First Year 2019docx

2019
September
Multiple Choice Questions and Single Best Answers
Mock Examination for First Year, Basic

Science UM1
Basic Science Paper 1- MCQs
1. In the typical female pelvis:
a. The sacro-iliac joint extends to the lower border of the
piece of the sacrum
b. The greater sciatic notch is acute
c. The inferior pubic rami are at a right-angle
d. The ischial spine and the tip of the coccyx are in the same
horizontal plane in upright position
e. The ischial spine lies in the plane of the body of the
ischium
Answer – F F T T T
2. The obturator artery:
a. Is a branch of the internal iliac artery.
b. Passes along the lateral pelvic wall below the obturator
nerve.
c. Is replaced by the abnormal obturator artery in less than 3%
of people.
d. Gives off a pubic branch which anastomoses with the pubic
branch of the superior epigastric artery.
e. Supplies the obturator externus muscle.
Answer – T T F F T
3. Branches of sacral plexus include
a. The femoral nerve
b. The lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
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c. The pudental nerve
d. The superior gluteal nerve
e. The posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh
4. The diaphragm
a. Is pierced by the greater splanchnic nerve
b. Has its peritoneal covering supplied exclusively by the
phrenic nerve
c. Supplied by the phrenic artery which is a branch of
abdominal aorta
d. Overlies the fundus of the stomach
e. Actively aids forced expiration
Answer – T F T T F
5. In the normal cervix:
a. The histological internal os lies above the anatomical
internal os
b. There is an abrupt transition from columnar to squamous
epithelium at the squamocolumnar junction
c. Is predominantly composed of connective tissues
d. Has sensory supply through the pelvic parasympathetic
nerve S234
e. There are cyclical changes during the menstrual cycle.
Answer – F T T T T
6. The ovarian ligament:
a. Is covered by peritoneum
b. Contains the ovarian vessels
c. Is attached to the uterus below the attachment of the
Fallopian tube
d. Is derived from the gubernaculum
e. Maintains the ovary in a constant position

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7. Contents of the broad ligament include:
a. The Fallopian tube
b. The paroophoron
c. The epoophoron
d. The round ligament of the uterus
e. The ovary
Answer – T T T T F
8. The obturator nerve:
a. Arises from the dorsal primary rami of the 2nd, 3rd and 4th
lumbar nerve
b. Emerges from the medial side of the psoas major muscle
c. Supplies the obturator internus muscle
d. Passes through the lesser sciatic foramen
e. Is purely motor
Answer – F T F F F
9. The vagina:
a. Is lined with non-keratinised squamous epithelium
b. Is directed upwards and backwards.
c. Normally has a pH of 4 to 5 during child-bearing years
d. Has abundant mucous-secreting cells
e. Has a posterior wall longer than its anterior wall
Answer – T T T F T
10. Retroperitoneal structures include the:
a. Spleen
b. Pancreas
c. Uterus
d. Aorta
e. Ureter

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Answer – F T F T T
11. The following arise from Wolffian remnants
a. The Epoophron
b. The processus vaginalis
c. The Paroophron
d. The round ligament
e. Gartner’s duct
Answer – T F T F T
12. In the development of fetal sex organs
a. The presence of ovaries is necessary for the development of
the paramesonephric ducts
b. The pronephric duct degenerates as the mesonephros
develops
c. Ova originate outside the developing gonad
d. The vagina is formed entirely by invagination of the
paramesonephric ducts
e. Sexual differentiation of the external genitalia is complete
before the 10th week of life
Answer – F F T F F
13. In human fetal development:
a. The primitive groove derives from the neural tube
b. The primitive streak lies caudal to the blastopore
c. The heartbeat appears at 14 days post-conception
d. At 6-8 weeks post-conception, the mid-gut protrudes
through the umbilical cord
e. The decidua capsularis overlies the chorion fondosum
Answer – F T F T F
14. In the fetal circulation
a. The foramen ovale permits blood to pass from the right to
the left atrium

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b. The ductus arteriosus carries blood from the pulmonary
artery to the aorta
c. The ductus venosus carries blood to the inferior vena cava
from the umbilical artery
d. The ductus arteriosus is contractile
e. The umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres of the
adult
Answer – T T F T T
15. Spermatogenesis:
a. Is a process requiring 110-120 days in the human male
b. Requires both FSH and LH to stimulate sperm maturation
c. Is associated with an increase in testosterone in the
intertubular tissue of the testis
d. Is abnormal in a male with karyotype 47XXY
e. Would cease in the absence of testosterone
16. Implantation:
a. Occurs 2-3 days following ovulation
b. In the human is described as interstitial
c. is associated with decidualisation the of endometrium
d. Is complete by about 10 days
e. Normally occurs in the lower portion of the uterus
Answer – F T T T F
17. The standard deviation
a. Is a test of significance
b. Gives an indication of the scatter of the observations
c. Can only apply to a normal distribution
d. Is calculated form the mean and the number of observations
e. Is the same as the median

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18. Cohort studies:
a. Are usually more expensive than case-control studies
b. Are not usually used to study rare diseases
c. Provide information on absolute risk
d. Usually concern only a single disease
e. Are rarely subject to bias
Answer – T T T F F
19. Homologous structures in the male and the female are:
a. The scrotum and the ovary
b. The bulbo-urethral (Cowper’s) gland and the great
vestibular (Bartholin’s) gland
c. The penile urethra and the labia minora
d. The gubernaculum testis and the infundibulo-pelvic
ligament of the ovary
e. The prostate and the para-urethra (Skene’s) glands
Answer – F T T F T
20. A double-blind clinical trial can be used to compare:
a. Labetalol and methyldopa in the treatment of pre-eclampsia

b. Hysterectomy and endometrial resection in the treatment of
menorrhagia
c. Outpatient and in-patient management of asymptomatic
placenta praevia
d. Cervical cerclage and no treatment in suspected cervical
incompetence
e. Aspirin and placebo in the prevention of pre-eclampsia
Answer – T F F F T
21. Growth hormone:
a. is a glycoprotein hormone.
b. Secretion is markedly increased during pregnancy.

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c. is responsible for growth in children and in the fetus.
d. Secretion is increased by hypoglycemia.
e. Pygmies have low levels of growth hormone.
Answer – F F F T F
22. Prolactin:
a. Release is stimulated by thyrotrophin-releasing hormone.
b. Secretion is inhibited by sexual intercourse.
c. Is a protein hormone.
d. Concentration in plasma rises during pregnancy.
e. Has a half-life of 6 hours.
Answer – T F T T T
23. Oestrogen:
a. is responsible or growth of pubic hair in the female at
puberty.
b. causes an increase in blood and urine levels of calcium.
c. is active during pregnancy.
d. causes deposition of glycogen in the vaginal epithelium.
e. reduces the number of progesterone receptors in the
endometrium.
Answer – F F T T F
24. Testosterone:
a. is a polypeptide.
b. When it is administered systemically, it stimulates
spermatogenesis.
c. It is responsible for the involution of the Mullerian system
in the female.
d. induces secondary characteristics in the male.
e. Is secreted by the adrenal medulla.
25. Progesterone:

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a. Pregnanediol glucuronide is the major metabolite of
secreted progesterone.
b. Is a thermogenic hormone.
c. The progesterone receptor is increased by progestins
d. Large doses of progesterone produces natriuresis.
e. During the luteal phase,progesterone blocks the positive
feedback effect of oestradiol.
Answer- T T F T T
26. Inhibin:
a. inhibits FSH secretion.
b. Is produced by the interstitial cells of Leydig in the male.
c. Is produced by the granulose cells in the female.
d. Is a polypeptide.
e. Has a direct action on the pituitary gland.
27. Relaxin hormone is found in:
a. Semen.
b. The endometrium during the proliferative phase of the
menstrual cycle.
c. Chorionic cytotrophoblasts.
d. The placental plate.
e. The corpus luteum.
28. Sex hormone binding globulin binds:
a. androstenedione.
b. Testosterone.
c. Progesterone.
d. Oestradiol.
e. Cortisol.

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Answer – T T F T F
29. Epidermal growth factor:

a. is a steroid hormone.
b. Augments FSH action on the granulosa cell.
c. Augments granulosa cell proliferation.
d. Stimulates insulin like growth factor 1 production.
e. Is produced in the ovary.
30. Recognized consequences of insulin excess include:
a. Weakness
b. Tremors
c. Palpitations
d. dizziness.
e. Confusion.
Answer – T T T T T
31. Gram negative bacteria
a. pseudomonas is a facultative anaerobes
b. Klebsiella is an obligate aerobes
c. Bacteroides is an obligate anaerobes
d. produce lipopolysaccharide endotoxin
e. drug resistance is due to penecillanase production
Answer: F F T T T
32. Normal vaginal flora may include
a. Chlamydia trachomatis
b. Clostridium perferingens
c. bacteroides
d. Fusobacterium spp

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e. Human papilloma virus
33. Actinomyces spp:
a. are Gram negative
b. have acid fast filaments
c. Actinomyces israelli is a normal commensal
d. are sensitive to penicillin
e. may colonize in intrauterine contraceptive device
Answer: F F T T T
34. The Spirochetes
a. Traponema pallidium can be visualize by Giemsa staining
b. Traponema pallidium may be identified by tissue culture
c. Borellia causes undulant fever
d. Leptospira causes chancroid
e. are motile by axial filament
Answer: T F T F T
35. Syphilis serology
a. The regain tests depend upon antibody reaction with
cardiolipin
b. Cardiolipin is also used in VDRL and WR tests
c. The TPHA test makes use of immune fluroscence
d. Reagen tests remain positive may years after effective
therapy
e. FTA-ABS becomes positive earlier in the disease than
TPHA
Ans – T T F F T
36. HIV
a. Tests for HIV antibody are offered as part of anternatal
screening
b. HIV type 2 is transmitted transplacentally far less

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frequently than HIV type 1
c. HIV antiretroviral treatment during pregnancy has reduced
the rate of HIV transmission
d. Serological techniques are used for monitoring HIV disease
in infancy
e. HIV is an RNA retrovirus
37. Hepatitis B virus
a. presence of anti-Hbe indicates an increased risk of
transmission
b. Anti Hbs level more than 100IU/L designate a good post
vaccine respond
c. Hepatitis B immunoglobulin is given at birth to babies of
Hbe antigen positive mother
d. mother to child transmission of HbB virus account for up to
50% of carrier
e. Hepatitis vaccine is given to the infants of HBV carriers at
birth, 1 month, 2 month & 12 months.
38. Toxoplasma gondii
a. the normal host of Toxoplasma gondii is the cat
b. Antenatal screening tests always include T.gondii serology
c. specific IgM indicates recent infection with the organism
d. infection in the early stages of pregnancy may result in
disseminated toxoplasma infection
e. cat faeces in litter trays or in the garden are to be avoided
throughout pregnancy
Answer: T F T T T
39. Variecellas Zoster
a. VZV is a herpes virus
b. Immunity can be indentify by the detection of specific Ig G

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c. VZV specific immunoglobulin should be given to
susceptible pregnant women in contact with index
pregnancy
d. infection gives rise to a persistence infection which can
gives rise to Zoster infection in later life
e. electron microscopy can distinguish between different
herpes viruses
Answer: T T T T F
40. Candida Albican
a. is dimorphic.
b. may cause paronychia
c. may be found as natural commensal in vagina
d. may cause septicaemia
e. has gram negative pseudohyphae
Answer: T T T T F
41. Morphine:
a. the major pathway for it is detoxification by oxidation to
gentisic acid
b. increase biliary tract pressure
c. is eliminated mainly in the conjugated state via glomerular
filtration
d. is secreted in the bile
e. produce excitement in male and female equally it does.
42. Which of the following is/are selective oestrogen receptor
modulator (SERMs)?
a. Cyproterone acetate
b. Tibolone
c. Tamoxifen
d. Raloxifen
e. Metformin

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43. The hazards of induction of anesthesia by injection of
thiopentone are:
a. severe hypotension
b. cessation of respiration
c. necrosis following extra vascular injection
d. bronchospasm
e. stimulation of bronchial and salivary secretions
44. Are the following true regarding propranolol?
a. Is a cardio-selective beta adrenoceptor antagonist.
b. Has intrinsic sympathomimetic action.
c. Crosses the blood brain barrier poorly.
d. Has a small volume of distribution.
e. Has a long elimination half-life.
Answer – F F F F F
45. Are the following statements about drug interactions
correct?
a. Alcohol metabolism is impaired by metronidazole
b. Antacids decrease intestinal absorption of tetracyclines
c. The action of heparin is opposed by vitamin K
d. The effects of bromocriptine are potentiated by
chlorpromazine
e. The effects of warfarin are potentiated by combined oral
contraceptive
Answer – T T F F F
46. Drugs which affect the fetus in late pregnancy:
a. oxytetracycline
b. long acting sulfa
c. streptomycin

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d. ampicillin
e. erythromycin
47. Cytotoxic drugs:
a. antimetabolites include methotrexate 5FU, 6
mercaptopurine
b. methotrexate block folic reductase
c. alkaylating agents include thiotepa and synthetic progestins
d. cycophosamide causes hemorrhagic cystitis
e. vincristine causes peripheral neuropathy
48. Clomifene is a commonly used drug for the induction of
ovulation. By which mechanism does clomifene promote
follicular development?
a. Binds to estrogen receptors in the endometrium
b. Binds to estrogen receptors in the pituitary promoting an
LH surge
c. Blocks estrogen receptors in the hypothalamus, increasing
FSH pulse frequency
d. Increases inhibin production by the ovary
e. Opposes ovarian anti-mullerian hormone production
Answer: F F T F F
49. The following effective against penicillinase producing
Staphylococcus aureus:
a. cloxacillin
b. carbenicillin
c. ampicillin
d. phenoxy methyl penicillin
a. flagyl
Answer – T F F F F

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50. The following items are useful for prevention of side
effect of chemotherapy:
a. full body irradiation
b. folinic acid
c. scalp cooling
d. corticosteroids
e. leucocytes transfusion

Science UM1
Basic Science Paper 1- SBAs
1. During a caesarean section, the rectus sheath is divided to
reveal the rectus muscle. The combined aponeuroses of
which muscles form the anterior component of the rectus
sheath?
A. External and internal oblique
B. External oblique and transverses abdominis
C. Internal oblique and transverses abdominis
D. Pyramidalis and serratus anterior
E. Pyramidalis and transverses abdominis
Answer – A
2. The lactating breast is divided into lobules, each of which
contains a lactiferous duct. Approximately how many
lobules does each breast contain?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 10
E. 20

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Answer: E- 20
3. The uterine artery is a direct branch of which major
artery in the pelvis?
A. External iliac
B. Internal iliac
C. Femoral
D. Obturator
E. Pudental
Answer – B
4. A woman with advanced cervical cancer presents to
hospital with worsening left loin pain. Which structure is
most likely to have become obstructed?
A. Cervix
B. Ureter
C. Urethra
D. Uterine artery
E. Vagina
Answer – B
5. A 27-year-old woman has a cervical smear result which
shows ‘borderline’ changes. Which cell line the ectocervix?
A. Ciliated cells
B. Columnar epithelium
C. Cuboidal epithelium
D. Smooth muscle cells
E. Stratified squamous cells
Answer – E
6. An 18-year-old woman attends the gynaecology clinic
complaining of urinary incontinence, 3 months after
suffering a third degree perineal tear during a normal
vaginal delivery.
Which muscle forms the main bulk of the levator ani

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muscle?
A. Bulbocavernosus
B. Iliococcygeus
C. Ischiococcygeus
D. Pubococcygeus
E. Urogenital diaphragm
Answer – D
7. A 63-year-old woman complains of numbness over her
thigh following a radical hysterectomy for stage IV
endometrial carcinoma. What is the nerve root of the
obturator nerve?
A. Anterior division L1-L4
B. Anterior division L2-L4
C. Anterior division L3-L4
D. Posterior division L2-L4
E. Posterior division L3-L4
Answer – B
8. Spinal anesthesia is given for elective LSCS, surgeon
check for level of anesthesia by at level of umbilicus.
Umbilicus corresponds to
A. T7
B. T10
C. L1
D. T4
E. L4
Answer – B
9.which of the following is not contain of superficial perineal
pouch?
A. Ischiocavernosus muscle
B. Bulbospongiosus muscle

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C. Superficial transverse perineal muscle
D. Deep transverse perineal muscle
E. Crura of clitoris
Answer – D
10. False statement about ovary is
A. Ovary is almond shape organ with diameter of 4 cm
B. External iliac vessel present in anterior relation of ovarian
fossa
C. Ovarian fossa contains perineal nerve
D. Right ovarian vein drains into inferior vena cava
E. Left ovarian vein drain into left renal vein
Answer – C
11. The mesoderm gives rise to
A. hair follicles
B. ovum
C. peritoneum
D. transitional epithelium of bladder
E. vagina mucosa
Answer – C
12. Concerning the embryological development
A. the amnion has an ectodermal origin
B. uterine epithelium is developed from mesonephric duct
C. the ducts of Bartholin glands open above the hymen
D. the round ligament is derived from gubernaculum
E. the adrenal cortex is derived from neural crest cells
Answer – D
13. In human fetal development
A. primitive groove derived from neural tube
B. primitive streak lies caudal to blastospore

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C. heart beat appears at 40 -50 days post conception
D. at 18 weeks post conception, mid gut protrudes through the
umbilical cord
E. the decidua capsularis overlies the chorionfrondosum
Answer – B
14. During development of GI system
A. liver is derived from mid – gut endoderm
B. haemopoietic cells of liver are derived from foregut
endoderm
C. pancreas is derived from endoderm of midgut
D. pancreas is derived from dorsal and ventral pancreatic buds
E. spleen develops from a diverticulum of foregut
Answer – D
15. Pharyngeal arches
A. Appear during week 5 and 6 of development
B. Consists of a core of ectoderm
C. Develop from mesenchyme
D. The epithelium is derived from mesoderm
E. Contribute to the formation of thorax
Answer – C
16. Cohort studies
A. Are usually cheaper than case-control studies
B. Are usually used to study rare diseases
C. Provide information on relative risk
D. Are rarely subject to bias
E. Require large number of subjects over long period
Answer – C
17. The standard deviation
A. Gives an indication of the dispersion (scatter) of the

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observations
B. Can apply both to a normal or skew distribution
C. Is calculated from the mean square and the number of
observations
D. Is the same as the median
E. Is the negative square root of variance
Answer – A
18. Relative risk (RR)
A. Is a measure of association used to interpret Cohorts study
B. Is the ratio of the risk in an unexposed group compare with
the exposed group
C. RR=1 means that there is definite exposure-outcome
association
D. RR of 3 means that there is a weak exposure-outcome
association
E. RR<1 means that the exposure-outcome association is very
strong
Answer – A
19. Screening test
A. should have a medium sensitivity
B. should have a low specificity
C. should be cost-effective
D. should be safe to apply to the part of population
E. There should be no latent period in disease progression
Answer – C
20. The following are categorical variable
A. Blood pressure
B. Gender
C. Haemoglobin concentration
D. Height

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E. Plasma glucose concentration
Answer – B
21. Which of the following is an action of cortisol?
A. Analgesia
B. Decrease glycogenesis
C. Decrease catabolism of proteins
D. Decrease gastric acid production
E. Increase gluconeogenesis
Answer – E
22. A 52-year-old woman with Cushing’s syndrome is
referred to the pre-assessment clinic prior to a vaginal
hysterectomy. Which of the following is a feature of
Cushing’s syndrome?
A. decreased plasma lactate dehydrogenase
B. hypoglycemia
C. hypokalaemia
D. hyponatremia
E. metabolic alkalosis
Answer – C
23. A 32-year-old woman is presenting with secondary
amenorrhoea. Day 21 progesterone level indicates that she is
not ovulating. Which of the following statements best
describes the events occurring at the mid-luteal phase of
menstrual cycle?
A. increase in progesterone and selective rise in FSH
B. high progesterone leads to low FSH and LH
C. Estradiol decreases and FSH increases
D. estradiol feedback becomes negative leading to LH surge
E. peak of LH surge
Answer – C
24. Which of the following action is related to glucagon?

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A. Decrease gluconeogenesis
B. Decrease ketone body production
C. Decrease plasma glucose
D. Increase glycogenolysis
E. Reduce lipolysis
Answer – D
25. A 28-year-old woman is referred to the gynaecology clinic
with primary infertility. On examination, she has a round
face, prominent stretch marks on her abdomen and
hirsutism.
Which of the following is not a feature of Cushing’s
syndrome?
A. Diabetes insipidus
B. Depression
C. Irregular menstrual cycles
D. Osteoporosis
E. Weight gain
Answer – A
26. A 34 year old woman undergoes regular ultrasound scan
for follicle tracking have been started o clomiphene
treatment. Which of the following statement best describe
the mature ovarian follicle?
A. its development is primarily controlled by LH
B. it is surrounded by theca cells
C. it is usually the only primary follicle to develop during
each cycle
D. it produces progesterone
E. it reaches the diameter of 20-30 mm prior to rupture
Answer – B
27. A 51-year-old woman is started on HRT. You consider
the properties of estrogen when discussing the
contraindications to HRT treatment. Which of the following

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is property of oestrogen?
A. Decreases bone formation
B. Decrease circulating coagulation factors.
C. Increases bowel motility
D. Reduce triglycerides in blood.
E. Stimulates growth of endometrium
Answer – C
28. A 48-year-old woman is found to have persistent
hypertension, further investigation reveals
pheochromocytoma. Which of the following biochemical
changes is associated with pheochromocytoma?
A. basophilia
B. hyperglycemia
C. hyperkalaemia
D. hypocalcemia
E. reduce urinary catecholamines
Answer – B
29. A 72-year-old woman is seen in pre-assessment clinic
prior to undergoing a routine vaginal hysterectomy for
prolapse. Her BP is found to be high and electrolytes
deranged. Which of the following is a secondary cause of
hyperaldosteronism?
A. Conn’s syndrome
B. diabetes insipidus
C. a renal artery stenosis
D. syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion
E. tuberculosis
Answer – C
30. A 60-year-old woman with a chronic disease is admitted
to hospital acutely unwell. She has severe diarrhea and
vomiting. She is hypotensive with a BP of 85/45 mmHg. You
suspect, she has Addison’s disease. Which of the following is

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a recognized cause of Addison’s disease?
A. diabetes insipidus
B. HIV
C. hyperparathyroidism
D. pregnancy
E. sarcoidosis
Answer – B
31. An 18-year-old woman presents to a sexual health clinic
requesting a sexually transmitted infection screen; she is
asymptomatic, however she is concerned as her new
boyfriend is complaining of dysuria, penile discharge and
scrotal pain. What is the most likely cause?
A. Actinomycesisraelii
B. Candida albicans
C. Chlamydia trachomatis
D. Toxoplasma gondii
E. Treponema pallidum
Answer – C
32. A 63-year-old man with an open fracture of the femur
develops the rare complication of gas gangrene and requires
leg amputation.
What is the most likely causative agent?
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Clostridium tetani
D. Escherichia coli
E. Klebsiella pneumonia
Answer – B
33. A 28-year-old primiparous woman who is 16 weeks
pregnant reports mild dysuria; otherwise she is well. Urine
dipstick shows leucocytes ++ and is positive for nitrites. She

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is prescribed appropriate antibiotics.
What is the most likely causative organism of her urinary
tract infection?
A. Citrobacter freundii
B. Escherichia coli
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Proteus mirabilis
E. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Answer – B
34. Which of the following is the causative agent of Kaposi’s
sarcoma?
A. HIV
B. Human herpesvirus 4
C. Human herpesvirus 8
D. Human T-lymphotrophic virus 1
E. All of the above
Answer – C
35. A 35-year-old multiparous woman has presented to
labour ward in spontaneous labour. You see from her
antenatal notes that she is HIV positive. She is currently
using highly active antiretroviral therapy and has a viral
load of 43 copies/ml.
Which of the following is associated with increased risk of
vertical transmission of HIV?
A. Co-existent Group B Streptococcus carriage
B. Chorioamnionitis
C. Paternal HIV infection
D. Post-dates gestation
E. Vaginal examination during labour
Answer – B
36. A woman presents at 28 weeks gestation with vomiting,

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headache, night sweats and abdominal pain. She has recently
returned from the African country of Mali. Urgent blood
films show the presence of Plasmodium falciparum, with a
parsitaemia of 3%. After a diagnosis of malaria has been
made, she is treated with intravenous quinine.
The presence of which haematological characteristics is
associated with increased incidence of malaria?
A. Haemoglobin C
B. Beta-thalassemia
C. Duffy antigen
D. G6PD deficiency
E. Sickle cell trait
Answer – C
37. A 23-year-old woman attends antenatal clinic at 22
weeks’ gestation. This is her second pregnancy and she is
very concerned as during her first pregnancy she had an
‘infection’, which led to the permanent disability of her
child. He is deaf, with delayed development and is small for
his age. He became jaundiced shortly after birth.
What was the most likely cause of her son's condition?
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Herpes
C. Parvovirus B19
D. Rubella
E. Varicella zoster
Answer – A
38. A 38-year-old woman from Sri Lanka attends her general
practitioner at 10 weeks gestation. She is complaining of
fever and has pains in her joints. She developed a rash
yesterday. On examination, she is febrile, postauricular
lymphadenopathy and Rubella is diagnosed
What is the most likely fetal abnormality to occur as a result
of this acute infection?

