescribe a clear standard of conduct for internet users, law
elements is not required to invoke the doctrine of
enforcement agencies and courts.
frustration in a contract?
a) There must be a supervening circumstance after The judgement is also significant insofar its discussion
the execution of a contract. on the breadth of people's fundamental right to free
speech and expression. It discusses how speech subsists
b) The circumstance must borne out of nature and across a spectrum. This spectrum spans (1) discussion;
not controlled by man.

SimCLAT 2020 21

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(2) advocacy; and (3) incitement. Justice Nariman said 120. The doctrine of void for vagueness had previously
that mere discussion or even advocacy no matter how been applied by the Supreme Court many
unpopular are key constituents of speech protected under judgements as mentioned in the above passage.
the Constitution. It is only when speech escalates to the Based on the said doctrine, which of the following
threshold of incitement is it prohibited and can be restricted statutes were not repealed by the intervention of the
under Article 19(2) which lays out reasonable restrictions Court?
to free speech. The Court found Section 66A was unlawful a) Goondas Act because it failed to define who was
because it was not limited to messages shared with the a goonda;
public at large and it did not require an individual to incite
others to commit an act which would pose an immediate b) The National Security Ordinance for failing to
threat to public order. define essential supplies and services.
c) Section 66A of the Information Technology Act,
One major argument advanced by the State was that laws
2002
which restrict speech over the internet should be subject to
a lenient standard of judicial review. This is because the d) Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code.
internet is a dangerous medium due to its reach, ease of use
121. An organization called the Corruption Hatao Bharat
and relative anonymity. The Court rejected this contention.
Badhaao organised a rally at the Jantar Mantar in
The Court clarified that while it was constitutionally
the national capital. It saw the coming together of
permissible to enact laws which punish sharing illegal
around 70 people from different anti-corruption
content on the internet more harshly than if the same content
organizations and concerned individuals. There
was shared offline. However, the Court held that such a law
was a group discussion regarding the ongoing
must still adhere to standards of clarity and narrow tailoring
allegation on the government for indulging in
and relate to grounds under Article 19(2).
corruption. Thereafter, the people divided itself into
Such an observation by the Court holds particular smaller groups and then began a door-to-door anti-
significance in India's 2020 internet paradigm. India's corruption campaign. However, after three days of
internet population has expanded multifold and currently the campaign, the campaigners were detained by
there are more than 650 million internet users. More than the police on the grounds of security of the state.
ever, the internet in India is characterised by the on boarding Justify.
of first time users who are exposed to speech amplification a) The detention is allowed as the campaign was to
platforms which are defined by speed and virality. It spread hatred against the present government.
will be interesting to see when future judicial matters of
online speech are decided, or for that matter, during future b) The detention is allowed as the campaign sought
legislative processes which seek to prohibit certain forms to severely affect the security of the state by
of online speech how are characteristics of social networks destabilizing the ruling party’s government.
taken into consideration. c) The detention is not allowed as there was no
incitement due to their exercise of freedom of
[Extracted from ‘5 Years Of Shreya Singhal Judgment:
speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a)
Potential Remains Unfulfilled Due To Weak Enforcement’
Published in LiveLaw] d) The detention is not allowed as there is an
absolute right to freedom of speech and
119. Section 377, IPC and Section 497, IPC relate to expression under Article 19(1)(a)
which of the following offences under the Indian
Penal Code? 122. What was the major argument advanced by the State
for not striking down Section 66A of the Information
a) Criminalization of Homosexuality and the Technology Act, 2002?
Criminalization of Adultery
I. Laws which restrict speech over the internet
b)
Criminalization of Adultery and the should not be subject to a lenient standard of
Criminalization of Homosexuality judicial review.
c)
Criminalization of Adultery and the II. The internet is a dangerous medium due to its
Criminalization of Sodomy reach, ease of use and relative anonymity. The
d)
Criminalization of Sodomy and the Court rejected this contention.
Criminalization of Homosexuality a) Only I b) Only II
c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II

