PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

1. 75 2. 65 3. 64 4. 74
PROBLEMS BASED ON NUMBERS
3) 1 8 22 43 71 ?
(A) NUMBER SERIES 1. 106 2. 107 3.108 4. 109

4) 230 227 223 217 208 195

1. Prime number series: Need: prime number up to 100 ?
1. 178 2. 176 3. 177 4. 175
(a) 7, 11, 13, 17, ?
(b) 13, 19, 29, ? 5) 6 12 21 ? 48
1. 38 2. 40 3. 45 4. 33
2. Square Number Series:
6) 1 4 11 23 ?
(a) 4, 9, 16, 25, ? 1. 41 2. 53 3. 46 4. 110
(b) 9, 25, 49, 121, 169, ?
7) 1 0 3 2 5 6
Variation: n2 ± 1, n2 ± 2 ?
1. 7 2. 10 3. 9 4. 8
(c) 5, 10, 17, 26, ?
(d) 24, 37, 48, 65, ? 8) 20 25 31 38 46 ?
1. 56 2. 55 3. 54 4. 53
3. Cube Number Series:
9) 7 16 34 61 97 ?
(a) 1, 8, 27, 64, ? 1. 133 2. 132 3. 142 4. 153
(b) 125, 216, 343, 512, ?
10) 8 9 13 22 38 63
Variation: n3 ± 1, n3 ± 2 ?
1. 89 2. 109 3. 99 4. 79
(a) 2, 9, 28, 65, ?
(b) 124, 217, 342, 513, ? 11) 5 7 11 17 ? 35
1. 27 2. 23 3. 25 4. 29
4. Addition/ Subtraction series
(a) 3, 5, 8, 12, 17, ? 12) 2 8 18 32 50 ?
(b) 8, 12, 16, 20, 24, ? 1. 72 2. 68 3. 69
(c) 34, 36, 39, 44, 51, ? 4. 71
(d) 5, 9, 18, 34, 59, ?
(e) 57, 53, 45, 33, ? 13) 5 6 7 12 9 18
(f) 12, 15, 27, 42, 69, ? 11 24 13 30 ?
?
5. Multiplication/Division series 1. 36,15 2. 15,30 3. 16,38 4.15,36

(a) 2, 2, 4, 12, 48, ? 14) 13 32 24 43 35 ?

(b) 4, 13, 40, 121, ? 46 65 57 76
(c) 5, 6, 13, 40, 161, ? 1. 45 2. 56 3. 52 4. 54
(d) 120, 60, 20, 5, ?
15) 71 213 355 497 ?
6. Mixed or Alternate series: This series is an combination 1. 763 2. 569 3. 639 4. 936
of two or three number of series.
PRACTICE SET 2
(a) 2, 1, 4, 4, 6, 9, ?, ?
(b) 7, 8, 11, 27, 13, 64, ?, ? 1) 5760 960 ? 48 16 8
1. 120 2. 160 3. 192 4. 240

PRACTICE SET 1 2) 1 2 6 7 21 22
66 67 ?
1) 4 16 36 64 100 ?
1. 70 2. 134 3. 201 4. 301
1. 144 2. 142 3. 145 4. 154
3) 165 195 255 285 345 ?
2) 2 5 11 20 32 47 ?
1. 375 2. 390 3. 4204. 435

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PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

9) 9 4.5 4.5 6.75 13.5 33.75

4) 2 3 3 5 10 13 ?
? 43 172 177 10) 705 728 774 843 935 1050
1. 23 2. 38 3. 39 4. 40 ?
11) 1 4 27 256 3125 46656
5) 3 15 ? 63 99 143 ?
1. 27 2. 35 3. 45 4. 56 12) 30 46 78 126 190 270
?
6) 4 10 ? 82 244 730 13) 380 465 557 656 762 875
1. 24 2. 28 3. 77 4. 218 ?
14) 1250 500 200 80 32 12.8
7) 8 28 116 584 ? ?
1. 1752 2. 3502 3. 3504 4. 3508 15) 23 26 24 27 25 28
?
8) 6 13 28 59 ?
1. 111 2. 113 3. 114 4. 122

9) 2 3 8 27 112 ?
1. 226 2. 339 3. 4524. 565 PRACTICE SET 4
1) 3 4 12 ? 576 27648
10) 1 514 3055 91 ?
2) 4 12 60 420 ? 60060
1. 130 2. 140 3. 1504. 160
3) 6 349 565 ? 754 781
4) 1.5 4 20 129 ? 10505
11) 2 7 27 107 427 ?
5) 89250 17850 7140 1428 571.2
1. 1262 2. 1707 3. 4027 4. 4207
?
6) 289 303 324 352 387 429
12) 24 60 120 210 ?
?
1. 300 2. 336 3. 4204. 525
7) 45 43 83 245 975 4869
?
13) ? 8) 31 34 71 216 867 4338
?
1. 2. . 3. 4. 9) 16 16 40 140 840 7980
?
14) ? 10) 16 24 36 54 81 121.5
?
1. 2. . 3. 4. 11) 10 22 8 24 6 ?
12) 60.5 72 84.5 98 112.5 ?
15) 0 1 5 5 ? ? 13) 23 25 53 163 657 3291
15 13 20 ?
1. 10,8 2. 12,9 3. 10,9 4. 8,12 14) 13 13 65 585 7605 ?
15) 1 16 81 256 625 1296
?
PRACTICE SET 3
1) 12 22 69 272 1365 ? ANALOGY
2) 1 ? 27 64 125
3) 104 153 189 214 ? (Question Pattern: - A : B : : C : ?)
4) 15 17 32 49 81 130 As per the question given above, A is related to be in a
? certain way. We have to apply the same logic over C to
5) 15 17 21 29 45 77 find the answer. All the logics learnt in the NUMBER
? SERIES section is applicable to solve the questions on
6) 13 14 30 93 376 1885 this topic.
?
7) 4 6 9 13.5 20.25 30.375 PRACTICE SET 1
?
1. 3:10::35:? 1. 49
8) 400 240 144 86.4 51.84 31.104
2. 48 3. 50 4.51
?
2. 12:36::6:? 1. 16
2. 18 3. 32 4.24

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PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

3. 7:11::11:? 1. 14 Direction (Questions 11 to 15): In each of the following

2. 17 3. 13 4.25 questions, choose one number which is similar to the
4. 25:49::81:? 1. 81 number in given set.
2. 100 3. 64 4.144
5. 4:16::36:? 1. 49 11. Given Set : (2, 14,16)
2. 100 3. 64 4.81 a) (2,7,8) b) (2,9,16) c) (3,21,21) d) (4,16,18)
6. 19:420::21:? 1. 504
2. 506 3. 484 4.441 12. Given Set : (3, 18,36)
7. 2:2::4:? 1. 20 a) (2,10,16) b) (4,24,48) c) (6,42,48) d) (12,72,96)
2. 16 3. 13 4.14
8. 53:38::62:? 1. 50 13. Given Set : (6, 15,28)
2. 52 3. 74 4.70 a) (46,56,66) b) (50,59,71) c) (60,67,72) d) (60,69,82)
9. 12:50::13:? 1. 52
2. 56 3. 50 4.54 14. Given Set : (81, 77,69)
10. 36:343::64:? 1. 512 a) (56,52,44) b) (64,61,53) c) (75,71,60) d) (92,88,79)
2. 729 3. 343 4.216
15. Given Set : (32, 24,8)
PRACTICE SET 2 a) (26,32,42) b) (34,24,14) c) (24,16,0) d) (42,34,16)

Dir+6-*-ections (Q.1 to 5): Each of the following questions CLASIFICATION

consists of a pair of numbers that have a certain
relationship to each other, followed by four other pairs of In this type of questions, four of the five options are
numbers given as alternatives. Select the pair in which the related in a certain way and one is odd. We need to find
numbers are similarly related as in the given pair. the odd one out.
1. a) 17 b) 27 c) 29 d) 37 e) 59

1. 11:1210 2. a) 119 b) 136 c) 147 d) 153

a) 6:216 b) 7:1029 c) 8:448 d) 9:729
3. a) 10 b) 26 c) 24 d) 21 e) 18
2. 8:256
a) 7:343 b) 9:243 c) 10:500 d) 5:75 4. a) 29 b) 53 c) 85 d) 125 e) 147

3. 5:35 5. a) 51 b) 144 c) 81 d) 64 e) 121

a) 7:77 b) 9:45 c) 11:55 d) 3:24
6. a) 17 b) 27 c) 29 d) 37 e) 59
4. 27:9
a) 64:8 b) 125:5 c) 135:15 d) 729:81 7. a) 145 b) 197 c) 257 d) 325 e) 399

5. 7:24 8. a) 15 b) 63 c) 143 d) 195 e) 257

a) 30:10 b) 23:72 c) 19:58 d) 11:43
9. a) 120 b) 168 c) 290 d) 380 e) 728
Direction (Q.6 to 10): In each of the following questions,
choose one number which is similar to the number in given 10. a) 64 b) 27 c) 125 d) 576 e) 216
set.
11. a) 34-43 b) 55-62
6. Given Set : 363, 489,579
a) 562 b) 471 c) 382 d) 281 c) 62-71 d) 83-92 e) 59-95

7. Given Set : 282, 354,444 12. a) 3-5 b) 5-3 c) 6-2 d) 7-3

a) 453 b) 417 c) 336 d) 255
13. a) 1975-1579 b) 3152-5321
8. Given Set : 992, 733,854,632
a) 114 b) 326 c) 425 d) 947 c) 4283-8423 d) 7319-9731
9. Given Set : 134, 246,358 14. a) 3 : 12 b) 4 : 20 c) 6 : 42 d) 7 : 63
a) 372 b) 460 c) 572 d) 684
15. a) 18 : 45 b) 16 : 40 c) 14 : 28 d) 8 : 20
10. Given Set : 538, 725,813
a) 814 b) 712 c) 328 d) 219

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16. a) 5-50 b) 8-128 c) 11-242 d) 15-375 4. 10, 10, 16, 31, ?, 184
A) 76 B) 94 C) 85 D) 70 E) 106
17. a) 140-45 b) 110-35 c) 100-30 d) 80-25
5. 120, 60, 40, 30, 24, ?
18. a) 45,27 b) 30,18 c) 20,10 d) 15,12 A) 20 B) 18 C) 15 D) 22 E) 21

6. 8, 24, 45, 81, ?, 238

19. a) 15 : 63 b) 22 : 91 c) 23 : 95 d) 31 : 97
A) 173 B) 131 C) 128 D) 142 E) 195
20. ) 14, 9 b) 17, 8 c) 21, 6 d) 42, 3 7. 5, 30, 6, 24, 8, ?
A) 18 B) 16 C) 20 D) 13 E) 15

PRACTICE EXERCISE 8. 16, 16, 24, 60, 270, ?

Directions: The following series are based on a specific A) 2735 B) 2295 C) 2315 D) 2405 E) 2455
pattern. Find the number that will come in place of 9. 95, 112, 78, 129, 61, ?
question mark (?). A) 146 B) 121 C) 164 D) 150 E) 184
1. 5, 6, 16, 57, 244, ? 10. 21, 10, 9, 12, 22, ?
A) 1115 B) 1245 C) 1239 D) 1188 E) 1252 A) 52.5 B) 71.5 C) 64.5 D) 80.5 E) 92.5
2. 145, 141, 134, 122, 103, ? Directions: The following series are based on a specific
A) 68 B) 53 C) 99 D) 75 E) 41 pattern. In these series one number is wrong, find that
odd one.
3. 12, 37, 113, 342, 1030, ?
A) 3435 B) 3095 C) 2245 D) 4395 E) None of these 1. 4, 15, 31, 39, 58, 59, 85
4. 18, 19, 24, 38, ?, 123 A) 15 B) 31 C) 39 D) 58 E) 59
A) 76 B) 94 C) 85 D) 68 E) 106 2. 2, 11, 53, 209, 623, 1041, 1235
5. 8, 8, 14, 38, 98, ? A) 11 B) 53 C) 209 D) 623 E) 1041
A) 218 B) 178 C) 195 D) 212 E) 254 3. 3, 6, 12, 20, 108, 462
6. 1, 7, 39, 165, 511, ? A) 12 B) 108 C) 6 D) 20 E) 462
A) 1139 B) 1319 C) 1281 D) 1423 E) 1047 4. 9, 5, 9, 25, 91, 426, 2282.5
7. 4, 5, 13, 40, ?, 229 A) 5 B) 9 C) 25 D) 91 E) 426
A) 148 B) 196 C) 201 D) 104 E) 215 5. 2, 16, 28, 89, 262, 791, 2368
8. 16, 18, 12, 24, 4, ? A) 16 B) 28 C) 89 D) 262 E) 791
A) 34 B) 30 C) 28 D) 24 E) 38 6. 20, 38, 18, 42, 24, 50, 2
9. 8, 19, 43, 82, 138, ? A) 38 B) 18 C) 42 D) 24 E) 50
A) 246 B) 221 C) 264 D) 251 E) 213 7. 5, 8, 17, 38, 61, 140, 233
10. 286, 142, 70, 34, ?, 7 A) 8 B) 17 C) 38 D) 61 E) 140
A) 15 B) 18 C) 16 D) 20 E) 12 8. 12, 7, 18, 31, 140, 1145, 18356
A) 7 B) 18 C) 31 D) 140 E) 1145
Directions: The following series are based on a specific 9. 3, 3, 6, 24, 120, 984, 9888
pattern. Find the number that will come in place of A) 3 at second position B) 6 C) 24 D) 120 E) 984
question mark (?).
10. 24, 13, 14, 25, 102, 485, 2954
1. 0, 3, 17, 50, 110, ? A) 13 B) 14 C) 25 D) 102 E) 485
A) 115 B) 205 C) 239 D) 188 E) 252
Number Series asked NICL AO Prelim 3 June 2017
2. 1, 2, 6, 21, ?, 445
These questions are based on Number Series asked in NICL
A) 88 B) 153 C) 99 D) 123 E) 141
AO Prelims – Shift 1. Number Series asked NICL AO Prelim
3. 2, 8, 44, 288, 2344, ? 3 June 2017.
A) 24300 B) 23500 C) 22400 D) 23900 E) None of
these 1. 116, 125, 107, 134, ?, 143
A) 96 B) 98 C) 85 D) 106 E) 83

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

2. 8, 6, 8, 14, 30, ? 1. 375, 75, 30, 18, ?, 14.4

A) 60 B) 93 C) 77 D) 83 E) 71 A) 15 B) 15.2 C) 16 D) 14.4 E) 16.5

3. 3, 5, 14, 42, 107, ? 2. 25, 89, 332, 588, 713, ?

A) 134 B) 244 C) 233 D) 247 E) 155 A) 855 B) 856 C) 749 D) 860 E) 785

4. 7, 11, 19, 36, 69, ? 3. 18, 36, 62, 96, 138, ?

A) 122 B) 110 C) 134 D) 127 E) 137 A) 172 B) 206 C) 244 D) 220 E) 188

5. 6, 7, 24, 125, ?, 7947

A) 856 B) 816 C) 810 D) 882 E) 845 4. 16, 24, 60, 210, 945, ?
A) 5197.5 B) 4234.5 C) 5848.5 D) 4113.5 E) 5434.5
6. 12, 8, 10, 17, 36, ?
A) 97 B) 108 C) 88 D) 98 E) 92 5. 8, 18, 86, 308, 828, ?
A) 1955 B) 1902 C) 1406 D) 1838 E) 1629
7. 2, 10, 20, 34, 56, ?
A) 100 B) 102 C) 96 D) 94 E) 90 6. 16, 20, 28, 27, 42, ?
A) 26 B) 45 C) 67 D) 42 E) 32
8. 3, 5, 19, 101, ?, 6445
A) 605 B) 625 C) 715 D) 745 E) 765 7. 5, 7, 11, 37, ?, 721
A) 143 B) 294 C) 138 D) 147 E) 256
9. 7, 9, 21, 67, 273, ?
A) 1371 B) 1275 C) 1276 D) 1311 E) 1245 8. 21, 33, 85, 301, 1359, ?
A) 6066 B) 7359 C) 7480 D) 6242 E) 5155
10. 4, 6, 11, 21, ?, 64
A) 45 B) 38 C) 50 D) 35 E) 38 9. 6, 9, 24, 90, 432, ?
A) 2380 B) 1340 C) 2460 D) 2520 E) 1420
Number Series asked SBI PO Prelim 6 May 2017
10. 4, 13, 41, 126, ?, 1151
These questions are based on Number Series asked in SBI
A) 382 B) 688 C) 453 D) 562 E) 436
PO Prelims-Day 3 – Shift 1. Number Series asked SBI PO
Prelim 6 May 2017
1. 5, 12, ?, 41, 87, 214
1. 4, 31, 156, 499, 1228, ?
A) 2669 B) 2559 C) 2549 D) 2649 E) 2369 1.19 2.35 3.22 4.26 5.None of these
2. 14, ?, 13, 17.5, 21.75
2. 3, 10, 20, 39, 85, ?
A) 101 B) 135 C) 212 D) 232 E) 196 1.10 2.12 3.12.5 4.13.25 5.None of these
3. 6, 4, 5, 11, ?, 361 3. 15, 5, 4.5, 5.8.7.9, ?
A) 34 B) 44 C) 45 D) 47 E) 55
1.9.6 2.11.42 3.12.23 4.10.74 5.None of these
4. 7, 9, 21, 67, 273, ? 4. 107, 53, 25.5, 7.5 , ?
A) 1226 B) 1107 C) 1345 D) 1320 E) 1371
1.0.875 2.0.625 3.0.916 4.0.416 5.None of these
5. 152, 156, 140, 176, 112, ?
5. 29, ?, 83, 135, 205
A) 156 B) 216 C) 210 D) 212 E) 245
1.61 2.76 3.37 4.49 5.None of these
6. 6, 14, 78, 294, 806, ?
A) 1703 B) 1720 C) 1856 D) 1806 E) 1904 6. ?, 6, 10.5, 23, 60

7. 4, 12, 22, 36, 58, ? 1.7 2.5 3.4 4.6 5.None of these
A) 100 B) 102 C) 96 D) 94 E) 90 7. 211, 90, 190, 141, 166, 157, ?
8. 8, 6, 8, 18, ?, 594 1.152 2.176 3.158 4.180 5.None of these
A) 60 B) 62 C) 64 D) 74 E) 76
8. 1256, 318, ?, 163, 328, 86
9. 9, 11, 25, 79, 321, ?
1.338 2.836 3.368 4.638 5.None of these
A) 1512 B) 675 C) 876 D) 1611 E) 1745
9. 37, 54, 88, ?, 207
10. 102, 111, 86, 135, 54, ?
A) 145 B) 165 C) 170 D) 175 E) 180 1.139 2.213 3.193 4.391 5.None of these
10. 13, 29, 48, 79, 95, ?
Directions: What will come in place of (?) in following
series following a certain pattern? 1.132 2.121 3.1134.123 5.None of these

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PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

Direction (1-15): What should come in place of the 3. 1 3 10 36 152 760 4632
question mark (?) in the following number series? (1) 3 (2) 36 (3) 4632 (4) 760 (5) 152

Q1. 7, 9, 13, 21, 37, ? 4. 4 3 9 34 96 219 435

(a) 58 (b) 63 (c) 69 (d) 72 (e) 56 (1) 4 (2) 9 (3) 34 (4) 435 (5) 219

Q2. 0, 4, 18, 48, ?, 180

5. 157.5 45 15 6 3 2 1
(a) 58 (b) 68 (c) 84 (d) 100 (e) 62
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 6 (4) 157.5 (5) 45
Q3. 9, 8, 10, 16, 11, ?, 12, 64
(a) 28 (b) 36 (c) 25 (d) 32 (e) 25

Q4. 7, 8, 18, 57, ?

CODED INEQUALITY
(a) 232 (b) 228 (c) 234 (d) 226( e) 222
TYPE 1:
Q5. 10, 21, 52, 165, ?
(a) 648 (b) 468 (c) 334 (d) 668 (e) 268 Give answer
1) if only conclusion I is true.
Q6. 1015 508 255 129 66.5 ? 20.875 2) if only conclusion II is true.
(a) 34.50 (b) 35 (c) 35.30 (d) 35.75 (e) None of 3) if either conclusion I or II is true.
these 4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
5) if both conclusions I and II are true.
Q7. 586 587 586 581 570 ? 522
(a) 545 (b) 543 (c) 551 (d) 557 (e) None of these DIRECTIONS (Q.1-5)

Q8. 435 354 282 219 165 ? 1. Statements : D≤F≥M=K

(a) 103 (b) 112 (c) 120 (d) 130 (e) None of these Conclusions : I. F > K II. D < K

Q9. 325 314 288 247 191 ? 2. Statements : K>M>R≥T

(a) 126 (b) 116 (c) 130 (d) 120 (e) None of these Conclusions : I. K > T II. T ≥ M

Q10. 6 4 8 23 ? 385.25 3. Statements : T≤M=R<N

(a) 84.5 (b) 73 (c) 78.5 (d) 82 (e) None of these Conclusions : I. M ≤ N II. M > N

Q11. 9 11 15 ? 39 71 4. Statements : B>N<R≥T

(a) 29 (b) 23 (c) 21 (d) 27 (e) None of these Conclusions : I. B > R II. B ≤ R

Q12. 5 3 6 ? 64.75 5. Statements : N≤P ≥K>Q

(a) 15(b) 15.5(c) 17.5(d) 17.25(e) None of these Conclusions : I. K < N II. K > N

Q13. 649.6875 1299.375 866.25 346.5 99 22 ?

(a) 4 (b) 7 (c) 10 (d) 12 (e) None of these DIRECTIONS (Q.6-10)

Q14. 30 16 10 8 8 9 ? 6. Statements : Z>K≥T≥F

(a) 12.75 (b) 13 (c) 14 d) 10.5 (e) None of these Conclusions : I. F < Z II. Z ≥ T

Q15. 10 18 63 253 1137 5901 ? 7. Statements : K ≤ B = D≤ M

(a) 39754 (b) 35749 (c) 37594 (d) 35794 (e) None of Conclusions : I. M ≥ K II. B > K
these
8. Statements : N=R>M<J
Conclusions : I. N ≥ M II. N < M
Directions: (1-5) In each of these questions a number series
is given. In each series stand out number isn’t right.
9. Statements : S<T≥R≤M
Discover the wrong number. (IBPS CWE PO/MT Exam 2012)
Conclusions : I. M = T II. M ≤ T
1. 5531 5506 5425 5304 5135 4910 4621
(1) 5531 (2) 5425 (3) 4621 (4) 5135 (5) 5506 10. Statements : H≥V<M<R
Conclusions : I. R > H II. V < R
2. 6 7 9 13 26 37 69
(1) 7(2) 26(3) 69(4) 37(5) 9

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PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

DIRECTIONS (Q.11-15) Conclusions : I. K < N II. Q ≥ N

11. Statements : Z>N≥F>K DIRECTIONS (Q.6-10)

Conclusion : I. K > N II. K < Z
6. Statements : Z > K, K ≥ T, T F
12. Statements : D<T≤M≥K Conclusions : I. F < K II. Z ≥ F
Conclusions : I. M > D II. D ≤ M
7. Statements : K < B, B < D, M≤ D
13. Statements : W=A>B≥M Conclusions : I. M < K II. B > M
Conclusions : I. B < W II. W >
B
8. Statements : N ≥ R, R ≥ M, M = J
14. Statements : J <M=N≥T Conclusions : I. J ≥ N II. N < R
Conclusions : I. T < J II. T ≥ J
9. Statements : S < T, T ≥ R, R ≤ M
15. Statements : V≤F≤R≤G Conclusions : I. M ≤ T II. M > T
Conclusions : I. G < V II. G = V
10. Statements : H = V, M < V, R ≤ H
Conclusions : I. R ≥ H II. V < R

DIRECTIONS (Q.16-20) DIRECTIONS (Q.11-15)

16. Statements : Z=K≥T<F

Conclusions : I. F < Z II. Z ≥ T 11. Statements : Z ≤ N, N ≥ F, F ≥ K
Conclusion : I. K = N II. K ≤ Z
17. Statements : K ≥ B < D≤ M
Conclusions : I. M ≥ K II. B ≤ K 12. Statements : D < T, T = M, M ≥ K
Conclusions : I. M < D II. D < M
18. Statements : N>R≥M=J
13. Statements : W ≥ A, M > B ≥ C < W
Conclusions : I. N ≥ M II. R < J
Conclusions : I. B < W II. W ≤ B
19. Statements : S<T≤R<M 14. Statements : J < M, M > N, N ≥ T
Conclusions : I. M < T II. M > T Conclusions : I. T < J II. M ≥ T

20. Statements : H<V≤M>R 15. Statements : V ≤ F, V ≤ R ≤ G

Conclusions : I. R > H II. V < R Conclusions : I. G < V II. G = V

TYPE 2:

Give answer DIRECTIONS (Q.16-20)

1) if only conclusion II is true.
2) if either conclusion I or II is true. 16. Statements : Z = K, L ≥ T, L < F
3) if both conclusions I and II are true. Conclusions : I. F < K II. T ≥ F
4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
5) if only conclusion I is true. 17. Statements : K ≥ B, B < D, M≤ D
Conclusions : I. M > K II. B < K
1. Statements : B ≤ A, A = H, H ≤ C
Conclusions : I. B < C II. C < A 18. Statements : N > R, J ≥ R, R = M
Conclusions : I. N ≥ M II. R < J
2. Statements : K > M, M ≥ R, R ≤ T
Conclusions : I. T = M II. R < M 19. Statements : S < T, T ≤ R, R < M
Conclusions : I. M = T II. M > T
3. Statements : T ≤ M, M < V, V > N
Conclusions : I. M ≥ N II. T > N 20. Statements : H < V, V ≤ M, G ≤ C ≤ R
Conclusions : I. G > H II. C < V
4. Statements : B ≥ S, A ≥ R, A ≥ T
Conclusions : I. B ≥ T II. B ≤ R

5. Statements : N ≤ P, P = K, K = Q

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TYPE 3 ‘P * Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.

‘P $ Q’ means’ P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q’.
Give answer ‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
1) if only conclusion II is true.
2) if only conclusion I is true. 11. Statements : Z#N, F©N, F*K
3) if both conclusions I and II are true. Conclusion : I. K $ N II. K @ Z
4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
5) if either conclusion I or II is true. 12. Statements : D $ T, T©M, M # K
Conclusions : I. M $ D II. D@ M

DIRECTIONS (Q. 1-5): 13. Statements : W©A, B*A, B@M

‘P×Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller nor greater than Q’. Conclusions : I. B # W II. W $ B
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither equal to nor greater than Q’.
*P *Q’ means ‘P is either equal to or smaller than Q’. 14. Statements : J * M, M $ N, N # T
‘P + Q’ means ‘P is neither equal to nor smaller than Q’. Conclusions : I. T @ J II. T $ J
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not equal to Q’.
15. Statements : V * F, F @ R, R © G
1. Statements : D*F, F$M, M@K Conclusions : I. G # V II. G@ V
Conclusions : I. F @ K II. D @ K
DIRECTIONS (Q. 16-20):
2. Statements : K + M, M@R, R × T P $ Q means P is neither equal to nor smaller than Q.
Conclusions : I. K + T II. T + M P © Q means P is not smaller than Q.
P * Q means P is neither greater nor smaller than Q.
3. Statements : T@M, M*R, R×N P # Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.
Conclusions : I. M × N II. M @N P @ Q means P is not greater than Q.

4. Statements : B $ N, N × R, R+T 16. Statement : M#K, K*D, D@P

Conclusions : I. B $ R II. T @ N Conclusions : I. M @ P II. M *P

5. Statements : N × P, K + P, Q@K 17. Statements : W©T, T$M, B#M

Conclusions : I. K + N II. Q + N Conclusions : I. W $ B II. M # W

DIRECTIONS (Q. 6-10): 18. Statements : H*D, D#R, R©N

Conclusions : I. N * H II. N$H
P $ Q means P is not smaller than Q.
P © Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q. 19. Statements : Z@R, R©D, D#T
P @ Q means P is not greater than Q. Conclusions : I. D # Z II. Z # T
P × Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.
P # Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q. 20. Statement : Q#P, P@F, F*M
Conclusions : I. M $ P II. P * M
6. Statements : Z$K, K × T, T©F
Conclusions : I. F # Z II. Z × T
PRACTICE EXERCISE:
7. Statements : K × B, B @ D, D # K
Conclusions : I. B @ K II. B # K Direction (1-5): Relationship between different elements is
shown in the statements. Find if the conclusions also
8. Statements : N©R, R@M, M$J follow or not.
Conclusions : I. N © M II. N # M
1. Statements: L ≥ M > K, Z = K < P
9. Statements : S $ T, T@R, R#M Conclusions:
Conclusions : I. M × T II. M © T I. Z ≤ L, II. M = P
A) only I follows B) only II follow sC) either I or II
10. Statements : H@V, V©M, M × R follows D) neither I nor II follow E) both I and II
Conclusions : I. R × H II. H × R follow

DIRECTIONS (Q. 11-15): 2. Statements: R = P ≥ J > S, J ≤ M < N

Conclusions:
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’. I. N > S II. R ≥ M
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’. A) only I follows B) only II follows C) either I or II

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

follows D) neither I nor II follow E) A) only I follows B) only II follows C) either I or II

both I and II follow follows D) neither I nor II follow E)
both I and II follow
3. Statements: S < P = Z ≤ M, Z ≥ K ≥ R, S ≥ J
Conclusions:
I. M> R, II. Z > R Directions (6-10): In the following questions, the symbols *
A) only I follows B) only II follows C) either I or II , $, #, δ and % are used with the following meaning as
follows D) neither I nor II follow E) illustrated below:
both I and II follow ‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P δ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
4. Statements: K ≤ M < R > P, R ≥ S = N > J ‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
Conclusions: ‘P*Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
I. P > S, II. S < K ‘P # Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
A) only I follows B) only II follows C) either I or II Now in each of the following question assuming the given
follows D) neither I nor II follow E) statements to be true, find which of the conclusions I, II, III
both I and II follow and IV given below them is/are definitely true and give your
answer accordingly.
5. Statements: R ≤ J > M, J ≥ L = S < N, S ≥ P
6. Statements: A * P, P % E, E δ F, F # S
Conclusions:
Conclusions:
I. P ≤ J, II. M < N
I. S % E II. A % E III.F % P
A) only I follows B) only II follows C) either I or II
A) Only I and III are true B) Only II is true C)
follows D) neither I nor II follow E)
Only I and II are true
both I and II follow
D) Only II and III are true E) None of these

7. Statements: P δ W, W $ Q, Q % S, S * A
Direction (1-5): Relationship between different
Conclusions:
elements is shown in the statements. Find if the
I. A δ Q II. Q % P III. W % A
conclusions also follow or not.
A) Only I is true B) Only I and III are true C)
1. Statements: A < L ≤ B = X ≥ G; W ≥ X < S; Q ≥ L Only I and II are true
Conclusions: D) All I, II and III are true E) None of these
I. W ≥ Q, II. G < S
8. Statements: L % N, N # T, T $ D, D δ A
A) only I follows B) only II follows C) either I or II
Conclusions:
follows D) neither I nor II follow E)
I. L % A II. L # A III. A % N
both I and II follow
A) Only either I or II and III are true B)
2. Statements: G < Q ≤ A = N ≥ W; E ≥ N < O; D ≥ Q Only I is true C) Only either I or II is true
Conclusions: D) Only III is true E) None of these
I. Q ≤ W, II. G < E
9. Statements: M # Q, Q $ K, A % K, V * A
A) only I follows B) only II follows C) either I or II
Conclusions:
follows D) neither I nor II follow E)
I. K * M II. A % QIII. A % M
both I and II follow
A) None is true B) Only I and II are true
3. Statements: E ≥ J≥ S > C ≤ W ≤D C) Only I and III are true
Conclusions: D) Only II and III are true E) All I, II and III are
I. E > W, II. J ≤ D true
A) only I follows B) only II follows C) either I or II
10. Statements: E $ C, C δ A, A * R, R # S
follows D) neither I nor II follow E)
Conclusions:
both I and II follow
I. L % A II. R δ C III. R # E
4. Statements: A > Z = Q ≥ M <S ≤ E; S > F; K < Z A) None is true B) Only I and II true C)
Conclusions: Only II is true
I. E > F, II. A < M D) Only III is true E) All I, II and III are true
A) only I follows B) only II follows C) either I or II
Direction (6-10): Relationship between different
follows D) neither I nor II follow E)
elements is shown in the statements. Find if the
both I and II follow
conclusions also follow or not.
5. Statements: Z < A ≤ I = K; A = D
6. Statements: P >A ≤ R > S = T; U > R = V ≤ C; S > D
Conclusions:
≥E
I. K > Z, II. D ≤ I
Conclusions:

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

I. E ≤ C II. T > D 4. Statements: M < W < U ≤ A = T ≥ V ≥ S

A) only I follows B) only II follows C) either I or II Conclusions:
follows I. T > W II. A ≥ S
D) neither I nor II follow E) both I and II follow A) only I follows B) only II follows C)
either I or II follows
7. Statements: A= B ≥ P < T = S; Q > C = D < P < U; E D) neither I nor II follow E) both I and II follow
>F<U=V
Conclusions: 5. Statements: D < S < U ≤ C = X ≥ V ≥ E
I. V > C II. A > Q Conclusions:
A) only I follows B) only II follows C) I. D < X II. X ≥ U
either I or II follows A) only I follows B) only II follows
D) neither I nor II follow E) both I and II follow C) either I or II follows
D) neither I nor II follow E) both I and II follow
8. Statements: P ≥ B = A ≥ S < T = Q; C = S > D > R = J
Conclusions: 6. Statements: R > V ≥ A ≥ S; A ≥ S; A ≥ O ≥ U
I. C ≤ P II. Q > R Conclusions:
A) only I follows B) only II follows C) I. V > U II. S ≤ O
either I or II follows A) only I follows B) only II follows C)
D) neither I nor II follow E) both I and II follow either I or II follows

D) neither I nor II follow E) both I and II follow

9. Statements: T ≤ S < Q < A = P ≥ M = K; R = D ≥ A ≥
C>S<B=C 7. Statements: R > A ≥ X ≥ D; X ≥ D; X ≥ O ≥ Z
Conclusions: Conclusions:
I. K < Q II. D > T I. Z = A II. R > O
A) only I follows B) only II follows C) A) only I follows B) only II follows C)
either I or II follows either I or II follows
D) neither I nor II follow E) both I and II follow D) neither I nor II follow E) both I and II follow

10. Statements: P > A ≤ R > S = T; U > R = V ≤ C; S > D 8. Statements: A > Z ≥ B ≤ M; B ≥ E < L

≤E Conclusions:
Conclusions: I. A > E II. M ≤ Z
I. U ≥ E II. U < E A) only I follows B) only II follows C)
A) only I follows B) only II follows C) either I or II follows
either I or II follows D) neither I nor II follow E) both I and II follow
D) neither I nor II follow E) both I and II follow
9. Statements: Q > A ≥ M ≤ E; J ≥ E < S
Direction (1-10): Relationship between different elements Conclusions:
is shown in the statements. Find if the conclusions also I. A ≥ S II. S < Q
follow or not. A) only I follows B) only II follows C)
either I or II follows
1. Statements: S > K ≥ X < C = N ≤ Q > A D) neither I nor II follow E) both I and II follow
Conclusions:
10. Statements: Q > S ≥ X < J = N ≤ A > V
I. X ≥ Q II. A > X
Conclusions:
A) only I follows B) only II follows C)
I. Q > N II. S > J
either I or II follows
A) only I follows B) only II follows C)
D) neither I nor II follow E) both I and II follow
either I or II follows
2. Statements: H > E ≥ V = S > L ≤ A D) neither I nor II follow E) both I and II follow
Conclusions:
I. E > L II. S ≥ A
Directions (1 – 5): In the following questions, the
A) only I follows B) only II follows C)
symbols %, @, #, $ and & are used with the following
either I or II follows
meaning as illustrated below:
D) neither I nor II follow E) both I and II follow
‘P%Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
3. Statements: Q ≥ B > K < F; F < Q = S ‘P@Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to
Conclusions: Q’.
I. F ≤ B II. Q < K ‘P#Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
A) only I follows B) only II follows C) ‘P$Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
either I or II follows ‘P&Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor greater
D) neither I nor II follow E) both I and II follow than Q’.

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

Now in each of the following questions, assuming the either I or II follows

given statements to be true, find which of the four D) neither I nor II follow E) both I and II follow
conclusions I, II, and III given below them is/are
definitely true and give your answer accordingly. 4. Statements: E ≥ L > K, L > F < D, P > E
Conclusions:
1. Statements: A%S, S$W, W&F, F@X I. P > D II. E > F
Conclusions: A) only I follows B) only II follows C)
I. S%F II. W@A III. X%W either I or II follows
A) Only I B) Only II C) Both II and III D) All D) neither I nor II follow E) both I and II follow
I, II and III E) Only I and II
5. Statements: Q ≥ X ≥ S, S < A, A > E
2. Statements: R&W, W#C, C%A, A$V Conclusions:
Conclusions: I. E > X II. X ≥ E
I. C&R II. A%W III. V@C A) only I follows B) only II follows C)
A) Only II B) Only IC) Only I and III D) Only III either I or II follows
E) None of these D) neither I nor II follow E) both I and II follow

3. Statements: A@D, D$M, M#S, S&J Statements: M≤V; P<R; P=M; S>T; R≤T
Conclusions: Conclusions:
I. A$M II. J&D III. A@M I. S>M II. V=P III. P<V IV.
A) Either I or III B) Only IC) Only II and III T<P
D) All I, II and III E) Either I or III and II A. Only I is true B. Only II is true C. None is true
D. Either II or III and I are true E. All are true

4. Statements: C#A, X%A, R$X, R@S

Conclusions: 1. Statements: B<P; P≤S; S=M; M≥F; Q≥M; M<O
I. R%A II. R$A III. C@S
Conclusions:
A) Both I and II B) Both I and III C)
Both II and III i. P≤F ii. B<Q iii. Q≥M iv. F<O
D) Either I or II and III E) Only I
A. Only I, II and III are true B. Only II is true
5. Statements: X$E, E%W, W&Q, Q@A C. Only II,III and IV are true
Conclusions:
I. A@W II. X%Q III. E&A D. Neither I nor II is true E. None is true
A) Only III B) Both I and II C) All I, II and 2. Statements: A ≥ B; F < E; A ≤ D; F ≤ B;C = B
III
D) Both II and III E) None of these Conclusions:

Direction (6-10): Relationship between different elements I. C < E II. D ≥ B III.A ≥ F IV.E > D
is shown in the statements. Find if the conclusions also A. Only II is true B. Only III is true
follow or not.
C. Either I or II true
1. Statements: W > S ≤ Q, D ≤ S, I ≤ B = D D. II and III are true E. I and II are true
Conclusions:
I. Q ≥ I II. Q = I
A) only I follows B) only II follows C) 3. Statements: P=M; Q≤R; T>Q; M<R
either I or II follows
Conclusions:
D) neither I nor II follow E) both I and II follow
I. M < R II. R > T III. P > T IV. P > Q
2. Statements: Q < D ≤ A, C > A < K, D ≥ S
Conclusions: I. K > D A. None is true B. Only I is true
II. C > S C. Only I and II are true
A) only I follows B) only II follows C)
either I or II follows D. Only II and III are true E. Only IV is true
D) neither I nor II follow E) both I and II follow 4. Statements: S = A; R < T; R ≥ S ; P ≥ Q; Q > A
3. Statements: S > N ≥ F, P = N, E > S Conclusions:
Conclusions:
I. E > P II. F < E I. P > S II. Q > S III. T <A IV. A ≥ R
A) only I follows B) only II follows C) A. Only I is true B. Only II is true C. Only I

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PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

and II are true 1. Statements: Q ≥ R, P >R, P = O ≥ T, S ≥ U>Q

D. Only III and IV are true E. All are true Conclusions:
I.S≥R II.P<T III.Q<T IV.U>R
Direction(6-10): Study the following information to answer
A.Only I is true B.Only II is true C.Only III is true
the given questions
D.Only IV is true E.All are true
P$Q means P is not smaller than Q
2. Statements: E<D, F>C, D<F, C≥A=B
P@Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q
Conclusions:
P#Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q
I.A<E II.F>B III.E>C IV.B>C
P&Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q
A.Only I is true B.Only II is true C.Only III is true
P*Q means P is not greater than Q
D.Only IV is true E.All are true
3. Statements: O=R, P=N>I, M≥R, N >M
6. Statements: A $ M, P @ L, K # P, A $ L
Conclusions:
Conclusions:
I.O<I II.R<N III.N<I IV.O=I
I. K # L II. A @ P III.L*A IV.M # P
A.Only II is true B.Only II is true C.None is true
A. None is true B. Only I is true C. Only II is true
D.Either I or IV and II are true E.All are true
D. Only III is true E. Only IV is true
4. Statements: P<A>S, B=Q>T, S≤M<T
7. Statements: W*N, K * V, Y @ V, W @ K
Conclusions:
Conclusions:
I.P<T II.S≤T III.M<Q IV.B=M
I. Y @ K II. W $ N III.W @ Y IV.W @
A.Only I is true B.Only II is true C.Only III true
V
D.Only IV is true E.All are true
A. None is true B. Only I is true C. Only II is true
5. Statements: G ≤ J < I, N ≥ K = H, N = F > G
D. Only III is true E. Only IV is true
Conclusions:
8. Statements: T * Y, S # M, Y $ S, M @ K
I.H<G II.G<I III.K=G IV.K<G
Conclusions:
A.Only II and IV is true B.Only II and III is true
I. K # S II. Y @ M III.T # M IV.Y @ K
C.None is true
A. None is true B. Only I is true C. Only II is true
D.Either III or IV and II are true E.All are true
D. Only III is true E. Only IV is true
6. Statements: D < A ≤ E < L, A = K > N, L > K ≥ M
Conclusions:
9. Statements: S @ L, L # M, M & B, B * Q
I.D>M II.L>M III.K ≤ N IV.M ≤ A
Conclusions:
A.Only I is true B.Only II is true C.Only I and II are true
I. Q $ M II. B @ L III.S @ Q IV.L @ Q
D.Only II and IV are true E.All are true
A. I, II and III are true B. I, II are true C. I, III are true
7. Statements: X > S = T ≤ U, Y = Z > V ≥ U, S=W>O
D. I, III and IV are true E. All are true
Conclusions:
10. Statements: C # P, P * L, L @ E, E $ M
I.S=W II.T<Y III.X>O IV.T≤V
Conclusions:
A.Only I and IV are true B.Only II is true
I. M # P II. M @ L III.P # E IV.L # C
C.Only II and III are true
A. None is true B. Only I is true C. Only II is true
D.Either I or III and I are true E.All are true
D. Only III is true E. Only IV is true

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

10. In which of the following expressions will the

8. Statements: F ≤ H ≥ T ≤ B, A ≥ Q = B, T>K=G
expression ‘A < D’ be definitely true?
Conclusions: A) A ≥ B = C < D
B) A > B = C ≥ D
I.A≥T II.T=G III.K<A IV.F>T
C) A < B = C ≤ D
A.Only I and II are true B.Only I and III are true D) A > B < C ≤ D
E) None of these
C.Either I or III are true
1. Which of the following expressions is true if the
D.Either I or IV and III are true E.All are true
expression K < T ≤ C > S > N ≥ Z is definitely true?
9. What should come in place of question mark to A) Z ≤ K
B) S < K
make S>Q always true?
C) N > K
R≤T>P=S>R ? O >Q D) E < S
E) T ≤ N
A.> B.= C.≥ D.All of these E.None of these
10. What should come in place of question mark to 2. In Which of the following expressions does the
expression ‘J ≤ A’ to definitely hold true?
make E≤I always true? A) K ≥ A ≤ Q = P < S ≤ J
D>E≤F=M?K≤C ? I B) U ≥ J ≥ M = F ≤ G ≥ A
C) A ≥ C ≥ Q ≥ X = N ≥ J
A.≤, ≤ B.≤, < C.=, ≥ D.≥, ≤ E.None of these D) G ≥ A = M < X ≤ S ≤ J
E) J ≥ E = G ≥ W = Y ≥ A
6. Which of the following symbols should be placed
in the blank spaces respectively(in the same order 3. Which of the following symbols should be placed
from left to right) in order to complete the given in the blank spaces respectively(in the same order
expression in such a manner that both ‘R ≤ T’ and ‘S > from left to right) in order to complete the given
V’ definitely holds true? P > R = M ? S = T ? K ≥ V expression in such a manner that both ‘K > Q’ as well
A) <, >B) ≤, ≥ C) ≤, > D) <, ≥E) None of these as ‘Q ≤ D’ definitely holds true? D _ A _ Q _ C _ K
A) >, ≥, <, =
B) >, >, ≥, <
7. Which of the following expressions is definitely C) ≥, ≥, ≥,≤
true if the expression U > N is definitely false and the D) ≥, =, ≤,<
expression W < P is definitely true? E) Other than those given as options
A) T ≥ U > W > M = N < P
B) U < T ≤ W = N < M ≤ P 4. In which of these expressions ‘S > D’ be
C) W = U ≥ T ≥ P < N = M definitely false?
D) U > P = M < N > W = T A) S > L ≥ Q = E ≥ R > D
E) None of these B) P < A ≤ S ≤ T; D ≥ O > T
C) D ≤ A ≤ Q = R < S
8. Which of the following symbols should be placed D) S > C ≥ F ≤ V; D < F
in the blank spaces respectively(in the same order E) S > T = W ≥ P; D < J = P
from left to right) in order to complete the given
expression in such a manner that ‘N > K’ definitely 5. In which of these expressions ‘S > E’ and ‘E > K’
holds true? K _ L _ M _ N be definitely false?
A) ≥, =, > A) S > P ≥ Q = G ≥ R > E > K
B) ≤, <, = B) P < A ≤ S ≤ T; E ≥ O > T < K
C) ≥, =, < C) K > E ≤ A ≤ L = R < S
D) >, ≥, < D) S > C ≥ F ≤ H; K > E <F
E) Other than those given as options E) S > T = O ≥ P; K < E < J = P

9. Which of the following expressions will definitely 1. Which of the following expressions is true, if P >
be true if the expressions ‘L > R’ and ‘M ≤ N’ are true? G and F < H are definitely true?
A) K > M < S ≤ N < R ≥ D ≤ L A) Q < P ≥ B > D > F = G < H
B) K = M > S ≥ N = R ≤ D < L B) B ≤ Q < H < D > P > F > G
C) K > M ≥ S = N ≤ R ≤ D ≤ L C) Q ≤ H ≥ B ≥ D < G ≥ P > F
D) K ≥ M ≥ S ≥ N < R < D ≤ L D) D ≤ G > P ≥ F > H ≤ Q ≤ B
E) None of these E) H ≥ Q > D ≥ B ≥ P = G > F

2. Which of the following is definitely true if P ≤ V <

S=G≥Q≥R>E

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

A) Q > P C) Either (i) or (ii) or (iv)

B) S > R D) Either (ii) or (iv)
C) V > R E) All are true
D) S > E
E) P < R 3. Which of the following makes C $ E or B % E
definitely true?
3. Which of the following should replace the A) A © B $ C @ D % E # F
question mark so that E > D is definitely true? B) A # B % C $ D @ E # F
C=B>A≥D≤G?F≤E C) A # B © C % D % E $ F
A) = D) A @ B % C © D # E @ F
B) > E) None of these
C) ≤
D) < 4. If “A % B # C © D @ E © F $ G” is true then
E) ≥ which of the following is definitely not true?
(i) A # D (ii) C © F
4. Which of the following order of letters in the (iii) B @ D
blanks makes the expression D > E is definitely true? (iv) E % G
___ < ___ ≤ ___ = ___ > ____ A) Only (i)
A) B, C, D, E, A B) Only (ii) and (iv)
B) A, B, C, E, D C) Only (ii) and (iii)
C) D, B, A, C, E D) Only (i), (iii) and (iv)
D) E, C, A, B, D E) All are true
E) C, A, D, B, E
5. Which of the following makes A $ C and E # B
5. What will come in place of question mark in definitely true?
following below such that both E < B and D ≥ G are A) A $ B $ C @ D % E # F
definitely true? A > B = C > D ? E ≥ F = G B) A $ D $ B @ C @ E # F
A) ≤B) ≥ C) = D) >E) Both B and C C) A © B # C % D @ E $ F
D) A © B $ D © C @ E @ F
E) None of these
Directions (1 – 5): In the following questions, the symbols
@, #, %, $ and © are used with the following meaning as
illustrated below: Following Questions are based on Inequalities Topic in
‘P@Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’. Reasoning Section as they came in SBI PO Mains 2016.
‘P#Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P%Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’. Directions (1 – 10): In the following questions, the symbols
‘P$Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’. %, @, #, $ and * are used with the following meaning as
‘P©Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q’. illustrated below:
‘P#Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
In each of the following questions, mark answer according ‘P*Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
to above symbols and their meaning. ‘P$Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P%Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
1. Which of the following does not make P @ S and ‘P@Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q’.
V # S definitely not true? In each of the following questions, mark answer according
A) P @ Q © R $ S $ T @ U © V to above symbols and their meaning.
B) P $ Q @ R @ V # T © S % U
C) P # Q % R © S $ T © U $ V 1. Which of the following does not make A # C and
D) P © Q @ R © S @ T $ U © V D $ F definitely not true?
E) None of these A) A % B # C @ D $ E $ F
B) A # B @ C $ D $ E @ F
2. What will come in place of blank in following C) A % B # C @ D $ E * F
below such that both P @ S and V % R are definitely D) A % B # C # D @ E $ F
true?
P$Q@R_S$T©U$V 2. Which of the following makes C $ E or B % E
i) @ definitely true?
ii) © A) A * B $ C @ D % E # F
iii) % B) A # B * C $ D @ E # F
iv) $ C) A # B # C % D % E * F
A) Only (i) D) A @ B % C @ D * E * F
B) Either (i) or (iii)

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

3. If “A % B % C * D @ E $ F” is true then which of 9. Which of the following is definitely true if A # B

the following is definitely not true? @ C # D @ E $ F is true?
(i) A # D (i) C # F
(ii) C * F (ii) F % D
(iii) B # D (iii) B % E
(iv) D # F (iv) E # A)
A) Only (i) A) Only (i)
B) Only (ii) and (iv) B) Only (ii) and (iii)
C) Only (i) and (iii) C) Only (iv)
D) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) D) Only (ii)
E) All are true E) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)

4. Which of the following makes A * C and E # B 10. Which of the following does not make A % B and
definitely true? D * F definitely not true?
A) A * B $ C @ D % E # F A) A % B % C * D $ E # F
B) A * D $ B * C @ E # F B) A % B % C @ D * E * F
C) A * B # C % D * E $ F C) A * B % C @ D $ E $ F
D) A @ B * D @ C % E @ F D) A % B @ C $ D @ E * F

5. What will come in place of blank in following

below such that both A % D and C # F are definitely 1. In which of these expressions ‘U > W’ be definitely
true?
false?
A%B%C_D#E%F
i) @ A. U>P≥Q=G≥R>W
ii) *
B. P<A≤U≤T;W≥O>T
iii) %
iv) $ C. W≤A≤L=R<U
A) Only (i)
D. U>C>=F≤H; W<F
B) Only (ii) and (iv)
C) Only (i) and (iii) E. U>T=O≥P; W<J=P
D) Only (i), (iii) and (iv)
2. Which of the following symbols should be placed
E) All are true
in the blank spaces respectively(in the same order from
6. What will come in place of blank in following
below such that both B * E and F # B are definitely left to right) in order to complete the given expression in
true?
such a manner that both ‘N≥Q’ as well as ‘Q≤M’
A@B$C_D@E*F$G
A) @ definitely holds true? M _ N _ P _ Q _ R
B) *
A. >, ≥, <, =
C) #
D) $ B. >, >, ≥, <
E) None of these
C. ≥, ≥, ≤,≤
7. Which of the following makes F # D $ B definitely D. ≥, =, ≥,<
true?
A) A @ B $ C * D # E * F E. Other than those given as options
B) A * B @ C % D # E * F 3. In Which of the following expressions does the
C) A % B * C $ D @ E * F
D) A # B % C @ D * E * F expression ‘D=V’ to definitely hold true?