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A. Cerebral palsy
B. Failure to thrive
C. Limb hypoplasia
D. Microcephaly
E. Sensorineural hearing loss
Answer – E
39. Which of the following is an obligate anaerobic
organism?
A. Bacteroides
B. Escherichia coli
C. Listeria
D. Mycobacteria
E. Pseudomonas
Answer – A
40. A 50-year-old woman has ongoing pelvic pain; she has
had a coil in situ for the last 8 years. She has a pelvic mass;
histological sampling of the mass at laparoscopy shows a
suppurative and granulomatous inflammatory process with
the presence of sulphur granules.
Which is the most likely causative agent?
A. Actinomyces israelii
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Gardnerella vaginalis
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E. Neisseria meningitides
Answer – A
41. Which of the following is a recognized side effect of
heparin?
A. Hirsutism
B. Hyperaldosteronism

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C. Hypokalaemia
D. Osteomalacia
E. Thrombocytopaenia
Answer – E
42. Which of the following drugs is most likely to have
interacted with the efficacy of her contraception?
A. Carbamazepine
B. Cimetidine
C. Erythromycin
D. Metronidazole
E. Sulphamethoxazole
Answer – A
43. Which of the following drugs is the anticoagulant of
choice during pregnancy?
A. Aspirin 300 mg
B. Heparin infusion
C. Low molecular weight heparin
D. Warfarin
E. most of the above
Answer – C
44. The following drugs can cause hirsutism except:
A. methyltestosterone.
B. phenytoin.
C. cyproterone acetate.
D. diazoxide.
E. danazol.
Answer – C
45.The followings are recognized side-effects of clomiphene
citrate except:

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A. postural hypotension.
B. blurring of vision.
C. alopecia.
D. hot flushes.
E. nausea.
Answer – A
46. A 27-year-old woman is treated for severe bronchitis at
38 weeks’ gestation. Her baby, born at 41 weeks’ gestation,
has neonatal haemolysis. Which drug taken by the mother
for bronchitis is the cause of the baby’s neonatal haemolysis?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Co-trimoxazole
D. Doxycycline
E. Erythromycin
Answer – C
47. Which of the mechanism of action of warfarin?
A. Activation of antithrombin III
B. Increase action of factor Xa
C. Increase production of factors II, VII, IX and X
D. Increase production of vitamin K
E. Inhibits enzyme reduction of vitamin K
Answer – E
48. Which of following antihypertensive agents can cause
fetal renal defect and oligohydramnios if it is taken during
pregnancy?
A. Atenolol
B. Labetalol
C. Methyl dopa
D. Nifedipine

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E. Ramipril
Answer – E
49. Which anticonvulsant drug is the most potentially
teratogenic?
A. cabamazipine
B. lamotrigine
C. levetiacetam
D. phenytoin
E. sodium valproate
Answer – E
50. Which is the most appropriate treatment for vaginal

candidiasis unresponsive to clotrimazole cream?
A. Clotrimazole pessary
B. Metronidazole 400 mg orally
C. Fluconazole 400 mg orally
D. Hydrocortisone 0.5% cream
E. Trimovate creams
Answer – A

Science UM1
1. The Kreb (citric acid) cycle:
a. Can function under anaerobic conditions
b. Occur inside the mitochondria
c. Is the common pathway for oxidation of carbohydrate and
fat
d. Involves the release of four carbon atoms at each turn of the
cycle

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e. Is entered only through acetyl coenzyme A (Co A)
Answer – F T T F F
2. In aerobic glycolysis:
a. Glucose is converted to lactate
b. One molecule of glucose produces 38 molecules of ATP
c. Carbon dioxide and water are produced
d. One molecule of NADH generates two molecules of ATP
e. Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the Krebs cycle
3. Glucogenic amino acids include:
a. Alanine
b. Isoleucine
c. Tyrosine
d. Proline
e. Valine
Answer – T F F T T
4. Glycolysis:
a. Requires oxygen.
b. Is energy dependent.
c. Convert glucose to carbon dioxide and water.
d. Of a molecule of glucose leads to a net gain of two
molecules of ATP.
e. In the liver is inhibited by insulin.
Ans – F T F T F
5. Creatinine:
a. Is formed in the muscle from phosphorylcreatine
b. Plasma levels are proportional to the total muscle mass
c. Plasma levels are raised in renal failure
d. Plasma level normally fall during pregnancy

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e. Is excreted mainly by filtration in the kidney
6. Purines:
a. Include uracil
b. Are metabolized into uric acid
c. Are mainly synthesized in the lungs
d. Enter in the formation of nucleic acids
e. Are synthesized from amino acids
7. In prolonged starvation there is increased:
a. Plasma free fatty acids
b. Urinary creatinine
c. Urinary nitrogen
d. Plasma cortisol levels
e. Insulin secretion
8. Positive nitrogen balance is present during:
a. Pregnancy
b. Cushing’s syndrome
c. Pubertal growth
d. Long-term recovery from severe illness
e. Prolonged starvation
9. Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine):
a. Is water-soluble
b. Deficiency can lead to epileptiform convulsions
c. Excess can lead to sensory polyneuropathy

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d. Requirement in pregnancy is 25mg per day
e. Deficiency can lead to macrocytic anaemia
10. During pregnancy, there is a rise in the plasma
concentration of:
a. Alpha 1-globulin
b. Albumin
c. Beta-globulin
d. Triglycerides
e. Aspartate aminotransferase
11. Ultrasound causes:
a. Cavitation
b. Heating
c. Microstreaming
d. Decreased velocity of blood flow
e. Ionization
12. Soft markers for chromosomal abnormalities seen on
ultrasound scan include:
a. Choroid plexus cyst
b. Echogenic bowel
c. Exompholos
d. Fetal hydrops
e. Mild renal pelvic dilatation
13. Concerning the hysterosalpingogram:

a. It is performed in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle

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b. It uses ultrasound
c. It may use to investigate secondary subfertility
d. A pregnancy test must be performed before the procedure
e. It is contraindicated in individuals with a history of
Chlamydia
14. Ultrasound:
a. Has no known adverse effects on tissue
b. Can have thermal effects on tissue
c. Can cause streaming
d. Can cause fulguration
e. Safety protocols necessitate the use of thermal indices
15. Concerning chromosomes
a. Each contains two identical chromatids
b. They are best visualized during interphase
c. The short arm of a chromosome is also known as the ‘q’
arm
d. Human have 23 pairs of autosomal chromosomes
e. The centromere is the meeting point of two chromatids
16. Cystic fibrosis is:
a. An X-linked recessive condition
b. Associated with gene defect of chromosome 9
c. Most commonly caused by deletion of F508
d. Characterized by a defect in potassium ion transport
e. Caused by a defect in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane
conductance gene
Answer – F F T F T
17. An increased nuchal translucency thickness may be seen
in fetus with:
a. Cardiac defects

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b. Down’s syndrome
c. Noonan’s syndrome
d. Patau’s syndrome
e. Turner’s syndrome
18. Sex chromosome abnormalities:
a. 47XXX may result from non-disjunction
b. Mosaicism may result from anaphase leg
c. May result from a translocation
d. Deletion result in the formation of isochromosome
e. 45Y results in mental retardation
19. The following are examples of X-linked conditions
a. Osteogenic inperfecta
b. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
c. Christmas disease
d. Marfan’s syndrome
e. Amaurotic family idiocy
Ans – F T T F F
20. Sexual differentiation
a. In the absence of ovaries or testes the embryo has a female
phenotype
b. Dihydrotestosterone is converted to testosterone by 5 alpha
reductase
c. In 47 XXY an ovotestis develops
d. In 5 alpha reductase deficiency a female phenotype results
e. The karyotype of true hermaphrodites is commonly 46XX
Ans – T F F T T
21. Endoplasmic reticulum (ER):
a. The 60S subunit of ribosomes is anchored to ER
b. Smooth ER is abundantly found in hepatocytes

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c. Rough ER is involved in the synthesis of protein of the
plasma membrane
d. Smooth ER is responsible for peptide formation
e. Ribosomes account for the basophilic granularity in rough
ER
22. Mitochondria
a. are 20-50µm long
b. have an outer layer with numerous folds called cristae
c. have enzymes for electron transport chain
d. have enzymes for citric acid cycle
e. their DNA is exclusively of paternal origin
23. Chromosomes
a. Are DNA proteins
b. Are present in the nucleus
c. Are outside the nucleus duting mitosis
d. Number in each cell is not species specific
e. At least one X-chromosome is essential for survival
24. The cell membrane:
a. Is trilaminar.
b. Is made up of polypeptide chains.
c. Contains the HLA antigens.
d. Is attached to the centrosome.
e. Synthesizes and stores protein.
25. In cell division of somatic cells
a. During interphase the Y body may be seen
b. During the G1 stage replication takes place
c. Metaphase occurs after the anaphase
d. The G1 stage occurs after S stage

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e. During anaphase the chromosomes separate at their
centromeres
Ans – T F F F T
26. With regard to antibody type.

a. The primary immune response produces IgG.
b. The secondary immune response produces IgM.
c. IgE antibody is found on the surface of mast cells.
d. IgE is the secretory immunoglobulin.
e. IgM antibody crosses the placenta.
Answer - F,F,T,F,F
27. Innate or mon-specific immunity
a. Is antigen specific.
b. Is not antigen specific.
c. Response is not antigen dependent.
d. Response is antigen dependent.
e. Lag period is present between exposure and response.
Answer - F,T,T,F,F
28. Natural killer cells
a. Resemble neutrophils in their morphology.
b. Are slightly larger than lymphocytes.
c. Are identified by the presence of CD3 cell surface marker.
d. Are identified by the presence of CD6 and CD16 cell
surface markers.
e. Are capable of killing virus-infected cells.
Answer - F,T,F,T,F
29. Immunology and pregnancy:
a. IgG decreases in pregnancy.
b. Helper T lymphocytes are increased in number in normal
pregnancy.
c. Maternal IgG has no harmful effect on the fetus.
d. Fetal IgM is derived from maternal blood.
e. IgD is increased in pregnancy.

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Answer - T,F,F,F,T
30. Immunology:
a. Immunoglobulin A is present in colostrum.
b. Helper T cells are essential in order for B cells to produce
full activation an antibody formation.
c. The genes of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC)
are located on short arm of human chromosome 6.
d. Lymphokines are produced by lymphocytes.
e. Most of the receptors on T cells are made up of alpha and
beta polypeptide units.
Answer - T,T,T,T,T
31. Carcinoma in situ in epithelium is characterized by
a. increased mitotic activity
b. loss of polarity
c. increased adhesiveness to the underlying stroma
d. Invasion into stroma
e. increased thickness of the epithelium
Ans – T T F F T
32. Complications of myocardial infarct include
a. Fibrous pericarditis
b. Aortic aneurysm
c. Ventricular mural thrombi
d. Coronary atherosclerosis
e. Ventricular aneurysm
33. The pathogenesis of thrombosis
a. Prostacyclin induces platelet aggregation
b. Platelets synthesize thromboxane A
c. Thromboxane A2 induces vasoconstriction
d. Contact with subendothelial collagen causes platelet
aggregation

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e. Thrombin inhibits platelet aggregation
Ans – F T T T F
34. Osteoporosis is associated with
a. An increase in uncalcified bone matrix
b. Prolonged oestrogen therapy
c. A normal histological bone structure
d. Bone fracture
e. Irregularity of epiphyseal plates
35. Features of DIC includes
a. Thrombocythaemia
b. Petechiae
c. Haemorrhage
d. Reduced circulating FDPs
e. Small vessel thrombosis
36. Chemical mediators concerned in the production of an
inflammatory response include
a. 5-HT
b. Aldosterone
c. Glucocorticoids
d. Bradykinin
e. Leukotrienes
37. A metaplastic process is involved in the histogenesis of
the following tumors
a. Squamous cell carcinoma of vulva
b. Squamous cell carcinoma of bronchus
c. Scirrhous carcinoma of breast

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d. Squamous cell carcinoma of cervix
e. Adenocarcinoma of oesophagus
Answer – F T F F T
38. The following tissues are capable of cellular regeneration
a. Spinal cord
b. Liver
c. Epidermis
d. Myocardium
e. Bone marrow
39. Uterine fibroids
a. Are defined histologically as fibromyxomas
b. Arise from endometrial stroma
c. May be associated with polycythaemia
d. Predispose to endometrial hyperplasia
e. Are liable to a sarcomatous change in about 5% of cases
40. The following tumors are hormone dependent

a. Squamous cell carcinoma of cervix
b. Breast adenocarcinoma
c. Uterine leiomyoma
d. Prostatic adenocarcinoma
e. Testicular carcinoma
41. The osmotic pressure of the plasma
a. Is decreased during pregnancy
b. Is mainly due to its protein content

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c. At the arteriolar end of the capillary causes passage of
water into the interstitial space
d. When increased leads to increased secretion of vasopressin
e. Is higher in the renal glomerular capillaries than that in
other capillaries
42. Pathological factors affecting fetal heart rate include
a. Maternal thyroid status
b. Structural abnormalities of the fetal heart
c. Maternal pyrexia
d. Fetal sleep/activity state
e. Fetal anaemia
43. Du ring normal pregnancy, there is an increase in
a. Cardiac output mainly due to increased heart rate
b. Arteriovenous oxygen gradient
c. Red cell mass
d. Haematocrit
e. Blood volume proportional to the size of the fetus
44. A positive Kleihauer test may be found
a. During the neonatal period
b. In men with sickle cell anaemia
c. In women with homozygous beta thalassaemia
d. Following feto-maternal haemorrhage
e. Following normal delivery
45. Hyperventilation may lead to
a. Decreased cerebral blood flow

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b. Tetany
c. Increased cardiac output
d. Respiratory alkalosis
e. Significant elevation in blood pressure
46. The affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen is decreased by
an increase in
a. Blood PH
b. Temperature
c. 2,3 diphosphoglycerate
d. Carboxyhaemoglobin
e. Haemoglobin S
47. Concerning the luteoplacental shift
a. It occurs at around 12 wk gestation
b. It coincides with the decrease in 17 alpha
hydroxyprogesterone production
c. hCG production decreases after the shift
d. refers to the transition of human placental lactogen
production from the corpus luteum
e. failure of the corpus luteum prior to the shift is linked with
miscarriage
48. With regards to the liver
a. Kupffer cells are phagocytic
b. fibrinogen is synthesized in the liver
c. bilirubin is a breakdown product of haemoglobin
d. physiological jaundice of the neonate occurs as a result of
failure of excretion of bilirubin
e. high density lipoprotein is the most abundant lipoprotein

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found in the liver
49. Urine
a. pH is relatively acidic compared to plasma
b. composition changes with diet
c. usually contains a trace of glucose
d. creatinine levels are lower than in plasma
e. in normal circumstances it is protein free
50. lactation is suppressed by
a. carbergoline
b. progesterone only pill
c. bromocryptine
d. metoclopramide
e. levothyroxine
Answer – T F T F F

Science UM1
1.What type of acid-base disturbance may result from the

chronic use of spironolactone (an aldosterone antagonist)?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. No effect
D. Respiratory acidosis
E. Respiratory alkalosis
Answer – A
2. A 50 yrs old woman present to GP complaining of fatigue

Page 43 of 262
and upper abdominal pain, 6 weeks after sustaining a distal
radial fracture. Her blood test indicates hypercalcaemia and
hypophosphataemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Bone metastasis
B. Increased parathyroid hormone-related protein production
C. Primary hyperparathyriodism
D. Sarcoidosis
E. Secondary hyperparathyroidism
Answer- C
3. Which tumour suppressor protein is mutated in the
majority of cancers?
A. APC
B. INK4a
C. p53
D. p57
E. TGFβ
Answer – C
4. What is the overall product of the glycolysis pathway?
A. Glucose
B. Pyruvate
C. 1 NADH + 1 ATP
D. 2 NADH + 2 ATP
E. 4 NADH + 4 ATP
Answer- B
5. A 18 day baby is brought to A&E by his parent. He is
vomiting, severely dehydrated and appears to be
underweight. The paediatricians diagnosed a salt wasting
crisis and are concerned that he has a form of congenital
adrenal hyperplasia. What hormone deficiency in this
disorder?
A. cholesterol
B. cortisol
C. dihydrotesterone
D. oestradiol

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E.testosterone
Answer - B
8. A 24 yrs woman is admitted via the emergency
department with persistent hyperememsis of pregnancy. She
in now feeling very unwell and appears dehydrated. Her
blood pressure is 110/60 mmHg, heart rates 100 bats per
minutes, SPO2 98% on room air and a respiratory rate of 20
beats per minutes. What is the most likely acid-base disorder
in this patient?
C. Mixed metabolic alkalosis and respiratory acidosis
Answer- B
7. Following the birth of their second child with severe
developmental delay, a couple is seen by a clinical geneticist.
Genotyping suggest a rare autosomal recessive condition
caused by a defect in the normal functioning of the citric
acid cycle. Which of the following is not an intermediate of
the citric acid cycle?
A. Alpha-ketoglutarate
B. Acetyl coenzyme A
C. Citrate
D. Oxaloacetate
E. Succinyl coenzyme A
Answer – B
8. Which of the following describes the appearance of sister
chromatids during the anaphase of mitosis?
A. Alignment along the cell’s horizontal plane
B. Alignment along the cell’s vertical plane
C. Alignment at one pole
D. Separation to diagonal poles
E. Separation to opposite poles

Page 45 of 262
Answer – E
9. A 28-year-old primiparous woman attends her booking
appointment at 10 weeks gestation. She is keen to maintain a
healthy diet during her pregnancy and seeks explanation for
differences between essential and non-essential amino acids.
Which of the following is a non- essential amino acid?
A. Arginine
B. Leucine
C. Methionine
D. Tryptophan
E. Tyrosine
Answer: E
10. A 58-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. As part of her
routine care, her general practitioner checks and her fasting cholesterol levels. She is found to have
a mildly raised total cholesterol level with a raised serum low-density lipoprotein level.
Which of the following describes the function of low-density lipoproteins?
A. Transport of cholesterol from the body’s tissues to the liver

B. Transport of cholesterol from the liver to tissues around the
body
C. Transport of chylomicrons from the liver to elsewhere in
the body
D. Transport of triglycerides from the intestine to other tissues
for storage
E. Transport of triglycerides from the liver to elsewhere in the
body for oxidation
Answer – B
11. Ultrasound
A. it is produced by electrical power
B. the frequency of a sound wave is inversely proportionate to
its wavelength
C. is a horizontal wave form
D. high frequency ultrasound has greatest tissue penetration
E. cannot be refracted
Answer – B
12. Ultrasound and doppler scanning

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A. continuous wave doppler scanning is more commonly used
in obstetrics than pulsed wave doppler scanning
B. red colour denotes flow away from transducer and blue
color denotes flow towards the transducer in color doppler
imaging
C. continuous wave doppler ultrasound transmit and receives
ultrasound intermittently
D. doppler frequency is determined only by angle of isonation
E. mechanical index, soft tissue thermal index and thermal
index for bone indicates safety indices in the use of doppler
scanning
Answer: E
13. MRI
a. blood vessels appear white on scanning
b. has no recognized side effect on fetus
c. it involves ionizing radiation
d. the pregnant mother should be turn to her right side during
scanning
e. tissue with high hydrogen concentration are difficult to
distinguish
Answer: B
14. Natural decay of radioactive isotopes results in emission
of
A. alpha particles
B. X rays
C. neutron rays
D. proton beams
E. gamma particles
Answer: A
15. Radiotherapy
A. One gray is equivalent to 1 joule per kg
B. skin usually recieves a lesser dose of radiation than
underlying tissue

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C. major effect of radiation is to damage the cytoplasm of the
cell
D. cell in tissue which are hypoxic are more vulnerable to
radiation
E. radiation induced changes in tissue may take 3 weeks to
develop
Answer: A
16. The following genetic disorders are inherited as
autosomal recessives
A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
B. Huntingdon’s chorea
C. Tay-sachs disease
D. retinoblastoma
E. achondroblastoma
Answer – C
17. Increased number of chromosomes occurs in which of the
following?
A. Down’s syndrome
B. Fragile X syndrome
C. Patau’s syndrome
D. Retinoblastoma
E. Turner’s syndrome
Answer – A ( C is also a true key)
18. The followings are NOT include characteristic features of
Turner’s syndrome:
A. A low occipital hairline
B. Anosmia
C. Coarctation of aorta
D. Short stature
E. Raised FSH levels in adults
Answer – B
19. Barr body:

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A. Appears as a dense rod close to the cell wall
B. Arises from Y chromosome
C. Is present in males with Klinefelter’s syndrome
D. Is present in subjects with Turner’s syndrome
E. Is present in 20% of cells in the normal male
Answer – C
20. In X-linked pedigree:
A. None of the daughters of an affected father will be affected
B. Half of the daughters of an affected male will not carry the
gene
C. Half of the sons of carrier female will be affected
D. Females are never affected
E. All of the daughters of a carrier female will themselves be
carriers
Answer – C
21. The following substances is typically produced by gram
positive bacteria and destroyed by heat
A. Interferon
B. Endotoxins
C. Exotoxins
D. Immunoglobulins
E. Cytokines
Answer: C
22. Which of the following is most important in the adaptive

immune system?
A. Complement
B. Macrophages
C. Natural killer cells
D. Neutrophils
E. T helper cells

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Answer – E
23. Immunoglobulin which is actively transported by the
placenta is:
A. IgA
B. Ig G
C. Ig E
D. Ig M
E. Ig D
Answer: B
24. What is the common step to all complement activation

pathways?
A. Activation of C1 to antibody-antigen complexes
B. Cleavage of C3 into C3a and C3b
C. Formation of the mannose-binding lectin complex
D. Formation of the IgG antibody-antigen complex
E. Formation of the IgM antibody-antigen complex
Answer – B
25. Immune response that causes Rhesus disease is the
characteristic of :
A. Immediate (type 1 ) hypersensitivity
B. Antibody mediated (type II) hypersensitivity
C. Immune complex mediated (type III) hypersensitivity
D. Delayed cell mediated (type IV) hypersensitivity
E. Graft versus host disease
Answer: B
26. Which of the following is typical of acute inflammation?
A. Angiogenesis
B. Centralization of leucocytes
C. Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure
D. Increased efficiency of axial blood flow
E. Increased endothelial permeability
Answer: E
27. Immune response which manifests in the skin as the
wheal and flare response is the characteristics of :
A. Immediate (type 1 ) hypersensitivity
B. Antibody mediated (type II) hypersensitivity
C. Immune complex mediated (type III) hypersensitivity

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D. Delayed cell mediated (type IV) hypersensitivity
E. Graft versus host disease
Answer: A
28. Which of the following gives the structure of the
antibody IgG?
Structure Properties
A. Dimer - main immunoglobulin found in secretions. Eg saliva and mucosal surface
B. Monomer - antigen receptor on B cells
C. Monomer - main mediator of allergic reaction
D. Monomer - only immunoglobulin to cross the placenta
E. Pentamer - first immunoglobulin to be produced: expressed on surface of B cells
Answer: D
29. Which of the following condition is transmitted via

mitochondrial inheritance?
A. Alpha thalassaemia
B. Colour blindness
C. Dermatomyositis
D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
E. Leber’s optic neuropathy
Answer: E
30. Which of the following statement is correct for
phenylketonuria?
A. It is an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern
B. It is an example of pleiotropy
C. It causes structural defects
D. It occurs due to deficiency of phenylalanine decarboxylase
E. It causes accumulation of tyrosine in the blood
Answer: B
31. A 32 yrs. woman attends the fertility clinic. She has a
four-year history of infertility, severe dysmenorrhea and
increasing pain with sexual intercourse. On pelvic
examination, an adnexal mass is felt, and nodules are
palpated along the uterosacral ligaments. The single most
likely cause is;
A. Corpus luteum cyst
B. Endometriosis

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C. Ovarian carcinoma
D. Ovarian dermoid cyst
E. Pelvic inflammatory disease
Answer- B
32. Which two HPV types are found in 70% of cervical
cancers and are targeted in HPV vaccines?
A. 6 and 11
B. 16 and 18
C. 31 and 35
D. 31 and 45
E. 73 and 82
Answer: B
33. Which type of epithelial tissue undergoes malignant

change in the majority of bladder cancers?
A. Columnar
B. Pseudostratified
C. Squamous
D. Stratified
E. Transitional
Answer: E
34. A 31-year-old nulliparous woman has heavy bleeding at 8
weeks gestation. An early pregnancy scan is suggestive of a
molar pregnancy and no fetus is observed. What is the
typical genotype of a complete molar pregnancy?
A. 45 XO
B. 46 XX
C. 46 XXX
D. 69 XXY
E. 92 XXXY

Page 52 of 262
Answer: B
35. Which of the following paraneoplastic syndrome is
paired with a recognized causal malignancy?
A. Acanthosis nigricans and bowel cancer
B. Carcinoid and uterine cancer
C. Cushing’s syndrome and small cell lung cancer
D. Dermatomyositis and renal cancer
E. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion
and fibroma
Answer: C
36. Which of the following is a risk factor for the
development of ovarian cancer?
A. Early menopause
B. History of breastfeeding
C. Nulliparity
D. Oral contraceptive use
E. Physical activity
Answer: C
37. Which of the following is not feature of disseminated
intravascular coagulation (DIC)
A. Reduced platelet
B. Increased prothrombin time (PT) and partial
thromboplastin time (PTT)
C. Reduce fibrinogen
D. Increase fibrinogen degradation product (FDP)
E. Increase fibrinogen
Answer: E
38. Commonest cause of first and early second trimester
miscarriage is:
A. Chromosomal abnormality
B. Infection

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C. Smoking
D. Maternal diseases
E. Alcoholism
Answer: A
39. Increase in number of cells in tissue called:
A. Hypoplasia
B. Atrophy
C. Hypertrophy
D. Hyperplasia
E. Metaplasia
Answer: D
40. Carcinoma of cervix most commonly occur at:
A. Ectocervix
B. Endocervix
C. Transformation zone
D. Same at all above places
E. None of above
Answer: C
41. What compound forms the major constituent of
pulmonary surfactant?
A. Surfactant- associated protein A
B. Dipalmitoylphosphatidyl choline
C. Surfactant-associated protein
D. Phosphatidylcholine
E. Phoshatidylglycerol
Answer: B
42. The cardiovascular system undergoes immense
physiological changes in pregnancy. Which of the following
parameters does not change in pregnancy?
A. Cardiac output

