Fourth year optometry students’ comprehensive examination.

1) Which one of the following is not true in progressive lens use?

A) Vision at all distances
B) Absence of natural use of accommodation
C) Absence jump
D) None

2) One of the following is false about hard design progressive lenses

A) Wider area of stable optics in both distance and near

B) Shorter distance down to near viewing
C) Narrower intermediate
D) Shorter adaptation

3) One of the following filters do not distort natural color values

A) Red free filter

B) Contrast enhancing filter
C) Yellow absorbing filter
D) Neutral grey filter

4) One of the following aberrations is not significant for spectacle wearers

A) TCA
B) Oblique astigmatism
C) Distortion
D) None

5) Poor sight word recognition is

A) Dysnemkinesia
B) Dysphonesia
C) Dysidesia
D) None

6) Which one of the following is false about amaurotic pupil?

A) The involved eye is completely blind

B) Both pupils are equal
C) Near reflex is intact in both eyes
D) None of the above

7) One of the following is not the sign of Uveitis

 A) High IOP
B) Lower IOP
C) KPs (Keratic precipitates)
D) None

8)a fourth year optometry student in OPD encounters a patient with a chif complain of penetrating globe
trauma in the left eye before 2 days and an associated symptom of sever pain and constant excessive
tearing. Which one of the following tests is not allowed to be done?

A) Digital palpation
B) Tonometry
C) Gonioscopy
D) none of the above.

9) Inflammation of the parsplana is

a) Anterior Uveitis
B) Intermediate Uveitis
C) Posterior Uveitis
D) Pan Uveitis

10) A patient with Glaucoma (High IOP) and mature cataract with a posterior synechiae should not be
treated first with

A) Timolol
B) Betaxolol
C) Pilocarpin
D) Brinzolamide

11) The commonest causes of blindness Ethiopia in order of burden respectively are:
A. Trachomatous corneal opacity, refractive error, glaucoma
B. Refractive error, trachomatous corneal opacity, Vit.A deficiency
C. Cataract, glaucoma, trachomatous corneal opacity, refractive error
D. Cataract, trachomatous corneal opacity, refractive errors
E. Cataract, refractive errors, trachomatous corneal opacity
12) The first sign of Vitamin A deficiency is
A. X1A
B. X3A
C. XN
 D. X2
13) What would happen for the focal length of a thin lens if its power is doubled in air?

A. Doubled
B. Halved
C. Quartered
D. Remains the same
E. Can’t be determine
14) in a high power plus lens wearers, the type of distortion from which patients suffer
is

A) Barrel

B) Pincushion

C) Grid

D) No distortion occurs

15) which one of the following is false about BVD to keep an image at the retina

A) For any negative lens as the BVD increases the power of the lens should be
decreased.

B) For any posititive lens as the BVD increases the power of the lens should be
decreased.

C) For any negative lens as the BVD decreases the power of the lens should be
decreased. X

D) A and B are false.

16) which one of the following can be employed to overcome oblique astigmatism in
high power plus lens wearers

A) Point focal lens form

B) Perceval lens form

C) Toric lens form

D) A and C
17. Two cylinders of equal power with opposite sign placed together with their axes parallel will
have

A. No power in each meridian

B. Sphere and cylinder
C. Sphere whose power is equal to either of the cylinders
D. Cylinder whose power is equal to either of the cylinders
E. A cylinder whose power is equal to the sum of the two cylinder powers.

18. In which of the ocular conditions erythropsia and cynopsia are common symptoms?
A. Aphakia
B. Myopia
C. Hypermetropia
D. Astigmatism

19. The refraction from an ametropic eye shows that the eye needs a +2.00D along the horizontal
and +4.00D along the vertical meridians. Which one is the correct prescription to correct the
ametropia?

A. +4.00/-2.00x180
B. +2.00/+2.00x180
C. +2.00x90/+4.00x180
D. +4.00x180/+2.00x90 X
E. +4.00/-2.00x90

20. It is the commonest form myopia is.

A. Axial myopia
B. Curvature myopia
C. Positional myopia
D. Index myopia

21. Which of the following is not a general feature of pathological myopia?

A. Shallow anterior chamber
B. Sluggishly reacting pupil
C. Night blindness
D. Muscae volitantes

22. The prescription Rx: +3.00x10/-2.00x100 is a typical of:

A. “Against the rule “ astigmatism
B. Oblique astigmatism
C. Mixed astigmatism
D. Bioblique astigmatism

23. Which of the following is true about oblique astigmatism?

A. There is non-uniform power change across meridian
B. It is the commonest form of astigmatism
 C. It affects vision to the worst than “with the rule” astigmatism
D. The two principal meridians are parallel.

