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CBSE NET Computer-Science June-2013 Solved Paper III: Examrace

The document discusses a CBSE NET Computer Science exam from June 2013. It provides 13 multiple choice questions from the exam, along with their answers. The questions cover topics like software engineering, databases, operating systems, algorithms and data structures.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
40 views22 pages

CBSE NET Computer-Science June-2013 Solved Paper III: Examrace

The document discusses a CBSE NET Computer Science exam from June 2013. It provides 13 multiple choice questions from the exam, along with their answers. The questions cover topics like software engineering, databases, operating systems, algorithms and data structures.

Uploaded by

Pathan Mehemud
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© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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Examrace Login &
▶ Examrace 223K Manage

Paper 3 has been removed from NET from 2018 (Notification)- now paper 2 and 3 syllabus is
included in paper 2. Practice both paper 2 and 3 from past papers.

CBSE NET Computer-Science June-2013 Solved Paper III


Secrets to easily score in UGC Paper-I-Get India's number 1 postal course with Translate
thoursands of UGC NET Paper-I questions Examrace CBSE-UGC Paper-I Postal
Course

1. The Software Maturity Index (SMI) is defined as SMI = [Mf – (Fa + Fc + Fd) ]/Mf Where
Mf = the number of modules in the current release. Fa = the number of modules in the
current release that have been added. Fc = the number of modules in the current release
that have been changed. Fd = the number of modules in the current release that have been
deleted. The product begins to stabilize when

a. SMI approaches 1

b. SMI approaches 0

c. SMI approaches –1

d. None of the above

Answer: a

2. Match the following:

List-I List-II

a. Watson-Felix model a. Failure intensity

b. Quick-Fix model b. Cost estimation

c. Putnam resource allocation model c. Project planning

d. Log arithmetic-Poisson Model d. Maintenance

A B C D

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a. 2 1 4 3

b. 1 2 4 3

c. 2 1 3 4

d. 2 4 3 1

Answer: d

3. __________ is a process model that removes defects before they can precipitate serious
hazards.

a. Incremental model

b. Spiral model

c. Cleanroom software engineering

d. Agile model

Answer: c

4. Equivalence partitioning is a __________ method that divides the input domain of a


program into classes of data from which test cases can be derived.

a. White-box testing

b. Black-box testing

c. Orthogonal array testing

d. Stress testing

Answer: b

5. The following three golden rules:

a. Place the user in control

b. Reduce the user's memory load

c. Make the interface consistent are for

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i. User satisfaction

ii. Good interface design

iii. Saving system's resources

iv. None of these

Answer: b

6. Software safety is a __________ activity that focuses on the identification and


assessment of potential hazards that may affect software negatively and cause an entire
system to fail.

a. Risk mitigation, monitoring and management

b. Software quality assurance

c. Software cost estimation

d. Defect removal efficiency

Answer: b

7. The “PROJECT” operator of a relational algebra creates a new table that has always

a. More columns than columns in orginal table

b. More rows than original table

c. Same number of rows as the original table

d. Same number of columns as the original table

Answer: c

8. The employee information of an Organization is stored in the relation: Employee (name,


sex, salary, deptname) Consider the following SQL query Select deptname from Employee
Where sex = ‘M’ group by deptname having avg (salary) > {select avg (salary) from
Employee} Output of the given query corresponds to

a. Average salary of employee more than average salary of the organization.

b. Average salary less than average salary of the organization.

c. Average salary of employee equal to average salary of the organization.

d. Average salary of male employees in a department is more than average salary of the
organization.