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B. Central venous pressure
C. Heart rate
D. Stroke volume
E. Systemic vascular resistance
Answer: B
43. By what percentages does cardiac output increase in
pregnancy?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 20%
D. 40%
E. 80%
Answer: D
44. There are huge changes in the coagulation system in
pregnancy. Which of the following components of the
coagulation system does not change in an uncomplicated
pregnancy?
A. Factor IX
B. Fibrinogen
C. Platelets
D. Protein S
E. Von Willebrand’s factor
Answer: C
45. Approximately how many weeks does it take for
complete uterine involution following delivery?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 6
D. 12
E. 24

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Answer: C
46. What is considered to be the normal maximum blood loss
during menstruation?
A. 10 ml
B. 50 ml
C. 80 ml
D. 120 ml
E. 500 ml
Answer: C
47. The glycoprotein layer surrounding a metaphase II
oocyte is known as the
A. Acrosome
B. Zona pellucida
C. Corona radiate
D. Cumulus oophorus
E. Polar body
Answer: B
48. Where in the kidney is the majority of bicarbonate
reabsorbed?
A. Bowman’s capsule
B. Collecting duct
C. Distal convoluted tubule
D. Loop of Henle
E. Proximal convoluted tubule
Answer: E
49. In normal puberty in girls, which physical change appear
first?
A. Axillary hair growth
B. Breast development
C. Menstruation

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D. Pubic hair growth
E. Skin changes eg. Acne
Answer: B
50. What is the total extra iron requirement in pregnancy?
A. 1 mg
B. 10 mg
C. 50 mg
D. 100 mg
E. 1000 mg
Answer: E

Science UM2
1. Muscles attached to the perineal body include:
a. Bulbo-spongiosus muscle.
b. Ischio-cavernosus muscle.
c. External anal sphincter.
d. Deep transverse perineal muscle.
e. Pubo-coccygeus part of the levator ani muscle.
Ans - T F T T T
2. The vagina
a. Is lined with non-keratinized stratified squamous
epithelium
b. Is directed upwards and backwards
c. Normally has a pH of 4-5 during child bearing years
d. Has abundant mucous secreting cells
e. Has a posterior wall longer than its anterior wall

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3. The pudental nerve:
a. Is derived from the ventral rami of the 2nd, 3rd and 4th
sacral nerves.
b. Passes between the piriformis and the coccygeus muscles.
c. Passes through the lesser sciatic foramen.
d. Passes through the greater sciatic foramen.
e. Lies on the medial wall of the ischio-rectal fossa.
Ans - T T T T F
4. Ilioinguinal nerve
a. Passes behind the kidney
b. Arises from posterior rami of first lumbar nerve
c. Supplies skin over mons pubis
d. Supplies skin over anterior third of the scrotum
e. Emerges from superficial inguinal ring
Answer - T F F T T
5. Major support of the uterus
a. levator ani muscle
b. uterosacral ligament
c. round ligament
d. pub cervical ligament
e. infendibulo pelvic ligament
Answer: T T F T F
6. Adult left ovary
a. vein which drain into left renal vein
b. covered with peritoneum
c. has lymph drainage to internal iliac nodes
d. has referred pain along the cutaneous distribution of
obturator nerve

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e. has arterial supply from a branch of internal iliac artery
Answer – T F F T F
7. Anterior vaginal wall
a. is longer than its posterior wall
b. is partially cover with peritoneum
c. is intimately related to urethra
d. is lined with non-keratinized stratified squamous
epithelium rich in mucous glands
e. normally is in contact with posterior wall
Answer: F F T F T
8. In the typical female pelvic
a. sacroiliac joint extend to lower border of 3rd piece of
sacrum
b. greater sciatic notch is acute
c. inferior pubic rami are at right angle
d. in upright position, ischial spine and tip of coccyx are in the
same horizontal plane
e. ischial spine lie in the plane of body ischium
Answer - F F T T T
9. The levator ani muscle
a. Is attached to the brim of the pelvis
b. Can act as a sphincter of the vagina
c. Has no attachment to the perineal body
d. Forms the roof of the ischio-rectal fossa
e. Has motor innervations form the pelvic autonomic nerve
10. Obturator artery:
a. Is a branch of the internal iliac artery
b. passes along the lateral pelvic wall below the obturator
nerve

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c. is replaced by the abnormal obturator artery is less than 3%
of people
d. give off a pubic branch which anastomosis with that of the
superior epigatric artery
e. supplies the obturator externus muscle
11. In oogenesis
a. The early development of the primitive germ cells in the
ovary during intrauterine life is mitotic
b. Primary oocytes are formed after 37 weeks gestation
c. Some primary oocytes will remain in prophase for 12-50
years
d. Division of the secondary oocyte occurs at the time of
ovulation
e. At puberty there are 1-2 milliion oocytes presents
12. In early development and implantation
a. zygote contain blastomere
b. morula is contained within blastocyte
c. the embryo form from trophoblast
d. the blastocyst implant about 10 days after fertilization
e. syncytrophoblast arise from inner cell mass
Answer - T F T F F
13. In development of uterus, tubes and vagina
a. paremesonephric duct reach the urogenital sinus by week 7
b. at 9 week, both mesonephric and paramesonephric duct are
present
c. muscular wall develop in uterus in 6th month
d. vaginal plate is composed of urogenital sinus epithelium
and para mesonephric duct
e. vagina is solid organ until 30 weeks

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Answer - F T F T F
14. In the development of ovary
a. granulosa cell derive from coelomic epithelium
b. by 20 weeks, there are 700000 germ cells
c. by 20 -24 weeks follicle formation can be seen
d. mesenchyme gives rise to theca cell
e. lower part of guberneculum becomes the round ligament
Answer - T F T T T
15. In the formation of membrane
a. yolk sac is derived from trophoblast
b. ectoderm is a containing source of supply of amniotic cells
c. vitalline duct is incorporated into lower end of body stalk
d. amniochorionic membrane contains a loose reticular layer
e. the amniotic membrane contains a layer of parietal
extraembroyonic mesenchyme
Answer - F T T T T
16. Statistics
a. mode of distribution is the most frequent occurrence of
value
b. mean, medium, mode are identical in normal distribution
c. variance is the square root of standard deviation
d. Student t test is the standard method of comparing the
observed and expected frequency of an event
e. Chi-square test is the standard method of compared value
of variance
17. Definition of statistics
a. prevalence of a disease is the number of patients who
develop disease in a given period
b. sensitivity of a test is probability of the test being positive

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in patient with condition
c. specificity of a test is probability of the test having a
condition when test is positive
d. neonatal death is the death within 7days
e. infant mortality rate is the number of infant death first year
of life per 1000 live birth
Answer: F T F F T
18. In statistical analysis
a. Student’s t test is the standard method of comparing the
observed and expected frequencies of an event
b. The Chi-squared test is the standard method of comparing
the size of variences
c. the varience is the square root of the standard deviation
(SD)
d. the normal range contains the central 90% if the
observation in a population
e. the confidence interval is the interval containing the
unknown true value of the parameter with a known
probability
Answer: F F F F T
19. Concerning a sample with a normal distribution
a. it can also be described as having a Gaussian distribution
b. 50 % of data set lie within 2 standard deviation
c. median is higher than mean
d. it may be bimodal
e. mode lies at the centre of distribution
20. Regarding statistical tests
a. Student’s t test can be used to compare the mean of non-
parametric data
b. X2 test can be used with categorical data

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c. the Mann-Whitney test is a non-parametric test
d. Fisher’s exact test is a non-parametric test
e. Non parametric tests have greater power than parametric
tests
21. Human placenta lactogen (HPL)
a. The levels in the maternal circulation is correlated with
fetal and placental weight
b. Its metabolic role is to mobilize lipids as free fatty acids
c. Induces insulin resistance and carbohydrate intolerance
d. When glucose becomes scarce for the fetus, hPL increases
the transport of fatty acids across the placenta
e. Fetal undernutrition can lead to insulin resistance in later
life
Ans – T T T F T
22. Insulin
a. Is a polypeptide molecule, with molecular weight of 5734
daltons
b. Consists of 51 amino acids
c. The amino acid residues form two chains, A and B, which
are joined by two covalent bonds
d. Zinc is needed for the crystallization of insulin
e. Pancrease stores about 2500 units of insulin at any one time
Ans – T T F T F
23. Glucagon
a. contains 129 amino acids
b. secreted from alpha cells of islets of Langenhan
c. results in rapid mobilization of hepatic glucose by
gluconeogenesis
d. used to treat in hypoglycaemia of IDDM
e. contraindicated in phaeochromocytoma

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24. ACTH
a. Is a polypeptide hormone
b. Has a molecular weight of 4500 daltons
c. Is the main hormone controlling aldosterone secretion
d. Secretion is increased in congenital adrenal hyperplasia
e. Contains the sequence of alpha-melanocyte stimulating
hormone
25. Vasopressin
a. Is a nonapeptide hormone
b. Secretion is inhibited by alcohol
c. May elevate arterial blood pressure by direct action on the
arteriolar smooth muscle
d. Secretion is increased by angiotensin II
e. Is produced in excess in diabetes insipidus
Ans – T T F T F
26. Follicular-stimulating hormone (FSH)
a. FSH is a glycoprotein composed of two subunits, alpha and
gamma
b. The alpha chain is composed of 929 amino acids
c. The receptors for FSH are serpentine receptors coupled to
adenyl cyclase
d. Is produced by the posterior pituitary gland
e. It is responsible for the final maturation of the ovarian
follicles, and oestrogen secretion from them
Ans – F F T F F
27. Regarding general endocrine, which of the followings are
true
a. Oestrogens have a 21-carbon based nucleus

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b. Tanycytes are specialized ependymal cells with ciliated
borders which line the third ventricle over the site of the
median eminence
c. Steroid receptors are made up of two steroid binding units
and one non-binding subunit
d. Prolactin is encoded by a single gene on the long arm of
chromosome 6
e. Follicle-stimulating hormone is a polypeptide hormone
Ans – F T F F F
28. Oestrogen
a. Stimulates the growth and activity of the mammary gland
and the endometrium
b. Is derived from cholesterol
c. Some 80 degree is bound to albumin
d. In pregnancy, oestradiol is the predominant oestrogen
e. Increases the clotting factors VII, VIII, IX and X
Ans – T T F F T
29. Testosterone
a. Is a polypeptide
b. When administered systemically stimulates
spermatogenesis
c. Is responsible for involution of the mullerian system in the
female
d. Induces secondary sex characteristics in male
e. Is secreted by the adrenal medulla
30. Progesterone
a. Is a thermogenic hormone
b. During the luteal phase, progestone blocks the positive
feedback effect of ostradiol
c. The progesterone receptor is increased by progestins

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d. During pregnancy, progesterone inhibits the stimulatory
effect of oestrogen until term
e. Is rapidly metabolized by the liver, and approximately 20%
is excreated in the urine as sodium pregnanediol
glucoronide
Ans – T T F F T
31. Gram negative bacteria
a. pseudomonas a facultative anaerobes
b. Klebsiella an obligate aerobes
c. Bacteroides an obligate anaerobes
d. lipopolysaccharide endotoxin
e. drug resistance due to penecillanase production
Answer: F F T T T
32. Normal vaginal flora may include
b. Clostridium perferingens
c. bacteroides
d. Fusobacterium spp
e. Human papilloma virus
33. Actinomyces spp:
a. are Gram negative
b. have acid fast filaments
c. Actinomyces israelli is a normal commensal
d. are sensitive to penicillin
e. may colonize in intrauterine contraceptive device
Answer: F F T T T
34. The Spirochetes
a. Traponema pallidium can be visualize by Girmsa staining

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b. Traponema pallidium may be identified by tissue culture
c. Borellia causes undulant fever
d. Leptospira causes chancroid
e. are motile by axial filament
Ans: F F T F T
35. Syphillis serology
a. The regain tests depend upon antibody reaction with
cardiolipin
b. Cardiolipin is also used in VDRL and WR tests
c. The TPHA test makes use of immune fluroscence
d. Regain tests remain positive may years after effective
therapy
e. FTA-ABS becomes positive earlier in the disease than
TPHA
Ans – T T F F T
36. HIV
a. Tests for HIV antibody are offered as part of anternatal
screening
b. HIV type 2 is transmitted transplacentally far less
frequently than HIV type 1
c. HIV antiretroviral treatment during pregnancy has reduced
the rate of HIV transmission
d. Serological techniques are used for monitoring HIV disease
in infancy
e. HIV is an RNA retrovirus
37. Hepatitis B virus

a. presence of anti-Hbe indicates an increase risk of
transmission
b. Anti Hbs level more than 100IU/L designate a good post

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vaccine respond
c. Hepatitis B immunoglobulin is given at birth to babies of
Hbe antigen positive mother
d. mother to child transmission of HbB virus account for up to
50% of carrier
e. Hepatitis vaccine is given to the infants of HBV carriers at
birth, 1 month, 2 month & 12 months.
a. the normal host of Toxoplasma gondii is the cat
b. Antenatal screening tests always include T.gondii serology
c. specific IgM indicates recent infection with the organism
d. infection in the early stages of pregnancy may result in
disseminated toxoplasma infection
e. cat faeces in litter trays or in the garden are to be avoided
throughout pregnancy
Answer: T F T T T
39. Variecellas Zoster
a. VZV is a herpes virus
b. Immunity can be indentify by the detection of specific Ig G
c. VZV specific immunoglobulin should be given to
susceptible pregnant women in contact with index
pregnancy
d. infection gives rise to a persistence infection which can
gives rise to Zoster infection in later life
e. electron microscopy can distinguish between different
herpes viruses
Answer: T T T T F
40. Candida Albican
a. is dimorphic.
b. may cause pronychia

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c. may be found as natural commensal in vagina
d. may cause septicaemia
e. has gram negative pseudohyphae
Ans : T T T T F
42. Antibiotics during pregnancy
a. aminoglycosides may cause auditory or vestibular damage,
especially in the first trimester
b. tetracycline may cause dental discoloration if taken in the
first trimester
c. chloramphenicol may cause gray baby syndrome
d. metronidazole in therapeutic doses relatively safe during
pregnancy
e. erythromycin is safe during pregnancy
Answer: F F T T T
42. Antiviral drugs
a. Zidovudine eliminates the HIV virus
b. Inosine pranbex enhances the B-cell response to many
viruses, including herpes and HIV
c. High levels of beta-interferon are found in the amniotic
fluid and in the placenta
d. Acyclovir prevents DNA synthesis
e. Amantadine has a delerterious effect on breast feeding
Answer – F F F T T
43. Anti-viral drugs
a. Amentidine is effective against the HIV virus
b. Acyclovir is teratogenic drug
c. alpha interferon is produced by leucocytes
d. anaemia is a common side effect of zidovudin
e. Idoxuridine is effective only if taken orally
Answer:

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44. Regional anesthesia
a. Bupivacaine is the drug most widely used in epidural
anaesthesia
b. epidural block is a very useful in the management of
patients with antepartum haemorrhage
c. spinal anaesthesia may be complicated by maternal
respiratory difficulties
d. Epidual anaesthesia may lead to a higher rate of forceps
delivery
e. headache is more common in epidural than spinal
anaesthesia
45. Drugs affecting glucose metabolism
a. biguanide should not used in patient with even mild renal
impairment
b. biguanide reduce blood glucose in DM and do not cause
hypoglycaemia
c. insulin is steroid hormone
d. sulphonylurea do not cross placenta
e. insulin circulate in its pre state in the blood
46. Drugs acting on thyroid gland

a. Propylthiouracil (PTU) blocks the incorporation of iodine
into tyrosine
b. Perchlorate prevents the uptake of iodide by the follicular
cells in the thyroid gland
c. Bone marrow depression is a recpgnized side effects of
carbimazole
d. PTU appears in breast milk in an insignificant amount
e. Intravenous L-thyroxine is the treatment of choice in
hypothyroid coma

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47. The following treatment/drugs are correctly coupled with
their teratogenic effects
a. Irradiation - leukaemia
b. Warfarin - gastroschisis
c. Phenytoin - cleft palate
d. Quinine - hypoplasia of optic nerves
e. Aminoglycosides - deafness
48. Anticancer agents
a. vinblastine is antimetabolite
b. Alkylating agents cause structural damage to chromosome
at time of replication during interphase
c. methotrexate causes peripheral neuritis
d. vincristine binds to tubulin and causes metaphase arrest
e. androgen have beneficial effect in some mammary gland
cancers
Answer: F T F T T
49. Drugs acting in uterus
a. Dinoprostone is preferable to oxytocin for induction in
women with intact membranes
b. Prostaglandin inhibitors (eg. indomethacin) are used to
suppress premature labour
c. Atropine has no direct effect on the uterus
d. At term, the dose of syntocinon required to induce labour is
0.5-15 mU/min
e. Oxytocin is produced by the anterior pituitary gland
Answer - T T T T F
50. The following are true
a. Effectiveness of COC is stimulated by rifampicin

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b. COC increases premenstrual tension
c. Spironolactone, used as an diuretics, is an antiandrogen
d. Previous VTE is an absolute contraindication to COC use
e. Cyproterone acetate can cause hirsutism
Basic Science Paper 1 SBA 2019, UM2
1. The internal pudental artery

A. leaves the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen
B. lies on the medial wall of the ischiorectal fossa
C. has a branch which pierces the perineal membrane
D. gives rise to the middle rectal artery
E. supplies the upper vagina
Answer: C
2. The femoral ring
A. Has the pectineal ligament lying medial to it
B. Is in contact with the femoral artery
C. Has the lacunar ligament lying anterior to it
D. Contains a lymph node that drains the clitoris
E. Has the femoral sheath lying anterior, posterior and medial to it
Ans – D
3. The pelvic surface of the sacrum

A. Gives origin to the piriformis muscle
B. Gives origin to the levatorani muscle
C. Is broader in the male than in the female
D. Transmits the dorsal rami of sacral nerves
E. Is in contact with the anal canal
Ans – A
4. Inferior vena cava

A. Receives inferior mesenteric vein
B. Is the largest vein of the body with valves
C. It receives both gonadal vein
D. Receives right suprarenal vein
E. Is 3.5cm to the right of the median plane
Answer – D

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5. In the abdominal wall
A. The rectus abdominis muscle is attached to the crest of the pubis
B. The posterior border of the external oblique muscle ends in the lineasemilunaris
C. The aponeurosis of external oblique muscle takes part in the formation of the conjoint tendon
D. The inferior epigastric artery is a branch of internal iliac artery
E. The conjoint tendon blends laterally with the anterior layer of rectus sheath
Ans – A
6. The prostate gland

A. Is the largest accessary gland in the male reproductive system
B. Is composed of collageous tissue in fibromuscularstroma
C. Surrounds the first 1cm of male urethra
D. Consists of three lobes
E. Is both exocrine and endocrine
Answer – A
7. The spleen
A. has capsule
B. red pulp contain lymph nodule
C. white pulp contain venous sinus
D. muscular organ
E. spongy organ
Answer: A
8. The uterus
A. Derives its nerve supply from the superior hypogastric plexus
B. Derives most of its support from broad ligaments
C. Is retroverted in 30% of women
D. Is partially covered with peritoneum posterior
E. Develops from the paramesonephric duct
Ans – E
9. The pudendal canal

A. It contains pudendal artery, pudendal vein but not pudendal nerve
B. It runs medial to the obturatorexternus
C. It runs along the lateral wall of ischiorectal fossa
D. It leaves the pelvic via lesser sciatic foramen
E. It runs along the lateral aspect of the ischiopubic rami
Answer – C
10. The obturator nerve

A. Is formed from the posterior divisions of the 2nd, 3rd and 4th lumbar nerve roots
B. Is formed outside the substance of psoas major

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C. Supplies sensory branches to both hip and knee joints
D. Has no skin distribution
E. Supplies motor fibres to obturatorinternus
Ans – C
11. The mesoderm gives rise to

A. hair follicles
B. ovum
C. peritoneum
D. transitional epithelium of bladder
E. vagina mucosa
Answer - C
12. Concerning the embryology of urinary tract

A. the detrusor has a ectodermal origin
C. ducts of Bartholin gland open above the hymen
D. round ligament is derived from gubernaculum
E. adrenal cortex is derived from neural crest cells
Answer - D

A. primitive groove derived from neural tube
B. primitive streak lies caudal to blastospore
C. heart beats at 40 -50 days post conception
D. at 18 weeks post conception, mid gut protrude
E. decidua capsularis overlies the chorionic frondosa
Answer – B
14. During development of GI system
A. liver is derived from mid – gut endoderm
B. haemopoietic cells of liver – foregut endoderm
C. pancreas – endoderm of midgut
D. pancreas – dorsal and ventral pancreatic bud
E. spleen develop from derivatives of foregut
Answer- D
15. Concerning the embryology of urinary tract
A. the detrusor has a ectodermal origin
C. ducts of Bartholin gland open above the hymen
D. round ligament is derived from gubernaculum
E. adrenal cortex is derived from neural crest cells

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Answer - D
16. Evidence based medicine
A. combines clinical expertise and external evidence
B. does not involve health economic assessment
C. is restricted to randomized placebo controlled trials
D. is used to cut down waiting trials
E. not rely on objective measurements of disease outcomes
Answer: A
17. The following are categorical variable
A. Blood pressure
B. Gender
C. Haemoglobin concentration
D. Height
E. Plasma glucose concentration
Answer – B
18. In a set of data normal (Guassian) distribution

A. mean is not equal to median
B. 99% of value would be expected to lie within the 2 SD
C. the coefficient of variation express the standard deviation as a percentage of mean
D. the mean, median and mode are not coincide
E. parametric significant test cannot be used
Answer - C
19. Meta-analysis of Randomised controlled trial

A. gives conclusion, making further controlled trial unnecessary
B. is usually performed if individual trials are too large to give reliable answer
C. provides a more stable estimate of the effect of treatment than individual trials
D. should include only peer-reviewed studies
E. should include trials in which patient selection is not randomized
Answer – C
20. A 95% CI
A. can only be used in parametric data
B. If zero difference lies within 95% when comparing two groups to treatment , it indicates the
treatment has no effect
C. is not useful when comparing data with another population
D. it is a test of null hypothesis
E. it is calculated at +/- 3 times the standard error of mean
Answer – B

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21. Physiological causes of raised prolactin are
A. Bulimia nervosa
B. Nerve stimulation
C. Anorexia nervosa
D. Pregnancy
E. Renal failure
Answer – D
22. With regard to gonadotrophins (FSH and LH)

A. The half- life of luteining hormone is 90 minutes
B. LH has a longer half-life than FSH
C. The half-life of FSH is twice that of LH
D. Metabolized only in the liver
E. They are released every 160 minutes during the follicular phase
Answer – C
23. Hormones and receptors
A. Peptide hormones act predominantly through receptors on the nucleus
B. Steroid hormone usually acts through cell surface receptors
C. FSH is typically linked to the G-protein second messenger system
D. Thyroid hormone act through the membrane receptors
E. Androgen act through nuclear receptors
Answer – C
24. The following are true with regard to congenital adrenal
hyperplasia
A. It is an autosomal dormant condition
B. 11-hydroxylase is the commonest enzyme deficiency seen in CAH
C. It presents only in neonate as early-onset disease
D. 17-hydroxyprogesterone is very low in CAH
E. The gene for 21-hydroxylation is located on chromosome 6
Answer – E
25. After the menopause

A. the plasma concentration of FSH increase
B. the proportion of oestradiol in the plasma increase
C. the plasma prolactin concentration increases
D. ovarian inhibin secretion increases
E. the total plasma androgen concentration increase
Answer: A

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26. With respect to androgen production in female
A. produced only by both ovaries
B. DHEA is mainly derived from pituitary gland
C. 2/3 of daily testosterone production is adrenal origin
D. androgen are excreted predominantly as oestrogen after metabolism
E. androgen exerts their effects by binding to intracellular receptors
Answer – E
27. Inhibin
A. Is produced by granulosa cells in the ovary
B. Is produced by theca cells in the ovary
C. Stimulates FSH release
D. Serum levels peak during second trimester of pregnancy
E. Secretion from ovary is stimulated by GnRH
Answer – A
28. ACTH
A. secretion is controlled by pituitary gland
B. promotes glucose uptake
C. mainly promotes mineralocorticoid secretion
D. promotes release of vasopressin
E. levels normally rise in early pregnancy
29. Insulin
A. is a glyprotein
B. is produced by alpha cells
C. level is increased and glucagon level is decreased in response to hypoglycaemia
D. is not required by exercising muscle to utilize glucose
E. facilitates glylcogen breakdown and increase glucose output from liver
Answer – D
30. Oxytocin
A. is synthesized by pituitary gland
B. causes milk secretion
C. acted upon by protease
D. has biological properties overlapping with serotonin
E. oxytocin is synthesized in the cell bodies of neurones in the supra optic and paraventricular nuclei
Answer - E
31. Listeriosis
A. can be diagnosed by urine culture
B. occurs exclusively in 3rd trimester
C. causes neonatal death
D. can be treated with acyclovir
E. has a predilection for immunocompromised individual
Answer – E

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32. In rubella infection
A. Ten percent of fetuses are affected if the disease is contracted in the first-trimester
B. the period of infectivity is from 7 days before to 7 days after the rash
C. the diagnosis usually made by viral isolation
D. specific IgM can take up to 12 days after exposure to appear in the blood
E. specific IgM persists in the blood for 6 months
Answer – B
33. Candida Albicans
A. seen in vagina up to 80% of pregnant women
B. Gram negative
C. Acid fast filament
D. Grown in Stuard’s medium
E. Causes oral infection in neonates
Answer: E
34. Doderlein’s bacillus is the presdominent organism in the
vagina of the healthy female
A. at birth
B. during the first few days of life
C. childhood
D. premenstrual women
E. post-menopausal women
Answer: B
36. HIV
A. retrovirus
B. DNA virus
C. cannot be transmitted by transplacentally
D. contain enzyme transcriptase
E. can be isolated using ELISA
Answer - A
37. Chlamydia
A. multiply by binary fission
B. infectious when in the form of reticulate bodies
C. contains lysosomes
D. grows in cytoplasm of host cells as acidophilic inclusion bodies
E. contains RNA only
Answer - A
38. Prion agents

A. not transmittable by tissue or organ transplantation
B. it is vertically transmittable
C. it can’t be transmitted by contaminated surgical instruments
D. it is readily inactivated by formalin