8. What will come in place of blank in following A. K ≥ D ≤ R = P < S ≤ V

below such that both B * E and F # B are definitely B. U ≥ V ≥ M = F ≤ A ≥ D
true?
A#B@C%D_E$F@G C. D ≥ C > Q ≥ B = N ≤ V
A) % D. G ≥ D = A < B ≤ S ≤ V
B) *
C) # E. V ≥ E = G ≥ W = Y ≥ D
D) $ 4. Which of the following expressions is true if the
E) @
expression P<T<=B>S>M>=A is definitely true?

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PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

A. A ≤ P 9. In which of these expressions ‘P > R’ and ‘P = R’ be

B. S < P definitely true?
C. M > P A. S>P≥Q=G≥R>V
D. A < B B. P<A≤S≤T<R;V≥O>T
E. T ≤ M C. V≤A≤L=R<S=P
5. In which of these expressions ‘S > V’ and ‘V > B’ be D. P>S>C>=F≤H; V<F<R
definitely false? E. S>T=O≥P; V<J=P>R
A. S>P≥Q=G≥R>V>B 10. In which of these expressions ‘T > P’ and ‘T = P’ be
B. P<A≤S≤T;V≥O>T<B definitely false?
C. B>V≤A≤L=R<S A. T≥S≥P≥Q=G≥R>V
D. S>C>=F≤H; B>V<F B. P<A≤S≤T;V≥O>T
E. S>T=O≥P; B<V<J=P C. V≤A≤L=R<S
6. Which of the following symbols should be placed D. S>C>=F≤H=P≤Q=T; V<F
in the blank spaces respectively(in the same order from E. S>T=O≥P; V<J=P
left to right) in order to complete the given expression in
such a manner that both ‘B>S’ as well as ‘E≤F’ definitely DIRECTIONS
holds true? B _ A _ S _ E _ D _ F _ G 1. A man is facing south. He turns 1350 in the anti
A. >, ≥, <, =, <, < clockwise direction and then 1800 in the clockwise
B. >, >, ≥, <, >, = direction. Which direction is he facing now?
1. North-east 2. North-west
C. ≥, ≥, ≥, ≤, >, >
3. South-east 4. South-west
D. >, =, ≥, =, ≤, =
E. Other than those given as options 2. A man is facing north-west. He turns 900 in the
7. In Which of the following expressions does the clockwise direction and then 1350 in the anti clockwise
direction. Which direction is he facing now?
expression ‘L=T’ and “E≥W” to definitely hold true?
1. East 2. West
A. E ≥ W ≤ R = P < S ≤ T 3. North 4. South
B. U ≥ T ≥ M = W ≤ E ≥ L
3. You go North, turn right, then right again and then go
C. L ≥ C > E ≥ W = N ≤ T
to the left. In which direction are you now?
D. E ≥ W = A < B ≤ S ≤ T
1. North 2. South
E. T ≥ E = G ≥ W = Y ≥ L 3. East 4. West
8. Which of the following expressions is true if the
4. Deepak starts walking straight towards east. After
expression P<T<=Q>= R ≥ S>M>=W>A = R is definitely
walking 75 meters, he turns to the left and walks 25
true? meters straight. Again he turns to the left, walks a
A. W ≤ P distance of 40 meters straight, again he turns to the left
B. S < P and walks a distance of 25 meters. How far is he from the
starting point?
C. M < R
1. 25 m 2. 50 m 3. 115 m
D. W > Q 4. 140 m 5. None of these
E. T ≤ M
5. Kunal walks l0kilometres towards North. From there,
he walks 6 kilometers towards south. Then, he walks 3

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

kilometers towards east. How far and in which direction is 12. There is a ring road connecting points A,B,C and D.The
he now? road is in a complete circular form but having several
1. 5 KM West 2. 5 KM North-east approach roads leading to the centre. Exactly in the
3. 7 KM east 4. 7 KM west centre of the ring road there is a tree which is 20 km from
point A on the circular road. You have taken a round of
6. Rohan walks a distance of 3 km towards North, then the circular road starting from point A and finish at the
turns to his left and walks for 2 km. He again turns left same point after touching points B,C and D. You then
and walks for 3 km. At this point he turns to his left and drive 20km interior towards the tree from point A and
walks for 3 km. How many kilometers is he from the from there reach somewhere in between B and C on the
starting point? ring road. How much distance you have to travel from the
1. 1 km 2. 2 km 3. 3 km 4. 5 km tree to reach the point between B and C on the ring road?
1. 20 2. 15 3. 79 4. 78
7. Sham travels 7 km North , then turns right and walks 3
km. He again turns to his right hand side and moves 7 km 13. A tourist drives 10 km towards east and turns to right
forward. How many km is Sham away from the place of hand side and takes a drive of another 3 km .he then
his starting the journey? drives towards west another 3km. He then turns to
1. 7 km 2. 3km 3.8 km 4.17 km his left and walks another 2km. Afterwards, he turns
right and travels 7 km. How far is he from his starting
8. Reeta drives to North of her place of stay A and finds pint and in which direction?
after travelling 25 km that she has driven in the wrong 1. 10km East 2. 8km North
direction. She then turns to the right and travels 2 km and 3. 5 km West 4. 5km South
then again turns right and drives straight another 25 km.
how much distance she has now to cover to goback to 14. Rahul walks 30 meters towards south. Then turns to
the point from where she has started? his right and starts walking straight till he completes
1. 25 km 2. 2 km 3. 5 km 4.68 km another 30 meters. Then again turning to his left he
walks for 20 meters. He then turns to his left and
9. Rana travels 10 km north turns left and travels 4 km walks for 30 meters. How far is he from his initial
and then again turns right and covers another 5km. He position?
then turns to right hand side and travels another 4 km. 1. 50 2. 78 3. 23 4. 67
How far is he from the point of starting his journey?
1. 23 km 2. 14 km 3. 15 km 4. 18 km 15. Vandana drove her car for 30 km due north. Then she
turned left and drove for 40 km, she then turned left
10. Seeta and ram both start from a point towards north. again and drove yet another 30 km. Again she turned
Seeta turns to left after walking 10 km. Ram turns right left and drove her car 50km.how far do u think she
after walking the same distance. Seeta waits for some actually drove her car from the initial position?
time and then walks another 5 km, whereas ram walks 1. 10 2. 5 3. 89 4. none
only 3 km. they both then return to their respective south
and walk 15 km forward. How far is Seeta from Ram? 16. Shalloo ran 20 m to the east, then he turned left and
1. 15 2. 10 3. 8 4. 12 walked for 15m then turned right and went 25 m and
then turned right again and went 15m. How far was
11. A taxi driver commenced his journey from a point and Shalloo from the starting point?
drove 10 km towards north and turned left and drove 1. 45 2. 35 3. 25 4. 15
another 5 km. After waiting to meet one of his friends, he
turned to his right and continued to drive another 10 km. 17. A girl leaves from her home. She first walks 30m in
He has covered a distance of 25 km so far but in which North West directions and then 30 in south west
direction he now may be.. direction. Next she walks 30m in south east direction.
1. North 2. East 3.West 4.South Finally, she turns towards her house. In which
direction is she moving?
1. North – East 2. East 3. West 4. South

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

walked for 3 m and turned to her right. Next she

18. From his house Lokesh went 15kms to the north. walked 4 m and turned to her right again. Next she
walked 15 m and turned to her right again and
Then he turned west and covered 10 kms. Then he
stopped at point B after walking 7 m. Find distance AB.
turned south and covered 5kms.finally, turning to A) 2√22 m B) 3√21 m C) 2√19 m
east, he covered 10kma.in what direction is he from D) 4√17 m E) None of these
his house?
1. East 2. West 3. North 4. South 4. Point P is 10 m west of point Q. Point R is 4 m
north of point P. Point T is 3 m east of point S and
point S is 5 m south of point Q. What is the direction
19. Kunal walks 10km towards north. From here he walks of point R with respect to point T?
6km towards south. Then, he walks 3km towards east. A) South-east B) South C) North-east
How far and in which direction is he with reference to D) North-west E) West
his starting point?
5. Anaya started from a point in some direction.
1. 5km West 2. 7km West
After walking for some time, she turned to her right
3. 7km East 4. 5km North East and continued walking. Now walking for some
distance she turned to her left and after this finally to
20. A man is facing south. He turns 135 degrees in the her right. If now she is walking in west direction, in
anti clockwise direction and then 180 degrees in the which direction did she started her journey?
A) North B) West C) East
clock wise direction. Which direction is he facing now?
D) South E) East or west
1. North – East 2. North – West
3. South - East 4. South – West
6. Sheetal started from point in South direction.
After walking for 5 km she took a right turn. Now she
PRACTICE EXERCISE
walked another 5 km and took a left turn. Then after
walking for 2 km she took a right turn. After covering
Direction Sense Questions for Bank PO, Insurance and other
more 2 km she turned 45o in clockwise direction. She
exams
is facing which direction now?
A) South West B) South East C) North East
1. From a point, Sahil starts walking in east
D) North West E) None of these
direction. After walking for 15 m he takes a right turn.
Now he walks for 12 m before turning to his right
Directions (7-8): Point P is 5 m south of point A. Point T is 8
again. Next he walks 5 m and again turns in same
m east of point Q. Point Z is 4 m west of point V. Point P is 6
direction as before. He now walks for 20 m before
m west of point B. Point V is 6 m south of point T. Point Q is
stopping at a point. How far is this point from the
4 m south of point B.
point where Sahil started?
A) 4 √10 m B) 3 √22 m C) 7 m
7. Find distance AZ.
D) 2√41 m E) 12 m
A) 5√13 m B) 6√13 m C) 4√14 m
2. Abhi and Asha start cycle race from point A. D) 7√15 m E) 3√11 m
They both start in east direction. After cycling for 7 m,
Abhi continues straight while Asha takes a left turn. 8. A person starts from point B in north direction.
They both cycle for 6 m before turning right and left Walks for 6 m and reaches point C, takes a right turn
directions respectively. Next walks for 5 m reaches point F. Again he takes a right
(1) Asha cycles for 8 m and takes a right turn. Now she turn, walks for 3 m, reaches point H, now takes a left
cycles for 5 m before turning to right again. turn, reaches point K, now takes a final right turn to
(2) Abhi cycles for 4 m and takes a left turn. Now he reach point T. Find the area enclosed by points B, Q, T,
cycles for 6m before turning to left again. K, H, F and C.
If both stop at these points, how much respective A) 58m2 B) 65m2 C) 71m2
distance they have to travel to meet each other on D) 76m2 E) None of these
their current paths?
Directions (9-10): Point A is 8 m west of point B. Point E is 2
A) 10 m, 15 m B) 13 m, 17 m C) 15 m, 20
m east of point F. Point G is 3 m east of point H. Point E is 3
mD) 18 m, 24 m E) Cannot be
m north of point of point D. Point C is 9 m west of point D.
determined
Point G is 9 m north of point F. Point C is 6 m south of point
3. From point A, Swati started walking in south B.
direction. She walked for 4 m and took a right turn.
Next she walked 5 m and turned to her left. Next she

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

9. Find distance AH. 5 m. Now she turned to her left and walked 3 m after
A) 7√6 m B) 7√5 m C) 6√6 m which she turned to her right. Now she walked 4 m and
D) 6√5 m E) None of these turned to her right again and walked 15 m. Now finally
she turned to her right and after walking for 7 m, she
10. A person starts from point G in east direction. stopped at point B. What is the distance AB?
Walks for 6 m, takes a right turn, now walks for 5 m. A.2√34 m B.34 m C.3√17 m
Now he takes a left turn, walks for 3 m, then after two D.2√17 m E.None of these
consecutive right turns he reaches point E. Find the
distance travelled by him to reach point E. 10. Riya started from her home to office. She started
A) 27 m B) 25 m C) 23 m D) 24 m E) 28 m in east direction. After walking for 4 m she turned to her
left and walked 8 m, now she turned left and walked 2
Direction: Q(1-5) There are 5 friends A, B, C, D and E
m. After this she turned to right walked 4 m. Now after
standing randomly. B is to the northeast of E. D is 2km to
turning to her right she walked 13 m and reached office.
the east of E, who is 6km to the west of A. C is to the
Find the shortest distance between her office and home.
northwest of D and in the line of EB. D is 4km the south of
A.87 m B.9√41 m C.26 m D.3√41 m
B.
E.None of these
1. In which direction is C with respect to A ?
Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully
A.South west B.South east C.Northeast
and answer the questions that follow.
D.Northwest E.None of these
A country has the following types of traffic signals.
2. In which direction is A with respect to B ?
A.Southeast B.Southwest C.Northwest
3 green lights = go at 60 kmph speed
D.Northeast E.None of these
2 green lights = go at 40 kmph speed
3. What is the distance between D and A ?
1 green light = go at 20 kmph speed
A.5km B.4km C.6km D.3km E.None of these
3 red lights = stop
4. What is the shortest distance between B and A?
2 red lights = turn left
A.5√7km B.4√2km C.6√2km D.3√5km E.None of
1 red light = turn right
these
5. What is the shortest distance between between B A person starts driving from a point in West direction and
and E? he encounters the following traffic signals:
A.2√7km B.5 √2km C.7√2km D.2√5km E.None of these Starting point – 1 green light;
After 15 minutes, 1st signal – 2 red & 2 green lights;
Directions : Q(6-7) – Bala walked 25km towards west, took After 24 minutes, 2nd signal – 1 red & 3 green lights;
a left turn and walked 15km. He again took a left turn After 45 minutes, 3rd signal – 1 red & 2 green lights;
and walked 30km. He then took a right turn and After 18 minutes, 4th signal – 3 red lights;
stopped.
1. Find the total distance he covered up to the last
6. Now he was facing which direction ? signal.
A.West B.East C.South D.North E.None A) 76 km B) 78 km C) 70 km D) 75
of these km E) 79 km

2. After passing the third signal if the person

7. Instead of turning right at the end if he took left
encounters fourth signal after half an hour, then what
and walked 20km, what is the shortest distance to his
is his final position with respect to the starting point?
starting point?
A) 4 km to the south and 50 km to the east
A.3√7km B.2√5km C.7√2km
B) 55 km directly to the north-west
D.5√2 km E.None of these
C) 4 km to the north and 50 km to the west
8. Raghav starts walking in south direction and walks
D) 4 km to the north and 45 km to the west
a distance of 7 meters. Now he tooks a left turn and
E) None of these
walk 6m. Again he takes a left turn and walk 15m and
reached a point P. Find the distance between starting 3. If instead of starting in West direction, the man
point and P and in which direction is the person from starts in South direction, then what is his position with
the initial point. respect to the starting point?
A.10m, south east B.10m, north east A) 50 km to the south and 4 km to the west
C.20m, north west D.20m, south west B) 54 km directly to the north-west
E.None of these C) 50 km to the north and 4 km to the west
D) 50 km to the south and 4 km to the east
E) None of these
9. Dheepthi started from point A in south direction.
After walking for 4 m she turned to her right and walked
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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

4. If after the first signal, km and stops. Find his distance from T.
2nd signal: 2 red and 2 green lights, and A) 17 m B) 2√31 m C) 15 m
3rd signal: 1 red and 3 green lights, then what is the D) 7√21 m E) 12 m
distance covered up to the last signal?
A) 69 km B) 60 km C) 68 km D) 67 Directions (2-4): Point A is 8 m north of point B. Point
km E) 65 km B is 10 m west of point C. Point C is 11 m north of
point D. Point F is 4 m north of point E which is 6m
5. If the person stops at 3rd signal, then what is his west of point D.
final position with respect to his starting position?
A) 50 km to the north-west B) 52.5 km to the 2. A person starts from point F, reaches point G,
south-west then takes a left and then a right turn to reach point B.
C) 52.5 km to the north-east D) 50.5 km to the Find FG + BC.
south-west A) 13 km B) 12 km C) 15 km
E) 50.5 km to the south-east D) 14 km E) None of these

3. Point T is 5m north of point C. Find AT.

Directions (6-8): Point D is 2 km to the north of point C. A) 29 m B) 2√29 m C) 5√26 m
Point G is 8 km to the north of point H. Point A is 15 km to D) 29√2 m E) None of these
the south of point B. Point C is 8 km to the east of point B.
Point E is 10 km to the north of point F which is 4 km to 4. Point H is 6 m west of point F. Point J is 3 m
the west of point G. Point D is 4 km to the west of point E. south of point D. A person starts from point H in south
direction, reaches a point K, takes a left turn and
6. Find shortest distance BH. reaches point J. Find KE.
A) 16√4 km B) 32 km C) 15 km A) 15 mB) 3√10 mC) 2√5 mD) 3√2 mE) 3√5 m
D) 16√2 km E) None of these

7. If a person after taking 2 turns reaches to point B 5. A person starts from a point in east direction. He
from point F via point A, then what is the distance that walks 10 m and takes a right turn. Now he walks 5m
he covered? and again takes a right turn. Next he walks 3 m and
A) 32 km B) 34 km C) 30 km D) 35 takes a left turn. Now he walks 6 m and takes a right
km E) 36 km turn. He finally stops after walking 8m. In which
8. If a person starts from point H and reaches point direction is the starting point with respect to the
S which is south of point C, then find distance CS + HS ending point?
– EF. A) South-east B) South-west C) North
A) 12 km B) 13 km C) 15 km D) 14 D) North-east E) None of these
km E) None of these 6. A person starts from point A, walks 10 m in
9. Priya started from point A. after walking for south direction. Now he takes a left turn and walks 8m
some time, she turned to her right and continued before turning left again. Next he walks 16 m and
walked, then after some time turned to her right takes a right turn. Now he walks 4 m and takes a right
again. Now walking for some distance she turned to turn again. He stops after walking 10 m. Find his
her left and after this finally to her right. If now she is distance from point A.
walking in west direction, in which direction did she A) 20 km B) 3√10 km C) 4√10 km
started her journey from point A? D) 4√5 km E) 10 km
A) West B) East C) South D)
North E) Cannot be determined Directions (7-9): Point A is 10 m west of point B. Point B is
6 m south of point C and also 7 m north of point D. Point E
10. Tiya started from her home to office. She started is 4 m west of point D. Point C is 6 m east of point F.
in east direction. After walking for 4 km she turned to
her left and walked 8 km, now she turned left and 7. A person starts from point F, walks 2 m in south
walked 2 km. After this she turned to right walked 4 direction and reaches a point T. He takes a right turn
km. Now after turning to her right she walked 13 km and reaches point K, north of point A. Find TK + BD –
and reached office. Find the shortest distance DE.
between her office and home. A) 8 m B) 7 m C) 9 m D) 6 m E) 5 m
A) 3√43 m B) 3√41 km C) 4√41 m D)
5√38 m E) None of these 8. Find distance AE.
A) 7√5 m B) 8 m C) 10 m D) 8√3 mE) 5√8 m
1. A person starts from point T in east direction.
Walks 6 m and turns right. Next walks 4 m and turns 9. A person starts from point D, walks 10 m in
left. Next walks 3m and turns right. Now cycles for 8 north direction and reaches point S. He takes a right

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

turn, walks 2 m and reaches point X. Find distance XE. 7. Ram goes 10 m east, then take a right turn and walk
A) 2√24 m B) 5√13 m C) 2√13 m D) 15m and again take a right turn and walk 20m.
3√29 m E) 2√26 m Calculate the approximate distance of ram from starting
point and in which direction he is now from starting
10. A person starts his journey by walking in West point.
direction. He walks for 7 m and takes a left turn. Next a) 19 and south west b) 18 and south west
after travelling a distance of 10 m, he turned to his c) 19 and south east d) 18 and south east
right and travelled 4 m. Next he walks for 3 m towards e) None of these
North direction and turns 45o in clockwise direction. In
what direction is he travelling now? 8. A person starts walking in north direction and takes turn
A) South-west B) North-east C) North-west of 45 degree anti-clockwise and then a 90 degree shift in
D) South-eastE) East clockwise direction and finally a 135 degree shift anti
clockwise direction. Now in which direction he is facing.
1. Riya starts from her home and walks 30 meter towards a) north b) south c) east d) west e) None
north. From here she took a right turn and walk 20 of these
meters after that she took right turn and walk 30 meter.
At last she took another left and walked 20 meter and
stopped. How much distance is riya from her home and
in which direction. 9. Rohit and shobhit are two friends talking with each
a) 30m east b) 40m west c) 40m east other. The shadow of Rohit falls on the right side of
d) 40m south e) None of these Shobhit. If rohit is facing north then the direction in
2. Village P is north to the village Q. Village S is east to the which Shobhit is facing.
village Q and village R is to the left of village P. Then a) South b) north c) east d) west e) None
village S is in which direction with respect to R. of these
a) South-west b) north east c) south east d) north
west e) None of these 10. A person starts walking in north direction and
after travelling a distance of 20 meter takes a left turn
3. Rohan starts walking in north-east direction and travels and walks 25 meter. From here he took a right turn and
30 meter. Now he moves towards east and walks 20 walk 20 meter and finally took a right turn and walks 35
meter. Now he turns towards south west and moves 30 meter. How far is he from the starting point and in
meter and finally walks towards west for 5 meter and which direction?
stopped. Find the distance of rohan from the starting a) 15√85 m and North east b) 20√87 m and north
point. east
a) 10m b) 15m c) 20m d) 25m e) None of these c) 15√85 m and south east d) 10√17 m and North
east
4. Neha starts running in west direction and after some e) None of these
distance she turns to her left and cover some distance.
After this she took a left turn and then again left turn
and run some distance. After that she took a right turn
and finally a left turn. Now in which direction she is
running.
a) north b) south c) east d) west e) None of these

5. One morning akash starts walking in the direction of

sun. After walking some distance he took a left turn
then a right turn and again a left turn and stopped. In
which direction akash is facing?
a) north b) south c) east d) west e) None of these
6. A person starts walking from his home in east direction
and after walking 20 meter he took a left turn and walk
30 meters. Now he took a right turn and walks 10 meter
to reach the bus stand. Find the distance between home
and stand.
a) 20√2 b) 30√2 c) 40√2 d) 50√2 e) None of these

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PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

6. Statements: Lawyers married only fair girls.

Shobha is fair.
Conclusions: I. Shobha was married to a lawyer.
II. Shobha was not married to a lawyer.

7. Statements: All pens are roads.

All roads are houses.
Conclusions: I. All houses are pens.
II. Some houses are pens.

VENN DIAGRAM (SYLLOGISM) 8. Statements: No women teacher can play.

Some women teachers are athletes.
TYPE 1 Conclusions: I. Male athletes play.
II. Some athletes play.
DIRECTIONS: In each question below are given three
statements followed by two/three conclusions 9. Statements: All pilots are brave men.
numbered I and II, (III). You have to take the three All astronauts are pilots.
given statements to be true even if they seem to be at Conclusions: I. All astronauts are brave men. II. Some
variance from commonly known facts and then decide pilots are astronauts.
which of the given conclusions logically follows from
the three given statements disregarding commonly 10. Statements: Sohan is a good sportsman.
known facts. Then decide which of the answers (a), (b), Sportsmen are healthy.
(c), (d) and (e) is the correct answer and indicate it on Conclusions: I. All healthy persons are sportsmen.
the answer sheet. II. Sohan is healthy.

Given answer (1) if only conclusion I follows; 11. Statements : Some trees are boxes.
(2) if only conclusion II follows; All boxes are bricks.
(3) if either conclusion I or II follow; All bricks are dogs.
(4) if neither I nor II follows; Conclusions : I. Some dogs are trees.
(5) if both the conclusions I and II follows. II. Some bricks are trees.

1. Statements: All cakes are ice-creams. 12. Statements : All goats are flowers.
All ice-creams are toffees. No flower is branch. Some branches are
Conclusions: I. All cakes are toffees. roots.
II. All toffees are ice-creams. Conclusions : I. Some roots are goats.
II. No root is goat.
2. Statements: All tigers are ships.
Some ships are cupboards. 13. Statements : All pots are rings.
Conclusions: I. Some tigers are cupboards. All bangles are rings.
II. Some cupboards are tigers. All rings are paints.
Conclusions : I. Some paints are pots.
3. Statements: Some pearls are gems. II. Some bangles are paints.
Some gems are ornaments.
Conclusions: I. Some gems are pearls. 14. Statements : All fruits are lions.
II. Some ornaments are gems. All lions are foxes.
Some foxes are elephants.
4. Statements: Some sticks are bolts. Conclusions : I. All fruits are foxes.
Kite is a stick. II. Some fruits are elephants.
Conclusions: I. Some bolts are sticks. 15. Statements : Some cars are wheels.
II. Some kites are bolts. All wheels are branches.
Some branches are tins.
5. Statements: Some teachers are adults. Conclusions : I. Some cars are branches.
Some adults are poets. II. Some tins are branches.
Conclusions: I. Some teachers are poets.
II. Some poets are teachers. 16. Statements : No stick is a door.
All doors are pens.

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PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

Some pens are houses. 3) Only II follows

Conclusions : I. No stick is a house. 4) Only III follows
II. Some pens are doors. 5) None of these

17. Statements : All men are parrots. 3. Statements: All bottles are glasses. All
Some parrots are crows. drums are bottles. Some cups are bottles.
All crows are hens. Conclusions: I. Some glasses are cups.
Conclusions : I. Some men are hens. II. All drums are glasses.
II. No man is hen. III. Some bottles are drums.
1) None follows
18. Statements : Some papers are dogs. 2) Only I & II follows
Some dogs are windows. 3) Only II & III follows
All windows are trees. 4) Only I & III follows
Conclusions : I. Some windows are papers. 5) All follow
II. Some papers are trees.
4. Statements: Some keys are locks .
19. Statements : Some saints are balls. All locks are boards.
All balls are bats. Some boards are cards.
Some tigers are balls. All cards are papers.
Conclusions : I. Some bats are tigers. Conclusions: I. Some boards are papers
II. Some saints are bats. II. Some boards are keys.
III. Some papers are cards
20. Statements : Some hills are rivers. IV. Some boards are locks.
Some rivers are deserts. 1) None follows 2) Only I & II follows 3) Only II & III
All deserts are roads. follows 4) Only I, II & III follows 5) All follow
Conclusions : I. Some hills are deserts.
II. Some deserts are rivers. 5. Statements: Some walls are doors. Some doors
are grills. No grill is a window. Some windows are
TYPE 2 roofs.
Conclusions: I. No roof is a grill.
DIRECTIONS: In each of the questions below are given II. No window is a door.
three statements followed by two/three conclusions III. Some windows are walls. IV. Some roofs
numbered I and II, (III). You have to take the three are walls.
given statements to be true even if they seem to be at 1) None follows
variance from commonly known facts and then decide 2) Only I & II follows
which of the given conclusions logically follows from 3) Either I or IV follows
the three given statements disregarding commonly 4) Either II or III follows
known facts. 5) All follow

1. Statements: Some teachers are professors. 6. Statements: All pencils are birds.
Some professors are readers. All readers are All birds are skies.
reactors. All skies are hills.
Conclusions: I. Some readers are teachers. Conclusions: I. All pencils are hills.
II. Some reactors are teachers. II. All hills are birds.
III. All reactors are readers. III. All skies are pencils. IV. All birds are
1) None follows 2) Only I follows 3) Only II hills.
follows 4) Only III follows 5) All follow 1) Only I & II follows
2) Only I and III follow
2. Statements: Some papayas are guavas. 3) Only III and IV follow
Some guavas are carrots. 4) All follow
Some carrots are mangoes. 5) None of these
Conclusions: I. Some mangoes are papayas.
II. Some carrots are papayas. 7. Statements: All needles are threads.
III. No papaya is a mango. All threads are boxes.
1) Only either I o r II follows All trees are boxes.
2) Only either I or III follows

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PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

Conclusions: I. No needle is a tree. 1) None follows

II. Some trees are threads. 2) Only I and II follow
III. Some boxes are needles. IV. Some 3) Only II and III follow
trees are needles. 4) Only II, III and IV follow
1) None follows 5) All follow
2) Only either I or IV follows
3) Only either I or IV and II follow 12. Statements: No house is school. All colleges are
4) Only either I or IV and III follow schools. All schools are teachers.
5) Only III follows Conclusions: I. No house is a teacher.
II. All colleges are teachers.
8. Statements: All jungles are buses. III. Some teachers are not houses.
All books are buses. IV. No college is house.
All fruits are books. 1) None follows
Conclusions: I. Some fruits are jungles. 2) Only either I or IV follows
II. Some buses are books. 3) Only II, III and IV follow
III. Some buses are jungles. IV. All 4) All follow
fruits are buses. 5) Only either I or IV, and III follow

1) Only I, II and III follow 13. Statements: No tree is fruit. All fruits
2) Only I, II and IV follows are stones. All stones are rains.
3) Only II, III and IV follow Conclusions: I. No stone is tree. II.
4) All follow No rain is tree.
5) None of these III. Some rains are fruits. IV. Some rains are
trees.
9. Statements: Some spoons are bowls. 1) Only either II or III, and I follow
All bowls are knives. 2) None follows
All knives are forks. 3) Only either II or IV, and III follow
Conclusions: I. All spoons are forks. 4) All follow
II. All bowls are forks. 5) None of these
III. Some knives are forks. IV. Some
forks are spoons. 14. Statements: No table is fruit. No fruit
1) Only II and III follow is window. All windows are chairs.
2) Only II and IV follow Conclusions: I. No window is table. II.
3) III and IV follow No chair is fruit.
4) All follow III. No chair is table. IV. All chairs are
5) None of these windows.
1) None follows
10. Statements: All doors are buses. 2) Only I and II follow
All buses are leaves. 3) Only II and III follow
No leaf is a flower. 4) All follow
Conclusions: I. No flower is a door. 5) None of these
II. No flower is a bus.
III. Some leaves are doors. IV. Some leaves 15. Statements: No paper is pen.
are buses. 16. No pen is pencil. All erasers are papers.
1) None follows Conclusions: I. Some papers are erasers.
2) Only I and II follow II. No pencil is eraser.
3) Only II and III follow III. No pen is eraser.
4) Only II, III and IV follow IV. All papers are erasers.
5) All follow 1) Only I and II follow
2) Only II and III follow
11. Statements: All doors are buses. All buses 3) Only I, II and III follow
are leaves. No leaf is a flower. 4) Only III and IV follow
Conclusions: I. No flower is a door. 5) None of these
II. No flower is a bus.
III. Some leaves are doors. IV. Some leaves TYPE 3: (Possibility)
are buses.

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PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

Given answer (1) if neither I nor II follows; Conclusions: I. Male politicians can vote.
(2)if both the conclusions I and II follows. II. Some politicians can vote.
(3) if either conclusion I or II follow.
(4) if only conclusion I follows. 10. Statements: All girls are modern.
(5) if only conclusion II follows. No modern men are superstitious.
Conclusions: I. No girl can be superstitious.
1.Statements: All books are pens. II. No young man is superstitious.
All pens are boxes.
Conclusions: I. It is a possibility that all books are DIRECTIONS (Q.11-12)
boxes. II. It is a possibility that all pens are
books. Statements: Some poor are rich.
All rich are doctors.
2. Statements: All readers are teachers. Some intelligent are doctors.
All writers are teachers. 11. Conclusions:
Conclusions: I. It is a possibility that some teachers I. At least some intelligent are poor is a possibility.
are writers. II. All intelligent being rich is a possibility.
II. It is a possibility that some writers are
teachers. 12. Conclusions:
I. All intelligent being doctors is a possibility.
3. Statements: All dogs are rats. II. II. Some poor are doctors.
Some rats are lizards.
Conclusions: 13. Statements: All girls are modern.
I. It is a possibility that some dogs are lizards. No modern men are superstitious.
II. It is a possibility that all lizards are dogs. Conclusions: I. No girl can be superstitious.
III. No young man is superstitious.
4. Statements: Some parrots can be crows.
No crow is green.
Conclusions: I. No parrot is green. PRACTICE EXERCISE
II. No crow can be white.
Directions (1-10): In each of the questions below,
5. Statements: All goats are wolves. statements are given followed by two conclusions
Some wolves are tigers poets. numbered I and II. Read all the conclusions and then
Conclusions: I. Some goats may not be tigers. decide which of the given conclusions follow from the
II. All tigers can be wolves. given statements.

6. Statements: All cars are tables. Some 1. Statements: Some A are B. Some B are C. All C
children can be tables. are D. No D is E.
Conclusions:
Conclusions:
I. Some A are C is a possibility.
I. It is a possibility that some cars are children.
II. All E are B is a possibility.
II. II. All children can be tables.
A) only I follows
B) only II follows
7. Statements: All books may be pencils. Some C) either I or II follows
pencils may be pens. D) neither I nor II follow
Conclusions: E) both I and II follow
I. It is a possibility that some books are not pencils.
II. It is a possibility that some pencils may not be
teachers. 2. Statements: Some A and B. All B are C. No C is D.
All D are E.
8. Statements: All trays are skies. Conclusions:
Some skies are rainbows. I. Some C are E is a possibility.
Conclusions: I. Some skies are not trays is a II. Some B are D is a possibility.
possibility. A) only I follows
B) only II follows
II. All rainbows are skies is a possibility.
C) either I or II follows
D) neither I nor II follow
9. Statements: No women can vote.
E) both I and II follow
Some women are politicians.

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

3. Statements: Some A are B. All B are C. No C is E. II. Some C are not D.

All E are D. A) only I follows
Conclusions: B) only II follows
I. All D are C is a possibility. C) either I or II follows
II. Some B are D is a possibility. D) neither I nor II follow
A) only I follows E) both I and II follow
B) only II follows
C) either I or II follows 9. Statements: Some A are B. No B is C. All C are D.
D) neither I nor II follow Some E are D.
E) both I and II follow Conclusions:
I. All D are A is a possibility.
4. Statements: Some A are B. All B are C. No B is E. II. All E are B is a possibility.
All D are E. A) only I follows
Conclusions: B) only II follows
I. All C are D is a possibility. C) either I or II follows
II. Some A are not D. D) neither I nor II follow
A) only I follows E) both I and II follow
B) only II follows
C) either I or II follows 10. Statements: All A are B. No C is A. Some D are C.
D) neither I nor II follow Some C are E.
E) both I and II follow Conclusions:
I. Some B are not D.
5. Statements: All A are B. Some B are C. No B is D. II. Some E are not A.
All D are E. A) only I follows
Conclusions: B) only II follows
I. Some D are not C. C) either I or II follows
II. Some E are A is a possibility. D) neither I nor II follow
A) only I follows E) both I and II follow
B) only II follows
C) either I or II follows In each group of questions below are two conclusions
D) neither I nor II follow
E) both I and II follow followed by five set of statements. You have to choose the
correct set of statements that logically satisfies given
6. Statements: All A are B. Some C are A. No C is D.
Some E are D. conclusions. Given statements to be true even if they
Conclusions:
I. All D are A is a possibility. seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.
II. All B are E is a possibility.
A) only I follows
B) only II follows 1. Conclusions:
C) either I or II follows All chairs being bags is a possibility
D) neither I nor II follow
E) both I and II follow Some bags are Jugs
Statements:
7. Statements: All A are B. All C are B. Some D are Statements – 1: Some chairs are bags. Some bags are
C. No E is D
fruits. All fruits are jugs
Conclusions:
I. Some A are not E. Statements – 2: Some chairs are bags.No bag is fruit. All
II. All E are C is a possibility.
A) only I follows fruits are jugs
B) only II follows Statements – 3: No chair is bag. Some bags are fruits. All
C) either I or II follows
D) neither I nor II follow fruits are jugs
E) both I and II follow Statements – 4: No chair is bag. No bag is fruit. All fruits
8. Statements: All A are B. Some C are A. No B is D. are jugs
All D are E.
Statements – 5: Some chairs are bags. No bag is fruit.
Conclusions:
I. All A are E is a possibility. Some fruits are jugs

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A. Only Statements – 2 Pomegranate are Papaya. All Papayas are Mango. All
B. Only Statements – 1 Mangos are Blue
C. Only Statements – 4 Statements – 5: All Bananas are Pomegranate. Some
D. Only Statements – 5 Pomegranate are Papaya. Some Papayas are Mango. No
E. Only Statements – 3 Mango is Blue
2. Conclusions: A. Only Statements – 1
Some homes can be water B. Only Statements – 2
Some monkeys can be homes C. Only Statements – 3
Statements: D. Only Statements – 4
Statements – 1: All Monkeys are roses. No rose is home. E. Only Statements – 5
Some homes are rabbits. No rabbit is water 4. Conclusions:
Statements – 2: All Monkeys are roses. No monkey All lions are fans is a possibility.
is home. Some homes are rabbits. No rabbit is water All lions are tree is a possibility
Statements – 3: All Monkeys are roses. No rose is home. Statements:
No monkey is home. No rabbit is water Statements – 1: No tree is fan. Some pigs are fans. All
Statements – 4: All Monkeys are roses. No rose rings are lions. No lion is fan
is home. Some homes are rabbits. All rabbits are water Statements – 2: All trees are fans. Some pigs are fans. All
Statements – 5: All Monkeys are roses. Some roses are rings are pigs. No lion is pig
homes. Some homes are rabbits. No rabbit is water Statements – 3: Some trees are fans. Some pigs are fans.
A. Only Statements – 5 All rings are lions. No lion is pig
B. Only Statements – 4 Statements – 4: All trees are fans. Some pigs are fans. All
C. Only Statements – 3 rings are pigs. No lion is fan
D. Only Statements – 2 Statements – 5: All trees are fans. Some pigs are fans. All
E. Only Statements – 1 rings are lions. No lion is pig
3. Conclusions: A. Only Statements – 1
No Banana is blue B. Only Statements – 2
No Mango is Pomegranate C. Only Statements – 3
Statements: D. Only Statements – 4
Statements – 1: All Bananas are Pomegranate. All E. Only Statements – 5
Pomegranate are Papaya. All Papayas are Mango. No 5. Conclusions:
Mango is Blue All Dogs being toys is a possibility.
Statements – 2: All Bananas are Pomegranate. Some No Egg is man
Pomegranate are Papaya. Some Papayas are Mango. Statements:
Some Mangos are Blue Statements – 1: Some Mans are Egg. Some dogs are egg.
Statements – 3: All Bananas are Pomegranate. Some All eggs are Toys
Pomegranate are Papaya. No Papaya is Mango. All Statements – 2: All mans are Dogs. No Dog is toy. All
Mangos are Blue eggs are Toys
Statements – 4: All Bananas are Pomegranate. Some Statements – 3: Some Mans are Egg. All dogs are egg. All

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PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

eggs are Toys Statements – 3: All apples are oranges. All oranges are
Statements – 4: All mans are Dogs. No Dog is egg. All mangoes. No apple is a banana.
eggs are Toys Statements – 4: All apples are oranges. Some oranges
Statements – 5: Some Mans are Egg. Some dogs are egg. are mangoes. No apple is a banana.
No egg is Toy. Statements – 5: Some apples are oranges. Some oranges
A. Only Statements – 1 are mangoes. No apple is a banana.
B. Only Statements – 2 A. Only Statements – 1
C. Only Statements – 3 B. Only Statements – 2
D. Only Statements – 4 C. Only Statements – 3
E. Only Statements – 5 D. Only Statements – 4
E. Only Statements – 5
6. Conclusions:
8. Conclusions:
All Lions are Roses
All pearls are homes is a possibility.
Some Parrots are Lions
Some homes are Pearls
Statements:
Statements:
Statements – 1: No Lion is Parrot. All Parrots are Roses.
Statements – 1: Some tvs are pearls.Some tvs are
Some Roses are pig
homes.No pearl is pig.All tables are pigs.
Statements – 2: No Lion is Parrot. All Parrots are Roses.
Statements – 2: No tv is pearl.Alltvs are homes.No pearl
All Roses are pig
is pig.All tables are pigs.
Statements – 3: Some Lions are Parrots. No Parrot is
Statements – 3: Some tvs are pearls.Some tvs are
Rose. No Rose is pig
homes. All pearl is pig.All tables are pigs.
Statements – 4: All Lions are Parrots. No Parrot is Rose.
Statements – 4: Some tvs are pearls.Alltvs are homes.No
No Rose is pig
pearl is pig.All tables are pigs.
Statements – 5: All Lions are Parrots. All Parrots are
Statements – 5: Some tvs are pearls.Sometvs are
Roses. No Rose is pig
homes.No pearl is pig.No table is pig.
A. Only Statements – 1
A. Only Statements – 1 and 4
B. Only Statements – 2
B. Only Statements – 2 and 5
C. Only Statements – 3
C. Only Statements – 4
D. Only Statements – 4
D. Only Statements -3
E. Only Statements – 5
E. None of these

7. Conclusions: 9. Conclusions:

All apples being mangoes is a possibility Some gates being ants is a possibility

All bananas being apples is a possibility All ants being basket is a possibility

Statements: Statements:

Statements – 1: Some apples are oranges. All oranges Statements – 1: No basket is ant.Some guns are

are mangoes. No apple is a banana. ants.Some gates are guns.

Statements – 2: Some apples are oranges. All oranges Statements – 2: All baskets are ants.Some guns are

are mangoes. No mango is a banana. ants.All gates are guns.

