2/18 GTS-04/GP-2/III-IV-20

BIOLOGY
Choose the correct () answer:
1. Match the following columns and select the correct 8. Match the following columns and select the correct
option option
Column I Column II Column I Column II
a. Fusiform tap root (i) Raphanus sativus a. Decussate opposite (i) Calotropis
b. Buttress roots (ii) Momordica phyllotaxy
c. Moniliform roots (iii) Ficus religiosa b. Whorled phyllotaxy (ii) China rose
d. Tuberous roots (iv) Impomoea batata c. Alternate/spiral (iii) Jamun
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) phyllotaxy
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) d. Super-imposed (iv) Nerium
2. Select the correct example of plant having stilt roots opposite phyllotaxy
(1) Viscum (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(2) Arachis hypogea (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(3) Dahlia (3) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(4) Pandanus (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
3. Clinging/climbing roots which arise from nodes and 9. Consider these statements and select the correct
internodes both are found in option
(1) Trapa/Singhara (2) Tinospora/Giloi Statement A: Rose, neem and amaltas contain
(3) Pothos/Money plant (4) Both (1) & (2) unipinnately compound leaves.
4. Which of the following is not an underground stem Statement B: Red silk cotton tree (Bombax) contains
modification? multifoliate palmately compound leaves.
(1) Tuber of potato (2) Bulb of onion (1) Both A & B are correct
(3) Cladode of Ruscus (4) Corm of Colocasia (2) Both A & B are incorrect
5. Select the mismatched pair among these (3) Only A is correct
(1) Runner – Cyanodon dactylon/Doob (4) Only B is correct
grass
10. Mark the incorrect pair regarding modifications of leaf
(2) Offset – Fragaria/Strawberry
(1) Whole leaf tendril = Pisum sativum
(3) Root climber – Piper betel/Paan
(2) Phyllode = Australian acacia
(4) Rhizome – Zingiber officinale/
(3) Non-insectivorous leaf pitcher = Dischidia
Ginger
6. Modified stem present in Asparagus is (4) Leaf bladder = Utricularia
(1) Phylloclade (2) Cladode 11. Select the plant family which contain
monochlamydeous flowers
(3) Phyllode (4) Cladophyll
(1) Liliaceae (2) Poaceae
7. In some leguminous plants pulvinus is present which
is (3) Fabaceae (4) Both (1) & (2)
(1) Swollen leaf base 12. Which of the following is/are monocarpic plants where
flowers/fruits are produced only once in life time?
(2) Swollen base of leaflets
(1) Annual plants
(3) Sheathing leaf base which totally encircles the
node (2) Biennial plants
(4) Sheathing leaf base which partially encircles the (3) Some perennial plants like Bamboo
node (4) All of these

Space For Rough Work

3/18 GTS-04/GP-2/III-IV-20

13. Consider these given statements and select the correct (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
option (2) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
Statement A: Flowers divide in two equal halves by (3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
only one vertical section passing through centre are
(4) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
called asymmetric flowers such as Canna.
18. Go through the followings and find out the correct
Statement B: In mustard, china rose and brinjal ovary
matches w.r.t. inflorescence and their examples
is superior and other floral parts arise from below the
ovary a. Spike – Bottle brush
(1) Both are correct (2) Both are incorrect b. Catkin – Mulberry
(3) Only A is correct (4) Only B is correct c. Spadix – Sunflower
14. Which of the following is incorrect statement among d. Compound umbel – Carrot, Corriander
these? e. Multiparous – Calotropis
(1) In plant Mussaenda, one sepal becomes large, f. Corymb – Maize
coloured and petaloid (1) a, b, c, d (2) a, b, d, e
(2) In papilionaceous corolla, largest posterior petals (3) b, c, d, e (4) b, d, e, f
are two and fused, known as keel or carina 19. Select the incorrect statement among these
(3) Hairy calyx is called pappus and found in family (1) Hypanthodium is formed by condensation of three
Asteraceae cymose inflorescences
(4) In tomato and brinjal, sepals do not fall and remain (2) Cyathium contains single male flower in the centre
attached to fruit of the cup and surrounded by many female flowers
15. Select the correct option which contains (3) Caryopsis is indehiscent fruit where pericarp is
monoadelphous, diadelphous and polyadelphous fused with seed coat
anthers, respectively
(4) Lomentum is special type of legume where each
(1) Malvaceae, Asteraceae, Cucurbitaceae mericarp is one seeded
(2) Asteraceae, Fabaceae, Cucurbitaceae 20. Select the incorrectly matched pair
(3) Malvaceae, Fabaceae, Citrus (1) Sorosis from spike – Pineapple, Jack fruit
(4) Cucurbitaceae, Asteraceae, Malvaceae (2) Synconus from – Fig/Anjeer
16. Find out incorrectly written statement regarding hypanthodium
morphology of flower (3) Aggregate fruit – Raspberry
(1) In tetradynamous condition six stamens are (4) Composite fruit – Sharifa/Annona
present in two whorls where outer two stamens are
short and inner four are long, such as in Mustard 21. Find out incorrectly matched pair regarding aestivation
(1) Cassia – Imbricate
(2) In Liliaceae family, stamens are attached to petals
and represent epipetalous condition (2) Cotton – Twisted
(3) Sterile stamens are called staminode and sterile (3) China rose – Valvate
carpels are called pistillode (4) Pea, Bean – Vexillary
(4) Longest style and stigma are found in maize 22. Choose the correct floral diagram for the family of
17. Match the following columns which include placentation Sesbania and Trifolium
and their example
Column I Column II
a. Axile (i) Ladyfinger
b. Free-central (ii) Dianthus
(1) (2)
c. Parietal (iii) Sunflower
d. Basal (iv) Mustard