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E. it contains DNA
Answer - B
39. Sterilization can be done by
A. boiling
B. autoclaving
C. pasteurization
D. exposure to sunlight
E. exposure to CO2
Answer – B
40. With respect to Hepatitis B virus infection
A. Detection of anti-HBs IgG may indicate previous immunization
B. Detection of HBcAg indicates that the individual is highly infectious
C. Detection of HBsAg may indicate previous immunization
D. The presence of HBeAg indicates that the infection has been cleared
E. During infection, HBsAg is detectable before jaundice develops
Ans – T F FF T
41. The following can survive within phagocytes

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Niserriagonorrhoreae
C. Corynebacteriumdiptheriae
D. E.coli
E. Bacillus Anthracis
Answer – B
42. Hypertension in pregnancy
A. diuretics is preferred
B. hydralazine is acceptable in first trimester
C. atenolol in first trimester may cause big baby
D. labetalol is not a recommended treatment
E. methyldopa can be given
Answer – E
43. Amlodipine
A. is not useful for long term control of hypertension
B. causes sodium retention
C. is particularly useful for hypertension during child birth
D. should not be given to patient with impaired left ventricular function
E. acts on arteriole ( cardiac afterload ) rather than veins ( cardiac preload )
Answer - E
44. OC pills
A. stimulates release of gonadotrophins hormones
B. may lead to thinning of cervical mucus
C. influences fallopian tube smooth muscle activity
D. lead to decrease platelet aggregation
E. lead to increase antithrombin III
Answer - C

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45. Heparin
A. Has low plasma protein binding affinity
B. acts on activated factor XII
C. Control is measured by activated partial thromboplastin time
D. May be given by intramuscular injection
E. of neutral molecular weight
Answer - C
46. Warfarin
A. does not cross placenta
B. is metabolized chiefly in kidney
C. it takes less than 24 hrs to work if taken orally
D. it interferes with production of factor II, VII, IX, X
E. controls is based on bleeding time
Answer - D
47. Adverse effects of diuretics includes

A. zinc deficiency
B. chronic hypovolemia
C. hypoglycaemia
D. sexual enhancement
E. gout
Answer - E
48. The following substance reduce blood glucose

concentration
A. adrenalins
B. nozad
C. clothiazide
D. metformin
E. thyroxine
Answer – D
49. When insulin is injected

A. above half of the doses can be removed from urine
B. subcutaneous or IV, the time course of its action is similar
C. hypoglycaemia results, corticotrophin is released from pituitary
D. IM route is preferred in severe ketoacidosis
E. subcutaneous lipotrophy is common with human variety
Answer – A
50. Lidocaine
A. can cause tachycardia if given as systemic injection
B. can cause vasoconstriction
C. longer lasting action than Bupivacaine
D. is a weak acid
E. is lipid soluble

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Answer – D

Science UM2
Multiple Choice Questions, Paper 2
1. Folic acid
a. is water soluble
b. requires gastric intrinsic factor for its absorption
c. is necessary for nucleic acid synthesis
d. is heat stable
e. is involved in tricarboxylic acid (Krebs) cycle
Answer - T F T F F
2. Vitamin C
a. is found only in animal food stuffs
b. is rapidly destroyed by heating
c. there are normally large stores in the pancreas
d. impairs wound healing is one of the characteristic features of severe vitamin C deficiency
e. excess vitamin C can lead to formation of oxalate stones in urinary tract
Ans – F T F T T
3. Vitamin B
a. vit B1 deficiency leads to impaired collagen formation
b. vit B1 stores in the body are adequate for up to 9 months
c. vit B2 concentration is higher in fetus than in the mother
d. vit B6 requirement in pregnancy is 25mg /day
e. Niacin is synthesized in the body from tryptophan
4. Regarding metabolism
a. oxidation is the combination of a substance with either oxygen or hydrogen
b. co-enzyme are essential for certain enzyme reaction
c. co-enzyme is a protein substance which acts as a carrier for product of the reaction
d. co-enzyme A is a high energy compound which is formed from adenine, ribose, pantothenic acid
and thioethanolamine
e. A calorie is defined as the amount of heat energy needed to raise the temperature of 1G of water
by 1 degree from 15 to 16’ C.
Ans – F T F T T
5. Enzymes
a. are proteins
b. heating usually results in a complete loss of enzyme activity
c. change in PH has no effect on the activity of an enzyme.

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d. are present in all cell organelles
e. organic solvents will usually destroy an enzymes activity
6. Protein metabolism
a. protein contain about 40% of nitrogen
b. chains containing more than 100 amino acid residues are called proteins
c. protein yields 4 calories per gram absorbed
d. during pregnancy there is a rise in the plasma concentration of triglycerides
e. during pregnancy, there is a rise in plasma concentration of albumin
7. Uric acid
a. is end product of pyramidine metabolism in humans
b. excreted mainly in the bile
c. highly soluble in body fluids
d. the normal blood level is 4 mg/dl
e. its plasma levels do not change significantly during pregnancy
8. Carbohydrate metabolism
a. the principle carbohydrate used in body metabolism is galactose
b. glycolysis is the process of glycogen formation
c. the pentose shunt is active in all cells of the body except RBC
d. TCA cycle is the common pathway for oxidation of dietary carbohydrate, fats, protein to CO2 and
H2O
e. Acetoacetic acid and hydroxybutyric acid are known as ketone bodies
Answer - F FF T T
9. Regarding metabolism
a. metabolic rate is the amount of energy liberated per unit of time
b. anabolism is defined as formation of substances which can store the energy
c. BMR is defined as the metabolic rate determined at rest in a room at 12-14 hr after last meal
d. BMR of a man is about 500 kcal per day
e. metabolic rate is reduced after consumption of a meal that is rich in protein
Ans – T TT F F
10. Vitamin E
a. is present in animal food stuffs only
b. its deficiency may cause intrauterine fetal death
c. it potentiates the action of coumarin anticoagulants
d. is used in the treatment of infertility
e. its deficiency requirement is 10mg per day
Answer - F F T F T

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11. The following are examples of Autosomal dominant
a. Achondroplasia
b. Acute intermittent porphyria
c. Alzheimer’s disease
d. familial hypercholesterolemia
e. Tay- Sach’s disease
Answer – T TTT F
12. The following are examples of X link disorders

a. Hairy pinna
b. Haemophilia
d. multiple polyposis coli
e. cystic fibrosis
13. Examples of autosomal recessive

a. Sickle cell anaemia
b. Thalassaemia major
c. 21 hydroxylase deficiency
d. Galatocaemia
e. Glycogen storage disease
14. Genetic
a. nuclear chromatin (Barr body) represent inactive X chromosome which can be maternal origin
b. abnormal karyotype – Marfans’ syndrome
c. abnormal karyotype – Klinefelter’s syndrome
d. abnormal karyotype – Edward’s syndrome
e. short stature – Turnar’s syndrome
Ans T F T T T
15. Genetics
a. Banding techniques can be used in tracing fetal autosomes to a specific parent
b. C banding is used to distinguish between chromosomes that are similar in size and shape
c. Chromosomes 13, 14, 15, 21 and 22 have small terminal fragments called ‘satellites’
d. Only the terminal portion of the p arm of the X-chromosome remains active ( Lyon hypothesis)
e. The normal Y chromosome is a submetacenteric chromosome
Ans – T T T T F
16. In diagnostic ultrasound

a. ultrasound are generated by effect of electric and ceramic crystal
b. Resolution increases with increased frequency
c. Medical ultrasound utilises frequencies in 1000-5000 kHz
d. Attenuation increases with increased frequency
e. ultrasound velocity in any medium is constant

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17. Soft markers for chromosomal abnormalities seen on

b. Echogenic bowel
c. Exomphalos
d. Fetal hydrops
18. Concerning electrosurgery:

a. Bipolar diathermy can be used to cut tissue
b. Monopolar diathermy necessitates the use of a return electrode
c. Diathermy uses low-frequency electrical currents
d. Desiccation of tissue can be achieved using both mono- and bipolar diathermy
e. Direct coupling is achieved by adhering to strict safety protocols
Answer - F T F T F
19. Concerning the normal electrocardiogram:

a. The PR interval is 0.2–0.4 seconds
b. The duration of the QRS complex should be >0.12 seconds
c. Each QRS complex is preceded by a P-wave
d. The QT interval is 0.35–0.42 seconds
e. The paper speed is set at 25 mm/s
Answer – F F T TT

c. It may be used to investigate secondary subfertility
e. It is contraindicated in individuals with a history of Chlamydia
21. Antibodies:
a. Are polypeptides
b. Consist of two heavy and two light chains
c. The antigen binding site is on the variable region
d. The antibody binding site occurs on the light chain
e. The largest antibody is IgG
22. Concerning hypersensitivity:

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a. Type II hypersensitivity is antibody dependent
b. Type I hypersensitivity is associated with IgM activation
c. The Arthus reaction is an example of type II hypersensitivity
d. The Mantoux test is an example of type IV hypersensitivity
e. Haemolytic disease of the newborn is an example of type II hypersensitivity
23. Concerning complement:

a. The classical activation pathway is independent of antibody involvement
b. The spleen is the main site of complement production
c. Complement is a form of cytokine
d. C3 is cleaved to C3a
e. The alternative activation pathway requires binding of mannose-binding lectin
Ans F F F T F
24. Natural killer cells:

a. Are part of the acquired immune system
b. Detect changes in the major histocompatability complex
c. Release perforins
d. Require antibody stimulation
e. Have strong cytotoxic properties
25. Regarding type I hypersensitivity reactions:

a. The antigen is presented by major histocompatibility complex class I molecules
b. CD4+Th2 cells induce class switching of antigen specific B cells
c. IgE antibodies are produced on first contact with the antigen
d. Prostaglandins cause bronchial relaxation
e. Histamine contracts smooth muscle
26. The cell membrane

a. Is trilaminar
b. Is made up of polypeptide chains
c. Contains the HLA antigens
d. Is attached to the centrosomes
e. Synthesis and stores protein
Ans – T F T T F
27. The intercellular matrix

a. Contains interstitial extracellular fluid
b. Is identical for all cell types
c. May be composed of mucopolysaccharides
d. May contain collagen of four different types
e. Has elastin fibres produced by the glycocalyx

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Ans – T F T T F
28. In cell damage

a. Accumulation of normal products is called degeneration
b. Accumulation of abnormal products is infiltration
c. Increased density of the cell chromatin is karyorrhexis
d. Pyknosis indicated the digestion of nuclear material
e. cloudy degeneration indicates irreversible cell death
Ans – T T F F F
29. Nuclear chromatin

a. May be seen as a triangular body, the Barr body
b. Is seen at the periphery of the cell
c. Is seen in Turner syndrome
d. Is seen in Klienefelter syndrome
e. May be seen in the buccal smear of a normal man
Ans –T F F T F
30. In molecular biology

a. PCR can be used to amplify known sequence of DNA
b. Northern blooting is used in the analysis of proteins
c. Restriction endonucleases cut proteins at known sequence sites
d. Ethidium bromide can be used to visualize DNA
e. siRNA can be used to amplify gene expression
31. Wound healing by regeneration invariably occurs

a. In the liver
b. In the small intestine
c. In the renal tubular epithelium
d. In the neuronal system
e. In the thyroid
Ans – F T F F F
32. Wound healing by organization occurs in

a. The epidermis
b. Infarcts
c. Thrombi
d. Fibrinous inflammatory exudates
e. Chronic inflammation
Ans – F T T T T
33. Wound healing is delayed by deficiency

a. Of vitamin D

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b. Of zinc
c. Of calcium
d. Of sulphur-containing amino acids
e. Of glucocorticosteroid hormones
Ans – F T F T F
34. Surface epithelium gives rise to

a. Papillomas
b. Cystadenomas
c. Choriocarcinoma
d. Meningiomas
e. Nephroblastoma
Ans – T F F F F
35. Cell injury and death

a. cell death is a normal component of embryonic development
b. necrosis usually affects single cells within a tissue
c. necrosis is characterized by marked cell swelling and membrane rupture
d. necrosis is not usually associated with an inflammatory response
e. apotosis is mediated by activation of specific intracellular enzyme pathways
36. Tissue response to injury

a. acute inflammation results in local vasodilatation, increased vascular permeability and release of
mediators
b. the primary inflammatory cell mediator of chronic inflammation is neutrophil
c. granuloma formation is normal component of wound healing
d. macrophages are not normally present following tissue damage
e. macrophages are important in granuloma formation
Answer – T F FF T
37. Tissue growth and differentiation

a. hyperplasia represents an increase in the size of cells in a tissue or organs
b. atrophy is always pathological
c. metaplasia represents premalignant abnormality of an epithelium
d. all tumours are not neoplasms
e. malignant tumours may be primary or secondary
Answer – F FF T T
38. Placental pathology

a. Defective trophoblastic invasion of decidual and uterine vessels is associated with pre-eclampsia
b. Defective trophoblastic invasion is associated with intrauterine growth resuscitation
c. Defective trophoblastic invasion is the morphological association of abnormal uterine artery
Doppler indices
d. In intrauterine growth restriction, the umbilical arteries usually show reduced resistance to flow as

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a consequence of vasodilatation
e. Ascending genital tract infection is associated with choriocarcinoma
Answer – T TT F F
39. Neoplasm
a. benign neoplasm do not usually exhibit locally destructive infiltration
b. malignant neoplasms have the ability to metastasize
c. carcinoma are malignant mesenchymal neoplasm
d. cytological features of malignancy include abnormal nuclear shape and size
e. adenocarcinoma may affect the cervix
40. Regarding gynaecologicaltumours

a. vulval adenocarcinoma represents 90% of malignancy at this site
b. embryonalrhabdomyosarcoma may occur in the vagina
c. the cervical transformation zone represents epithelial metaplasia
d. Pre-invasive abnormalities of cervical epithelium only show minimal local invasion beyond
basement membrane
e. adenocarcinoma may effect the cervix
41. In pregnancy
a. The total lung volume increases
b. The residual volume decreases
c. Ventilation increases by 40 %
d. The total lung capacity decreases
e. Oxygen consumption increases by 50ml/min by term
Ans: F T T F T
42. In pregnancy
a. The PCO2 falls
b. There is a decrease in the sensitivity of the respiratory centre to CO2
c. Respiratory rate increases due to the effect of progesterone
d. Total increase in respiration is 60%
e. Residual volume increases by 200ml
Ans: T F F F F
43. In the neonate

a. Respiratory distress syndrome ( RDS ) is due to the absence of type 2pneumocytes
b. The tidal volume is 10ml/kg
c. RDS may be prevented by administering dexamethasone to a mother in premature labour before
30 weeks gestation
d. Intraventricularhaemorrhage is most common after 4 days of age
e. Congenital heart disease is the commonest fetal abnormality
Ans: T T T F T

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44. The level of 2, 3 DPG are
a. Increased by androgens
b. Decreased by thyroxine
c. Increased by anaemia
d. Decreased by bank blood
e. Decreased by living attitude
Ans – T F T T F
45. Carriage of oxygen and carbon dioxide:

a. The presence of haemoglobin increases the oxygen carrying capacity of blood 70-flold
b. Cyanosis is only seen when the concentration of deoxygenated haemoglobin is more than 5g/dl
c. Some carbon dioxide is carried by plasma proteins
d. 2/3 of carbon dioxide is carried by haemoglobin
e. In the chloride shift, chloride ions diffuse out of the red blood cell
Ans – T TT F F
46. In the kidney

a. The capillaries of the glomerular are a portal system
b. The vasa recta supply the loop of Henle
c. 85% of the tubules are juxta-medullary
d. Juxta-medullary tubules have thickened ascending and descending loops of Henle
e. The loop of Henle is concerned with the reabsorption of chloride ions
47. In the liver

a. galactokinase convert galactose to glucose
b. triglycerides are synthesis from fatty acid and glycerol
c. Cephalinare lipoproteins
d. Urea is formed from four molecules of amonia
e. 95% of body’s globulin are synthesized
Answer – T T F (phospholipid) F F
48. In the urine, the followings are found

a. unconjugated bilirubin
b. conjugated bilirubin
c. urobilinogen
d. stercobilin
e. bilirubin glucuronide
49. Insulin
a. Is a polypeptide with a molecular weight of more than 5000
b. Requires magnesium for its crystallization

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c. Is stored in quantities of up to 250 units at any one time
d. Is produced in alpha cells
e. Is required for entry of glucose into hepatic cells
50. In the menstrual cycles

a. The discus proligerous is found outside the granulose cells
b. Subnuclear vacuole formation occurs in the proliferative phase
c. As the cycle proceeds the spiral arteries become less coiled.
d. Arborisation of the cervical mucus can be seen at the time of ovulation
e. When progesterone is present a vaginal slide shows large numbers of superficial cells
Ans – F FF T F

Science UM2
Single Best Answers, Paper 2
1. Glucose
A. predominantly absorbed in terminal ileum
B. stimulates the secretion of glycogen
C. can be synthesized from pyruvate
D. is a disaccharide
E. L glucose is a minor image of D glucose
Answer - C
2. Amino acid which is not ketogenic

A. phenylalanine
B. tyrosine
C. alanine
D. leucine
E. tryptophan
Answer - C
3. Uric acid
A. is formed from breakdown of glucose
B. is raised in serum during normal pregnancy
C. is decreased in serum during thiazide diuretic therapy
D. is reabsorbed in distal renal tubules
E. is excreted unchanged in the urine
Answer – E
4. Tetrahydrofolic acid
A. Is involved in purine synthesis

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B. Is a precursor of folic acid
C. Is a coenzyme in amino acid synthesis
D. Catalyses the conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate
E. Activity is inhibited by methotrexate
Ans – A
5. Deficiency of the following substances and diseases

correctly matched
A. Thiamine: pellagra
B. Cyanocobalamin: microcytic anaemia
C. Niacin: beriberi
D. Folates: sprue
E. Ascorbic acid: night blindness
Answer – D
6. Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid)

A. Deficiency is associated with spontaneous bruising
B. Is involved in the hydroxylation of proline in the synthesis of muscle
C. Does not cross the placenta
D. Does not destroyed by cooking
E. Deficiency is associated with loss of the enamel of teeth
Answer – A
7. Hyperkalaemia occurs in association with

A. Chronic diarrhea
B. Renal tubular acidosis
C. Hypoparathyroidism
D. Hormone secreting tumours of the bronchus
E. Primary hyperaldosteronism
Answer – B
8. Ketone bodies
A. Include acetoacetate
B. Are used for glycogen synthesis by the brain
C. Are generated during glycolysis
D. Are generated from the by-products of beta-oxidation
E. Are fat soluble
Ans – A
9. Metabolic acidosis
A. result in increase in urine pH
B. can be caused by persistent vomiting
C. occurs in diabetic ketoacidosis
D. occurs in mild dehydration
E. occurs in respiratory failure

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Answer - C
10. The following are non-essential amino acids

A. histidine
B. isoleucine
C. leucine
D. lysine
E. methionine
Answer - A
11. Ultrasound
A. it is produced by electrical power
B. the frequency of a sound wave is inversely proportionate to its wavelength
C. is a horizontal wave form
D. high frequency ultrasound has greatest tissue penetration
E. cannot be refracted
Answer – B
12. Ultrasound and doppler scanning

A. continuous wave doppler scanning is more commonly used in obstetrics than pulsed wave
doppler scanning
B. red colour denotes flow away from transducer and blue color denotes flow towards the transducer
in color doppler imaging
C. continuous wave doppler ultrasound transmit and receives ultrasound intermittently
D. doppler frequency is determined only by angle of isonation
E. mechanical index, soft tissue thermal index and thermal index for bone indicates safety indices in
the use of doppler scanning
Answer: E
13. MRI
A. blood vessels appear white on scanning
B. has no recognized side effect on fetus
C. it involves ionizing radiation
D. the pregnant mother should be turn to her right side during scanning
E. tissue with high hydrogen concentration are difficult to distinguish
Answer: B
14. Natural decay of radioactive isotopes results in emission

of
A. alpha particles
B. X rays
C. neutron rays
D. proton beams
E. gamma particles
Answer: A

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15. Radiotherapy
A. One gray is equivalent to 1 joule per kg
B. skin usually recieves a lesser dose of radiation than underlying tissue
C. major effect of radiation is to damage the cytoplasm of the cell
D. cell in tissue which are hypoxic are more vulnerable to radiation
E. radiation induced changes in tissue may take 3 weeks to develop
Answer: A
16. The following genetic disorders are inherited as

autosomal recessives
A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
B. Huntingdon’s chorea
C. Tay-sachs disease
D. retinoblastoma
E. achondroblastoma
Ans – C
17. Increased number of chromosomes occurs in which of the

following?
B. Fragile X syndrome
C. Patau’s syndrome ?
D. Retinoblastoma
E. Turner’s syndrome
Answer – A ( C is also a true key)
18. The following are NOT include characteristic features of

Turner’s syndrome:
A. A low occipital hairline
B. Anosmia
C. Coarctation of the aorta
D. Short stature
E. Raised levels of FSH in adults
Answer – B
19. The Barr body

B. Arises from the Y chromosome
E. Is present in 20% of cells in the male
Answer – C
20. In an X-linked pedigree

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A. none of the daughters of an affected male will be affected
B. half of the daughters of an affected male will not carry the gene
C. half of the sons of carrier females will be affected
D. females are never affected
E. all of the daughters of a carrier female will themselves be carriers
Ans – C
21. Haemolytic disease of the newborn (Rhesus

incompatibility) occurs as a result of which of the following
classes of hypersensitivity reaction?
A. IgE mediated
B. Immune complex mediated
C. Type I
D. Type II
E. Type IV
Answer-D

pathways?
Answer – B
23. What type of vaccine is the BCG vaccine?

A. Conjugate vaccine
B. Killed (inactivated) vaccine
C. Live (attenuated) vaccine
D. Subunit vaccine
E. Toxoid vaccine
Answer – C
24. Which of the following is an example of a disease caused

by type III hypersensitivity?
A. Asthma
B. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
C. Eczema
D. Multiple sclerosis
E. Systemic lupus erythematosus
Answer – E

immune system?

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A. Complement
B. Macrophages
D. Neutrophils
E. T helper cells
Answer – E
26. One of the known benefits of breastfeeding is its role in

supporting the infant’s immune system. Which of the
following antibodies is secreted in large amounts in breast
milk?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM
Answer – A
27. In DNA
A. a codon is a sequence of 3 bases
B. all codons have an identified funcion
C. there is a great variety of amino acids than there are different codons
D. replication cannot be initiated at several different points along achromosome
E. complementary pairing follows messenger RNA synthesis
Answer – A
28. Mast cells

A. Normally forms 3% of leucocytes
B. Release histamine on degranulation
C. Do not contain heparin
D. Control melanin formation in the epidermis
E. Has a specific affinity for antibody of IgA class
Answer – B
29. Concerning platelets

A. Are the only source of platelet derived growth factor
B. Have a life span of 90-120 days
C. Count increases during pregnancy
D. During aggregation, they release prostacyclin
E. Contain platelet contractile proteins (thrombesthenin)
Answer – E
30. The following are examples of type 3 hypersensitivity

(immune complex) disease*
A. autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
B. systemic lupus eryhtematosus
C. glomerulonephritis

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D. tuberculosis
E. sarcoidosis
Answer – B
31. Which obstetric phenomenon is of increased prevalence

in women with bicornuate uterus?
A. Breech presentation
B. Stillbirth
C. PPH
D. Placenta praevia
E. Placenta accreta
Answer – A
32. Which one is the typical of complete molar pregnancy?

A. 45XO
B. 46XX
C. 46 XXX
D. 69 XXY
E. 92XXXXY
Answer – B
33. In addition to mast cells, which of the following cells

produces histamine?
A. Basophils
B. Erythrocytes
C. Macrophages
D. Monocytes
E. Neutrophils
Answer – A
34. Within what time frame from injury do macrophage

replace neutrophils in cutaneous wound healing?
A. 1-2 hour
B. 6-12 hour
C. 18-24 hour
D. 48-92 hour
E. 7-10 days
Answer – D
35. A 40-year-old primiparous woman is admitted to the

labour ward at 36 weeks’ gestation with severe pre-
eclampsia and presumed renal involvement. Her blood
pressure on arrival is 184/95 mmHg. Her urine contains
protein +++. Her serum creatinine is 92 µmol/L and serum

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urea 5.3 mg/dL. She has an emergency caesarean section.
Which of the following best describes the renal pathology of
pre-eclampsia?
A. Atheromatous plaques
B. Glomerular capillary endotheliosis
C. Glomerular hypertrophy
D. Mesangial cell hypertrophy
E. Tubular vacuolization
Answer - B
36. Which of the following describes the type of cellular

change that occurs in hyperplasia?
A. Increase in the number of cells
B. Increase in the number of mitotic figures
C. Increase in the number of nuclei in each cell
D. Increase in the size of cells
E. Increase in the thickness of the cell
Answer – A
37. Which of the following is characteristic of the cellular

changes seen in dysplasia?
A. Absence of mitotic figures on microscopy
B. Decreased mitotic activity
C. Hyperchromatism
D. Irreversibility
E. Uniformity in cell shape
Answer - C
38. Which of the following vulval skin disorders is associated

with the highest risk of developing malignant disease?
A. Contact irritant dermatitis
B. Lichen planus
C. Lichen sclerosus
D. Squamous cell hyperplasia
E. Psoriasis
Answer – C
39. Which of the following paraneoplastic syndromes is

C. Cushing's syndrome and small cell lung cancer
E. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion and fibroma

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Answer - C

A. Early menopause
C. Nulliparity
Answer – C
41. Which of the following factors is included when

calculating eGFR?
A. Creatinine
B. Diabetic status
C. Height
D. Medication
E. Weight
Answer – A
42. The following are sequential handling of glucose by

kidney
A. filtered, reabsorbed and secreted
B. filtered, reabsorbed and not secreted
C. filtered, secreted and not reabsorbed
D. filtered, neither secreted or reabsorbed
E. unfiltered, secreted
Answer – B
43. The following are most important direct stimulus to

respiration
A. decreased arterial pH
B. decreased arterial pCO2
C. decreased arterial pO2
D. increased Hydrogen ion concentration of CSF
E. increased pCO2 of CSF
Answer – C
44. Which of the following contributors to lung volume and

capacity occurs in normal pregnancy?
A. Chest compliance increases
B. Expiratory reserve volume increases
C. Residual volume decreases
D. Tidal volume decreases by up to 40%
E. Vital capacity decreases

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Answer – C
45. Which of the following clotting factors are increased in

normal pregnancy?
A. Factor VII
B. Factors VII and VII
C. Factors VII, VIII and X
D. Factors VII, VIII, X and XI
E. Factors VII, VIII, X, XI and XIII
Answer – C
46. With regard to the cardiac cycle what is the definition of

stroke volume?
A. Stroke volume = cardiac output / body surface area
B. Stroke volume = end diastolic volume – end systolic volume
C. Stroke volume = end systolic volume – end diastolic volume
D. Stroke volume = end systolic volume + end diastolic volume
E. Stroke volume = end diastolic volume + end systolic volume
Answer – B
47. Administration of prostaglandin antagonists soon after

birth can be used to therapeutically close which patent
structure of fetal origin?
A. Ductus arteriosus
B. Ductus venosus
C. Foramen ovale
D. Fossa ovalis
E. Ligamentum venosum
Answer – A

weeks’ gestation complaining of shortness of breath.
Which of the following causes a shift of oxygen dissociation
to the left?
A. Decreased haemoglobin
B. Decreased 2,3-diphosphoglycerate
C. Increased acidity
D. Increased carbon dioxide
E. Increased temperature
Answer – B
49. Which of the following substances is unable to bind with

fetal haemoglobin?