24. What could you say about the following prescription?

OD: -3.00/-1.00x45
OS: +3.00/-1.00x45
There is:
A. Mixed anisometropia
B. “With the rule” astigmatism in either of the eyes
C. Symmetrical oblique astigmatism
D. Complementary oblique astigmatism

25. The corneal refractive index to be assumed in calculations of corneal power in keratomerty is
A. 1.3375
B. 1.3374
C. 1.3753
D. 1.3571
26. The measure of how light deviates from its original path is/are expressed by

A. Angle of incidence
B. Angle of refraction
C. Normal
D. Angle of deviation
E. All except “C”

27. The equivalent sphere of +4.00x40/-1.50x130 is

A. +3.25DS
B. +1.75DS
C. + 2.50DS
D. +5.25DS
E. + 6.25DS

28. Which one is true about pseudopterygium?

a) Caused by degenerative process
b) Always situated in the palpebral area
c) Either progressive or regressive
d) Always stationary
29. Which of the following is TRUE about action of EOMs?
a) Superior muscles are intorters
b) Inferior muscles are extorters
c) Vertical muscles are adductors
d) Oblique muscles are abductors
 e) All
30. Which of the following test should not be done on postoperative cataract px on first visit?
a) VA
b) Tonometry
c) Anterior segment examination
d) Posterior segment examination
e) All
31. Which is odd
a) Iris prolaps
b) PCO
c) Acute bacterial endophthalmitis
d) Steriate keratopathy
32. Which is odd
a) Lattice corneal dystrophy
b) Granular corneal dystrophy
c) Macular dystrophy
d) Posterior polymorphous dystrophy
33. Not true about AKC
a) Perennial
b) Chronic and unremitting
c) Conjunctiva signs are more in superior palpebral conjunctivas
d) Keratinization of lid margin
e) None
34. Which of the following does NOT cause pseudoptosis?
a) Lack of support of the lids
b) Ipsilateral lid retraction
c) Brow ptosis
d) Dermatochalesis
35. Why we give mydriatics for px with uveitis?
a) To give comfort by reliving spasm of the cilliary muscles
b) To prevent formation of posterior synechiae
c) To breakdown synechiae
d) All
36. ________________ is an area where objects of low luminance cannot be see but larger or
brighter ones can.
a) Bitemporal hemanopia
b) Homonymus hemanopia
c) Relative scotoma
d) Absolute scotoma
37. Which one is incorrectly muched?
a) Deficiency of V-A ---xerophthalemia
b) Deficiency of V-B1---corneal anesthesia
 c) Deficiency of V-B2---photophobia & burning sensation
d) Deficiency of V-C ---zonular cataract

38. Which glaucoma drug is different from others?

a) Timolol
b) Diamox
c) Acetazolamide
d) Dorzolamide

39. Which one is NOT the characteristic of BCC?

a) Mostly arises from lower eyelid
b) Locally invasive and metastasizing.
c) Slow growing
d) Mostly affects elderly patients

40. Type of presbyopia in which history suggests a need for a reading addition, but the patient
performs well visually on testing is?
a) Functional presbyopia
b) Absolute presbyopia
c) Incipient presbyopia
d) Premature presbyopia

41. Which one of the following px has sever NPDR

a) Px who has retinal hemorrhages in 1 quadrants
b) Px who has IRMA in 1 quadrant
c) Px who has venous beading in 1 quadrant
d) All

42. Which is odd

a) Cilliary muscle
b) Iris sphincter
c) Iris dilator
d) EOM

43. There is constant blurring of distance vision in all EXCEPT

a) Simple myopia
b) Pathological myopia
c) Pseudomyopia
d) Nocturnal myopia
 44. Which one is WRONG about near add?
a) If WD is much less than 40cm we need decrease add
b) It can be determined by previous RX and symptoms
c) For px over 65 yrs the add is determined mainly by WD
d) It can be determined by age and WD

45. Which one is TRUE about pinhole test?

a) It can be done both binocularly and monocularly
b) It can be done both at distance and near
c) If the vision improves with pinhole px has no other problem than refractive error
d) It will give vision at least the same as best corrected VA