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Statements – 3: Some baskets are ants.Some guns are 4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows
ants.Some gates are guns. 5) If both conclusions I and II follow
Statements – 4: All baskets are ants.Some guns are 2. Statements: Some bags are locks. All locks are
ants.Some gates are guns. kites. Some doors are kites.
Statements – 5: No basket is ant. All guns are ants.Some Conclusions: – 1) All doors being kites is a possibility 2)
gates are guns. Some bags are kites.
A. Only Statements – 1 & 2 1) If only conclusion I follows.
B. Only Statements – 3 2) If only conclusion II follows.
C. Only Statements – 3 & 4 3) If either conclusion I or II follows.
D. Only Statements – 5 4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
E. None of these 5) If both conclusions I and II follow
3. Statements: All books are diary. No diary is a pen.
10. Conclusions: All pens are pencils.
Some lemons are balls. Conclusions: – 1) No book is a pen 2) All books being
Some lemons are huts. pencils is a possibility
Statements: 1) If only conclusion I follows.
Statements – 1: Some balls are huts. All huts are tables. 2) If only conclusion II follows.
All tables are lemons. Some lemons are mangoes. 3) If either conclusion I or II follows.
Statements – 2: All balls are huts. No hut is table. All 4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
tables are lemons. Some lemons are mangoes. 5) If both conclusions I and II follow
Statements – 3: All balls are huts. All huts are tables. No 4. Statements: All books are diary. No diary is a pen.
table is a lemon. Some lemons are mangoes. All pens are pencils.
Statements – 4: Some balls are huts. No hut is table. All Conclusions: – 1) No pencil is a book 2) all diary being
tables are lemons. Some lemons are mangoes. pencils is a possibility
Statements – 5: Some balls are huts. All huts are tables. 1) If only conclusion I follows.
No table is a lemon. Some lemons are mangoes. 2) If only conclusion II follows.
A. Only Statements – 1 3) If either conclusion I or II follows.
B. Only Statements – 2 & 3 4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
C. Only Statements – 3 5) If both conclusions I and II follow
D. Only Statements – 4 & 5 5. Statements: All lyrics are poems. All poems are
E. None of these rhymes. No rhyme is a paragraph
Conclusions: – 1) No lyric is a paragraph 2) No poem is a
1. Statements: Some bags are locks. All locks are
paragraph
kites. Some doors are kites.
1) If only conclusion I follows.
Conclusions: – 1) At least some bags are doors 2) All
2) If only conclusion II follows.
doors being locks is a possibility
3) If either conclusion I or II follows.
1) If only conclusion I follows.
4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
2) If only conclusion II follows.
5) If both conclusions I and II follow
3) If either conclusion I or II follows.

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6. Statements: All lyrics are poems. All poems are Conclusions: – 1) No table is bench 2) No chair is bench
rhymes. No rhyme is a paragraph 1) If only conclusion I follows.
Conclusions: – 1) All rhymes are poems 2) All lyrics are 2) If only conclusion II follows.
rhymes 3) If either conclusion I or II follows.
1) If only conclusion I follows. 4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
2) If only conclusion II follows. 5) If both conclusions I and II follow
3) If either conclusion I or II follows.
Direction (5-6): In which option, 4th statement does not
4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. follow from the 1st three statements?
5) If both conclusions I and II follow
5. A) All book are note. Some note is text. All text is
7. Statements: Some demands are private. No paper. All book being paper is a possibility.
B) Some paper are text. All text is note. No note is
demand is extensive. All private are central
book. Some paper are not book.
Conclusions: – 1) Some demands are central 2) Some C) Some text are note. Some note is paper. All paper
are book. Some book are text.
extensive are private D) All note are paper. All paper is text. No text is book.
1) If only conclusion I follows. Some book are not paper.
E) None of these
2) If only conclusion II follows.
6. A)All red are white . Some white are black. No
3) If either conclusion I or II follows.
black is blue. All red being blue is a possibility.
4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. B) Some black are white. No white is red. All red is
blue. Some black are not blue.
5) If both conclusions I and II follow
C) Some blue are black. All black is white. All white is
8. Statements: All floors are nails. Some nails are red. Some blue are red.
D) Some white are black. All black are red. No red is
windows. All cards are windows
blue. Some white are not blue.
Conclusions: – 1) Some nails are cards 2) At least some E) None of these
windows are floors
In each group of questions below are three statements
1) If only conclusion I follows.
followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have
2) If only conclusion II follows.
to take the given statements to be true even if they seem
3) If either conclusion I or II follows.
to be at variance from commonly known facts and then
4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
decide which of the given conclusions logically follows
5) If both conclusions I and II follow
from the statements dis-regarding commonly known facts.
9. Statements: All houses are streets. Some streets
Give Answer if
are trees. No tree is a plant
(1) Only conclusion I follows
Conclusions: – 1) No plant is a tree 2) All streets s are
(2) Only conclusion II follows
trees
(3) Either conclusion I or II follows
1) If only conclusion I follows.
(4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
2) If only conclusion II follows.
(5) Both conclusion I and II follow
3) If either conclusion I or II follows.
4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. 1. Statements: All dogs are cats. No cat is Pig. All Pigs are
5) If both conclusions I and II follow Monkeys.
10. Statements: – No table is chair. Some chairs are Conclusions:
bed. All benches are tables.

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PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

I. All dogs being monkeys is a possibility. 9. Statements: All months are weeks. No week is a day. All
II. All monkeys being cat is a possibility. days are years.
2. Statements: Some books are bags. All books are notes. Conclusions:
No note is a paper. I. All months being year is a possibility.
Conclusions: II. No month is a day.
I. All notes are books. 10. Statements: All pillows are covers. Some covers are
II. All papers being book is a possibility. bed. No pillow is sheet.
3. Statements: All doctors are teachers. All teachers are Conclusions:
students. No Student is a lawyer. I. Some pillows are covers.
Conclusions: II. All sheet being cover is a possibility.
I. No teacher is a lawyer.
Directions: In each of the questions below, statements are
II. Some doctors being lawyer is a possibility. given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.
Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the
4. Statements: All books are tables. Some tables are not
given conclusions logically follows from the given
Chairs. Some chairs are benches. statements.
Conclusions:
1. Statements: Some dogs are cats. All cats are
I. All books being chairs is a possibility. horses. Some horses are cows. No lion is cat.
Conclusions:
II. Atleast some benches are tables. I. No lions is horses
5. Statements: All Hills are Mountains. Some hills are rivers. II. Some cows are dogs.
A) only I follows
No river is a lake. B) only II follows
Conclusions: C) either I or II follows
D) neither I nor II follow
I. Atleast some hills being lake is a possibility. E) both I and II follow
II. Some mountains are hills.
2. Statements: Some tigers are dogs. All dogs are
6. Statements: All carrots are beans. Some beans are rats. Some rats are foxes. All foxes are bears.
Conclusions:
brinjals. No brinjal is apple.
I. Some foxes are not tigers
Conclusions: II. All foxes being dogs is a possibility.
A) only I follows
I. Atleast some apples are carrot. B) only II follows
II. Some brinjals being carrot is a possibility. C) either I or II follows
D) neither I nor II follow
7. Statements: Some fruits are apples. Some apples are E) both I and II follow
oranges. All oranges are grapes. Conclusions:
3. Statements: All goats are tigers. Some tigers are
I. All oranges are Fruits. lions. No lion is dog. Some dogs are bears.
Conclusions:
II. Some grapes being Fruit is a possibility.
I. All lions are goats is a possibility.
II. All lions are bears is a possibility.
A) only I follows
8. Statements: All desks are nets. No pole is desk. No net is
B) only II follows
a day. C) either I or II follows
D) neither I nor II follow
Conclusions: E) both I and II follow
I. All days being desks is a possibility.
4. Statements: Some dogs are bats. No bat is
II. Some polls are not nets. rabbit. All frogs are rabbits. Some dogs are lions.
Conclusions:
I. Some dogs are frogs

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

II. No dog is frog D) neither I nor II follow

A) only I follows E) both I and II follow
B) only II follows
C) either I or II follows 10. Statements: All cats are lions. No lion is frog.
D) neither I nor II follow Some frogs are rabbits
E) both I and II follow Conclusions:
I. Some lions are cats
5. Statements: All lions are frogs. No lion is dog. All II. Some rabbits are not lions
rats are dogs A) only I follows
Conclusions: B) only II follows
I. No frog is dog. C) either I or II follows
II. All rats are frogs is a possibility. D) neither I nor II follow
A) only I follows E) both I and II follow
B) only II follows
C) either I or II follows Directions: In each of the questions below, statements are
D) neither I nor II follow given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.
E) both I and II follow Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the
given conclusions logically follows from the given
6. Statements: No rat is dog. All dogs are tiger. No statements.
tiger is cat.
1. Statements: All cones are cylinders. Some cones
Conclusions:
are squares. No square is a rectangle.
I. No cat is dog
Conclusions:
II. All rats being tiger is a possibility.
I. Atleast some cones being rectangle is a possibility.
A) only I follows
II. Some cylinders are cones.
B) only II follows
A) only I follows
C) either I or II follows
B) only II follows
D) neither I nor II follow
C) either I or II follows
E) both I and II follow
D) neither I nor II follow
7. Statements: Some lions are cats. No lion is dog. E) both I and II follow
All cats are frogs.
2. Statements: Some squares are rectangles. All
Conclusions:
squares are spheres. No sphere is a cone.
I. Some cats are dogs
Conclusions:
II. Some cats are not dogs
I. All spheres are squares.
A) only I follows
II. All cones being square is a possibility.
B) only II follows
A) only I follows
C) either I or II follows
B) only II follows
D) neither I nor II follow
C) either I or II follows
E) both I and II follow
D) neither I nor II follow
8. Statements: All cows are frogs. All cows are E) both I and II follow
bears. Some cows are tigers.
3. Statements: All rectangles are squares. All
Conclusions:
squares are triangles. No triangle is a cone.
I. Some frogs are not tigers.
Conclusions:
II. Some bears are not tigers.
I. No square is a cone.
A) only I follows
II. Some rectangles being cone is a possibility.
B) only II follows
A) only I follows
C) either I or II follows
B) only II follows
D) neither I nor II follow
C) either I or II follows
E) both I and II follow
D) neither I nor II follow
9. Statements: All cows are dogs. No dog is bear. E) both I and II follow
No dog is lion.
4. Statements: All cones are rectangles. Some
Conclusions:
rectangles are sphere. No cone is square.
I. Some lions are not cows
Conclusions:
II. Some cows are not bears
I. Some spheres are cones.
A) only I follows
II. All square being rectangle is a possibility.
B) only II follows
A) only I follows
C) either I or II follows
B) only II follows
C) either I or II follows

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

D) neither I nor II follow 10. Statements: All rectangles are squares. Some
E) both I and II follow squares are not triangles. Some triangles are cones.
Conclusions:
5. Statements: All rectangles are cones. Some I. All rectangles being rectangles is a possibility.
cones are squares. No square is triangle. II. Atleast some cones are squares.
Conclusions: A) only I follows
I. Atleast some triangles are rectangle. B) only II follows
II. Some squares being rectangle is a possibility. C) either I or II follows
A) only I follows D) neither I nor II follow
B) only II follows E) both I and II follow
C) either I or II follows
D) neither I nor II follow Directions: In each of the questions below, statements are
E) both I and II follow given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.
Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the
6. Statements: Some cones are rectangles. Some given conclusions logically follows from the given
rectangles are spheres. All spheres are squares. statements.
Conclusions:
I. All spheres are Cones. 1. Statements: No page is pin. All pins are needles.
II. Some squares being Cone is a possibility. Some pins are sharp.
A) only I follows Conclusions:
B) only II follows I. All sharp being needles is a possibility
C) either I or II follows II. Some needles are not pages.
D) neither I nor II follow A) only I follows
E) both I and II follow B) only II follows
C) either I or II follows
7. Statements: All rectangles are spheres. No
D) neither I nor II follow
sphere is triangle. All triangles are cones.
E) both I and II follow
Conclusions:
I. All rectangles being cones is a possibility. 2. Statements: Some time is work. No speed is
II. All cones being sphere is a possibility. time. Some distance is time
A) only I follows Conclusions:
B) only II follows I. Some work is not speed
C) either I or II follows II. All work being distance is a possibility
D) neither I nor II follow A) only I follows
E) both I and II follow B) only II follows
C) either I or II follows
8. Statements: All triangles are squares. No cone is
D) neither I nor II follow
triangle. No square is a cylinder.
E) both I and II follow
Conclusions:
I. All cylinders being triangles is a possibility. 3. Statements: All milk is honey. Some water is
II. Some cones are not squares. sugar. No sugar is syrup
A) only I follows Conclusions:
B) only II follows I. No honey is a sugar
C) either I or II follows II. No milk is a sugar
D) neither I nor II follow A) only I follows
E) both I and II follow B) only II follows
C) either I or II follows
D) neither I nor II follow
9. Statements: All spheres are cones. No cone is a
E) both I and II follow
square. All squares are triangles.
Conclusions: 4. Statements: All elephants are dogs. Some lions
I. All spheres being triangle is a possibility. are dogs. All cats are elephants
II. No sphere is a square. Conclusions:
A) only I follows I. At least some dogs are cats
B) only II follows II. All cats being lions is a possibility
C) either I or II follows A) only I follows
D) neither I nor II follow B) only II follows
E) both I and II follow C) either I or II follows
D) neither I nor II follow
E) both I and II follow

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

5. Statements: No teacher is student. All teachers A) only I follows

are principals. No principal is class B) only II follows
Conclusions: C) either I or II follows
I. No class is teacher D) neither I nor II follow
II. Some principals are not student E) both I and II follow
A) only I follows
B) only II follows
C) either I or II follows Direction (1-5): Each option contains some statements.
D) neither I nor II follow Determine from which statements the given two
E) both I and II follow conclusions follow.

6. Statements: No stem is a plant. All plants are 1. Conclusions:

trees. Some roots are trees I. All red being blue is a possibility
Conclusions: II. Some blue are not yellow
I. All trees being stems is a possibility Statements:
II. Some trees are plants A) Some blue is green. All green is yellow. No yellow is
A) only I follows red
B) only II follows B) No blue is green. Some green is yellow. Some green
C) either I or II follows is red
D) neither I nor II follow C) All red is green. No green is blue. Some green is
E) both I and II follow yellow
D) No yellow is green. Some green is blue. No green is
7. Statements: Some schools are classes. No class is red
the table. All tables are chairs E) None is correct
Conclusions:
I. Some schools are not tables 2. Conclusions:
II. Atleast some chairs are classes I. Some Scan are Pay
A) only I follows II. No buy is Now
B) only II follows Statements:
C) either I or II follows A) All scan are buy. All buy are pay. Some pay is now
D) neither I nor II follow B) All buy is pay. No pay is now. All now is scan
E) both I and II follow C) All scan is buy. Some buy are pay. All pay is now
D) Some scan are buy. All buy is pay. No pay is now
8. Statements: All lions are rats. No monkey is rat. E) None is correct
All dogs are lions
Conclusions:
I. No dog is a monkey 3. Conclusions:
II. All dogs are rats I. Some flower are not court
A) only I follows II. All rose are food
B) only II follows Statements:
C) either I or II follows A) Some flower are food. No food is court. All court is
D) neither I nor II follow rose
E) both I and II follow B) All rose are flower. All flower are food. No food is
court.
9. Statements: Some milk is tea. No tea is coffee. C) All food is flower. All flower is rose. No rose is court.
All milk is water D) No court is rose. All rose is flower. Some flower is
Conclusions: food
I. All water is definitely tea E) None is correct
II. At least some water is coffee
A) only I follows
B) only II follows 4. Conclusions:
C) either I or II follows I. Some bag are back
D) neither I nor II follow II. No pack is travel
E) both I and II follow Statements:
A) No pack is bag. Some bag are travel. All travel is bag
10. Statements: Some milk is tea. No tea is coffee. B) All travel is bag. No bag is pack. All pack is back
All milk is water C) Some bag are pack. All pack is back. No back is
Conclusions: travel
I. Some tea is water D) Some pack are bag. No bag is travel. All travel is
II. All water is tea is a possibility

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

back
E) None is correct A) Some bag are not pack
B) Some pack is journey
5. Conclusions: C) No journey is travel
I. Some dogs are rat is a possibility D) Some back is travel
II. No rat is lion E) Some journey are not pack
Statements:
A) Some dogs are cat. No cat is rat. All lion is cat 10. Statements:
B) Some rat is cat. No cat is dogs. All dogs is lion All dog is cat
C) No lion is cat. All cat is rat. Some cat are dogs All cat is rat
D) Some dogs are lion. Some lion are rat. All rat are No rat is lion
cat. All lion is tiger
E) None is correct
A) Some tiger are not rat
Direction (6-10): In the following question, a set of four B) No rat is dog
statements is followed by five conclusions, one of which C) Some cat are not lion
DEFINITELY DOES NOT FOLLOW (or is not a possibility of D) All rat being tiger is a possibility
occurrence). Choose that conclusion as the answer. E) No lion is dog
6. Statements:
Some red are green Direction (1-4): Each option contains some statements.
All green are blue Determine from which statements the given two
No blue is yellow conclusions follow.
All yellow is black
1. Conclusions:
A) All red is blue I. All tigers are dogs is a possibility
B) Some black are not blue II. Some lions are cats.
C) Some yellow is green Statements:
D) Some black is yellow A) All dogs are lions. Some cats are dogs. No lion is
E) All blue being black is a possibility tiger.
B) Some dogs are lions. Some tigers are lions. No cat is
7. Statements: tiger.
All scan are pay C) Some dogs are lions. All cats are lions. No cat is
No pay is buy tiger.
Some buy is now D) All dogs are lions. All tigers are lions. No cat is tiger.
No now is today E) None of these

A) Some scan are not buy 2. Conclusions:

B) All pay being now is a possibility I. Some scales are pen.
C) All buy being today is a possibility II. Some pencils are not erasers.
D) Some today are not now Statements:
E) Some now are buy A) Some pens are pencils. All pencils are scales. All
scale is eraser.
8. Statements: B) Some pens are pencils. All pencils are scales. No
No flower is rose pen is eraser.
All rose is food C) All pens are pencils. No pencil is scale. Some scales
No food is court are erasers.
Some court are law D) Some pens are pencils. All scales are pencils. Some
scales are erasers.
A) All flower being food is a possibility E) None is correct
B) All food being rose is a possibility
C) No court is rose 3. Conclusions:
D) All law is food I. No blue is white
E) No rose is flower II. All white are green is a possibility.
Statements:
9. Statements: A) Some green are blue. No blue is red. Some white
Some bag is back are red.
All back is pack B) All green are blue. No blue is red. All white are red.
All pack is travel C) All green are blue. Some blue are red. All white are
No travel is journey red.

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

D) Some green are blue. No blue is red. All white are D) neither I nor II follow
red. E) both I and II follow
E) None is correct

4. Conclusions: 8. Statements: Some green are blue. No blue is red.

I. Some blue are red is a possibility. All white are red. Some black are red.
II. Some green are not red. Conclusions:
Statements: I. All blue are black is a possibility.
A) Some green are white. All white are blue. No white II. No blue is white.
is red. A) only I follows
B) All green are white. No white is blue. Some blue are B) only II follows
red. C) either I or II follows
C) Some green are white. Some white are blue. All D) neither I nor II follow
blue are red. E) both I and II follow
D) All green are white. No white is red. All blue
are red. For II. All white is red+ No red is blue => All + No =
E) None is correct No=> No white is blue= No blue is white

5. Conclusions: 9. Statements: No dollar is yen. All yen are rupee.

I. All dollar are rupee is a possibility. Some yen are pound. All pound are euro.
II. Some pound are not dollar. Conclusions:
Statements: I. All euro are yen is a possibility.
A) No dollar is yen. All rupee are yen. Some yen are II. No dollar is pound.
pound. A) only I follows
B) No dollar is yen. Some yen are rupee. Some B) only II follows
rupee are pound. C) either I or II follows
C) No dollar is yen. All yen are rupee. Some yen are D) neither I nor II follow
pound. E) both I and II follow
D) All dollar is yen. No yen is rupee. Some rupee are
10. Statements: All cats are dogs. All monkeys are
pound.
dogs. No frog is monkey. All lions are frogs.
E) None is correct
Conclusions:
6. Conclusions: I. No dog is lion
I. Some dogs are frogs is a possibility. II. All cats are lions is a possibility
II. All cats are frogs is a possibility. A) only I follows
Statements: B) only II follows
A) Some cats are dogs. No monkey is dog. All frogs are C) either I or II follows
monkeys. D) neither I nor II follow
B) All cats are dogs. Some monkeys are cats. No frog is E) both I and II follow
monkey.
Direction (1-3): Each option contains some statements.
C) Some cats are monkeys. No dog is monkey. All frogs
Determine from which statements the given two
are monkeys.
conclusions follow.
D) All cats are dogs. All monkeys are dogs. No frog is
monkey. 1. Conclusions:
E) None is correct I. Some Abraham areVirat.
Directions (7-10): In each of the questions below, II. Some Gayle are not Kohli.
statements are given followed by two conclusions Statements:
numbered I and II. Read all the conclusions and then A) Some kohli is gayle. No gayle is virat. Some virat are
decide which of the given conclusions follow from the Abraham.
given statements. B) No kohli is virat. Some virat is gayle. Some gayle is
Abraham.
7. Statements: Some dogs are lions. All cats are C) Some Abraham aregayle. All gayle is virat. No virat
lions. No cat is tiger. Some tigers are frogs. is kohli.
Conclusions: D) All Abraham is gayle. No gayle is virat. All virat is
I. No lion is tiger. kohli.
II. Some cats are not frogs E) None is correct
A) only I follows
2. Conclusions:
B) only II follows
I. No kite is sky
C) either I or II follows

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

II. Some thread are fly Some pink are green

Statements: All red is yellow.
A) No fly is sky. Some kite is fly. All sky is thread.
B) All kite is sky. No fly is sky. All fly is thread. A) Some pink are red
C) All sky is fly. All kite is thread. No fly is kite. B) Some green are yellow.
D) All kite is fly. Some thread is kite. No fly is sky. C) All red being orange is a possibility
E) None is correct D) All yellow being red is a possibility
E) No orange is red
3. Conclusions:
I. Some bulk are book 8. Statements:
II. No cook is auto Some good are tax
Statements: Some rate is deal
A) Some bulk is auto. Some auto is book. No book is All tax is less.
cook. No less is rate.
B) All cook is book. All auto is bulk. No book is auto.
C) Some bulk is cook. All cook is book. No book is auto. A) Some good are not rate
D) All book is cook. No bulk is cook. All bulk is auto B) No tax is rate
E) None is correct C) Some less are deal
D) Some good are rate
Direction (4-6): In which of the following options E) All deal being less is a possibility
4th statement follows from the 1st three statement?
9. Statements:
4. A) Some hope are fight. No dollar is time. All first No night is day.
are time. All hope are dollar All night is noon
B) All hope are time. No dollar is time. All dollar is first. No evening is summer.
Some hope are not first. Some evening is noon.
C) No first is time. Some first is hope. All hope is dollar.
Some dollar are not time. A) All day being noon is a possibility
D) All first is hope. Some hope is time. All time is B) Some night are evening
dollar. Some first is time. C) All night are summer is a possibility
E) None is correct D) All noon are summer is a possibility
E) Some noon are day
5. A) All company is graduate. No graduate is grow.
No grow is pass. No company is pass. Directions: Which of the following options if included in
B) Some graduate is pass. All pass is grow. All grow is the statement will make the given conclusion true?
company. Some graduate is company
C) Some grow is pass. No graduate is pass. All 10. Some theme is pink. + __________ + No orange
graduate is company. Some grow is not company. is green
D) All pass is grow. All grow is graduate. Some Conclusion: Some theme are not green
graduate is company. Some pass is company (i) Some pink is orange
E) None is correct (ii) No pink is orange
(iii) All pink is orange
6. A) Some real are not sector. All real are sector. A) Only (i)
No estate is frame. Some sector are not estate. B) Only (ii)
B) Some real are estate. Some estate is sector. No C) Only (iii)
frame is sector. Some real is frame. D) Either (ii) or (iii)
C) All real are estate. Some sector are not estate. E) Either (i) or (iii)
Some sector are frame. Some sector are not real.
D) All frame are sector. No sector is estate. All estate is Direction (1-3): Each option contains some statements.
real. Some frame are not real. Determine from which statements the given two
E) None is correct conclusions follow.

Direction (7-9): In the following question, a set of four 1. Conclusions:

statements is followed by five conclusions, one of which All green are red is a possibility. No blue is green.
DEFINITELY DOES NOT FOLLOW (or is not a possibility of Statements:
occurrence). Choose that conclusion as the answer. A) Some red are blue. All blue are yellow. No blue is
white. Some white are green.
7. Statements: B) All red are blue. Some blue are yellow. No green is
Some green are red blue. All white are green.
No yellow is orange. C) All red are blue. All blue are yellow. No red is white.

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

Some white are green. III. No yen is rupee

D) Some red are blue. All blue are yellow. No green is A) Only II and III follow
yellow. Some white are green. B) Only I and II follow
E) None is correct C) Only II follow
D) All follow
2. Conclusions: E) None follow
Some distance is wage is a possibility. Some time is
not wage. 6. Statements: Some lions are dogs. All dogs are
Statements: cats. Some cats are jungles. All jungles are monkey.
A) All distance is time. Some work is distance. All work Conclusions:
is speed. No time is wage. I. Some dogs are monkey
B) Some distance is work. All time is work. No work is II. Some jungles are not lions
speed. Some wage is speed. III. All jungles being dogs is a possibility.
C) All distance is time. Some time is work. All work is A) Only III follow
speed. No work is wage. B) Only I and II follow
D) All time is distance. All distance is work. Some wage C) Only either I or II and III follow
is speed. No wage is work. D) None follows
E) None is correct E) Only I and III follow

3. Conclusions: Direction (7-9): In which of the following options

No arrangement is inequality. Some puzzle are not 4th statement follows from the 1st three statement?
inequality.
Statements: 7. A) Some dog are tiger. No tiger is cat. All cat is
A) Some puzzle is syllogism. All arrangement is lion. Some lions are not tiger
syllogism. No direction is syllogism. All inequality is B) All dog are tiger. No tiger is cat. Some cat is lion.
direction. Some lions are not tiger
B) Some puzzle is syllogism. All arrangement is C) No dog is tiger. No tiger is cat. All cat is lion. Some
syllogism. No direction is syllogism. Some inequality is cat are tiger
direction. D) All dog are tiger. All tiger are cat. No cat is lion.
C) All puzzle is syllogism. Some arrangement is Some lions are not tiger
syllogism. No direction is syllogism. All inequality is E) Does not follow in any option.
direction.
D) Some puzzle is syllogism. Some arrangement is 8. A) All page are eraser. All eraser is pen. Some
syllogism. No direction is arrangement. All inequality is pen are pencil. Some page are pencil
direction. B) All page is eraser. Some eraser are pen. All pen are
E) None is correct pencil. Some page are pencil
C) No page is eraser. All eraser are pen. Some pen are
Directions (4-6): In each of the questions below, pencil. Some page are pencil
statements are given followed by three conclusions D) Some page is eraser. All eraser is pen. No pen is
numbered I, II and III. Read all the conclusions and then pencil. Some page are pencil
decide which of the given conclusions logically follows E) Does not follow in any option.
from the given statements.
9. A) Some quant is english. All english is reasoning.
4. Statements: All red are green. No green is a blue. No computer is english. Some reasoning is computer
All white are blue. All blue are black. B) All quant is english. Some reasoning is English. All
Conclusions: computer is reasoning. Some english is computer
I. Some black are green. C) All quant is english. Some reasoning is quant. No
II. Some white are red is a possibility. computer is english. All quant is computer is a
III. Some green are not black. possibility.
A) Only I and III follow. D) Some quant is english. All reasoning is English. No
B) Only II and III follows computer is reasoning. Some english is not computer
C) Only I follows E) Does not follow in any option.
D) None follows Directions: Which of the following options if included in
E) Either II or III and I follow the statement will make the given conclusion true?
5. Statements: Some rupee are dollar. All dollar are
yen. No yen is a pound. All peso are pound. 10. Statements: Some quant is english. All reasoning
Conclusions: is computer. No computer is banking
I. All rupee are peso is a possibility. Conclusion: Some quant is not banking
II. No peso is dollar. A) Some english is reasoning

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

B) All english is reasoning D) Some horse is monkey. All monkeys are cat. Some
C) No english is reasoning cat is lion. No lion is dog. All dogs are tiger.
D) Some english are not reasoning E) None.
E) None of these
5. Conclusions: Some pencil is eraser. No scale is
Direction (1-3): Each of the following questions consists of pen.
six statements followed by options consisting of three Statements:
statements put together in a specific order. Choose the A) Some books are pencil. No pencil is scale. All
option that indices a combination where the third erasers are scale. Some scales are pen. All pens are
statement can be logically deduced from the first two copy.
statements and that option will be your answer. B) All books are scale. All pens are pencil. Some pencils
are eraser. All erasers are copy. No scale is pencil.
1. I. Some orange is white. C) Some books are pencil. All pencils are copy. No copy
II. Some white is black. is pen. Some pen is eraser. No eraser is scale.
III. All black is orange. D) Some books are pencil. No pencil is eraser. No
IV. Some green are blue. eraser is copy. Some copy are scale. All scales are pen.
V. No blue is white. E) None
VI. All red are green.
A) [IV, VI, V] 6. Conclusions: All white being green is a
B) [I, II, V] possibility. Some grey are not blue.
C) [II, III, I] STATEMENTS:
D) [IV, V, VI] A) Some blue are white. All white us grey. No grey is
E) None is correct green.
B) All blue are white. All white is grey. Some grey is
2. I. Some red is green. green.
II. All blue is black. C) All blue are white. No white is grey. Some grey is
III. Some blue is white. green.
IV. Some red is white. D) Some blue are white. Some white is grey. All grey is
V. Some black is blue. green.
VI. Some white is black. E) None
A) [VI, IV, I]
B) [II, III, VI] 7. Conclusions: Some green are white. Some red
C) [I, II, IV] are white.
D) [I , V, III] Statements:
E) None is correct A) All white are yellow. All yellow are red. Some red
are green.
3. I. No red is green. B) All white are yellow. Some yellow are red. All red
II. Some white is red. are green.
III. All blue is white. C) Some white are yellow. All yellow are red. All red
IV. Some green is blue. are green
V. No white is black. D) All white are yellow. All yellow are red. Some red
VI. No blue is black. are green.
A) [I, II, V] E) None
B) [II, III, V]
C) [I, IV, VI] 8. Conclusions: Some red are not black, Some
D) [III, V, VI] green are white.
E) None is correct Statements:
A) Some white are not black. All white are red. All red
Direction (4-8): Each option contains some statements. are green.
Determine from which statements the given two B) All red are white. Some black are not white. Some
conclusions follow. red are green.
C) All white are black. No black is red. No red are
4. Conclusions: All tiger is dog. No lion is cat. green.
Statements: D) Some white are black. No black is red. Some red are
A) All lion is horse. No horse is cat. Some cat is dog. All green
dogs are tiger. Some tiger is monkey. E) None
B) All horse is monkey. Some monkey is dog. Some
dog is cat. All cats are tiger. No tiger is lion. Direction (9-10): Statements are followed by 4
C) All tiger is cat. All cats are dog. Some lion is monkey. conclusions. Determine which conclusion(s) follow(s) from
All monkeys are horse. No lion is dog. the given statements.

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

9. Statements: All H are G. Some G are D. No D is C. garlands. No necklace is anklet.

Some C are T. B) All rings are necklaces. No necklace is garland.
Conclusions: Some garlands are anklet.
I. No C is G C) Some rings are necklaces. No necklace is garland.
II. Some G are not C. Some garlands are anklet.
III. All D are H is a possibility. D) All rings are necklaces. No necklace is garland. No
IV. All D are T is a possibility. garland is anklet.
A) Only II, III and either I or IV follow. E) None
B) Only III follows
C) All follows. 4. Conclusions: No lemonade is milk. Some coffee
D) Only II, III and IV follow is milk is a possibility.
E) None of these STATEMENTS:
A) All milk is juice. Some juice is lemonade. No coffee
10. Statements: All B are F. Some H are F. All P are is juice.
H. No J is F. B) All milk is juice. No juice is lemonade. Some
Conclusions: lemonade is coffee.
I. All J being H is a possibility C) Some milk is juice. No juice is lemonade. Some
II. Some P are not J lemonade is coffee.
III. Some H are not J. D) All milk is juice. Some juice is lemonade. All
IV. Some P are F lemonade is coffee.
A) Only II, III and IV follow. E) None
B) Only I and III follows
C) All follows. 5. Conclusions: Some cars are not trucks. Some
D) Only I, III and IV follow buses are trucks.
E) None of these STATEMENTS:
A) All cars are scooters. No bus is scooter. Some
Directions (1-5): Each questions below contain 2 busses are trucks.
conclusions followed by statements. Find from which of B) All cars are scooters. No truck is scooter. All trucks
the statements given, both the conclusions given follow. are busses.
C) All cars are scooters. All bus are scooters. All trucks
1. Conclusions: All dollars are yen is a possibility. are busses.
Some rupees are not yen D) Some cars are scooters. No truck is scooter. No bus
STATEMENTS: is car.
A) Some dollars are rupees. No rupee is yuan. All yen E) None
are yuan.
B) All dollars are rupees. No rupee is yen. Some yuan is Directions (6-10): In each of the questions below,
rupee. statements are given followed by two conclusions
C) All dollars are rupees. Some rupee is yuan. All yuan numbered I and II. Read all the conclusions and then
are yen. decide which of the given conclusions logically follows
D) All dollars are rupees. Some rupee is yuan. No yuan from the given statements.
are yen.
E) None 6. Statements: Some apples are mangoes. All
mangoes are grapes. Some grapes are lichi. No mango
2. Conclusions: Some pencils are stencils. No pen is is orange.
eraser. Conclusions:
STATEMENTS: I. Some apples being oranges is a possibility
A) No pen is pencil. All pencils are erasers. Some II. All oranges being grapes is a possibility
erasers are stencils. A) only I follows
B) No pen is pencil. All erasers are pencils. Some B) only II follows
erasers are stencils. C) either I or II follows
C) All pens are pencils. Some pencils are erasers. No D) neither I nor II follow
eraser is stencil. E) both I and II follow
D) Some pens are pencils. All pencils are erasers. No
eraser is stencil. 7. Statements: All dollars are rupees. Some rupees
E) None are pounds. All pounds are franc. No rupee is euro.
Conclusions:
3. Conclusions: All garlands are rings is a possibility. I. No euro is dollar.
Some necklaces are anklets is a possibility. II. No pound is euro
STATEMENTS: A) only I follows
A) Some rings are necklaces. Some necklaces are B) only II follows

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

C) either I or II follows
D) neither I nor II follow
E) both I and II follow

8. Statements: Some insurance is loan. All loan is

mortgage. No insurance is credit. Some credit is debit.
Conclusions: CODING DECODING
I. Some mortgage is not credit.
II. All loan is debit is a possibility.
A) only I follows TYPE 1: LETTER CODING
B) only II follows
C) either I or II follows Few important types of the letter coding with examples are
D) neither I nor II follow as follows:
E) both I and II follow
A) First to First forward mapping
9. Statements: All IBPS is SBI. No SBI is RBI. Some Q. If ENTER is coded as FOUFS, and then the code for
RBI is IPPB. All IPPB is LIC CARROT will be:
Conclusions: a. DBSTPTU b. DBSSPU
I. No IBPS is IPPB. c. DBSTPS D. None of these
II. All LIC being SBI is a possibility
A) only I follows B) First to First Backward Mapping
B) only II follows Q. If SECOND is coded as RDBNMC, and then the code for
C) either I or II follows GONDIA will be:
D) neither I nor II follow 1. HNMCHB 2. FNMCHB
E) both I and II follow 3. FNMCHZ 4. None of these
10. Statements: Some reasoning is quant. Some
C) First to Last Forward Mapping
english is quant. All english is GK. No quant is
Q. If MOUNTAIN is coded as OJBUOVPN, and then the
computer.
code for HITLER will be:
Conclusions:
1. SFMUJI 2. HFMUJI
I. Some computer is not GK
3. MFMUJR 4. None of these
II. Some reasoning is not computer.
A) only I follows
D) First to Last Backward Mapping
B) only II follows
Q. If PONDS is coded as RCMNO, then the word RAYS will
C) either I or II follows
be coded as:
D) neither I nor II follow
1. RXOB 2. SXZQ
E) both I and II follow
3. RXBQ 4. None of these

E) Group Forward-Backward Mapping

Q. In a certain code, THROUGH is written as VFTMWEJ.
How is BUTTON written in that code language?
1. DSVRQL 2. DSVVQL
3. ZSVRQL 4. None of these

F) Coding in the Word Itself

Q. In a certain code, POLYTECHNIC is written as
TYLOPECINHC. How is KHILADI written in that code
language?
1. IHKALID 2. IHKLIDA
3. KHLIICA 4. None of these

Q. In a certain code, BREAKTHROUGH is written as

EAOUHRBRGHKT. How is DISTRIBUTION written in that
code language?
1. TISTBUONDIRI 2. STTIBUONRIDI
3. STTIBUDIONRI 4. None of these

G) More than two for one letter coding

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PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

Q. In a certain code, BOMB is written as ACNPLNAC. How

is KING written in that code language? 7. If TREAT is coded as WDHUW, then the code for
1. JLJKMOFH 2. JLHJMOFG BOARD will be?
3. JLHJMOFH 4. None of these 1. EBXID 2. EBDIX
3. GUDRE 4. GDRUE
H) Reverse Letter coding 8. If BE QUICK is coded as ZC OSGAI, then the code of
Q. In a certain code, ALONE is written as ZOLMV. How is the last letter of the third word in the sentence I LOVE MY
CODE written in that code language? COUNTRY is?
1. XLWV 2. XLWF 1. A 2. T 3. U 4. W
3. YLWV 4. None of these
NOTE: There can be different types of coding-decoding 9. If DELHI can be coded as CCIDD, how would you
which are formed by mixing the above types. code BOMBAY?
1. AJMTVT 2. AMJXVS
I) Direct Letter coding 3. MJXVSU 4. WXYZAX
In direct coding, the code letters occurs in the same
sequence as the corresponding letters occur in the words. 10. If GOLD is coded as HOME, COME is coded as DONE
and CORD is coded as DOSE, how would you code SONS?
Q. In a certain code, EARTH is written as QPMSZ. How is 1. TPOT 2. TOOT 3. TOOS 4. TONT
HERAT written in that code language?
1. SQPZM 2. ZQMPS 11. In a certain code, POETRÝ is written as QONDSQX
3. SPQZM 4. none of these and OVER is written as PNUDQ. How is MORE written in
that code language?
Q. If in a certain code, O is written as E, A as C, M as I, S as 1. LNNQD 2. NNNQD 3. NLNQD 4. NLPQD
O, N as P, E as M, I as A, P as N and C as S. How will 5. None of these
COMPANIES be written in that code language?
1. SMINCPAMO 2. SEIACPAMO 12. If TRUTH is coded as SUQSTVSUGI, then the code
3. SEINCPAMO 4. None of these for FALSE will be?
1. EGZBKMRDE 2. EGZKMRTDF
PRACTICE QUESTIONS: 3. EGZBKMRTDF 4. FGZBKNRTDF

1. If FOUNDER is coded as HRYSJLZ, then the code for 13. In a certain code language, BORN is written as
PATTERN will be? APQON and LACK is written as KBBLK. How will the word
1. RDXYKYV 2. RDXXJXU GRID be written in that code language?
3. RDWXLXT 4. None of these 1. FSHCD 2. HSJED 3. FOHCD
4. FSHED 5. None of these
2. If TEACHER is coded as ZKGINKX, then the code for
CLASS will be? 14. If MADRAS can be written as ARSARS, how can
1. HQGYY 2. IRGYY 3. IRHYY 4. IRYGY ARKONAM be written in that code?
1. ROAAKNM 2. ROAKANM 3. ROAKNNM
3. In a certain code, SPRING is written as UNUFRC. 4. ROAKNAM 5. ROKANAM
How will the word MOBILE be written in that code
language? 15. In a certain code, TELEPHONE is written as
1. KQEFPA 2. OMDGNC ENOHPELET. How is ALIGATOR written in that code?
3. OMDGPA 4. None of these 1. RBTAGILA 2. ROTAGAIL
3. ROTAGILE 4. ROTEGILA
4. In a certain code, KOZIKODE is written as
PLARPLWV. How will the word MUMBAI be written in 16. In a certain code, INACTIVE is written as VITCANIE.
that code language? How is COMPUTER written in the same code?
1. RRLHZS 2. NFRYRR 1. PMOCRETU 2. ETUPMOCR
3. NFNYZR 4. RNNYZF 3. UTEPMOCR 4. MOCPETUR

5. If TOPAK is coded as LBQPU, then the code for 17. In a certain code, CAT-is written as SATC and DEAR
BASIC will be? is written as SEARD. How would SING be written in that
1. DJRZC 2. IQXWJ 3. DJTBC 4. JATSF code?
1. BGINS 2. SGNIS 3. SINGS 4. GNISS
6. If GARDEN is coded as BVMYZI, then the code for
JUNGLE will be? 18. If SYSTEM is coded as SYSMET and NEARER as
1. EPIBGZ 2. FPIBFA AENRER, then FRACTION will be coded as?
3. FPJCFA 4. EQICGZ 1. CARFNOIT 2. NOITFRA 3. FRACNOIT 4. CARFTION

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PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

3. If in a certain code, the word DEAL is coded as 4-5-

19. In a certain code, KAVERI is written as VAKIRE. How 1-12. Following the same rule of coding, what should be
is MYSORE written in that code? the code for the word lady?
1. EROSYM 2. SYMROE 3. SYMEOR a. 12-4-1-25 b. 12-1-4-25
4. SMYERP 5. None of these c. 10-1-4-23 d. 12-1-4-22
20. In a certain code, CONVENTIONAL is written as 4. If A=2, M=26, Z=52, then BET =?
NOGNEVOITLAN. How is ENTHRONEMENT written in that a. 44 b. 54 c. 64 d. 72
code?
1. TNEROHEMNTNE 2. TNEROHEMNNTE 5. If A=26, SUN = 27, then CAT =?
3. TNEORHMENTNE 4. NTEROHEMNNTE a. 24 b. 27 c. 57 d. 58

21. If in a certain language, POPULAR is coded as 6. If in a certain code, BAT=23, CAT=24, the how will
QPQVMBS, which word would be coded as GBNPVT? you code BALL?
1. FARMER 2. FAMOUS a. 27 b. 28 c. 32 d. 120
3. FRAMES 4. FARMES 5. FAMOTH
7. If GO=32, SHE=49, then SOME will be equal to?
22. If in a certain language, UTENSIL is coded as a. 56 b. 58 c. 62 d. 64
WVGPUKN, which word would be coded as DMSFXG?
1. BKQEVE 2. BKQDWE 3. BKQDWF 8. If AT=20, BAT=40, then CAT will be equal to?
4. BKQDVE 5. BKQDVF a. 30 b. 50 c. 60 d. 70

23. In a code language, SOLID is written as 9. If DEER=12215 and HIGH=5645, how will you code
WPSLPIMFHA. What does the code-word ATEXXQIBVO HEEL?
refer to? a. 2328 b. 3449 c. 4337 d. 5229
1. WATER 2. WAGER 3. EAGER 4. WAFER
10. If E=5 and HOTEL=12, how will you code LAMB?
24. If in a certain code, SWITCH is written as TVJSDG, a. 7 b. 10 c. 26
which word would be written as CQFZE? d. 28
1. BARED 2. BRAED 3. BREAD
4. BRADE 5. BRDAE 11. If ZEBRA can be written as 2652181, how can
COBRA be written?
25. If in a certain language, REMOTE is coded as a. 302181 b. 3152181 c.
ROTEME, which word would be coded as PNIICC? 31822151 d. 1182153
1. NPIICC 2. PICCIN 3. PINCIC
4. PICNIC 5. PICINC 12. If WORK is coded as 4-12-9-16, how will you code
WOMAN?
a. 4-12-14-26-13 b. 4-26-14-13-12 c. 23-12-26-14-
TYPE 2: LETTER-NUMBER CODING 13 d. 23-15-13-1-14 e. None of These

This type contains the codes in the form of letters as well 13. If ACNE can be coded as 3, 7, 29, 11 then BOIL will
as the numbers. be coded as?
Important things to be remembered: a. 5, 29, 19, 27 b. 5, 29, 19, 25 c. 5, 31, 21, 25
Numbers of all the English alphabets in original as d. 5, 31, 19, 25
well as in the reverse order
Numbers for the English Vowels i.e. A -1, E- 2, I – 3, 14. If O=16, FOR=42, then what is FRONT equal to?
O – 4, U – 5 a. 61 b. 65 c. 73 d. 78

1. If REQUEST is written as S2R52TU, then how will 15. If REASON is coded as 5 and BELIEVED as 7, then
ACID be written? what is the code for GOVERNMENT?
a. 1394 b. IC94 c. BDJE a. 6 b. 8 c. 9 d. 10
d. B3J4 e. NONE OF THESE
16. If DRIVER=12, PEDESTRIAN=20, ACCIDENT=16,
2. If each of the letters in the English alphabets is THEN CAR=?
assigned odd numerical value beginning A=1, B=3 and so a. 3 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10
on, what will be the total value of the letters of the word
INDIAN? 17. If MOBILITY is coded as 46293927, then
a. 86 b. 88 c. 89 d. 96 e. NONE OF THESE EXAMINATION is coded as?
a. 45038401854 b. 56149512965 c. 57159413955
d. 67250623076

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PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

DIGIT 3 8 0 7 4 6 9 2 5 1
18. If B is coded as 8, F is coded as 6, Q is coded as 4, D CODE H $ R A M % L K E &
is coded as 7, T is coded as 2, M is coded as 3 and K is
coded as 5, then what is the coded form of QKTBFM? Exceptions I: if a number begins and ends with a non-zero
a. 425783 b. 452683 c. odd digit, then the first and the last digits are to be coded
452783 d. 472683 e. None of these as Y and # respectively.
19. If BREAKER is coded as 36, KIPPER as 198,find the Exceptions II: if a number begins and ends with an even
code for JUMP in that code language? digit (including zero), then the first and the last digits are
a. 160 b. 204 c. 78 d. 92 to be coded as β and X respectively.
e. None of these
6. What will be the code for 764981?
20. If BREAKER is coded as 20, KIPPER as 29, find the a. A%ML$& b. Y%ML$& c. Y%ML$#
code for JUMP in that code language? d. A%ML$# e. None of these
a. 35 b. 38 c. 42
d. 71 e. None of these 7. What does MHLEK% represent?
a. 439526 b. 439520 c. 436529
TYPE 3: CONDITIONAL CODING d. 489526 e. None of these

DIRECTIONS (Q. 1-5) 8. What will be the code for 278140?