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Answer: d

9. For a database relation R (a, b, c, d) where the domains of a, b, c, d include only the atomic
values. The functional dependency a → c, b → d holds in the following relation

a. In 1NF not in 2NF

b. In 2NF not in 3NF

c. In 3NF

d. In 1NF

Answer: a

10. Match the following:

List-I List-II

a. RAID 0 a. Bit interleaved parity

b. RAID 1 b. Non redundant stripping

c. RAID 2 c. Mirrored disks

d. RAID 3 d. Error correcting codes

A B C D

a. 4 1 2 3

b. 3 4 1 2

c. 3 1 4 2

d. 3 2 4 1

Answer: c

11. In any n-element heap, the number of nodes of height h is

a. less than equal to [n/2h]

b. greater than [n/2h]

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c. greater than [n/2h + 1]

d. less than equal to [n/2h + 1]

Answer: d

12. A data file of 1, 00, 000 characters contains only the characters g-l, with the frequencies as
indicated in table: g h i j k l Frequency in thousand 45 13 12 16 9 5 using the variable-
length code by Huffman codes, the file can be encoded with

a. 2, 52, 000 bits

b. 2, 64, 000 bits

c. 2, 46, 000 bits

d. 2, 24, 000 bits

Answer: d

13. A vertex cover of an undirected graph G (V, E) is a subset V1 ⊆ V vertices such that

a. Each pair of vertices in V1 is connected by an edge

b. If (u, v) ∈ E then u ∈ V1 and v ∈ V1

c. If (u, v) ∈ E then u ∈ V1 or v ∈ V1

d. All pairs of vertices in V1 are not connected by an edge

Questions: 23, 69

Answer: c

14. In a fully connected mesh network with n devces, there are ________ physical channels
to link all devices.

a. n (n–1)/2

b. n (n + 1)/2

c. 2n

d. 2n + 1

Answer: a

15. The baud rate of a signal is 600 baud/second. If each signal unit carries 6 bits, then the bit
rate of a signal is ________.

a. 3600

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b. 100

c. 6/600

d. None of the above

Answer: a

16. Match the following:

List-I List-II

a. Data link layer a. Flow control

b. Network layer b. Node to node delivery

c. Transport layer c. Mail services

d. Application layer d. Routing

A B C D

a. 2 1 4 3

b. 2 4 1 3

c. 2 1 3 4

d. 2 4 3 1

Answer: b

17. An image is 1024∗800 pixels with 3 bytes/pixel. Assume the image is uncompressed. How
long does it take to transmit it over a 10-Mbps Ethernet?

a. 196.6 seconds

b. 19.66 seconds

c. 1.966 seconds

d. 0.1966 seconds

Answer: c
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18. The ________ measures the relative strengths of two signals or a signal at two different
points.

a. Frequency

b. Attenuation

c. Throughput

d. Decibel

Answer: d

19. Which one of the following media is multidrop?

a. Shielded Twisted pair cable

b. Unshielded Twisted pair cable

c. Thick Coaxial cable

d. Fiber Optic cable

Answer: c

20. What is the baud rate of the standard 10 Mbps Ethernet?

a. 10 mega baud

b. 20 mega baud

c. 30 mega baud

d. 40 mega baud

Answer: b

21. At any iteration of simplex method, if Δj (Zj – Cj) corresponding to any non-basic variable
Xj is obtained as zero, the solution under the test is

a. Degenerate solution

b. Unbounded solution

c. Alternative solution

d. Optimal solution

Answer: c

22. A basic feasible solution to a m-origin, n-destination transportation problem is said to be


_________ if the number of positive allocations are less than m + n – 1.
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a. Degenerate

b. Non-degenerate

c. Unbounded

d. Unbalanced

Answer: a

23. The total transportation cost in an initial basic feasible solution to the following
transportation problem using Vogel's Approximation method is W1 W2 W3 W4 W5
Supply F1 4 2 3 2 6 8 F2 5 4 5 2 1 12 F3 6 5 4 7 3 14 Demand 4 4 6 8 8

a. 76

b. 80

c. 90

d. 96

Answer: b

24. An actor in an animation is a small program invoked _______ per frame to determine
the characteristics of some object in the animation.