46. Which one is WRONG about jones dye test?

a) If primary test is positive it indicates watering is due to hypersecration
b) If primary test is negative it indicates opening of drainage system
c) If secondary test is positive it indicates opening of upper lacrimal passage
d) If secondary test is negative it indicates partial obstraction of upper lacrimal passage

47. NOT characteristic of ischemic CRVO

a) Multiple cotton wool spots
b) Extensive retinal hemorhege
c) VA>6/60
d) RAPD

51. Which one is false?

A. Madox wing measures hetrophoria
B. Fusional amplitude can be measured by Synoptophore
C. Red-green spectacles used in Lang stereopsis chart
D. Sheridan-Gardiner chart can be used for verbal children

52. Which one is cause of pseudo-exotropia?

A. Positive angle kappa
B. Short interpupillary distance
C. Negative angle kappa
D. Epicanthic folds

53. Which one is the result of physical obstruction along the line of sight prevents the
formation of a well-focused, high-contrast image on the retina?
 A. Form deprivation amblyopia
B. Refractive amblyopia
C. Strabismic amblyopia
D. Isometropic amblyopia

54. Which one is correct?

A. High prevalence of with the rule –astigmatism in infants < 3years
B. After 5 years with the rule-astigmatism is more
C. Most hypermetropia declines after 3 years of age
D. Cycloplegic refraction shows that at birth, the mean refraction is myope

55. Which tissue has closer to adult dimension than any other in the body?
A. Lens
B. Cornea
C. Iris
D. Anterior chamber

56. Which one is the most common form of myopia, onset at any age between 6-15yrs
old patients?
A. Simple myopia
B. High myopia
C. Juvenile myopia
D. Pathological myopia

57. Which one is a hereditary inability to synthesize melanin?

A. Epicantus
B. Drusen
C. Congenital cataract
D. Albinism

58. Which one is the misdirection of CNIII?

A. Marcus Gunn jaw-winking syndrome

B. Mental retardation
C. Down’s syndrome
D. Duane’s retraction syndrome

59. Which one is not important on taking history on pediatric patients?

A. Family history of amblyopia

 B. Asking the parent if the patient is full term or not
C. Asking visual behavior
D. Unnecessary to ask the type of delivery

60. Which one is true?

A. Red-green deficiency in children is more common than blue yellow

B. Severe corneal disease in children is common in the developed
C. Allergic conjunctivitis is less common in children
D. Retinoblastoma is less common primary malignant intraocular tumor

61. A patient reported intermittent double vision following wearing his first spectacle. Cover test was
done with the provided spectacle & it was orthophoria. The possible reason could be
a. Incorrect vertical centration
b. Oculomotor nerve palsy
c. Decompensated phoria
d. All of the above
62. A patient with -10.00DS selected a frame having a size of 15□49□127. His monocular distance PD is
OD= 30 and OS= 34. The differential prismatic effect is
a. 2 ∆ base in right eye
b. 2 ∆ base out left ye
c. 4∆ base in right eye
d. No differential prismatic effect
63. One of the following does not determine the weight of the lens.
a. Power of the lens
b. Refractive index
c. Abbe number
d. Form of the lens
64. When someone wears correcting lens for his/her first time, the optometrist advised him/her first
adaptation at home. What are the monocular changes related to subsidiary effects of the spectacle
the optometrist consider to say first adaptation at home?
a. Accommodation demand at near vision
b. Size of retinal image
c. Ocular rotation
d. a &b
65. The adaptation of the eye to light intensity above the same bright intensity is
a. Light adaptation
b. Contrast adaptation
c. Dark adaptation
d. Chromatic adaptation
66. Which one of the following does not result in pseudoesotropia?
 a. Epicanthus
b. Negative angle alpha
c. Positive angle alpha
d. Narrow PD
67. Which of the following tests would indicate that a phoria was compensated?
a. The recovery movement
b. Binocular visual acuity
c. Fixation disparity test
d. All of the above
68. A patient noticed that blurred distance vision associated with eyestrain and temporal head ache.
Fundscopy examination showed that extensive macular edema. The refractive error change is
a. Myopic shift
b. Hyperopic shift
c. Astigmatism
d. All except a
69. Presbyopia
a. Occurs due to optical loss of amplitude of accommodation
b. Is inability of the eye changing focus from viewing a near object to viewing a
distance object
c. Results when the vergence at eye is greater than the available
accommodation
d. All of the above
70. The optical advantage of contact lens over spectacle is
a. Equal accommodation demand as emmetropes
b. Similar retinal image as an uncorrected eye
c. The power of the correcting Contact lens is equal to ocular refraction
d. All of the above