In each of the following questions below, a group of a. ΒA$&MR b. ΒA$&MX c. KA$&MR
numerals is given followed by four groups of d. YA$&M# e. None of these
symbol/letter combinations labeled (a), (b), (c) and (d).
Numerals are to be coded as per the codes and 9. What will be the code for 173548?
conditions given below. You have to find out which of the a. &AHEK$ b. &AREM$ c. &AHEM$
combinations (a), (b), (c) and (d) is correct and indicate d. &AHEM$ e. None of these
your answer accordingly. If none of the four combinations
represents the correct code, mark (e) as your answer. 10. What does R%LAK& represent?
a. 069725 b. 6097210 c. 069751
Numerals 3 5 7 4 2 6 8 1 0 9 d. 064721 e. None of these
Letter/Sym * B E A @ F K % R M
bol code
DIRECTIONS (Q. 11-14): Study the following information
Following conditions apply: carefully to answer these questions.
a. If the first digit as well as the last digit is odd, both
are to be coded as ‘X’. DIGIT 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
b. If the first digit as well as the last digit is even, both A B C D E F G H I J
are to be coded as ‘$’. LETTE
c. If last digit is 0, it is to be coded as ‘#’. R
1. 546839
a. XAFK*M b. BAFK*M c. XAFK*X CONDITIONS:
d. BAFK*X e. NONE OF THESE I. If a number begins with a non-zero even digit, that
2. 713540 digit should be coded as N.
a. E%*BA# b. X%*BA# c. EFBR#K II. If a number begins with a non-zero odd digit, that
d. EFBRK@ e. None of these digit should be coded as P.
3. 765082 III. If a number begins and also ends with a non-zero
a. XFBRK@ b. EFB#K@ c. EFBR#K even digit, those two digits at the extreme ends should
d. EFBRK@ e. None of these be coded as Q.
4. 487692 IV. If a number begins and also ends with a non-zero
a. AKEFM@ b. $KEFM@ c. AKEFM$ odd digit, those two digits at the extreme ends should be
d. $KEFMS$ e. None of these coded as W.
5. 364819
a. XFAK@M b. *FAK%X c. *FAK%M 11. 2732869
d. *EAK%X e. None of these a. QHDCIGP b. NHDCIGP c.NHDCIGJ
d. CHDCIGN e. None of these

DIRECTIONS (Q. 6-10): Study the following information 12. 9096572

carefully to answer these questions. a. NAJGFHN b. IAJGFHC c.QAJGFHP
d. PAJGFHC e. None of these

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PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

2. Sentence having “means”- For an answer, “Go

13. 4658630 Backward”
a. PGFIGDA b. EGFIGDA c.NGFIGDA
d. NGFIGDN e. None of these 1. If ‘diamond’ is called ‘gold’, ‘gold’ is called ‘silver’,
14. 7284691 ‘silver’ is called ‘ruby’ and ‘ruby’ is called ‘emerald’, what
a. WCIEGJW b. PCIEGJW c.PCIEGJP is the cheapest jewel?
d. PCIEGJB e. None of these a. Diamond b. silver c. ruby
DIRECTIONS (Q. 15-20): Study the following information d. emerald e. gold
carefully to answer these questions.
2. If ‘white’ is called ‘blue’, ‘blue’ is called ‘red’, ‘red’
DIGIT 7 3 5 0 2 1 6 4 9 8 is called ‘yellow’ and ‘yellow’ is called ‘green’, ‘green’ is
N H L T F D R Q G P called ‘black’, ‘b8ack’ is called ‘violet’, ‘violet’ is called
LETTE ‘orange’, what would be the color of the human blood?
R a. Red b. Green c. Yellow
d. Violet e. Orange
Following conditions are to be observed:
1. If the first digit is even and the last digit is odd, they 3. If ‘table’ is called ‘fan’, ‘fan’ is called ‘chair’, ‘chair’
are to be coded as $ and @ respectively. is called ‘roof’, on which of the following will a person sit?
2. If the first digit is odd and the last digit is even, they a. Fan b. Chair c. Roof
are to be coded as # and & respectively. d. Table e. Pen
3. If 0 is preceded as well as followed by an odd digit,
then 0 is to be coded as >. 4. If ‘black' means 'pink, 'pink' means ‘blue’, ‘blue’,
4. If 0 is preceded as well as followed by an odd digit, means ‘ white’ , ‘white’ means ‘yellow’ , ‘yellow’ means
then 0 is to be coded as <. 'red' and ‘red’ means ‘brown', then what is the color of
5. 0 is not considered as either as even or odd. sky?
a. Brown b. Red c. Blue
15. What will be the code for 36250098? d. Pink e. None of these
a. $RFLTTG& b. #RFLTTG@ c. #RFLTTG& d.
$RFLTTG@ e. None of these 5. If ‘rain' is 'water', 'water' is 'road', 'road’ is ‘cloud’,
‘cloud’ is ‘sky’, ‘sky’ is ‘sea’ and ‘sea’ is ‘path', where do
16. What will be the code for 1375940? airplanes fly ?
a. DHNLQGT b. #HNLQG& c. DHNLQG# d. a. Road b. Sea c. Cloud
&HNLQG# e. None of these d. Water e. None of these

17. What will be the code for 7620486? 6. If ‘water’ is called ‘food’, ‘food’ is called ‘tree’,
a. #RF<QO& b. &RF<QP# c. #RFTQP& d. ‘tree’ is called ‘sky’, ‘sky’ is called ‘wall’ on which of the
&RF>QP# e. None of these following grows a fruit ?
a. Water b. Food c. Sky
18. $QRL>HQ could be the code for which of the following d. Tree e. None of these
numbers?
a. 8465032 b. 8456037 c. 8465032 d. 7. If 'dust' is called 'air', 'air' is called 'fire', ‘fire' is
6475031 e. None of these called ‘water’, ‘water’, is called ‘color’, ‘color’ is called
'rain' and ‘rain’ is called ‘dust’, then where do fish live?
19. QLP<RNT is the code for which of the following a. Fire b. Water c. Color d. Dust
numbers?
a. 6580470 b. 4780650 c. 8. If ‘train' is called 'bus', 'bus’ is called ‘tractor',
6580470 d. Data Inadequate e. None of these ‘tractor’ is called ‘car’, ‘car’ is called ‘scooter’, ‘scooter' is
called 'bicycle', 'bicycle' is called ‘moped', which is used to
20. What would be the code for 541238? plough a field ?
a. $DQFH@ b. $QDFH@ c. LQDFHP a. Train b. Bus c. Tractor
d. Data Inadequate e. None of these d. Car e. Moped

9. If 'lead' is called 'stick', 'stick' is called ‘nib’, ‘nib’ is

TYPE 4: SUBSTITUTION/ REPLACEMENT called ‘needle’, ‘needle’ is called ‘rope’, and 'rope' is
called 'thread', what will be fitted in a pen to write with
CODING it?
a. Stick b. Lead c. Needle
There are two variations for this type: 1. Sentence d. Nib e. Thread
having “is called” – For an answer, “Go Forward”

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PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

10. If ‘light' is called 'morning', 'morning’ is called 3. In a certain code language, ‘ye dil mange’ means
'dark', 'dark’ is called ‘night’, ‘night’ is called ‘sunshine' ‘469’, ‘dil de chuke’, means '978' and 'mange dil more'
and 'sunshine' is called ‘dusk', when do we sleep ? means ‘419’, Which word in that language means ‘dil’?
a. Night b. Sunshine c. Dusk d. Dark a. 4 b. 9 c. 1 d. 9 e. None of these
11. If ‘rose’ is called 'poppy', 'poppy' is called ‘lily’, ‘lily' 4. In a certain code language, 'mok dan sil’ means
is called ‘lotus’ and ‘lotus’ is called ‘gladiola', which is the 'nice big house’, ‘fit kon dan’, means house is good' and
king of flower? ‘warm tir fit' means ‘cost is high’, Which word stand for
a. Rose b. Lotus c. poppy ‘good’ in that language?
d. Lily e. Gladiola a. mok b. dan c. fit d. kon

12. If ‘rat' is called 'dog', 'dog' is called 'mongoose', 5. In a certain code language, ski rps tri’ means 'nice
'mongoose' is called ‘lion’, ‘lion’ is called ‘snake' and Sunday morning’, ‘the sti rps’, means 'every Tuesday
'snake' is called ‘elephant’, which is reared as pet ? morning' and ski ptr qlm' means ‘nice market place’,
a. Rat b. Dog c. Mongoose Which word stand for Sunday?
d. Lion e. Elephant a. ski b. rps c. tri d. qlm

13. If ‘blue' means 'green', 'green' means ‘white', 6. In a certain code language, cinto baoli tsi nzro'
‘white’ means ‘yellow’, ‘yellow’ means ‘black’, ‘black' means ‘her village is Sarurpur’, ‘mhi cinto keepi tsi oind’,
means 'red' and 'red' means 'brown', then what is the means her first love is literature' and oind geit tsi cinto
color of milk ? pki' means ‘literature collection is her hobby’, Which
a. Black b. Brown c. Blue d. Yellow e. Green word would mean ‘literature’?
a. cinto b. baoli c. oind d. geit
14. If Paper' means 'wood', 'wood' means 'straw',
'straw’ means ‘grass’, ‘grass’ means ‘rubber' and 'rubber' 7. In a certain code language, 123' means 'bright little
means 'cloth', what is the furniture made up of ? boy’, ‘145’, means ‘tall big boy' and '637’ means
a. Paper b. Wood c. Straw ‘beautiful little flower’, Which digit in that language
d. Grass e. None of these means bright?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
15. If ‘man’ means 'girl', 'girl' means ‘woman', ‘woman’
means ’boy’, ‘boy’ means ‘butler’ and 'butler' means 8. In a certain code language, ‘go for morning walk’ is
'rogue’, who will serve in a restaurant ? written as ‘$*?#’, ‘good for health’ is written as ‘&?@’and
a. Butler b. Girl c. Man ‘good to walk fast’ is written as ‘+@>#’, then what is the
d. Woman e. None of these code for health?
a. + b. # c. & d. ?
TYPE 5: DECIPHERING CODE:
9. In a certain code language, ‘pen pencil’ is written as
Here, the sequence of elements doesn’t matter. That ‘$&’, ‘eraser sharpener’ is written as ‘@#’and ‘pencil
means first to first mapping doesn’t follow. eraser’ is written as ‘$@, then what is the code for pen?
To decode the message in this type, we need to pick up a. # b. $ c. @ d. &
the common words from the given statements. This e. None of these
common word represents the code for the particular
word which is also a common word. The usual method 10. In a certain code language, ‘786’ is written as
of sequential coding i.e. first code for the first word, ‘study very hard’, ‘958’ is written as ‘hard work pays’ and
second for the second does not apply in this type. ‘645’ is written as ‘study and work’. Which of the
following is the code for ‘very’?
1. In a certain code language, 'mink yang pe' means a. 8 b. 6 c. 7
'fruits are ripe’, ‘pe lao may mink’, means 'oranges are d. Can’t be determined e. None of these
not ripe' and 'may pe nue mink' means ‘mangoes are not
ripe’, Which word in that language means mangoes? 11. In a certain code language, ‘234’ means ‘spark and
a. may b. pe c. nue d. mink fire’, ‘456’ means ‘spark is cause’ and ‘258’ means ‘fire is
effect ’. Which of the following numerals is used for
2. In a certain coding system, ‘tom kun sud' means ‘cause’?
‘dogs are barking’, ‘kun jo mop’ means ‘dogs and horses’, a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6
‘mun tom ko’ means ‘donkeys are mad’. Which word in
that language means ‘barking’? 12. In a certain code language, ‘123’ means ‘hot
a. sud b. kun c. jo d. tom d. ko filtered coffee’, ‘356’ means ‘very hot day’ and ‘589’
means ‘day and night’, then which digit is used for very?
a. 9 b. 5 c. 8 d. 2 e. 6

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PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

DIRECTIONS (Q. 13 to 18): Read the following information

carefully to answer these questions: 22. down
In a certain code language, ‘481’ means ‘sky is blue’, ‘246’ a. I and II
means ‘sea is deep’ and ‘698’ means ‘sea looks blue’. b. I and III
c. II and III d. Either (a) or (b)
13. What number is the code for ‘deep’? 23. died
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 6 a. I and II
b. II and III
14. What number is the code for ‘blue’? c. I and III
a. 1 b. 6 c. 8 d. 9 d. I, II and III

15. What number is the code for ‘sea’? DIRECTIONS (Q. 24-25): According to the certain code,
a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 A. ‘min fin bin gin ’ means ‘trains are always late’;
B. ‘gin din cin hin’ means ‘drivers were always
16. What number is the code for ‘looks’? punished’;
a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 9 C. ‘bin cin vin rin’ means ‘drivers stopped all trains’;
D. ‘din kin fin vin’ means ‘all passengers were late’.
17. What number is the code for ‘sky’?
a. 1 b. 4 c. 8 d. None of these 24. ‘Drivers were late’ would be written as:
a. min cin din b. fin cin din
DIRECTIONS (Q. 18 to 19): Read the following information c. fin din gin d. gin hin min
carefully to answer these questions:
A. ‘pit dar na’ means ‘you are good’; 25. Which word is represented by ‘vin’?
B. ‘dar tok pa’ means ‘good and bad’; a. all b. late c. trains d. drivers
C. ‘tim na tok’ means ‘they are bad’.

18. In that language, which word stands for ‘they’? PRACTICE EXERCISE:
a. na b. tok c. tim d. pit
e. None of these Directions (6-10): Study the following information to
answer the given questions:
19. To find the answer to the above question, which of In a certain code,
the given statements can be dispensed with? ‘home means happy house’ is written as ‘ne dl vlog ’,
a. Only A b. Only B c. A or B ‘brave means so bold’ is written as ‘rep og du be’,
d. B and C e. None of these ‘bold words happy users’ is written as ‘dl ujtr rep’, and
‘More house so users’ is written as ‘ki ne be uj’.
DIRECTIONS (Q. 20 to 21): Read the following information
carefully to answer these questions: 6. Which is the code for ‘more home’?
A) dl uj B) ki ne C) og dl
In a certain code language, D) vlki E) Cannot be determined
A. ‘sti nro kti’ stands for ‘clouds pour down’;
B. ‘nro bsi mit’ stands for ‘down he goes’; 7. What is the code for ‘Bold house’?
C. ‘bsi nro zpi’ stands for ‘died down he’. A) ne rep B) ne tr C) rep og
In each of the following questions, a word is given. Find D) trog E) Cannot be determined
out which of the above statements is/are required to find
the exact code of the given word. If the code cannot be 8. What does ‘brave so words’ stands for?
ascertained even by the using all the given statements, A) rep be vl B) be tr du C) du rep ki
then your answer is (e) i.e. Data Inadequate. D) be du og E) Cannot be determined

20. goes 9. What does ‘tr rep ty’ could mean in the given
a. I and II code language?
b. II and III A) Words happy Letters B) Bold often house
c. I, II and III C) Bold makes words
d. II only D) Words so Bold E) Cannot be determined

21. pour 10. Which is the code for ‘home happy brave’?
a. I and II A) og ne rep B) dl du vl C) dl vlog
b. II and III D) du ki be E) Cannot be determined
c. I and III
d. I, II and III

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

Directions (6-10): Study the following information to 8. What is the code for ‘he’ ?
answer the given questions: A) hf B) sa C) either hf or sa
D) mu E) None of these
In a certain code language
“title makes art beautiful” is written as ‘ds wdr ms 9. What is the code for ‘material’?
te’ A) ja B) ra C) ta
“makes baby very happy” is written as ‘gi te fid D) either ra or ja E) None of these
ho’
“Very title Based stories” is written as ‘ms opr ho 10. Which of the following may code for ‘he is
je’ and material in text’?
“Based like beautiful picture” is written as ‘cb ds dr A) rajahfsa pa B) hfdsf ta ki pa
opr’ C) ra pa dsf mu ta D) Can’t be determined
E) None of these
6. What is the code for ‘Based baby happy’ in the
given code language? Directions (1-5): Study the following information to
A) gi fid ms B) oprmsgi C) ho oprgi answer the given questions:
D) dr ds wdr E) fid oprgi
In a certain code
7. What is the code for ‘stories’ in the given code ‘developed record test precise’ is coded as ‘strp cg rt’,
language? ‘precise record clock theory’ is coded as ‘bkstrpvw’,
A) opr B) Other than those given in options ‘theory test light reality’ is coded as ‘rtbkprab’, and
C) je D) ms E) dr ‘developed reality each sharp’ is coded as ‘cg ab no cd’.

8. If ‘art very risk’ is coded as ‘ho wdrzy’ in the 6. What is the code for ‘pr’?
given code language, then how will ‘title risk beautiful’ A) light B) test C) theory
be coded as? D) reality E) None of these
A) ho dr ds B) ds msdr C) zyms ho
D) wdrzy ds E) Other than those given in options 7. What is the code for ‘rtbkrp’?
A) test theory record B) test theory precise
9. Which of the following may represents the code C) theory precise developed
‘makes improve’ in the given code language? D) Either A or B
A) le dr B) cs ds C) ds nq E) None of these
D) cste E) drcs 8. Which of the following is the code for
‘developed’?
10. In the given code language, what does the code A) rp B) st C) cg D) vw E) None of these
‘cb’ stands for?
A) makes B) very C) either ‘picture’ or ‘like’ 9. What is the code for ‘Reality test precise’?
D) either ‘beautiful’ or developed E) title A) abrt cg B) ab cg no C) abrtst
D) strp cg E) stprvw

Directions (6-10): Study the following information to 10. Which of the following is the code for ‘sharp’?
answer the given questions: A) ab B) cg C) no D) bk E) None of these

In a certain code language Directions (6-10): Study the following information to

answer the given questions:
‘Replace the text’ is written as ‘dsf ki pa’
‘He is getting replace’ is written as ‘hf sa dsf ta’ In a certain code language
‘Outside material in text’ is written as ‘ra ja pa sd’ “review paper style manage” is written as ‘deffacdete’
‘He is standing outside’ is written as ‘hf sa mu sd’ “paper of known country” is written as ‘giteku ad’
“Known review view reference” is written as ‘cdebp ad bgs’
6. How does ‘mu’ stand for ? “View like manage layout” is written as ‘kxdefdrbp’
A) is B) standing C) he
D) outside E) None of these 6. If ‘style known page’ is coded as ‘ad fazy’ in the
given code language, then what will ‘review risk
7. How is ‘getting’ written in that code language? manage’ be coded as?
A) ki B) ta C) pa A) ad drdef B) defcdedr C) zycde ad
D) dsf E) None of these D) fazydef E) None of these

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

7. What is the code for ‘view of post’ in the given Directions (6-10): Study the following information to
code language? answer the given questions:
A) gikucde B) bpcdegi C) kubpgi
D) drdeffa E) None of these In a certain code,
‘crucial major radical sour’ is written as ‘%a4 @a4
8. Which of the following may represents the code !u2 &o3’,
‘paper improve’ in the given code language? ‘right calm safety mutual’ is written as ‘!t3 @h3
A) le drB) csdefC) cste D) defnqE) drcs &a3 %l2’,
‘close micro school regime’ is written as ‘@m3 &r3
!o3 %s3’, and
9. In the given code language, what does the code ‘mystery reside sour crucial’ is written as ‘%a4 &r4
‘kx’ stands for? !u2 @d3’.
A) paper B) knownC) either ‘layout’ or ‘like’
D) either ‘manage’ or developed E) review 6. What is the code for ‘mutual’?
A) !n3 B) @c2 C) &a3
10. What is the code for ‘reference’ in the given D) &n2 E) Cannot be determined
code language?
A) bp B) dr C) bgs D) cde E) None of these 7. What does ‘!o3 @h3’ stand for?
A) calm regime B) right school
Directions (1-5): Study the following information to C) school calm D) close mutual
answer the given questions: E) Cannot be determined

In a certain code, 8. ’!a2 @n3 &n4’ could be a code for which of the
′Search box to find′ is written as ′K21 S22 P15 following?
T16′ A) morbid raising shake
′Find is first form′ is written as ′L31 N20 R19 B) morning star rising
T16′ C) carry style sour
′Table is looking good′ is written as ′R19 O19 D) spacing rising radical
F34 E15′ E) Cannot be determined
′Search text not command′ is written as ′S17 E25
K21 U35′ 9. What is code for ‘close safety’?
A) %r2 &r4 B) %l3 @c2 C) !n3 %r2
1. What text be the code for ‘find girl’? D) !t3 %s3 E) Cannot be determined
A) T16 K21 B) T16 U35 C) A19 T16
D) O19 T16 E) None of these 10. Which of the following will represent ‘carry
spacing righteous’?
2. Which of the following can be used to find out A) @m2 !a5 &t3 B) %r3 !a4 @t3
the code for ‘box’? C) %m3 &s5 &r2 D) %r3 !n4 @u5
(i) S22 K21 P15 U38 (ii) N20 S22 K67 U35 E) Cannot be determined
(iii) V20 K21 K67 P15 (iv) N20 P20 L31 U35
A) (ii) B) (ii) or (iv) C) (ii) or (iii) Directions (1-5): Study the following information to
D) (i) or (ii) E) None of these answer the given questions:

3. Which of the following cannot be used to find In a certain code,

the code for ‘command’? ′Marker Written Merit Iterated′ is written as ′11$D
A) N20 S22 K67 U35 B) S17 K21 E25 P15 25%N 15©R 15@T′
C) S22 E25 P15 U38 ′Come Detail Order Hijacked′ is written as ′6©L 5#E
D) N20 P20 L31 S17 E) None of these 10$D 17@R′
′Present Joystick Liable Part′ is written as ′18%T 14©E
4. If ‘first’ is coded as ‘L31’, then what text be the 18#T 12$K′
code for ‘not form’ ′States Regards Fact Reply′ is written as ′8#T 21©S
A) N20 K21 B) U35 N20 C) O19 N20 20@Y 20%S′
D) N20 S22 E) F34 N20
1. What is the code for ‘Haryana Court’?
5. If the code for ‘looking’ is ‘F34’, then which of A) 5@T 10%A B) 6@T 10%T
the following can be used to find the code for ‘good’? C) 5©T 10#A D) 5$T 10%A
A) O19 E15 K21 P15 B) S17 O19 R19 E15 C) O19 E) Cannot be determined
P15 F34 E15
D) L31 U35 E15 P15 E) None of these

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

2. What is the code for ‘Cruel Statement’? ′Ukraine Nepal Philippines Colombia′ is written as ′D%14
A) 4@L 21$T B) 5©L 21$S Q#20 V©12 O$08′
C) 5@L 21%T D) 5@L 21$T ′Lithuania Cyprus Senegal Uzbekistan′ is written as ′T$12
E) Cannot be Determined M%16 D#10 V@18′

3. What is the code for ‘Water Backflow’? 1. What is the code for ‘India Romania’?
A) 25@R 4$B B) 25©R 4$W A) J%8 S%12 B) J%08 S@12 C) J%08 S%12
C) 25@R 4$W D) 25@R 4%W D) J%08 S%14 E) Cannot be determined
E) Cannot be determined
2. ′L%18′ can be the code of which of the
4. What is the code for ‘Deduct Word’? following?
A) 6©T 26#D B) 6%T 25#C A) Kazakhstan B) Kyrgyzstan
C) 6©T 25#D D) 6@T 25#D C) Mauritania D) Mongolia
E) Cannot be determined E) Cannot be determined

5. What is the code for ‘Plane Hijacker’? 3. What is the code for ‘Zimbabwe Cameroon’?
A) 10$T 18@E B) 10$R 18©E A) Y©14 D@14 B) A©12 D@14
C) 10%R 18@E D) 10$R 18@E C) A©14 D@12 D) A©14 D@14
E) Cannot be determined E) Cannot be determined

Directions (6-10): Study the following information to 4. What is the code for ‘Israel Jamaica’?
answer the given questions: A) S$10 K@12 B) J$10 K%12
In a certain code language ‘she is not dancing’ is written as C) J$10 K%14 D) J©10 K%12
‘ka la dakga’, ‘she laughing and writing’ is written as, ‘ni ta E) Cannot be determined
pa ka’, ‘dancing makes person fit’ is written as ‘zi la de ki’,
‘she makes laughing writing’ is written as ‘zinika ta’ 5. What is the code for ‘Liechtenstein’?
A) K@24 B) M@22
6. What is the code for ‘dancing is not’ in the given C) M©24 D) M@24
code language? E) Cannot be determined
A) gadak ta B) nigaka C) la gadak
D) ta la ga E) pa nizi Directions (6-10): Study the following information to
answer the given questions:
7. What is the code for ‘writing’ in the given code In a certain code ‘He is late today’ is written as ‘as le ta
language? hi’, ‘today always comes’ is written as ‘ne hi ki’,
A) only ta B) only ni C) either pa or ni ‘comes is late’ is written as ‘as ne le’ and ‘be late
D) only pa E) either ni or ta always’ is written as ‘ki md as’.

8. What is the code for ‘she laughing’ in the given 6. Which of the following can be coded as ‘as ta ki
code language? le’?
A) ka ta B) ni ta C) ki de A) always late comes is
D) kani E) either A or D B) comes is today always
C) he is always late
9. What is the code for ‘makes’ in the given code D) He is comes always E) None of these
language?
A) la B) pa C) ni D) ga E) zi 7. Which of the following is the code for ‘always’?
A) le B) hi C) ne D) ki E) md
10. What can de the code for ‘and performing’ in
the given code language? 8. How will ‘comes is today’ be written in this
A) nikaB) pa edC) ta dak D) kazi E) dakga code?
A) le hi ne B) le ta ne
C) as ne md D) ki hi ne
Directions (1-5): Study the following information to E) ne ta md
answer the given questions:
9. Which of the following may represent ‘be’?
In a certain code, A) le B) ne C) as D) ta E) md
′France Indonesia Kazakhstan Maldives′ is written as ′G©10
L@18 N#14 J%16′ 10. What does ‘le’ represent in the code?
′Lebanon Greece Portugal Nigeria′ is written as A) He B) late C) alwaysD) comesE) is
′M@12 H©10 Q$14 O%12′

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PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

Directions(Q.1-10): In each question below is given a

9. GEUST
group of letters followed by four combinations of
digits/symbols numbered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You A. ?5@7 B. ?514* C. 4*!5? D. ?5@74
have to find out which of the combinations correctly
E. None of these
represents the group of letters based on the coding
system and mark the number of that combination as 10. WPSEN
your answer. If none of the combinations correctly
represents the group of letters, mark (E), i.e ”None of A. $?5* B. $?9*# C. $?6*# D. #?5!
these” as your answer. E. None of these
Letter :WRAPGBMUSEFTND

Digit/Symbol Code: $ 8 ! 2 7 # 9 @ ? 5 β 4 * 6

Conditions: 1. If in a certain Code BOOKLET is written as DSUSVQH ,

(i)If the middle letter is a vowel, the codes for the first and
fourth letters are to be interchanged. then how ANSWER written in that code ?
(ii) If the first two letters are consonants, the first letter is 1.AQYFBP 2.CRYEOD 3.DERSDY
to be coded, no code may be given to the second letter and
the remaining three letters are to be coded. 4.BPZFPC 5.None of these
(iii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a 2. AEC BFD GKI ?
consonant both are to be coded as the code for the
Consonant. 1.MJN 2.HJM 3.MNJ 4.HMJ

1. NEAST 5.None of these

A. ?51*4 B. ?514* C. 4*!5? D. 45!? 3. DIFFICULT is coded as WRUURXFOG, then what will be

E. None of these the code for EXTREME ?

2. DAEWP 1.VEJHFDV 2.WFGINVF 3.VFCIUNG

A. 6!5$2 B. $!562 C. 6!52$ D. $265! 4.VCGIVNV 5.None of these

E. None of these 4. If in a certain Code HEADER is written as IDBCFQ , then

3. PEFTG how FOOTER written in that code ?

A. 25β42 B. 2β4G C. 25β47 D. 47β25 1.GNPSFQ 2.GNORFR 3.EGOPRF

E. None of these 4.FMORFP 5.None of these

4. SMGBE 5. LIVE: ? :: CARE: WGLK

A. ?975# B. 97#5? C. ?97#5 D. ?#79? 1.FOPK 2.GPOL 3.FPOK 4.EOPK 5.None of these

E. None of these 6. If in a certain Code SPEAKER is written as RQDBJFS , then

5. UGREN how LISTENER written in that code ?

A. *785@ B. *785* C. @785@ D. @85* 1.RJRUDODL 2.SJRUOFDFM 3.LRDSGDDS

E. None of these 4.RKSTEOEL 5.None of these

6. RBMFN 7. MKP QOT USX ?

A. 8#9β4 B. β*98# C. 89β* D. 8#9β* 1.YXG 2.ZWB 3.YWB 4.UZC

E. None of these 5.None of these

7. MUTWA 8. SIGNAL is coded as TKJOCO, then what will be the code

A. 9@$4! B. 94$1 C. 94@!$ D. 9@4$! for CALENDER ?

E. None of these 1.DCOEQFHF 2.EDOFPEHU 3.ECOEQFGT

8. ABMUD 4.DCOFPGFT 5.None of these

A. 6!#*6 B. 65146 C. 6#9@6 D. 65!?

E. None of these

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PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

9. QLF TOI ADP DGS ? CKH a) MRGLXZUI b) MGRLXZUI c) MLRGZXUI

1.ZJF 2.YIF 3.ZID 4.ZHE d) MLRGXZIU e) None of these
5.None of these 9. If in a certain code RIGHT is written as QGDDO then in
10. If in a certain Code FUNCTION is written as the same code how WRONG is written?
FVMERLLR , then how ACADEMY written in that code ? a) VQJLB b) VBPLJc) VPLJB d) VLPJBe) None of these
1.BCXGDSW 2.ADYEDQU 3.ADZFCPV 10. If in a certain code LENGTH is written as ISHMFK
4.BCYEDPW 5.None of these then in the same code how BRIGHT is written?
1. If in a certain code CLEAR is written as WNUYH then in a) UGASHH b) UGHHSA c) UGSSHA d)
the same code how PEARL is written? UGSHAS e) None of these
a) JUXHN b) JUYHN c) JUYHM d) JUYEM
Directions (1-5): In each question below is given a group of
e) None of these
letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols
2. If in a certain code MENTAL is written as FNUOMB then given in (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of
the combinations correctly represents the group of letters
in the same code how CODING is written?
based on the rules and mark the answer accordingly. If
a) PDJEHO b) PDEJHO c) PDFEHO none of the combinations correctly represents the group
of letters, mark (E) as your answer.
d) PDFDHO e) None of these
3. If in a certain code CRYSTAL is written as DTJSXFR then (i) If the first two letters are vowels, the codes for first and
last letters are to be interchanged.
in the same code how QUANTUM is written? (ii) If the first letter is a consonant, the codes for the second
a) WRDNXZS b) RWDNYZS c) RWDNXZS d) and third letters are to be interchanged.
(iii) If the last letter is a vowel then the second letter is to
RWNDXZS e) None of these be coded as the code for the vowel.
4. If in a certain code CLEVER is written as SDWDMB then
Letter B E G H L O Q
in the same code how DECODE is written?
Code 5 9 1 % 2 @ ©
a) FCCFPB b) FCPBFC c) FCBPCF 1. EOQBZ
d) FCCBPF e) None of these A) !@©5! B) 8@©5! C) 9@©5!
D) 9@*5! E) None of these
5. If in a certain code QUICK is written as HCICB then in the
same code how PLASTIC is written? 2. GSEUZ
A) 1973@ B) 1793!C) *973!D) 1973!
a) GCAJBIC b) CAAGBIC c) GCBBAIC d) E) None of these
GCABAIC e) None of these
3. OESLS
6. If in a certain code MANGO is written as LBLIL then in A) @9727 B) 9@737 C) @!727
D) 9@727 E) None of these
the same code how MONKS is written?
a) LPLMP b) PLLMP c) LPMPL 4. OHERU
A) @9%*@ B) @9%*3 C) @9%*9
d) MLPAL e) None of these
D) @%9*3 E) None of these
7. If in a certain code REGISTER is written as ERIGTSRE then
5. EBLSO
in the same code how PRACTICE is written?
A) 925©@ B) 9757@ C) 9527@
a) RPACITEC b) RPICAETC c) RPCIATEC D) 9257@ E) None of these
d) RPCAITEC e) None of these
Directions (1-5): In each question below is given a group of
8. In a certain code SYSTEM is written as NVGHBS then in digits followed by four combinations of digits/symbols
given in (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of
the same code how FRACTION is written? the combinations correctly represents the group of digits
based on the rules and mark the answer accordingly. If

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

none of the combinations correctly represents the group

of letters, mark (E) as your answer.

(i) If the first digit is odd and last is even, then interchange
the codes for both digits
(ii) If there is a digit which is getting repeated in the given
number, then code that digit as the code of 5
(iii) If the third digit is followed by an even number and is
preceded by an odd number, then skip its code.
(iv) If the middle digit is odd then interchange the codes of
middle digit and last number.
(v) 0 is neither odd nor even

1. 3809125 INPUT – OUTPUT

A) ©*AB@KF B) ©*A#@KO C) ©*A#@KF
D) ©*AF@K# E) None of these PRACTICE EXERCISE:
2. 1268247
A) @#B*©OH B) @#B*#OH C) @#B*#OAD) I. Study the following information carefully and answer
@#B*#OFE) None of these the given questions.

3. 1026854 A number arrangement machine arranges two digit

A) OAKBF#O B) OAHBF#@ C) OAK*F#@ numbers into a typical manner. Each step takes gives
D) OAKBF#@ E) None of these
output taking input from the previous step. The following is
4. 4302718 an illustration of Input and rearrangement. Using the
A) O©AH@* B) OAKH@* C) O©KH@*
D) O©AKH@*E) None of these illustration answer the question given below.

5. 8430170
A) *O©##H# B) *O©#@H# C) *O©#H# Example:
D) *B©#@H# E) None of these

Input:

1. If the value “5” is subtracted from the final output

then what will be the resultant value?
A. -7 B. 3 C. -3 D. 4 E. None of these

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PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

2. If in the first step the first digit of every number is value in Step I of the given input?
added and multiplied by 5 then which will be the A. 4, 1B. 1, 4 C. 2, 6 D. 4, 6 E. 4, 4
resultant value? 9. Which of the following represents the sum of the second
A. 50 B. 60 C. 55 D. 65 E. None of these digit of the second value and the first digit of the first
3. Which of the following combinations represent value in Step II of the given input?
the first digit of the second value and the second digit of A. 8 B. 7 C. 6 D. 4 E. 9
the first value in Step I of the given input? 10. Which of the following represents the difference
A. 6, 4B. 4, 6 C. 6, 2 D. 2, 8 E. 2, 4 between the first value and the second value of Step III
4. Which of the following represents the sum of of the given input?
the first digit of the second value and the second digit of A. 1 B. 2 C. 0 D. 4 E. 5
the first value in Step II of the given input? Directions (1 – 5): Answer the questions on the basis of
A. 5 B. 2 C. 6 D. 4 E. 3 the information given below.
5. Which of the following represents the difference
between the first value and the second value of Step II A string of numbers is given as input. The further steps
of the given input? given are obtained by applying certain logic. Numbers of
A. 8 B. 7 C. 9 D. 4 E. 6 step II have been obtained by using at least 1 digit of each
number in step I. Each step is a resultant of previous step
I. Study the following information carefully and answer
only. None of the pattern is repeated in any steps
the given questions.
A number arrangement machine arranges two digit
numbers into a typical manner. Each step takes gives
output taking input from the previous step. The following
is an illustration of Input and rearrangement. Using the
illustration answer the question given below.

Example:

Input:

1. What is the average of numbers obtained in step

2 and 3?
A) 12.75 B) 16.25 C) 13.50 D) 15.45E) Other than
options given
2. What is the ratio of numbers obtained in Step 2
respectively?
Input: A) 3 : 7 B) 1 : 3 C) 4 : 1 D) 4 :
5 E) 6 : 5
3. Find the difference between sum of numbers
obtained in 1st step and sum of numbers obtained in
all other steps.
A) 87.5 B) 77.5 C) 65.5 D)
6. If the value “6” is added to the final output then what 61.5 E) 69.5
will be the resultant value? 4. What is the difference between the largest and
A. 12 B. 18 C. 10 D. 11 E. None of these the smallest numbers obtained in step I?
7. If in the first step the second digit of every number is A) 67 B) 70 C) 60 D) 61
added and divided by 2 then which will be the resultant E) 58
value? 5. If in step IV, out of the two operations
A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 4 E. None of these performed, only first was performed then in step IV
8. Which of the following combinations represent the first number resultant would be?
digit of the third value and the second digit of the first A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 6 E) 5

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

Directions (1 – 5): Answer the questions on the basis of Step 4: 45 folloingpoining 37 26 simplingteaing 14 better 63
the information given below. Step 5: betteing 61 45 folloingpoining 37 26 simplingteaing
14
A number arrangement machine when given an input of Step 6: 61 45 37 26 14 20 19 16 6 2
words/numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule Step 7: 4 36 49 1 4 25 64 1 81 49
in each step. The following is an illustration of input and Step 8: 13 9 1 10 7 4 1 13 9 4
steps of rearrangement. Step 9: 22 11 11 14 13

Input: 21 Nashik 35 60 Chennai Surat 63 Bhopal 42 Raipur This is the final arrangement and step 9 is the last step for
Step 1: 23 Nashik 35 60 Chennai 63 Bhopal 42 Raipur Surat this input.
Step 2: 23 37 Nashik 60 Chennai 63 Bhopal 42 Raipur Surat
Step 3: 23 37 40 60 Chennai 63 Bhopal Nashik Raipur Surat Input: 16 before 33 shows 28 work thinks 54 come 67
Step 4: 23 37 40 58 63 Bhopal Chennai Nashik Raipur Surat
Step 5: 23 37 40 58 65 Bhopal Chennai Nashik Raipur Surat 6. Which word/number is third to right of seventh
Step 6: 23 Bhopal 37 Chennai 40 Nashik 58 Raipur 65 Surat element from right end in step 6?
Step 7: 23 14 37 12 40 25 58 36 65 39 A) 23 B) 20 C) 56 D) 19
Step 8: 12 14 23 25 36 37 39 40 58 65 E) None of these
Step 9: 3 5 5 7 9 10 12 4 13 11 7. In step 4, if ‘coming’ interchanges position with
‘30’ and ‘thinking’ with ‘before’, then how many
This is the final arrangement and step 9 is the last step for words are there in between ‘coming’ and ‘before’?
this input. A) None B) One C) Two D) Three
E) More than three
Input: Karnal 17 42 Gurgaon Delhi 57 23 Pune 58 Jaipur 8. Find the multiplication of numbers which are
4th from left and 6th from right in step 8?
1. Which element is 6th from the right end in step A) 9 B) 28 C) 36 D) 81
7? E) 35
A) 25 B) 28 C) 21 D) 40 9. What is the sum of the numbers which are
E) None of these fourth from left end and third from right end in step
2. How many numbers/words are there between 6?
Delhi and 40 in step 6? A) 48 B) 47 C) 52 D) 49
A) None B) One C) Two D) E) 51
ThreeE) More than three 10. What word/number is 4th from left end in step
3. If in a certain way ‘40’ is related to ‘57’ in step 3 3?
and ‘Delhi’ is related to ‘Karnal’ in step 5, then in the A) before B) 54 C) thinking
same way ‘25’ is related to what in step 8? D) woring E) 18
A) 32 B) 56 C) 59 D) 21 Directions (1 – 5): Answer the questions on the basis of
E) 38 the information given below.
4. What is the difference in the number which is
4th from left end in step 7 and which is 5h from the A number arrangement machine when given an input of
right end in last step? words/numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule
A) 13 B) 15 C) 16 D) 14 in each step. The following is an illustration of input and
E) 18 steps of rearrangement.
5. What is the addition of one digit numbers in last
step? Input: 29 oat 45 lap ice 18 21 ace 37 van 91 sun
A) 23 B) 25 C) 28 D) 27 Step 1: ace 29 oat 45 lap ice 18 37 van 91 sun 21
E) 26 Step 2: ace ice 29 oat 45 lap 37 van 91 sun 21 18
Step 3: ace ice oat 29 45 lap 37 van sun 21 18 91
Directions (6 – 10): Answer the questions on the basis of Step 4: ace ice oat lap 45 37 van sun 21 18 91 29
the information given below. Step 5: ace ice oat lap sun 37 van 21 18 91 29 45
Step 6: ace ice oat lap sun van 21 18 91 29 45 37
A number arrangement machine when given an input of Step 7: 22 19 12 15 9 1 21 18 91 29 45 37
numbers/words, rearranges them following a particular rule Step 8: 4 10 3 6 9 1 3 9 10 11 9 10
in each step. The following is an illustration of input and
steps of rearrangement. This is the final arrangement and step 8 is the last step for
this input.
Input: better 12 47 point 24 39 team follow 63 simple
Step 1: teaing 14 better 47 point 24 39 follow 63 simple Input: fat pin 94 uni 41 46 oak 13 eat hut 28 93
Step 2: 26 simplingteaing 14 better 47 point 39 follow 63
Step 3: poining 37 26 simplingteaing 14 better 47 follow 63

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

1. Which element is 3rd to right of 6th from the right 9. Which number is third to left of 5th from left end
end in step 3? in step 8?
A) 93 B) hut C) 13 D) fat A) 32 B) 38 C) 57 D) 30 E) 43
E) 94 10. Find the difference in numbers which is 4th from
2. How many numbers/words are there between right end in step 9 and 4th from left end in step 8.
uni and 41 in step 6? A) 10 B) 9 C) 8 D) 6 E) 7
A) None B) One C) Two D)
ThreeE) More than three Directions (1 – 5): Answer the questions on the basis of
3. If in a certain way ‘oak’ is related to ‘pin’ in step the information given below.
4 and ‘pin’ is related to ‘13’ in step 5, then in the same
way ‘8’ is related to what in step 8? A number arrangement machine when given an input of
A) 3 B) 6 C) 5 D) 10 words/numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule
E) 12 in each step. The following is an illustration of input and
4. What is the difference in the numbers which is steps of rearrangement.
4th from right end in step 6 and which is 4th from the
right end in last step? Input: 4 2 1 5 6 8 3 7
A) 19 B) 20 C) 16 D) 17 Step 1: 14 2 -1 23 34 62 7 47
E) 18 Step 2: 5 2 -1 5 7 8 7 2
5. Find the sum of numbers in the last step of the Step 3: 6 6 8 21 32 44 56 66
input. Step 4: 5 4 5 17 27 38 49 58
A) 83 B) 89 C) 98 D) 87 Step 5: 5 4 5 8 9 2 4 4
E) 86 Step 6: 20 12 20 56 72 2 12 12
Directions (6 – 10): Answer the questions on the basis of
the information given below. This is the final arrangement and step 6 is the last step for
this input.
A number arrangement machine when given an input of
numbers/words, rearranges them following a particular rule Input: 12 7 4 9 6 2 3 8
in each step. The following is an illustration of input and 1. Find the multiplication of numbers which are
steps of rearrangement. 4 from left end and 2nd from right end in step 4?
th

A) 872 B) 931 C) 588 D) 765

Input: been laws mind need seat then they E) None of these
Step 1: need been laws they mind seat then 2. What is the sum of numbers which are 3rd from
Step 2: they need been then laws mind seat left end and 3rd from right end in step 5?
Step 3: then they need seat been laws mind A) 12 B) 14 C) 27 D) 7
Step 4: seat then they mind need been laws E) 3
Step 5: mind seat then laws they need been 3. What is the difference in numbers which are
Step 6: laws mind seat been then they need 2nd from left end and 3rd from right end in step 6?
Step 7: been laws mind need seat then they A) 6 B) 7 C) 9 D) 5
Step 8: 26 55 32 28 45 47 58 E) -8
Step 9: 26 28 32 45 47 55 58 4. In step 6, ‘42’ is related to ‘2’ in the same way as
in step 3, ‘14’ is related to ‘32’. Then in step 2, ‘5’ is
This is the final arrangement and step 9 is the last step for related to what in the same way?
this input. A) 2 B) 12 C) 7 D)
None of these E) Cannot be determined
Input: data high late paid plan risk what 5. What are last two numbers in step 4?
A) 7, 4 B) 28, 32 C) 5, 7 D) 42,
6. Which word/number is third to right of seventh 64 E) 49, 64
element from right end in step 4?
I. Study the following information carefully and answer
A) what B) paid C) late D)
plan E) None of these the given questions.
7. In step 5, if ‘plan’ interchanges position with
‘high’ and ‘what’ with ‘data’, then which word is When a word and number arrangement machine is given
between ‘plan’ and ‘data’? an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them
A) late B) paid C) risk D)
high E) None following a particular rule. The following is an illustration
8. How many words are there in between words of Input and rearrangement.(All the numbers are two digit
‘late’ and ‘what’ in step 6?
A) None B) One C) Two D) Three numbers.)
E) None of these

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PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

5. In which step are the elements ‘7 Car Dog 48’

Input : Doll 9 46 Egg 23 Cat 55 11 Ball Fan
found in the same order?
Step 1 : Ball Doll 9 46 Egg 23 Cat 11 Fan 55 A. Third B. Fourth C. Second D. Fifth
E. The given order of elements is not found in any step
Step 2 : Ball 9 Doll 46 Egg 23 Cat 11 Fan 55
Step 3 : Ball 9 Cat Doll 46 Egg 11 23 Fan 55 II. Study the following information carefully and answer
Step 4 : Ball 9 Cat 11 46 Egg Doll 23 Fan 55 the given questions.
Step 5 : Ball 9 Cat 11 Egg 46 Doll 23 Fan 55 When a word and number arrangement machine is given
an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them
Step V is the largest step of above arrangement as following a particular rule. The following is an illustration
the indended arrangement as the intended arrangement is of Input and rearrangement.(All the numbers are two digit
obtained numbers.)
As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the
appropriate steps for the Input. Input : ant 24 son 76 house 54 46 venue 80 sun
Step 1 : venue ant 24 son 76 house 46 80 sun 54
Input : Dog 7 48 Elephant 21 Car 43 13 Banana Fruit Step 2 : venue 24 ant son 76 46 80 sun 54 house
Step 3 : venue 24 sun ant son 46 80 54 house 76
Explanation
Step 4 : venue 24 sun 46 son 80 54 house 76 ant
Input : Dog 7 48 Elephant 21 Car 43 13 Banana Fruit
Step 1 : Banana Dog 7 48 Elephant 21 Car 13 Fruit 43 Step 5 : venue 24 sun 46 son 54 house 76 ant 80
Step 2 : Banana 7 Dog 48 Elephant 21 Car 13 Fruit 43
Step 3 : Banana 7 Car Dog 48 Elephant 13 21 Fruit 43 Step V is the largest step of above arrangement as
Step 4 : Banana 7 Car 13 48 Elephant Dog 21 Fruit 43 the indended arrangement as the intended arrangement is
Step 5 : Banana 7 Car 13 Elephant 48 Dog 21 Fruit 43
Middle Elements – Even Number and Vowel word obtained
Remaining Elements – Ascending order As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the
1. Which element comes exactly between ’48’ and appropriate steps for the Input.
’13’ in Step III of the given Input?
A. 21 B. Fruit C. Dog D. 13 E. Elephant
Input : ball 32 parrot 82 gun 66 48 water 90 pearl
2. If in the second step,”7″ interchanges its position
with ’21’ and ‘Elephant’ also interchanges its position
with “Fan” then which element will be to the immediate Explanation
left of ‘Car’? Input : ball 32 parrot 82 gun 66 48 water 90 pearl
A. 7 B. Fruit C. Dog D. 13 E. Elephant
Step 1 : water ball 32 parrot 82 gun 48 90 pearl 66
3. Which of the following combinations represent
the first two and the last two elements in the Step II of Step 2 : water 32 ball parrot 82 48 90 pearl 66 gun
the given input? Step 3 : water 32 pearl ball parrot 48 90 66 gun 82
A. Banana Dog and Fruit 43
Step 4 : water 32 pearl 48 parrot 90 66 gun 82 ball
B. Banana 7 and Fruit 43
Step 5 : water 32 pearl 48 parrot 66 gun 82 ball 90
C. Banana 7 and Elephant 13
6. Which element comes exactly between ’82’ and
D. Banana 7 and Dog 21
’90’ in Step II of the given Input?
E. Banana 7 and Elephant 48
A. water B. pearl C. parrot D. 32
4. Which element is third to the left of the one E. 48
which is eighth from the left in Step IV of the given
7. If in the fourth step,”48″ interchanges its position
Input?
with ‘gun’ and ‘parrot’ also interchanges its position
A. 7 B. Fruit C. Dog D. 48 E. Elephant
with “ball” then which element will be to the
immediate right of ’66’?
A. parrot B. ball C. gun D. 48 E. pearl
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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

8. Which of the following combinations represent 4. What is the difference between the largest and
the first two and the last two elements in the Step III of the third smallest numbers obtained in any steps?
the given input? A) 84 B) 70 C) 66 D) 61
A. water, ball and pearl, 66 E) 58
B. water, 32 and gun, 82 5. What is the average of numbers obtained in last
C. water, 32 and ball, 90 2 steps?
D. water, 32 and 82, ball A) Other than given in options B) 0.5
E. water, 32 and 66, gun C) 2 D) 1.5 E) 1
9. Which element is fifth to the right of the one
which is eighth from the right in the Step II of the given
Input?
A. parrot B. ball C. gun D. 48 E. pearl

10. In which step are the elements ‘ball parrot 82 48’

found in the same order?
A. Third B. Fourth C. Second D. Fifth
E. The given order of elements is not found in any step

Directions (1-5): A string of numbers is given as input. The Directions (6-10): Consider the following steps for given
further steps given are obtained by applying certain logic. input and read the instructions to reach to the last step.
Numbers of step II have been obtained by using at least 1
digit of each number in step I. Each step is a resultant of
previous step only.