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A. 2, 3 bisphosphoglycerate
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Carbon monoxide
D. Nitrogen oxide
E. Oxygen
Answer – A
50. Which of the following gives the correct lung volume

equation?
A. Functional residual capacity = residual volume + tidal volume
B. Inspiratory capacity = tidal volume + expiratory reserve volume
C. Inspiratory capacity = inspiratory reserve volume – tidal volume
D. Total lung capacity = inspiratory capacity + residual volume
E. Vital capacity = inspiratory capacity + expiratory reserve volume
Answer – E

Science UMM
1. Pelvic nerve supply:
a. Pelvic splanchnic nerves are derived from the dorsal
primary rami of spinal nerves S2-S4
b. The inferior rectal nerve is a branch of the pudendal nerve
c. The rectal plexus is derived from the anterior part of the
inferior hypogastric Plexus
d. The external anal sphincter is supplied by the inferior rectal
nerve
e. The anterior labial nerve is a branch of the ilioinguinal
nerve
2. The pudendal canal:
a. Contains the pudendal nerve, artery and vein
b. The pudendal nerve is not located in the pudendal canal

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c. Runs superiorly to the sacrotuberous ligament
d. Runs laterally to obturator internus
e. Passes medial to the ischial spines
3. The ureters:
a. Are retroperitoneal structures
b. Are 35 cm long
c. Cross in front of the uterine arteries
d. Originate embryonically from the ureteric buds
e. Insert into the bladder posteromedially
4. The bladder:
a. The pudendal nerve plays no part in innervation of the
bladder
b. The sympathetic nervous system has no motor function in
the bladder
c. The main blood supply to the bladder is from the branches
of the posterior trunk ofthe internal iliac artery
d. Lymphatic drainage of the bladder is to the internal iliac
nodes
e. It is derived embryologically from the mesonephric duct
5. The femoral region:
a. The femoral ring is bounded medially by the lacunar
ligament
b. The femoral artery is a continuation of the internal iliac
artery
c. The femoral septum is covered by parietal peritoneum
d. The femoral canal often contain Cloquet's node
e. The femoral sheath covers the femoral nerve

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6. The first meiotic division of the primary oocyte
a. May take up to 40 years to be completed
b. Results in two secondary oocytes
c. Is completed after fertilization
d. Results in two cells with haploid number of chromosomes
e. Is always followed by the second meiotic division
7. Urogenital diaphragm:
a. is located superior to the pelvic diaphragm
b. is located inferior to the pelvic diaphragm
c. Anteriorly, it encloses the bladder
d. Posteriorly, it encloses the deep transverse perineal muscles
e. Support the pelvic organs
Answer: F T F T F
8. Embryology of the urinary tract:
a. The detrusor has a mesodermal origin
b. The urogenital sinus is derived from the cloaca
c. The allantois gives origin to the lateral umbilical ligament
d. The metanephric ducts arise from the mesonephric ducts
e. The mesonephric ducts remnants form the epophoron in the
adult female
Answer- T T F T F
9. Regarding pharyngeal arches, which of the following are
true?
a. Appear during weeks 5 and 6 of development
b. Consists of a core of ectoderm
c. Develop from mesenchyme
d. The epithelium is derived from ectoderm

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e. The mesoderm is covered by ectoderm
Answer: F F T T T
10. With respect to the process of oogenesis

a. The zona pellucida develops after ovulation
b. The first meiotic division is completed before puberty
c. The second meiotic division is completed before ovulation
d. Primary oocytes are haploid cells
e. The total number of oogonia increases between birth and
puberty
11. What is the World Health Organization’s definition of
the perinatal mortality rate?
a. The number of deaths in the 1 week of life per 1,000 live
st
births
b. The number of stillbirths and deaths in the first week of life
per 1,000 live births
c. The number of stillbirths and deaths in the first week of life
d. The number of stillbirths and deaths in the first week of life
e. The number of stillbirths and deaths in the first 28 days of
life per 1,000 Deliveries
12. In a balanced chromosomal reciprocal translocation
carrier, there is
a. Normal number of chromosomes
b. Normal amount of genetic material
c. Normal arrangement of genetic material
d. Increased risk of reproductive loss
e. Greater risk of cytogenetically abnormal offspring if the

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carrier is a female rather than male
Answer - T T F T T
a. The scrotum and the ovary.
b. The bulbo-urethral (Cowper's) gland and the great
vestibular (Bartholin's) gland.
c. The penile urethra and the labia minora.
d. The gubernaculum testis and the infundibulo-pelvic
ligament of the ovary.
e. The prostate and the para-urethra (Skene's) glands.
Answers – F T T F T
14 - The fetal testis
a. Are morphologically distinguishable 4 weeks after
conception
b. Contain cells which have migrated from the wall of the
yolk sac
c. Are usually intra-abdominal 12 weeks after conception
d. Are necessary for the persistence of the mesonephric ducts
e. Secrete androgens
Answers – F T T T T
15. The prevalence of a disease

a. Is the best measure of disease frequency in aetiological
studies
b. Can only be determined by a cohort study
c. Is the number of new cases in a defined population
d. Can be standardized for age and sex
e. Describes the balance between incidence, mortality and
recovery
Answers– F F F T T
16. The number of patients required in a clinical trial to
treat a specific disease increase as

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a. The power required increase
b. The incidence of the disease decreases
c. The significance level increases
d. The size of the expected treatment effect increases
e. The drop-out rate increases
17. The thyroid gland
a. Is fixed to the 2nd, 3rd and 4th rings of the trachea
b. Develops from the cranial end of thyro-glossal duct
c. Is supplied by sympathetic vasoconstrictor fibres
d. Extends along the side of trachea as low as the sixth
tracheal ring
e. Is completely adherent to the pretracheal fascia
18. A double-blind clinical trial can be used to compare:
a. Labetalol and methyldopa in the treatment of pre-eclampsia
b. Hysterectomy and endometrial resection in the treatment of
menorrhagia
c. Out-patient and in-patient management of asymptomatic
placenta praevia
d. Cervical cerclage and no treatment in suspected cervical
incompetence
e. Aspirin and placebo in the prevention of pre-eclampsia
19. Meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials:
a. Gives conclusion making further controlled trials
unnecessary
b. Is usually performed if individual trials are too small to
give a reliable answer
c. Provides a more stable estimate of the effect of treatment
than individual trials

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d. Should include only peer reviewed studies
e. Should include trials in which patient selection is not
randomized
20. Regarding p-values:

a. A p-value of > 0.05 typically indicates a significant
difference
b. The p-value assumes that the null hypothesis is false
c. The p-value gives an estimate of how likely an event is to
have occurred by chance
d. The p-value indicates the likelihood of a type 1 error
e. The significance level of a test should be determined before
data collection
21. Gastrin
a. Its fasting plasma concentrations are abnormally high in
most patients after vagotomy for duodenal ulcer
b. Vasoactive intestinal polypeptide (VIP) inhibits its
secretion
c. Protein in the duodenum inhibits its secretion
d. Stimulates secretion of pepsinogen more strongly than
secretion of hydrogen ions
e. Is established in G-cells that are confined to the antral
region of the stomach
22. Human chorionic gonadotrophin
a. Is a glycoprotein with a half- life of 2 hour
b. Consists of two covalently linked subunits called alpha and
beta
c. The alpha subunit is common to hCG, FSH, LH and TSH
d. hCG is secreted by the syncytiotrophoblast

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e. hCG can be detected in the blood of normal men
23. Human placenta lactogen
a. Is a single chain polypeptide of 191 amino acid held

together by two disulphidebonds
b. Has a long life of 48 hour
c. Is very similar in structure of human growth hormone
(hGH) and has over 90% of hGHsomatotrophin activity
d. The growth hormone hPL gene family consists of five
genes on chromosome 17
e. Blood levels of hPL are decreased in the presence of
hypoglycaemia
24. Insulin release is stimulated by

a. Adrenaline
b. Noradrenaline
c. Glucose
d. Amino acids
e. Free fatty acids
25. Glucagon release is stimulated by
a. Hypoglycaemia
b. Exercise
c. Adrenaline
d. Free fatty acids
e. Insulin
Ans –T T T F F
26. Oxytocin
a. Is a nona peptide

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b. Is released by the fetus during labour
c. Is released in the male during orgasm
d. Causes milk ejection
e. Is inactivated by oxitocinase
Ans – T T T T T
27. Prolactin
a. Is structurally related to human placental lactogen
b. Its secretion is stimulated by dopamine
c. Has a molecular weight of 100 000 daltons
d. Its release is pulsatile
e. Is produced by the basophil cells of the anterior lobe of the
pituitary gland
Ans – T F F T F
28. Growth hormone
a. Is a glycoprotein hormone
b. Secretion is markedly increased during pregnancy
c. Is responsible for growth in children and in the fetus
d. Secretion is increased by hypoglycaemia
e. Pygmies have low levels of GH
Ans – F F F T F
29. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone
a. Is a polypeptide hormone
b. Has a molecular weight of 4500 daltons
c. Is the main hormone controlling aldosterone secretion
d. Secretion is increased in congenital adrenal hyperplasia
e. Contains the sequence of alpha-melanocyte stimulating
hormone
Ans – T T F T T
30. Vasopressin

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a. Is a nonapeptide hormone
b. Secretion is inhibited by alcohol
c. May elevate arterial blood pressure by direct action on the
arteriolar smooth muscle
d. Secretion is increased by angiotensin II
e. Is produced in excess in diabetes insipidus
Ans – T T F T F
31. Incubation period of
a. Chickenpox is 14-21 days
b. Rubella is 1-6 days
c. Hepatitis B is 6 weeks to 6 months
d. Cholera is 7-14 days
e. Scarlet fever is 1-3 days
32. Live viral vaccines have the following characteristics
a. It gives long lasting immunity
b. It cannot revert to virulence
c. Immunoglobulin cannot be elicited
d. It can produce cell mediated immunity
e. Their production is greater than that of killed viral vaccine
33. Chorioamnionitis infections increase the risk of preterm
birth by two-to-three fold. What is the azithromycin-
sensitive pathogen which can cause chorioamnionitis?
b. Clostridium botulinum
c. Listeria monocytogenens
d. Streptoccus mutans
e. Vibro cholerae

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Answer: T F F F F
leg amputation.
a. Clostridium botulinum
b. Clostridium perfringens
c. Clostridium tetani
d. Escherichia coli
e. Klebsiella pneumonia
35. What type of vaccine is the BCG vaccine?
a. conjugate vaccine
b. killed (inactivated ) vaccine
c. live ( attenuated ) vaccine
d. subunit vaccine
e. Toxoid vaccine
36. Bacteria
a. Are prokaryotic
b. Replicate by mitosis
c. Contain single-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid
d. Are divided into Gram-positive and Gram-negative
according to the staining of the nucleus
e. Can be seen with the light microscope
Ans – T F F F T
37. The causative organisms of
a. Condylomata lata is human papilloma virus
b. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome is a retrovirus
c. Chanchroid is Haemophilus ducreyi
d. Lymphogranuloma venereum is Calymmatobacterium
granulomatis
e. Granuloma inguinale is Chlamydia trachomatis
Ans – F T T F F
38. The following factors predispose to vaginal infection with

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Candida albicans
a. Pregnancy
b. The use of broad spectrum antibiotics
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Vaginal delivery
e. The use of corticosteroids
Ans – T T T F T
39. Cytomegalovirus infections
a. Confers life-long immunity
b. Is usually symptomatic
c. Can be acquired transplacentally
d. Can be acquired through blood transfusion
e. Is due to an infection with an RNA virus
40. In human cytogenetics:
a. Deoxyribonucleic acid is double- stranded.
b. Material of DNA analysis in adult is usually obtained from
erythrocytes.
c. The base adenine is always paired with thymine in DNA.
d. Alleles are non- identical genes occupying homhlogous loci
in a pair of chromosomes.
e. Penetrance is the extent of gene expression.
Answer- T F T T T
41. Drugs that cross the placenta
a. Heparin
b. wafarin
c. insulin
d. methyldopa
e. penicillin
42. Dangers of indiscriminate use of antibiotics are

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a. development of septicaemia
b. masking less serious infection
c. direct drug toxicity
d. eliminates resistant strain
e. can cause superimposed infection
Answer - F F T F T
43: Bromocriptine
a. Is a derivative of ergot
b. Is a vasoconstrictor
c. Inhibits prolactin secretion at the pituitary level
d. Is teratogenic
e. Causes raised prolactin levels to return to normal after 48-
72 hours of treatment
Ans – T T T F F
44. Recognized side-effects of bleomycin include:
a. Pulmonary fibrosis.
b. Severe bone marrow suppression.
c. Alopecia.
d. Skin pigmentation.
e. Mucositis.
Ans – T F T T T
45. Suxamethonium
a. is rapidly hydrolysed
b. is a competitive blocker of neuromuscular transmission
c. has a prolonged action in liver failure
d. is known to cause muscle pain postoperatively
e. may cause bradycardia when administered intermittently
46. Recognized side-effects of clomiphene citrate include:
a. postural hypotension
b. blurring of vision
c. alopecia

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d. hot flushes.
e. nausea
Ans - F T T T T
47. Recognized side-effects of bleomycin include:
a. Pulmonary fibrosis.
b. Severe bone marrow suppression.
c. Alopecia.
d. Skin pigmentation.
e. Mucositis.
48. For Vitamin C
a. Found only in animal foodstuffs
b. Necessary for wound healing
c. Rapidly destroyed by heating
d. Preserved by food freezing
e. Vitamin C serves a vital role in collagen synthesis
Answer- F T T T T
49. Oxytocin
a. is stored in the hypothalamus
b. act via the G protein coupled receptor
c. is nonapeptide
d. is responsible for milk production
e. has a identical structure to vasopressin
Answer: F T T F F
50. Regarding hydrocortisone, the following are true except
a. Decrease the number of circulating eosinophils
b. Increase urinary calcium excretion
c. Cause negative nitrogen balance
d. Increase potassium excretion
e. Decreases gluconeogenesis

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Answer – F F F F T

Science UMM
1. What is the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet?
A. pubic arch
B. ischial tuberosity
C. pubic crest
D. pubic tubercle
E. sacrotuberous ligaments
Answer: A - pubic arch
2. Which cell type of the testis secrete inhibin?
A. Epithelial cells
B. Germ cells
C. Sertoli cells
D. Leydig cells
E. Myoid cells
Correct Answer: C - Sertoli cells
3. What is the main plasma Cation?
A. Sodium
B. Chloride
C. Potassium
D. Calcium
E. Phosphate
Answer: A – Sodium
4. Which artery is associated with the midgut?
A. Coeliac Trunk

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B. External Iliac
C. Internal Iliac
D. Inferior Mesenteric
E. Superior Mesenteric
Answer: E- Superior Mesenteric
5. Regarding the female breast how many lobes does the
typical breast contain?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 5‐9
D. 15‐20
E. 40‐50
Answer: D- 15‐20
6. You are called to see a women after a prolonged labour
with failed instrumental delivery converted to cesarean
section. She complains of pins and needles to the left thigh.
On examination the anterior left thigh including the anterior
knee has reduced sensation and there is reduced power on
testing knee extension (MRC grade 4 left vs 5 right). What is
the likely diagnosis?
A. Common peroneal palsy
B. Obturator palsy
C. Genitofemoral nerve palsy
D. Femoral nerve palsy
E. Left L2 nerve palsy
Answer: D - Femoral nerve palsy
7. Nerve passed through the inguinal canal is
A. Ilioinguinal nerve
B. Pudendal nerve
C. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve of thigh
D. Inferior hypogastric nerve

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E. Pelvic splanchnic nerve
Answer - A
8. Which artery is a direct branch of the aorta?
A. Inferior vesical
B. Internal iliac
C. Ovarian
D. Uterian
E. Vaginal
Answer – C- Ovarian
9. Sensory supply to the clitoris is via branches of which

nerve?
A. Ilioinguinal
B. Perineal
C. Superior rectal
D. Inferior rectal
E. Pudendal nerve
Answer: E- Pudendal nerve
10. How many seminiferous tubules would you typically
expect to find in a testicular lobule?
A. 2
B. 20
C. 200
D. 2000
E. 2 million
Answer: A - 2
Explanation There are between 250 and 400 lobules in each
testis. The lobule is a structural unit of the testis with each
lobule contained in one of the intervals between fibrous septa
which extend between the mediastinum testis and the tunica
albuginea. Each lobule contains 1 to 3 seminiferous tubules.
11. A Bicornuate uterus is due to which of the following?
A. Crossed fused ectopia

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B. Abnormal fusion and reabsorption of the paramesonephric
ducts
C. PKD‐1 gene mutations
D. Mullerian agenesis
E. None of the above
Answer: B - Abnormal fusion and reabsorption of the
12. The thyroid cartilage and cricothyroid muscle develop
from which pharyngeal arch?
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th
E. 6 th
Answer: D- 4 th
13. In evidence base medicine, what level of evidence is

provided by meta-analysis of randomized controlled trial?
a. IIIa
b. IIIb
c. IVa
d. IVb
e. None of the above
Answer – E
14. How many days after fertilisation does the blastocyst
form?
A. 1 day
B. 2 days
C. 3 days
D. 4 days
E. 5 days

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Answer: E -5 days
15. At what gestation does physiological gut herniation
occur?
A. 1 week
B. 3 weeks
C. 5 weeks
D. 8 weeks
E. 12 weeks
Answer: D - 8 weeks
16. Regarding uterine fibroids (leiomyoma) which of the
following statements is TRUE regarding their prevalence?
A. The prevalence is highest amongst asian women
B. The prevalence is highest amongst black women
C. The prevalence is highest amongst european women
D. The prevalence is highest amongst white women
E. There is no statistical difference in fibroid prevalence
between ethnic groups
Answer: B- The prevalence is highest amongst black women
17. Following a single episode of reduced fetal movements
what percentage of pregnancies will be uncomplicated?
A. 98%
B. 90%
C. 70%
D. 50%
E. 25%
Answer: C- 70%
18. A study looks at the average systolic blood pressure of
patients in antenatal clinic. Out of 200 women the average
SBP was 110mmHg and the standard error of the mean was
8mmHg. What is the 95% confidence interval?
A. 104.5 to 115.5

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B. 94.3 to 125.6
C. 102 to 118
D. 100 to 120
E. none of the above
Answer: B- 94.3 to 125.6
19. Which of the following tests require the population to be
of normal distribution
A. Chi‐squared
B. Mann Whitney U
C. Analysis of Variance
D. Kruskal Wallis
E. Spearman Correlation
Answer: C- Analysis of Variance
20. A 34 year old patient sustains a 3b perineal tear following
delivery of her 3rd child. What is the UK incidence of
OASIS (obstetric anal sphincter injury) in multiparous
women?
A. 1.7%
B. 2.9%
C. 6.1%
D. 11.3%
E. 15.5%
Answer: A- 1.7%
21. Which steroid hormones accounts for approximately
90% of mineralo-corticoid activity in the body?
A. 17-hydroxyprogesterone
B. Aldosterone
C. Corticosterone
D. Cortisol
E. Pregnenolone

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Answer: B- Aldosterone
22. You have been asked to review an asymptomatic

patient in the early pregnancy unit. Ultrasound scan is
negative for pregnancy. βhCG levels over 48 hours are 550
and 350, and serum progesterone levels are 17 nmol. What
is the most likely finding?
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Failing pregnancy
C. High risk of ectopic pregnancy needing intervention for treatment
D. Non-viable pregnancy with the possibility of spontaneous resolution
E. Viable pregnancy
Answer: D
23. In a pregnant woman with diabetes mellitus, target levels of HbA1C should be below what
level?
A. 4.1 %
B. 6.1%
C. 8.1%
D. 10.1%
E. 12.1%
Answer: B- 6.1%
24. A 19-year-old woman was seen in the gynaecology clinic

with a history of excessive growth of facial hair, needing to
wax every 2-3 weeks. Her menstrual periods last 3-4 days
every 3-4 months. There is no change in her voice. Her BMI
is 28 kg/m2. Examination shows Ferriman-Gallwey grade 2-
3 hirsutism over chest and abdomen. A pelvic ultrasound
showed no abnormality. Her day two hormone tests showed
LH level 7.4IU/L, FSH level 5.2IU/L, serum testosterone
level 2.3nmol/l, SHBG 24 nmol/L.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. PCOS
B. Idiopathic hirsutism
C. Cushing disease
D. Androgen producing tumour of ovary
E. Later onset congenital adrenal hyperplasia

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Answer – A
25. What percentage of patients with breast cancer have
hypercalcaemia?
A. <1%
B. 2‐3%
C. 5%
D. 20%
E. >50%
Answer: D- 20%
26. A woman undergoes a surgical evacuation of retained
products of conception following a miscarriage. She
telephones two days later to say that her pregnancy test is
still positive. What would you advise her about the length of
time for which her test may remain positive? Choose the
single best answer.
A. 5 days
B. 10 days
C. 12 days
D. 15 days
E. 21 days
Answer: E- 21 days
27. Signs of hypoglycaemia and hypocalcaemia are often similar. Which sign will help differentiate
the two in a newborn?
A. Cyanosis
B. High-pitched cry
C. Increased muscle tone
D. Jitteriness
E. Seizures
Answer: C- Increased muscle tone
The answer is increased muscle tone. Signs are often non-specific. Relevant clinical history will be
pointing towards the diagnosis. Hypocalcaemia can be treated with 10% calcium gluconate at a dose of 1–
2 ml/kg over a 10-minute period with careful monitoring by electrocardiography. Special attention should
be provided for macrosomic babies, or babies with diabetic mothers.

with abdominal pain and amenorrhoea. You suspect she may

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have Cushing’s syndrome and decide to send her for further
tests.
Which of the following tests would be suitable for
confirmation of the diagnosis?
A. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone levels
B. High dose dexamethasone suppression test
C. Low dose dexamethasone suppression test
D. Short synacthen test
E. Urinary free cortisol
Answer – C
29. A 16-year-old girl is seen in the gynaecology outpatient

department with primary amenorrhoea and excessive facial
hair growth. Examination reveals normal genitalia, apart
from an apparently large clitoris. Differential diagnosis
includes congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH). CAH (21α-
hydoxylase deficiency) is characterised by which of the
following?
A. Hypertension, hypokalaemia and hyponatraemia
B. Hypertension, hyperkalaemia and hyponatraemia
C. Hypotension, hyperkalaemia and hypernatraemia
D. Hypotension, hyperkalaemia and hyponatraemia
E. Hypotension, hypokalaemia and hyponatraemia
Answer – D
30. A 40-year-old woman presents to the endocrine clinic
with anxiety, palpitations, sweating and weakness. She has
an obvious goiter. What is the most likely cause of her
hyperthyroidism?
A. Grave’s disease
B. Thyroid follicular carcinoma
C. Thyroiditis
D. Toxic adenoma
E. Toxic multinodular goiter
Answer: A- Grave’s disease
31. A 44-year-old female complaint 18 months of pruritic
vulval lesion with pigment change. On examination,

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polygonal flat-topped violaceous purpuric plaques and
papules with a fine white reticular pattern are seen. Which
one of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Herpes simplex
B. Lichen simplex
C. Lichen planus
D. Lichen sclerosis
E. VIN
Answer – C
32. Which of the following is a double stranded RNA virus?
A. Parvovirus B19
B. Rotavirus
C. EBV
D. CMV
E. Herpes Simplex type 2
Answer: B- Rotavirus
33. A 23 years old woman presents at 35 weeks gestation
with itching, pruritus mainly in palms and soles. Initial
investigation show raised liver enzymes and bile acids.
Choose the most appropriate maternal condition.
A. Sickle cell disease
B. Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy
C. Cholestasis of pregnancy
D. Pemphigoid gestationis
E. Scabies
Answer: C- Cholestasis of pregnancy
34. A patient has been referred to clinic following diagnosis
of a Gumma. What stage of syphilis infection is this?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Early Latent

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E. Late Latent
Answer: C – Tertiary
35. What percentage of infants with congenital CMV
infection are symptomatic?
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 40%
D. 65%
E. 80%
Answer: C - 40%
36. A couple come to see you in clinic. The male partner
reveals he has cystic fibrosis and wants to know what his
likelihood of being infertile is. What is the male infertility
rate in CF patients?
A. 98%
B. 90%
C. 75%
D. 40%
E. 18%
Answer: A- 98%
Answer – A