71. An 80-year-old man presents with poor vision in his right eye with sudden
onset of pain and conjunctival hyperemia. The examination reveals an lOP of 45
mm Hg with a prominent cell and flare reaction without keratic precipitates, a
dense cataract, and an open anterior chamber angle. The most likely diagnosis is
a. phacolytic glaucoma
b. phacoantigenic glaucoma
c. ICE syndrome
d. Fuchs heterochromic Iridocyclitis

72. Anterior chamber depth

 a. is less in women than in men
b. increases with increasing age
c. is increased by hyperopia
d. is decreased in very high myopia
e. rarely correlates with anterior chamber volume

73. The preferred therapy for primary congenital glaucoma is

a. topical beta-blockers
b. topical brimonidine
c. trabeculotomy or goniotomy
d. oral acetazolamide

74. If a patient has a dense white cataract and the posterior pole is not visible,
which of the folloing would be most helpful for the clinician in deciding whether
to perform surgery or not?
a. specular microscopy
b. B-scan ultrasonography
c. laser interferometry
d. Maddox rod test
e. photostress recovery test

75. A 56-year-old patient complains difficulty of reading newspaper in the

morning, especially in bright sunlight. If the only ocular abnormality is cataract,
which type of lens opacity is most likely the patient has?
a. posterior subcapsular
b. nuclear
c. cortical
d. oil droplet
e. anterior polar

76. In which type of astigmatism do the focal lines straddle the retina?
a. mixed astigmatism
b. compound myopic astigmatism
c. compound hyperopic astigmatism
d. simple myopic ast igmatism
e. simple hyperopic astigmatism

77. An objective refraction with streak Retinoscope is performed at a testing

distance of 67cm on a 5 years old child having accommodative esotropia. In the
right eye, a +5.00DS neutralizes the 180° meridian and a +3.50DS neutralizes the
90° meridian. In the left eye, a +7.00 DS neutralizes the 180° meridian and a +6.00
DS neutralizes the 90° meridian .The refractive error of the child in his right and
left eye respectively is____________________
a . +3.50/ - 1.5 x 180 & +2.00/+1.50 x90
b . +3.50/ - 1.5 x 180 & +5.5 - 1.0 x 180
c. +5.5 - 1.0 x 90 &+3.50/ - 1.5 x 180
d. +5.5 - 1.0 x 180 &+3.50/ - 1.5 x 180

78. All of the following typically cause peripheral visual field deficits, except;
a. retinitis pigmentosa
b. age-related macular degeneration
c. retinal detachment
d. panretinal photocoagulation

79. Which of the following is an indication for surgery on a pterygium?

a. induced myopia
b. tear deficiency
c. induced astigmatism
d. induced corneal degeneration
80. Which of the following is a typical corneal finding in congenital
glaucoma?
a. small corneal diameter
b. Haab striae
c. Vogt striae
d. guttae

81. Which one of the following IS TRUE regarding Antimetropia patients?

A. The will have alternating vision

B. Has myopia in one eye but hyperopia in other eye
C. They could be binocular after correction
D. All of the above
82. During astigmatic refractive error correction, why sphere component is
corrected 1st ? Because
 a. It is easy to correct sphere
b. Astigmatism can be corrected if correct sphere power is obtained
c. Astigmatic lens cannot correct sphere component
d. Sphere power affects the astigmatic error
83. Which one of the following IS NOT dispensing recommendation after
refraction?
a. Not putting lens in upside down
b. Cleaning with soft tissues
c. Select small size frame
d. Clean spectacles with alcohol
84. The most amblyopia causing refractive error is?
a. Myopia
b. Hyperopia
c. Astigmatism
d. All of the above
85. The most common cause of anisometropia is?
a. Hyperopia
b. Myopia
c. Aphakia
d. Astigmatism
86. Accommodation problem which affects both distance and near vision is?
a. Accommodation insufficiency
b. Accommodation spasm
c. Accommodation fatigue
d. Accommodation paralysis
87. Major risk factor for presbyopia is?
a. Occupation
b. Gender
c. Age
d. Systemic disease
 IMAGE A