Input: Instructions:
Step-I: Interchange the alphabets in input as arrows
mentioned

Step-II: (i) If both letters are consonant and number is less

1. What is the average of numbers obtained in step than 6, then consonants change to previous letter in English
2? alphabetical series.
A) 23 B) 26 C) 25 D) 35 (ii) If there is one vowel and one consonant, then add 4 to
E) Other than options given the number.
2. What is the second largest number obtained in (iii) It there is single consonant, then consonant changes to
any step of given input? next letter in English alphabetical series.
A) 89 B) 86 C) 78 D) 23
E) 45
3. Find the difference between sum of numbers
obtained in 1st step and sum of numbers obtained in
all other steps.
A) 211 B) 221 C) 225 D) 204
E) 215

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

Step-III: has been derived using a special pattern taking to which of the following?
similar (but not exactly) patterns of both step I and step II. A) 78 B) carry C) giant D) 26 E) main
3. What is the sum of numbers – 3rd from the left
end in step 2 and 4th from the right end in step 4?
A) 118 B) 123 C) 132 D) 115
E) 127
4. In which of the following steps are words ‘41
keep 47 main’ occur together?
A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 5
E) There is no such step
5. Which of the following is the last but one step of
given input?
A) 15 carry 26 giant 41 45 keep main 78 pulse 83 right
B) 15 carry 26 giant 41 keep 47 main 78 pulse 83 right
6. What is the sum of all numbers in step II of given C) 15 carry 26 giant 45 39 keep main 78 pulse 83 right
input? D) 15 carry 26 giant 39 45 keep main 78 pulse 83 right
A) 42 B) 40 C) 33 D) 36 E) None of these
E) 43
7. In last step, which of the following letter/s occur Directions (6 – 10): Answer the questions on the basis of
more than 1 time? the information given below.
A) C B) P C) N D) A number arrangement machine when given an input of
Both T and F E) Both N and T words/numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule
8. Which of the following represents the second in each step. The following is an illustration of input and
element in 3rd row in step III? steps of rearrangement.
A) L4 B) M4 C) L6 D) N4 Input: orange 13 51 guaua apple 36 mango ugli 22 67
E) M3 Step 1: 14 orange 51 guaua apple 36 mango ugli 22 67
9. What is the addition of numbers which are with Step 2: 14 orange 51 guaua 36 mango ugli 22 67 apple
L and LR in step II? Step 3: 14 21 orange 51 guaua 36 mango ugli 67 apple
A) 7 B) 5 C) 6 D) 3 Step 4: 14 21 orange 51 36 mango ugli 67 apple guaua
E) 4 Step 5: 14 21 52 orange 36 mango ugli 67 apple guaua
10. What is the addition of numbers which are with Step 6: 14 21 52 36 mango ugli 67 apple guaua orange
N, BT and TC in step III? Step 7: 14 21 52 35 mango ugli 67 apple guaua orange
A) 17 B) 13 C) 16 D) 15 Step 8: 14 21 52 35 ugli 67 apple guaua orange mango
E) 19 Step 9: 14 21 52 35 68 ugli apple guaua orange mango
Directions (1 – 5): Answer the questions on the basis of Step 10: 14 21 52 35 68 apple guaua orange mango ugli
the information given below. This is the final arrangement and step 10 is the last step for
A number arrangement machine when given an input of this input.
words/numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule
in each step. The following is an illustration of input and Input: under 34 puzzle basic 49 ice 15 72 dust 21 angle 56
steps of rearrangement.
Input: mania hut 14 33 sense 78 21 trust 56 equal 6. How many elements are between ‘puzzle’ and
Step 1: 16 mania hut 33 sense 78 21 56 equal trust ’56’ in step 5?
Step 2: 16 equal mania hut 33 sense 21 56 80 trust A) 3 B) 5 C) 4 D) 6
Step 3: 16 equal 23 mania hut 33 56 sense 80 trust E) 8
Step 4: 16 equal 23 hut mania 33 58 sense 80 trust 7. Which element is third to left of seventh
Step 5: 16 equal 23 hut 35 mania 58 sense 80 trust element from the right end in step 7?
A) 72 B) dust C) angle D) puzzle E) 22
This is the final arrangement and step 5 is the last step for 8. In step 10, ‘50’ is related to ‘basic’ in the same
this input. way as in step 7, ‘puzzle’ is related to ‘angle’. Now in
step 4, ‘under’ is related to what in the same way?
Input: 45 carry giant 24 81 pulse right 13 39 keep 76 main A) dust B) ice C) 16 D) 72
E) None of these
1. What is the position of ‘keep’ in step 3 from left 9. In which of the following steps are words ‘55 50
end? under puzzle’ occur together?
A) 7th B) 9th C) 5th D) 6th A) 9 B) 4 C) 6 D) 5
th E) There is no such step
E) 8
2. In step 4, if ‘45’ is related to ‘carry’ and ‘pulse’ is 10. What are last two numbers/words in step 11?
related to ‘keep’ in a certain way, then ‘39’ is related A) puzzle basic B) under ice C) puzzle

[Type text] 59
 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

under D) dust basic A number arrangement machine when given an input

E) dust under of words/numbers, rearranges them following a
Directions (6 – 10): Answer the questions on the basis particular rule in each step. The following is an
of the information given below. illustration of input and steps of rearrangement.
A number arrangement machine when given an input
of words/numbers, rearranges them following a Input: 23 air 16 house numeric 34 orange 29 48 dice
particular rule in each step. The following is an Step 1: air 23 16 house numeric 34 orange 29 48 dice
illustration of input and steps of rearrangement. Step 2: air 23 house numeric 34 orange 29 48 dice 18
Input: launch army 19 is 53 41 unit firm 64 basic 32 74 Step 3: dice air 23 house numeric 34 orange 29 48 18
Step 1: 76 launch army is 53 41 unit firm 64 basic 32 Step 4: dice air house numeric 34 orange 29 48 18 21
17 Step 5: house dice air numeric 34 orange 29 48 18 21
Step 2: 66 76 launch army is 53 unit firm basic 32 17 Step 6: house dice air numeric 34 orange 48 18 21 31
39 Step 7: orange house dice air numeric 34 48 18 21 31
Step 3: 34 66 76 launch army is unit firm basic 17 39 Step 8: orange house dice air numeric 48 18 21 31 32
51 Step 9: numeric orange house dice air 48 18 21 31 32
Step 4: launch 34 66 76 is unit firm basic 39 51 81 Step 10: numeric orange house dice air 18 21 31 32 50
army This is the final arrangement and step 10 is the last step for
Step 5: firm launch 34 66 76 unit basic 39 51 81 army this input.
is
Step 6: basic firm launch 34 66 76 39 51 81 army is Input: 42 review eagle 23 fission 65 uniformed font 8 34
unit
1. How many elements are between ‘fission’ and
This is the final arrangement and step 6 is the last step
’34’ in step 5?
for this input.
A) None B) One C) Two D) Three
Input: hut 16 65 joint 90 ocean 41 54 import east 22 85 E) More than three
pressure 23 2. What is the total of numbers which are 3rd from
right end in step 9 and 3rd from left end in step 3?
6. What is the position of ‘import’ in step 3 from A) 57 B) 63 C) 71 D) 67
left end? E) 59
A) 10th B) 9th C) 5th D) 6th 3. Which word/number is 2nd to the right of 6th
th
E) 8 from the right end in step 7?
A) uniformed B) 10 C) 65 D) eagle E) font
7. In step 4, if ‘92’ is related to ‘ocean’ and
‘import’ is related to ‘21’ in a certain way, then 4. Which word/number is in between the words
‘pressure’ is related to which of the following? ‘65’ and ‘eagle’ in step 5?
A) 39 B) 63 C) import D) A) 42 B) review C) font D) uniformed
joint E) None of these E) fission
8. What is the sum of numbers – 3rd from the left 5. If ‘eagle’ is related to ‘fission’ in step 5 and ’42’ is
end in step 4 and 4th from the right end in step 5? related to ‘uniformed’ in step 6, then in same way to
A) 68 B) 85 C) 82 D) 95 what is ‘font’ related to in step 8?
E) 77 A) 65 B) uniformed C) 21 D) 10
9. In which of the following steps are words E) eagle
‘import east pressure 21’ occur together? Directions (6 – 10): Answer the questions on the basis of
A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 5 the information given below.
E) There is no such step A number arrangement machine when given an input of
10. Which of the following is the last but one step numbers/words, rearranges them following a particular rule
of given input? in each step. The following is an illustration of input and
A) joint pressure 14 24 18 92 hut ocean 13 25 41 83 steps of rearrangement.
east import
B) joint pressure 18 24 56 92 hut ocean 21 39 63 83 Input: 65 13 carry dial 24 giant review 42 light 56
east import Step 1: carry 13 dial 24 giant review 42 light 56 65
C) joint pressure 18 22 48 74 hut 13 ocean 21 39 69 Step 2: carry dial 13 24 giant review 42 light 56 65
east import Step 3: carry dial giant 13 24 review light 42 56 65
D) joint pressure 18 22 48 74 hut ocean 15 39 71 41 Step 4: carry dial giant light 13 review 24 42 56 65
east import Step 5: carry dial giant light review 13 24 42 56 65
E) None of these Step 6: carry 13 dial giant light 24 42 56 review 65
Step 7: carry 13 dial 24 giant 42 light 56 review 65
Directions (1 – 5): Answer the questions on the basis This is the final arrangement and step 7 is the last step for
of the information given below. this input.

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

Input: dice layout 63 view 41 26 home 39 fond 88 A) 42 B) review C) 8 D) uniform

E) None of these
6. Which step number would be the following 5. If ‘eagle’ is related to ‘8’ in step 4 and ’65’ is
output? related to ‘review’ in step 2, then in same way to what
“dice fond home layout view 26 39 41 63 88” is ’65’ related to in step 6?
A) Step 3 B) Step 4 C) Step 5 D) A) 42 B) 8 C) fission D) review
Step 6 E) There is no such step E) None of these
7. How many steps are done to complete the
arrangement? Directions (6 – 10): Answer the questions on the basis of
A) 4 B) 7 C) 5 D) 6 the information given below.
E) None of these A number arrangement machine when given an input of
8. In step 4, which number/word is 3rd to right of numbers/words, rearranges them following a particular rule
7th from right end? in each step. The following is an illustration of input and
A) dice B) layout C) 39 D) steps of rearrangement.
homeE) 26 Input: shine 43 25 61 carry frozen 16 layout
9. Which elements come exactly between ‘26’ and Step 1: 16 shine 43 25 61 carry frozen layout
‘39’ in Step 6 of the given input? Step 2: 16 shine 43 61 carry frozen layout 25
A) 88 B) view C) fond D) home E) 41 Step 3: carry 16 shine 43 61 frozen layout 25
10. Which of the following combinations represents Step 4: carry 16 shine 43 61 layout 25 frozen
the first and last elements of the step 3? Step 5: 43 carry 16 shine 61 layout 25 frozen
A) dice, 88 B) dice, 63 C) view, 88 D) Step 6: 43 carry 16 shine layout 25 frozen 61
dice, home E) None of the Above Step 7: layout 43 carry 16 shine 25 frozen 61
Step 8: layout 43 carry 16 25 frozen 61 shine
Directions (1 – 5): Answer the questions on the basis of This is the final arrangement and step 8 is the last step for
the information given below. this input.
A number arrangement machine when given an input of
words/numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule Input: document reference 58 table 53 14 file 39
in each step. The following is an illustration of input and
steps of rearrangement. 6. Which step number would be the following
output?
Input: public owner 48 19 east 12 61 better item “53 document 14 reference 58 table 39 file”
Step 1: east public owner 48 19 12 61 better item A) Step 3 B) Step 4 C) Step 5 D)
Step 2: east 19 public owner 48 12 61 better item Step 6 E) None of the Above
Step 3: east 19 better public owner 48 12 61 item
Step 4: east 19 better 12 public owner 48 61 item 7. How many steps would be needed to complete
Step 5: east 19 better 12 item public owner 48 61 the arrangement?
Step 6: east 19 better 12 item 61 public owner 48 A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6
Step 7: east 19 better 12 item 61 public owner 48 E) 7
Step 8: east 19 better 12 item 61 public 48 owner 8. If in the Step 3, ‘document’ interchanges its
This is the final arrangement and step 8 is the last step for position with ‘table’ and ’14’ also interchanges its
this input. position with ‘39’, then which element will be second
to the left of ’14’?
Input: 42 review eagle 23 fission 65 uniform angel 8 A) 58 B) file C) table D) document
E) None of the Above
1. How many elements are between ‘fission’ and 9. Which word/number come exactly between ‘14’
’65’ in step 5? and ‘table’ in Step 5 of the given input?
A) None B) One C) Two D) Three A) document B) 39 C) reference D) file
E) More than three E) None of the Above
2. How many steps are done to complete the 10. Which of the following combinations represents
arrangement? the first the last element of the step 7 of the given
A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) 4 Input?
E) None of these A) 53, 58 B) 53, table
3. Which word/number is 2nd to the right of 5th C) reference, table
from the right end in step 2? D) reference, 58 E) None of the Above
A) uniform B) review C) 65 D) Directions (1 – 5): Answer the questions on the basis
angel E) 8 of the information given below.
4. Which word/number is in between the words A number arrangement machine when given an input
‘fission’ and ‘eagle’ in step 5? of words/numbers, rearranges them following a
particular rule in each step. The following is an

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

illustration of input and steps of rearrangement. steps of rearrangement.

Input: live replace tail 36 answer night apple 23 fish Input : refer 61 34 78 burst house 49 noun 25 11 kill dust
page den 53 Step 1: 78 61 34 burst house 49 noun 25 11 kill dust refer
Step 1: apple 23 live replace tail 36 answer night fish Step 2: 11 78 61 34 burst house 49 25 kill dust refer noun
page den 53 Step 3: 61 11 78 34 burst house 49 25 dust refer noun kill
Step 2: apple 23 tail 36 live replace answer night fish Step 4: 25 61 11 78 34 burst 49 dust refer noun kill house
page den 53 Step 5: 49 25 61 11 78 34 burst refer noun kill house dust
Step 3: apple 23 tail 36 den 53 live replace answer Step 6: 34 49 25 61 11 78 refer noun kill house dust burst
night fish page This is the final arrangement and step 6 is the last step for
Step 4: apple 23 tail 36 den 53 replace live answer this input.
night fish page
Step 5: apple 23 tail 36 den 53 replace page live 6. Which of the following step number will be the
answer night fish last but one for following input?
Step 6: apple 23 tail 36 den 53 replace page night live Input: 55 fire 33 page hire 40 11 review 18 clip
answer fish A) 5 B) 3 C) 4 D) 7
Step 7: apple 23 tail 36 den 53 replace page night live E) None of these
answer fish
Step 8: apple 23 tail 36 den 53 replace page night live 7. What is the third step if input is
fish answer Input: 38 style discuss first just 51 59 27 18 moon
This is the final arrangement and step 8 is the last step A) 51 18 59 38 discuss first 27 style moon just
for this input. B) 18 59 38 discuss first just 51 27 style moon
Input: under insert 56 burst gun fire 23 land page C) 18 59 38 discuss 51 first 27 style moon just
layout 50 D) 51 18 59 38 first 27 style moon just discuss
E) None of these
1. Which step number would be the following
output? 8. Which of the following is last step of above
“fire 23 insert 50 layout 56 under page land burst gun” input?
A) Step 3 B) Step 4 C) A) 5 B) 3 C) 6 D) 4 E) None of these
Step 5 D) Step 6 9. Find the Sixth step for which first step is given
E) None of the Above Step 1: 38 aspirant door file 33 15 puzzle 26 22 short
2. How many steps would be needed to complete A) 26 22 33 15 38 short puzzle file aspirant door
the arrangement? B) 22 33 15 38 aspirant 26 short puzzle file door
A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 C) 26 22 33 15 38 short puzzle file door aspirant
E) 7 D) There is no such step
E) None of these
3. If in the Step 3, ‘insert’ interchanges its position
with ‘56’ and ’50’ also interchanges its position with
‘gun’, then how many words/numbers are between 10. Which of the following is the last but one step of
‘insert’ and ‘50’? above input?
A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 1 A) 22 33 26 15 38 short puzzle file aspirant door
E) None B) 26 22 33 15 38 short puzzle file aspirant door
4. Which word/numbers come exactly between C) 22 33 15 38 aspirant 26 short puzzle file door
‘layout’ and ‘under’ in Step 5 of the given input? D) 26 22 33 15 38 short puzzle file door aspirant
A) 56, page B) 56 C) page D) 50 E) None of these
E) 50, insert
5. Which of the following combinations represents Directions (1 – 5): Answer the questions on the basis
the first two and the last two element of the step 6 of of the information given below.
the given Input?
A number arrangement machine when given an input of
A) layout, 56, gun, fire B) insert, 56,
words/numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule
land, gun
in each step. The following is an illustration of input and
C) fire, insert, gun, burst D) fire,
steps of rearrangement.
23, gun, burst
E) None of these Input: 22 finance 55 ground capital 48 member 18 reforms 43
Step 1: capital 22 finance 55 ground 48 member 18 reforms 43
Directions (6 – 10): Answer the questions on the basis of Step 2: capital 22 finance 55 ground 48 member reforms 43 16
the information given below. Step 3: capital finance 22 55 ground 48 member reforms 43 16
A number arrangement machine when given an input of Step 4: capital finance 55 ground 48 member reforms 43 16 24
numbers/words, rearranges them following a particular rule Step 5: capital finance ground 55 48 member reforms 43 16 24
in each step. The following is an illustration of input and Step 6: capital finance ground 55 48 member reforms 16 24 41

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Step 7: capital finance ground member 55 48 reforms 16 24 41 6. How many elements are between ‘effortless’
Step 8: capital finance ground member 55 reforms 16 24 41 50 and ’38’ in step 4?
Step 9: capital finance ground member reforms 55 16 24 41 50 A) None B) One C) Two D) Three
Step 10: capital finance ground member reforms 16 24 41 50 E) More than three
53 7. Which element is third to right of tenth element
This is the final arrangement and step 10 is the last step for from the right end in step 3?
this input. A) voice B) 45 C) 33 D)
effortless E) land
Input: street 73 vision discuss 13 44 meeting 62 arrive 23 8. What is the different in numbers which is
seventh from right end in step 3 and which is fourth
1. What is the position of ‘vision’ in step 4 from
from right end in step 6?
right end?
A) 10 B) 9 C) 7 D) 8
A) 3rd B) 4th C) 5th D) 6th E) 8th
E) 11
2. In step 6, if ‘discuss’ is related to ‘street’ and ‘73’
9. If in the Step 5, ‘humorless’ interchanges its
is related to ‘62’ in a certain way, then ‘vision’ is
position with ‘childless’ and ’24’ also interchanges its
related to which of the following?
position with ‘voice’, then how many elements are
A) street B) 73 C) 11 D) 62
there in between ‘voice’ and ‘humorless’?
E) None of these
A) 5 B) 4 C) 2 D) 3
3. How many steps are done to complete the
E) None of these
output?
10. Which of the following pair represents the first
A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 D) 9 E) 10
and last element in step 4?
4. How many words are between ‘meeting’ and
A) fearless, 24 B) landless, 40 C)
‘11’ in step 7?
humorless, 32
A) 3 B) 4 C) 2 D) 5 E) There is no such step
D) effortless, 24 E) None of these
5. Which of the following is the last but one step of
given input?
Directions (1 – 5): Answer the questions on the basis of
A) arrive discuss meeting street vision 11 25 42 64 71
the information given below.
B) arrive discuss meeting street 73 vision 11 25 42 64
C) arrive discuss meeting street vision 73 11 25 42 64 A number arrangement machine when given an input of
D) arrive discuss meeting street vision 73 13 25 42 64 words/numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule
E) None of these in each step. The following is an illustration of input and
steps of rearrangement.
Directions (6 – 10): Answer the questions on the basis of
the information given below. Input: unscramble puzzles 32 hijack 13 62 26 obedient
bookmarks 53 abacus 47
A number arrangement machine when given an input of
numbers/words, rearranges them following a particular rule Step 1: bookmarks unscramble puzzles 32 hijack 13 26
in each step. The following is an illustration of input and obedient 53 abacus 47 62
steps of rearrangement. Step 2: bookmarks puzzles unscramble hijack 13 26
obedient 53 abacus 47 32 62
Input: wire 40 25 color help 12 39 motion stain action 55 24 Step 3: bookmarks puzzles hijack unscramble 13 obedient
Step 1: actionless wire 40 25 color help 39 motion stain 55 53 abacus 47 26 32 62
24 14 Step 4: bookmarks puzzles hijack unscramble 13 obedient
Step 2: colorless actionless wire 40 help 39 motion stain 55 abacus 47 53 26 32 62
24 14 24 Step 5: bookmarks puzzles hijack unscramble obedient 13
Step 3: helpless colorless actionless wire 40 39 motion stain abacus 47 53 26 32 62
55 14 24 26 Step 6: bookmarks puzzles hijack unscramble obedient
Step 4: motionless helpless colorless actionless wire 40 abacus 13 47 53 26 32 62
stain 55 14 24 26 38
Step 5: stainless motionless helpless colorless actionless This is the final arrangement and step 6 is the last step for
wire 55 14 24 26 38 42 this input.
Step 6: wireless stainless motionless helpless colorless
actionless 14 24 26 38 42 54 Input: tulip 40 57 46 outburst 17 eager 25 bonfire 76
This is the final arrangement and step 6 is the last step for inspire following
this input.
1. Which word/number is 2nd to right of 7th from
Input: fear 15 22 humor 45 33 child 10 voice land 38 effort right end in step 3?
A) 17 B) 57 C) eager D) 25 E)
outburst

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2. How many words are there between ‘bonfire’ A) eager B) 32 C) 30 D)

and ‘eager’ in step 2? inspire E) None of these
A) One B) Three C) Five D) 7. How many words/numbers are there between
Four E) None of these ‘32’ and ‘eager’ in step 7?
3. Find the addition of numbers which are 3rd from A) One B) Three C) Five D)
left end in step1 and 5th from right end in step 3? Four E) None of these
A) 63 B) 69 C) 75 D) 65 8. Find the addition of numbers which are 5th from
E) 72 left end in step 4 and 5th from right end in step 9?
4. In step 4, ‘bonfire’ relates to ‘17’ and in step 2, A) 33 B) 41 C) 45 D) 39
‘tulip’ relates to ‘outburst’ in a certain way, then in E) 32
same way, what does ‘inspire’ relates to in last step? 9. In step 5, ‘inspire’ relates to ‘11’ and in step 8,
A) 17 B) 57 C) 25 D) tulip E) ‘11’ relates to ‘tulip’ in a certain way, then in same
outburst way, what does ‘following’ relates to in last step?
5. Which of the following pairs are the middle two A) 17 B) 30 C) bonfire D) tulip
words/numbers in step 4? E) 32
A) 25, inspire B) eager, 25 C) outburst, 17 D) 10. Which of the following pairs are the middle two
17,eagerE) None of these words/numbers in step 6?
A) 11, 32 B) 30, inspire C)
Directions (6 – 10): Answer the questions on the basis of outburst, 11
the information given below. D) 32, 30 E) None of these

A number arrangement machine when given an input of

I. Study the following information carefully and answer
words/numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule
in each step. The following is an illustration of input and the given questions.
steps of rearrangement.
When a word and number arrangement machine is given
Input: 43 signal 62 36 conspire 41 rotten 13 humble 24 an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them
piracy feast
following a particular rule. The following is an illustration
Step 1: conspire 43 signal 62 36 41 rotten 13 humble 24 of Input and rearrangement.(All the numbers are two digit
piracy feast
Step 2: conspire 43 signal 62 41 rotten 13 humble 24 piracy numbers.)
feast 36
Step 3: conspire signal 43 62 41 rotten 13 humble 24 piracy
feast 36 Input: 23 kite ant 64 near 71 58 open van 96 eagle 15
Step 4: conspire signal 43 41 rotten 13 humble 24 piracy
Step I: Open 23 kite ant 64 near 71 van 96 eagle 15 58
feast 62 36
Step 5: conspire signal feast 43 41 rotten 13 humble 24 Step II: eagle Open 23 kite ant near 71 van 96 15 58 64
piracy 62 36
Step III: ant eagle Open 23 kite near 71 van 15 58 64 96
Step 6: conspire signal feast 41 rotten 13 humble 24 piracy
43 62 36 Step IV: 15 ant eagle Open 23 kite near 71 58 64 96 van
Step 7: conspire signal feast rotten 41 13 humble 24 piracy
Step V: 23 15 ant eagle Open kite 71 58 64 96 van near
43 62 36
Step 8: conspire signal feast rotten 41 13 humble piracy 24 Step VI: 71 23 15 ant eagle Open 58 64 96 van near kite
43 62 36
Step 9: conspire signal feast rotten humble 41 13 piracy 24
43 62 36 Step VI is the largest step of above arrangement as
Step 10: conspire signal feast rotten humble 13 piracy 41 24
the indended arrangement as the intended arrangement is
43 62 36
Step 11: conspire signal feast rotten humble piracy 13 41 24 obtained
43 62 36
This is the final arrangement and step 6 is the last step for As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the
this input. appropriate steps for the Input.

Input: tulip 17 44 11 outburst 32 eager 30 bonfire 45

inspire following Input: average 59 36 super 81 ice ball 14 lemon 47 unit 62

6. Which word/number is 4th to right of 9th from

right end in step 4? Explanation

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PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

Input: average 59 36 super 81 ice ball 14 lemon 47 unit 62

Input: abaft 79 an abandon 57 14 able 86 63 abacus 42 ant
Step I: unit average 59 36 super 81 ice ball lemon 47 62 14
Step II: ice unit average 59 super 81 ball lemon 47 62 14 36 Step I: abandon abaft 79 an 57 able 86 63 abacus 42 ant 41
Step III: average ice unit 59 super 81 ball lemon 47 14 36 62
Step II: abacus abandon abaft 79 an 57 able 86 63 ant 41 24
Step IV : 47 average ice unit 59 81 ball lemon 14 36 62
super Step III: abaft abacus abandon 79 an able 86 63 ant 41 24
Step V : 59 47 average ice unit 81 ball 14 36 62 super lemon
Step VI : 81 59 47 average ice unit 14 36 62 super lemon 75
ball Step IV: able abaft abacus abandon 79 an 86 ant 41 an 75
36
1. Which elements come exactly between ’59’ and ‘ball’ in
Step V: ant able abaft abacus abandon an 86 41 24 75 36 97
Step II of the given input?
Step VI: an ant able abaft abacus abandon 41 24 75 36 97
A. only lemon B. Only 62 C. Only ice
68
D. Both 81 and Super E. Both average and 36
Step VI is the largest step of above arrangement as
2. Which of the following combinations represents the
the indended arrangement as the intended arrangement is
first two and the last two element of the step VI of the
obtained
given Input?
As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the
A. 81, 59, lemon, ball B. 81, 62, super, lemon
appropriate steps for the Input.
C. 50, 47, ball, super D. 62, 14, ice, unit
E. 62, 81, unit, lemon
Input: habit 63 hear 19 hacking 72 25 he hot 48 hacker 56
3. If in the Step III, ‘ice’ interchanges its position with ’81’
and ‘super’ also interchanges its position with ’14’, then
6. Which element comes exactly between ‘hacking’
which element will be third to the left of ’47’?
and ‘hear’ in Step III of the given input?
A. 14 B. Super C. average D. ice E. 81
A. 63 B. he C. 91 D. habit E. 56
4. Which step are the elements ‘ball lemon 47 14’ found
7. Which of the following combinations represent
in the same order?
the sixth and eighth element in Step II of the given input
A. Sixth B. Third C. Fourth
from left end?
D. The given order of elements is not found in any step
A. 63 and hacker B. hot and 63 C. 72 and hacker
E. fifth
D. 72 and hot E. 48 and habit
5. Which elements come exactly between ‘unit’ and ‘ball’
8. If in the last step ‘2’ is added to each of the odd
in step V of the given Input?
numbers and ‘1’ is subtracted from each of the
A. Only lemon B. Only 81 C. Only Ice D. Both
even numbers, then how many numbers multiple of ‘3’
81 and Super
will be formed?
E. Both Average and 36
A. Two B. One C. None D. Three E. More than three
II. Study the following information carefully and answer
9. Which element is fourth to the left of one which is
the given questions.
ninth from the left end in second last step?
When a word and number arrangement machine is given
A. habit B. 72 C. hacking D. 91 E. hacker
an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them
10. If the Step IV, ’72’ interchange its position with
following a particular rule. The following is an illustration
‘habit’ and ‘hacking’ also interchanges its position with
of Input and rearrangement.(All the numbers are two digit
’91’ then which element will be to the immediate right
numbers.)
of ’91’?

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PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

A. 63 B. he C. 52 D. hacking E. 72 When a word and number arrangement machine is given

I. Study the following information carefully and answer an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them
the given questions. following a particular rule. The following is an illustration
When a word and number arrangement machine is of Input and rearrangement.
given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges
them following a particular rule. The following is an INPUT : 14 12 10 8 6 Monkey Donkey Tiger Lion Rabbit
illustration of Input and rearrangement. STEP 1 : 14 12 10 8 6 Monkey Donkey Tiger Lion Rabbit
INPUT : Net Dog Apple Cat Ball Eagle Fan STEP 2 : 14 10 12 8 6 Monkey Donkey Tiger Lion Rabbit
STEP 1 : Dog Ball Net Cat Fan Apple Eagle STEP 3 : 14 10 6 12 8 Monkey Donkey Tiger Lion Rabbit
STEP 2 : Ball Fan Dog Cat Eagle Net Apple STEP 4 : 14 10 6 Donkey 12 8 Monkey Tiger Lion Rabbit
STEP 3 : Fan Eagle Ball Cat Apple Dog Net STEP 5 : 14 10 6 Donkey Lion 12 8 Monkey Tiger Rabbit
STEP 4 : Eagle Apple Fan Cat Net Ball Dog And step V is the last step of the above input. As per the
STEP 5 : Apple Net Eagle Cat Dog Fan Ball rules followed in the above step, find out the appropriate
STEP 6 : Net Dog Apple Cat Ball Eagle Fan step for the given output.
And step 6 is the last step of the above input. As per the
rules followed in the above step, find out the appropriate INPUT : 20 30 Facebook Whatsapp 10 15 Hike Wechat 12
step for the given output. 22

6. Which of the following term exactly comes

INPUT: Bull Mango Grapes Goat Boat Bug Android
between ‘30’ and ‘15’ in step 3?
1.Hike 2.Whatsapp 3.10 4.12 5.None of these
7. How many steps will be required to complete the
1. How many steps will be required to complete the
above input?
above input? 1.Three 2.Four 3.Five 4.Six 5.None of these
8. Which of the following will be the fourth step of
1.Six 2.Four 3.Seven 4.Eight 5.Ten the given input?
2. What is the position of ‘Bull’ in the step 5? 1.20 Facebook Hike 30 Whatsapp 10 15 Wechat 12 22
2.20 Hike Facebook 10 30 Whatsapp 15 Wechat 12 22
1.Seventh from the right 2.Sixth from the left 3.20 Facebook Hike 10 30 Whatsapp 15 Wechat 12 22
3.Fourth from the left 4.Sixth from the right 4.20 Facebook 10 Hike 30 Whatsapp 15 Wechat 12 22
5.None of these
5.None of these 9. How many elements are there between Facebook
3. How many words between ‘Grapes’ and ‘Boat’ in and Whatsapp in step 5?
1.One 2.Two 3.Three 4.Four 5.None of these
step 4? 10. Which of the following would be at the fifth
1.3 2.5 3.6 4.7 5.None of these position from the right end in step 2?
1.Hike 2.Whatsapp 3.10 4.12 5.15
4. Which of the following word get the same
I. Study the following information carefully and answer
position in all the six steps?
the given questions.
1.Bull 2.Goat 3.Bug 4.Android 5.None of these
When a word and number arrangement machine is given
5. Which of the following would be at the third
an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them
position from the left end in step 3?
following a particular rule. The following is an illustration
1.Bull 2.Goat 3.Bug 4.Android 5.Boat
of Input and rearrangement.

II. Study the following information carefully and answer

the given questions.

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PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

INPUT : 67 still 81 holy 22 all 89 about 56 india 29 over following a particular rule. The following is an illustration
STEP 1 : about 67 still 81 holy 22 all 89 56 india 29 over of Input and rearrangement.
STEP 2 : about 89 67 still 81 holy 22 all 56 india 29 over
STEP 3 : about 89 still 67 81 holy 22 all 56 india 29 over INPUT : 87 wolf 72 61 shock 76 new post 44 about 34 teach
STEP 4 : about 89 still 22 67 81 holy all 56 india 29 over STEP 1 : 34 wolf 72 61 shock 76 new post 44 about teach 87
STEP 5 : about 89 still 22 holy 67 81 all 56 india 29 over STEP 2 : 34 44 wolf 72 61 shock new post about teach 87 76
STEP 6 : about 89 still 22 holy 67india81 all 56 29 over STEP 3 : 34 44 61 wolf shock new post about teach 87 76 72
STEP 7 : about 89 still 22 holy 67 india 56 81 all 29 over STEP 4 : 34 44 61 wolf teach shock new post 87 76 72 about
STEP 8 : about 89 still 22 holy 67 india 56 over 81 all 29 STEP 5 : 34 44 61 wolf teach shock post 87 76 72 about new
STEP 9 : about 89 still 22 holy 67 india 56 over 29 81 all And step V is the last step of the above input. As per the
STEP10 : about 89 still 22 holy 67 india 56 over 29 all 81 rules followed in the above step, find out the appropriate
And step 10 is the last step of the above input. As per the step for the given output.
rules followed in the above step, find out the appropriate
step for the given output. INPUT : 25 every tell 51 should 13 rule 71 29 follow 67 last

INPUT: 59 file 24 every 62 union 31 large 44 state 19 royal 6. Which of the following term exactly comes
between ‘29’ and ‘tell’ in step 3?
1. How many step will be required to complete the 1.13 2.25 3.every 4.should 5.None of these
above input ? 7. How many step will be required to complete the
1.Six 2.Four 3.Seven 4.Eight 5.Ten above input ?
2. What is the position of ‘State’ in the step 5? 1.Three 2.Four 3.Five 4.Six 5.None of these
1.Seventh from the right 2.Sixth from the left 8. Which of the following will be the fourth step of
3.Fifth from the left 4.Sixth from the right the given input?
5.None of these 1.13 25 29 every tell should rule follow last 71 67 51
3. How many words/numbers between ‘31’ and 2.13 29 25 every should rule follow last 71 5167 tell
‘every’ in step 7? 3.13 25 29 every tell 51 should rule follow last 71 67
1.3 2.5 3.6 4.7 5.None of these 4.13 25 29 every tell should 51 rule follow last 71 67
4. Which of the following is third to the right of the 5.None of these
eighth element from the left end in Step 4? 9. How many elements are there between 51 and
1.Every 2.19 3.44 4.Royal 5.None of these Should in step 5 ?
5. Which of the following would be at the fourth 1.One 2.Two 3.Three 4.Four 5.None of these
position from the left end in step 3? 10. Which of the following would be at the fifth
1.31 2.union 3.large 4.24 5.None of these position from the right end in step 2?
II. Study the following information carefully and answer 1.71 2.51 3.rule 4.follow 5.None of these
the given questions. II. Study the following information carefully and answer
When a word and number arrangement machine is given the given questions.
an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them When a word and number arrangement machine is given
an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them

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PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

following a particular rule. The following is an illustration Which one of the following will be step VI?
of Input and rearrangement.(All the numbers are two digit A. 15 Green 25 Pink 60 Orange 30 Yellow
numbers.) B. 15 Orange 30 Pink 60 Green 25 Yellow
C. 15 Green 30 Pink 60 Orange 25 Yellow
Input : shirt 17 title 20 53 orange drum 39 D. There will be no such step
Step I : 39 title 17 20 53 orange drum shirt E. None of these
Step II : title 39 20 17 53 orange shirt drum
Step III: drum 20 39 17 53 orange shirt title Directions (Q. 1-5): Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Step IV : 20 drum 17 39 53 orange title shirt A number arrangement machine when given an input line
Step V : shirt 17 drum 39 53 orange title 20 of numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in
each step. The following is an illustration of input and
Step VI : 17 shirt 39 drum 53 orange 20 title various steps of rearrangement.
Step VI is the largest step of above arrangement as the
intended arrangement as the intended arrangement is
obtained
As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the
appropriate steps for the Input.

Input: Green 15 Yellow 25 60 Orange Pink 30

And Step VII is the last step of the rearrangement as the

6. How many steps will be required to complete the desired arrangement is obtained.
As per rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of
rearrangement? the questions the appropriate step for the given input.
Input : 625 441 289 100 729 961
A. Four B. Five C. Six D. Seven E. None of these
7. Which step are the elements ’15 30 60 Orange’
Q1. Which of the following is fifth from the left end of
found in the same order?
Step V in the above arrangement ?
A. Sixth B. Third C. Fourth A. 73 B. 80 C. 79 D. 49 E. 83
D. The given order of elements is not found in any step
E. fifth Q2. How many steps are needed to complete this
arrangement?
8. Which elements come exactly between ‘Pink’ and
A. V B. VII C. IX D. X E. VIII
’60’ in step V of the given Input?
Q3. Which of the following represents the last step?
A. Only Yellow B. Only 30 C. Only Orange A. 20 59 53 73 89 83 B. 30 49 53 73 79 83
D. Both 30 and Orange E. None of these C. 50 49 83 73 79 93 D. 20 49 53 73 79 83
E. None of these
9. If in the Step III, ’30’ interchanges its position with
‘orange’ and ’15’ also interchanges its position with ’60’, Q4. What is the position of ‘62' in Step II?
A. 2nd from the left end B. 2nd from the right end
then which element will be third to the right of ’15’? C. 3rd from the right end D. 4th from the left end
A. Yellow B. Orange C. 30 D. 60 E. None of these

E. None of these Q5. How many steps are required after the step III?
10. Step II of an Input is : A. 5 B. 6 C. 4 D. 2
E. 0
Yellow 30 25 15 60 Orange Green Pink

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

Directions (1 – 5): Answer the questions on the basis of Step 2: which 7 45 tide article 38 24 disclosure aerious 15
the information given below. Step 3: which 7 tide 45 article 38 24 disclosure aerious 15
A number arrangement machine when given an input of Step 4: which 7 tide 13 45 article 38 24 disclosure aerious
words/numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule Step 5: which 7 tide 13 article 45 38 24 disclosure aerious
in each step. The following is an illustration of input and Step 6: which 7 tide 13 article 26 45 38 disclosure aerious
steps of rearrangement. Step 7: which 7 tide 13 article 26 disclosure 45 38 aerious
Input: 6 cover 2 18 statement united 13 outer 21 19 punish Step 8: which 7 tide 13 article 26 disclosure 36 45 aerious
allow Step 9: which 7 tide 13 article 26 disclosure 36 aerious 45
Step 1: allow 2 6 cover 18 statement united 13 outer 21 19 Step 10: which 7 tide 13 article 26 disclosure 36 aerious 47
punish This is the final arrangement and step 10 is the last step for
Step 2: allow 2 6 cover 18 united 13 outer 19 punish this input.
statement 21
Step 3: allow 2 outer 13 6 cover 18 united 19 punish Input: aerious 14 accused 43 9 fireboard 30 that 58 wide
statement 21
Step 4: allow 2 outer 13 6 cover united 19 punish 18 6. Which word/number is third to right of fifth
statement 21 element from right end in step 6?
Step 5: allow 2 outer 13 united 19 6 cover punish 18 A) wide B) 43 C) 32 D) fireboard E)
statement 21 accused
Step 6: allow 2 outer 13 united 19 cover 6 punish 18
7. If ‘aerious’ is related to ‘11’ in step 8 and ‘43’ is
statement 21
related to ‘12’ in step 5, then in step 3 ‘accused’ is
This is the final arrangement and step 6 is the last step for
related to?
this input.
A) aidB) 24 C) 48 D) strew E) 14
Input: 3 dice queen 27 11 import energy 18 23 8 upper
house 8. How many numbers/words are between ‘wide’
and ‘32’ in step 7?
1. How many elements are between ‘import’ and A) None B) One C) Two D) Three
’23’ in step 3? E) More than three
A) None B) One C) Two D) Three
E) More than three 9. What is the difference in the numbers which are
2. Which element is third to left of sixth element fourth from left end and third from right end in step
from the right end in step 4? 8?
A) 18 B) 11 C) import D) dice E) A) 29 B) 28 C) 27 D) 36
house E) 24
3. Which step number is following step?
Step: energy 3 import 11 upper 8 23 dice house 18 10. Which numbers/words are at the starting and
queen 27 ending in step 9?
A) 6 B) 5 C) 3 D) 4 E) There is no such step A) that, aerious B) that, 58 C) 11, 60
D) that, 60 E) There is no such step
4. In step 5, ‘3’ is related to ‘upper’ in the same
way as in step 2, ‘import’ is related to ‘upper’. Now in
step 4, ‘dice’ is related to what in the same way?
A) upper B) 18 C) house SELECTION CRITERIA
D) import E) None of these
PRACTICE EXERCISE:
5. What is the multiplication of numbers, which are
fourth from left end and third from the right end in 1. For section in an interview, anyone can be
step 6? selected only after fulfilling all of the following criteria.
A) 198 B) 184 C) 297 The person should have age between 21 and 30 years
D) 54 E) 36 as on 01.03.2017. The person should have obtained at
least 60% marks in class 12 and graduation degree
Directions (6 – 10): Answer the questions on the basis of both. The person should have a work experience of at
the information given below. least a year. The person should have got 70% marks in
A number arrangement machine when given an input of written test and 90% in language proficiency.
numbers/words, rearranges them following a particular rule Sahil fulfills all the following criteria, then which of the
in each step. The following is an illustration of input and following criterion/criteria will not lead to his final
steps of rearrangement. selection?
Input: 45 tide article 38 24 disclosure which 5 aerious 15 (i) He was born on 21.02.1996.
Step 1: which 45 tide article 38 24 disclosure 5 aerious 15 (ii) He completed his graduation in 2016 with 62%

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

marks and 67% marks in class 12. A) if the employee is to be provided with
(iii) He has worked for 2 years in ABC Company. accommodation
(iv) He got 72% in written test and 95% in language B) if the employee is not to be provided with
proficiency. accommodation
A) Only (iii) B) Only (ii) and (iii)C) Only (ii) and (iv) C) Data inadequate
D) Only (i) E) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) D) if the case to be referred as Director
E) if the case to be referred as Managing Director.
2. For a job in a company following conditions need
to be fulfilled. 4. Rohit stays in a rented house with wife and 3
The candidate’s age must be in between 22 and 28 children. He was born on July 12 1969. He has been
years as on 01.02.2017. The candidate should have got working in the company for the last 12 years out of
at least 70% marks in written examination and 40% which 5 years in ABC department.
marks in interview. The candidate must be a graduate A) if the employee is to be provided with
and have a work experience of at least a year. If the accommodation
candidate is a female, then age relaxation of 2 years B) if the employee is not to be provided with
will be given. accommodation
A candidate has applied for the job and satisfies the C) Data inadequate
following conditions. Give the correct sequence in D) if the case to be referred as Director
which it can be found that the candidate gets the job E) if the case to be referred as Managing Director.
in minimum number of conditions.
(i) Got 75% marks both in written test and interview. 5. Dhruv joined the company as manager in 2010
(ii) Has certification in ABC Course. and was 30 years old on August 15, 2013. He has four
(iii) Was born on 07.08.1988. members in his family and both he and his wife do not
(iv) Has a work experience of 18 months own any house.
(v) The candidate is a female A) if the employee is to be provided with
A) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii), (v) B) (v), (i), (iii), (ii), (iv) C) (iv), accommodation
(v), (iii), (i), (ii) B) if the employee is not to be provided with
D) (i), (v), (iv), (ii), (iii) E) None of these accommodation
C) Data inadequate
Directions (3-6): Read the following information carefully D) if the case to be referred as Director
and then answer the questions given below it. E) if the case to be referred as Managing Director.

