D.S.

S AIIMS PREPRATION TEST SERIES

WHATS APP – 7014964651
Dr. SANJAY

Multiple ChoiCe Questions

(c) I, II and III are correct

(d) II, III and IV are correct
1. Definition of health given by WHO includes which of 8. Minimum and Maximum Values established for
the following dimensions: calculation of Life Expectancy index in HDI are:
(a) Social (a) 0 years and 65 years
(b) Physical (b) 0 years and 85 years
(c) Mental (c) 25 years and 85 years
(d) Emotional (d) 0 years and 100 years
(e) Economic
9. Human Development Index (HDI) values range
2. Standard of Living (WHO) includes all except: between
(a) Income (a) –1 to +1
(b) Sanitation and nutrition (b) 0 to 1
(c) Level of provision of health (c) 0 to 3
(d) Human rights (d) 1 to 3
3. Living standard of people is best assessed by:
10. PQLI stands for:
(a) Infant mortality rate (a) Physical quality of life index
(b) Maternal mortality (b) Physical quantity of life index
(c) Physical quality of life index
D.S.S AIIMS PREPRATION

(c) Physiological quality of life index

(d) Death rate (d) Psychological quality of life index
4. Human living standards can be compared in different 11. All of the following are determinants for the essential
countries by components to calculate Physical Quality of Index
(a) HDI (PQLI) except:
(b) PQLI (a) Infant mortality rate
(c) HPI (b) Life expectancy at age one year
(d) DALY (c) Basic literacy rate in population
(d) Life expectancy at birth
12. Human Development index includes:
(a) Infant mortality rate
5. Human Development Index (HDI) does not include: (b) Life expectancy at birth
(a) Mean years of schooling (c) Net reproduction rate
(b) Life expectancy at age 1 (d) No. of years of disability
(c) Real GDP per capita 13. PQLI included are:
(d) Adult literacy rate (a) Literacy
(b) Infant mortality
6. All of the following indicators are included in Physical
(c) Income
Quality of Life Index (PQLI) except:
(d) Life expectancy at birth
(a) Infant mortality rate
(b) Life expectancy at age one 14. HDI includes:
(c) Literacy rate (a) Infant mortality rate
(d) Per capita income (b) Life expectancy at birth
(c) Life expectancy at 1 yr
7. The Physical Quality of the Life Index considers (d) Adult literacy rate
I. Expectancy of life at birth (e) GDP
II. Expectancy of life at age one
III. Infant mortality rate 15. PQLI includes:
IV. Literacy rate (a) MMR
(b) IMR
Of these components: (c) Life expectancy at birth
(a) I alone is correct (d) Life expectancy at 1 yr. age
(b) I, III and IV are correct (e) Literacy
 16. All of the following are included in Human develop-
ment index (HDI) except: (d) Infant Mortality Rate
(a) Life expectancy at birth
25. PQLI includes all of the following except:
(b) Life expectancy at 1 year age
(a) IMR
(c) Education
(b) MMR
(d) Gross domestic product (GDP)
(c) LIteracy
17. Not included in the human poverty index is (d) Life expectancy at age one
(a) % of population not surviving up to 40 yrs age
26. “Physical quality of life index” include all Except:
(b) Underweight for age
(a) Infant mortality
(c) Occupation
(b) Life expectancy at age one
(d) % population not using safe water supply
(c) Literacy
18. Age limit for HDI in India is (d) GDP per capita
(a) 25 to 85 yrs
27. Human Developmental index comprise of:
(b) 25 to 50 yrs
(a) Education occupation and income
(c) 15 to 45 yrs
(b) Education employment, food and health
(d) 50 to 75 yrs
(c) Infant mortality rare, longevity, literacy
19. The value of Human Development Index in India is (d) Longevity, income and literacy
(a) 0.500
28. Human development index includes all except:
(b) 0.545
(a) GDP
(c) 0.505
(b) Sex ratio
(d) 0.540
(c) Knowledge
20. Poverty index does not include deprivation of (d) Longevity