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leg amputation.
D. Escherichia coli
Answer – B
39. What percentage of infants with congenital CMV
infection are symptomatic?
A. >99%
B. 50%
C. 10%
D. 1‐2%
E. <1%
Answer: C - 10%
load of 43 copies/mL.
B. Chorioamnionitis
C. Paternal HIV-infection
Answer – B
41. How can the mechanism of action of the
immunosupressive agent azathioprine best be described?
A. Blocking of T cell activation
B. Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis in all mitotic cells
C. Inhibition of T cell proliferation

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D. Prevention of the generation of cytotoxic effector cells and general anti-inflammatory effect
E. Promotion of unresponsiveness in alloreactive T cells
Answer: B
42. A pregnant woman is diagnosed with toxoplasmosis. What is the drug of choice for reducing the
risk of fetal infection?
A. Aciclovir
B. Intrauterine blood transfusion
C. Metronidazole
D. Penicillin
E. Spiramycin
Answer: E- Spiramycin
43. What is mechanism of action of oxytetracycline?
A. Inhibit peptidoglycan cross links in bacterial cell wall

B. Bind to 30 S subunit of microbial ribosomes blocking attachment of aminoacyl t RNA to the A
side on the ribosome
C. Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitors
D. DNA gyrase inhibitor
E. Petidyl transferase inhibitors
Answer. B. Bind to 30 S subunit of microbial ribosomes blocking attachment of aminoacyl t RNA to the
A side on the ribosome
44. Which of the following regarding use of tocolytics is

true?
A. Use of a tocolytic drug is not associated with a clear reduction in perinatal or neonatal mortality,
or neonatal morbidity
B. Use of a tocolytic drug reduces neonatal morbidity but not mortality
C. Use of a tocolytic drugs is associated with an increased risk of fetal haemorrhage
D. Nifedipine is the only drug licensed in the UK for treatment of threatened preterm labour
E. The purchase price of atosiban is approximately twice that of nifedipine
Answer: A
45. A patient undergoes medical abortion at 9 weeks
gestation. What is the advice regarding Rhesus Anti‐D
Immunoglobulin?
A. Not required
B. All RhD Negative women should receive Anti‐D IgG
C. All RhD‐negative women who are not alloimmunized
should receive Anti‐D IgG
D. All RhD‐negative women who are alloimmunized should

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receive Anti‐D IgG
E. All RhD Positive women should receive Anti‐D IgG
Answer - C
46. You are reviewing a patient in the uro‐gynaecology clinic.
She has had limited response to conservative measures for
her overactive bladder (OAB). You discuss starting
Tolterodine. Which of the following should you warn her are
common side effects?
A. Leucopenia
B. Alopecia
C. Glaucoma
D. Hyperhydrosis
E. Dry Mouth
Answer: E - Dry Mouth

47. Which of the following women would you advise to take
400mcg of folic acid during the first 12 weeks of pregnancy?
A. 25 year old type 1 diabetic
B. 26 year old recently diagnosed with coeliac disease
C. 31 year old taking sodium valproate
D. 24 year old with sickle cell anaemia
Answer: E - None of the above
48. You review a 26 year old patient in clinic. She has been
taking Phenytoin for 6 years and has good seizure control at
her current dose. She has started a new relationship and
wants contraceptive advice. She doesn't mind any form of
contraception but doesn't want to use condoms/barrier
methods. According to the UKMEC criteria which of the
following would be most appropriate?
A. Progestrone only pill (POP)

B. Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP)
C. Progesterone implant
D. Levonorgestrel intrauterine system

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E. Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) without pill free
week
Answer: D - Levonorgestrel intrauterine system

49. A patient is attending for medical abortion. She is 15
weeks gestation. She has no known drug allergies. Which of
the following is the most appropriate regarding antibiotic
prophylaxis?
A. Stat Azithromycin 1g and metronidazole 800 mg orally at

time of abortion
B. Stat dose metronidazole 800mg orally at time of abortion
C. Stat dose metronidazole 1g rectally at time of abortion
D. Doxycycline 100mg twice daily for 7 days starting on day
of abortion
E. Cefalexin 500mg twice daily for 7 days starting on day of
abortion and stat dose metronidazole 500mg orally at time
of abortion
Answer: A- Stat Azithromycin 1g and metronidazole 800 mg

orally at time of abortion
50. A 35-year-old woman, with a history of previous multiple
pulmonary embolisms, is now 8 weeks pregnant.
Which is the anticoagulant of choice during her pregnancy?
A. Aspirin 300 mg
B. Heparin infusion
C. Low-molecular weight heparin
D. Warfarin
Answer – C

Science UMM
1. Tricarboxylic acid cycle:
a. Produces four NADH molecules per turn

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b. Uses acetyl coenzyme A as its substrate
c. Takes place in the matrix of mitochondria
d. Is regulated by substrate availability
e. Each H2 molecule produces three molecules of ATP
2. Fat metabolism:
a. Fat can be metabolised anaerobically
b. Fat can be used by the brain as a source of fuel
c. Oxidation of fatty acids takes place in the mitochondria
d. Beta -oxidation of fatty acids is controlled by supply of
substrate
e. The liver can synthesise fatty acids to ketone bodies
3. Prostaglandins:
a. Are hydrophilic
b. Are synthesised from arachidonic acid
c. Are antagonised by non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
d. Consist of 18 carbon atoms
e. Bind to G protein-coupled receptors
4. Which enzyme is involved in the rate-limiting step of the glycolysis pathway?
A. Glucokinase
B. Glucose 6-phosphate
C. Hexokinase
D. Phosphofructokinase
E. Phosphoglucose isomerase
Answer: F F F T F
5. Phenylketonuria:
a. Is an autosomal dominant condition
b. Is caused by a defect in the metabolism of tyrosine
c. Is detected using the Kleihauer–Betke test in newborns
d. Untreated, results in severe intellectual impairment
e. Can be managed using a protein-rich diet

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6. Which of the followings are cell surface receptors?
a. Estrogen receptor
b. Progesterone receptor
c. Enzyme linked receptor
d. Ion channel linked receptor
e. G protein linked receptor
7. A hydrophilic signaling molecules
a. Its receptor is located in the cytosol of cells
b. It must trigger a signaling cascade inside the cell
c. It can enter the cell
d. It does not need any second messenger
e. It is steroid
8. The second messenger
a. Are important for non-steroidal hormone
b. Some are calcium ions
c. May need ATP
d. Inositol-tri-phosphate is one of the second messengers
e. They are hormone themselves
9. Protein kinase A is
a. Completely inhibited by cyclic AMP
b. Allosterically activated by AMP
c. Affected by cAMP only under unusual circumstances
d. Activated by covalent bonding of cAMP
e. Are required for the action of progesterone

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10. Which of the following is involved in signal transduction
by beta adrenergic receptor pathway?
a. GTP
b. ATP
c. cAMP
d. cGMP
e. None of the above
11. Which of the following is a recognised parameter used in fetal biophysical profiling?
A. Abdominal circumference
B. Amniotic fluid index
C. Biparietal diameter
D. Head circumference
E. Femur length
12. Which of the following describes the mode used in creating standard grey scale ultrasound
images?
A. A-mode
B. B-mode
C. Doppler mode
D. M-mode
E. None of above

Chlamydia

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a. The PR interval is 0.2-0.4 seconds
d. The QT interval is 0.35-0.42 seconds
15. In an autosomal recessive condition, which of the
following statements is/are true?
a. The majority of affected persons are the offspring of
parents who are normal to all outward appearance
b. The rarer the abnormality, the more frequently marraiage
between blood relatives are found among the parents of
affected offspring
c. If both parents are heterozygotes for the abnormal gene,
there is a 1 in 4 chance that the offspring will be affected
d. Affected persons married to normal individuals have
affected and normal offspring in equal proportions
e. Provided that both owe their abnormality to the same gene
defect, affected persons who marry affected persons have
affected offspring only
16-the following congenital abnormalities are associated with
a characteristic karyotype:
a. Klinefelter's syndrome
b. cri-du-chat syndrome
c. Ovarian dysgenesis
d. Pierre-Robin syndrome
e. meningomyelocoele
Ans – T T T F F
17. In a consanguineous marriage, are the following
statements true?
a. The risk of a serious disease or defect is double that for an
unrelated mating

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b. The risk of recurrence for autosomal recessive disorders is
50%
c. There is an increased risk of producing a deaf child
d. There is an increased risk of producing an interllecturally
disabled child
e. When it is between second cousins, does not carry an
increased risk
18. Which of these statements regarding carries is/are
correct?
a. Carrier states are seen in achondroplasia
b. Certain carrier states can be detected using DNA studies
c. In classical haemophilia A, carriers may show clinical
features
d. In cystic fibrosis two carriers have a 25% risk of having a
child affected with the condition
e. In Duchenne muscular dystrophy, carriers never produce
affected males, if the husband is mormal
f. An X-linked recessive condition
g. Associated with gene defect of chromosome 9
h. Most commonly caused by deletion of F508
i. Characterised by a defect in potassium ion transport
j. Caused by a defect in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane
conductance gene
20. The following conditions are caused by chromosome
microdeletions:
a. Angelman syndrome
b. Cri-du-chat

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c. Di-George syndrome
d. Rett syndrome
e. Tay–Sachs disease
21. Regarding type I hypersensitivity reactions:
a. The antigen is presented by major histocompatibility
complex class I molecules
b. CD4+ Th2 cells induce class switching of antigen specific
B cells
c. IgE antibodies are produced on first contact with the
antigen
d. Prostaglandins cause bronchial relaxation
e. Histamine contracts smooth muscle
22. Regarding human leucocyte antigen (HLA) class 1
antigen:
a. They are expressed on most nucleated cells
b. They are composed of two light chains
c. They are essential for viral antigen recognition by cytotoxic
cells
d. The genes for HLA class 1 molecules are located on
chromosome 6 and 15
e. CD8+ cells only recognise antigen presented with HLA
class II molecules
23. Concerning cytokines:
a. Interferons inhibit viral replication
b. IL-2 is produced by B cells
c. Tumour necrosis factor (TNF)-α inhibits macrophages
d. TNF induces production of nitric oxide
e. IL-4 has an active role in B cell class switch to IgE

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24. Regarding parvovirus B19:
a. Seropositivity for parvovirus B19 IgG antibodies suggests
immunity
b. Incubation period is 4–20 days
c. The virus mainly affects lymphocytes
d. Diagnosis is via virus-specific IgA in the serum
e. Can result in hydrops fetalis
a. The classical activation pathway is independent of antibody
involvement
e. The alternative activation pathway requires binding of
mannose-binding lectin
26. With regard to opioid receptors, which of the following is
suitable for analgesic effect of morphine
A. Acetycholine
B. Delta receptor
C. Kappa receptor
D. Mu receptor
E. NMDA receptor
Answer: F F F T F
27. During pregnancy there is a rise in the plasma
concentration of
a. Alpha 1-globulin
b. Albumin
c. Beta globulin

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d. Triglycerides
Ans – T F T T F
28. Haemolytic disease of the newborn (Rhesus incompatibility) occurs as a result of which of the
following classes of hypersensitivity reaction?
a. IgE mediated
b. Immune complex mediated
c. Type I
d. Type II
e. Type IV
29. Antibodies:
a. Are polypeptides
30. Concerning cellular function:
a. Atrophy can be reversible
b. Dysplasia is irreversible
c. Metaplasia is the conversion of differentiated tissue into
undifferentiated tissue
d. Hypertrophy is the increase in cell number
e. Neoplasia represents malignant change
31. White cell migration from blood vessels in areas of
inflammation involves
a. cell migration occurring between endothelial cells

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b. passive loss of fluid blood elements
c. cell migration independent of endothelial cell motion
d. initial emigration of polymorph nuclear neutrophils
e. more polymorphs than monocytes after two days
Ans – T T F T F
32. Carcinoma in situ in epithelium is charactarised by

f. increased mitotic activity
g. loss of polarity
h. increased adhesiveness to the underlying stroma
i. Invasion into stroma
j. increased thickness of the epithelium
Ans – T T F F T
33. Chemical mediators concerned in the production of an
inflammatory response include.
a. 5-hydroxytryptamine
b. Aldosterone
c. Glucocorticoids
d. Bradykinin
e. Leukotrienes
Ans – T F F T T
34. Endotoxins
a. Are produced by Salmonella typhi
b. Are inactivated by heat
c. Are neutralized by their homologous antitoxin
d. Are released by living bacteria
e. Act non specificity on the reticulo-endothelial system
35. Congenital absence of the uterus

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a. has an incidence of 1:1000 births
b. has a chromosomal pattern of 45 XX
c. Hirsutism is common
d. Known as Mayer-Rokitansky-Kauster-Hauser Syndrome
e. The ovaries are normally affected.
36. Endocytosis
a. Include phagocytosis and pinocytosis, but not clathrin-
mediated or caveolae dependent uptake of extracellular
contents
b. Refer to the merging of an intracellular vesicle with the
plasma membrane to deliver intracellular contents
c. Refers to the invagination of the plasma membrane to
uptake extracellular contents into the cells
d. Refers to vesicular trafficking between golgi apparatus
e. Endocytosis is not the reverse of exocytosis
37. The pregnant uterus is viewed as immune privileged.
What is the cellular basic for this phenomenon?
A. Extravillous trophoblasts do not express higher levels of
the MHC 1 antigens HLA-A and HLA-B but do express
HLA-E and HLA-G
B. Extravillous trophoblasts express higher levels of the
highly polymorphic MHC-1 antigen HLA-G
C. Extravillous trophoblasts express higher levels of the MHC
1 antigens HLA-A and HLA-B, HLA-C and HLA-G.
D. Syncytiotrophoblasts do not express higher levels of the
MHC-1 antigens HLA-A and HLA-B but do express HLA-
C and HLA-G
E. Syncytiotrophoblasts express higher levels of the MHC-1
antigens HLA-A and HLA-B, HLA-E and HLA-G

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38. Amyloidosis
a. is associated with multiple myeloma
b. stains with Congo red dye
c. can lead to bowel ulceration
d. Is a type of coagulative necrosis
e. is the condition in which there is deposition of amyloid
material in the connective tissue stroma and the wall of
blood vessels of certain tissue and organs
39. The following can survive within the phagocytes
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b. Niesseria gonorrhoeae
c. Coronybacterium diptheriae
d. Salmonalla typhi
e. Bacillus anthracis
40. Mast cells
a. Contain heparin
b. Degranulation release lytic enzymes and inflammatory
mediators form storage granules
c. Are lipophilic cells involved in inflammatory and immune
responses
d. Cross-linkage of surface IgA molecules by antigen may
cause an anaphylactic reaction
e. An excess of circulating mast cells causes mastocytosis
41. Active transport
a. takes place in the kidney
b. takes place in the placenta
c. takes place in the liver
d. takes place in the red blood cell
e. of glucose requires Na to move across the cell membrane
+

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in the opposite direction
42. During pregnancy there is a rise in the plasma
concentration of
a. Alpha 1-globulin
b. Albumin
c. Beta globulin
d. Triglycerides
Ans – T F T T F
43. Iron utilization in normal pregnancy
a. During the course of 40 week gestation, the fetus and
placenta accumulates 400-500 mg of iron
b. The maternal dietary intake of elemental iron during
pregnancy should be 3-5 mg per day
c. A maximum of 10% of dietary iron is absorbed
d. Iron is absorbed in the ferrous form
e. The administration of alkalis by mouth aids iron absorption
44. Total body water
a. Forms a smaller proportion of body water in fat than thin
persons
b. Can be measured by deuterium oxide dilution technique
c. Normally comprises 45-65% of body weight
d. Is a smaller proportion of body weight in men than in
women
e. Is predominantly intracellular
Ans – T T T F T
45. Concerning the fetal cardiovascular system

a. More than 80% of the cardiac output flows through the
placenta

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b. Oxygen saturation in the carotid and renal arteries is the
same
c. Umbilical venous blood has a lower PCO2 than renal
arteries blood
d. Blood from the inferior vena cava passes directly into the
left ventricle
e. The pulmonary circulation has a high resistance
Ans – F F T F T
46. With respect to renal regulation of acid-base balance

a. Ammonium ions are mainly produced in the loop of Henle
b. Glutamine metabolism by the kidneys results in
bicarbonate production
c. Ammonia production by the kidneys is increased in
acidosis
d. Secreted hydrogen ions are buffered by the phosphate
buffer system in tubular fluid
e. 50 % of filtered bicarbonate is reabsorbed in the proximal
tubule
47. The following increase sex hormone binding globulin
a. Growth hormone
b. Hepatic cirrhosis
c. Hyperprolactinaemia
d. Hypogonadism
e. Hypothyrodism
Answer- F T F F F
48. A 27 year old woman attends AN clinic at 32 weeks
gestation complaining of gradual increasing shortness of
breath through pregnancy. Although you feel it is important
to exclude serious pathology, you are aware that this could
be a normal symptom of advancing pregnancy.
Which of the following contributor to lung volume and

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weeks’ gestation complaining of shortness of breath.
Which of the following causes a shift of oxygen dissociation
to the left?
a. Decreased haemoglobin
b. Decreased 2,3-diphosphoglycerate
c. Increased acidity
d. Increased carbon dioxide
e. Increased temperature
50. A 72-year-old woman is undergoing lung function tests
prior to abdominal surgery. Which of the following gives the
correct lung volume equation?
a. Functional residual capacity = residual volume + tidal
volume
b. Inspiratory capacity = tidal volume + expiratory reserve
volume
c. Inspiratory capacity = inspiratory reserve volume – tidal
volume
d. Total lung capacity = inspiratory capacity + residual
volume
e. Vital capacity = inspiratory capacity + expiratory reserve
volume

Science UMM

Page 142 of 262
1. In times of starvation which ketone body listed below can
be utilised by the heart for energy?
A. Acetone
B. Beta‐hydroxybutyric acid
C. Acetyl‐CoA
D. Pyruvate
E. ATP
Answer: B - Beta‐hydroxybutyric acid
2. What is the role of DHEA produced by the fetal adrenal

glands?
A. Stimulate formation of cholesterol
B. Stimulate placenta to form oestragen
C. Stimulate development of the Thymus
D. Stimulate gonadal development of the fetus
Answer: B - Stimulate placenta to form oestragen
3. The median umbilical ligament is the embryological

remnant of what fetal structure?
A. Gubenaculum
B. Umbilical arteries
C. Umbilical veins
D. Urachus
E. Vitelline duct
Answer: D-Urachus
4. Which of the following is used in protein analysis?

A. Northern Blotting
B. Eastern Blotting
C. Southern Blotting
D. Western Blotting
E. Southwestern Blotting
Answer: D

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5. Which of the following factors shifts the oxygen
dissociation curve to the right?
A. Increased pCO
B. Increased [H+]
C. Decreased temperature
D. Decreased 2,3 DPG
E. Decreased pCO2
Answer: B - Increased [H+]
6. Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Clotting factor III
D. Clotting factor IV
E. Protein S
Answer: E- Protein S
7. Receptor activation
A. is usually the initial step leading to a cell its ultimate
response to the messenger
B. is always the initial step leading to a cell its ultimate
response to the messenger
C. refers to increase cleavage of ATP by the receptor
D. is directly due to alteration in the cell protein
E. B&D
Answer – E
The membrane protein, called receptor, has binding site with
specific shape that fits the shape of a chemical messenger, for
example, a hormone. The external messenger (the signaling
molecules) induces the conformational change in protein, known
as receptor activation. Receptor activation is always the initial
step, leading to the cell’s ultimate response to the messenger.
8. Calcium can act as second messenger because

Page 144 of 262
A. Increased cytosolic calcium levels can activate kinases
B. Electrical stimuli acting via voltage gated calcium
channels, calcium increased calcium entry into cells
C. Chemical stimuli through receptor interaction can increase
calcium release from intracellular storage sites
D. A+B
E. A+B+C
Answer – E
Calcium can act as a second messenger, therefore, in response
not only to chemical stimuli acting via receptors, but to
electrical stimuli acting via voltage-gated calcium channels as
well.
9. Which of the following statements about a protein is not
correct?
A. G-protein involved in the signaling by lipid soluble
hormone such as steroids
B. G- protein can either stimulate or inhibit adenylyl cyclase
C. G-protein are involved in the signaling of a large cluster of
receptors that have a similar general structure consists of
membrane sparing domains
D. G- protein can couple a receptor to the opening of an ion
channel
E. A-D are all correct
Answer – A (option E is also not correct)
10. Which of the following statements is not true regarding

intracellular signaling mediated by activation of
phospholipase C?
A. Phospholipase C can be activated by a G- protein coupled
receptor
B. Phospholipase C via generation at diacyl glycerol (DAG)
can activate protein kinase C
C. Phospholipase C via generation of inositol triphosphate
(IP3) and the release of intracellular calcium can activate
protein kinase C
D. Phospholipase C via generation of IP3 & release of
intracellular Ca++ activate Ca++ calmodulin dependent
protein kinase

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E. Each of the statement is correct
Answer – E
he α subunit of the G protein interacts with the membrane bound enzyme called phospholipase
C; this activates the enzyme. once activated phospholipase C catylizes (breaks down)
phospholipids within the cell membrane into two specific molecules: DAG and iP3.
PKC enzymes in turn are activated by signals such as increases in the concentration of
diacylglycerol (DAG) or calcium ions (Ca2+). Hence PKC enzymes play important roles in
several signal transduction cascades.
11. A 32-year-old woman is 15 weeks pregnant with her

second pregnancy. She opts to have antenatal screening and
has blood taken as part of the quadruple test. The result
shows reduced levels of α-fetoprotein and unconjugated
oestriol with elevated β-human chorionic gonadotrophin.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the
screening results:
B. Edwards’ syndrome
C. Multiple pregnancy
D. Neural tube defect
E. Normal pregnancy
Answer- A
12. A 39-year-old multiparous woman is 13 weeks pregnant.
She has serum screening as part of the combined test.
Analysis shows an elevated level of α-fetoprotein and a
normal level of pregnancy-associated plasma protein A.
What diagnosis are the screening results suggestive of?
E. Normal pregnancy
Answer – D
13. A 37-year-old primiparous woman is 14 weeks pregnant.
Following serum screening, the pregnancy is found to have

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an increased risk of trisomy 21. She wishes to have further
testing to confirm whether the fetus is affected. In view of
her current gestation what is the most appropriate
diagnostic test?
A. Amniocentesis
B. Cell-free fetal DNA sampling
C. Chorionic villus sampling
D. Cordocentesis
E. Nuchal translucency imaging
Answer – C
14. A 29-year-old woman seeks genetic counselling as she has
a number of her female relatives who have had either breast
or ovarian cancer. Both her mother and her sister have been
diagnosed with breast cancer. DNA sequencing subsequently
shows that she carries a mutated form of the BRCA1 gene.
Via which mode of inheritance is the BRCA1 gene mutation
transmitted?
A. Autosomal dominant inheritance
B. Autosomal recessive inheritance
C. Mitochondrial inheritance
D. X-linked dominant inheritance
E. X-linked recessive inheritance
Answer- A
15. A 34-year-old woman delivers a male baby with Down’s
syndrome. Chromosomal analysis following his birth is
suggestive of familial Down’s syndrome.
What chromosomal event best describes the aetiology of
Familial Down’s syndrome?
A. Microdeletion
B. Nonsense mutation
C. Reciprocal translocation
D. Robertsonian translocation

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E. Triplet repeat expansion
Answer- D
16. A couple are both known to carry the trait for a
haemoglobinopathy. They decline any invasive testing when
they conceive their first pregnancy. At an anomaly scan at 20
weeks’ gestation the fetus is found to have severe hydrops. In
utero death occurs at 22 weeks' gestation.
What is the most likely cause of the fetal demise?
A. Alpha-thalassaemia with deletion of 4α-globin genes
B. Beta-thalassaemia major
C. Glucose-6-dehydrogenase deficiency
D. Haemoglobin H disease
E. Sickle cell disease
Answer – A
A. An X-linked recessive condition
B. Associated with gene defect of chromosome 9
C. Most commonly caused by deletion of F508
D. Characterised by a defect in potassium ion transport
E. There is no carrier state
Answer – C
18. An anxious 38yr old pregnant woman undergoes a
combine test for Down $ screening. The risk came back as
1:1000. What is appropriate course of action?
A. Advice that diagnostic tests are not indicated
B. Amniocentesis
C. chorionic villus sampling
D. Inform the woman that baby does not have down $
E. Termination of pregnancy
Answer - A

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19. What percent of fetus is trisomy 21 would be expected to
be detected by nuchal translucency scan alone? (Assuming
25% false positive rate)
A. 10%
B. 25-30%
C. 70-75%
D. 50-55%
E. 90-95%
Answer - C
20. You are asked to speak to a 28 year old patient as her
blood have shown anti-D antibody. What titer correlate with
moderate risk of haemolytic disease of fetus and newborn
would prompt referral to a fetal medicine specialist?
A. 10 IU/ml
B. 4 IU/ml
C. 7.5 IU/ml
D. 15 IU/ml
E. referral regardless of titer level if antibody detected
Answer – B
21. A 28 year-old woman is seen in early pregnancy unit. She
had a (+) pregnancy test but uncertain LMP. USG does not
visualize a pregnancy. You perform β-hCG test 48 hr apart.
The first β-hcG is 400 mIU/ml. The 2nd is 190 mIU/ml. What
is the likely Diagnosis?
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Partial molar pregnancy
C. Non-viable pregnancy
D. Viable pregnancy
E. Molar pregnancy
Answer - C
22. You are asked to speak to a 25 year-old patient as her
blood have shown anti-C antibodies. What titer level

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correlates with moderate risk of haemolytic disease of the
fetus & newborn & would prompt referral to a fetal
medicine specialist?
A. 1.0 IU/ml
B. 4.0 lu/ml
C. 7.5 lu/ml
D. 15.0 lu/ml
E. referral regardless of titer level if antibody detached
Answer - C
23. With regard to the role of placenta in preventing immune
rejection. Which of the following HLA (Human leukocyte
Ags) genes are not expressed by cells of the trophoblast?
A. HLA A & HLA B
B. HLA B & HLA C
C. HLA D & HLA E
D. HLA B & HLA E
E. HLA E & HLA G
Answer - A
24. Which of the following best describe the fetus?
A. Autograft
B. Autogenous
C. Autogenic
D. Allograft
E. Xenograft
Answer - D
25. The following has a lower incidence of flare up in
pregnancy
A. Hypothyroid
B. Grave disease
C. SLE