For getting a residential accommodation by a company, the 6. Kunal has been transferred from another office
employee must fulfill the following criteria: and was 53 years old on February 6 2016. He has been
(i) have worked with company for at least 10 years with at working in the company for the last 20 years out of
least 4 years in ABC department. which 6 years in ABC department. There are 4
(ii) have at most 5 members in the family members in his family and both he and his wife do not
(iii) have at least 5 years of service remaining with own any house.
retirement age being 58 years. A) if the employee is to be provided with
(iv) not be owner or co-owner (if spouse is owner) of a accommodation
house B) if the employee is not to be provided with
In the case of an employee who: accommodation
(v) satisfies all except (i) above and joined the company as a C) Data inadequate
manager, should be referred to Director D) if the case to be referred as Director
(vi) satisfies all except (iii) above and working as senior E) if the case to be referred as Managing Director.
manager in company, to be referred to Managing Director
(vii) has been transferred from another city, condition (i)
Directions (7-10): Read the following information carefully
can be waived.
and then answer the questions given below it.
Based on above conditions, decide whether or not the
accommodation will be provided or the case to be referred A society has kept the following conditions for the
to higher authority. All cases are presented on 31st July allotment of flats in their society:
2016. (i) produce domicile certificate of the State
(ii) must be earning for minimum of 5 years
3. Sakshi stays in a house with 2 other members.
(iii) be ready to pay the entire amount in 5 years period
Neither she nor her husband owns a house. She is a
(iv) not be owner or co-owner (if spouse is owner) of a
senior manager in company for the last years and has
residential accommodation in that city
been working in the company for the last 12 years
(v) not be less than 35 years of age as on 31st Dec 2016.
with 4 years in ABC department. She will retire in the
In case of applicant who satisfies all other criteria except:
year 2020
A) at (i) above, be referred to President of Town Council

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

B) at (ii) above, but is ready to provide Aadhar card should (b) be above 26 years and not above 35 years of age as on
be referred to Vice-Chairman of the Committee. 01-01-2017.
C) At (iii) above, but is a freedom fighter or an ex- (c) have a postgraduate degree or diploma (2 years full time
serviceman or first relation with these should be referred to in Finance) or must have completed CA/CS/ ICWA with
member of Committee above 50% marks.
The last date for receipt of application was 31st Dec, 2016. (d) have an experience of minimum three years in the
Conditions are to be fulfilled as on 31st Dec, 2016. Based on above areas.
these criteria decide whether to allot flat or not. The cases (e) be ready to be on probation for one year.
are given to you as on 1st Jan, 2017.
If a candidate satisfies all the criteria except
7. Sumit is son of an industrialist and from other (i) at (c) above, but is a Commerce graduate with minimum
state who has set his factory in 2000 and has a 70% marks and has been working in financial areas for at
domicile certificate of the state. He is ready to pay the least last five years, his/her case is to be referred to the
entire amount in 4 years if required. He does not own Asst General Manager – Personnel and Administration (PA).
a house in that city but his wife owns a flat there. His (ii) at (d) above, but has scored minimum 70% in post
date of birth is 11th Nov 1970. graduation (Finance) and has a minimum of two years of
A) Do not allot flat B) Refer to the experience in Finance, his/her case is to be referred to the
Chairman C) Refer to the President General Manager (PA).
D) Allot flat E) Data inadequate
In each question below are given details of one candidate.
8. Shilpa is daughter of a freedom fighter from You have to take one of the following courses of action
another state. She has domicile certificate of the state based on the information provided and the conditions and
and employed in the Town Council of city for last 6 sub conditions given above and mark the number of that
years. She can pay the entire amount in 5 years. She course of action as your answer.
has completed 34 years on 10th Dec, 2004. She does You are not to assume anything other than the information
not own a house in the city. provided in each question. All these cases are given to you
A) Refer to the Chairman B) Allot flat as on 01-01-2017.
C) Do not allot flat D) Refer to the President
E) Data inadequate 1. Rahul is a Science graduate with 65% marks and
has completed post-graduation in Finance. He
9. Madhav is a 38 years old senior clerk in an office completed 26 years of age in 2016 and has four years’
in the city. He is employed for the last 13 years but still experience as a Senior Manager. He is ready to join on
does not own a house. He has domicile certificate of one-year probation.
the state and is ready to pay the entire amount in 8 A) if the candidate is to be selected.
years. He is nephew of a freedom fighter. B) if the data given are not sufficient to take any
A) Do not allot flat B) Data decision.
inadequate C) Refer to the Vice-Chairman C) if the case is to be referred to the Asst General
D) Refer to the Chairman E) Allot flat Manager.
D) if the case is to be referred to the General
10. Garima, a domicile of the state and a married
Manager.
woman of 36 years, has been running an ice-cream
E) if the candidate is not to be selected.
parlor in the city since 4th March 2002. Her husband
works in a nearby city but both of them do not own a 2. Mukul is a gold medalist CA and Class I graduate
house in the city. She can pay the entire amount in 5 with 77% and 82% marks respectively. He has been
years. working as a professor in Finance for the past four
A) Allot flat years and has also been a freelance Finance
B) Data inadequate Consultant for the past two years.
C) Do not allot flat A) if the case is to be referred to Executive Head.
D) Refer to the Chairman B) if the case is to be referred to Vice President.
E) Refer to the Vice-Chairman C) if the candidate is to be selected.
D) if the information is inadequate to take a decision.
Directions (1 – 5): Study the following information E) if the candidate is not to be selected.
carefully and answer the questions given below:
3. Shivani, a 27-year-old Commerce graduate with
Following are the criteria to recruit a Finance Consultant in 62% post-graduated in Finance with 72% marks. She
an organisation: has been working with a Finance organisation for the
The candidate must last two years. She is ready to join on one-year
(a) be a graduate in any discipline with minimum 65% probation.
marks. A) if the case is to be referred to Executive Head.

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

B) if the case is to be referred to Vice President. A) if the candidate is to be selected.

C) if the candidate is to be selected. B) if the case is to be referred to the President.
D) if the information is inadequate to take a decision. C) if the case is to be referred to the Director.
E) if the candidate is not to be selected. D) if the case is to be referred to the DGM.
E) if the candidate is not to be selected.
4. Avneesh is a Commerce graduate with 74%
marks and has been working for the past eight years 7. Rohit is 26 years old and has been working in a
during which he worked as Accounts Manager for two software company for the past three years. He has
years. He is pursuing ICWA. He was born on scored 74% and 81% marks in HSC and graduation
05.10.1985 and is ready to join on one-year probation. respectively. He is willing to sign a bond with the
A) if the case is to be referred to Executive Head. company.
B) if the case is to be referred to Vice President. A) if the candidate is to be selected.
C) if the candidate is to be selected. B) if the case is to be referred to the President.
D) if the information is inadequate to take a decision. C) if the case is to be referred to the Director.
E) if the candidate is not to be selected. D) if the case is to be referred to the DGM.
E) if the candidate is not to be selected.
5. Aditya has been working as Senior Manager for
the past eight years. He has completed MBA Finance 8. Navneet is a Mechanical Engineer with 65%
and graduation with 70% marks each and is ready to marks in graduation and 87% marks in HSC. He
join on probation for a year. He was born on 19th completed his engineering degree in 2013 at the age
March 1984. of 22 years and immediately started working in an
A) if the case is to be referred to Executive Head. engineering firm. He is interested in going to France
B) if the case is to be referred to Vice President. and is not ready to sign a bond. However, he does not
C) if the candidate is to be selected. mind to pay an amount of Rs.1 lakh.
D) if the information is inadequate to take a decision. A) if the candidate is to be selected.
E) if the candidate is not to be selected. B) if the case is to be referred to the President.
C) if the case is to be referred to the Director.
Directions (6 – 10): Study the following information D) if the case is to be referred to the DGM.
carefully and answer the questions given below: E) if the candidate is not to be selected.
A software company has decided to recruit engineers. The
following criteria is to be applied. A candidate must 9. Karishma is an engineering graduate with 64%
(i) be an engineering graduate with at least 60% marks in marks in degree and 92% marks in HSC. She joined an
graduation and 80% marks in HSC. engineering firm two years ago at the age of 24 years.
(ii) have work experience of minimum 1 year. She is ready to sign a bond with the company.
(iii) be ready to sign a bond of three years. A) if the candidate is to be selected.
(iv) not be more than 28 years and not less than 21 years as B) if the case is to be referred to the President.
on 1.2.2017. C) if the case is to be referred to the Director.
However, if the candidate fulfils all the above criteria D) if the case is to be referred to the DGM.
except E) if the candidate is not to be selected.
(a) (i), but has obtained 50% in graduation and 70% in HSC
and has at least three years, experience of working, the 10. Ravina is a Computer Engineer and has obtained
case may be referred to the Director. 61% and 83% marks in graduation and HSC
(b) (iii), but is willing to pay an amount of ?1 lakh if he is respectively. She is 27 years old and can sign a bond.
required to leave, the case may be referred to the A) if the candidate is to be selected.
President. B) if the case is to be referred to the President.
(c) (ii), but is a computer engineer, the case is to be referred C) if the case is to be referred to the Director.
to the DGM. D) if the case is to be referred to the DGM.
In each question below are given details of one candidate. E) if the candidate is not to be selected.
You have to take one of the following courses of action
based on the information provided and the conditions and Directions (1-2): For final selection, anyone can be
sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that selected only after fulfilling all of the following criteria.
course of action as your answer. The reference date is The person should be in the age range 22 to 28 years as on
1.2.2017. You are not to assume anything other than the 01.02.2017. The person should have obtained at least 60%
information provided in each question. marks in class 12 and graduation degree both. The person
should have a work experience of at least 1 year. The
6. Kashish is an Electrical Engineer and has been
person should have a certification in ABC course. The
working as an Assistant Engineer for the past two
person should have cleared at least 3 rounds of interview.
years. She had scored 82% and 87% marks in
graduation and HSC respectively. She has just
completed 25 years of age.
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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

1. Bhuvan fulfills all the following criteria, then 4. A candidate who has applied for job satisfies the
which of the following criterion/criteria will not lead following conditions:
to his final selection? (i) The candidate got 52% marks in interview.
(i) He was born on 12.10.1989. (ii) The candidate has work experience of 15 months.
(ii) He completed his graduation in 2016 with 62% (iii) The candidate was born on 22.12.1990.
marks and 67% marks in class 12. (iv) The candidate is a female.
(iii) After completing his graduation, he started job (v) The candidate got 72% marks in written test and
and left on 30.11.2016 to complete certification in 50% in graduation. Give the correct sequence in which
ABC course. it can be found that the candidate gets the job in
(iv) He cleared 4 rounds of interview. minimum number of conditions.
A) Only (i) B) Only (ii) and (iii) A) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii), (v) B) (v), (i), (iii), (ii), (iv) C) (iv),
C) Only (ii) and (iv) (v), (iii), (i), (ii)
D) Only (iii) E) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) D) (i), (v), (iv), (ii), (iii) E) None of these

5. For a job in a bank as manager following

conditions need to be fulfilled.
Work experience of at least 3 years in a bank. At least
He completed graduation in 2016 and left on 55% marks in post-graduation in Economics. At least
30.11.2016. This means he has worked for less than a 60% marks in graduation. Must be 23 – 27 years as on
year. So (iii) condition will not lead to his selection 01.02.2017. Must secure at least 70% marks in the
written examination and at least 35% marks in the
2. Bhavika fulfills all the following criteria, then personal interview. Must have qualified at least one
which of the following criterion/criteria will not lead promotional exam in the bank. If there is a
to his final selection? certification in ABC course, then that will be a plus
(i) She was born on 22.12.1990. point for the candidate.
(ii) She completed her graduation with 69% marks and Suhani who has applied for the manager post in the
82% marks in class 12. bank has previously worked in a bank as officer for 4
(iii) She has worked for 15 months, where she got years. In the 4 years of service, she gave 3
certification in ABC course. promotional exams and qualified them. She qualified
(iv) She cleared 3 rounds of interview. the written examination with 80% marks and
A) Only (i) B) Only (i) and (iii) interview with 55%. Which of the following
C) Only (ii) and (iv) condition/s she must fulfill to get the job?
D) Only (iii) E) None of these (i) She did ABC course last year.
(ii) She secured 60% in M.Sc with Economics as her
subject.
The criteria in all 4 points fulfills the condition for her
(iii) She did her graduation in economics stream with
selection.
62% marks
Directions (3-4): For a job in a company following (iv) She got 62% in B.Sc and 60% in M.Sc with
conditions need to be fulfilled. economics.
The candidate’s age must be in between 22 and 28 years as (v) As per her resume, her date of birth is 17.02.1993.
on 01.02.2017. The candidate should have got at least 70% A) Only (i) and (iv)
marks in written examination and 40% marks in interview. B) Only (ii), (iii), and (v)C) Only (ii), (iv) and (v)
The candidate must be a graduate and have a work D) Only (i), (iv) and (v)
experience of at least a year. If the candidate is a female, E) Only (iv) and (v)
then age relaxation of 2 years will be given.
6. Following are the conditions for selecting
3. A candidate has applied for the job and satisfies Trainee Officers in an organization. The candidate
the following conditions. Give the correct sequence in must –
which it can be found that the candidate gets the job Be a graduate in any discipline with at least 55%
in minimum number of conditions. marks. Has secured at least 60% marks in class 12. Be
(i) Got 50% marks in interview. at least 22 years and not more than 29 years as on
(ii) Got 60% marks in his graduation. 1.1.2017. Have secured at least 40% marks in the
(iii) Was born on 07.08.1990. selection examination. Have secured at least 50%
(iv) After graduation, worked for 13 months in ABC marks in personal interview. Be ready to sign a bond
company. for 2 years.
(v) Got 78% marks in written test. Kavya who has applied for the Trainee Officer did
A) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii), (v) B) (v), (i), (iii), (ii), (iv) B.Com with 65% marks. She was born on 06.05.1985.
C) (iv), (v), (iii), (i), (ii) She is ready to sign a bond of 2 years. Which of the
D) (i), (v), (iv), (ii), (iii) E) None of these following condition/s she must fulfill to get the job?

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

(i) She secured 82% marks in class 12. E) if the data provided are inadequate to take a
(ii) She secured 56% marks in M.Com decision.
(iii) She got 55% marks in interview and 45% in
selection examination. 9. Kavita was born on 14.03.1983. She has secured
(iv) She got 65% in B.Com and 56% in M.Com 65% marks in selection examination. She has also
A) Only (i) and (iii) secured 60% marks in graduation and 48% marks in
B) Only (ii) and (iv) personal interview. She has a work experience of 3
C) Only (iii) years. She did her post-graduation in Management
D) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) with specialization in Economics with 65% marks.
E) She will not be selected A) if the candidate is to be selected
B) if the candidate is not to be selected
Directions (7 – 10): Study the following information C) if the case is to be referred as GM-Personnel.
carefully and answer the questions given below: D) if the case is to be referred as SVP-Personnel.
Following are the conditions for selecting a Deputy E) if the data provided are inadequate to take a
personnel Manager in an organization. decision.
The candidate must – 10. Isha was born on 04.11.1986. She has secured
(i) be a graduate in any discipline with at least 55% marks. 70% marks in graduation. She has secured 50% marks
(ii) be at least 30 years and not more than 35 years as on in both the selection examination and personal
01-02-2017. interview. She has a work experience of 5 years. She
(iii) be ready to pay Rs 40,000 as security deposit. can pay a maximum of Rs 30,000 as a security deposit.
(iv) have work experience of at least 3 years. Additionally, she is ready to sign a bond of 1 year.
(v) cleared written examination with at least 50% marks A) if the candidate is to be selected
(vi) cleared personal interview with at least 40% marks B) if the candidate is not to be selected
In the case of candidate who fulfills all conditions except – C) if the case is to be referred as GM-Personnel.
(a) at (i) above, but has secured at least 55% marks in post D) if the case is to be referred as SVP-Personnel.
graduate in Management with specialization in E) if the data provided are inadequate to take a
Economic/Statistics, the case is to be referred as GM-
decision.
Personnel.
(b) at (iii) above, but is ready to sign a bond of 1 year, the Directions (1 – 5): Study the following information
case is to be referred as SVP-Personnel. carefully and answer the questions given below:
Following are the conditions for selecting a Manager in a
In each question below, details of a candidate are company.
provided followed by a question and 5 courses of action. The candidate must –
Select the course of action that applies to the person’s (i) be a graduate in any discipline with at least 55% marks.
candidature. (ii) be a post graduate in Management with specialization in
Finance with at least 65% marks.
7. Roopa was born on 17.07.1985. She has secured (iii) have work experience of at least 4 years in finance
64% marks in BA and 54% marks in personal interview. department.
She is ready to pay a security deposit of Rs 40,000. She (iv) be at least 26 years and not more than 36 years as on
has secured 57% marks in written examination. She 01-12-2016.
has work experience of 4 years.
A) if the candidate is to be selected In the case of candidate who fulfills all conditions except –
B) if the candidate is not to be selected (a) at (ii) above, but has secured at least 60% marks in post
C) if the case is to be referred as GM-Personnel. graduate in Management with specialization in Finance and
D) if the case is to be referred as SVP-Personnel. at least 70% marks in graduation, his case to be referred as
E) if the data provided are inadequate to take a DGM.
decision. (b) at (iii) above, but has work experience of at least 2 years
as Assistant Finance Manager, his case to be referred as
GM.
8. Kashish was born on 12.12.1986. She has
secured 56% marks in graduation. She has also In each question below, details of a candidate are provided
secured 55% marks in both the selection examination followed by a question and 5 courses of action. Select the
and personal interview. She is ready to sign a bond for course of action that applies to the person’s candidature.
1 year.
A) if the candidate is to be selected 1. Karan was born on 19th March 1986. He has
B) if the candidate is not to be selected been working in finance department of an
C) if the case is to be referred as GM-Personnel. organization for the past 5 years. He has secured 67%
D) if the case is to be referred as SVP-Personnel. marks in B.Com and 75% marks in his post-
graduation.

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

Which of the following will be a course of action if C) Both (ii) and (iii)
Karan applies? D) Both (i) and (iii)
A) Karan will be selected. E) None of these
B) Data provided are inadequate to take the decision.
C) Karan will not be selected. Directions (6 – 10): Study the following information
D) Karan will be offered as DGM post. carefully and answer the questions given below:
E) Karan will be offered as GM post. Following are the conditions for selecting an IT officer
in an organization.
2. Bhuvan was born on 7th November 1987. He The candidate must –
has been working for the past four years as Assistant (i) be a BE/BTech in IT or Computer Science with at
Finance Manager in an organization. He has secured least 60% marks.
70% marks in B.Sc and 70% marks in his post- (ii) be at least 20 years and not more than 26 years as
graduation in Management with specialization in on 01-11-2016.
Finance. (iii) have secured at least 60% marks in written test
Which of the following will be a course of action if (iv) have secured at least 40% marks in interview
Bhuvan applies?
A) He will be selected. In the case of candidate who fulfills all conditions except –
B) Data provided are inadequate to take the decision. (a) At (ii) above, but is a post graduate, his case to be
C) He will not be selected. referred as GM.
D) He will be offered as DGM post. (b) at (iv) above, but has secured at least 35% marks in
E) He will be offered as GM post. interview and at least 70% marks in written test, his case to
be referred as VP.
3. Karuna has been working in the finance
department of an organization for the past 7 years In each question below, details of a candidate are provided
after completing her post-graduation with 68% followed by a question and 5 courses of action. Select the
marks. She secured 52% in her graduation and was course of action that applies to the person’s candidature.
born on 12th January 1988.
Which of the following will be a course of action if 6. Karan was born on 19th March 1995. He has
Karuna applies? secured 65% marks in BE-IT. He has secured 62%
A) She will be selected. marks in both written test and interview.
B) Data provided are inadequate to take the decision. Which of the following will be a course of action if
C) She will not be selected. Karan applies?
D) She will be offered as DGM post. A) Karan will be selected.
E) She will be offered as GM post. B) Data provided are inadequate to take the decision.
C) Karan will not be selected.
4. Meeta was born on 26th July 1989. She has D) Karan will be offered as GM post.
been working in the finance department of an E) Karan will be offered as VP post.
organization. Which condition/s below will lead to
her selecting as the DGM. 7. Bhuvan was born on 7th November 1989. He
(i) She secured 66% marks in post-graduation and 57% has secured 70% marks in B.Tech and 70% marks in
marks in graduation. his M.Tech. He has secured 65% marks in both
(ii) She worked in finance department for 5 years. written test and interview.
(iii) She secured 63% marks in post-graduation and Which of the following will be a course of action if
74% marks in graduation. Bhuvan applies?
A) Both (i) and (ii) A) He will be selected.
B) Only (iii) B) Data provided are inadequate to take the decision.
C) Only (i) C) He will not be selected.
D) Both (ii) and (iii) D) He will be offered as GM post.
E) None of these E) He will be offered as VP post.

5. Medha has been working as Assistant Finance 8. Karuna has secured 78% marks in written test
Manager in an organization for the past 3 years. and 38% marked in interview. She secured 62% in
Which condition/s below will lead to her selecting as B.tech-IT and was born on 12th January 1991.
the GM. Which of the following will be a course of action if
(i) She was born on 5th April 1992 Karuna applies?
(ii) She was born on 4th November 1990 A) She will be selected.
(iii) She secured 69% marks in post-graduation and B) Data provided are inadequate to take the decision.
74% marks in graduation. C) She will not be selected.
A) Either (i) or (ii) and (iii) D) She will be offered as GM post.
B) Only (iii) E) She will be offered as VP post.

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

9. Meeta was born on 26th July 1991. She did her decision.
graduation and post-graduation in Computer B) if the case is to be referred to VP.
department. Which condition/s below will lead to C) if the case is to be referred to President.
her selecting as the GM. D) if the candidate is to be selected.
(i) She secured 68% in graduation and 65% both in E) if the candidate is not to be selected.
written test and interview.
(ii) She secured 65% in BE. 2. Ankita was born on June 2, 1986. She has been
(iii) She secured 63% marks in written test and 74% working as officer in a bank for the past 3 years after
marks in interview. completing her post graduate degree in Statistics with
A) Both (i) and (ii) 60% marks. She has secured 68% marks in class 12 and
B) Only (iii) 58% marks in B.Sc. She has also secured 50% marks in
C) Only (i) both the written examination and personal interview.
D) Both (ii) and (iii) A) if the data provided are inadequate to take a
E) None of these decision.
B) if the case is to be referred to VP.
10. Medha completed her BTech in IT in the year C) if the case is to be referred to President.
2012. Which condition/s below will lead to her D) if the candidate is to be selected.
selecting as the IT officer? E) if the candidate is not to be selected.
(i) She secured 65% marks in written test.
(ii) She was born on 4th November 1990. 3. Keshav has been working in a bank as officer for
(iii) She secured 50% marks in interview. the past 4 years after completing his post graduate
A) Both (i) and (iii) diploma in management with 60% marks. He has
B) Both (ii) and (iii) secured 50% and 40% marks in the written
C) Both (i) and (ii) examination and personal interview respectively. He
D) All (i), (ii) and (iii) also secured 70% marks in class 12. He was born on
E) Data provided are inadequate to take the decision. February 25, 1981.
A) if the data provided are inadequate to take a
Directions (1 – 5): Study the following information decision.
carefully and answer the questions given below: B) if the case is to be referred to VP.
Following are the conditions for selecting a Senior Manager C) if the case is to be referred to President.
in a bank. D) if the candidate is to be selected.
The candidate must – E) if the candidate is not to be selected.
(i) have passed class 12th with at least 60% marks.
(ii) be a graduate in any discipline with at least 55% marks. 4. Neha was born on November 8, 1984. She
(iii) be a post graduate in Management with specialization secured 65% marks in class 12 and 60% marks in
in Economic/Statistics with at least 60% marks. graduation degree. She secured 58% marks in M.Com
(iv) have work experience of at least 2 years in a bank. Statistics and 60% marks in CA. She has been working
(v) be at least 25 years and not more than 35 years as on in a bank as officer for the past 2 years. She also
01-03-2016. secured 50% marks in the written examination and
(vi) cleared written examination with at least 50% marks 45% marks in personal interview.
(vii) cleared personal interview with at least 40% marks A) if the data provided are inadequate to take a
In the case of candidate who fulfills all conditions except – decision.
(a) at (iii) above, but has secured at least 60% marks in CA, B) if the case is to be referred to VP.
the case is to be referred as VP. C) if the case is to be referred to President.
(b) at (vii) above, but has cleared written examination with D) if the candidate is to be selected.
at least 60% marks and personal interview with at least 35% E) if the candidate is not to be selected.
marks, his case to be referred as President. 5. Yukta has been working in a bank as officer for
the past 4 years after competing her post graduate
In each question below, details of a candidate are provided
degree in Economics with 60% marks. She also
followed by a question and 5 courses of action. Select the
secured 60% marks both in graduation and class 12.
course of action that applies to the person’s candidature.
She was born on August 24, 1985. She has secured
70% marks in the written examination and 38% marks
1. Karan has secured 65% in B.Com and 70% marks
in the personal interview.
in M.Com Economics. He has been working in a bank
A) if the data provided are inadequate to take a
as officer for the past 3 years after completing his
decision.
post-graduation. He secured 55% marks in the written
B) if the case is to be referred to VP.
examination and 50% marks in the personal interview.
C) if the case is to be referred to President.
He was born on July 8, 1988.
D) if the candidate is to be selected.
A) if the data provided are inadequate to take a
E) if the candidate is not to be selected.

[Type text] 76
 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

Directions (6 – 10): Study the following information 9. Lata was born on March 14, 1991. She has
carefully and answer the questions given below: secured 62% marks in class 12 and 65% marks in
Following are the conditions for selecting Trainee Officers in selection examination. She has also secured 58%
an organization. marks in graduation and 48% marks in personal
The candidate must – interview. She is ready to sign a bond for 2 years.
(i) be a graduate in any discipline with at least 55% marks. A) if the candidate is to be selected
(ii) has secured at least 60% marks in class 12. B) if the candidate is not to be selected
(iii) be at least 22 years and not more than 29 years as on C) if the case is to be referred as ED.
1.1.2016 D) if the case is to be referred as Chairman.
(iv) have secured at least 40% marks in the selection E) if the data provided are inadequate to take a
examination decision.
(v) have secured at least 50% marks in personal interview
(v) be ready to sign a bond for 2 years. 10. Sunil was born on November 4, 1988. He has
In the case of candidate who fulfills all conditions except – secured 67% marks in class 12 and 50% marks in
(a) At (i) above, but is a qualified CA, the case is to be graduation. He also has qualified CA exam. He has
referred to ED. secured 50% marks in both the selection examination
(b) at (v) above, but has secured at least 60% marks in the and personal interviewer. He is ready to sign a bond
selection examination, the case is to be referred to for 2 years.
Chairman. A) if the candidate is to be selected
B) if the candidate is not to be selected
In each question below, details of a candidate are provided C) if the case is to be referred as ED.
followed by a question and 5 courses of action. Select the D) if the case is to be referred as Chairman.
course of action that applies to the person’s candidature. E) if the data provided are inadequate to take a
decision.
6. Yuvan has secured 62% marks in class 12 and
59% marks in BSc. He was born on July 15, 1990. He
secured 50% marks in both the selection examination
and personal interview. He is ready to sign a bond for
2 years.
A) if the candidate is to be selected
B) if the candidate is not to be selected
C) if the case is to be referred as ED.
D) if the case is to be referred as Chairman.
E) if the data provided are inadequate to take a
decision.

7. Archana was born on May 8, 1992. She has

secured 60% marks in class 12 and BA. She is ready to
sign a bond for 2 years. She has secured 50% marks in
selection examination and 40% marks in personal
interview.
A) if the candidate is to be selected B) if ALPHANEUMERIC SEQUENCE
the candidate is not to be selected
C) if the case is to be referred as ED. D) if the case is Directions (6-10): Study the following arrangement and
to be referred as Chairman. answer questions given:
E) if the data provided are inadequate to take a
decision. E3*LJ8#R14%SAδ6K9M$X7βBZ@2L

8. Anuj was born on December 2, 1986. He has 6. How many such symbols are there which is
secured 56% marks in BTech and 63% marks in class immediately followed by number and immediately
12. He has also secured 55% marks in both the followed by letter?
selection examination and personal interview. He is A) FourB) Two C) None D) OneE) Three
ready to sign a bond for 2 years.
A) if the candidate is to be selected 7. How many such numbers are there in the above
B) if the candidate is not to be selected arrangement each of which is immediately preceded
C) if the case is to be referred as ED. by a symbol and immediately followed by a letter ?
D) if the case is to be referred as Chairman. A) None B) One C) Two
E) if the data provided are inadequate to take a D) Three E) More than three
decision. 8. Complete the series: K9 X δ6M SAK ?
A) %AXB) 4%AC) SA%D) 4%δE) None of these

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

9. If all the numbers are dropped from the above A) None B) One C) Two D)
sequence, then which element is eleventh from the Three E) More than three
right end? 10. Four of the five are alike in a certain way, which
A) M B) % C) S D) δ E) A does not belong to the group?
A) S1$ B) Q$E C) H©@ D) RI1
10. Four of the five are alike in a certain way based E) ZHM
on arrangement, which does not belong to the group? Directions (1-5): Study the following arrangement and
A) LJ*B) SA% C) K96 D) M9$ E) BZβ answer questions given:

B8C%S&EK4$92!VA6@TI8Z#U5
Directions (6-10): Study the following arrangement and
answer questions given:
1. Which of the following is fifth to the right of
eleventh from the right end of the given series?
B6U&R1P5#FD@I2Q8©KM%W3EA4*H9T
A) $ B) 4 C) 8 D) T E) I
6. If all the numbers are dropped from the 2. If all the symbols are dropped from the series,
arrangement, then which of the following is the 6th which number/letter will be 5th to the left of T?
letter to the right of the 20th letter from the right A) V B) 9 C) 2 D) 5 E) 4
end? 3. How many symbols are in between 9 and U?
A) F B) @ C) D D) © E) P A) None B) One C) Two
D) Three E) More than three
7. How many such numbers are there in the above 4. How many numbers are immediately preceeded
arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a
by a symbol and immediately followed by a letter ? symbol?
A) None B) One C) Two A) None B) One C) Two
D) Three E) More than three D) Three E) More than three
8. Complete the series: F@# 28I K%© ? 5. Four of the five below follows a certain pattern.
A) EAW B) W3A C) 3AW Find which one does not follow the pattern.
D) 3EW E) None of these A) 92K B) @TV C) 8ZT
9. How many such consonants are there each of D) VA9 E) %SB
which is immediately preceded by a number? Directions (6-10): Study the following arrangement and
A) None B) One C) Two answer questions given:
D) Three E) More than three
C?TFL6$D%M#8R=B!K1&EW*PA+Q@7J2
10. Four of the five are alike in a certain way based
on arrangement, which does not belong to the group? 6. How many such numbers are there in the above
A) WEM B) MW© C) @2F sequence, each of which is immediately preceded by a
D) 6&U E) *9A consonant and immediately followed by a symbol?
A) None B) One C) Three D)
Four E) None of these
Directions (6-10): Study the following arrangement and 7. Which of the following is sixth to the left of
answer questions given: eighteenth element from the left?
A) = B) R C) 1 D) 8 E) None of these
A^DN3&GE29Q$*CS1)RI4M@!ZH5©KLU 8. If the above sequence is written in reverse order
then which of the following will be sixth to the right of
6. If all the symbols are dropped from the sixteenth element from the right end?
arrangement, then which of the following is the 8th A) M B) E C) B D) * E) None of these
letter to the right of the 18th letter from the right 9. If the first fifteen elements in the above
end? sequence are written in reverse order, then which of
A) 4 B) 1 C) I D) R E) S the following wilbe twenty-first from the right end?
7. How many consonants are there in the A) 6 B) $ C) % D) L E) None of these
arrangement each of which is immediately followed 10. What should come in place of question mark in
by a symbol? the following on the basis of above sequence?
A) NoneB) One C) Two ?CF:J2@:LF$:Q@A:D$M:?
D) Three E) More than three A) # M R B) P A W C) P * +
8. Complete the series: N&D E9G $CQ ? D) P A * E) None of these
A) $1S B) S)C C) 1)S D) 1RS
E) None of these
9. How many such numbers are there each of
which is immediately preceded by a symbol?

[Type text] 78
 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

Directions (1-5): Study the following arrangement and D) 2.00 E) 0.59

answer questions given:
H4R%MA#K2P5I©N3W@F&J1UV9QED78 I. Directions(Q.No: 1-5)Study the following arrangement to
answer the given questions
1. If all the symbols are dropped from the R#TU3D$J@BE9©W1AF%P24QIN6M*Z5
arrangement, then which of the following is the 6th
letter to the right of the 15th letter from the right
end? 1. If all the numbers are dropped from the above
A) N B) J C) E D) 1 E) None of these arrangement, which of the following will be the ninth from
the right end?
2. How many consonants are there in the 1.A 2.F 3.W 4.R 5.T
arrangement each of which is immediately followed
by a letter? 2. Which of the following will be the sixth to the left of
A) None B) One C) Two the fourteenth from the left end of the above
arrangement?
D) Three E) More than three 1.R 2.T 3.U 4.J 5.None of these
3. Which of the following is the fifth to the right of the
3. Complete the series: QEU V9J 1UF &JW ?
thirteenth to the left of Q in the given arrangement?
A) @N© B) @FN C) FNB
1.W 2.@ 3.U 4.* 5.None of these
D) @WN E) None of these 4. How many such vowels are there in the above
arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by
4. How many such numbers are there each of a consonant and immediately followed by a number?
which is immediately preceded by a symbol? 1.None2.One 3.Two 4.Three 5.Four
A) None B) One C) Two 5. How many such symbols are there in the above
arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded
D) Three E) More than three and also immediately followed by consonant?
5. Four of the five are alike in a certain way, which 1.One 2.Two 3.Three 4.More than four 5.None
does not belong to the group?
A) P52 B) QE9 C) MA# II. Directions(Q.No: 6-10) Study the following
arrangement to answer the given questions
D) ©NI E) F&@ Q9K#P@3ENSAC*G©UM7FIV%4Z8Y

Directions (6-10): Study the following arrangement and

answer questions given: 6. If all the numbers are dropped from the above
648 483 295 333 261 312 arrangement, which of the following will be the
seventeenth from the right end?
6. If the positions of first and second digits are 1.E 2.P 3.I 4.C 5.@
changed in each number, which is the lowest number? 7. Which of the following is the sixth to the left of
A) 261 B) 312 C) 295 the fifth to the left of “V”?
D) 648 E) 483 1.3 2.A 3.N 4.S 5.None of these
7. If in each number 1 is added to first digit and 8. Which of the following is the eighth to the right of
then first and third are interchanged, then which is the the fourteenth from the left end of the above
largest number? arrangement?
A) 312 B) 261 C) 295 1.V 2.4 3.% 4.E 5.None of these
D) 648 E) None of these 9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
8. In all numbers are arranged in ascending order, way based on their positions in the above arrangement
then what is the difference between the numbers and so form a group. Which is the one that does not
which is third from the left and second from the right? belong to that group?
A) 186 B) 171 C) 165 1.IM% 2.CNG 3.3#N
D) 123 E) None of these 4.UGC 5.GAU
9. If one is subtracted from all even digits in the 10. How many such symbols are there in above
numbers, then in how many numbers, a digit appear arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by
twice within a number? an alphabet and immediately followed by a number?
A) None B) One C) Two 1.One 2.Two 3.Three
D) Three E) More than three 4.More than three 5.None
10. What is the resultant if first digit of second
highest number is divided by the second digit of the I. Directions(Q.No: 1-5)Study the following arrangement to
second lowest number? answer the given questions
A) 1.32 B) 0.94 C) 0.44 D3M%RA$K2P5E©N4W@F8Z#6&V*9QU!1
Y
[Type text] 79
PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

1. If all the symbols are dropped from the above 2. Which of the following will be the second digit of
arrangement, which of the following will be the the fourth number from the top when they are arranged
seventeenth from the left end? in descending order, after the first digit is changed to its
1.U 2.F 3.V 4.9 5.6 next higher digit.
2. Which of the following is fourth to the left of the a) 3 b) 9 c) 2 d) 5 e) None of these
eighth to the left of ‘Z’? 3. What is the difference between the first digit of
1.D 2.3 3.K 4.R 5.None of these the highest number and lowest number after the
positions of first two digit in each number is reversed.
3. Which of the following is the eighth to the right of a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 7 e) None of these
the fourteenth from the right end of the above 4. Which of the following will be the last digit of the
arrangement? second lowest number after the positions of digit is
1.5 2.E 3.R 4.9 5.P reversed in each number?
4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) 5 e) None of these
way based on their positions in the above arrangement 5. Which of the following number retains the same
and so form a group. Which is the one does not belong to position as earlier when all the numbers are arranged in
that group? descending order after the position of the digit is
1.54# 2.DAE 3.2©N 4.@#9 5.$5@ reversed?
5. How many such vowels are there in the above a) 738 b) 429 c) 894 d) 325 e) None of these
arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by
consonant and immediately followed by symbol ? Q (6 –10) Study the following numbers and answer the
1.One 2.Two 3.Three 4.More than four 5.None following questions:-
427 623 814 511 249 709
II. Directions(Q.No: 6-10) Study the following
arrangement to answer the given questions 6. Which of the following is the second highest
E3M%RA$L8O5F©I4G@W7Z#6&B*9QU41S number when the first and the second digits get
interchanged?
6. Which of the following is third to the left of the a) 247 b) 263 c) 623 d) 151 e) None of these
ninth to the right of ‘I’? 7. How many numbers are there in between 427
1.6 2.# 3.9 4.Q 5.None of these and 249 when the digits within the number get reversed
7. Which of the following is the eighth to the right of and arranged in ascending order.
the fourteenth from the left end of the above a) noneb) one c) two d) three e) None of these
arrangement? 8. If one is added to the first digit of every number
1.6 2.# 3.9 4.Q 5.None of these and then first and second digit got interchanged then
8. How many such numbers are there in the above which among the following is the highest number?
arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a) 249 b) 623 c) 511 d) 709 e) None
a vowel and immediately followed by a consonant? of these
1.One 2.Two 3.Three 9. What is the difference between the first digit of
4.More than four 5.None the highest number and second lowest number after the
positions of first two digits in each number is reversed
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 e) None of these
9. What should come in the following series based
10. If all the numbers are written in reverse order,
on the above arrangement ?
then what is the product of the first digit of highest
3$5 ©@Z ?
number and third digit of lowest number?
1.E3M 2.6*U 3.6*Q 4.691 5.None
a) 40 b) 45 c) 58 d) 64
10. Insert “T” after every third letter in the above
e) None of these
series then what will be the 19thletter from the right end
of the series ?
1.W 2.T 3.@ 4.7 5.None 9 RELATION
Blood Relation Chart
(1 – 5) Study the following numbers and answer the
following questions:- Mother’s or Father’s son Brother
738 429 273 894 841 325
1. If first and last number of the above numbers are Mother’s or Father’s daughter Sister
interchanged then which among the following is the
highest number? Mother’s or Father’s brother Uncle
a) 924 b) 738 c) 429 d) 325 e) None of these

[Type text] 80
PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

Mother’s or Father’s sister Aunt 7. Pointing to a lady, a man said, "The son of her only
brother is the brother of my wife. How is the lady related
Mother’s or Father’s father Grandfather to the man ?
(a) Mother's sister (b) Grandmother (c) Mother-in-
law (d) Sister of father-in-law (e) Maternal aunt
Mother’s or Father’s mother Grandmother
8. Pointing to Ketan, Namrata said, "He is the son of my
Son’s wife Daughter-in-law father's only son." How is Ketan's mother related to
Daughter’s husband Son-in-law Namrata ?
Husband’s or wife’s sister Sister-in-law (a) Daughter (b) Aunt (c) Sister (d) Sister-in-
law (e) None of these
Husband’s or wife’s brother Brother-in-law
9. Pointing to a man on the stage, Rashi said, "He is the
brother of the daughter of the wife of my husband." How
Brother’s son Nephew
is the man on the stage related to Rashi?
Brother’s daughter Niece (a) Son (b) Husband (c) Cousin (d) Nephew
Uncle or aunt’s son or daughter Cousin (e) Brother-in-law

Sister’s husband Brother-in-law 10. A woman introduces a man as the son of the brother
Brother’s wife Sister-in-law of her mother. How is the man related to the woman ?
Grandson’s or grand daughter’s Great grand a) Nephew (b) Son (c) Cousin 6) Uncle
(e) Grandson
daughter daughter
11. Introducing a man, a woman said, "He is the only son
PRACTICE QUESTIONS: of my mother's mother." How is the woman related to
the man ?
1. Pointing to a photograph, a man said, "I have no brother a) Mother (b) Aunt (c) Sister
or sister but that man's father is my father's son." (d) Niece (e) None of these
Whose photograph was it?
(a) His own (b) His son's (c) His father' 12. If Kamal says, "Ravi's mother is the only daughter of
(d) His nephew's (e) None of these my mother", how is Kamal related to Ravi ?
(a) Grandfather (b) Father (c) Brother
2. Pointing towards a boy, Veena said, "He is the son of (d) Can’t be determined (e) None of these
only son of my grandfather." How is that boy related to
Veena ? 13. Pointing to a man in a photograph, Asha said, "His
(a) Uncle (b) Brother (c) Cousin mother's only daughter is my mother." How is Asha
(d) Data inadequate (e) None of these related to that man ?
(a) Nephew (b) Sister (c) Wife
3. Introducing Reena, Monika said, "She is the only (d) Niece (e) Grand daughter
daughter of my father's only daughter." How is Monika
related to Reena ? 14. Introducing a man, a woman said, "His wife is the only
(a) Aunt (b) Niece (c) Cousin daughter of my father." How is that man related to the
(d) Data inadequate (e) None of these woman?
(a) Brother (b) Father-in-law (c) Maternal uncle
4. Pointing to a man, a woman said, "His mother is the (d) Husband (e) None of these
only daughter of my mother." Höw is the woman related
to the mother ? 15. Pointing towards a girl in the picture, Sarita said, "She
(a) Mother (b) Daughter (c) Sister is the mother of Neha whose father is my son." How is
(d) Grandmother (e) None of these Sarita related to the girl in the picture?
(a) Mother (b) Aunt (c) Cousin
5. If X is the brother of the son of Y's son, how is X related (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
to Y ?
(a) Son (b) Brother (c) Cousin 16. Deepak said to Nitin, "That boy playing football is the
(d) Grandson (e) Uncle younger of the two brothers of the daughter of my
father's wife." How is the boy playing football related to
6. Pointing towards Rita, Nikhil said, "I am the only son of Deepak ?
her mother's son." How is Rita related to Nikhil ? (a) Son (b) Brother (c) Cousin
(a) Aunt (b) Niece (c) Mother (d) Cousin (d)·Nephew (e) Brother-in-law

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17. Pointing to a lady on the platform, Manju said, "She is

‘O = P # Q © V * W’?
the sister of the father of my mother's son." Who is the
lady to Manju? A. W is the grandson of P
(a) Mother (b) Sister (c) Aunt
B. O is the uncle of Q
(d) Niece (e) None of these
C. Q is the uncle of W
18. Introducing a man to her husband, a woman said, "His
brother's father is the only son of my grandfather " How D. W is the niece of Q
is the woman related to this man ? E. None of these
(a) Mother (b) Aunt (c) Sister
(d) Daughter (e) Grandmother 4. Which of the following can be correct conclusion
drawn from the expression
19. When Anuj saw Manish, he recalled, "He is the son of
the father of my daughter's mother. Who is Manish to ‘A & C @ D © G = H’?
Anuj? A. D is the brother of H
(a) Brother-in-law (b) Brother (c) Cousin
(d) Uncle (e) Nephew B. C has two sons and two daughters
C. D is the sister of H
20. Pointing to Kapil, Shilpa said, "His mother's brother is
the father of my son Ashish. How is Kapil related to D. H is the sister of A
Shilpa E. None of these
(a) Sister-in-law (b) Nephew (c) Niece
(d) Aunt (e) None of these 5. Which of the following indicates ‘A is the daughter
of E’?
PRACTICE EXERCISE: A. Q * P # C @ N @ V
B. E * D # R @ A @ B
Direction(1-5) Read the following information carefully to
C. F @ E # R * A
answer the following questions
D. F © A = B # E
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is the daughter of Q’
E. None of these
‘P © Q’ means ‘Q is the brother of P’
‘P = Q’ means ‘Q is the sister of P’ Directions(6-8): Study the following information carefully
‘P & Q’ means ‘P is the son of Q’ and answer the questions given below:
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is the father of Q’ A is the daughter of E. F has only two children – A and G. H
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is the mother of Q’ is the brother of I. G is married to K. F has only two
1. What does the expression ‘A @ C = B © D & E’? daughters. M is the mother of E. H is married to A. M is
A. E is the husband of A B. C is the son of E married to N. F is the son of O.
C. C is the daughter of E D. E is the wife of A
E. None of these 6. Who among the following is the father of E?
2. Which of the following indicates that ‘W is the A. M B. O C. F D. N E. None of these
paternal uncle of P’? 7. Who among the following is the sister-in-law of H?
A. W & U # Q @ R © P A. G B. A C. E D. M E. O
B. W & U & R @ Q © P 8. How is F related to H?
C. P & R & Q @ U © W A. Father-in-law B. Mother-in-law
D. P & Q # U @ R © W C. Father D. Mother
E. None of these E. Brother
3. Which of the following can be the correct Directions(Q.No: 9 & 10): Study the following
conclusion drawn from the expression information carefully and answer the questions given

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below: 4. Which of the following can be correct conclusion