88. Which of the following synergistic extraocular muscle pairs are primarily
used to maintain direction of Gaze 1 in Image A?
A. Right superior rectus; left inferior oblique
B. Right inferior oblique; left superior rectus
C. Right inferior rectus; left superior oblique
D. Right superior oblique; left inferior rectus
89. Which of the following synergistic extraocular muscle pairs are primarily
used to maintain direction of Gaze 4 in Image A”?
A. Right medial rectus; left medial rectus
B. Right inferior rectus; left superior oblique
C. Right medial rectus; left lateral rectus
D. Right inferior oblique; left superior rectus
90. Which of the following synergistic extraocular muscle pairs are primarily
used to maintain direction of Gaze 6 in Image “A”?
A. Right inferior rectus; left superior oblique
B. Right superior oblique; left inferior rectus
C. Right inferior oblique; left superior rectus
D. Right medial rectus; left lateral rectus
91. Which of the following is the correct procedure in subjective refraction
A. Best vision sphere—Jackson cross cyl –binocular balancing –best
vision sphere
B. Best vision sphere –Jackson cross cyl –best vision sphere -
binocular balancing
C. Jackson cross cyl –Best vision sphere – Jackson cross cyl -
binocular balancing
D. Jackson cross cyl –Best vision sphere –binocular balancing
92. If the visual acuity chart is fixed on the wall 3meters infront of the plane
mirror and patient is below the fixed chart. From the patient the chart
image is at ------- distance.
a. 1.5 m
b. 3 m
c. 6 m
d. 9 m
93. ___________ is determined from size of smallest line of letters in test chart
that can be read by patient after best possible correction
a. Habitual vision
b. Unaided vision
c. Vision
d. Visual acuity
94. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about astigmatism?
a. Surfaces has two different curvature
b. Power meridian is meridian of minimum curvature
c. Type of refractive anomaly
d. Two focal lines are perpendicular to each other in regular
astigmatism
95. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about myopia?
a. Powerful optical system for its axial length
b. Corrected by diverging lens
c. Near sightedness can develop due to long axial length for given
power
d. The higher the myopia the, the longer will be the far point
96. The plus cylinder transposition form of +2.00/-3.00X90 is
a. +2.00/-3.00X90
b. +2.00/-3.00X180
c. -3.00/+2.00X90
d. -1.00/-3.00X180
e. -1.00/+3.00X180
97. Which of the following is TRUE about amblyopia?
a. Best corrected acuity of two eye of two line or more difference
b. Visual acuity of amblyopic eye ≥ 6/9
c. Sign of any pathology that reduce vision
d. For strabismic amblyopia visual acuity is much better for crowded
than isolated target
98. Which of the following is correct for etiology of hyperopia?
a. Curvature – steeper cornea
b. Axial- axial length greater than secondary focal length
c. Index - decrease in effective refraction of lens?? Aqueous&
nucleus 0f lens.
d. Position of refracting surface – dislocation of lens forwards
99. Which of the following is with the rule compound myopic astigmatism?
V=steep, H= flaten
a. -2.0D/-1.0DX180
b. -2.0D/-2.0DX90
c. +2.0D/-4.0DX180
d. -2.0D/+4.0DX180
100. The following are TRUE about hypermetropia except?
A. the second principal focus lies in front of the retina
B. accommodation is used to achieve normal vision
C. aphakia is a form of hypermetropia
D. patients require reading glasses earlier than the normal
population
101. Which of the following tests is not appropriate?
A. Checking cover test at near with the patient wearing their current
reading spectacles
B. Checking cover test at near on a myopic presbyope who does not
wear spectacles for near
C. Measuring cover test at distance on a presbyope who does not
wear spectacles for distance
 D. Measuring NPC on a hypermetropic presbyope
E. Measuring NPC on a myopic presbyope
102. You perform a subjective refraction on a patient’s right eye. After
checking the sphere, you have the Rx:

-6.00/-1.00 x 90 in the trial frame

You then check cylinder axis and power and change the cylinder to

-2.00 x 90

To what power do you change the sphere?

A. –6.50
B. –6.25
C. –6.00
D. –5.75
E. –5.50

103. When using the stenopaeic slit, you find that the patient subjectively

prefers a BVS (best vision sphere) of +6.50 DS with the slit at 170 and a

BVS of +3.75 with the slit at 80

What sphero-cylindrical prescription do you give?