Space For Rough Work

4/18 GTS-04/GP-2/III-IV-20

28. Select incorrect statement regarding secondary

meristems
(1) Give rise to primary permanent tissues
(2) Increase width of the plant
(3) (4)
(3) Cells possess dense cytoplasm
(4) Develope from primary permanent tissues by
dedifferentiation
23. Seed is
29. Find out incorrect feature of monocot stem
(1) Developing ovule
(1) Presence of scattered vascular bundles in ground
(2) Developing ovary tissue
(3) Fertilized and ripened ovule (2) Large bundles are towards centre and smaller
(4) Fertilized and ripened ovary towards periphery
24. What type of vascular bundles are shown in figure (A), (3) Presence of cavity due to disintegration of
(B) and (C), respectively? protoxylem
(4) Vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral, open and
exarch
30. Root branches are lateral roots which arise from
A. B. c.
(1) Endodermis
(2) Pericycle
(1) A-Radial, B-Conjoint open, C-Conjoint closed (3) Exodermis
(2) A-Radial, B-Conjoint closed, C-Conjoint open (4) Conjuctive parenchyma
(3) A-Conjoint open, B-Radial, C-Conjoint closed 31. Stelar region (vascular tissue, pericycle and pith) are
(4) A-Conjoint open, B-Conjoint closed, C-Radial formed from
25. Which among the following meristem regenerate parts (1) Periblem
of grasses that are removed by grazing herbivores? (2) Plerome
(1) Apical meristem (3) Dermatogen
(2) Intercalary meristem (4) Tunica
(3) Secondary meristem 32. In dorsiventral leaf, the location of phloem and palisade
(4) Both (1) & (2) tissue is
26. Who proposed quiescent centre theory of root apex (1) Abaxial side
organisation? (2) Adaxial side
(1) Clowes (2) Schmidtt (3) Abaxial and abaxial side, respectively
(3) Nageli (4) Hanstein (4) Adaxial and abaxial side, respectively
27. Consider the given statements and select the incorrect 33. Which of the following is incorrect feature regarding
one isobilateral leaf?
(1) Tracheids are most primitive type of conducting (1) Amphistomatic
elements in xylem (2) Sclerenchymatous bundle sheath extension
(2) In pteridophytes and gymnosperms, usually (3) Motor or bulliform cells on upper epidermis
vessels are absent and wood is non-porous
(4) Differentiated mesophylls into palisade and spongy
(3) Xylem fibres contain obliterated lumen and highly parenchyma
lignified cell wall 34. Statement A: In dicot stem, both primary and
(4) Xylem parenchyma is non-living tissue and provide secondary medullary rays are developed from vascular
mechanical support cambium during secondary growth.

Space For Rough Work

5/18 GTS-04/GP-2/III-IV-20

Statement B: In dicot root, vascular cambium undergo 40. Consider the given figure and select the correct names
both anticlinal and periclinal division during secondary of symbols (A), (B), (C) and (D)
growth.
Consider these statements and select the correct
option
(1) Both A and B are correct
(2) Both A and B are incorrect
(3) Only A is correct
(4) Only B is correct
35. Term leptome is used for
(1) Phloem
(2) Xylem (1) A-Epiderm is, B-Secondary cortex, C-Cork
(3) Fibres cambium, D-Secondary cortex
(2) A-Lenticels, B-Complimentary cells, C-Cork
(4) Parenchyma
cambium, D-Secondary cortex
36. Select the incorrect statement among these (3) A-Lenticels, B-Epidermis, C-Cork cambium,
(1) Young elements of secondary xylem in the D-Secondary cortex
peripheral region constitute sap wood or alburnum (4) A-Complimentary cell, B-Lenticels, C-Secondary
(2) Sap wood is light in colour and physiologically cortex, D-Cork cambium
active 41. Axillary bud and terminal bud are derived from the
(3) Heart wood or duramen is dark in colour due to activity of
deposition of ergastic substances (1) Lateral meristem (2) Apical meristem
(4) Water conduction takes place through sap wood (3) Intercalary meristem (4) Parenchyma
and heart wood both 42. Periderm comprises of
37. Tyloses are baloon like structures known as tracheal (1) Phellem (2) Phellogen
plug and developed from (3) Phelloderm (4) All of these
(1) Xylem tracheids 43. Basic difference between a vessel and a tracheid is in
(2) Xylem vessels the
(3) Xylem parenchyma (1) Perforation on end walls
(2) Being dead at maturity
(4) Xylem fibres
(3) Size and conduction material
38. Growth rings are distinct or sharply demarkated in
(4) Wall thickness and lignification
plants which grow in
44. Consider these statements and find out the correct
(1) Temperate climate
ones
(2) Tropical climate A. Lenticels are found in dicot root and petiole
(3) Climate which shows seasonal variations B. Sap wood will decay faster if exposed freely to the
(4) Both (1) & (3) air
39. Youngest secondary xylem is present just C. In summer season the cambium becomes more
active
(1) Inside primary xylem
D. Phellogen or cork cambium originates from the
(2) Outside vascular cambium tissues outside the vascular cambium
(3) Inside primary phloem (1) A, B, C & D (2) B, C & D
(4) Inside vascular cambium ring (3) A & C (4) A, C & D