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123. Which of the following is not a ground mentioned virus is also a moot point as the videos blatantly display
in Article 19(2) for restricting the freedom of speech that the situation requiring social distancing is made worse
and expression? by police intervention. There is also minimal effort on
I. Interests of the sovereignty and integrity of behalf of the police to differentiate between actual flouters
India, and those who have stepped outside their homes to access
essential services.
II. The security of the State,
While the police force does indeed have the authority to
III. Friendly relations with foreign States
use force and legal action so as to prevent violation of law,
IV. Public order, decency or morality the recipients of such force, i.e. the weaker sections, shed
a) Only II and IV b) Only I and III a light on the skewed dynamics of power play involved in
ensuring adherence of the lockdown. The violence inflicted
c) Only IV and I d) All I, II, III and IV.
is a display of perverse power and is a moral blot on the
124. Which of the following is a suggestion as per the canvas of democracy. Such misconduct and abuse of power
author of the above passage? erodes the faith one reposes in police authorities to protect
law-abiding citizens. However, with the law-abiding
I. Future judicial matters of online speech are
citizens themselves becoming the victims of the police
decided which seek to prohibit certain forms of
brutality, it is creating a situation which has the tendency to
online speech.
spark a panic in this incendiary atmosphere.
II. The corners of Article 19(2) of the Indian
Constitution will be further narrowed by the Instead of helping to facilitate the smoother functioning and
upcoming judgements of speech and expression implementation of the lockdown, these incidents are only
and restrictions thereafter. making matters worse by exhibiting utter disregard of the
police for accountability and ethics of their profession, and
a) Only I b) Only II affinity toward exploiting the poor for their own satisfaction
c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II
The incidents which have taken place are clear cut cases of
police excesses. An Enquiry Committee needs to be set up
Directions for questions 125 to 130: The questions in
to look into these incidents of police brutality immediately.
this section are based on what is stated or implied in the
Simultaneously, the Central and State Governments need to
passage given below. For each question, choose the option
ensure that all police personnel are made aware of the limits
that most accurately and completely answers the question.
of the statutory provisions as well as the conditions set under
In a judgement pronounced on 25th March, 2020 by the the MHA Guidelines. Despite the restricted functioning of
Kerala High Court in a Suo Moto writ petition regarding the Supreme Court of India and other High Courts, there
COVID-19, it was noted that "right of personal liberty is a need for the higher echelons of authority to suo motu
guaranteed under the Constitution of India should not, at take up the cause of rampant police brutality and formulate
any rate, be infringed by arresting an accused, except in guidelines for the conduct of law enforcement agencies
matters where arrest is inevitable." The High Court went on during lockdowns of this nature.
to grant the State the liberty to take appropriate decisions [Extracted from ‘No Justification For Police Brutality
with regard to heinous/serious offences, however, there Against Persons During Lockdown’. Published in LiveLaw]
was a clear emphasis on the observation that arresting an
individual was not to be taken as the norm. 125. Section 188 of the Indian Penal Code states that
Drastic measures have been taken to flatten the curve of if anyone disobeys the order of public servant can
COVID-19 and are very much required. Nationwide be punished with simple imprisonment for a term
lockdowns have been instituted in many countries to which may extend to one month or with fine which
prevent possible vectors from infecting others. However, may extend to two hundred rupees, or with both.
the seriousness of the crisis that faces us cannot justify Due to which of the following reasons, can the said
the disproportionate force that is being meted out. It is section not be said to be a justification of the usage
clear that the usage of brute force on behalf of the police of brute force on behalf of the police officers in the
officers does not stem from Section 188 of the IPC; hence, situation of a lockdown?
it can be safely discerned that the same is unjustified and I. Violation of Section 188 authorizes police
excessive. Maintenance of law and order is the basic duty officers to inflict physical damage on a person
of the police; overstepping the parameters set by statutes only to a reasonable extent.
is downright illegal. Justifying the same on the grounds of
possible human right violations of potential victims of the