A. +6.50/-2.75 x 170
B. +6.50/-3.00 x 170
C. +6.50/-3.75 x 170
D. +6.50/-2.75 x 80
E. +6.50/-3.00 x 80
104. A patient presents with long-standing blurred distance and near vision.
Which of the following would NOT be a possible cause?
A. Myopia
B. High hypermetropia
C. High astigmatism
D. Ocular Disease
 E. None of the above

105. A patient presents for her first eye test. You find the Rx:

OD –4.00/-3.50 x 160

OS –5.75/-4.00 x 20

As this is her first pair of spectacles, you decide to modify this Rx by

giving ½ the cylinder power

What final Rx do you prescribe?

A. OD: –5.75/-1.75 x 160

OS: -7.75/-2.00 x 20

B. OD: -4.75/-1.75 x 160

OS:-6.75/-2.00 x 20

C. OD: –4.00/-1.75 x 160

OS: -5.75/-2.00 x 20

D. OD: –3.25/-1.75 x 160

OS: -4.75/-2.00 x 20

E. OD: –2.25/-1.75 x 160

OS: -3.75/-2.00 x 20

106. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Amplitude of Accommodation values tend to be higher when
measured with the push-up test due to the angular retinal image
size decreasing as the testing distance decreases
B. When measuring the Amplitude of Accommodation with the
minus-lens method, the angular retinal image size is constant,
giving higher values when compared with the push-up method.
 C. Binocular Amplitude of Accommodation cannot be measured
with the minus-lens method.
D. The expected Amplitude of Accommodation of a 40 year old is 8 D.
E. None of the above.
107. You perform dynamic retinoscopy on a patient, with the static Rx result
in the trial frame, to assess their accommodative response.

-Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. A with movement would indicate a lag of accommodation

B. An against movement would indicate a lead of accommodation
C. A neutral reflex would indicate that the patient has fully
accommodated for the testing distance
D. You would expect to see a with movement in patients with small
pupils
E. All of the above
108. What will be the AC/A ratio for a patient having PD of 60mm, distance
phoria of 6 prism exophoria and 3 prism esophoria at 33cm?
A. 9∆/1.00D
B. 7/1
C. 5/1
D. 3/1
109. Which test will be done for px with latent nystagmus?
A. Cover test
B. NPC
C. Jump convergence
D. Binocular refraction
110. A patient presents with the symptom of blurred distance vision after
prolonged near work.
-On subjective testing, you find an Rx of OD: -1.75 DS, OS: -2.00 DS.
-After cycloplegic refraction you find an Rx of OD: +0.25 DS, OS: plano.
The mostly likely diagnosis is:
A. Spasm of the near reflex
B. Fatigue of Accommodation
C. Infacility of Accommodation
 D. Spasm of AccommodationInsufficiency of Accommodation

111. A patient presents with the symptom of eyestrain at near.

- The amplitude of accommodation is normal, but the AC/A ratio is low

- Dynamic retinoscopy shows a with movement of +1.25

The mostly likely diagnosis is:

A. Spasm of the near reflex

B. Fatigue of Accommodation
C. Infacility of Accommodation
D. Spasm of Accommodation
E. Insufficiency of Accommodation
112. It is found that a patient has significantly reduced amplitude of
accommodation for their age, in both eyes.

Which of the following describes the incorrect (not correct)

management:

A. Prescribe orthoptic exercises

B. Prescribe a near addition to relieve symptoms at near
C. Perform a cycloplegic refraction to check for latent hypermetropia
D. Refer for medical investigation
E. None of the above
113. Why we measure PD?
A. To place optical center infront of px’s visual axis
B. To avoid unwanted prism
C. To produce desired prism
D. To produce abbration
114. You refract a px and after subjective refraction you get +3.00DS with VA
6/6. The px continues to see 6/6 up to +4.50DS.what is the amount of
facultative and absolute hyperopia respectively?
A. +4.50 and +3.00
B. +3.00 and +4.50
 C. +1.50 and +3.00
D. +3.00 and +1.50