a. Once

b. Twice

c. 30 times

d. 60 times

Answer: a

25. Bresenham line drawing algorithm is attractive because it uses

a. Real arithmetic only

b. Integer arithmetic only

c. Floating point arithmetic

d. Real and integer arithmetic

Answer: b

26. The refresh rate above which a picture stops flickering and fuses into a steady image is
called _________.

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a. Crucial fusion frequency

b. Current frequency fusion

c. Critical fusion frequency

d. Critically diffused frequency

Answer: c

27. In homogenous coordinate system (x, y, z) the points with z = 0 are called

a. Cartesian points

b. Parallel points

c. Origin point

d. Point at infinity

Answer: d

28. If 40 black lines interleaved with 40 white lines can be distinguished across one inch, the
resolution is

a. 40 line-pairs per inch

b. 80 line-pairs per inch

c. 1600 lines per inch

d. 40 lines per inch

Answer: a

29. Images tend to be very large collecton of data. The size of memory required for a 1024 by
1024 image in which the colour of each pixel is represented by a n-bit number (in an 8 bit
machines), is

a. n × 8 MB

b. n/8 MB

c. (1024 × 1024)/8 MB

d. 1024 MB

Answer: b

30. Arrays in C language can have _________ with reference to memory representation.

a. n-subscripts
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b. two-subscripts

c. Only one subscript

d. Three subscripts only

Answer: c

31. Refer the points as listed below:

a. What are the operator precedence rules?

b. What are the operator associativity rules?

c. What is the order of operand evaluation?

d. Are there restrictions on operand evaluation side effects?

Which of the above must be considered as primary design issues for arithmetic
expressions?

a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1, 3 and 4

c. 1, 2 and 4

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: d

32. Horn clauses are special kinds of propositions which can be described as

a. Single atomic proposition on left side.

b. Single or multiple atomic propositions on left side.

c. A single atomic proposition on left side and a single atomic proposition on right side.

d. A single atomic proposition on left side or an empty left side.

Answer: d

33. Which of the following is/are the fundamental semantic model (s) of parameter passing?

a. In mode

b. Out mode

c. in-out mode

d. all of the above

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Answer: d

34. The grammar with production rules S → aSb |SS|λ generates language L given by:

a. L = {w∈ {a, b} * | na (w) = nb (w) and na (v) ≥ nb (v) where v is any prefix of w}

b. L = {w∈ {a, b} * | na (w) = nb (w) and na (v) ≤ nb (v) where v is any prefix of w}

c. L = {w∈ {a, b} * | na (w) ≠ nb (w) and na (v) ≥ nb (v) where v is any prefix of w}

d. L = {w∈ {a, b} * | na (w) ≠ nb (w) and na (v) ≤ nb (v) where v is any prefix of w}

Answer: a

35. A pushdown automation M = (Q, σ Γ δ q0, z, F) is set to be deterministic subject to which


of the following condition (s), for every q ∈ Q, a ∈ σ ∪ {λ} and b ∈ Γ (s1) δ (q, a, b) contains
at most one element (s2) if δ (q, λ b) is not empty then δ (q, c, b) must be empty for every c
∈σ

a. Only s1

b. Only s2

c. Both s1 and s2

d. Neither s1 nor s2

Answer: c

36. For every context free grammar (G) there exists an algorithm that passes any w ∈ L (G) in
number of steps proportional to

a. ln|w|

b. |w|

c. |w|2

d. |w|3

Answer: d

37. Match the following:

List-I List-II

a. Context sensitive language a. Deterministic finite automation

b. Regular grammar b. Recursive enumerable

c. Context free grammar c. Recursive language

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d. Unrestricted grammar d. Pushdown automation

A B C D

a. 2 1 4 3

b. 3 4 1 2

c. 3 1 4 2

d. 2 4 1 3

Answer: c

38. The statements s1 and s2 are given as: s1: Context sensitive languages are closed under
intersection, concatenation, substitution and inverse homomorphism. s2: Context free
languages are closed under complementation, substitution and homomorphism. Which of
the following is correct statement?

a. Both s1 and s2 are correct.

b. s1 is correct and s2 is not correct.

c. s1 is not correct and s2 is correct.

d. Both s1 and s2 are not correct.