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II. At the most, the police have the authority to I. It is making the situation worse by exhibiting
detain an individual for failure of adherence of utter disregard of the police for accountability
the lockdown order. and ethics of their profession.
a) Only I b) Only II II. It displays affinity toward exploiting the poor
c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II for their own satisfaction and a skewed power-
play dynamics.
126. Which of the following provisions of the Indian a) Only I b) Only II
Constitution deals with the right to personal liberty?
c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II
a) Article 19(1)(a) b) Article 19(1)(g)
c) Article 22 d) Article 21 130. The phrase used in the above passage- ‘Despite
the restricted functioning of the Supreme Court of
127. As per the author of the above passage, while the India and other High Courts’ means which of the
police force does indeed have the authority to use following?
force and legal action so as to prevent violation of a) That usually the courts do not entertain such
law, why is the use of such force as seen at the time matters before it, but the matter is of utmost
of COVID-19 lockdown a matter of grave concern? importance.
I. Mostly, the recipients of such force are the b) During the lockdown, the courts have restricted
weaker sections, highlighting the skewed to hearing only urgent matters but this must be
dynamics of power play involved in ensuring considered urgent.
adherence of the lockdown.
c) During the lockdown, the courts are also shut
II. The violence inflicted is a display of perverse and thus matters are usually not being heard, but
power and is a moral blot on the canvas of this should be made an exception.
democracy.
d) As the Supreme Court is not functioning in its
a) Only I b) Only II full capacity, the High Court must immediately
c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II take suo motu action on this matter.

128. As per the author of the above passage, which of Directions for questions 131 to 135: The questions in
the following is not a suggested solution to address this section are based on what is stated or implied in the
the use of excessive force by police on the alleged passage given below. For each question, choose the option
flouters during the COVID-19 lockdown? that most accurately and completely answers the question.
a) An Enquiry Committee needs to be set up to
look into these incidents of police brutality These are unprecedented times for independent India,
immediately. where a public healthcare crisis has brought the world
down to its knees.
b) The Central and State Governments need to
ensure that all police personnel are made aware In light of the above, the State of Karnataka, has published
of the limits of the statutory provisions as well an online database of persons who have been infected with
as the conditions set under the MHA Guidelines. Covid-19 or are in quarantine, with their personal residential
addresses. This database has since then been circulated on
c) The people must be made aware of the
social media and instant messaging platforms.
guidelines issued by MHA during the lockdown
and insisted on full compliance. The Right to Privacy has been recognised as a cardinal part
d) The courts should take suo motu the cause of our Fundamental Rights by the apex court in Puttaswamy
of rampant police brutality and formulate I and reinforced in Puttaswamy II. This right is not absolute
guidelines for the conduct of law enforcement and can be fettered by the State strictly according to the
agencies during lockdowns of this nature. Constitutional mandate. It has been explained in the
Puttaswamy judgments that, state action violating privacy
129. As per the above passage, which of the following has to be tested on the following parameters:
is a direct fallout of the use of excessive force by (i) sanction of law
the police on the alleged flouters of COVID-19
(ii) necessary for a legitimate aim; and
as surfaced by videos being circulated on social
media? (iii) proportionate to the need for such interference.