Space For Rough Work

6/18 GTS-04/GP-2/III-IV-20

45. Interfascicular cambium in stem is 52. Nissl’s granules are

(1) Primary meristem (2) Secondary meristem (1) RER
(3) Promeristem (4) Both (1) & (3) (2) Found in neurons
46. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. muscle fibre (3) Both (1) & (2)
of skeletal muscles? (4) Actually modified Golgi bodies
(1) Z-line bisects the I-band 53. When an axon gets depolarised then it develops
(2) The thick filaments are held together in the middle (1) Positive charge both on outer and inner sides
of A-band by a thin fibrous membrane called
M-line (2) Negative charge on outer side and positive charge
on inner side
(3) The A and I-bands are arranged alternately
throughout the length of the myofibrils (3) Negative charge both on outer and inner sides
(4) H-zone shows overlapping of the thin (Actin) and (4) Positive charge on the outer side and negative
thick (Myosin) filaments charge on the inner side
47. Which of the following is true? 54. How many of the components given below belong to
Forebrain (F), Midbrain (M) and Hind Brain (H)
(1) The atlas moves around the odontoid peg of axis
Corpora Quadrigemina, Thalamus, Medulla oblongata,
(2) The second vertebrae called axis remains
Hypothalamus, Cerebrum, Cerebellum, Pons
articulated to skull with the help of occipital
condyles (1) F = 3, M = 2, H = 2
(3) Atlas and axis remain completely fused (2) F = 2, M = 3, H = 2
(4) The first seven pairs of ribs are false ribs (3) F = 2, M = 2, H = 3
48. Arrange the following bones according to their (4) F = 3, M = 1, H = 3
increasing number 55. Which of the following is incorrect?
(1) Femur < Metatarsals < Carpals < Phalanges (1) Flow of CSF is maintained by beating movement
(2) Femur < Carpals < Metatarsals < Phalanges of cilia of ependymal cell
(3) Femur < Phalanges < Carpals < Metatarsals (2) Satiety centre of brain is present in hypothalamus
(4) Phalanges < Carpals < Metatarsals < Femur (3) Cerebellum is associated with maintaining posture,
body equilibrium
49. Patella is a
(4) Limbic system is the major co-ordinating centre
(1) Sesamoid bone
for sensory and motor signalling
(2) Cup shaped bone covering the knee joint ventrally
56. How many of the given cranial nerves are exclusively
(3) Knee cap sensory (S) and exclusively motor (M)
(4) All of these Facial, Glossopharyngeal, Vagus, Trochlear, Optic,
50. Choose the incorrect statement Olfactory
(1) Fibrous joints do not show any movement (1) S = 2; M =1
(2) Synovial joints permit free movement (2) S = 3, M = 3
(3) Cartilaginous joints permit limited movement (3) S = 1, M = 3
(4) Synovial joints are characterised by fluid less (4) S = 2, M = 4
synovial cavity
57. Incorrect statement for Cerebrospinal fluid is
51. Identify the incorrect match
(1) It is secreted by mid brain
(1) Malleus and Stapes – Ear ossicles
(2) It is a product of filtration of blood in brain
(2) Sternum and Ribs – Axial skeleton
(3) It helps in transport of nutrients and hormones
(3) Clavicle and Glenoid – Pelvic Girdle through brain
cavity (4) It is filled in ventricles of brain and cushions the
(4) Humerus and ulna – Appendicular skeleton brain

Space For Rough Work

7/18 GTS-04/GP-2/III-IV-20

58. At the cochlear base, the ___A___ ends at ___B___ 65. A chemical signal that has both endocrine and neural
while ___C___ ends at ___D___ which opens into the roles is
middle ear (1) Calcitonin (2) Epinephrine
(1) A-Scala vestibuli, B-Round window, C-Scala (3) Cortisol (4) Melatonin
Tympani, D-Oval window rd th th
66. The 3 , 6 and 11 cranial nerves are
(2) A-Scala tympani, B-Oval window, C-Scala (1) Optic, facial and accessory spinal nerves
Vestibuli, D-Oval window
(2) Occulomotor, trigeminal and accessory spinal
(3) A-Scala vestibuli, B-Oval window, C-Scala tympani,
(3) Trigeminal, abducens and vagus
D-Round window
(4) Occulomotor, abducens and accessory spinal
(4) A-Scala tympani, B-round window, C-Scala
vestibuli, D-Round window 67. All hormones
59. Bowman’s cells are present in (1) Are lipid soluble molecules
(2) Are produced in large amounts
(1) Nasal epithelium (2) Kidney
(3) Elicit the same response and are protein
(3) Ear (4) Eye
molecules
60. Taste and smell are similar in that
(4) Are carried to target cells via blood
(1) In both cases, chemical get dissolved in body fluid 68. Oxytocin and vasopressin are synthesized
before they can be detected
(1) In the pars nervosa
(2) Both stimuli are detected by same organ
(2) By Adenohypophysis
(3) Type of thermoreception
(3) By Pars Distalis and Pars Intermedia
(4) Both types of stimuli stimulate thigmoreceptors
(4) By Hypothalamus and transported axonally to
61. Number of carpals in each wrist are neurohypophysis
(1) 7 (2) 5 69. The Pituitary gland is located in a bony cavity in the
(3) 6 (4) 8 sphenoid bone called _____.
62. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. inner ear (1) Foramen Cecum
(1) The vestibular apparatus is composed of (2) Sella turcica
semicircular canals and cochlea (3) Optic canal
(2) Otolith organ consists of saccule and utricle (4) Foramen ovale
(3) Each semicircular canal lies in different plane at 70. Identify A, B, C and D for the table provided?
right angles to each other Hormone Target organ
(4) The base of semicircular canals is swollen and is I. __A__ Adrenal cortex
called ampulla which contain crista ampullaris II. Prolactin __B__
63. Sound wave arriving at a listener, first strike the III. __C__ Male Gonads
(1) Tectorial membrane (2) Tympanic membrane IV. Oxytocin __D__
(3) Basilar membrane (4) Reissner’s membrane (1) A-MSH, B-Mammary gland, C-ICSH, D-Uterus
64. Tetany is (2) A-ACTH, B-Mammary gland, C-ICSH, D-Mammary
(1) Rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca in ++ gland and uterus
muscles (3) A-FSH, B-Female Gonads, C-LH, D-Mammary
(2) Rapid spasms in muscle due to high Ca in ++ gland
muscles (4) A-Oxytocin, B-Mammary Glands, C-Prolactin,
D-Mammary gland and uterus
(3) Rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca++ in body
fluids 71. Which of the following is correct?
++
(4) Rapid spasms in muscle due to high Ca in body (1) Aldosterone is the main gluco-corticoid in our body
fluids (2) In our body, cortisol is the main mineralocorticoid