Answer: b

39. Which one of the following is not an addressing mode?

a. Register indirect

b. Auto increment

c. Relative indexed

d. Immediate operand

Answer: c

40. Computers can have instruction formats with

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a. Only two address and three address instructions

b. Only one address and two address instructions

c. Only one address, two addresses and three address instructions

d. Zero address, one address, two addresses and three address instructions

Answer: d

41. Which is not a typical program control instruction?

a. BR

b. JMP

c. SHL

d. TST

Answer: c

42. Interrupt which arises from illegal or erroneous use of an instruction or data is

a. Software interrupts

b. Internal interrupt

c. External interrupts

d. All of the above

Answer: b

43. The simplified function in product of sums of Boolean function F (W, X, Y, Z) = σ (0, 1, 2,
5, 8, 9, 10) is

a. (W ‘+ X’ ) (Y ‘+ Z’ ) (X' + Z)

b. (W ‘+ X’ ) (Y ‘+ Z’ ) (X ‘+ Z’ )

c. (W ‘+ X’ ) (Y ‘+ Z) (X’ + Z)

d. (W ‘+ X’ ) (Y + Z ‘) (X’ + Z)

Answer: a

44. Match the following:

List-I List-II

a. TTL a. High component density

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b. ECL b. Low power consumption

c. MOS c. Evolution of “diode transistor-logic”

d. CMOS d. High speed digital circuits

A B C D

a. 3 2 1 4

b. 1 4 3 2

c. 3 4 1 2

d. 1 2 3 4

Answer: c

45. Match the following:

List-I List-II

a. Foreign keys a. Domain constraint

b. Private key b. Referential integrity

c. Event control action model c. Encryption

d. Data security d. Trigger

A B C D

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a. 3 2 1 4

b. 2 1 4 3

c. 3 4 1 2

d. 1 2 3 4

Answer: b

46. When an array is passed as a parameter to a function which of the following statements is
correct?

a. The function can change values in the original array.

b. The function cannot change values in the original array.

c. Results in compilation error.

d. Results in runtime error.

Answer: a

47. Suppose you want to delete the name that occurs before “Vivek” in an alphabetical listing.
Which of the following data structures shall be most efficient for this operation?

a. Circular linked list

b. Doubly linked list

c. Linked list

d. Dequeue

Answer: b

48. What will be the output of the following segment of the program? main () { char * s =
“hello world” int i = 7; printf ( “%, * s” i, s); }

a. Syntax error

b. hello w

c. hello

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d. o world

49. Trace the error: Void main () { int * b, &a, * b = 20; printf ( “%d, %d” a, * b) }

a. No error

b. Logical error

c. Syntax error

d. Semantic error

Answer: c

50. Match the following:

List-I List-II

a. calloc () a. Frees previously allocated space

b. free () b. Modifies previously allocated space

c. malloc () c. Allocates space for array

d. realloc () d. Allocates requested size of space

A B C D

a. 3 1 4 2

b. 3 2 1 4

c. 3 4 1 2

d. 4 2 3 1

Answer: a

51. Binary symmetric channel uses

a. Half duplex protocol

b. Full duplex protocol

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c. Bit oriented protocol

d. None of the above

Answer: a

52. Hamming distance between 100101000110 and 110111101101 is

a. 3

b. 4

c. 5

d. 6

Answer: d

53. Given code word 1110001010 is to be transmitted with even parity check bit. The encoded
word to be transmitted for this code is

a. 11100010101

b. 11100010100

c. 1110001010

d. 111000101

Answer: a

54. The number of distinct binary images which can be generated from a given binary image
of right M × N are

a. M + N

b. M × N

c. 2M + N

d. 2MN

Answer: d

55. If f (x, y) is a digital image, then x, y and amplitude values of f are

a. Finite

b. Infinite

c. Neither finite nor infinite

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d. None of the above

Answer: a

56. Consider the following processes with tme slice of 4 milliseconds (I/O requests are
ignored): Process A B C D Arrival time 0 123 CPU cycle 8 495 The average turnaround
time of these processes will be

a. 19.25 milliseconds

b. 18.25 milliseconds

c. 19.5 milliseconds

d. 18.5 milliseconds

Answer: b

57. A job has four pages A, B, C, D and the main memory has two page frames only. The job
needs to process its pages in following order: ABACABDBACD Assuming that a page
interrupt occurs when a new page is brought in the main memory, irrespective of whether
the page is swapped out or not. The number of page interrupts in FIFO and LRU page
replacement algorithms are