D.S.S AIIMS PREPRATION

29. HDI includes:
(a) Long life
(a) Infant mortality, Life expectancy and Literacy
(b) Knowledge
(b) Maternal mortality, Life expectancy and Literacy
(c) Standard of living
(c) Disability rate, Pregnancy rate and GNP
(d) Income
(d) Longevity, Knowledge and Income
21. In construction of Education Index in HDI which is
not true?
(a) 2/3 adult literacy considered 30. Which of the following is a Mortality Indicator?
(b) 1/3 gross enrolment considered (a) Life Expectancy .
(c) Gross enrolment of secondary education is consid- (b) Notification Rate
ered and not primary education
(c) DALY
(d) Minimum and maximum values are used based on
(d) Bed turn-over ratio
global data
31. Modified Kuppuswami scale include all criteria for
22. PQLI lies between
socioeconomic status except:
(a) 0 and 1
(a) Income per capita
(b) 0 and 10
(b) Education of head of family
(c) 0 and 100
(c) Occupation of head
(d) 1 and 10
(d) Income of Head
32. Expectation of life, free of disability is known as:
23. P.Q.L.I. is: (a) Park’s index
(a) IMR, life expectancy, literacy (b) Smith’s index
(b) MMR, Life expectancy, literacy (c) Sullivan’s index
(c) MMR, IMR, Life expectancy (d) Life index
(d) IMR, Life expectancy at 1 year of age, SE status 33. Which is the best index for burden of disease?
24. Human development index includes all of the following (a) Case fatality rate
except? (b) Disability adjusted life years
(a) Adult literacy rate (c) Dependency ratio
(b) Life expectancy at birth (d) Morbidity data

67
 34. Which of the following is a measure of the burden of
(b) 2%
disease in a defined population and effectiveness of
(c) 0.5%
in- terventions?
(d) 20%
(a) Park’s index
(b) Disability adjusted life year 43. Best indicator of availability, utilization & effective-
(c) Bed disability days ness of health services
(d) Activities of daily living index (a) IMR
35. Which one of the following is NOT a socio-economic (b) MMR
indicator? (c) Hospital bed occupancy rate
(a) Literacy rate (d) DALY
(b) Family size 44. One DALY signifies
(c) Housing (a) 1 year of disease free life
(d) Life expectancy at birth (b) 1 lost year of healthy life
36. Most universally accepted indicator of health status of (c) 1 month of bedridden life
whole population and their socio-economic conditions (d) None of these
among the following is: 45. DALE has been replaced by
(a) MMR (a) DALY
(b) IMR (b) QALY
(c) Life expectancy (c) HALE
(d) Disease notification rates (d) DFLE
37. Sullivan index indicates: 46. 50 people are suffering from cholera in a population of
(a) Life free of disability 5000. Out of 50, suffering from cholera, 10 died. But the
(b) Hookworm eggs/gm of stool total deaths are 50. What is the death rate?
(c) Standard of living
D.S.S AIIMS PREPRATION

(a) 1 per 1000

(d) Pregnancy rate per HWY
(b) 5 per 1000
38. Virulence of a disease is indicated by: (c) 10 per 1000
(a) Proportional mortality rate (d) 20 per 100
(b) Specific mortality rate 47. Communicability of disease is assessed by
(c) Case fatality rate
(a) Secondary attack rate
(d) Amount of GDP spent on control of disease
(b) Generation time
39. All the following indicators are used to measure (c) Serial interval
disability rates in a community except: (d) Incubation period
(a) Sullivan’s Index 48. Sullivan index is .
(b) Human Poverty Index
(a) Measures disability
(c) Health Adjusted Life Expectancy
(b) Measures life years adjusted with disability
(d) Disability Adjusted Life Year
(c) Measures life expectancy adjusted without disability
40. Which of the following is true about DALYs? or free of disability
(a) Life is adjusted for disease (d) Measures life expectancy
(b) Premature death is adjusted for disability
(c) Life expectancy free of disability 49. For optimum utilization of health services in a
(d) Years lost to premature death and years lived with hospital, Bed turnover interval should always be .
disability adjusted for severity of disability (a) Slightly positive
(b) Largely positive
41. Burden of disease is given by .
(c) Slightly negative
(a) Incidence
(d) Largely negative
(b) Crude death rate
(c) Cause specific death rate
(d) Proportional mortality rate
42. In a village with population of 5000, 50 people have a 50. Health indicators are used for: .
disease and 10 of them died. What is case fatality rate? (a) Health status of community
(a) 1% .. (b) Requirement of health needs
(c) Assess rate of infection
(d) To meet basic needs
51. The expectation of life free of disability is known as: 60. Web of causation of disease, which statement is most
 (a) Sullivan’s index . appropriate? .
(b) DALE (disability – adjusted life expectancy) (a) Mostly applicable for common diseases
(c) DALY (Disability – adjusted life year) (b) Requires complete understanding of all factors asso-
(d) PQLI ciated with causation of disease
(c) Epidemiological ratio
52. DALY is: .
(a) Disease – Adjusted Life year (d) Helps to suggest ways to interrupt the risk of trans-
(b) Disability Adjusted Life year mission
(c) Disease Associated Life year 61. Transition from increased prevalence of infectious
(d) Disability Associated Life year pan- demic diseases to manmade disease is known as
53. Which of the following is best to compare the vital (a) Paradoxical transition
statistics of countries? . (b) Reversal of transition
(a) Crude death and birth rates (c) Epidemiological transition
(b) Age standardized death rate (d) Demographic transition
(c) Age specific death rate 62. BEINGS Model of disease causation does not include
(d) Proportional mortality rate (a) Spiritual factors
54. Most important health status indicator of a country: (b) Social factors
(a) Life expectancy at birth . (c) Religious factors
(b) Maternal mortality rate (d) Social factors
(c) Total fertility rate 63. Secular trend is best demonstrated by
(d) Infant mortality rate (a) Line diagram
(b) Bar graph