Space For Rough Work

8/18 GTS-04/GP-2/III-IV-20

(3) Gluco-corticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis but 78. Select the incorrect match
not lipolysis and proteolysis (1) Glucagon – Hyperglycaemic
(4) Gluco-corticoids inhibit cellular uptake and hormone
utilisation of amino acids (2) Progesterone – Birth hormone
72. Which of the following endocrine glands have dual (3) Adrenaline – Hormone of fight or
origin? flight
(1) Adrenal gland (2) Pituitary gland (4) Parathormone – Hypercalcemic
(3) Thyroid gland (4) Both (1) & (2) hormone
73. Find out which of the following statements are true (T)/ 79. Unmyelinated nerve fibres are commonly found in
False (F) and choose the correct option
(1) Autonomic nervous system
A. Hyperthyroidism causes cretinism
(2) Somatic nervous system
B. Iodine is essential for the normal rate of hormone
(3) Spinal and cranial nerves
synthesis in the thyroid
C. In adult women, hypothyroidism may cause (4) Both (1) & (2)
menstrual cycle to become irregular 80. Reflex action can be described as
D. Hyperthyroidism can occur due to cancer of (1) Process of response to peripheral nervous
thyroid gland stimulation that occurs involuntarily
(1) A-F, B-T, C-T, D-T (2) A-F, B-F, C-T, D-T (2) Process of response to peripheral nervous
(3) A-T, B-T, C-T, D-T (4) A-T, B-F, C-T, D-T stimulation that occurs voluntarily
74. If a person looses a large amount of water in short (3) Process of response to central nervous stimulation
period of time, he/she may die from dehydration. ADH that occurs involuntarily
can help reduce water loss through its interaction with (4) Process of response to central nervous stimulation
its target cells in the that occurs voluntarily
(1) Bladder (2) Adrenal gland 81. The layer of the eyeball which contain many blood
(3) Ureter (4) Kidney vessels and looks bluish in colour is
75. Identify the correct statement (1) Sclera (2) Cornea
(1)
Neural tissue is endodermal in origin (3) Choroid (4) Retina
(2)
Neural tissue is mesodermal in origin 82. An area in the cerebrum of the brain which is the seat
(3)
Nerve fibres innervate all cells of the body for perception of sensations like pain, touch,
temperature. It is called
(4)
Neural system and endocrine system jointly
co-ordinate physiological functions in the body (1) Frontal lobe (2) Parietal lobe
76. Choose the incorrect statement (3) Temporal lobe (4) Occipital lobe
(1) LH and FSH stimulate gonadial activity 83. Which one occurs in Mesencephalon?
(2) Oxytocin acts on the smooth muscles of our body (1) Cerebellum (2) Inferior colliculi
(3) Vasopressin acts mainly on ureter and stimulate (3) Thalamus (4) Hippocampus
reabsorption of water 84. Energy transformation during nerve conduction is
(4) Prolactin induces formation of milk in mammary (1) Chemical to radiant
gland
(2) Chemical to mechanical
77. Identify the correct functions of emergency hormones
(3) Chemical to electrical
a. Increase Alertness b. Pupillary constriction
(4) Mechanical to radiant
c. Piloerection d. Sweating
85. Ventricles of Brain are lined by the cells called
e. Increase heart rate f. Glycogenesis
(1) Microglia (2) Ependymal cells
(1) a, b, c, d, e (2) a, c, d, e, f
(3) Neurons (4) Schwann’s cells
(3) a, b, c, d, e, f (4) a, c, d, e

Space For Rough Work

9/18 GTS-04/GP-2/III-IV-20

86. Suppose a person wears convex lens for proper vision. 88. The articulation of ulna with humerus at the elbow is
Where is the image of the object formed in his eyes an example of
when he is not using lens (1) Gliding joint (2) Pivot joint
(1) On the blind spot (3) Hinge joint (4) Ball and socket joint
(2) On the yellow spot 89. Glycogen is degraded to lactic acid by enzymes in
(3) Behind the retina muscles when the animal is
(1) Exhausted (2) Starved
(4) Infront of the retina
(3) Killed (4) Defecated
87. The fenestra rotundus connects
90. Muscle activity
(1) External ear to middle ear
(1) Increases body temperature
(2) Middle ear to internal ear (2) Decreases BMR
(3) Cochlea to semicircular canals (3) Decreases venous return
(4) Middle ear to pharynx (4) Reduces blood and lymph flow

PHYSICS
91. A uniform rectangular thin sheet ABCD of mass M has 93. A metal coin of mass 5g and radius 1 cm is fixed to a
length a and breadth b, as shown in the figure. If the thin stick AB of negligible mass as shown in the figure.
shaded portion HGBO is cut-off, the coordinates of the The system is initially at rest. The constant torque, that
centre of mass of the remaining portion will be will make the system rotate about AB at 25 rotations
per second is 5s, is close to

 2a 2b   5a 5b  (1) 40 × 10–6 N-m

(1)  ,  (2)  , 
 3 3   12 12 
(2) 2.0 × 10–5 N-m
 3a 3b   5a 5b  (3) 1.6 × 10–5 N-m
(3)  ,  (4)  , 
 4 4   3 3  (4) 7.9 × 10–6 N-m
92. A wedge of mass M = 4m lies on a frictionless plane. 94. Three particles of masses 50 g, 100 g and 150 g are
A particle of mass m approaches the wedge with speed placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side
v. There is no friction between the particle and the 1 m (as shown in figure). The (x, y) coordinates of the
plane or between the particle and the wedge. The centre of mass will be
maximum height climbed by the particle on the wedge
is given by

2v 2 v2
(1) (2)
7g g

2v 2 v2
(3) (4)
5g 2g

Space For Rough Work

10/18 GTS-04/GP-2/III-IV-20

98. Two particles A and B moving on two concentric circles

 3 5   7 3 
(1)  4 , 12 m  (2)  m, m of radii R1 and R2 with equal angular speed . At
   12 8  t = 0, their positions and direction of motion are shown

 7 3   3 7  in the figure. The relative velocity VA  VB at t 
(3)  m, m (4)  m, m  2
 12 4   8 12  is given by

95. A smooth wire of length 2r is bent into a circle and

kept in a vertical plane. A bead can slide smoothly on
the wire. When the circle is rotating with angular speed
 about the vertical diameter AB, as shown in figure.
The bead is at rest with respect to the circular ring at
position P as shown. Then, the value of 2 is equal to

(1)  (R1  R2 )iˆ (2)  (R1  R2 )iˆ

(3)  (R1  R2 )iˆ (4)  (R2  R1)iˆ

99. A slender uniform rod of mass M and length l is pivoted
at one end so that it can rotate in a vertical plane (see
the figure). There is negligible friction at the pivot and
3g 2g then released. The angular acceleration of the rod when
(1) (2) ] it makes an angles  with the vertical, is
2r (r 3 )
(g 3 ) 2g
(3) (4)
r r
96. A rigid massless rod of length 3l has two masses
attached at each end as shown in the figure. The rod
is pivoted at point P on the horizontal axis (see figure).
When released from initial horizontal positions, its
instantaneous angular acceleration will be 2g 3g
(1) sin  (2) cos 
3l 2l