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The judgment in Puttaswamy II further elaborates on discrimination. This makes the Covid-19 patients and
the doctrine of proportionality by enunciating four sub- those in quarantine, their families and friends increasingly
components: vulnerable.
(i) A legitimate goal [Extracted from ‘Privacy In Times Of Corona: Problems
(ii) suitability or rationale connection With Publication Of Personal Data Of Covid-19 Victims’.
(iii) There must not be any less restrictive but equally Published in LiveLaw]
effective alternative; and
131. The Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897, and The National
(iv) Must not have a disproportionate impact on the right Disaster Management Act, have been invoked to
holder curb the spread of the COVID-19 virus. Therefore,
The step taken by the State of Karnataka in publishing the the publication as done by the State of Karnataka,
names and the residential addresses of the people infected by presumed to be done in good faith has a sanction of
Covid-19 and those that have been quarantined, has prima law. Justify.
facie infringed on the Right to Privacy of those citizens. a) Yes, in order to curb the right to privacy the
The question that arises then is whether this measure can Puttuswamy I judgement clearly states sanction
withstand Constitutional scrutiny as per the tests laid down of law to be the first step.
by the Supreme Court in Puttaswamy.
b) Yes, the said statutes have been invoked and
The breach of a citizen's privacy, to be valid, must be thus under the garb and legitimate interest of the
sanctioned by a law that has been passed by the legislature. state to curb the spread of COVID-19
On perusing the relevant laws including The Epidemic c) No, the above mentioned statutes have no legal
Diseases Act, 1897, and The National Disaster Management provision which provides for the personal
Act there seems to be no legal provision which provides for data of the victims to be uploaded on a public
the personal data of the victims to be uploaded on a public database.
database. This preliminary illegality notwithstanding, the
State's action also falls foul of the test of proportionality. d) No, the act of the government is preliminary
illegal notwithstanding, the State's action is also
The policy followed by various state governments until now not proportionate.
has been to use indelible ink to stamp and brand those who
have tested positive or have been quarantined. To further 132. The two actions of the State of Karnataka discussed
limit their contact with the public at large, some states have above are the use of indelible ink to stamp and brand
also marked their houses with pamphlets alerting visitors those and their houses who have tested positive or
and ensuring public safety. have been quarantined and the publication of a
database of victims is wholly excessive. Of the two,
This action of the State of Karnataka presumably has a which has been said to be justified and why.
legitimate goal in mind, i.e. to curb and control the spread
of Covid-19 by minimising person to person contact. I. The policy followed by various state
Given that the State's main objective is that the people who governments to use indelible ink to stamp and
have tested positive for Covid-19 do not come in contact brand those who have tested positive or have
with other people, it would seem that bodily branding been quarantined and to mark their houses
and identification of homes completely achieved the said alerting visitors and ensuring public safety is
objective, and the publication of a database of victims is justified as it has been done to curb and control
wholly excessive. the spread of Covid-19.
II. However, the bodily branding and identification
There are numerous problems with the publication of an
of homes did not completely achieve the said
online database consisting of personal data of the Covid-19
objective, and thus the publication of a database
Victims. With no Data Protection law in place, the private
of victims cannot be said to be wholly excessive.
information of these persons, without their consent is being
released in the public domain and is vulnerable to misuse a) Only I b) Only II
and abuse. This epidemic has also seen a rise in xenophobia, c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II
prejudice and racial violence, and there have been reports
of hate crimes in that regard. Leave alone infected patients 133. Apart from the patent illegality of the the publication
and quarantines persons, even doctors and nurses treating of an online database consisting of personal data of
Covid-19 patients are reportedly facing hate, abuse and the Covid-19 Victims, what is the major concern
with such publication?