D.S.S AIIMS PREPRATION

55. Disability Adjusted life year (DALY) Expresses the:
(c) Stem-leaf plot
(a) Extent of disability in the population (d) Box and whisker plots
(b) Expectation of life free of disability
(c) Years of life lost to premature death
(d) Lost year of life due to premature death and
disability 64. Epidemiological triad are all Except:
(a) Host
(b) Environmental factors
(c) Agent
56. ‘Silent epidemic’ of the century is: (d) Investigator
(a) Coronary artery disease
(b) Chronic liver disease 65. When a child ‘lost’ his hands and unable to do routine
(c) Chronic obstructive lung disease works called as: .
(d) Alzheimer’s disease (a) Handicap
(b) Disability
57. Which one of the following does not represent the (c) Impairment
submerged portion of the iceberg? (d) Battered baby syndrome
(a) Diagnosed cases under treatment
(b) Undiagnosed cases 66. Natural history of disease is best studied by:
(c) Pre-symptomatic cases (a) Cross sectional study
(d) Carriers sub clinical cases (b) RCT
(c) Case-control study
58. In “Tip of Iceberg Phenomenon”, submerged portion
(d) Cohort study
does not consist of
(a) Latent period 67. The period preliminary to the onset of disease in man,
(b) Carriers when the disease agent has not yet entered man but
(c) Undiagnosed cases the factors favouring its interaction with human host
(d) Healthy population exist
59. Which of the following is NOT true regarding patho-
genesis of a disease? in the environment is known as:
(a) Screening is of no use in changing course of disease (a) Incubation period
(b) Tertiary prevention is possible (b) Pre-pathogenesis period
(c) Entry of organism occurs (c) Pathogenesis period
(d) Includes subclinical cases (d) Pre-symptomatic period

69
 68. Epidemiological triad contain all except:
74. Disease eliminated from India is /are:
(a) Agent
(a) Small pox
(b) Manpower
(b) Guinea worm disease
(c) Host
(c) Yaws
(d) Environment
(d) Measles
(e) Polio
75. Candidates (s) for global eradication by WHO:
(a) Malaria
69. Measures involved in sentinel surveillance includes all (b) Dracunculosis
of the following except (c) Polio
(a) Identifying missing cases in notification of diseases (d) Measles
(e) Chicken pox
(b) Identifying new cases of infection
(c) Identifying old and new cases 76. Disease eradicated from world:
(d) Identifying cases free of disability (a) Small pox
(b) Guineworm
70. Consider the following statements: (c) Polio
(d) Diphtheria
The term ‘disease control’ describes ongoing operations (e) Measles
aimed at reducing the
1. Incidence of disease 77. Causative agent is present but there is no transmission
2. Financial burden to the community is known as:
3. Effects of infection including both physical and (a) Elimination
psychological complications (b) Control
4. Duration of disease and its transmission (c) Eradication
D.S.S AIIMS PREPRATION