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D. Rheumatoid arthritis
E. Inflammatory bowel disease
Answer - D
26. You see a patient in antenatal clinic who is concerned
that she has never had chicken pox and may catch it during
pregnancy. You check her Varicella status and she is non‐
immune. She asks you about vaccination. What type of
vaccine is the varicella vaccine? Which type of vaccine is
Varicella zoster?
A. Attenuated
B. Inactivated
C. Subunit
D. polysaccharide
E. Toxoid
Answer - A
27. At what stage of gestation does fetal immunoglobulin M

production begins?
A. Week 1
B. week 6
C. week 10
D. week 18
E. week 32
Answer – D
28. At what stage of gestation does maternal

immunoglobulin G transfer to the fetus start?
A. From conception
B. 2 weeks
C. 6 weeks
D. 12 weeks
E. 18 weeks

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Answer - D
29. Which of the following cytokines have increased
production during pregnancy and are thought to be
enhanced fetal survival?
A. TNF alpha
B. IFN-r
C. Interleukin 2
D. TNF kappa
E. Interleukin 10
Answer - E
30. Myasthenia gravis is an example of what type of
hypersensitivity reaction?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type II
D. Type IV
E. Type V
Answer - E
31. A patient asks you in clinic when she can start trying to
conceive again. She has just completed chemotherapy for
gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD)?
A. No restriction advised
B. 6 weeks from completion of treatment
C. 6 months from completion of treatment
D. 1 year from completion of treatment
E. 3 years from completion of treatment
Answer - D
32. A 77 year old woman undergoes staging investigations
for endometrial carcinoma. This shows invasion of the
inguinal lymph nodes. What is this patient’s 5‐year survival?
A. 85‐90%

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B. 65%
C. 45‐60%
D. 15%
E. 5%
Answer - D
33. What percentage of cervical cancers are HPV related?
A. 5%
B. 30%
C. 70%
D. 95%
E. 99.7%
Answer - E
34. Which age group has the highest rates of chlamydia
infection?
A. 15‐19 year olds
B. 20‐24 year olds
C. 25‐30 year olds
D. 30‐40 year olds
E. 40+
Answer - B
35. Regarding Venous Thomboembolism (VTE) in
pregnancy which of the following statements are TRUE?
A. Obesity increases DVT risk by 2 times
B. Obesity increases DVT risk by 4 to 5 times
C. Inherited thrombophilia is present is present in 3‐5% of
cases of pregnancy associated VTE
D. Inherited thrombophilia is present is present in 10‐15% of
cases of pregnancy associated VTE
E. 30‐40% of VTEs in pregnancy are Pulmonary Emboli
Answer - B

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36. Regarding Gestational Diabetes which of the following
statements is TRUE?
A. it occurs in <2% of pregnancies
B. it occurs in 2‐5% of pregnancies
C. it occurs in 5‐10% of pregnancies
D. it occurs in 15‐25% of pregnancies
E. it occurs in >25% of pregnancies
Answer – B
with primary infertility. On examination, she has a round
face, prominent stretch marks on her abdomen and
hirsutism.
Which of the following is not a feature of Cushing’s
syndrome?
A. Diabetes insipidus
B. Depression
C. Irregular menstrual cycles
D. Osteoporosis
E. Weight gain
Answer – A
38. Which of the following forms part of phase 2 reactions in
drug metabolism?
A. Conjugation
B. Cyclisation
C. Hydrolysis
D. Reduction
E. Oxidation
Answer – A
39. The Barr body
B. Arises from the Y chromosome

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E. Is present in 20% of cells in the male
Answer – C
40. The following statements relate to embryonic tumours
A. An ovarian teratoma is usually malignant

B. A nephroblastoma may be benign
C. A neuroblastoma can arise in the adrenal medulla
D. A hamartoma is usually malignant
E. Choriocarcinoma may not arise in a teratoma
Answer – C
41. Physiological changes in pregnancy are associated with a

change in serum concentration of various hormones. Which
test is most appropriate in diagnosing the thyroid
dysfunction in pregnancy?
A. Free T4 Level
B. Serum iron
C. Serum triiodothyronine
D. Thyroid binding globulin
E. Thyroid stimulating hormone
Answer - A
42. A woman presents to AN clinic at 30 weeks gestation with
vulval varicosities. What is the most likely cause?
A. Decreased venous resistance
B. Increased plasma volume
C. Increased cardiac output
D. Infection
E. Pressure effect of the gravid uterus on inferior vena cava
Answer – E
43. Average life-span of platelet

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A. 5-10 Days
B. 10-20Days
C. 40-80 Days
D. 80-120 Days
E. 120-160 Days
Answer - A
44. Physiologic mechanism of bile salts in pregnancy
A. aid absorption of essential amino acid
B. aid absorption of fat
C. help to conjugate bilirubin
D. help to conjugate billiverdin
E. No known physiological function
Answer - B
45. Which of the following blood clotting factors activate
fibrinogen in the common pathway?
A. Fetors VIII
B. Fetors XIII
C. Kallikerin
D. Kinin
E. Prothrombin
Answer - E
46. Which of the following molecule generate weak forces
that can attract neutrophil to cell wall?
A. Cadherin
B. Ecosanoid
C. Hemidesmosome
D. Integrin
E. Selectin
Answer – E

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47. Which structure synthesis alphafeto protein in a fetus?
A. Gut
B. Kidney
C. Pancreas
D. Placenta
E. Spleen
Answer - A. Gut
48. Chronic renal failure can produce what effect on the
parathyroid system?
A. Hypoparathyrodism
B. Primary hyperparathyroidism
C. Pseudohypoparathyrodism
D. Secondary hyperparathyroidism
E. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism
Answer - D. Secondary hyperparathyroidism
49. HbA1c predict pervious glycaemic control within

A. 48hr
B. 1 week
C. 4-8 weeks
D. 8-10 weeks
E. 10-12 weeks
Answer - D
50. With regards to O2 dissociation curve, which factor
increase the % of the given partial pressure of O2, shifting
the dissociation curve to the left?
A. Alkalosis
B. Anaemia
C. Hypercapnia

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D. Hypoxia
E. Heat
Answer - A

Science UMMG
1. The lymphatic drainage of
a. the fallopian tube is mainly to para aortic node.
b. the cervix includes the obturator node
c. the corpus uteri include the superficial inguinal nodes
d. each side of the vulva does not communicate
e. the middle third of the vagina includes the superficial inguinal nodes
Answer –T T T F F
2. The pudendal nerve:
a. Is derived from the ventral rami of the 2nd,3rd and 4th sacral nerve
b. Passes between the piriformis and the coccygenus muscle.
c. Pass through the lesser sciatic foramen.
d. Pass through the greater sciatic foramen.
e. Lies on the medial wall of the ischio-rectal fossa.
Answer –T T T T F
3. The superficial inguinal ring.
a. Is triangular in shape.
b. Is situated below the pubic tubercle.
c. Contains the round ligament of the uterus in the female.
d. Contains the external spermatic fascia in the male.
e. Lies opposite the deep inguinal ring.
Answer –T F T F F
4. The internal anal sphincter:
a. Is under voluntary control.
b. Extends down to Hilton’s white line.
c. Is innervated from the inferior hypogastric plexus.
d. Is capable of maintaining continence of flatus and faces on its own.
e. Contracts in response to sympathetic stimulation.
Answer –F T T F T
5. The ilio-inguinal nerve:
a. Passes behind the kidney.
b. Arises from the posterior ramus of the first lumbar nerve.

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c. Supplies the skin over the mons pubis in the female.
d. Supplies the skin of the anterior third of the scrotum in the male.
e. Emerge from the superficial inguinal ring.
Answer- F F F T T
6. Structures passing through the lesser sciatic foramen
include:
a. the pudendal nerve.
b. the sciatic nerve.
c. the tendon of the obturator internus muscle.
d. the inferior cutaneous nerve of the thigh.
e. the posterior cutancous nerve of the thigh.
Answer –T F T F F
7. The ureter:
a. is about 25 cm in length.
b. lies on the lateral edge of the psoas major muscle.
c. is endodermal in origin.
d. lies infront of the renal artery at the hilum of the kidney.
e. receives some of its blood supply from the ovarian artery.
Answer –T F F F T
8. The uterus:
a. is completely covered by peritoneum on the posterior surface of its body.
b. has sensory sympathetic supply through the hypogastric nerves.
c. may have lymphatic drainage to the superficial inguinal nodes.
d. in infancy has the body shrinking to a greater extent than the body.
e. after menopause has the body shrinking to a greater extent than the cervix.
Answer –F F T T T
9. The great saphenous vein:
a. begins at the medial end of the dorsal venous plexus of the foot.
b. passes behind the medial malleolus of the tibia.
c. lies in front of the saphenous nerve.
d. drains the small saphenous vein.
e. is joined by the superficial epigastric vein.
Answer –T F F F T
10. The superficial perineal pouch in the female contains:
a. the crus of the clitoris.
b. the Bartholin’s gland.
c. the ischio-cavernosus muscle.
d. the external urethral sphincter.
e. the vestibular bulb.

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11.In statistical significance test
a. p value < 0,01 is more significant than at a p value < 0.05
b. f the difference between the response to two drugs yield a p value -0.001 show is a clinically
significance different between them.
c. a p value > 0.05 is usually taken to indicate that the difference in the results is unlikely to be due
to chance.
d. non-parametric tests can be used in normally distributed data.
e. if a difference is significant with a P value < 0.05 then the null hypothesis is false.

Answer –T F F T F
12. Are the following true to significance testing?
a. A type I error is to reject the alternative hypothesis which is should be accepted.
b. A Type II error is to accept the alternative hypothesis when it should be rejected
c. The probability associated with type I error is the significance level.
d. The significance level is always set to 5%.
e. The significance level is determined at the end of a significance test
Answer –T T T F F
13. The urogenital ridge gives rise to:
a. the urinary bladder.
b. the fallopian tube.
c. the ureter.
d. the cervix.
e. the vulva.
Answer –F T T T F
14. Structure developing from the mesoderm include:
a. the spleen.
b. the liver.
c. the heart.
d. the serous membranes.
e. the lens of the eye.
Answer –T F T T F
15. Regarding spermatogenesis in the human:

a. the whole process takes about 70 to 80 days.
b. spermatogonia divide by meiosis.
c. the sperm move actively along the seminiferous tubules.
d. one spermatogonium gives rise to four spermatids.
e. the mid-piece of the mature sperm is rich in mitochondria.
Answer- T F F T T
16. In early human development
a. fertilization normally occurs in the ampullary part of fallopian tube
b. implantation occurs 2-3 days post-fertilization.
c. implantation occurs at the stage of blastocyst.

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d. the second metiotic division of the sperm is completed after fertilization.
e. he yolk sac develops within the inner cell mass.
Answer –T F T F F
17. With regard to early embryonic development
a. the trilaminar disc forms daring the second week of development
b. the notochord forms around 18 days
c. the primitive streak is formed by day 15
d. the anterior neuropore closed by day 24
e. upper limb buds appear around day 32
Answer –F T T F F
a. the scrotum and the ovary.
b. the bulbo-urethral (Cowper’s) gland and the great vestibular (Batholin's ) gland.
c. the penile urethra and the labia minora.
d. the gubermaculums testis and the infundibulo-pelvic ligament of the ovary.
e. the prostate and the para-urethra (Skene’s) glands.
Answer –F T T F T
19. The human oocyte:
a. At ovulation is smaller than the human sperm.
b. Commences its first meiotic division at the age of puberty.
c. Contains a haploid number of chromosomes as a secondary oocyte.
d. Is connected to the surrounding granulosa cells by microvilli.
e. Develops from the germinal epithelium of the ovary.
20. In double blind placebo control trial, which of the
following statements is/ are true?
a. Some of the patients are not treated nor given placebo.
b. Some of the patients receive a placebo.
c. The patients do not know which treatment they receive.
d. Everybody receives both treatment.
e. The clinical assessing the effect of the treatment does not know which treatment patient has been
given.
21. Oestrogens
a. increases the concentrations of androgen receptors
b. decrease the concentrations of progesterone receptors.
c. increases the concentrations of oestrogen receptors
d. receptors concentration is increased by clomiphene citrate.
e. are produced from androstendiones.
Answer –T F T F T
22. Progesterone

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a. Is metabolized to pregnanediol
b. Is mainly metabolized by the kidney’s.
c. Is mainly excreted in urine.
d. Acts via receptor located in the cell membrase.
e. Is predominantly bound to albumin in the circulation
Answer –T F F F T
23. With respect to inhibin
a. Inhibin A and inhibin B have identical beta subunit.
b. Secretion by the ovary is stimulated by GnRH.
c. Inhibin A concentrations rise in the late follicular please.
d. Inhibin A concentrations peak in the early follicular please.
e. Inhibin is produced by sertoli cells.
Answer –F F T F T
24. The menopause
a. Is due to failure of the endometrium to respond to oestrogens
b. Is characterized by cessation of steroidogenesis within the ovary
c. Is characterized by a fall circulating L.H concentration
d. Is typically preceded by a period of enhanced fertility
e. GnRH levels are elevated
Answer –F F F F F F
25. Androgen;
a. There is a negative feedback relationship between testosterone and inhibin
b. FSH elevation precedes LH at puberty
c. Testosterone levels fall in male after 50
d. In testicular feminization there is a female karyotype (XX)
e. In 5alpha reductase deficiency, the internal genitalia are of female type.
26. Normal semen
a. Should contain at least 30% of spermatozoon with normal morphology.
b. Contains 2-4 million white blood cells/ml.
c. Undergoes liquefaction 30-60 minutes after ejaculation.
d. Spermatozoa survive for 48-72h within the female genital tract.
e. Has a pH 3.5 to 4.5
27. A patient with a prolactinoma may present with;
a. Visual field defects
b. Infertility
c. Acromegaly
d. Repeated miscarriage
e. Loss of libido
Answer –T T T T T

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28. Concerning ovarian function;
a. Progesterone is the major steroid of the developing follicle.
b. Granulosa cells secrete oestradiol.
c. Oestradiol is derived from androgen precursors.
d. Insulin-like growth factor (1GF)-1 is not secreted by the ovary.
e. Circulating inhibin concentrations are a marker of granulosa cell function.
Answer –F T T F T
29. Tamoxifen
a. Is structurally related to diethylstilbestrol
b. Has a higher affinity for the oestrogen receptor than oestrogen
c. Kills breast cancer cells
d. Increases FSH levels in post-menopausal women
e. Increases HDL concentration
Answer –T F F F T
30. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
a. Is secreted as pulses every 5-10 minutes
b. Pulsatile secretion ceases during sleep
c. Peak occurs about 30 hours before ovulation
d. Levels reach a peak at 20 weeks of intrauterine life
e. Levels are higher in the male than female fetus
31. Bacteria;
a. Are prokaryotic.
b. Replicate by mitosis.
c. Contain single-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid.
d. Are divided into Gram- positive and Gram-negative according to the staining of the nucleus.
e. Can be seen with the light microscope.
Answer –T F F F T
32. Staphylococcus aureus;
a. Produces the enzyme coagulase.
b. Produces exotoxins.
c. Is responsible for erysipelas.
d. Is usually sensitive to ampicillin.
e. Can cause osteomyelitis.
33. Bacteremic shock;
a. May be associated with leucopenia
b. Is caused by an endotoxin
c. Is caused by Staphylococci
d. Is improved by massive dose of steroid
e. Is associated with symptomatic nervous activation

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34. The causative organism of;
a. Condiyloma lata is human papilloma virus.
b. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a retrovirus.
c. Chancroid is Haemophilus ducreyi.
d. Lymphogranuloma venerum is Calymmatobacterium granulomats.
e. Granuloma inguinale is Chlamydia trachomatis.
35. The following factors predispose to vaginal infection with Candida albicans;
a. Pregnancy.
b. The use of broad-spectrum antibiotics.
c. Diabetes Mellitus.
d. Vaginal delivery.
e. The use of corticosteroids.
Answer –T T T F T
36. The intubation period of
a. chicken pox (14-21) days
b. Rubella (1-3) days
c. Hepatitis is 6 weeks to 6 months
d. Choleora 7-14 days
e. Scarlet fever is (1-3) days.
Answer –T F T F T
37. Infection with Epstein Barr virus can cause;
a. Shingles.
b. Infectious mononucleosis.
c. Burkitt’s lymphoma.
d. Hairy leukoplakia in immune compromised patients.
e. Chickenpox.
38. Herpes viruses include;
a. Cytomegalovirus.
b. Epstein-Barr virus.
c. Varicella-zoster virus.
d. Measles virus.
e. Rubella virus.
Answer –T T T F F
39. Regarding varicella zoster infection:
a. Distribution of lesion is myotonal
b. The use of antiviral can prevent infection
c. It is an RNA virus
d. Maternal exposure at term infers minimal risk to the fetus

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e. Varicella zoster immunoglobulin G(VZV-IG) should be given to exposed pregnant women who
are antibodies negative
Answer –F F F F T
40. Trichomonas vaginalis:
a. Infection can be transmitted by sexual intercourse.
b. Has flagellae.
c. Invades vaginal epithelium.
d. Can be detected on cervical smears.
e. Is sensitive to clotrimazole.
Answer –T T F T F
41. Drugs which can cause hirsutism include.
a. methyl-testosterome.
b. phenytoin.
c. cyproterone acetate.
d. diazoxide.
e. danazol.
42. Drugs that cross the placenta include:
a. heparin.
b. warfarin.
c. insulin.
d. methyldopa.
e. penicillin.
43. Recognized side-effects of clomiphene citrate include.
a. postural hypotension.
b. blurring of vision.
c. alopecia.
d. hot flushes.
e. nausea.
44. Recognized side-effects of the combined oral

contraceptive pill include increased incidence of:
a. ovarian cancer.
b. endometrial cancer.
c. pelvic inflammatory disease.
d. venous thrombosis.
e. ectopic pregnancy.

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Answer –F F F T F
45. With regard to the progestogen-only-pill
a. The progesterone-only pill has a higher failure rate in
women under the age of 40 than in women over the age of
40
b. The progesterone-only pill has a lower risk of ectopic
pregnancy
c. The progesterone-only pill has a 3-hour window
d. The progesterone-only pill has a better bleeding profile
compared with the combined oral contraceptive pill
e. The progesterone-only pill has a quicker reversibility
compared with the combined oral contraceptive pill
46. The following drugs are contraindicated during breast
feeding
a. warfarin
b. methyldopa
c. penicillin
d. metronidazole
e. carbamazepine
47. Cyproterone acetate:
a. is an antiandrogen
b. irreversibly inhibits spermatogenesis
c. is used to treat hirsutism
d. promotes cortisol synthesis
e. is linked to increased risk of thrombosis
Answer –T F T F T

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48. The following teratogens are correctly paired with the abnormalities they
cause:
a. ramipril: polyhydramnios
b. phenytoin: spina bifida
c. diethylstilbestrol: vaginal clear cells adenocarcinoma
d. warfarin: hydrocephalus
e. danazol: masculinization of the female fetus
Answer –F F T F T
49. The following are common side effects of cisplatin use
a. Peripheral neuropathy and hearing loss
b. Hyperkalaemia
c. Hypomagnesaemia
d. Renal damage
e. Visual disturbances
50. The use of ritodrine in preterm labour can lead to a rise
in:
a. maternal heart rate.
b. fetal heart rate.
c. serum glucose.
d. serum potassium.
e. blood pressure.
Answer-T T T F F

Science UMMG
1. Which is nerve root of ilioinguinal nerve?
A. T12 and L1
B. L1

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C. L1 and L2
D. L2
E. L2 and L3
Answer- B
2. Regarding Levator Ani which of the following statements
is TRUE?
A. Arterial blood supply is from interior rectal artery
B. Arterial blood supply is from superior rectal artery
C. Arterial blood supply is from internal iliac artery
D. Arterial blood supply is from inferior gluteal artery
E. Arterial blood supply is from gluteal artery
Answer -D
3. 32-years-old woman undergoes an emergency caesarean
section for failure to progress at 9 cm cervical dilatation.
Which of the following correctly describe the pelvic shape
which has a antero-posterior diameter of the inlet greater
than the transverse diameter?
A. Android
B. Anthropoid
C. Gynaecoid
D. Male
E. Platypelloid
Answer- B
4. The ureter:
A. Is 10-15cm in length
B. Is of endodermal origin.
C. Its blood supply is mainly from the aorta.
D. The ureter runs above the lateral fornix of the vagina, 2cm
lateral to the cervix.
E. The ureter anatomically runs over the gonadal vessels
Answer -D

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6. Which of the following does not form the boundary of the
femoral triangle?
A. Adductor longus
B. Inguinal ligament
C. Obturator internus
D. Pectineus
E. Satorius
Answer- C
7. During the laparoscopic-assisted vaginal hysterectomy, the
surgeon accidentally damage the ovarian artery. Regarding
the left ovarian artery, which of the following is correct?
A. Anastomoses with vaginal artery
B. Is a branch of the abdominal aorta
C. Follows the course of left ovarian artery
D. Lies inferiorly to the inferior mesenteric artery
E. Supplies both left and right ovaries
Answer- B
8. Which of the following artery is a terminal branch (not
paired) of the abdominal aorta?
A. Gonadal
B. Median sacral
C. Phrenic
D. Renal
E. Supra-renal
Answer- B
9. 32 years old woman has an episiotomy repair following
forceps delivery. Which of the following does not insert into
the perineal body?
A. Bulbocavernosus

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B. External anal sphincter
C. Ischiocavernosus
D. Levator ani
E. Transverse perineal
Answer- C
10. Regarding the structure of the detrusor muscle. Which of
the following is true?
A. The detrusor is a single layer of longitudinal smooth
muscle
B. The detrusor is a single layer of circular smooth muscle
C. The detrusor is a single layer consisting of both circular
and longitudinal muscle fibres
D. The detrusor is divided into 2 layers consisting of an inner
longitudinal smooth muscle layer and outer circular smooth
muscle layer
E. The detrusor is divided into 3 layers consisting of inner and
outer layers of longitudinal smooth muscle with a middle
circular smooth muscle layer
Answer - E
11. The ureteric bud is derived from which of the following
embryonic structures?
A. Urogenital sinus
B. Pronephros
C. Mesonephros
D. Mesonephric duct
E. Paramesopheric duct
Answer –D
12. Which of the following is a quality of the media of a data
set?
A. It cannot be distorted by skewed data
B. It is always higher than the mean

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C. It is obtained by dividing the sum of the data set by the
number of values in the data set.
D. It is the middle value in a ranked set of data
E. It is the most frequently occurring value in a data set
Answer –D
13.The age of menarche was recorded for 100 women who

attended gynaecology clinic suspected ovarian cancer. The
data obtain showed a normal distribution.
The following values were obtained.
Mean = 13 years
Standard deviation= 2 years
What is the standard error for this sample?
A. 0.1
B. 0.2
C. 0.5
D. 1
E. 2
Answer –B
14. Which statistical test requires a normal population

distribution?
A. Chi-square test
B. Mann-Whitney U test
C. Spearman’s rank correlation
D. Variance estimation test
E. Wilcoxon rank sum test
Answer –D
15. The round ligament develops from which structure?
A. Gubernaculum
B. Urachus
C. Allantois

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D. Medial umbilical ligament
E. Median umbilical ligament
Answer –A
16. Which of the following is correct regarding germ cell
layers?
A. Endoderm: endocrine glands
B. Endoderm: nervous system
C. Ectoderm: most proximal layer
D. Mesoderm: lung cells
E. Mesoderm: skin epidermis
Answer – A
17. The cells of which structure form the chorionic villi?
A. Neural crest
B. Endoderm
C. Primitive streak
D. Hypoblast
E. Extraembryonic mesoderm
Answer – E
18. Which of the following statement best describe the
development of urogenital system?
A. Sex cords are developed from coelomic epithelium
B. Sex differentiation is present 35 days after fertilization
C. Myometrial walls are present in the fetal uterus by 5
months
D. Reproductive organs are developed from paraxial
mesoderm
E. In the female sex organ development, the upper part of
gubernaculum becomes round ligament
Answer - A
19. Which of the following studies is most appropriate to

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assess the efficacy of a new medication to reduce pain caused
by endometriosis?
A. Randomized Control Trial
B. Longitudinal Study
C. Cohort Study
D. Cross Sectional Analysis
E. Cross Sectional Study
Answer: A- Randomized Control Trial
20. Which of the following is an aim of clinical audit?
A. To reject or accept a null hypothesis
B. To assess the extent to which current practice meets a
defined set of standards
C. To assess differences between two different populations
D. To establish what is best practice
E. To extrapolate theory into practice
Answer – B
21. A 15-year-old girl is being investigated for primary
amenorrhoea. She has normal FSH, LH and E2 level on
hormone profiling and normal secondary sexual
characteristics. An ultrasound shows no uterus. What is the
likely diagnosis?
A. Complete Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome (CAS)
B. Testicular feminization Syndrome
C. Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser Syndrome
D. Turner Syndrome
E. Chemotherapy
Answer – C
22. Which of the following causes a decrease in SHBG?
A. Combined oral contraceptive pill
B. Hyperthyroidism

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C. Anorexia
D. Pregnancy
E. Obesity
Answer – E
23. A 24-year-old woman is admitted with vomiting and

diarrhoea at 26 weeks’ gestation. Her electrolytes are
deranged and fail to resolve after the acute event and she
requires admission to the high-dependency unit. Addison’s
disease is suspected.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial
specific test for Addison’s disease?
A. Dexamethasone suppression test
B. Short adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) inhibition test
C. Short ACTH stimulation test
D. Long ACTH inhibition test
E. Long ACTH stimulation test
Answer – C
24. Which is the first catecholamine to be produced in the
synthesis of catecholamine?
A. Dopamine
B. Epinephrine
C. Norepinephrine
D. Phenylalanine
F. Tyrosine
Answer – A
25. During her pregnancy a 38 year old woman is diagnosed
with gestational diabetes requiring insulin treatment at 28
weeks of gestation.
Which of the following statements best describes the
function of human placental lactogen?
A. It enhances amino acid transfer across the placenta.
B. It has insulin properties.
C. It increases glucose utilization.
D. It increases insulin sensitivity in pregnancy.
E. It is a growth hormone antagonist.
Answer – A

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26. Which of the following actions is related to glucagon?
A. Decrease gluconeogenesis
B. Decreased ketone body production
C. Decreased plasma glucose
D. Increase glycogenolysis
E. Reduce lipolysis
Answer – D
27. A 32 year old Asian woman is diagnosed at 28 week
gestation with gestational diabetes. Treatment with
metformin is commenced. Which of the following is an
insulin antagonist?
A. Cortisol
B. Free Fatty acid
C. Growth hormone
D. Prolactin
E. Somatostatin
Answer – E
28. A 51 year old woman is started on hormonal replacement
therapy (HRT). You consider the properties of oestrogen
when discussing the contraindications to HRT treatment.
Which of the following is a property of oestrogen?
A. Decreases bone formation
B. Decreases circulation coagulation factors
C. Increases bowel motility
D. Reduce triglycerides in blood
E. Stimulates growth of endometrium
Answer – E
29. A 21-year-old woman is started on the mini pill. She asks
you about the possible side effects of progesterone. Which of
the following is a property of progesterone?
A. Increases contractility of uterine smooth muscle
B. Increases respiratory derive
C. Inhibits lobular alveolar development of mammary
glands
D. Promotes lactation during pregnancy

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E. Reduces bone density
Answer – B
30. What is the leading cause of primary aldosteronism?
A. Familial Hyperaldosteronism
B. Bilateral idiopathic Adrenal Hyperplasia
C. Renal artery stenosis
D. Renin producing tumor of juxtaglomerular apparatus
E. Polycystic kidneys
Answer – All the given data are not true
31. An 18 year old woman presents to a sexually health clinic
requiring a sexually transmitted infection screen, she is
scrotal pain.
What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
B. Candida albicans
E. Treponema pallidum pallidum
32. Which of the following is associated with increased risk

of vertical transmission of (HIV)?
A. Paternal HIV infection
B. Post-date gestation
C. Chorioamnionitis
D. Co-existent Group B Streptococcus carriage
Answer – C

pregnant reports mild dysuria, otherwise she is well. Urine

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tract infection?
A. Citrobacterfreundii
B. Escherichia coli
C. Klebsiella pneumonia
Answer – B

sarcoma?
A. HIV
B. Human herpes virus 4
C. Human herpes virus 8
E. All of the above
Answer – C
load of 43 copies/mL
B. Chorioamnionitis
C. Paternal HIV-infection
Answer – B
36. Which organism is implicated in the majority of urinary
tract infection in pregnancy?