2g 3g
(3) cos  (4) sin 
3l 2l
g g
(1) (2) 100. A mass m supported by a massless string wound a
13l 2l
uniform hollow cylinder of mass m and radius R. If the
7g g
(3) (4) string does not slip on the cylinder, with what
3l 3l acceleration will the mass fall on release?
97. A string is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 5
kg and radius 0.5 m. If the string is now pulled with a
horizontal force of 40 N and the cylinder is rolling
without slipping on a horizontal surface (see figure),
then the angular acceleration of the cylinder will be
(Neglect the mass and thickness of the string)
40 N 2g g
(1) (2)
3 2
(1) 10 rad/s2 (2) 16 rad/s2 5g
(3) (4) g
(3) 20 rad/s2 (4) 12 rad/s2 6

Space For Rough Work

11/18 GTS-04/GP-2/III-IV-20

101. A hoop of radius r and mass m rotating with an angular 106. Four points masses, each of value m, are placed at
velocity 0 is placed on a rough horizontal surface. The the corners of a square ABCD of side l. The moment
initial velocity of the centre of the hoop is zero. What of inertia of this system about an axis passing through
will be the velocity of the centre of the loop when it A and parallel to BD is
ceases to slip?
(1) 2ml 2 (2) 3ml 2
r 0 r 0
(1) (2)
4 3 (3) 3ml 2 (4) ml 2
107. A T shaped object with dimensions shown in the figure,
r 0 is lying on a smooth floor. A force F is applied at the
(3) (4) r 0
2 point P parallel to AB, such that the object has only
102. A thin horizontal circular disc is rotating about a vertical the translational motion without rotation. Find the
axis passing through its centre. An insect is at rest location of P w.r.t. to C
at a point near the rim of the disc. The insect now
moves along a diameter of the disc to reach its other
end. During the journey of the insect, the angular speed
of the disc
(1) Continuously decreases
(2) Continuously increases
(3) First increases and then decreases
(4) Remains unchanged
2 3
103. Consider a uniform square plate of side a and mass (1) l (2) l
3 2
m. The moment of inertia of this plate about an axis
perpendicular to its plane and passing through one of 4
its corners (3) l (4) l
3
5 1 108. A circular disc X of radius R is made from an iron plate
(1) ma 2 (2) ma 2
6 12 of thickness t and another disc Y of radius 4R is made
from an iron plate of thickness t/4. Then, the relation
7 2 between the moment of inertia IX and IY is
(3) ma 2 (4) ma2
12 3
(1) IY  32I X
104. A circular disc of radius R is removed from a bigger
circular disc of radius 2R, such that the circumference (2) IY  16I X
of the disc coincide. The centre of mass of the new
(3) IY  I X
discs is R from the centre of the bigger disc. The
value of  is (4) IY  64I X

1 1 109. Two identical particles moves towards each other with

(1) (2) velocity 2v and v, respectively. The velocity of centre
3 2
of mass is
1 1 v
(3) (4) (1) v (2)
6 4 3
105. Angular momentum of the particle rotating with a v
central force is constant due to (3) (4) Zero
2
(1) Constant force 110. A ball strikes a smooth horizontal surface and
(2) Constant linear momentum rebounce as shown in figure. If  = 45° and coefficient
(3) Zero torque 1
of restitution (e )  , find 
(4) Constant torque 3

Space For Rough Work

12/18 GTS-04/GP-2/III-IV-20

115. A body of mass m tied at the end of a massless string

of length l (fixed at other end) is projected with
horizontal velocity 4gl . At what height from initial
 
level will it leave the circular path?

(1) 30° (2) 60°

(3) 45° (4) 75°
111. Two point masses of mass 4 m and m respectively I
separated by a distance d are revolving under mutual
force of attraction. Ratio of their kinetic energy will be 4gI

1 5 5
(1) (2) 1 (1) l (2) l
2 3 4
3 1 5 4
(3) (4) (3) l (4) l
4 4 2 3
112. A block of mass m is stationary with respect to wedge
116. A block of mass m is placed on an another rough block
of mass M moving with uniform speed v on horizontal
of mass M and both are moving horizontally with same
surface. Find the work done by friction force on the
acceleration a due to a force which is applied on the
block in t second
lower block, then work done by lower block on the
upper block in moving a distance s will be
m (1) Mas (2) (m + M)as
M v
 M2
(3) as (4) mas
m
mgvt 117. A block of mass m moving with velocity v strikes
(1) Zero (2)  sin 2
2 elastically another identical mass connected to a
spring as shown in figure. The maximum compression
mgvt mgvt produced in the spring (Assume surfaces to be
(3)  (4)  sin2 
2 2 smooth) is
113. A particle is kept at rest at the top of a sphere of
diameter 42 m. When disturbed slightly, it slides down.
At what height h from the bottom, the particle will leave
the sphere k
m v m
(1) 14 m (2) 16 m
(3) 35 m (4) 70 m
114. A uniform chain has a mass M and length L. It is mv 2 mv 2
(1) (2)
placed on a frictionless table with length l0 hanging over 2k k
the edge. The chain begins to slide down. The speed
V with which the chain slides away from the edge is
mv 2
given by (3) (4) None of these
3k
gl0 gl0 118. Two bodies of mass m1 = 3 kg and m2 = 2 kg move
(1) V  (L  l 0 ) (2) V  (L  l 0 )
L L along mutually perpendicular directions with velocities
4 m/s and 3 m/s respectively as shown in the figure.
g 2 2 As a result of collision the bodies stick together. The
(3) V  (L  l 0 ) (4) V  2g (L  l0 )
L amount of heat liberated is

Space For Rough Work

13/18 GTS-04/GP-2/III-IV-20

m1 4 m/s 2
m1m22 m1m2  l 
3 m/s (1) 2
l2 (2)  
(m1  m2 ) m1  m2  2 

m1m2l 2 m12m2
(3) (4) l2
m2 m1  m2 (m1  m2 )2
(1) 10 J (2) 15 J
123. A rod of uniform mass and of length L can freely rotate
(3) 20 J (4) 25 J in a vertical plane about an axis passing through O.
119. Ball 1 collides with an another identical ball 2 at rest The angular velocity of the rod when it falls from
as shown in figure. For what value of coefficient of position P to P ' through an angle 
restitution e, the velocity of second ball becomes two
P
times that of 1 after collision?
P’