of these statements, (d) Holoendemic

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct 78. Disease elimination is helped by .
(b) 1, 3 and 4 are correct (a) Herd immunity
(c) 1, 2 and 4 are correct (b) Isolation
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct (c) Quarantine
(d) None
71. All of the following statements about eradication
programme are true except: 79. Measures involved in sentinel surveillance include all
(a) There is complete interruption of disease transmis- except .
sion in the entire area of the community (a) Identifying missing cases in notification of disease
(b) Identifying new cases of infection
(b) Eradication programme is over once the disease has (c) Identifying old cases and new cases of infection
been certified as having been eradicated (d) Identifying cases free of disability
(c) Case finding is of secondary importance 80. Zero incidence is .
(d) The objective is to eliminate the disease to the extent (a) Elimination of disease
that no new case occurs in the future (b) Eradication of disease
72. Continuous scrutiny of factors that determine the (c) Elimination of infection
occurrence and distribution of disease and other (d) Eradication of infection
condition of ill health is the definition of: 81. Analysis of routine measurement is aimed at detecting
(a) Monitoring changes in environment
(b) Surveillance (a) Monitoring .
(c) Disease control (b) Surveillance
(d) System analysis (c) Isolation
73. Decrease in the incidence of a disease to a level where (d) Evaluation
it 82. All of the following are eradicable diseases except
ceases to be a public health problem is: (a) Tuberculosis
(a) Control (b) Guineaworm
(b) Elimination (c) Poliomyelitis
(c) Eradication (d) Measles
(d) Surveillance
83. Missing cases are detected by
92. In India which disease is near to elimination:
(a) Active surveillance (a) Tetanus
(b) Passive surveillance (b) Rabies
(c) Sentinel surveillance (c) Polio
(d) Monitoring (d) Mumps

84. Sentinel surveillance is for

(a) Border districts
(b) For malaria surveillance
(c) Effective sanitary surveillance 93. All of the following represent Specific protection
(d) Supplementary to routine notification mode of Disease prevention Except:
85. Disease control implies all except (a) Chemoprophylaxis for meningococcal meningitis

(b) Personal hygiene and Environmental sanitation

(a) Effects of infection including its complications (c) Usage of condoms
(b) Financial burden to community (d) Iodisation of salt
(c) Duration of disease and risk of transmission
(d) Virulence 94. Secondary level of prevention include all of the
following except:
(a) Health screening for Diabetes Mellitus
(b) Case finding for Falciparum Malaria
86. To eradicate measles the percentage of population to (c) Contact tracing for STIs
be vaccinated is at least %: (d) Reconstructive Surgery in Leprosy
(a) 70 95. In a population to prevent coronary artery disease
changing harmful lifestyles by education is referred to

D.S.S AIIMS PREPRATION

(b) 80
(c) 85 as:
(d) 95 (a) High risk strategy
87. Leprosy is considered a public health problem if the (b) Primary prevention
prevalence of leprosy is more than: (c) Secondary prevention
(a) 1 per 10,000 (d) Tertiary prevention
(b) 2 per 10,000 96. In an area with fluoride rich water, the defluoridation
(c) 5 per 10,000 of water is which level of prevention?
(d) 10 per 10,000 (a) Primary (b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary (d) Primordial
88. Disease elimination means:
(a) Cure of the disease 97. Which of the following is an example of Disability
(b) Preventing the transmission totally limitation in poliomyelitis?
(c) Eradication of the vector (a) Reducing occurrence of polio by immunization
(d) Complete termination of infective organism
(b) Arranging for schooling of child suffering from
89. Regarding disease elimination true is:
PRPP
(a) Prevention of chain of transmission
(c) Resting affected limbs in neutral position
(b) Extermination of disease agent
(d) Providing calipers for walking
(c) There is no disease anywhere on planet
(d) Reducing the disease to such a level so that it will 98. Which of the following is primordial prevention?
not be a major public health problem
90. What happens in disease elimination: (a) Action taken prior to the onset of disease
(a) Incidence is reduced by 10% (b) Prevention of emergence of development of risk
(b) Prevalence is reduced by 10% factors
(c) Global eradication of disease agent (c) Action taken to remove the possibility that a disease
(d) Interruption of disease transmission from large will ever occur
geographical areas (d) Action that halts the progress of a disease
91. Disease elimination refers to: . 99. ‘Disability Limitation’ is mode of intervention for:
(a) Extinction of disease agent (a) Primordial Prevention .
(b) Termination of all disease (b) Primary Prevention .
(c) Global removal of disease agent (c) Secondary Prevention
(d) Regional removal of disease agent (d) Tertiary Prevention