A is the brother of B. B is the mother of C. C is the drawn from the expression
sister of E. E is married to F. G is the father of B. G has ‘E&L @ C © T = R’?
only one daughter. G is married to H. A is the brother 1.C is the brother of R
of I. L is the father-in-law of I. 2.L has two sons and two daughters
3.C is the sister of E
9. How is I related to C? 4.R is the sister of E
A. Cannot be determined B. Mother 5.None of these
C. Uncle D. Father 5. Which of the following can be the correct
E. Aunt conclusion drawn from the expression
10. If L is the father of M, then how is I related to M? ‘T = R # U © S * K’?
A. Cousin B. Husband 1.K is the grandson of R 2.T is the uncle of U
C. Wife D. Cannot be determined 3.U is the uncle of K 4.K is the niece of U
E. Brother 5.None of these
Direction: Q(6-8)
Direction(1-5) Read the following information carefully to
K is sister of S. S is married to M. M is father of R. Q is
answer the following questions
son of P. S is mother-in-law of P. M has only one son
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is the daughter of Q’
and no daughter. K is married to T. N is daughter of K.
‘P © Q’ means ‘Q is the brother of P’
6. How is P related to M?
‘P = Q’ means ‘Q is the sister of P’
1.Uncle 2.Son
‘P & Q’ means ‘P is the son of Q’
3.Daughter in law 4.Grandson
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is the father of Q’
5.None of these
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is the mother of Q’
7. How is K related to R ?
1.Mother 2.Sister 3.Aunt
1. Which of the following indicates that ‘A is the
4.Mother-in-law 5.None of these
paternal uncle of S’?
8. A is the daughter of F. H is married to F. F is
1.A & M # P @ K © S 2.A & M & K @ P © S
brother of B. Q is married to A. How H related to Q ?
3.S & K & P @ M © A 4.S & P # M @ K © A
1.Mother-in-law 2.Mother 3.Aunt
5.None of these
4.Daughter 5.None of these
2. What does the expression ‘A @ M = L © D &N’?
Direction: Q(9-10)
1.N is the wife of A 2.M is the son of N
M+N means M is Sister of N
3.M is the daughter of N 4.N is the husband of A
M@N means M is Father of N
5.None of these
M÷N means M is Son of N
3. Which of the following indicates ‘M is the
M%N means M is Mother of N
daughter of S’?
1.M * A # R @ S @ T 2.S * A # R @ M @ T
9. If L is grandson of M is to be true in the given
3.Y @ S # O * M 4.Y © M = T # S
expression,what will come in the place of ?
5.None of these
M % G @ L ?R
1.+ 2.@ 3.% 4.÷ 5.None of these

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10. In which of the following pairs is the first person 1.Aunty 2.Grand Father 3.Mother
daughter of the second person with regard to the 4.Grand Mother 5.None of these
expression 7. Z is father of M. M is married to B. B is mother of
K @ R ÷ M +T ÷ N T. B has only one daughter, T is married to O. R is son of
1.R, T 2.K, N 3.N, R O.
4.M, N 5.None of these How is B related to R ?
Direction Question(1-3): 1.Mother 2.Father 3.Uncle
In a family there are two fathers, two mothers, one 4.Grand mother 5.None of these
sister, one brother, two daughter, one mother-in-law, Direction Question(8-10):
one daughter-in-law, two sister-in-law, one son, one P × Q means P is father of Q
grandfather, one grand mother and one grand P + Q means P is wife of Q
daughter. P ÷ Q means P is daughter of Q
P – Q means P is son of Q
1. How many married couples are there in the family ?
1.Three 2.One 3.Two 8. Which of the following relations are true based
4.Four 5.None of these upon the relation given in the equation ?
2. How many female members in their family ? A–B×C+D–E
1.Three 2.Two 3.Four 4.One 5.None of these 1.E is mother-in-law of C 2.D is brother of A
3. What is the maximum number of people in the 3.E is wife of B 4.A is brother of C
family ? 5.None of these
1.8 2.7 3.5 4.6 5.None of these 9. What will come in the place of ? to establish that
Direction Question(4-6): Study the following information M is the nephew of N in the expression M ? K ÷ L × N
carefully to answer the given questions 1.+ 2.÷ 3.× 4.- 5.None of these
P @ Q means P is sister of Q 10. How is A related to E in the expression A ÷ H × G –
P % Q means P is son of Q B÷E?
P $ Q means P is mother of Q 1.Daughter-in-law 2.Granddaughter 3.Daughter
P # Q means P is father of Q 4.Grandson 5.None of these
Which of the following should come in place of ? to Direction(1-5) Read the following information carefully to
make the expression M is grandfather of S ? answer the following questions
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is the daughter of Q’
4. U%M#R?T#S
‘P © Q’ means ‘Q is the brother of P’
1.$ 2.% 3.@ 4.# 5.None of these
‘P = Q’ means ‘Q is the sister of P’
5. How is P related to O in the given expression ?
‘P & Q’ means ‘P is the son of Q’
V$O#Y@Z%P
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is the father of Q’
1.Grandmother 2.Sister 3.Wife
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is the mother of Q’
4.Mother 5.None of these
6. A @ I % D $ F # G, what relationship can exist 1. What does the expression ‘P @ R = S © T & V’?
between D and G ? A. V is the husband of P B. R is the son of V

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PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

C. R is the daughter of V D. V is the wife of P 8. How is V related to P?

E. None of these A. Father-in-law B. Mother-in-law
2. Which of the following indicates that ‘C is the C. Father D. Mother E. Brother
paternal uncle of D’? Directions(Q.No: 9 & 10): Study the following information
A. C & V # N @ L © D B. C & V & L @ N © D carefully and answer the questions given below:
C. D & L & N @ V © C D. D & N # V @ L © C K is the brother of J. J is the mother of Y. Y is the sister of
E. None of these T. T is married to Q. S is the father of J. S has only one
3. Which of the following can be the correct daughter. S is married to R. K is the brother of D. U is the
conclusion drawn from the expression father-in-law of D.
‘L = M # N © P * Q’? 9. How is D related to Y?
A. Q is the grandson of M B. L is the uncle of N A. Cannot be determined B. Mother
C. N is the uncle of Q D. Q is the niece of N C. Uncle D. Father
E. None of these E. Aunt
4. Which of the following can be correct conclusion 10. If U is the father of C, then how is D related to C?
drawn from the expression A. Cousin B. Husband
‘Q & N @ S © M = P’? C. Wife D. Cannot be determined
A. S is the brother of P E. Brother
Directions (1 – 3):
B. N has two sons and two daughters
B is the mother of C who is the sister of G and H only. I is
C. S is the sister of Q the son of H. D is the father of E. Among the children of A
and B, only 1 is unmarried. G is the uncle of E who is the
D. P is the sister of Q
sister of F. C has only 2 children.
E. None of these 1. How is G related to B?
A) son B) daughter
5. Which of the following indicates ‘Q is the C) son-in-law D) daughter-in-law
daughter of N’? E) Cannot be determined

A. Q * P # C @ N @ V B. N * P # C @ Q @ V 2. Who is the unmarried child of A and B?

C. M @ N # R * Q D. M © Q = V # N A) C B) G C) H D) E
E) Cannot be determined
E. None of these
Directions(6-8): Study the following information carefully 3. Who is the mother of F?
A) C B) H C) B
and answer the questions given below: D) Cannot be determined
S is the daughter of U. V has only two children – S and Y. E) None of these

P is the brother of B. Y is married to D. V has only two Directions (4 – 5): Consider the following relationships
daughters. J is the mother of U. P is married to S. J is and answer based on the relationships given below:
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is daughter of Q’
married to L. V is the son of T. ‘P # Q’ means ‘P is wife of Q’
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’
6. Who among the following is the father of U?
A. J B. T C. V D. L E. None of these 4. N @ B $ M % D indicates what relationship
between N and D?
7. Who among the following is the sister-in-law of B?
A) D is sister of N B) D is nephew of N
A. Y B. S C. U D. J E. T C) D is sister in law of N D) N is wife of D
E) None of these

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5. The expression “M # Q @ D % S” indicates which A) 1 : 1 B) 1 : 3 C) 5 : 3

of the following relationship? D) 3 : 5 E) Cannot be determined
A) Q is father of S B) D is brother-in-law of M
C) M is sister of S D) S is mother-in-law of M 9. If ‘P # Q’ means ‘P is the sister of Q’, ‘P + Q’
E) None of above means ‘P is the wife of Q’, ‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is the son
of Q’, and ‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is the mother of Q’, then
6. Looking at a lady in a photograph, Tanya said, what will come in the place of question mark, if it is
“She is my mother’s mother’s daughter”. provided that ‘D is the daughter-in-law of T’ in the
How is the lady related to Tanya? expression ‘D $ R ? L @ T’?
A) Aunt B) Sister A) + B) # C) $ D) @ E) + or @
C) Sister in law D) Daughter 10. F is the Father of D, who is the father of S. M is
E) Cannot be determined the grandmother of R, who is the son of O.N is
paternal uncle of R, who is brother of S. What is the
7. If ‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’, ‘P # Q’ means relationship between O and R?
‘P is father of Q’, and ‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is husband of A) Mother and son
Q’, then in the expression “B @ K $ W # M” what is the B) uncle and nephew
relationship of B with M? C) Father and son
A) Paternal Grandmother D) No relation
B) Maternal Grandmother E) Cannot be determined
C) Paternal Grandfather
D) Maternal Grandfather
E) None of these

Directions (8 – 10):
P is the brother of Q. C is the daughter of P and also sister
of J. A is mother of J. S is father of A. D who is son of T is
brother of A. B has only one son and is married to E, mother
of P.
8. How is D related to J?
A) son B) father
C) brother-in-law D) uncle
E) Cannot be determined
9. If G is married to Q, how is B related to G?
A) father B) father-in-law
C) son-in-law D) uncle
E) Cannot be determined
10. If A relates to S in the same way as J relates to P,
then how is J related to Q?
A) daughter
B) nephew
C) niece
D) Cannot be determined
E) None of these

Directions (7-8):
A has two sons. E is the daughter of G and B is the mother
of C. F, the brother of E is the son of C who is the son of A. A
is grandfather of J who is not a sibling of E. B has a child
named D.
7. What is the relationship between D and J?
A) D is father of J
B) D is uncle of J
C) J is son of D
D) Cannot be determined
E) None of these
STATEMENT – CONCLUSION – CAUSE etc.
8. What is the ratio of males to females in the
family?

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Directions: In each question below is given a statement Many private schools have been reportedly denying
followed by two courses of actions numbered I and II. A admission to students from poor families while
course of action is taken for improvement follow up at etc. preferring those with sound financial background
Read the statement carefully and pick the correct answer regardless of their merit.
choice. Courses of Action:

1. Statements: I. Poor students should be encouraged to take

Statement according to latest statistics the number of admissions only in government Run schools where
rhinos killed by Tiger was much more than the number such discrimination does not exist.
of rhinos killed by poachers in a wildlife sanctuary
II. The government should in enforce a certain
Courses of Action:
percentage of seats for students from poor families in
I.Stricter regulations should be framed in order to
every schools.
punish the poachers.
A) If only course of action I follows
II. As done in some sanctuaries, the areas where tigers B) If only course of action II follows
hunt and the areas with dominant rhino population C) If either course of action I or II follows
should be artificially separated D) If neither course of action I nor II follows
A) If only course of action I follows E) If both courses of action I and II follow
B) If only course of action II follows
5. Statements:
C) If either course of action I or II follows
D) If neither course of action I nor II follows The number of Malaria cases has been rising
E) If both courses of action I and II follow significantly in the city for the past few months.
Courses of Action:
2. Statements:
I. The municipal authorities should take immediate
A mid air collision was narrowly avoided when the steps to destroy the breeding places of mosquitoes
pilot of one of the aircrafts neglected the air traffic and improve hygiene in the area.
controller’s instructions.
Courses of Action: II. A campaign to educate people about the ways to
I. Pilots of both of the air crafts should be immediately prevent the disease should be started using local
reprimanded by revoking therelicences media and social workers.
A) If only course of action I follows
II. The training of Air traffic controllers should be B) If only course of action II follows
improved and made more comprehensive in order to C) If either course of action I or II follows
avoid such incidents in future. D) If neither course of action I nor II follows
A) If only course of action I follows E) If both courses of action I and II follow
B) If only course of action II follows
C) If either course of action I or II follows Directions (6-10): A statement is given followed by 3
D) If neither course of action I nor II follows courses of action. A course of action is taken for
E) If both courses of action I and II follow improvement follow up at etc. Read the statement carefully
and pick the correct answer choice.
3. Statements: 6. Statements:
Oil spill from the oil carrier of one of the biggest Oil Tomorrow will be the first day of operation of metro
Companies has really affected the marine life in a Railways for general public. No doubt a large number
large area near the Gulf region. of people will turn up tomorrow to enjoy the facility of
Courses of Action: metro Railways.
I. The oil company should be penalized for the Courses of Action:
negligence and the harm caused to the environment.
I. Metro authorities should seek additional Police
II. Efforts should be made to shift as many Marine Force.
animals in the area as possible to safer habitats.
A) If only course of action I follows II. Sightseers should be appealed to come only during
B) If only course of action II follows non peak hours.
C) If either course of action I or II follows
III. All the windows for issuing tickets should be ready
D) If neither course of action I nor II follows
to issue tickets in entry of the people should be
E) If both courses of action I and II follow
regulated to manageable limits.
A) Only I and II follow
4. Statements: B) Only II and III follow
C) Only I and III follow

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

D) All follow A) None follows

E) None of these B) All follow
C) Only I and III follow
7. Statements: D) Only II and III follow
About 125 dalits including 15 women and 5 children of E) None of these
a village converted to Christianity during a special 9. Statements:
Christmas prayer.
Courses of Action: Tourism in India is an industry with huge potential but
India’s share is very less in world’s total tourism sector
I. All the 125 persons should be issued summons by Courses of Action:
the court. I. Tourism should be declared as an infrastructure
II. An FIR should be lodged against the concerned industry.
person who converted these dalits into Christians. II. A committee should be constituted under the
III. A ritual bath ceremony should be organised to read ministry of tourism to address the problems of
convert these Christians to dalits. tourism industry.
A) None follows III. Heritage monuments should be sold to a country
B) Only I and II follow which has better experience than India in this regard.
C) All follow A) None follows
D) Only II and II follow B) All follow
E) None of these C) Only I and II follow
Statements: D) Only II and III follow
E) None of these
Three persons of an upper caste family died of Hunger
in State X recently. Directions: Below in each question are given two
Courses of Action: statements I and II. These statements may be independent
I. High level enquiry should be made into irregularities causes or may be effects of independent causes or a
in the listing of people under below poverty line common cause. One of these statements may be the effect
scheme. of the other statement. Read both statements and decide
II. The remaining members of the family been listed which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the
under BPL schemes. relationship between these two statements and mark
answer.
III. A Committee should be constituted to find out
ways to restrict such deaths further as well as the 1. I. A majority of the first year students of the
circumstances which caused them hunger. engineering colleges failed in Mathematics in the
A) All follow semester examination.
B) Only I and III follow II. The college authority terminated the contract of the
C) Only II and II follow professor who taught Mathematics to the first year
D) Only III follows students.
E) None of these A) If Statement I is the cause and statement II is its
effect.
8. Statements: B) If Statement II is the cause and statement I is its
effect.
Despite the government’s continued efforts for the
C) If both the statements I and II are independent
development of tribal groups, the progress made in
causes.
relation to development of these groups is negligible
D) If both the statements I and II are effects of
– a leader of tribal group of country X.
independent causes.
Courses of Action:
E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some
I. Ministry of Tribal Affairs should collect authentic
common causes.
data of the tribal group population in the country and
conductor tried by benchmark of tribal groups within a 2. I. The Government of India has allowed the
time frame. private airline companies to operate on specified
International routes.
II. Information including tribal groups social status
II. There has been a considerable increase in the flow
should be gathered in a time bound manner.
of foreign tourists to India.
III. Rehabilitation program should be launched to A) If Statement I is the cause and statement II is its
rehabilitate tribal groups in their own areas and a bill effect.
should be moved in the parliament in this regard. B) If Statement II is the cause and statement I is its
effect.
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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

C) If both the statements I and II are independent during the last few months.
causes. A) If Statement I is the cause and statement II is its
D) If both the statements I and II are effects of effect.
independent causes. B) If Statement II is the cause and statement I is its
E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some effect.
common causes. C) If both the statements I and II are independent
causes.
3. I.Many seats in the private Engineering Colleges D) If both the statements I and II are effects of
in the state have remained vacant this year. independent causes.
II. The Government Engineering Colleges in the state E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some
could not accommodate all the students who sought common causes.
admission this year. 7. I. Most of the Steel manufacturing companies in
A) If Statement I is the cause and statement II is its the country has made considerable profit during the
effect. last fiscal year.
B) If Statement II is the cause and statement I is its II. Many Asian countries have been importing huge
effect. quantities of Steel from India.
C) If both the statements I and II are independent A) If Statement I is the cause and statement II is its
causes. effect.
D) If both the statements I and II are effects of B) If Statement II is the cause and statement I is its
independent causes. effect.
E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some C) If both the statements I and II are independent
common causes. causes.
4. I. Majority of the students of the school passed D) If both the statements I and II are effects of
in mathematics in the annual examination. independent causes.
II. Majority of the students of the school field in E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some
English in the annual examination common causes.
8. I. 3 top players of the Indian Cricket missed all
A) If Statement I is the cause and statement II is its
effect. the matches of the five match tournament due to
B) If Statement II is the cause and statement I is its injury.
effect. II. India lost the Cricket tournament to the visitors
C) If both the statements I and II are independent with a 2 : 3 margin
A) If Statement I is the cause and statement II is its
causes.
D) If both the statements I and II are effects of effect.
independent causes. B) If Statement II is the cause and statement I is its
E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some effect.
common causes. C) If both the statements I and II are independent
causes.
5. I. The banks have decided to give advances to D) If both the statements I and II are effects of
the priority sector at the rate of interest at par with independent causes.
the corporate sector. E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some
II. The percentage of bad loans given by the banks to common causes.
the priority sector is very low as compared to the 9. I. The prices of food grains have increased by
corporate sector. about 20% over the same period last year.
A) If Statement I is the cause and statement II is its II. The prices of vegetables have substantially
effect. decreased during the past few weeks.
B) If Statement II is the cause and statement I is its A) If Statement I is the cause and statement II is its
effect. effect.
C) If both the statements I and II are independent B) If Statement II is the cause and statement I is its
causes. effect.
D) If both the statements I and II are effects of C) If both the statements I and II are independent
independent causes. causes.
E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some D) If both the statements I and II are effects of
common causes. independent causes.
E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some
common causes.
6. I. The state government has now decided to
increase the stamp duty on house purchase is with 10. I. A huge explosion rocked the Housing Complex
immediate effect. as a cooking gas cylinder exploded in one of the flats
II. The real estate prices have increased considerably in the complex.

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

II. Residence of the Housing Complex came running ‘Z’ the books published through it still far from the
out of their houses and assembled in the open reach of the common people of rural area despite the
courtyard. prices of books being too low.
A) If Statement I is the cause and statement II is its Conclusions:
effect. I. To make the books of publishing company Z
B) If Statement II is the cause and statement I is its accessible to each individual of rural areas, is the only
effect. objective of the company.
C) If both the statements I and II are independent II. Rural market has more potential than urban for the
causes. publishing company Z.
D) If both the statements I and II are effects of A) If only conclusion I follows
independent causes. B) If only conclusion II follows
E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some C) If either I or II follows
common causes. D) If neither I nor II follows
E) If both I and II follow

Directions: In each question below is given a statement 4. Statements:

followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to The book X is the only one which focuses on cross
assume everything in the statement to be true, then border terrorism in India during the last two decades.
consider the two conclusions together and decide which of Conclusions:
them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the I. No other book deals with cross border terrorism in
information given in the statement. India.
II. There were not any kind of threat from cross border
1. Statements: terrorism two decades ago.
For over three decades the Government of country ‘X’ A) If only conclusion I follows
has been making efforts to raise the per capita income B) If only conclusion II follows
of its citizens despite and intelligent team of ministry C) If either I or II follows
and experts bureaucrats it has failed and its objective. D) If neither I nor II follows
Conclusions: E) If both I and II follow
I. It is strong will power and dedication that is more
important than knowledge and expertise. 5. Statements:
II. Without restricting the growth of population We are not going to recruit those persons as our
growth improvement in per capita income is research team members who are below 30 years of
impossible. age and do not have versatile qualities – Statement of
A) If only conclusion I follows an organisation XYZ.
B) If only conclusion II follows Conclusions:
C) If either I or II follows I. Those who will be selected will possess many
D) If neither I nor II follows different skills.
E) If both I and II follow II. Those who will be selected for the post will be more
than 30 years of age.
2. Statements: A) If only conclusion I follows
“Because of the financial crunch and less number of B) If only conclusion II follows
Cops, the government of state X is unable to arrange C) If either I or II follows
security for all temples but continues arrangement of D) If neither I nor II follows
security for those temples which are famous and E) If both I and II follow
where there is a regular visit of devotees in large
numbers” – CM of state X. 6. Statements:
Conclusions: “The militants killed in recent Commando operation in
I. This will encourage the devotees who want to visit country X road new shows” – A leader of country X.
famous temples to perform Pooja. Conclusions:
II. All state governments lakh fund to facilitate security I. The militants were not citizens of country X.
arrangement for all temples. II. The militants were not foreigners.
A) If only conclusion I follows A) If only conclusion I follows
B) If only conclusion II follows B) If only conclusion II follows
C) If either I or II follows C) If either I or II follows
D) If neither I nor II follows D) If neither I nor II follows
E) If both I and II follow E) If both I and II follow

3. Statements: 7. Statements:
Even after 15 years of establishing publishing company “Today instead of saving the governments

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overspending amounts to a figure equal to 4.5% of C) If either I or II follows

GDP. This has to be brought down to 0.5% of GDP” – D) If neither I nor II follows
PM of country X. E) If both I and II follow
Conclusions: Critical Reasoning Questions for SBI PO, IBPS PO, NICL, RBI
I. Government will have to make big cuts in subsidies Grade B, BOI, Bank of Baroda and other competitive exams
and other wasteful expenditure to get the desired
objective. 1. Jay: Of course there are many good reasons to
II. GDP of country X is very low. support the expansion of preventive medical care, but
A) If only conclusion I follows arguments claiming that it will lead to greater societal
B) If only conclusion II follows economic gains are misguided. Some of the greatest
C) If either I or II follows societal expenses arise from frequent urgent-care
D) If neither I nor II follows needs for people who have attained a long life due to
E) If both I and II follow preventive care.
Sunil: Your argument fails because you neglect
8. Statements: economic gains outside the health care system:
The Representation of the People Act will be amended society suffers an economic loss when any of its
to do away with the clause that disqualified from productive members suffer from preventable illness.
contesting the elections only for those convert who Sunil’s response to Jay makes which of the following
have been handed down prison terms of 6 months or assumptions?
more. – Information and broadcasting minister of A) Those who receive preventive care are not more
country X likely to need urgent care than are those who do not
Conclusions: receive preventive care
I. Convicted persons are not suitable to serve as a true B) Jay intends the phrase “economic gains” to refer
representative of the common people. only to gains accruing to institutions within the health
II. After the amendment maja conviction would lead to care system.
disqualification irrespective of what punishment is C) Productive members of society are more likely than
meted out. others to suffer preventable illnesses.
A) If only conclusion I follows D) The economic contributions of those who receive
B) If only conclusion II follows preventive medical care may outweigh the economic
C) If either I or II follows losses caused by preventive care.
D) If neither I nor II follows E) Jay is incorrect in stating that patients who receive
E) If both I and II follow preventive medical care are long-lived.
9. Statements:
Untrained drivers are found to be largely responsible 2. Hatfield Airport, the closest airport to the city of
for 95% of the accidents in even advanced countries Hatfield, has recently opened a new terminal for AirJet
where infrastructure is very rarely the cause of International, a popular low-cost airline. Since the
mishaps. – A report of a survey terminal has opened, Hatfield Airport has welcomed
Conclusions: significantly more customers, to the extent that airline
I. In developing countries Road agriculture has not staff members have complained that they can no
developed and kept pace with the advancement of longer serve their customers efficiently. If AirJet
Technologies. International were to move their major terminal to
II. Driver development is directly related to road the more remote Chesterfield Airport, the staff
environment. argues, the customers of both AirJet and the airlines
A) If only conclusion I follows based at Hatfield Airport would be happier.
B) If only conclusion II follows Which of the following is an assumption?
C) If either I or II follows A) The increased traffic at the airport is due to the
D) If neither I nor II follows popularity of AirJet’s flights.
E) If both I and II follow B) Other airlines based at Hatfield Airport are not as
10. Statements: widely used as AirJet.
The idea floated by the University Grants Commission C) Customers are unhappy with the slowness of
to higher teachers on contract basis, though bold, is service at Hatfield Airport.
not acceptable to the teaching community. D) Chesterfield Airport has been losing customers
Conclusions: since the AirJet terminal at Hatfield opened.
I. Only when a teacher us sure of the job will he put in E) AirJet customers would not mind traveling further
sincere effort. from Hatfield, since AirJet’s low fares save them
II. There is a fear among the teaching community that money.
teachers on contract may not be dedicated.
A) If only conclusion I follows
B) If only conclusion II follows

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3. At many top restaurants, professional chefs use The conclusion drawn above depends on which of the
cast iron pans, which retain their heat better than following assumptions?
other pans and can be transferred directly from the A) Drivers who equip their vehicles with radar
stovetop to the oven. They even work well for foods detectors are less likely to be ticketed for exceeding
such as eggs and fish, which require nonstick surfaces. the speed limit than are drivers who do not.
However, to retain their nonstick quality, cast iron B) Drivers who are ticketed for exceeding speed limit
pans need to be regularly seasoned, a process that are more likely to exceed the speed limit regularly
involves coating the pan with oil or butter and heating than are drivers who are not ticketed.
it in the oven. Coated aluminum pans use synthetic C) The number of vehicles that were ticketed for
fluoropolymers to create a nonstick surface that exceeding speed limit was greater than the number of
doesn’t require as much maintenance. Thus, coated vehicles that were equipped with the radar detectors.
aluminum pans are ultimately more convenient than D) Many of the vehicles that were ticketed for
cast iron pans for cooking eggs and fish at home. exceeding the speed limit were ticketed more than
The argument above relies on which of the following once in the time period covered by the report.
assumptions? E) Drivers on Maryland highways exceed the speed
A) Cast iron pans are difficult to maintain. limit more often than drivers on other state highways
B) Cookware that requires more maintenance is not as not covered in the report.
convenient for home cooking.
C) There are no pans that are more convenient for 6. The newest trend in home buying is interest-
nonstick purposes than coated aluminum pans. only mortgages. These mortgages require a borrower
D) Coated aluminum pans can be used to cook foods to pay only the interest on the loan. This means that
that do not require a nonstick coating. the principle (which is the amount borrowed) never
E) There is no need to use butter or oil to cook in a gets any smaller. Buyers never accumulate any equity
coated aluminum pan. in their homes and often have to default. Therefore,
these loans are bad for Americans and should be
4. An increasing number of online retailers now made illegal.
allow customers to create “wish lists” of items they The argument in the above passage depends on which
would like to receive as gifts. Such lists are certainly of the following assumptions?
useful, but these retailers should also explore other A) Homeowners can’t afford to pay more than the
ways to suggest gift purchases for these customers. In interest on the loan.
particular, without revealing the specifics of a B) Some things that are bad for Americans should be
customer’s purchase history, a website could quickly made illegal.
analyze a retailer’s entire inventory, select a list of C) Interest-only mortgages don’t require the buyer to
items similar to those the customer has already pay more than the interest.
purchased, and then e-mail that list to a group of D) Buyers with no equity in their homes often have to
contacts specified by the customer. Such a system default on their loans.
would suggest gifts that, because of their similarity to E) Owners won’t accumulate equity based on the
the customer’s prior purchases, would be extremely increasing value of their house.
likely to appeal to the customer.
In the argument, the assumption is that the 7. Studies have shown that children who watch a
hypothetical customers lot of television do not typically read above grade
A) are familiar with most or all of the items in stock on level. In the United States, more than three out of ten
the websites where they shop children watch television at least 35 hours per week.
B) would prefer novel gifts that are unlike the items In other western countries, less than one child out of
they currently own ten watches that much television. In contrast, these
C) do not use retail websites primarily to purchase other children perform much better than American
gifts children on reading tests and more often read above
D) would be relatively unconcerned if their retail grade level. A majority of these non American children
purchase histories were available to others read above their school grade level; a smaller
E) prefer online shopping to shopping in physical retail percentage of American children read above grade
stores level. In order to read as well as children in other
western countries, American children will have to
5. A recent report determined that although only 3 reduce the amount of time they spend watching
percent of drivers on Maryland highways equipped television.
their vehicles with radar detectors, 33 percent of all The passage depends upon which one of the following
vehicles ticketed for exceeding the speed limit were assumptions?
equipped with them. Clearly, drivers who equip their A) American children are not as interested in reading
vehicles with radar detectors are more likely to exceed well as children in other western countries.
the speed limit regularly than are drivers who do not. B) Other children are more structured in their studies

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than children in the United States. E) Few medical school graduates who are interested in
C) If a child wants to become a better reader, he or practical work are also interested in research.
she will not watch as much television.
D) If a child watches less television, his or her reading 10. The local university recently hired a new soccer
level will increase. coach. Although she has several years’ worth of
E) The methods American teachers and parents use to coaching experience and is a diligent student of the
teach reading are not significantly worse than the game, she was never a member of a collegiate soccer
methods used by teachers and parents in other team. For this reason, the new coach will be unable to
western countries. build a successful program.
The argument above is based on which of the
8. Researchers have found that when very following assumptions?
overweight people, who tend to have relatively low A) The local university should have hired a former
metabolic rates, lose weight primarily through dieting, collegiate soccer player as its new coach.
their metabolism generally remain unchanged. They B) Coaching experience is one of the most crucial
will thus burn significantly fewer calories at the new factors for coaching success.
weight than do people whose weight is normally at C) The,previous coach at the university was dismissed
that level. Such newly thin persons will, therefore, due to her lack of success,
ultimately regain weight until their body size again D) To build a successful soccer program as a coach,one
matches their metabolic rate. must be a former collegiate soccer player.
The conclusion of the argument above depends on E) The university does not plan to provide the new
which of the following assumptions? coach with the resources necessary to build a
A) Relatively few very overweight people who have successful program.
dieted down to a new weight tend to continue to
consume substantially fewer calories than do people 1. Extinction is a process that can depend on a
whose normal weight is at that level. variety of ecological, geographical, and physiological
B) The metabolisms of people who are usually not variables. These variables affect different species of
overweight are much more able to vary than the organisms in different ways, and should, therefore,
metabolisms of people who have been very yield a random pattern of extinctions. However, the
overweight. fossil record shows that extinction occurs in a
C) The amount of calories that a person usually burns surprisingly definite pattern, with many species
in a day is determined more by the amount that is vanishing at the same time.
consumed that day than by the current weight of the Which of the following, if true, forms the best basis for
individual. at least a partial explanation of the patterned
D) Reseachers have not yet determined whether the extinctions revealed by the fossil record?
metabolic rates of formerly very overweight A) Major episodes of extinction can result from
individuals can be accelerated by means of chemical widespread environmental disturbances that affect
agents. numerous different species.
E) Because of the constancy of their metabolic rates, B) Certain extinction episodes selectively affect
people who are at their usual weight normally have as organisms with particular sets of characteristics
much difficulty gaining weight as they do losing it. unique to their species.
C) Some species become extinct because of
9. Graduates of medical schools are interested in accumulated gradual changes in their local
practical work as practicing physicians. However, environments.
research laboratories mainly deal with theoretical D) In geologically recent times, for which there is no
work, and therefore, they are reluctant to hire fossil record, human intervention has changed the
personnel who are not interested in research. pattern of extinctions.
Consequently, research laboratories rarely hire E) Species that are widely dispersed are the least likely
graduates of medical schools. to become extinct
The conclusion drawn above depends on which of the
following assumptions? 2. Commercially available chemical fertilizers
A) Graduates of medical schools are interested in contain the same nutrients and micronutrients as
working for research laboratories. organic fertilizers such as manure and composted
B) The only people not interested in research work are garden clippings. Plants have tiny root hairs that
those who are interested in practical work. absorb nutrients, and whether the source of the
C) Most employees of research laboratories are not nutrients is organic or chemical is irrelevant to the
graduates of medical schools. plant’s ability to take in the nutrients. Nevertheless,
D) Research laboratories would hire graduates of organic fertilizers are better for the health of the plant
medical schools if such graduates were interested in than are chemical fertilizers alone.
research work. Which of the following, if true, would most strongly
support the position above?
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A) The nutrients in organic fertilizers are slowly began appearing in countless emails.
released to the plant over time, rather than being Which of the following, if true, most weakens the
absorbed by the plant immediately. conclusion of the government experts referred to
B) In organic fertilizers, the natural combination of above?
nutrients with other natural materials makes the A) Shortly before the government experts reached
nutrients more usable by the plant than nutrients their conclusions, two private security companies each
found in chemical fertilizers. claimed to have developed “the world’s strongest
C) Plants often must be provided with nutrients email encryption algorithm”
because naturally occurring nutrients in the B) The private security firms’ decision to advertise
surrounding soil are depleted or washed away over their products and sell them publicly led to other
time. members of the private sector and academia
D) The typical gardener can’t easily know the exact scrutinizing the encryption algorithms.
amount and type of nutrients in an organic fertilizer C) An open-source encryption algorithm, developed by
such as manure. an academic and freely available from popular
E) Chemical fertilizers produced by the leading websites, is recognized by numerous ex-government
manufacturer contain nutrients that are no harder for code breakers as the most unbreakable algorithm ever
the plants to absorb than those provided by the developed.
competitor’s chemical fertilizer. D) An enemy government recently succeeded in
placing a spy within the government espionage
3. The standard computer keyboard, called operations referred to above.
QWERTY because of the arrangement of the first six E) To strengthen the reputation of the private security
letters, is very inefficient. The letters were arranged in firms, employees of these firms publish information
this odd but familiar manner when the first about the strength of their products and the benefits
typewriters were being designed in the 1800s. When of using them.
keys were arranged logically, typists could strike the
keys very quickly. Early typewriters were so slow the 5. High School Principal: There is little doubt that
fast typists caused mechanical problems in the extra-curricular activities such as sports teams waste
machines. In order to slow down the typists, the keys the time students could better spend on academics.
were rearranged in a seemingly random order. If a Close to half the students in this school barely passed
manufacturer of computer keyboards were to arrange the math and science portions of the graduation
the keys in the most efficient manner, everyone would exam. Clearly, our attention needs to be refocused. In
want to buy a new, improved keyboard. order to improve our school’s performance on the
If true, which of the following would most seriously graduation exam, I propose that we discontinue all
weaken the above conclusion? school sports beginning next year.
A) Modern computer word-processing systems are Each of the following, if true, casts doubt on the
much faster than the most accomplished typist and principal’s conclusion that discontinuing school sports
there is no reason to use the slower keyboard. will improve academics EXCEPT
B) Americans have universally adapted to the QWERTY A) A surplus in last year’s school budget was spent on
keyboard and aren’t interested in learning an entirely transportation for the football team rather than on
new system. buying a new available edition of the school’s science
C) Discovering the most efficient arrangement of keys textbook.
would require extensive tests on typists and non- B) Most members of school sports teams were in the
typists alike. half of students that easily passed the graduation
D) The human brain is incredibly adaptable and can exam.
adapt to any arrangement of the keyboard, even if it is C) The principal does not have a specific plan for re-
less efficient. focusing the school’s resources on academics.
E) Computer keyboards include many keys that were D) The school’s math and science textbooks have been
not needed on manual or electric typewriters. outdated for two years.
E) Even though the principal claims that half the
4. Years ago, some in the government’s intelligence school’s students “barely passed” the graduation
community feared the work of telecommunications exam, they did meet the state’s minimum
researchers at then-emerging private security firms. requirements for graduation.
The government experts concluded that these private
firms posed the biggest risk to successful government 6. Advertisement: At most jewelry stores, the
espionage. As the private security firms began publicly person assessing the diamond is the person selling it
releasing and advertising encryption algorithms and so you can see why an assessor might say that a
other security products, these government experts diamond is of higher quality than it really is. But
saw support for their conclusion when an encryption because all diamonds sold at Gem World are certified
algorithm that government experts could not break in writing, you’re assured of a fair price when

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purchasing a diamond from Gem World. and often exhibit concern if they sense sadness.
The reasoning in the advertisement would be most D) Chimpanzees can memorize long sequences of key
strengthened if which one of the following were true? punches on machines that dispense food.
A) Many jewelry stores other than Gem World also E) Alex does not exhibit aggression when offered a
provide written certification of the quality of their gesture that he specifically requested.
diamonds.
B) The certifications of diamonds at Gem World are 9. Healthy human beings can’t tickle themselves.
written by people with years of experience in This is because they anticipate the sensation and
appraising gems. reduce their touch perception accordingly. Reducing
C) The diamonds sold at Gem World are generally of the perception of completely predictable sensations
higher quality than those sold at other jewelry stores. allows the brain to focus on crucial changes in the
D) The diamond market is so volatile that prices of the environment not produced by the person’s own
most expensive diamonds can change by hundreds of actions. A person who tries to tickle himself and is
dollars from one day to the next. simultaneously tickled by another person will have a
E) The written certifications of diamonds at Gem heightened sense of the other person’s touch
World are provided by an independent company of compared to his own. Healthy people also can’t
gem specialists mistake their own voice as coming from another
person. Schizophrenics, however, may hear their own
7. Electronics manufacturer: Developing a line of voices and, having not anticipated the sounds, not
smartphones would require a research-and- recognize the voice as their own.
development push that would directly trade off with Which of the following statements can be correctly
our R&D efforts on five other products. Plus, a line of inferred from the passage above?
MP3 players – another product we have discussed A) Human beings can’t tickle themselves because they
developing – has an inherently higher profit potential anticipate the sensation.
than a line of smartphones and would be cheaper to B) Further research in this area may lead to a better
manufacture. understanding of why certain people are more
The electronics manufacturer’s statements, if true, susceptible to tickling.
most strongly support which one of the following? C) A healthy human hearing a tape of her own voice
A) Developing a line of MP3 players would not trade won’t recognize the voice because she won’t
off with the R&D efforts on an other products. anticipate the sounds.
B) The manufacturer is more likely to make money by D) Tickling yourself as someone else is tickling you will
developing a line of MP3 players than it is by reduce your sensory perceptions and cause you not to
developing a line of smartphones. react to the tickling.
C) Developing a line of smartphones would be a bad E) Healthy humans constantly anticipate the sound of
business decision for the manufacturer. their own voice and differentiate it from other voices.
D) The manufacturer will make money if it develops a
line of MP3 players. 10. Over the next 30 years, the number of people
E) The only new product that would be profitable for aged 65 and older will double, while the number of
the manufacturer is a line of MP3 players. adults under age 65 will increase by less than 15
percent. In addition to those demographic changes,
8. Some animals, such as dolphins, dogs, and costs per enrollee in federal health care programs are
African grey parrots, seem to exhibit cognitive likely to continue growing much faster than inflation.
functions typically associated with higher-order These pressures will cause federal spending for health
primates such as chimpanzees, gorillas, and humans. care programs to increase by more than two-thirds as
Some parrots, for example, have vocabularies of a share of the economy.
hundreds of words that they can string together in a If the statements above are all true, which of the
comprehensible syntax. This clearly shows that following can properly be inferred on the basis of
humans and primates are not the only animals capable them?
of using language to communicate. One parrot, named A) Federal spending on health care programs currently
Alex, has been known to ask to be petted or kissed accounts for less than one-third of the government’s
and will exhibit aggression if the gesture offered is not spending.
the specific one requested. B) Over a 30 year period, costs per enrollee in federal
Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen health care programs must grow faster than inflation.
the conclusion above? C) Currently, people 35 years of age or older make up
A) Dolphins can be trained to assist divers in ocean a larger proportion of the population than do people
rescues. under 35 years of age.
B) Gorillas in captivity often learn hand signals for food D) Countries with a larger proportion of citizens over
and water. 65 often have crippling health care costs.
C) Dogs are capable of sensing their owners’ moods E) Countries with younger populations spend less than

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two-thirds of their budgets on federal health care the measures without realizing that the voluntary
programs. family planning programmes area miserable flop as
clearly highlighted by the national family health
surveys.
1. Chaos Inc., a company in the fast moving Which of the following if true would strengthen the
consumer goods sector had sales output rising by author’s contention?
nearly 12% per year. A new partner, Kim, joined the A) Percentage of rural women voluntarily seeking
company and introduced many innovations such as family planning services in government health centre
Kaizen groups to solve manufacturing problems, and facilities has drastically come down over the last
e-business applications involving vendors and decade.
distributors. But after Kim’s advent, sales output B) One child policy on China, where employees with
increased by only 6% per year. It appears that the more than one child are discriminated against, has
innovations implemented by Kim caused the reduction been very effective in controlling their population.
in the annual sales growth rate. C) Activists and organization which seem to advocate
Which of the following if true would weaken the civil rights issues typically have their own vested
above conclusion? interests and hidden agendas.
A) Kim’s innovations were focused on long-term D) Punitive measures are the best deterrents for
improvement and ignored short-term profitability and refraining people from committing deeds which
growth. adversely affect the society at large.
B) Chaos Inc. does not price its products based upon E) None of these
the actual cost of production.
C) General demand for the company’s product has 4. In recent study published in The Journal of
declined over time. Family Practice, no significant benefit over a placebo
D) Managers of the company were busy in creating was found from using the antibiotic Amoxicillin among
innovations, rather than focusing on sales promotions. 135 patients with typical indications of a sinus
E) None of these infection. All the patients complained of sinusitis, with
pus in the nasal cavity, facial pressure of nasal
2. The extent to which a society is really free can discharge lasting longer than seven days. A small
be gauged by its attitude toward artistic expression. subgroup of patients receiving the antibiotic became
Freedom of expression can easily be violated in even better faster than the others. But the researchers
the most outwardly democratic of societies. When a were unable to discern anything about those patients
government arts council withholds funding from a prior to administering Amoxicillin that indicated a
dance performance that its members deem bacterial infection, as opposed to a viral one.
“obscene,” the voices of a few bureaucrats have in From the above passage it may be inferred that
fact censored the work of the choreographer, thereby A) Use of an antibiotic is beneficial for sinusitis
committing the real obscenity of repression. patients.
Which of the following, if true, would most seriously B) Antibiotics should be administered to only those
weaken the argument above? sinusitis patients, who have been diagnosed to have a
A) Members of government arts councils are screened bacterial infection.
to ensure that their beliefs reflect those of the C) Antibiotics do not have any effect on sinusitis
majority patients.
B) The term obscenity has several different definitions D) Use of an antibiotic may be beneficial for a small
that should not be used interchangeably for rhetorical percentage of sinusitis patients with bacterial
effect infection, but in general antibiotics are useless for
C) Failing to provide financial support for a sinusitis patients.
performance is not the same as actively preventing or E) None of these
inhibiting it
D) The council’s decision could be reversed if the 5. Governments have only one response to public
performance were altered to conform to public criticism of socially necessary services: regulation of
standards of appropriateness. the activity of providing those services. But
E) The definition of obscenity is something on which governments inevitably make the activity more
most members of society can agree. expensive by regulating it, and that is particularly
troublesome in these times of strained financial
3. It is unfortunate for a country, specially for the resources. However, since public criticism of child-care
poor and women, that whenever any kind of services has undermined all confidence in such
disincentive – even of the mildest nature such as services, and since such services are socially
debarring a person with more than two children from necessary, the government is certain to respond.
contesting any local body election – is introduced to Which one of the following statements can be inferred
promote family planning, there are always some from the passage?
activists and organizations who unnecessarily oppose
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A) The quality of child care will improve. 8. Recent studies show that people between the
B) The cost of providing child-care services will ages of 13 and 55 produce 65 pounds more garbage
increase. per year than they did in 1995. This increase has led to
C) The government will use funding to foster advances a higher percentage of the total garbage produced by
in child care. all the age groups. This age group constitutes a
D) If public criticism of policy is strongly voiced, the growing percentage of the population, so it partially
government is certain to respond. explains this rise.
E) If child-care services are not regulated, the cost of Which of the following can be concluded from
providing child care will not increase. passage?
A) People over the age of 55 produce more garbage
6. A survey recently revealed a high correlation than people less than the age of 13.
between a household’s level of education and its B) Population has risen since 1995.
library. Specifically, the more years of college and C) People between the age of 13 and 55 are more than
graduate school education received by the half of current population.
household’s members, the more books in the D) Before 1995, people below age 13 and above age
household’s library. The survey also indicated that the 55 produced higher percentage of total garbage than
higher the education level of the household, the they do now.
greater the percentage of books that are not works of E) People between the age of 13 and 55 produce more
fiction in its library. garbage than those below 13 or older than 55.
Which of the following can be properly inferred from
the survey results cited above? 9. Ten years after graduation, men and women
A) People with a higher level of education prefer who had participated in the Thompson High School
reading nonfiction to works of fiction. basketball program were surveyed with regard to their
B) Households with low education levels generally individual playing records for their teams. Some of the
own more works of fiction than do households with results of the survey were curious. Seventy-five
high education levels. percent of those responding reported that they had
C) Households with lower levels of education generally started for their respective boys’ or girls’ teams, when
own more works of fiction than nonfiction. the actual number of boys and girls who had started
D) The higher the education level of a household, the for their teams was only 50%.
fewer works of fiction owned by the household. Which one of the following provides the most helpful
E) Households with high education levels generally explanation for the apparent contradiction in these
own more nonfiction books than do households with survey results?
low education levels. A) A very small number of those responding were
incorrect in reporting that they held starting positions.
7. Columnist: The winner of this year’s national B) A disproportionately high number of players who
spelling bee won by correctly spelling the spoken word started for their teams responded to the survey.
Ursprache, which means “fame” in German. Given the C) Not all starting players responded to the survey.
richness of our language, why must we resort to D) Almost all men and women who played basketball
words taken from modern foreign languages to for Thompson High School ten years earlier responded
challenge our best spellers? Ursprache is listed in our to the survey.
dictionary, as are words from many other foreign E) Not all good basketball players started for their
languages, but future spelling bees should limit teams; some good players were deliberately held out
themselves to words in our dictionary that have been to play later in the game.
anglicized in all aspects because spelling English
words, not knowledge of linguistics and international 10. Left-handed persons suffer more frequently
phonetics, is the point of these contests. than do right-handed persons from certain immune
Which of the following can most reasonably be disorders, such as allergies. Left-handers tend to have
inferred from the argument above? an advantage over the right-handed majority,
A) The spelling contest winner knew how to spell most however, on tasks controlled by the right hemisphere
of the anglicized words in the dictionary. of the brain, and mathematical reasoning is strongly
B) Foreign words are more difficult than anglicized under the influence of the right hemisphere in most
words for all contestants to spell. people.
C) Spelling contestant winners should be determined If the information above is true, it best supports which
by their facility with all aspects of language. of the following hypotheses?
D) To spell foreign words, contestants must recognize A) Most people who suffer from allergies or other
the language and know its pronunciation. such immune disorders are left-handed rather than
E) The English language contains more borrowed right-handed.
words than most other languages. B) Most left-handed mathematicians suffer from some
kind of allergy.