1 2

(1) 1/3 (2) 1/2
(3) 1/4 (4) 1/6
O
120. A heavy particle of mass m, oscillates through 1800
inside of a smooth hemisphere of radius R as shown. 6g 6g 
(1) sin  (2) sin
If V is speed of particle at any instant, the normal 5L L 2
reaction on it at that instant will be
6g  6g
(3) cos (4) sin 
R L 2 L
124. A bucket tied to a string is lowered at a constant
acceleration of g/4. If the mass of the bucket is M and
is lowered by a distance d, the work done by the string
will be (assume the string to be massless)
mV 2 3mV 2
(1) (2) (1) 1/4 Mg d (2) –3/4 Mgd
R R
(3) –4/3 Mgd (4) 4/3 Mgd
3 mV 2 mV 2 125. Force acting on a particle moving in a straight line
(3) (4) 2
2 R R K
. Here,
varies with the velocity of the particle as F 
121. A cube of side l and mass M is placed on rough v
horizontal surface and the friction is sufficient so that K is a constant. The work done by this force in time t
it will not move, if a constant force F = Mg is applied is
horizontally l/4 above the surface. Then the torque due
to normal force about center of the cube is equal to K .
(1) t (2) 2 Kt
v2
Mgl Mgl
(1) (2)
2 4 2Kt
(3) Kt (4)
Mgl v2
(3) (4) Zero 126. A body is acted upon by a force which is inversely
8
proportional to the distance covered. The work done
122. Two point masses m1 and m2 are attached from ends
will be proportional to
of a rod of negligible mass and length l. The system
is rotated about an axis perpendicular to the length of (1) s (2) s 2
the rod. the minimum moment of inertia of the system
(3) s (4) None of these
is given by

Space For Rough Work

14/18 GTS-04/GP-2/III-IV-20

127. A block of mass ‘m’ is released from rest at point A. 131. A particle is projected with a velocity u making an angle
The compression in spring, when the speed of block  with the horizontal. The instantaneous power of the
is maximum gravitational force
(1) varies linearly with time
(2) is constant throughout
(3) is negative for complete path
(4) None of the above
132. A self propelled vehicle of mass m whose engine
mg sin  2mg sin  delivers constant power P has an acceleration
(1) (2) a = P/mv (assume that there is no friction). In order to
k k
increase its velocity from v1 to v2 the distance it has
mg cos  mg to travel will be
(3) (4)
k k 3P 2 m 3
(1) (v 2  v12 ) (2) (v 2  v13 )
128. Find the horizontal velocity of the particle when it reach m 3P
the point Q. Assume the block to be frictionless. Take m m
g = 9.8 m/s2 (3) (v 22  v12 ) (4) (v 2  v1)
3P 3P
133. A man cycles up a hill rising 1 metre vertically for every
50 metre along the slope at the rate of 3.6 km/hour. If
the weight of the man and cycle is 120 kg, the power
of the man is (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 6 watt (2) 12 watt
(3) 24 watt (4) 48 watt
134. The potential energy of a particle varies according to
(1) 4 m/s (2) 5 m/s the graph shown. Force acting on it varies according
to which of the following graphs
(3) g m/s (4) 3.6 m/s
129. A block of mass m = 0.1 kg is released from a height
of 4 m on a curved smooth surface. On the horizontal
surface, path AB is smooth and path BC offers
coefficient of friction µ = 0.1. If the impact of block with
the vertical wall at C be perfectly elastic, the total
distance covered by the block on the horizontal surface
before coming to rest will be: (take g = 10 m/s2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(1) 29 m (2) 49 m
(3) 59 m (4) 109 m 135. A force F  2iˆ  3 ˆj  kˆ acts at a point (2, –3, 1). Then
130. A pump is required to lift 800 kg of water per minute
magnitude of torque of this force about point (0, 0, 2)
from a 10 m deep well and eject it with a speed of 20
will be
m/s. The required power in watts of the pump will be
(1) 6 (2) 3 5
(1) 240000 (2) 4000
(3) 5000 (4) None of these (3) 6 5 (4) None of these

Space For Rough Work

15/18 GTS-04/GP-2/III-IV-20

CHEMISTRY
136. Given that Kc for equation (i) given below has a value (1) Negative (2) Positive
of 256 at 1000 K. Calculate the numerical values of (3) Zero (4) Can not determine
Kc for other reactions (ii), (iii) and (iv).
141. The oxidation of SO2 by O2 to SO3 is an exothermic
i. 2A2(g) + B2(g)  2A2B(g) process. The yield of SO3 is increased if
A. Temperatue is increased and pressure is kept
ii. 2A2B(g)  2A2(g) + B2(g)
constant.
iii. A2(g) + 1/2B2(g)  A2B(g) B. Temperature is reduced at constant pressure
iv. A2B(g)  A2(g) + 1/2B2(g) C. Pressure is increased at constant temperature
D. Temperature and pressure both are increased.
1 1 1 1
(1) , 16, (2) 16, , The correct option is
256 16 256 16
(1) A and B (2) A and C
1 1 1 (3) B and C (4) B, C and D
(3) , , 16 (4) 256, 16,
16 256 16 142. COCl 2 gas decomposes as:
137. A reversible reaction is endothermic in forward COCl 2(g)
 CO(g) + Cl2(g)
direction. Then which of the following is (are) correct? If one mole of He gas is added at equilibrium at
A. ln Keq vs 1/T will be a straight line with negative constant pressures then
slope. (1) [COCl2] increases.
B. Keq will be independent of temperature (2) Moles of CO will increase.
C. Keq will increase with increase in temperature (3) The reaction goes in forward direction.
D. An increase in temperature will shift the reaction (4) Both (2) and (3)
in the forward direction. 143. An acid solution of pH = 6 is diluted 100 times. The pH
(1) A, B and C (2) B, C and D of solution becomes
(3) A, C and D (4) A, B and D (1) 6.95 (2) 6
138. A large positive value of G° correcponds to which of (3) 4 (4) 8
these? 144. Which of the following constitute a set of amphoteric
(1) Small positive K (2) Small negative K species?
(3) Large positive K (4) Large negative K (1) H2O, H2PO3 ,HPO42–

139. 2A(g) 2B(g) + C(g). If P represents total pressure (2) HC 2O 4 , H 2PO 4 , SO 42–
at equilibrium, then Kp of reaction is (3) H2O, HPO42–, H2PO2