71
 100. Which of the following is the most logical sequence?
109. Vitamin A prophylaxis to a child is:
.
(a) Health promotion
(a) Impairment-Disease-Disability-Handicap
(b) Specific protection
(b) Disease-Impairment-Disability-Handicap
(c) Disease-Impairment- Handicap-Disability (c) Primordial prevention
(d) Disease-Handicap-Impairment-Disability (d) Secondary prevention

101. Pap smear test for detection of carcinoma of cervix is 110. Screening of the diseases is which type of prevention?
which level of prevention? (a) Primordial .
(a) Primordial (b) Primary
(b) Primary (c) Secondary
(c) Secondary (d) Tertiary
(d) Tertiary
111. Which of the following is not a primary prevention
102. A person who has lost his foot in an accident and is strategy?
not able to walk is an example of: (a) Breast self examination
(a) Disease (b) Control of tobacco
(b) Disability (c) Radiation protection
(c) Impairment (d) Cancer education
(d) Handicap 112. CAD primordial prevention is by
103. Primary prevention of obesity: (a) Lifestyle change .
(a) Low fiber diet (b) Coronary bypass
(b) High fiber diet (c) Treatment of CAD
(c) High cholesterol diet (d) None
(d) High intake of protein 113. Quarantine period for yellow fever in India is?
D.S.S AIIMS PREPRATION

(a) 6 days
104. Primordial prevention in coronary heart disease:
(b) 1 week .
(a) Exercise in high risk area
(c) 10 days
(b) BP monitoring
(d) 2 weeks
(c) Salt restriction
(d) Statins 114. Prevention of emergence of risk factor is
(e) TMT (a) Primordial prevention
(b) Primary prevention
105. Primary prevention of dental caries includes:
(c) Secondary prevention
(a) Fluridation
(d) Tertiary prevention
(b) Dental health education
(c) Mass screening 115. Immunization is
(d) Dental fitting, teeth extraction (a) Primary prevention
(b) Secondary prevention
106. Primary prevention of dental carries are:
(c) Tertiary prevention
(a) Dental screening
(d) Disability limitation
(b) Health education
(c) Defluoridation of water 116. Iodized salt in iodine deficiency control programme
(d) Dental filling is
(e) Tooth extraction (a) Primary prevention
107. Which of the following is primordial prevention for (b) Secondary prevention
NCD (non communicable disease: (c) Tertiary prevention
(a) Salt restriction in high NCD area (d) Primordial prevention
(b) Smoking cessation in high NCE area 117. Target group in Secondary prevention
(c) Preservation of traditional diet in low NCD area (a) Healthy individuals
(d) Early diagnosis and treatement (b) Patients
(e) Exercise in high NCD area (c) Animals
108. Primary prevention: (d) Children
(a) Marriage counseling 118. School health checkup comes under..................level of
(b) Early diagnosis and treatment prevention
(c) Pap smear (a) Primordial
(d) Self breast examination (b) Primary
(e) Immunization (c) Secondary
(d) Tertiary
119. Desks provided with table top to prevent neck prob-
lems is an example of
(a) Primordial prevention
(b) Primary prevention
(c) Specific protection
(d) Disability limitation
 128. All are health promotion strategies Except:
(a) Insecticides spray
(b) Potable safe water supply
(c) Life style modification
(d) Chemoprophylaxis
129. One of the following is an example for Tertiary
120. Childhood obesity prevention is a type of prevention:
(a) Primordial prevention (a) Vaccination
(b) Primary prevention (b) Immediate diagnosis and treatment
(c) Secondary prevention (c) Rehabilitation
(d) Tertiary prevention (d) Health education
121. Monitoring of blood pressure which type of 130. Which one of the following is NOT a water born
prevention disease?
(a) Primordial (a) Giardiasis
(b) Primary (b) Amoebiasis
(c) Secondary (c) Strongyloidosis
(d) Tertiary (d) Taeniasis
122. All of the following comes under primary prevention
131. Action which halts the progress of a disease at its
except:
incipient stage and prevents complications:
(a) Pap smear
(a) Primary prevention
(b) Helmets
(b) Primordial prevention
(c) Contraception
(c) Secondary prevention