a. 9 and 7

b. 7 and 6

c. 9 and 8

d. 8 and 6

Answer: c

58. Suppose S and Q are two semaphores initialized to 1. P1 and P2 are two processes which
are sharing resources. P1 has statements P2 has statements Wait (S); wait (Q); Wait (Q);
wait (S); Critical section 1; critical section 2; Signal (S); signal (Q); signal (Q); signal (S);
Their execution may sometimes lead to an undesirable situation called

a. Starvation

b. Race condition

c. Multithreading

d. Deadlock

Answer: d

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59. An operating system using banker's algorithm for deadlock avoidance has ten dedicated
devices (of same type) and has three processes P1, P2 and P3 with maximum resource
requirements of 4, 5 and 8 respectively. There are two states of allocation of devices as
follows: State 1 Processes P1 P2 P3 Devices allocated 2 3 4 State 2 Processes P1 P2 P3
Devices allocated 0 2 4 Which of the following is correct?

a. State 1 is unsafe and state 2 is safe.

b. State 1 is safe and state 2 is unsafe.

c. Both, state 1 and state 2 are safe.

d. Both, state 1 and state 2 are unsafe.

Answer: a

60. Let the time taken to switch between user mode and kernel mode of execution be T1 while
time taken to switch between two user processes be T2. Which of the following is correct?

a. T1 < T2

b. T1 > T2

c. T1 = T2

d. Nothing can be said about the relation between T1 and T2

Answer: a

61. Working set model is used in memory management to implementthe concept of

a. Swapping

b. Principal of Locality

c. Segmentation

d. Thrashing

Answer: b

62. A UNIX file system has 1 KB block size and 4-byte disk addresses. What is the maximum
file size if the inode contains ten direct block entries, one single indirect block entry, one
double indirect block entry and one triple indirect block entry?

a. 30 GB

b. 64 GB

c. 16 GB

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d. 1 GB

Answer: c

63. A thread is usually defined as a light weight process because an Operating System (OS)
maintains smaller data structure for a thread than for a process. In relation to this, which
of the following statement is correct?

a. OS maintains only scheduling and accounting information for each thread.

b. OS maintains only CPU registers for each thread.

c. OS does not maintain a separate stack for each thread.

d. OS does not maintain virtual memory state for each thread.

Answer: b

64. The versions of windows operating system like windows XP and window Vista uses
following file system:

a. FAT-16

b. FAT-32

c. NTFS (NT File System)

d. All of the above

Answer: d

65. Which one of the following is a correct implementation of the meta-predicate “not” in
PROLOG (Here G represents a goal)?

a. not (G): – call (G), fail. Not (G).

b. not (G): – call (G), fail. Not (G).

c. not (G): – call (G), fail, Not (G).

d. not (G): – call (G), fail. Not (G): –

Answer: b

66. Which one of the following is not an informed search technique?

a. Hill climbing search

b. Best first search

c. A * search

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d. Depth first search

Answer: d

67. If we convert ∃u ∀v ∀x ∃y (P (f (u), 5, x, y) → Q (u, 5, y) ) to ∀v ∀x (P (f1, 5, x, g (5, x) ) → Q


(a, 5, g (5, x) ) ) This process is known as

a. Simplification

b. Unification

c. Skolemization

d. Resolution

Answer: c

68. Given two jugs of capacities 5 litres and 3 litres with no measuring markers on them.
Assume that there is endless supply of water. Then the minimum number of states to
measure 4 litres water will be

a. 3

b. 4

c. 5

d. 7

Answer: d

69. The map colouring problem can be solved using which of the following technique?

a. Means-end analysis

b. Constraint satisfaction

c. AO * search

d. Breadth first search

Answer: b

70. Which of the following is a knowledge representation technique used to represent


knowledge about stereotype situation?

a. Semantic network

b. Frames

c. Scripts

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d. Conceptual Dependency

Answer: c

71. A fuzzy set A on R is ________ iff A (λx1 + (1 – λ) x2) ≥ min [A (x1), A (x2) ] for all x1, x2
∈ R and all λ ∈ [0, 1], where min denotes the minimum operator.

a. Support

b. α-cut

c. Convex

d. Concave

Answer: c

Answer: b

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