 3P (4) H3O, H2PO4 , HCO3

3
(1) (2)  P
2 145. pH of a solution made by mixing 200 mL of 0.06 M
NaOH, 140 mL of 0.1 M HCl and 160 mL of H2O is
3 3 3
 P P (1) 3.4 (2) 2.4
(3) (4)
2 2 (3) 11.6 (4) 10.6
140. In a flask, colourless N2O4 is in equilibrium with brown 146. Which of the following solutions has pH < 7?
coloured NO2. At equilibrium, when the flask is heated (1) Bal2 (2) Fe(NO3)3
to 100°C the brown colour deepens and on cooling, the
(3) CH3COONH4 (4) Csl
brown colour became lighter. The change in enthalpy
(H) for the reaction is 147. pH of water is 7. When a substance Y is dissolved in
water, the pH becomes 11. The substances Y is a salt
N2O4 2NO2 of

Space For Rough Work

16/18 GTS-04/GP-2/III-IV-20

(1) Strong acid and strong base 155. An oxide ‘x’ of element of gp. 14 has the following
(2) Strong acid and weak base properties
(3) Weak acid and strong base a. It has a three dimensional network
(4) Can not predict b. It has a very high melting point
148. The compound whose 0.1 M solution is most basic, is c. Kieselgur is an amorphous form of this oxide
(1) HCOONa (2) NH4Cl d. It forms water glass on combining with NaOH
(3) (NH4)2SO4 (4) CH3COONa Oxide ‘x’ is
149. The pH of Ca(OH)2 is 10.6 at 25°C. Ksp of Ca(OH)2 is (1) CO (2) SiO2
(1) 3.2 × 10–12 M3 (2) 3.2 × 10–11 M3 (3) CO2 (4) SnO
(3) 1.6 × 10–12 M3 (4) 1.6 × 10–11 M3 156. Which of the following is a consequence of inert pair
effect?
150. Minimum volume of water needed to dissolve 1 mg of
PbSO4 (Ksp = 1.44 × 10–8, MW of PbSO4 = 303g) at a. SnCl2 acts as reducing agent
25°C is b. BiCl5 does not exist
(1) 80 mL (2) 43 mL c. TlCl3 acts as oxidizing agent
(3) 27.5 mL (4) 10 mL d. PbO2 is an oxidant
151. Which one of the following is not correct for allotropic (1) a, c & b (2) b & c
forms of C? (3) a, b, c & d (4) b, c & d
(1) C60 molecule has a shape like soccer ball and is 157. HCOOH on being dehydrated with conc. H2SO4 gives
called Buckminster fullerene (1) CO (2) CO
2
(2) Graphite is aromatic (3) C3O2 (4) Both (1) & (3)
(3) In graphite, C is sp2 hybridised 158. For which of the following reaction is Kp < Kc at
(4) In diamond, C is sp3 hybridised and paramagnetic 298 K?
H2O (1) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
152. Boron + A  B  C + D
Compound ‘C’ has a layered structure and compound (2) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)
‘D’ on reaction with diborane forms a compound E (3) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)
which is called ‘Inorganic benzene’. The compounds
A and C respectively are (4) N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g)
(1) O2 and (BN)x 159. C(OH)4 is unstable while Si(OH)4 is relatively stable
because
(2) N2 and B(OH)3
(1) Carbon can form stronger 2p-2p bonds with
(3) H2 and B2H6
oxygen by eliminating H2O whereas silicon, due
(4) Cl2 and H3BO3 to its bigger size will try to form 3p-2p bond with
153. Which of the following is incorrect order of the property O which are relatively unstable
mentioned along? (2) Silicon is more electronegative than C
(1) Al < Ga < In < Tl (stability of +1 oxidation state) (3) Si - Si bond is stronger than C - C bond
(2) Al < Ga < In < Tl (stability of +3 oxidation state) (4) Both (2) & (3)
(3) AlX3 > GaX3 > InX3 > TlX3 (Lewis acid character) 160. Which of the following ammonium salts upon heating
(4) Ga < Al < In < Tl (atomic radius) will liberate ammonia?
154. Carbon forms an anion containing one  and 2 bonds, 
(1) NH4NO2  
then the anion is

(2) (NH4 )2 SO4  
(1) C4– (2) C22

(3) NH4NO3  
(3) C34 (4) C36 (4) Both (1) & (2)

Space For Rough Work

17/18 GTS-04/GP-2/III-IV-20

161. Boiling point of H2Te is more than that of H2S because (3) Contrary to electronegativity, PF3 acts as a strong
of donor due to p-d back bonding from F  P
(1) Weaker H-bonding in H2Te (4) Correct order of reducing strength of oxyacids
(2) Lower electronegativity of Te than S follows the order H3PO2 < H3PO3 < H3PO4
(3) Strong Van der Waals interaction in H2Te 168. The maximum covalency of N is
(4) More metallic character of Te than S (1) 5 (2) 4
162. Catalyst used in “contant process” used for preparation (3) 6 (4) 3
of H2SO4 is 169. Calculate the weight of non-volatile solute having
(1) NO (2) V2O3 molecular weight 40, which should be dissolved in
57 gm octane to reduce its vapour pressure to 80%
(3) V2O5 (4) NO2
(1) 40 g (2) 5 g
163. Select the incorrect order against the property
mentioned. (3) 20 g (4) 80 g
(1) Cl > Br > F > I : Bond dissociation Enthalpy 170. Which is correct statement?
2 2 2 2
(2) Cl > F > Br > I : Electron affinity (1) For all non-deal solutions, Vmix > 0
(3) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 : Reactivity of halogens (2) For all non-ideal solutions, Hmix < 0
(4) Cl2 < Br2 < F2 < I2 : Bond length (3) Mixing of chloroform and acetone is endothermic
164. In the preparation of HBr or HI, NaX (X = Br, I) is treated (4) When liquid ethanol and water are mixed then heat
with H3PO4 and not with concentrated H2SO4 because is absorbed
(1) H2SO4 makes the reaction reversible 171. In a mixture of A and B, components show positive
deviation when
(2) H2SO4 oxidises HX to X2 (Br2, I2)
(1) A – B interaction is stronger than A – A and B – B
(3) Na2SO4 is water soluble & Na3PO4 is water insoluble
interaction
(4) All of these
(2) A – B interaction is weaker than A – A and B – B
165. Select the correct statement (s) interaction
(a) XeO64 – (Perxenate ion) is a powerful oxidising agent (3) Vmix < 0, Smix > 0
(4) Vmix = 0, Smix > 0
(b) XeF2 undergoes hydrolysis to form Xe, HF & O2
172. One mole of a solute A is dissolved in a given volume
(c) XeF4 reacts violently with water to give XeO3
of a solvent. The association of the solute take place
(d) XeF6 undergoes complete hydrolysis to form XeO3 as follows
& HF
(e) Hybridisation of Xe in XeF2 is sp3 
nA  
 An
(1) Only a, b & c are correct If  is the degree of association of A, the van’t Hoff
(2) Only d & e are correct factor i is expressed as
(3) Only a, b, c & d are correct 
(1) i = 1 –  (2) i  1 
(4) All are correct n
166. Select the correct order 
(1) Rn > Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He (Boiling point) (3) i  1    (4) i = 1 –  + n
n
(2) Rn > Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He (Ease of liquefication) 173. The mole fraction of O2 in air is 0.2. The number of
(3) Rn > Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He (solubility in H2O) moles of O2 from air dissolved in 100 mol of water at
(4) All of these 298 K and 100 atm pressure is (Given Henry’s law
167. Select the incorrect statement constant for the solubility of O 2 gas in water is
4.0 × 104 atm)
(1) Solid N2O5 is ionic & exists as NO2+NO3–
(1) 5 × 10–3 (2) 2 × 10–3
(2) Correct order of acidic strength of oxyacids follows
the order, H3PO2 > H3PO3 > H3PO4 (3) 2.5 × 10–2 (4) 4 × 10–2