D.S.S AIIMS PREPRATION

(d) Vaccines
(d) Tertiary prevention
123. Desk provided with table top to prevent neck
problems is an example of 132. The following does not determine specific protection:
(a) Primordial prevention (a) Pap smear for early detection of carcinoma cervix in
(b) Primary protection community
(c) Specific protection (b) Wearing of goggles by welders
(d) Disability limitation (c) Wearing of seat belts by car drivers
(d) Vitamin A for children prophylaxis
124. Patient is on psychotherapy, what is the level of
preven- tion 133. Which is not included in primary prevention:
(a) Primordial (a) Health education
(b) Primary (b) Life-style modification
(c) Secondary (c) Immunization
(d) Tertiary (d) Nutritional supplementation
134. Health promotion includes all except:
(a) Specific protection
125. Which one of the following is primary prevention: (b) Health education
(a) Active treatment (c) Food fortification
(b) Vaccination (d) Environment modification
(c) Screening 135. Primary prevention among following is:
(d) Rehabilitation (a) Disability limitation
126. Prevention of emergence of risk factor is: (b) Early diagnosis
(a) Primordial prevention (c) Treatment
(b) Primary prevention (d) Immunization
(c) Secondary prevention
136. Which of the following is a primary prevention in
(d) Tertiary prevention
polio:
127. Iodine salt supplementation is:
(a) Specific protection (a) Good sanitary measures
(b) Primordial prevention (b) Rehabilitation
(c) Decrease the deformity (c) Provision of 3 doses of OPV in early infancy
(d) Secondary prevention (d) Collection of stool sample for diagnosis

73
 137. When you immunize a child for measles what type of
146. ICD-10 has how many chapters?
prevention are you doing:
(a) 5 .
(a) Primordial prevention
(b) 12
(b) Health promotion
(c) 21
(c) Specific protection
(d) 32
(d) Secondary Prevention
138. First in sequence:
(a) Impairment
(b) Disease
147. Vital ICD is reviewed once in every:
(c) Disability
(a) 2 years (b) 5 years
(d) Rehabilitation
(c) 8 years (d) 10 years.
139. All are primary levels of prevention except:
148. In ICD-10 Classification of diseases how many major
(a) Health promotion
chapters are there: (a) 15
(b) Specific protection
(b) 17
(c) Early diagnosis and treatment
(c) 21 (d) 18
(d) Immunization
149. Regarding International classification of disease un-
140. Not allowing the emergence or development of the
true is: .
risk factor itself is which level of prevention?
(a) Revised every 10 years
(a) Primordial
(b) 10th revision has 15 major chapters
(b) Primary
(c) Is base for use in other health fields
(c) Secondary
(d) Coding system in 10th revision is alphanumerical
(d) Tertiary
141. Level of prevention that includes Specific protection:
D.S.S AIIMS PREPRATION