SimCLAT 2020 25

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I. As there is no Data Protection law in place, the executive authorities in the absence of a fair trial by pre-
private information of these persons, without judging the guilt of the accused.
their consent is being released in the public
In a Supreme Court judgement, the court laid down a set
domain and is vulnerable to misuse and abuse.
of guidelines for assessing damages in case of large-scale
II. The people will be discriminated against and destruction of properties during protests based on the
will have a prejudiced view by people around recommendations of two expert committees. The court held
them, resulting a raise in hate crimes. that the High Court could issue suo moto action and set
a) Only I b) Only II up an appropriate mechanism for investigating the damages
that may have taken place. Significantly, the guidelines
c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II
require the appointment of a sitting or retired High Court
134. Puttuswamy II judgement gave four sub- judge or a sitting or retired District Judge as the ‘Claims
components, as tests of curb in the right to privacy. Commissioner.’
One of these were that there must not be any less However, in another Allahabad High Court wrongly
restrictive but equally effective alternative. As per overlooked the substantive part of the apex court’s
the information given in the above passage, is there guidelines. It empowered an officer of the state
any less restrictive but equally effective alternative administration, not below the rank of an Additional District
which could replace the publication of information Magistrate, to assess damages. The High Court laid down
as done by the State of Kerala? that any person could file a complaint in the area where
a) No, the State of Karnataka has published the public property is damaged. The Magistrate would then
database with a legitimate interest in mind and pass an order for recovering damages after providing an
a bona fide intention to curb the spread of the opportunity of being heard to the accused.
virus.
It set a dangerous precedent wherein the executive could
b) No, the State of Karnataka has only used the take advantage of the indeterminacy in the process to
provisions of the National Disaster Management penalize individuals at its discretion. The absolute removal
Act. of judicial oversight enables the state to initiate a witch hunt
c) Yes, the State of Karnataka could have explored against political opposition. The decision further allows the
other means to reach the same object, without majoritarian dispensation in Uttar Pradesh to systematically
infringing the right to privacy. target religious minorities and trigger a spiral of religion-
based segregation. It could also potentially cause internal
d) Yes, the marking of bodies and homes for the
displacement in the long run.
public to restrict their access was less restrictive
and achieved the same purpose. Executive discretion poses the danger of blurring the
distinction between peaceful protesters and miscreants who
135. The National Disaster Management Act which was indulge in violence. Thus they appear to establish a standard
invoked by the government to tackle the public of proof based on “guilt by association”. The Supreme
health crisis due to the rampant spread of COVID-19 Court has emphatically rejected the doctrine in its past
infections, was passed in which year? judgments[14]. In Arup Bhuyan v. State of Assam[15] the
a) 1995 b) 2005 c) 2002 d) 1987 apex court reiterated the inapplicability of the principle and
held that membership of a banned organization would not
Directions for questions 136 to 141: The questions in result in criminal liability in the absence of evidence that
this section are based on what is stated or implied in the establishes involvement in violence. The normalization of
passage given below. For each question, choose the option ‘guilt by association’ dilutes the difference between espousing
that most accurately and completely answers the question. contrary political views and instigating violent acts.

The retributive acts of the Uttar Pradesh government ‘Public order’ constitutes one of the limitations on the
suffer from various legal infirmities. It disregards previous freedom of speech and expression enshrined in Article
judicial rulings of the Supreme Court. Sections 3 and 19 (1) (a) of the Constitution. In Shreya Singhal v. Union
4 of the Prevention of Damage to Public Property Act, of India, the apex court had followed the decision of the
1984, incorporate severe penalties for deterring damage U.S. Supreme Court in Brandenburg v. Ohio to distinguish
to public property. Section 147 of the Indian Penal Code between mere advocacy of opinion and incitement of
also criminalizes acts of rioting. However, these laws violence. The court had held that only the latter would
only attribute liability upon the exercise of due process of come within the reasonable restriction of maintaining
law. The penalties prescribed cannot be meted out by the public order. The notices seem to be a concerted attempt on