Space For Rough Work

18/18 GTS-04/GP-2/III-IV-20

174. Calculate the percentage degree of dissociation of an 177. In a 0.2 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid HX the
electrolyte XY2 (Normal molar mass = 164) in water if degree of ionisation is 0.25. The freezing point of the
the observed molar mass by measuring elevation in solution will be nearest to (Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1)
boiling point is 65.6 (1) –0.26°C (2) 0.465°C
(1) 75% (2) 25% (3) –0.48°C (4) –0.465°C
(3) 65% (4) 35% 178. The osmotic pressures of 0.010 M solutions of KI and
175. Among equimolal solution of given compounds, of sucrose (C12H22O11) are 0.432 atm and 0.24 atm
maximum freezing point will be for (assuming complete respectively. The van’t Hoff factor for KI is
ionisation in each case) (1) 1.80 (2) 0.80
(1) [Fe(H2O)6]Cl3 (3) 1.2 (4) 1.0
(2) [Fe(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O 179. Which of the following aqueous solutions should have
(3) [Fe(H2O)4Cl2]Cl.2H2O the highest osmotic pressure?
(4) [Fe(H2O)3Cl3].3H2O (1) 0.011 M AlCl3 at 50°C
176. PtCl4.6H2O can exist as a hydrated complex. Its (2) 0.03 M NaCl at 25°C
1 molal aq. solution has depression in freezing point (3) 0.012 M (NH4)2SO4 at 25°C
of 3.72. Assume 100% ionisation and Kf (H 2O) = (4) 0.03 M NaCl at 50°C
1.86°C mol–1 kg, then complex is
180. A 5.85% solution (w/v) of NaCl is isotonic with 27%
(1) [Pt(H2O)6]Cl4 solution (w/v) of glucose. Calculate percentage degree
(2) [Pt(H2O)4Cl2]Cl2.2H2O of ionization of NaCl
(3) [Pt(H2O)3Cl3]Cl.3H2O (1) 50% (2) 25%
(4) [Pt(H2O)3Cl3].3H2O (3) 100% (4) 75%



Space For Rough Work

19 GTS-04/GP-2/III-IV-20

ANSWERS
Test No. 04, 03-04-2020 Group-2

1. (1) 24. (2) 47. (1) 70. (2) 93. (2) 116. (4) 139. (1) 162. (3)

2. (4) 25. (2) 48. (1) 71. (4) 94. (3) 117. (2) 140. (3) 163. (4)

3. (3) 26. (1) 49. (4) 72. (4) 95. (2) 118. (2) 141. (3) 164. (2)

4. (3) 27. (4) 50. (4) 73. (1) 96. (1) 119. (1) 142. (4) 165. (3)

5. (2) 28. (1) 51. (3) 74. (4) 97. (2) 120. (3) 143. (1) 166. (4)

6. (2) 29. (4) 52. (3) 75. (4) 98. (4) 121. (2) 144. (1) 167. (4)

7. (1) 30. (2) 53. (2) 76. (3) 99. (4) 122. (3) 145. (2) 168. (2)

8. (3) 31. (2) 54. (4) 77. (4) 100. (2) 123. (2) 146. (2) 169. (2)

9. (1) 32. (3) 55. (4) 78. (2) 101. (3) 124. (2) 147. (3) 170. (4)

10. (1) 33. (4) 56. (1) 79. (4) 102. (3) 125. (3) 148. (4) 171. (2)

11. (4) 34. (4) 57. (1) 80. (1) 103. (4) 126. (4) 149. (2) 172. (3)

12. (4) 35. (1) 58. (3) 81. (3) 104. (1) 127. (3) 150. (3) 173. (1)

13. (4) 36. (4) 59. (1) 82. (2) 105. (3) 128. (3) 151. (4) 174. (1)

14. (2) 37. (3) 60. (1) 83. (2) 106. (3) 129. (3) 152. (2) 175. (4)

15. (3) 38. (4) 61. (4) 84. (3) 107. (3) 130. (2) 153. (2) 176. (3)

16. (2) 39. (4) 62. (1) 85. (2) 108. (4) 131. (1) 154. (2) 177. (4)

17. (1) 40. (2) 63. (2) 86. (3) 109. (3) 132. (2) 155. (2) 178. (1)

18. (2) 41. (2) 64. (3) 87. (2) 110. (2) 133. (3) 156. (4) 179. (4)

19. (2) 42. (4) 65. (2) 88. (3) 111. (4) 134. (3) 157. (2) 180. (1)

20. (4) 43. (1) 66. (4) 89. (1) 112. (2) 135. (3) 158. (2)

21. (3) 44. (2) 67. (4) 90. (1) 113. (3) 136. (1) 159. (1)

22. (2) 45. (2) 68. (4) 91. (2) 114. (3) 137. (3) 160. (2)

23. (3) 46. (4) 69. (2) 92. (3) 115. (1) 138. (1) 161. (3)