(a) Primordial
(b) Primary
(c) Secondary 150. Iceberg phenomenon differentiates:
(d) Tertiary (a) Apparent and Inapparent
(b) Symptomatic and Asymptomatic
142. Chemoprophylaxis is prevention type: (c) Cases and Carriers
(a) Primary (d) Diagnosed and Undiagnosed
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary 151. Maximum power of destruction of a disease is meas-
(d) Quarternary ured by:
(a) Survival rate
143. Chemoprophylaxis of Malaria is prevention: (b) Case fatality rate
(a) Primordial (c) Specific death rate
(b) Primary (d) Proportional mortality rate
(c) Secondary
(d) Tertiary 152. Seasonal trend is due to:
(a) Vector variation
(b) Environmental factors
(c) Change in herd immunity
(d) All of the above
144. ICD-10 stands for: 153. Intraspecies competition is the competition among:
(a) International Classification of Drugs, 10th revision (a) Species
(b) International Classification of Disabilities, (b) Individuals of a population
10th revision (c) Individuals of a community
(c) International Classification of Diseases, (d) Populations and their regulatory factors
10th revision
(d) International Classification of Disasters, 154. All of the statements about quarantine are true except:
10th revision (a) It is synonymous with isolation
(b) Absolute quarantine is restriction during the incu-
145. ICD-10 true is . bation period
(a) Revised every 5 years (c) Exclusion of children from schools is an example of
(b) Consists of 10 chapters modified quarantine
(c) Arranged in 3 volumes (d) Quarantine should not be longer than the longest
(d) Was produced by UNICEF incubation period
74
155. According to a joint study “Healthcare In India: The
(c) Reduce maternal mortality by 50%
Road Ahead” done by CII and Mekinsey and
(d) Combat PEM & Diarrhoea
company in 2002, India’s existing bed population ratio
is: 164. Millennium development goals aim to reduce MMR
(a) 2:1000 by
(b) 1.5:1000 (a) 3/4
(c) 9:1000 (b) 2/3
(d) 2.5:1000 (c) 1/4
(d) 1/2
156. Which of the following is characteristic of a single
exposure common vehicle outbreak? 165. Long term fluctuation is seen with
(a) cyclic trends
(a) Frequent secondary cases
(b) epidemics
(b) Severity increases with increasing age
(c) secular trends
(c) Explosive
(d) seasonal trends
(d) Cases occur continuously beyond the longest incu-
bation period 166. True about continuous common source epidemics
157. Which of the following is not targeted in Millennium
Development Goals (MDGs)? (a) High secondary attack rate
(a) Eradicating extreme poverty (b) Duration more than one incubation period
(b) Fostering global partnership for development (c) Rapid rise and fall of epidemic curve
(c) Reducing child mortality (d) Brief and simultaneous exposure
(d) Improving health care delivery 167. Cyclic trend is

D.S.S AIIMS PREPRATION

158. Global eradication of small pox was done on: (a) Variations in herd immunity
(b) Environmental
(a) 26th Oct 1977
(c) Nutritional
(b) 8th May 1980
(d) Short term
(c) 17th March 1980
(d) 17th April 1977 168. An epidemic of Hepatitis A is an example of
(a) Common source, single exposure epidemic
159. Direct standardisation is used to compare mortality (b) Common source, continuous exposure epidemic
data of two countries. This is done because of (c) Propagated epidemic
difference in: (d) Slow epidemic
(a) Causes of deaths
(b) Numerators
(c) Denominators
(d) Age distribution
169. Surveillance is:
160. Not under Millennium development goals: (a) Scrutiny of factors
(a) Reduction of cardiovascular health hazards (b) Treatment of contacts
(b) Eradication of extreme poverty (c) Prevention of disease
(c) Global partnership for development (d) Chemoprophylaxis of disease
(d) Sustainability of the environment
170. True morbidity is measured by:
161. True about point source epidemic is (a) Active surveillance
(a) Occurs in more than 1 incubation period (b) Passive surveillance
(b) Occurs in one incubation period (c) Sentinel surveillance
(c) The exposure is continuous (d) Continuous surveillance
(d) Epidemic curve falls very slowly
171. Tip of iceberg phenomenon is mostly appropriately
162. Bhopal gas tragedy is an example of . represented by:
(a) Point source epidemic (a) Malaria (b) Measles
(b) Continuous epidemic (c) PEM (d) Rabies
(c) Propagated epidemic
(d) Slow epidemic
172. Quarantine is isolation of healthy individual:
163. Which of the following is a MDG? (a) For longest incubation period of disease
(a) Reduce by 2/3rd the under five mortality by year (b) For shortest incubation period of disease
1990-2015 (c) For twice the incubation period of disease
(b) Halve the prevalence of HIV-AIDS by 2015 (d) For period of generation time
 173. Part I of the ‘death certificate’ deals with:
175. In India death has to be registered with in:
(a) 3 days
(a) Immediate cause, and the direct underlying cause (b) 7 days
which started the whole trend of events leading to (c) 14 days
death (d) 21 days
(b) Any significant associated diases that contributed to
176. The duration of quarantine is:
the death but did not directly lead to it
(c) Approximate interval between onset and cause of (a) Longest incubation period
death (b) Shortest incubation period
(d) The mode of death (c) Infective period
(d) None of the above
174. Limit for registration of birth is: .
(a) 7 days 177. Carriers are not found in:
(b) 14 days (a) Typhoid
(c) 21 days (b) Diphtheria
(d) Any of the above (c) Whooping cough
(d) Hepatitis B
D.S.S AIIMS PREPRATION
TEST SERIES