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the part of the state to stifle dissent by inflicting economic a) Only I b) Both I and II
losses on protesters. This practice is thus likely to have a c) Neither I nor II d) Only II
chilling effect on free speech.
139. As per the author of the above passage, which of the
136. Sections 3 and 4 of the Prevention of Damage to following is not the problem in resting the power to
Public Property Act, 1984, incorporate severe punish in cases of destruction of public property by
penalties for deterring damage to public property. the state executive?
Section 147 of the Indian Penal Code also
a) It degrades the power of the High Court, where
criminalizes acts of rioting. If there is legal mandate
its authority is being surpassed and punishment
for punishing people who have destructed public
in being awarded, which is essentially a judicial
property, what is the major objection as cited by the
function
author of the above passage?
b) The executive could take advantage of the
I. These laws only attribute liability upon the
indeterminacy in the process to penalize
exercise of due process of law.
individuals at its discretion.
II. The penalties prescribed cannot be meted out by
c) It resulted in an absolute removal of judicial
the executive authorities.
oversight enables the state to initiate a witch
III. The executive authorities have no such power to hunt against political opposition.
decide on the punishment in the absence of a fair
d) It allows the State Government systematically
trial by pre-judging the guilt of the accused.
target religious minorities and trigger a spiral of
a) Only I & II b) Only II & III religion-based segregation.
c) All I, II & III d) Only III
140. Public order’ constitutes one of the limitations on
137. As per the author of the above passage, on what the freedom of speech and expression enshrined
grounds does he exclude the authority of the State in Article 19 (1) (a) of the Constitution. Which
executive to decide on issues of destruction of provision of the Indian Constitution deals with the
public property? restrictions on fundamental rights as guaranteed
under Article 19?
I. Based on a Supreme Court judgement, where the
court held that the State Executive is expressly a) Article 19(1)(g) b) Article 25
barred to issue action and set up an appropriate c) Article 19(2) d) Article 19(1)(b)
mechanism for investigating the damages that
may have taken place. 141. Recently, the district administration put up banners
II. The guidelines require the appointment of at public spaces in Lucknow with the names, photos
a sitting or retired High Court judge or a and residential addresses of a select few activists
sitting or retired District Judge as the ‘Claims against whom compensation notices were issued.
Commissioner.’ A two-judge bench of the Allahabad High Court
took suo moto cognizance of the matter. Which of
a) Only I b) Only II the following is not a part of the Judgement of the
c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II Allahabad HC in this regard?
a) It directed the state to immediately remove the
138. As per the above passage, how is the judgement by
banners.
the Allahabad High Court ultra vires of the Supreme
Court guidelines to deal with the cases of damage to b) It held that that there was no legitimate basis
public property? for the placement of personal data on public
display.
I. Allahabad HC wrongly empowered an officer
of the state administration, not below the rank c) It held that such a publication had no rational
of an Additional District Magistrate, to assess nexus with the state’s avowed object of
damages. deterrence.
II. Allahabad HC laid down that any person could d) It affirmed that the executive has authority in
file a complaint in the area where public property cases of damages caused to public property, but
is damaged. The Magistrate would then pass an only to a limited extent.
order for recovering damages after providing an
opportunity of being heard to the accused.