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C) There are proportionally more left-handers among A) if only I follows

people whose ability to reason mathematically is B) if only II follows
above average than there are among people with poor C) if either I or II follows
mathematical reasoning ability. D) if neither I nor II follows
D) If a left-handed person suffers from an allergy, that E) if both I and II follows
person will probably be good at mathematics.
E) There are proportionally more people who suffer 4. Statement: Some workers of the company
from immune disorders such as allergies than there making diamond jewellery were caught while there
are people who are left-handed or people whose were leaving the premises as they were trying to
mathematical reasoning ability is unusually good. smuggle small pieces of diamonds hidden in their
purses.
Each question below a statement is given followed by two Courses of Action:
courses of action. A course of action of a practicable and I. The management of the company should
feasible step or administrative decision to be taken for immediately put on hold all activities in the premises
follow-up, improvement, or further action in regard to the till a full proof security system is in place.
problem, policy, etc. II. The belongings of all the workers should thoroughly
On the basis of the information given in the statements, be searched before they leave the premises of the
you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, company.
and decide which of the suggested courses of action A) if only I follows
logically follow (s) for pursuing. B) if only II follows
C) if either I or II follows
1. Statement: The police reported that two armed D) if neither I nor II follows
terrorists had entered the city a couple of days ago. E) if both I and II follows
Courses of Action:
I. Police should immediately circulate the photographs 5. Statement: A huge tidal wave swept away many
of the terrorists using electronic and print media in fishing boats and hutments of the fishermen living
order to take public’s help I nabbing them. along the coastline.
II. Public should be informed to stay indoors until the Courses of Action
terrorists are arrested. I. The fisherman should henceforth be restrained from
A) if only I follows constructing their huts along the coast line.
B) if only II follows II. The local administration should send a team of
C) if either I or II follows officials to assess the extent of damage and suggest
D) if neither I nor II follows remedial measures.
E) if both I and II follows A) if only I follows
B) if only II follows
2. Statement: There have been sporadic cases of C) if either I or II follows
stone throwing and damaging vehicles in the locality D) if neither I nor II follows
during the day following altercation between two local E) if both I and II follows
youth clubs last night.
Courses of action: 6. Statement: A large number of invitees who
I. The local police administration should arrest all attended the marriage function fell ill due to food
those who are caught committing these acts. poisoning and were rushed to various hospitals
II.The local police administration should call a meeting located in the area.
of office bearers of both the clubs of the locality to Courses of action:
bring the situation under control. I. The govt should ban such marriage function till
A) if only I follows further notice.
B) if only II follows II. The local hospital should be advised by the govt to
C) if either I or II follows provide best services to the affected people.
D) if neither I nor II follows A) if only I follows
E) if both I and II follows B) if only II follows
3. Statement: A huge truck overturned on middle C) if either I or II follows
of the main road and blocked most part of the road, D) if neither I nor II follows
causing a huge traffic jam. E) if both I and II follows
Courses of action: 7. Statement: Some students of the local college
I. The traffic department should immediately deploy were caught travelling in the train without purchasing
its personnel to divert traffic through other roads. valid tickets.
II. The traffic department should immediately send Courses of Action:
men and equipment to move the truck and clear the I. The parents of these students should be informed
road. about the incident and requested to counsel their

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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

wards. country remain vacant at the end of the admission

II. These students should be put behind bars for session.
travelling without bonafide credentials. Which of the following may be the probable cause of
A) if only I follows the above effect?
B) if only II follows A) There has been a considerable decrease in hiring of
C) if either I or II follows engineering graduates due to economic slowdown in
D) if neither I nor II follows the recent years.
E) if both I and II follows B) Students have always preferred to complete
graduation in three years’ time instead of devoting
8. Statement: Many customers complained to the four years for engineering.
manager of the local branch of the bank against the C) The government has recently decided to provide
highhandedness of the bank employees while dealing post-qualification professional training to all
with the customers. engineering graduates at its own cost.
Courses of action: D) There has always been a very poor success rate
I. The bank management should immediately suspend among the engineering students.
all the employees of the branch and deploy a different E) None of these
set of employees.
II. The bank management should ask for a report from 2. Majority of the students who appeared in the
the manager of the branch for taking necessary tips. final examination of postgraduate course in
A) if only I follows management in the local college have secured first
B) if only II follows class, which is comparatively higher than the
C) if either I or II follows performance of students of other management
D) if neither I nor II follows colleges in the state. . Which of the following may
E) if both I and II follows indicate that the results are not in line with the
general trend?
9. Statement: Many school children died in few A) The students of the local college are qualitatively
accidents caused due to poor maintenance of school better than those of other colleges.
buses during the last few months. B) The authorities of the other management colleges
Courses of action: in the state are stricter in their standard of evaluation.
I. The government should set up an expert group to C) The students of other management colleges in the
inspect the condition of school buses to avoid such state performed better than the students of the local
accidents. college in all the previous examinations.
II. The government should suspend the license of D) The local management college recently retrenched
school buses. many of its regular faculty members.
A) if only I follows E) None of these
B) if only II follows
C) if either I or II follows 3. The condition of the roads in the city has
D) if neither I nor II follows deteriorated considerably during the first 2 months of
E) if both I and II follows monsoon and most of the roads have developed big
potholes.
10. Statement: Prices of oil and gas are likely to rise Which of the following can be a possible effect of the
in India owing to the rising tension in the Gulf region above cause?
due to the fear of US attack on Iraq, a major source of A) The municipal corporation had repaired all the
oil. roads in the city before the onset of monsoon with
Courses of Action: good quality material.
I. India should tap new oil sources to avoid the fallout B) A large number of people have developed spine-
of an attack on Iraq. related injuries after regularly commuting long
II. At least a month’s stock of oil and its products distances by road within the city.
should be stored. C) The municipal corporation has been careful in
A) if only I follows choosing the contractors for repairing roads in the
B) if only II follows past.
C) if either I or II follows D) People always complain about potholed roads
D) if neither I nor II follows during the monsoon months.
E) if both I and II follows E) None of these

The following questions have been taken from previous 4. It has been reported in many leading
year papers. newspapers that the current year’s monsoon may be
below the expected level as many parts of the country
1. It has been reported in recent years that a very are still not getting adequate rainfall.
large number of seats in engineering colleges in the Which of the following can be a possible fallout of the
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 PROMO-SHIKSHA REASONING

above situation? D) (2) Only

A) People from areas with less rainfall may migrate to E) (1) Only
urban areas.
B) Govt. may announce ex-gratia payment to all the 8. There is an alarming trend of skewed sex ratio
farmers affected in these areas. against women in India during the past decade and
C) Govt. may declare these areas as drought affected. the situation may go out of hand if adequate steps are
D) People may blame the govt. and agitate for not not taken to stop female foeticide.
getting adequate water for cultivation. Which of the following can be an effective step to
E) None of these reverse the trend?
(1) The govt. should immediately completely ban the
5. There has been a spate of rail accidents in India use of scanners/sonography on expecting mothers at
in the recent months, killing large numbers of all health centres.
passengers and injuring many more. This has raised (2) The govt. should announce a substantial incentive
serious doubts on the railway’s capability of providing scheme for couples who have at least one girl child.
safety to travellers. (3) The govt. should launches a nationwide campaign
Which of the following statements substantiates the to create awareness against female foeticide
views expressed in the above statement? A) Only (1)
A) Indian Railways is known for providing best comfort B) Only (1) and (2)
to its passenger. C) Only (2) and (3)
B) People have no option other than travelling long D) All (1), (2) and (3)
distances on rail. E) None of these
C) The railway tracks at many places have been found
to be stressed due to wear and tear in the recent 9. A very large number of technically qualified
times. young Indians are coming out of colleges every year
D) Local residents are always the first to provide a though there are not enough opportunities for them
helping hand to the passengers in the event of such to get gainful employment.
disasters. Which of the following contradicts the views
E) None of these expressed in the above statement?
A) Technically qualified persons are far superior to
6. A few travellers were severely beaten up by those with standard degrees like BA/BSc/BCom etc.
villagers recently in a remote rural part of the state as B) The govt. has not done effective planning for
the villagers found the movement of the travellers engaging technically qualified personnel while
suspicious. The district authority has sent a police authorizing the setting up of technical colleges.
team to nab the culprits. Which of the following C) Huge gap exists between the level of competence
inferences can be drawn from the above statement? of technically qualified graduates and requirements of
(An inference is something which is not directly stated the industry.
but can be concluded/deduced from the given facts.) D) Majority of the technically qualified persons are
A) The villagers dislike the presence of strangers in migrating from India to developed countries for better
their vicinity. opportunities.
B) Villagers are generally suspicious in nature. E) None of these
C) Travellers prefer to visit countryside
D) The govt. generally provides protection to travellers 10. The govt. appealed to all citizens to use potable
across the country. water judiciously as there is an acute shortage in
E)) None of these supply. Excessive use may lead to huge scarcity in
coming months. Which of the following assumption is
7. There has been a considerable drop in sales of implicit in the above statement? (An assumption is
four- wheelers during the past six months when something supposed or taken for granted.)
compared to the number of four-wheelers sold during A) People may ignore the appeal and continue using
this period last year. water as per their consideration.
Which of the following can the probable cause(s) of B) Govt. may be able to tap those who do not respond
the above phenomenon? to the appeal.
(1) The govt. imposed higher excise duty on four- C) Govt. may be able to put in place alternate sources
wheelers at the beginning of this year. of water in the event of crisis.
(2) The petrol prices have risen considerably during D) A large number of people may positively respond to
the past eight months. the govt’s appeal and help tide over the crisis.
(3) The rate of interest on home and car loans have E) Only the poor are going to suffer from this shortage
been rising for the past seven months. of water supply.
A) All (1), (2) and (3)
B) Only (1) and (3) Directions: In each question below a statement is given
C) Only (2) and (3) followed by two courses of action. A course of action of a

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practicable and feasible step or administrative decision to B) if only II follows

be taken for follow-up, improvement, or further action in C) if either I or II follows
regard to the problem, policy, etc. D) if neither I nor II follows
On the basis of the information given in the statements, E) if both I and II follows
you have to assume everything in the statement to be true,
and decide which of the suggested courses of action I is not a solution of problem. And also this will be an
logically follow (s) for pursuing. extra burden on the states.
If government is not able to make the things proper,
1. There is no motivation among today’s private players should surely be given a chance.
generation to join the armed forces owing to frequent
4. Nearly 26 per cent of all engineering graduated
transfers to risky areas. Perhaps they are not aware of
have been left unemployed owing to severe recession
the good side of it.
worldwide.
Courses of Action:
Courses of Action:
I. Short term internship should be introduced at high
I. All the unemployed students should be advised to
school level to give students a peek into the
take up jobs in foreign countries.
adventurous life of the forces and provide a more
II. The unemployed students should be advised to take
realistic job purview.
up jobs only after the recession is over.
II. The salary levels of the defense forces-should be
A) if only I follows
increased with immediate effect.
B) if only II follows
A) if only I follows
C) if either I or II follows
B) if only II follows
D) if neither I nor II follows
C) if either I or II follows
E) if both I and II follows
D) if neither I nor II follows
E) if both I and II follows 5. The government airline has been making huge
loses even as private airliners continue to proper and
The statement says: owing to frequent transfers to make substantial profit.
risky areas people do not join. So II action is not a Courses of Action:
solution for this problem. I. All the private airlines should be banned from
If people come to know about adventurous life of the operation in the country.
forces at school level, one can gain interest. II. The government airline should be instructed to
increase passenger fare significantly in order to
2. According to a recent report, almost 90%
increase its profit.
students from a premier college in India end up
A) if only I follows
settling in foreign countries for nearly thrice the salary
B) if only II follows
drawn in India.
C) if either I or II follows
Courses of Action:
D) if neither I nor II follows
I. Indian organizations should pay salaries to students
E) if both I and II follows
from this college which are at par with the foreign
organizations. 6. Many private schools have been violating
II. Signing of a bond which prevents them from taking government directives and have been charging more
a job in any foreign country should be made fees than the specified limits.
mandatory by the government. Courses of Action:
A) if only I follows I. The government should identify such schools and
B) if only II follows take stringent actions against them.
C) if either I or II follows II. The government should not limit school fees and
D) if neither I nor II follows keep it flexible for the schools to decide.
E) if both I and II follows A) if only I follows
B) if only II follows
3. Number of hospital beds per 1000 people in
C) if either I or II follows
India, which is a key indicator of healthcare
D) if neither I nor II follows
infrastructure, is much lower than many other nations
E) if both I and II follows
which are thought to be poorer than India.
Courses of Action: 7. A large number of patients admitted in a
I. The expenditure of importing costly medicines particular hospital have been diagnosed with a serious
should be borne by the State. contagious disease.
II. Incentives should be given to encourage entry of Courses of Action:
private players into building of healthcare I. These patients should be immediately evicted from
infrastructure. the hospital for fear of spread of disease.
A) if only I follows II. The hospitals should make appropriate quarantine

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arrangements to control the spread of disease.

The Scheme was launched by the Prime Minister
A) if only I follows
B) if only II follows NarendraModi on August, 2014 with the objective of
C) if either I or II follows
covering all households with at least one bank account.
D) if neither I nor II follows
E) if both I and II follows Which of the following will be an effect/advantages of
8. Statement: Many complaints have been the scheme launched by the central government ?
registered lately by commuters regarding
1.It is helpful for the rural inhabitants where banking
unavailability of railway tickets during the peak
travelling season. overhauls & further financial establishment are
Courses of action:
infrequently accessible.
I. The commuters should be advised to defer their
travel plans till the peak season gets over. 2.It would decrease the function of money lenders in the
II. Railways should try to accommodate as many
lives of deprived, who till now did not contain access
commuters as possible by adding extra coaches to the
trains. to banking overhauls.
A) if only I follows
3.It envisions a bank account & an ATM-facilitated RuPay
B) if only II follows
C) if either I or II follows debit card to a predictable 10 crore unbanked domestics
D) if neither I nor II follows
E) if both I and II follows in the kingdom.
4.It is preparation on revolutionizing the customary
9. Leader of a tribal community residing near a
proposed highway project has given an application banking system in India by giving that the banking
expressing his community’s opposition to construction
occasion & insurance treatment to the entire counting
of the highway through their residential area.
Courses of Action: the poor.
I. Government should convince the tribal community
5.All of these
stating the fact that building of the highway would
bring development in their area. 2. India will likely be able to roll out the goods and
II. Government should immediately stall the highway
services tax (GST) from July 1 following a breakthrough on
project in response to the resistance faced by the
tribal community. Monday over the seemingly intractable issue of tax
A) if only I follows
administration after the Centre accommodated states’
B) if only II follows
C) if either I or II follows concerns
D) if neither I nor II follows
E) if both I and II follows Which of the following will be an impact of the given
passage ?
10. More and more farmers have been shifting to
cultivation of export quality rice rather than the rice 1.Revenue will get a boost
eaten daily by people as export quality rice helps them
2.Logistics, inventory costs will raise
earn more profit.
Courses of Action: 3.compliance costs will raise
I. Strict action should be taken against the farmers
4.All 1, 2 and 3
growing only export quality rice in their fields.
II. Procurement price of other qualities of rice should 5.Both 1 and 3
be increased so as to make their cultivation a
profitable venture as well.
A) if only I follows 3. India and the UK have signed three Bilateral
B) if only II follows
C) if either I or II follows Advance Pricing Agreements (APAs) in order to have a
D) if neither I nor II follows smooth tax regime between the two and reduce litigation
E) if both I and II follows
arising out of transfer pricing issues.
Which of the following will be an immediate effect of the
1. Over 26 crore accounts have been opened under
Advance Pricing Agreements (APAs) ?
PradhanMantri Jan DhanYojana across the country now.

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1.To have a smooth tax regime between the two conducting tests for higher educational institutions and
countries benefit students as well.
2.To reduce litigation arising out of transfer pricing issues. Which of the following may be the reason for the
3.Both 1 and 2 proposal by the ministry ?
4.Neither 1 or 2 1.To bring reforms in the education system
5.Either 1 or 2 2.To reduce the work of education department
4. The state education department recently issued a 3.Both 1 and 2
government resolution (GR) asking all schools in 4.Either 1 or 2
Maharashtra to install CCTV cameras. 5.None of these
Inferences: 7. The government launched two incentive schemes
I.To curb the unwanted activities and it helps create self “Lucky GrahakYojana and Digi-DhanVyaparYojana for
discipline both consumers and merchants
II.It will enhance the school environment in the technical Which of the following will be an impact of these two
background schemes ?
1.Only I can be inferred 1.To incentivize digital transactions
2.Only II can be inferred 2.To simplify the business process
3.Both I and II can be inferred 3.For quick transaction
4.Either I or II can be inferred 4.To promote the business at the global level
5.Neither I or II can be inferred 5.To attract the consumers and merchants
5. BSNL has launched its Customer Acquisition and 8. The NamamiGangeprogramme in Haridwar and
Customer Communication Management (CACMS) project Varanasi have been approved by National Mission for
that digitalizes mission critical, customer centric business Clean Ganga on January , 2017.
process to provide customer experience across all Which of the following will not be an effect of the
channels throughout the customer lifecycle. NamamiGangeprogramme ?
Which of the following will be an impact of the CACMS 1.It is focuses on pollution, elimination, interventions
launched by BSNL ? 2.It will link the Haridwar and Varanasi
1.To centralize the business processes to ensure faster 3.It will resolve the water crisis in Haridwar and Varanasi
service, accurate customer responses and customer 4.All of these
delight. 5.None of these
2.Customer onboarding is now being increased from Answer & Explanation

hours to days Answer – 1.It is focuses on pollution elimination

3.Customer onboarding is now being decreased from interventions

days to hours Explanation :

4.Both 1 and 2 NamamiGange Program which integrates the efforts to

5.Both 1 and 3 clean and protect the Ganga river in a comprehensive

6. The National Testing Agency proposed by the manner.

Ministry of Human Resource Development, aims to bring 9. The Ministry of Steel has prepared the draft policy

“professionalism and competence” in the field of named “The National Steel Policy (NSP), 2017” to ensure
that the steel sector follows a sustainable path of

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development in respect of augmenting capacity to 300 1o years

MT by 2030-31 in environment friendly manner, mineral II.It will reduce the cost of its premium devices and
conservation, quality of steel products, use of technology appealing to a larger base of buyers.
and indigenous R&D efforts, so that the country can, over 2. Two cargo ships collided just outside the Kamarajar
time, reach the global efficiency benchmarks. Port in Ennore causing an oil spill into the sea.
Which of the following will be the fallout of The National I.Oil spill has reached the Mamallapuram and affects the
Steel Policy (NSP), 2017 ? tourist spot
1.It will create a globally competitive steel industry that II.The spill could have a long lasting impact on marine life,
promotes inter-sectoral growth even to the extent of causing irreparable damage.
2.It will ensure easy availability of raw materials, 3. Lychee fruit to blame for mystery illness killing
optimum land use children in India
3.It will create job opportunities during the I.The consumption of lychee fruit on an empty stomach
implementation process was to blame.
4.To double India’s domestic steel production capacity to II.The consumption of lychee fruit make some gene
300 million tonnes by 2030-31. changes
5.All of these 4. The Economic Survey 2016-17 tabled in Parliament
10. The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister by the Union Finance Minister ShriArunJaitley on January
ShriNarendraModi has approval to the package for 31, 2017
supporting Micro and Small Enterprises (MSEs) – I.Universal Basic Income (UBI) increases poverty to 0.5
Augmentation of the Corpus of Credit Guarantee Trust percent would cost between 4-5 percent of GDP.
Fund for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE). II.It suggests that a more efficient way to help the farmers
What will be the benefits of the above proposals ? would be to provide them resources directly.
1.Limit the unfunded contingent liabilities 5. The BetiBachaoBetiPadhao (B3P) scheme was
2.Improving financial management launched in January, 2015 by PM NarendraModi at
3.Improving unsustainability of the Fund Panipat in Haryana.
4.Both 1 and 2 I.The aim of the scheme to promote the of importance of
5.Both 1 and 3 education and rural development
II.B3P is targeted at improving the Child Sex Ratio (CSR)
Directions (1-10): Each question is followed by two courses 6. The Karnataka government decided to bring an
of actions. You have to decide which of the course of amendment to the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act
action follows for the statement implied. Give answer. (PCA), 1960 for conducting kambala
A.If only course of action I follows I.The Bill passed by the legislature doesn’t require an
B.If only course of action II follows assent from the President
C.If either course of action I or II follows. II.Karnataka government is going to follow the model of
D.If neither course of action I nor II follows. the Andhra Pradesh government and bring changes to
E.If both course of action I and II follow. the PCA.
1. Apple to begin producing iPhones for the local 7. Government has announced that the General Anti
market in Bengaluru. Avoidance Rule (GAAR) will be effective from the 1 April,
I.India to become a large Smart phone market in the next

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2017. the demand for high-quality dairy nutrition continues to

I.India will be the 1st nation in the world to have laws grow at a rapid pace. Annual dairy consumption, for
that aim to close tax loopholes. example, is forecast to reach around 180-200 million
II.It will prevent companies from routing transactions tonnes by the end of the decade.
through other countries to avoid taxes. Assumption:
8. Recently the Indian government decided to 1.India will become one of the largest dairy markets in
demonetize the biggest denomination notes i.e. 500-1000 the world by 2020.
Rupees notes 2.India’s dairy industry will increase milk production to
I.It is considered as the biggest cleanliness drive against meet this demand gap.
the black money in the history of Indian economy 3.Dairy industries are important to the national economy.
II.It will not affect the SME sector in India. 4.The demand for milk and milk products goes up with
9. India formally became an associate member of prosperity.
CERN (European Organization for Nuclear Research) in 5.None of these
January 2017. 3. Govt of India is providing a unique identity card to
I.India will have voting rights on decisions of the council. every citizen. Some important information like his blood
II.India can take part in meetings of the CERN Council group, permanent address, bank account number and
10. NGOs being a major arm of civil society thus have a mobile/telephone number is mentioned on this card to
crucial role in the country’s development process. identify that person for security purpose or in case some
I.NGO’s work on ‘non-profit’ basis with the principles like serious accident takes place.Which of the following
social equality, altruism and human development as their conclusions can be drawn from the above information?
foundations 1.In a country like India, which is one of the most
II.NGOs are the groups of government organizations that populated countries in the world, it is not possible to
are not reducible to the administrative grasp provide every citizen a unique identification card.
2.The police need this information (on the card),
1. Statement: The average family income in the especially when the accident is fatal.
metros has increased today as compared to earlier,as in 3.None is supposed to forget his phone number under
most families these days husbands and wives both are any circumstances.
working. Which of the following inferences cannot be 4.Blood cannot be transfused until its group is mentioned
drawn from the above statement? on the card.
1.Wives earn more than their husbands today. 5.None of these
2.It was less prevalent for the spouse to work earlier than 4. Statements: In 2015, the government has decided
today. against reduction of prices of petroleum products, though
3.The family income level was lower a few years ago. there is a significant drop in the crude oil prices in the
4.More husbands and wives are working today as international market.
compared to last few years. Assumption:
5.None of these The present price of different petroleum products will
2. India is on track to become one of the largest dairy help the government withstand any possible price rise in
industries in the world. With 20 million more mouths to future.The prices of crude oil in the international market
feed every year, and an increasingly affluent population,

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may again increase in the near future. 7. The ‘X’ finance company has launched a new
1.Only Assumption I is implicit. tractor loan scheme. It has brought prosperity among the
2.Only Assumption II is implicit. farmers.
3.Neither I nor II is implicit. Assumptions:
4.Either I or II is implicit. 1.The prosperity of farmers solely depends upon the
5.Both I and II are implicit. tractor loan scheme.
5. Owing to delayed and weak south-west monsoon 2.Earlier there was no tractor loan scheme for farmers.
there is an alarming depletion in the water levels of 3.Farmers do not prefer to take loans for buying tractors.
important reservoirs. 4.Tractor is an important input for farmers to enhance
Courses of action: the farm activities.
I.The Central Government should issue an advisory to the 5.None of these
State Government to make judicious and regulated 8. Since it is possible that the substance contained in
release of water. certain trees’ roots may provide a cure for ‘Bird Flu’, the
II.The government should give preference to drinking govt. must provide sufficient fund to allow thorough
water and irrigation, and enhance ground water use to testing of this possibility.
meet current needs. Assumptions.
III. Farmers should be advised by the government to grow 1.A cure for ‘Bird Flu’ would be extremely valuable for the
such crops as require less water. society.
1.Only I 2.Substance contained in certain trees’ roots will
2.Only II probably cure ‘Bird Flu’.
3.Only III 3.The possibility of finding a cure is a sufficient reason for
4.All (1), (2) and (3) funding research for possible ‘Bird Flu’ cures.
5.None of these 4.The govt. is the only possible source of funds for the
6. A hung verdict is just that: divided and unclear. And said research.
Party X would be quite justified in querying why, despite 5.The time of research mentioned offers at present the
its consistent stand on governing only in case of a clear most promising possibility for finding a cure for ‘Bird Flu’
verdict, should the onus of forming the government be 9. According to Gartner, global PC shipments declined
laid at its door. 8.6% in the third quarter of 2013, marking the sixth
Assumptions: consecutive quarter of fall. Which of the following can be
I.Party X is the single largest party in the house. a probable cause(s) of the above phenomenon?
II.Party X does not have a clear majority. I.Computer chips are now being used in fewer walks of
III.Party X is not the single largest party in the house. life.
1.Only I II.There has been a shift in consumer preference from PCs
2.Only II to tablets for daily content consumption.
3.Only III III.Internet-of-things will drive the next wave of
4.Both I and II computing.
5.Both I and III 1.Only I
2.None of these

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3.Only II and III 3. Some college students were found guilty of

4.Only I and II travelling in a local train without tickets.
5.Only II I. The parents of these students should be contacted and
10. “Attend a free online test series on how to crack asked to counsel their wards.
IBPS examination.” – An advertisement by an institute II. The students found guilty in such cases should be held
(ABC). behind bars.
Assumption : 4. Though private ferry systems have made going to
1.An advertisement is the only source to increase the holy places easy, today many pilgrims died in a stampede
number of admissions. while boarding a private ferry.
2.All of the online tests provided by other institutes are I. The state government should cancel the licenses of all
not free. such private ferry operators.
3.There will be students who will respond to this kind of II. The state government should deploy some people to
advertisement. guide the pilgrims on their journey to the holy place.
4.The institute has got many selections in the IBPS. 5. Many of the people invited for a marriage at ABC
5.None of these Hotel fell ill due to food poisoning and were admitted to
the hospitals.
Directions (1-10): Each question is followed by two courses I. The government should keep on hold marriages till
of actions. You have to decide which of the course of further notice.
action follows for the statement implied. Give answer. II. The hospitals should be advised to give good services
(A) If only course of action I follows to the effected people.
(B) If only course of action II follows 6. In the coastal area, a huge wave swept away the
(C) If either course of action I or II follows. homes of fishermen and others living along the coastline.
(D) If neither course of action I nor II follows. I. The people should not be allowed to build their homes
(E) If both course of action I and II follow. along coastline.
1. Next day, millions of pilgrims are expected to take II. The administration should send its officials to find the
dip the Ganga at the holy place. extent of damages taken place and suggest remedial
I. The state government should put a restriction on the measures.
number of people that can come to take dip each day. 7. Some workers of ABC diamond company were held
II. During the next whole day, the state government by the police, due to found smuggling small pieces of
should deploy personnel to maintain law and order. diamonds when they were leaving the company after
2. During the workers laying cables underground in company hours.
ABC locality, a main pipe supplying water to the houses I. The company should shut its business for some time
burst and the locality was flooded. until full proof security systems are installed in the
I. The concerned authority should immediately take an company premises.
action and start repairing the damage. II. Before the workers leave the company, they should all
II. The concerned authority should take an action against be checked from now onwards.
the company whose workers were laying the cables and 8. A huge truck and a car met with an accident and
ask them for the compensation. this incident has blocked a major part of the main road

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leading to a huge traffic jam. 2. The citizens may not gamble in any other way if the
I. The traffic department should take an action by lotteries are banned.
immediately deploying its people to divert traffic on A)If only 1 is implicit
other roads. B)It only 2 is implicit
II. The traffic department should take an action by C)If either assumption 1 or 2 is implicit
immediately sending its people and equipment to move D)If neither assumption 1 nor 2 is implicit
the truck and clear the jam. E)If both are implicit
9. During a fight between two student groups of a 3. Should coal engines be replaced by electric engines
college last night, many vehicles were damaged by in trains?
throwing stones on each other. Assumptions:
I. The local police should arrest the ones found guilty of 1. Yes, coal engines cause a lot of pollution.
doing these acts. 2. No, India doesn’t produce enough electricity to fulfil
II. The local police should call the college authority to even the domestic needs.
bring the situation under control. A)If only 1 is implicit
10. The inflation rate in increasing since the last 6 B)It only 2 is implicit
months and there is no sign of it coming down in next 3-4 C)If either assumption 1 or 2 is implicit
months. D)If neither assumption 1 nor 2 is implicit
I. Government should make an effort by reducing E)If both are implicit
government taxes on essential commodities with 4. Should all professional colleges in India be
immediate effect. encouraged to run their own courses without affiliations
II. Government should ask the farmers to sell their crops to any university?
at low prices. Assumptions:
1. The government announced a heavy compensation 1. Yes, this is the only way to create more opportunities
package for all the victims of the terrorist attacks. for those who seek professional training.
Assumptions: 2. No, this will dilute the quality of professional training
1.Such incidents of terror may not occur in near future. as all such colleges may not be equipped to conduct such
2.Compensation may mitigate the anger among the courses.
citizens against the current government. A)If only 1 is implicit
A)If only 1 is implicit B)It only 2 is implicit
B)It only 2 is implicit C)If either assumption 1 or 2 is implicit
C)If either assumption 1 or 2 is implicit D)If neither assumption 1 nor 2 is implicit
D)If neither assumption 1 nor 2 is implicit E)If both are implicit
E)If both are implicit 5. Government should deploy army to rehabilitate
2. Gambling through lotteries is banned by the central the people displaced due to earthquake.
government in all the states with immediate effect. Assumptions:
Assumptions: 1. Army can be used for purposes other than war also.
1. This may save innocent citizens from getting cheated of 2. Only army can rehabilitate the displaced victims of the
their hard -earned money. earthquake.

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A)If only 1 is implicit D)If neither assumption 1 nor 2 is implicit

B)If only 2 is implicit E)If both are implicit
C)If either assumption 1 or 2 is implicit 9. You can’t solve syllogism question without
D)If neither assumption 1 nor 2 is implicit constructing a diagram(Venn).Difficult question of
E)If both are implicit syllogism need Venn diagram solving, A teacher tells his
6. “We should inform all our officers not to read students.
newspapers during office hours.” Chief manager tells Assumptions:
chief administrators. 1. The students are not intelligent.
Assumption: 2. Problem cannot be solved.
1.Reading newspapers during office hours is desirable. A)If only 1 is implicit
2. Office efficiency will not increase by stopping this. B)It only 2 is implicit
A)If only 1 is implicit C)If either assumption 1 or 2 is implicit
B)It only 2 is implicit D)If neither assumption 1 nor 2 is implicit
C)If either assumption 1 or 2 is implicit E)If both are implicit
D)If neither assumption 1 nor 2 is implicit 10. Statement: “In order to bring punctuality in our
E)If both are implicit office, we must provide conveyance allowance to our
7. Every year doctors, scientists and engineers employees.” – In charge of a company tells Personal
mitigate from India to greener pastures. Manager.
Assumptions: Assumptions:
1. Brain drain has affected India badly. 1. Conveyance allowance will not help in bringing
2. Better scales and better standards of living act as a bait punctuality.
to lure them. 2. Discipline and reward should always go hand in hand.
A)If only 1 is implicit A)If only 1 is implicit
B)It only 2 is implicit B)It only 2 is implicit
C)If either assumption 1 or 2 is implicit C)If either assumption 1 or 2 is implicit
D)If neither assumption 1 nor 2 is implicit D)If neither assumption 1 nor 2 is implicit
E)If both are implicit E)If both are implicit
8. Should powerful nations attack relatively
weaker nations which pose probable danger to world CRITICAL REASONING- THE POVERTY DEBATE
peace ? It has been argued by behavioral economists in all
Arguments: earnestness that poverty shapes mindsets. From here, it
is a hop, skip, and jump to holding that the poor are poor
1. Yes. War is justified for the noble purpose of
because their poverty prevents them from thinking and
peacekeeping. acting in ways that can take them out of poverty. When
2. No. War/violence should never be resorted to. behaviorist economics speaks of poverty as a “cognitive
A)If only 1 is implicit tax”, it writes ‘action’ — the political agency of the poor
— out of the equation. In such a case, the focus as well as
B)It only 2 is implicit
the onus of poverty-alleviation would shift from the state
C)If either assumption 1 or 2 is implicit
— from macroeconomic policy, from having to provide
employment, health and education — to changing the
behavior of the poor. The structural causes of poverty —
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rising inequality and unemployment — as well as the CRITICAL REASONING- TAX MORALITY
behavior of the owners of capital are evicted from the A study published in 2006 by Friedrich Schneider on the
poverty debate, and no longer need be the focus of world’s shadow economies dealt briefly with the “tax
public policy. morality” of Germans. According to the study, two-thirds
of the Germans surveyed regarded tax evasion as a
Which of these options best summarizes the given “trivial offence,” while only one-third judged stealing a
paragraph? newspaper this way. Indian tax morality is similar, but it
A. Where decisions of the poor tend to be flawed makes a distinction between expatriate illicit money,
from an economic point of view, behavioral economists which is viewed as a serious crime perpetrated by the
believe that governments can intervene with policies
very corrupt, and money held within India, which is
aimed at nudging the poor towards the right decision.
B. By shifting the burden of poverty alleviation from perceived as a practical measure.
the state onto the poor themselves, behavioral
economists are ignoring both the structural causes of Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from
poverty as well as the behavior of the wealthy.
the above?
C. Given that poverty diminishes political agency and
shapes mindsets, insights into how poverty affects (i) Two-thirds of the Germans evade tax and consider it
behavior could have implications in public policy. only a trivial offence.
D. The focus of public policy ought to be in providing (ii) Stealing a newspaper is a bigger crime in Germany
employment, health and education, rather than than tax evasion.
addressing rising inequality and changing the behavior of
(iii) As long as the money is held in India, illicit money is
the poor.
accepted as practical by Indians.
(iv) Indians regard tax evasion, especially holding illicit
CRITICAL REASONING- INDIAN LABOR LAWS money abroad, as a serious crime.
A. i, ii, iv
India’s baffling array of state and national labor laws date
B. i and iv
to the 1940s: one provides for the type and number of C. only iii
spittoons in a factory. Another says an enterprise with D. iii and iv
more than 100 workers needs government permission to
scale back or close. Many Indian businesses stay small in CRITICAL REASONING- REINFORCING WAR PLANES
order to remain beyond the reach of the laws. Big firms Data on planes returning from bombing missions was used
use temporary workers to avoid them. Less than 15% of to study of the vulnerability of airplanes to enemy fire.
Indian workers have legal job security. The new Analyzing the pattern and frequency of hits from enemy
government can sidestep the difficult politics of curbing gunfire, it was seen that some parts of planes were hit
privileges by establishing a new, simpler labor contract disproportionately more often than other parts. How
that gives basic protection to workers but makes lay-offs could these planes be optimally reinforced with armor
less costly to firms. It would apply only to new hires; the plating? There were tradeoffs to consider. Every addition
small proportion of existing workers with gold-star of plating added to the weight of the plane, decreasing its
protections would keep them. performance. Therefore, reinforcements needed to be
added only to the most vulnerable areas of the planes.
Which of the following options best summarizes the main
idea of the paragraph? Which of the following can be concluded from the above?
A. More Indian workers can get permanent jobs and A. The parts hit disproportionately more than the
legal job security if existing labor laws are reformed. others have to be reinforced as those received the
B. Effective labor law reform can encourage many maximum amount of damage.
Indian businesses to grow to more than 100 workers. B. No conclusion can be drawn as the data set is
C. Outdated Indian labor laws need to be simplified to incomplete. There is no data on the planes shot down.
provide basic protection to workers and curb privileges. C. The parts with the least damage have to be
D. The difficult politics of curbing privileges can be reinforced, as the returning planes have survived attacks
avoided if the changes in the labor law only apply to the to the most damaged areas.
new hires. D. Reinforcements have to be added to all areas of
the plane.

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C. More Americans believe the right to own a gun

CRITICAL REASONING- THE CAUSES OF FAMINE should be protected, despite perceived increase in gun
crime.
Oklahoma is not perceived as overpopulated because, in
D. With falling gun crime, fewer Americans support
spite of a horrendous drought, it is not facing famine. controls on gun ownership.
Famine in Oklahoma is inconceivable because it receives
a fair price for its exports, it has not leased its land to
foreign countries, the poorest of the poor receive a CRITICAL REASONING- OBJECTIVITY IN WRITING
helping hand from the government, and farmers and Championing objectivity in writing—and, more precisely,
ranchers receive federal assistance in times of droughts. decrying solipsism, narcissism, and self-absorption—can
It is a lack of these factors in Horn of Africa, plus political of course have legitimate uses. In the era of Twitter and
insecurity in Somalia, which explain the famine – not Facebook, when we are given an infinite supply of blank
overpopulation. fields to fill with our thoughts, we are all encouraged to
think we are more interesting than we actually are. And
Which of the following options best summarizes the main yet there is a compelling argument to be made, more
idea of the paragraph? generally, that journalism’s putative standards of
A. Hunger is caused by too many people pressing objectivity are sometimes wielded to check not
against finite resources.
subjectivity, per se, but unwanted subjectivities. The
B. In spite of drought and overpopulation, there is no
famine in Oklahoma. method of testing information – the approach to
C. Overpopulation and famine are not causally related evidence- is meant to be objective, not the journalist. The
in the Horn of Africa. key is in the discipline of the craft, not the aim..
D. Famine in the Horn of Africa is not only due to
overpopulation but, more importantly, due to the lack of
government assistance and political insecurity. Which of the following is the writer least likely to agree
with?
A. By not taking sides in an argument a journalist can
strive to be objective, a worthwhile aspiration even if it is
CRITICAL REASONING- SURVEY ON GUNS IN AMERICA
not perfectly achieved.
In Dec 2014, the Pew Research Center conducted a survey, B. Objective journalism is not one that is without bias,
asking 1507 people spread among all 50 states and the but one in which bias has to stand up to evidence and
District of Columbia , “What do you think is more results.
C. All journalism has a point of view and a set of
important – to protect the right of Americans to own
interests it advances.
guns or to control gun ownership?” For the first time in D. Objectivity in writing is about making the story
more than two decades, a higher percentage (52%) said it more than just about the writer.
was more important to protect the right of Americans to
own guns than to control gun ownership (46%). The
researchers used 1993 as a reference point because it's CRITICAL REASONING- DARWIN'S THEORY OF EVOLUTION
seen as the height of gun violence in America; they also Contrary to popular belief, the idea of evolution didn’t
noted that gun-related violence fell sharply in the 1990s originate with Darwin, but was around for decades before
and more gradually in later years. But Pew also noted he came along. His accomplishment was to come up with
that many Americans didn't seem to agree with the a workable scheme by which it likely occurred. Darwin, it
numbers. A survey found that only 12 percent of must be said, had unusual exposure to the enormous
respondents thought the gun crime rate was lower than it diversity of life on earth for a man living in his time,
was in 1993 — and 56 percent thought it was higher. through his voyage on the Beagle. However, his eureka
moment came not through studying biology, but by
It can be concluded from this survey result that: reading the paper of an economist, Thomas Malthus,
A. Though gun crime is thought to be rising, a majority which showed that populations grow faster than the
of people are against stricter background checks on gun resources to sustain them. It was then that Darwin
purchases.
realized that only those best adapted to their
B. Most people are not in favor of proposals to
restrict gun sales as gun-related violence is falling. environment would survive and pass on their traits to
offspring.

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do it in the darkroom, don't do it here".

What is the main idea of this paragraph?
A. It is impossible to come up with big insights Which of the following is the author least likely to agree
without crossing domains.
with?
B. The idea of evolution did not originate with
A. In photojournalism, editing news photographs by
Darwin.
truncating dead space is licit.
C. It is Malthus, not Darwin, who should be given
B. The key elements of a news photograph, like the
credit for the theory of evolution.
key words in a direct quote, are off limits to
D. It was the connections that Darwin uncovered
manipulation.
more than the facts themselves that made his work
C. Journalists of repute choose amongst, but do not
important.
distort direct quotations.
D. It is permissible for a photojournalist to alter a
CRITICAL REASONING- THE MIND OF THE GENIUS news photo in the interest of brevity or impact.
Many scientific studies have found links between genius
and mental illness, particularly bipolar disorder in which
patients have violent mood swings between elation and CRITICAL REASONING- THE RIGHT TO PRIVACY
depression. In one interesting Swedish study, 700,000 A holistic reading of the current state of our constitutional
Swedes had intelligence tests at age 16 and again 10 jurisprudence would demonstrate that the right to
years later. Those who scored well were four times more privacy is firmly embedded in our constitutional scheme
likely than the others to have developed bipolar disorder. as a non-negotiable imperative that owes no apology to a
The US neurologist James Fallon came up with a myopic view of our republican charter. Indeed,
convincing argument based on his own findings in the considering the fundamental principles of the nation as
field: the brain area involved in mood swings is the same “not rules for the passing hour, but principles for an
area where creativity is born. This may explain why some expanding future”, the apex court, as the ultimate arbiter
people can draw previously unseen connections among of constitutional conscience, has given fundamental
ideas, images, shapes and the like. rights their meaning in new settings consistent with the
aspirations of our people. This is so that we may have a
Which of the following is inferred from the above? ‘living constitution’ which can protect, preserve and
A. Those with bipolar disorder are likely to be highly defend sacrosanct libertarian values that remain the
intelligent.
bedrock of the Republic and constitute the core of the
B. Most people who excel in creativity are likely
suffering from a mental problem. Constitution. Rather than deny us our constitutional right
C. Often there is a correlation between mental illness , the Union Government ought to enact a privacy
and genius. legislation to clearly define the rights of citizens
D. Mental disorders give birth to genius. consistent with the promise of the Constitution.

Which of the following is the author most likely to agree

CRITICAL REASONING- PHOTOJOURNALISM
with?
Any reporter worthy of the name would no sooner fiddle A. Our republican charter has a myopic view of the
with direct quotes than a reputable photojournalist right to privacy
would alter his or her picture. News photographs are the B. The Supreme Court has been rigid in its
equivalent of direct quotations and therefore are interpretation of the Constitution
C. The right to privacy is rooted in our constitutional
sacrosanct. To be sure, just as a writer can, in the interest
scheme.
of brevity or impact, choose which quotes to use in a D. A new privacy legislation has to be defined as the
story, so can a news photographer or picture editor crop right to privacy is not dealt with in the Constitution.
out dead space in a news photo, or use the electronic
equivalent of dodging or burning in to make a picture RITICAL REASONING- GOOD WRITING
reproduce better. In this, I am reminded of what a In an attempt to encourage “livelier” writing, some
Washington Times shooter once told me. On a computer teachers want children to stop using words like ‘said’,
outside the paper's darkroom, she said, there was which doesn’t have any emotion. The assumption here is
plastered this flat admonition and warning: "If you can't that emotion is a desirable quality in every word of a

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sentence, and that a rich word is always more confuse process and substance. Once these become
appropriate than a plain one. You don’t have to invoke blurred, a new logic is assumed: the more treatment
Hemingway, who made a fetish of plain words, to there is, the better are the results; or, escalation leads to
recognize that successful writing modulates the success. The pupil is thereby schooled to confuse
lavishness of its diction for effect, rather than cranking teaching with learning, grade advancement with
the dial all the way to maximum floridity and leaving it education, a diploma with competence, and fluency with
there. the ability to say something new. His imagination is
schooled to accept service in place of value. Medical
What is the main idea of this paragraph? treatment is mistaken for health care, social work for the
A. Successful writers use only plain, unemotional improvement of community life, police protection for
words.
safety, military poise for national security, the rat race for
B. Emotion is not a desirable quality in every
sentence. productive work. Health, learning, dignity, independence,
C. Avoiding words like “said” helps children improve and creative endeavor are defined as little more than the
their writing. performance of the institutions which claim to serve
D. Good writers use rich words in moderation, for these ends, and their improvement is made to depend on
effect.
allocating more resources to the management of
hospitals, schools, and other agencies in question.

CRITICAL REASONING- EUPHEMISMS

What is the main idea of this paragraph?
Euphemisms in use seem to change every generation or so
A. Allocating more resources to health, learning,
– a tendency towards which we often roll our eyes. But dignity, independence, and creative endeavor is not likely
the fact is that a word is always redolent of various to increase their quality.
associations and metaphorical extensions beyond its core B. Schooling doctors thinking by teaching students to
meaning. Indeed, a word is like a bell tone, with a central identify the process with the results.
C. As a society we often mistake grades and diplomas
pitch seasoned by overtones. As the tone fades away, the for competence, medical treatment for healthcare, police
overtones can hang in the air. Words then bias as protection for safety and the rat race for productive
equivalents to the overtones. As we move on the work.
euphemism treadmill then, from ‘crippled’ to D. When it comes to schooling, less is more: the less
the treatment there is, better the results
‘handicapped’ to ‘disabled’ to ‘differently abled’, we
acknowledge the eternal gulf between language and
opinion. In a linguistically mature society, we should
CRITICAL REASONING- SLACK
expect that the terms we introduce to help us kick off
In times when expectations can change at the drop of a
new ways of thinking will require periodic replacement,
hat, flexibility is as important as speed. However, in their
like tyres.
zeal for efficiency, some organizations have engineered
out all the slack they can from their businesses at the
What is the main idea of this paragraph?
expense of agility. As Tom DeMarco puts it in his book
A. All words wear out with use, like tyres, and need to
be replaced periodically with more meaningful Slack, ‘An organization that can accelerate but not change
equivalents. direction is like a car that can speed up but not steer. In
B. The eternal quest for euphemisms to bridge the the short run, it makes lots of progress in whatever
gap between language and opinion is tedious. direction it happened to be going. In the long run, it’s just
C. We must accept the euphemism treadmill as an
essential part of linguistic life in a civilized society. another road wreck.’
D. Euphemisms help us avoid the trap of thinking too
much into the meanings of words. Which of the options below conveys the main idea of the
paragraph best?
A. Only organizations that are not very efficient can
CRITICAL REASONING- PROCESS AND SUBSTANCE adapt to change well.
Many students, especially those who are poor, intuitively B. Too little slack in organizations is as bad for
innovation as too much slack.
know what the schools do for them. They school them to

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C. Reducing slack to zero can cost businesses their

adaptability to change.
D. Business processes without slack slow down an
organization’s progress.

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