115. What will be your target for cover test if your px has VA
OD: 6/9
OS: 6/18
A. One letter from 6/12
B. One letter from 6/18
C. One letter from 6/24
D. None
116. Which one is FALSE about NPC test?
A. It is both subjective and objective test
B. If the px says the line becomes doule it is break point
C. If the px’s one eye drift out it is break point
D. It can be done for all px without RX
E. It is quantitative test
117. You refract a px complaining of reduction of both distance and near vision
for 1 yr
Unaided vision was OD: 6/18 N24
OS: 6/12 N10
After subjective refraction you get OD: +1.50
OS: +1.00
And the vision becomes OD: 6/6 N5
OS: 6/6 N5
What will be your final RX?
A. Full RX for full time wear with distance PD
B. Full RX for distance only with distance PD
C. Full RX for near only with near PD
D. Full RX for full time wear with near PD
118. When doing retinoscopy if the reflex is very dim or hard to interpret
which one will be the reason?
A. The px may has media opacity
B. The px may has small pupils
 C. The px may has high RE
D. All

119. Which one is WRONG about near add?

e) If WD is much less than 40cm we need decrease add
f) It can be determined by previous RX and symptoms
g) For px over 65 yrs the add is determined mainly by WD
h) It can be determined by age and WD
120. Which one is correct about types of hyperopia?
A. Facultative hyperopia can be overcome by accommodation
B. Absolute hyperopia is determined only by cycloplegic refraction
C. Manifest hyperopia may be compensated by accommodation
D. Latent hyperopia can be determined by noncyclolegic refraction
121. The ultimate stimulus for accommodation is
A. Small target size
B. Special frequency
C. Blurring of vision
D. Chromatic aberration
122. Which one is correctly matched?
A. Amplitude of accommodation --- push up test
B. Accommodation facility --- +2.00D flipper test
C. Accommodation response --- dynamic retinoscope
D. All
123. A test which is done by placing prisms over nonfixing eye until light
reflexes appear centered is called____________
A. Krimisky test
B. Hirscberg test
C. Prism cover test
D. None
124. Which one IS NOT indication for perimetry?
A. Suspect glaucoma and Ocular hypertension
B. Unexplained loss of vision
C. Migraine headache
 D. For screening age<40

125. The drug of choice for cycloplegia is

A. Atropine
B. Cyclopentolet
C. Tropicamide
D. All
126. If Atropine is your Cycloplegics drug and at the end of the hypermetropic
refraction you do not do tonus allowance:
A. The final prescription will be over minused
B. The final prescription will be under minused
C. The final prescription will be under plussed
D. The final prescription will be not changed
127. Which one of the following RX is simple myopic astigmatism RX?
A. +3.00/-3.00 x 90
B. +2.00/-2.00 x 180
C. -2.00/+2.00 x 90
D. +3.00/-3.00 x 180
128. You perform retinoscopy under cycloplegia on a 10 years old px. The
cycloplegic drug used was atropine. You find the following Rx with
retinoscopy:
OD +5.50
OS +6.75
What final Rx do you prescribe the Px?
A. OD: +4.50 & OS: +5.75
B. OD:+4.00 & OS: +5.00
C. OD: +3.50 & OS: +4.50
D. OD: +5.50 & OS: +6.75
129. Which one is NOT advantage of binocular refraction?
A. Accommodation and convergence are kept in a stable relationship
B. Allows greater stimulation of accommodation
C. It saves time
D. Cyclophorias will not reduce the final binocular VA
130. A 35 year old myopic patient with Rx:

OD –1.50

OS –1.25

He has had a stable distance correction for at least 10 years, but he now
feels that his distance vision is getting worse

You check his Rx and find it has increased to:

OD –2.75

OS –3.00

This is a suspicious change

Which of the following could NOT be a possible cause?

A. The patient has uncontrolled diabetes which has caused metabolic

changes in the crystalline lens resulting in an increase in
refractive index of the lens
B. Excessive computer use with his spectacles has caused a spasm of
accommodation
C. Corneal oedema causing a steepening of the anterior corneal
surface
D. Orbital tumour causing a shortening of axial length
E. Steeping of the anterior crystalline lens surface through
lenticonus

131. Px’s age 7years

Symptoms His eyes get” tired” when reading close text

Distance vision no problem.

Visions OD: 6/6 OS: 6/6

 Distance Rx and VA OD: +1.25 6/4

OS: +1.25 6/4

Amplitude of accommodation Normal for age

Oculo Motor Balance (OMB) ѕ Rx Distance: Orthophoria

Near: Esophoria

c Rx Distance: Orthophoria

Near: Orthophoria

Near add None

Which of the following is Not correct?

A. The PX should wear his spectacles only at close work.

B. The distance Rx should be ordered with the near PD.
C. The recall time should be six months.
D. No spectacle is required as this is not a significant refractive
error for this age group.

GOOD LUCK!!!