SimCLAT 2020 27

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Directions for questions 142 to 145: The questions in Constitution of India sides with the social, economic
this section are based on what is stated or implied in the and political rights. Justify.
passage given below. For each question, choose the option I. In the international level, there are the justiciable
that most accurately and completely answers the question. bill of rights containing civil and political
rights, and the other on non-justiciable DPSPs
The discourse on the status of DPSP in constitutions ranges
containing state duties corollary to socio-
from the claim that they are mere constitutional promises
economic and cultural rights.
devoid of practicability to fundamental principles which
are consumed by the citizenry. This section presents and II. Most of the DPSP are in the socio-economic,
examines these two assertions about DPSP and will address political and cultural fields which intend to
the question framed in the title. The aim is to shed light improve the lives of individuals and bring social
on whether DPSP in the Ethiopian constitution is a mere justice.
constitutional promise or a reality. If it is a mere promise, a) Only I b) Only II
can it be a reality and whether lessons can be learnt from c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II
other jurisdictions in this regard.
144. The Constitution makes a clear distinction by
In a common parlance DPSP are principles which guide a
placing the Fundamental Rights and the DPSPs in
government in present action and future direction regarding
separate parts. Which of the following is the reason
its nation and people. Mehta notes that DPSP are the ideals
for such a differentiation?
which the state must consider in the formulation of policies
and making laws in order to secure ‘social, economic and I. While Fundamental Rights lists down the rights
political justice’ to all. available to the citizenry, the DPSPs are in a
way the responsibilities the state must fulfil.
They are instrumental in furthering the aspirations of the
II. While state’s non-adherence to FRs can be
people and implementing the very aims and objectives
brought before a court of law, the DPSPs are
of DPSP. Hence, DPSP are core and living constitutional
non-justiciable rights.
principles. They are standards of achievement which guides
all government organs in running their business.14 Ali and a) Only I b) Only II
Atua note that DPSP are “a collection of constitutional c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II
provisions that require a state to carry out certain
obligations in fulfilment of its mandate for the citizenry”. 145. Which among the following article suggests that the
By the same token Ceazar notes that DPSP are “blue-prints directive principles are not enforceable by any court
for good governance and social justice for all” which guide but at yet are fundamental in the governance of the
the nation to realize its national ideals.16 As democracy country?
is a process which is built over time, making DPSP part a) Article 37 b) Article 46
of the democratic process to advance socio-economic and
c) Article 56 d) Article 27
political development will make DPSP real constitutional
principles. As far as a working constitutional democracy is Directions for questions 146 to 150: The questions in
in place, DPSP will continue to be vital tools and inputs this section are based on what is stated or implied in the
for the functioning of state organs namely the legislative, passage given below. For each question, choose the option
executive and judiciary. that most accurately and completely answers the question.
[Extracted from ‘Directive Principles of State policy: A
Mere Constitutional Rhetoric or a Reality?’. Published in The U.N. was officially established in 1945 following the
horrific events of World War II, when international leaders
ICL Journal]
proposed creating a new global organization to maintain
142. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the peace and avoid the abuses of war. The U.N. initially had
Directive Principles of State policy? just 51 member states; today, the organization, which is
headquartered in New York City, has 193 members. Major
a) Part III b) Part IV U.N. initiatives include preventing conflict by exploring
c) Part IVA d) Part V options to ensure peace, providing food and medical
assistance in emergencies, and offering humanitarian support
143. In the international law parlance, the classification to millions of people around the world. While the United
of rights bears two categories of rights- social, Nations is sometimes criticized for its policies, bureaucracy
economic and political rights and the civil and and spending, the organization has accomplished hundreds
political rights. The DPSPs as embodied in the of successful peacekeeping missions.

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After World War I, an international group developed the


League of Nations to solve disputes between countries.
When World War II started, the initiative failed but
highlighted the need for a new, reformed organization that
could promote global peace.
In August 1941, Franklin D. Roosevelt and Winston
Churchill held a secret meeting where they discussed the
possibility of starting an international peace effort. They
came up with a declaration called the Atlantic Charter,
which outlined ideal goals of war and paved the way for the
development of the U.N.
Representatives from 26 Allied nations met in Washington,
D.C. on January 1, 1942 to sign the Declaration of the United
Nations, which essentially described the war objectives of
the Allied powers. The United States, United Kingdom and
Soviet Union led the charge.

146. The Term United Nations was coined by _______.


a) Winston Churchill b) Franklin Roosevelt
c) Mussolini d) Charles De Gaulle

147. Which among the following arms of the UN,


predates it by almost 3 decades?
a) International Court of Justice
b) International Labor Organisation
c) International Criminal Court
d) World Health Organization

148. The initial purpose of the 26 countries, who called


themselves the United Nations was ___________.
a) To defeat dictatorship
b) To defeat the allied powers
c) To defeat all communism and socialism
d) To defeat the axis powers.

149. How many countries, came together, to establish the


UN?
a) 193 b) 32 c) 51 d) 102

150. Which country can blame UN-lead aid workers for


causing an outbreak of Cholera which led to death
of 10,000 people in that country?
a) Haiti b) Cambodia
c) South Sudan d) All of the above
_____________

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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