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A. Escherichia coli
B. Group B streptococcus
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Trichomonas vaginalis
Answer – A
37. A 23-year-old woman attends antenatal clinic at 22 weeks
gestation. This is her second pregnancy and she is concerned
as during her first pregnancy she had an infection, which
leads to the permanent disability of her child. He is deaf with
delayed development and is small for his age. He became
jaundiced shortly after birth.
What was the most likely cause of her son’s condition?
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Herpes
C. Parvovirus B19
D. Rubella
E. Varicella zoster
Answer – A
practitioner at 10 weeks’ gestation. She is complaining of
yesterday. On examination, she has a temperature of 38.1°C,
postauricular lymphadenopathy and a maculopapular rash
over her torso. Rubella is diagnosed.
A. Cerebral palsy
C. Limb hypoplasia
D. Microcephaly

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Answer – E
organism?
A. Bacteroides
B. Escherichia coli
C. Listeria
D. Mycobacteria
E. Pseudomonas
Answer – A
Answer – A
41. A 25-year-old nulliparous woman, with a lifelong history
of tonic clonic seizures, sees her neurologist as she wishes to
start a family. In addition to her current anticonvulsant
therapy which additional drug is now required?
A. A second anticonvulsant
B. Ferrous sulphate
C. Folic acid
D. Low-molecular weight heparin
E. Vitamin K

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Answer – C
42. A 17-year-old girl discovers she is pregnant despite
taking the oral contraceptive pill. She has recently been
prescribed a new medication by her general practitioner.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to have
interacted with the efficacy of her contraception?
A. Carbamazepine
B. Cimetidine
C. Erythromycin
D. Metronidazole
E. Sulphamethoxazole
Answer – A
43. Which of the following forms part of phase 2 reactions in
drug metabolism?
A. Conjugation
B. Cyclisation
C. Hydrolysis
D. Reduction
E. Oxidation
Answer – A
44. A 23-year-old woman is admitted to hospital as she is
acutely unwell, having admitted to taking an overdose. On
examination, her temperature is 38.6°C, blood pressure
105/68 mmHg, heart rate 96 beats per minute, and
respiratory rate 12 breaths per minute. Her arterial blood
gas test shows respiratory alkalosis.
What is the most likely drug overdose?
A. Amitriptyline
B. Aspirin
C. Cocaine
D. Tramadol

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E. Zopiclone
Answer – B
weeks’ gestation. This is her second pregnancy and she
suffered a pulmonary embolism during her first pregnancy,
3 years ago. Her thrombophilia screen, taken prior to
pregnancy, is negative.
What is the most appropriate course of action at this point?
A. Monitor closely for signs of thromboembolic event
B. Start prophylactic dose low-molecular weight heparin
(LMWH) immediately
C. Start prophylactic dose LMWH at 24 weeks' gestation
D. Start treatment dose LMWH at 24 weeks’ gestation
E. Urgent referral to haematology department
Answer – B
46. Which of the following is a recognised side effect of
heparin usage?
A. Hirsutism
B. Hyperaldosteronism
C. Hypokalaemia
D. Osteomalacia
E. Thrombocytopaenia
Answer – E
47. A 32-year-old woman suffers a 1500 mL postpartum
haemorrhage 15 minutes after delivery. She is given several
drugs to contract the uterus and the bleeding stops. One
hour later, she is found to have blood pressure of 178/110
mmHg.
Which drug is most likely to be responsible for this clinical
finding?
A. Carboprost
B. Ergometrine
C. Misoprostol

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D. Oxytocin
E. Ritodrine
Answer – B
48. Choose the option that is the greatest contraindication to
epidural anaesthesia:
A. previous treatment with anticoagulants
B. multiple pregnancy
C. patients receiving narcotics
D. hypertension in pregnancy
E. hypovolaemia.
Answer –E
49. A 27-year-old woman is treated for severe bronchitis at

38 weeks’ gestation. Her baby, born at 41 weeks’ gestation,
has neonatal haemolysis.
Which drug taken by the mother for bronchitis is the cause
of the baby’s neonatal haemolysis?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Co-trimoxazole
D. Doxycycline
E. Erythromycin
Answer – C
50. A 35-year-old woman, with a history of previous multiple
pulmonary embolisms, is now 8 weeks pregnant.
Which is the anticoagulant of choice during her pregnancy?
A. Aspirin 300 mg
B. Heparin infusion
C. Low-molecular weight heparin
D. Warfarin
Answer – C

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Science UMMG
1. Vitamin D:
a. Increases calcium absorption from the GI tract
b. Has a receptor located within the cell membrane
c. Inhibits osteoclast activity
d. Conversion of 25-hydroxy D3 to 1,25-dihydroxy D3 is inhibited by parathyroid hormone
e. Metabolized by kidney is principally regulated by calcitonin
2. Nutrition
a. During pregnancy, an extra of 6 g of protein is required
b. During lactation, an extra of 30 g of protein is required
c. protein may be contained in potatoes
d. Phenylalanines is an essential aminoacids
e. Vegetables contain all essential aminoacids
3.Vitamin K:
a. Production is impaired following with broad-spectrum antibiotics
b. Is a co-factor necessary for the synthesis of clotting factors
c. Deficiency results in increased bleeding time
d. Is effective in treating prolonged prothrombin time caused by liver failure
e. Is stored in large quantities in liver
4. Thiamine
a. Deficiency is best treated by oral thymine supplementation
b. Deficiency is diagnosed by red cell transketolase activity
c. Deficiency does not occur until after at least of 6 months of inadequate intake
d. Should be administered to chronic alcoholic only after administration of IV glucose
e. Deficiency was found in hyperemissive gravidrum
5. Excess amino acid in the body:
a. Are stored in liver
b. Undergo transamination which converts them into glucose
c. Undergo transamination with the conversion of alpha-ketogluterate to glutamate
d. Are oxidized for ATP production
e. Are converted to fatty acids
6. The following hormones reduce the blood sugar level
a. Adrenaline
b. Insulin
c. Glucagon
d. Thyroxine
e. Growth hormone

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7. Gluconeogenesis:
a. Occurs in the liver
b. Occurs in skeletal muscle
c. Occurs in the renal cortex
d. Utilizes free fatty acids to form glucose
e. Utilizes pyruvate to form glucose
8. Metabolic acidosis:
a. Caused by severe diarrhea is associated with a normal anion gap
b. Caused by renal tubular acidosis is associated with a normal anion gap
c. Caused by lactic acidosis is associated with an increase in the anion gap
d. Caused by diabetic ketoacidosis is associated with a decrease in the anion gap
e. Occurs after ingestion of ammonium chloride
9. Adenosine cyclic mosnophosphate (cAMP)
a. Is synthesized form guanosine triphosphate
b. Is activated by protein kinase A
c. Is slowly degraded by cAMP phosphodiesterases
d. Is rapidly degraded by cAMP phosphodiesterases
e. Requires adenyl cyclase for its synthesis
10. Fat metabolism:
d. Beta-oxidation of fatty acids is controlled by supply of substrate
11. Ultrasound cause:

a. cavitation
b. Heating
c. Microstreaming
d. Decreased velocity of blood flow
e. Ionization
12. Soft marker for chromosomal abnormalities seen on
b. Echogenic bowel
c. Exomphalos
d. Fetal hydrops
a. It is performed in the luteal phase of menstrual cycle

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d. A pregnancy must be performed before the procedure
e. It is contraindicated in individuals with a history of Chlamydia
14. Autosomal recessive inheritance occurs in
a. ABO blood groups
b. CAH
c. Friederich’s ataxia
d. Vitamin D resistant rickets
e. Haemochromatosis
15. Concerning chromosomes
a. Each contains two identical chromatids
b. They are best visualized during interphase
c. The short arm of a chromosplacome is also known as the ‘q’ arm
d. Human have 23 pairs of autosomal chromosomes
e. The centromere is the meeting point of two chromatids
a. An X-linked recessive condition
b. Associated with gene defect of chromosome 9
c. Most commonly caused by deletion of F508
d. Characterised by a defect in potassium ion transport
e. There is no carrier state
17. An increased nuchal translucency thickness may be seen
in fetus with:
a. Cardiac defects
b. Down’s syndrome
c. Noonan’s syndrome
d. Patau’s syndrome
e. Turner’s syndrome
18. Sex chromosome abnormalities
a. 47 XXX may result from non-disjunction
b. Mosacism may result from anaphase lag
c. May result from a translocation
d. Deletion may result in formation of isochromosomes
e. 45 Y results in mental retardation
19. The following are sex-linked conditions:
a. Hereditary spherocytosis.
d. Haemoglobin C disease
e. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

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Ans – F T T F F
20. Sex differentiation
a. In the absence of ovaries or testes, embryo result in formation of female phenotype
b. Dihydrotestosterone is converted to testosterone by 5 a reductase inhibitor
c. In 47XXY, ovo-testes can be found
d. In 5 a reductase inhibitor deficiency, a female phenotype occurs
e. The karyotype of true Hermaphroditism is 47XXX
21. The following statements concerning immunoglobulins
are correct
a. They are gamma globulins
b. The five classes of immunoglobulins differ in their heavy
polypeptide chains
c. IgG crosses the placental barrier
d. IgM is produced as the primary response to an antigen
e. IgE is predominantly found in the plasma
Ans – T T T T F
22. Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) antigens
a. Are genetically coded on chromosome 8
b. Are abundant in normal trophoblastic tissue
c. Subtype HLA DR is present on the plasma membrane of
macrophages
d. Are unique for each individual
e. Are glycoproteins
Ans – F F T T T
23. Immunoglobulins IgG
a. Cross the placenta
b. Of the fetal origin are secreted from 28 weeks gestation
c. Are produced in the primary immune response
d. Have some antiviral activity
e. Are produced by plasma cells
24. Immunoglobulins IgA is present in
a. Bronchial secretion
b. Colostrums
c. Lacrimal fluid
d. Saliva
e. Intestinal secretions

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25. Haemolytic disease of the newborns could be due to
a. Anti-D antibodies
b. Anti-Kell antibodies
c. Anti-lewis antibodies
d. Anti-A antibodies
e. Anti-B antibodies
26. During normal pregnancy, there is
a. Exaggerated cell mediated immunity
b. Are increase in the number of helper T lymphocytes
c. An inversion of the normal T to B lymphocytes
d. Neutrophilia
e. An increase in Ig D
27. Concerning complement
a. The classical activation pathway is independent of antibody involvement
e. The alternative activation pathway requires binding of mannose-binding lectin
28. White cell migration from blood vessels in areas of inflammation involves
a. cell migration occurring between endothelial cells
b. passive loss of fluid blood elements
c. cell migration independent of endothelial cell motion
d. initial emigration of polymorph nuclear neutrophils
e. more polymorphs than monocytes after two days
29. Regarding immunoglobulin in pregnancy
a. Maternal Ig M is responsible for resus iso immunization in fetus
b. IgA concentration in cord blood is higher than that in maternal blood
c. IgE can cross the placenta
d. IgE can cross the placenta
e. Fetal IgM is dimeric
30. Concerning hypersensitivity
a. Type II hypersensitivity is antibody dependent
b. Type I hypersensitivity is associated with Ig M activation
c. The Arthus reaction is an example of type IV hypersensitivity
d. The Mantoux test is an example of type IV hypersensitivity
e. Hemolytic disease of the new born is an example of type II hypersensitivity
31. CA 125 may be elevated in
a. Breast cancer
b. Pancreatic cancer

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c. Colorectal cancer
d. Lung cancer
e. Ovarian teratoma
32. Ovarian corpus luteum cysts

a. Are usually bilateral
b. Are more common in pregnancy
c. Typically contain old blood
d. Are lined by luteinized granulosa and theca cells
e. Typically, complex cysts
33. Dermoid cysts
a. Are mature ovarian teratomas
b. Contain immature neural tissue
c. Are the commonest ovarian tumours in childhood
d. Are bilateral in 10-15 % of women
e. Typically present in 5th decade of life
34. Granulation tissues
a. Is a feature of wound healing
b. Is present in the wall of an abscess
c. Forms the capsule of a uterine fibroid
d. Leads to scar tissue formation
e. Is a feature of amyloidosis
35. Atypical endometrial hyperplasia
a. Can readily be differentiated histologically from well differentiated endometrial carcinoma
b. Typically presents around the age of menarche
c. Does not progress into endometrial carcinoma
d. Typically presents with peri-menopausal bleeding
e. Is associated with stromal infiltration
36. Uterine leiomyoma
a. Typically undergoes red degeneration in association with pregnancy
b. May be attached to omentum or pelvis peritoneum
c. Do not response to oestrogen stimulation
d. Are recognized cause of abnormal uterine bleeding
e. May be associated with polycythaemia
37. Wound healing

a. Phosphatase accumulates in the vicinity of a fresh wound
b. Contraction of a wound is due to shortening of newly formed collagen fibres
c. Granulation tissues does not contain blood vessels
d. The limit of epithelial in-growth form the margin of wound is 1 mm
e. Collagen has a high content of proline but not hydroxyproline

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38. Granulosa cell tumors of the ovary
a. Are characterized by the presence of the Call-exner body on histological examination
b. May present with menorrhagia and irregular bleeding
c. May present with iso-sexual precocious puberty
d. Are associated with endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma
e. Typically present with hirsutism and amenorrhea
39. Vulva intraepithelial neoplasia
a. Is more common in immune compromised as women
b. Is classified as VIN I if atypical cells are present in lower third of epithelium
c. May regress spontaneously
d. Is associated with HPV infection
e. Is characterized by decreased nuclear cytoplastic ratio
40. Sarcomas
a. Are slow growing
b. Include gastrointestinal stromal tumours
c. Can metastasise to the lungs
d. Originate from embryonic ectoderm
e. Respond poorly to chemotherapy
41. Concerning liver function tests in normal pregnancy:
a. Bilirubin is increased
b. Total protein is increased
c. Bile acids increase
d. Alkaline phosphatase is decreased
e. Albumin decreases
42. Methods of contraception:
a. The levonorgestrel intrauterine system works by preventing sperm fertilizing an egg
b. Male sterilisation involves cutting the vas deferens
c. The contraceptive implant works by preventing ovulation
d. The contraceptive patch is suitable for those with a body mass index >40
e. The combined oral contraceptive pill is contraindicated in migraine with aura
43. Pulmonary surfactant
a. Is made by type II pneumocytes
b. Is predominantly formed from proteins
c. Production is promoted by maternal diabetes
d. Contains dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine
e. Reduces pulmonary surface tension
44. Concerning oxytocin:
a. It is a nonapeptide

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b. Oxytocin agonists are used to manage threatened preterm labour
c. It can be given to increase uterine tone post delivery
d. Administration can cause hyponatraemia
e. It is made in the anterior pituitary gland
45. With respect to renal function
a. Glomerular filtration rate can be determined using inulin as a marker
b. Glomerular filtration is proportional to urine flow rate
c. Glomerular filtration is proportional to inulin concentration in plasma
d. Glomerular filtration is inversely proportional to urinary inulin concentration
e. Urea clearance is proportional to plasma urea concentration
46. Normal pregnancy is associated with
a. Decrease fibrinogen concentration
b. Increase ESR
c. Increase factor VII concentration
d. Decrease von willebrand factor
e. A 40% increase in plasma volume
47. The following changes occur in the cardiovascular system
during pregnancy
a. Hypertrophy of left ventricular wall
b. Increase amplitude of the T wave in lead III of ECG
c. Fall in blood pressure during labour
d. Increase cardiac output associated with breast feeding
e. Decrease peripheral vascular resistance
48. The following changes occur in the fetal circulation at
birth
a. Decreased blood flow into the pulmonary arteries
b. Closure of umbilical arteries
c. Closure of umbilical vein
d. Closure of ductus venosus
e. Decreased pressure in the left atrium
49. Plasma
a. Has a higher protein concentration than interstitial fluid
b. Contains fibrinogen
c. Contains gamma globulins which transport hormones
d. Make up 30% of total body water
e. Contain alpha globulins which act as antibodies
Ans – T T F F F
50. Lactation is suppressed by
a. Cabergoline
b. Progesterone-only contraceptive pill
c. Bromocriptine
d. Metoclopramide

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e. Levothyroxine

Science UMMG
1. Which enzyme is involved in the rate-limiting step of the
glycolysis pathway?
A. Glucokinase
C. Hexokinase
Answer: D
A. Alignment along the cell’s horizontal plane
B. Alignment along the cell’s vertical plane
C. Alignment at on pole
Answer- E
glycolysis pathway?
A. Glucokinase
C. Hexokinase
Answer: D
4. A 24 yrs woman is admitted via the emergency
department with persistent hyperememsis of pregnancy. She
in now feeling very unwell and appears dehydrated. Her
blood pressure is 110/60 mmHg, heart rates 100 bats per
minutes, SPO2 98% on room air and a respiratory rate of 20
beats per minutes. What is the most likely acid-base disorder
in this patient?

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Answer- B
5. Which condition is caused by the failure to mineralize
newly formed osteoid?
A. Osteomalacia
B. Osteopaenia
C. Osteopetrosis
D. Osteoporosis
E. Paget’s disease of bone
Answer – A
6. A 50 yrs old woman present to GP complaining of fatigue
and upper abdominal pain, 6 weeks after sustaining a distal
radial fracture. Her blood test indicates hypercalcaemia and
hypophosphataemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Bone metastasis
C. Primary hyperparathyriodism
D. Sarcoidosis
Answer- C
Genotyping suggest a rare autosomal recessive condition
acid cycle. Which of the following is not an intermediate of
the citric acid cycle?
A. Alha-ketoglutarate
C. Citrate
D. Oxaloacetate
Answer – B
8. A 58 yrs old woman has recently been diagnosed with type
II diabetes mellitus. As part of her routine care, her GP
checks her fasting cholesterol level. She is found to have a
mildly raised total cholesterol level with a raised serum low
density lipoprotein level. Which of the following describes
the function of low density lipoprotein?

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A. Transport of cholesterol from body tissues to the liver
B. Transport of cholesterol from liver to tissues around the body
C. Transport of chylomicrons from liver to elsewhere in the body
D. Transport of triglycerides from the intestine to other tissues for storage
E. Transport of triglycerides from liver to elsewhere in the body for oxidation
Answer- B
9. A 18 day baby is brought to A&E by his parent. He is
vomiting, severely dehydrated and appears to be
underweight. The paediatricians diagnosed a salt wasting
crisis and are concerned that he has a form of congenital
adrenal hyperplasia. What hormone deficiency in this
disorder?
A. cholesterol
B. cortisol
C. dihydrotesterone
D. oestradiol
E. testosterone
Answer – B
9. A 28 yrs old parous woman attends her booking
appointment at 10 week gestation. She is to maintain a
healthy diet during her pregnancy and asks her midwife to
explain the difference between essential and non-essential
amino acids. Which of the following is the non-essential
amino acid?
A. Arginine
B. Leucine
C. Methioninephan
D. Tryptophan
E. Tyrosine
Answer- E
12. A 32-year-old woman is 15 weeks pregnant with her
second pregnancy. She opts to have antenatal screening and
has blood taken as part of the quadruple test. The result
shows reduced levels of α- fetoprotein and unconjugated
oestriol with elevated β-human chorionic gonadotrophin.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the
screening results:
E. Normal pregnancy

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Answer- A
13. A 37-year-old primiparous woman is 14 weeks pregnant.
Following serum screening, the pregnancy is found to have
an increased risk of trisomy 21. She wishes to have further
testing to confirm whether the fetus is affected. In view of
her current gestation what is the most appropriate
diagnostic test?
A. Amniocentesis
B. Cell-free fetal DNA sampling
C. Chorionic villus sampling
D. Cordocentesis
E. Nuchal translucency imaging
Answer – C
14. A 29-year-old woman seeks genetic counselling as she has
a number of her female relatives who have had either breast
or ovarian cancer. Both her mother and her sister have been
diagnosed with breast cancer. DNA sequencing subsequently
shows that she carries a mutated form of the BRCA1 gene.
Via which mode of inheritance is the BRCA1 gene mutation
transmitted?
Answer –A
15. A 34 years woman delivers a male baby with Down’s
syndrome. Chromosomal analysis following his birth is
suggestive of familial Down’s syndrome. Which
chromosomal events best describes the etiology of Familial
down’s Syndrome?
A. Microdelection
B. Non-sense mutation

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E. Triplet repeat expension
Answer- D
16. You are discussing the radiation risk of a chest XRAY
with a pregnant patient. A chest XRAY is equivalent to how
many days of natural background radiation?
A. 2-3 days
B. 10 days
C. 2 months
D. 18 months
E. 5 years
Answer- A
17. At what crown-rump length would you first expect to see
a fetal heart beat using transvaginal ultrasonography?
A. >2 mm
B. >3 mm
C. >4 mm
D. >5 mm
E. >6 mm
Answer – A
18. A 68-year-old woman developed left-sided chest pain a
day after she has had total abdominal hysterectomy and
bilateral-salpingo-oophorectomy. A 12-lead
electrocardiogram is performed and is suggestive of an
anterior ST elevation myocardial infarction.Which of the
following leads would be most likely to show ST elevation in
this patient?
A. I, aVL, V5–V6
B. I, II and III
C. II, III and aVF
D. V1–V4
E. All of the above

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Answer –D
19. Which of the following is a late side-effect of
radiotherapy?
A. Fatigue
B. Lymphoedema
C. Mouth ulcers
D. Nausea
E. Oedema
Answer – B
20. Which of the following best describes acoustic
impedance?
A. It is an estimate of mean velocity of flow within a vessel
B. It is the apparent bending of waves
C. It is the opposition to the passage of sound waves and is a
function of density and elasticity
D. It is when reflected waves from a moving interface
undergo a frequency shift
E. It is the angle at which the wave is incident on the surface
equals the angle of reflection
Answer – C
21. Haemolytic disease of the newborn (Rhesus
incompatibility) occurs as a result of which of the following
classes of hypersensitivity reaction?
A. IgE mediated
B. Immune complex mediated
C. Type I
D. Type II
E. Type IV
Answer – D
22.

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pathways?
Answer – B
24. A 32-year-old woman presents to hospital 5 days
postemergency caesarean section, complaining of a painful
scar. On examination, there is erythema at one of the scar
edges and some purulent discharge. She is started on
antibiotic treatment for a wound infection. Which of the
following local changes can be seen in this type of acute
inflammatory process?
A. Fibroblast infiltration
B. Haemostasis
C. High concentration of monocytes
D. Decreased vascular permeability
E. Vasoconstriction
Answer – B
25. A female baby is born via spontaneous vaginal delivery
at term. As she is born in an urban area with high levels of
tuberculosis, she is given the BCG vaccination before she is
taken home by her parents. What type of vaccine is the BCG
vaccine?
D. Subunit vaccine
E. Toxoid vaccine
Answer – C

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by Type III hypersensitivity?
A. Asthma
C. Eczema
Answer- E
27. Which type of immune hypersensitivity reaction best
describes the condition of systemic lupus erythematosus?
A. Type I (Immediate) hypersensitivity
B. Type II (Antibody-mediated) hypersensitivity
C. Type III (Immune-complex) hypersensitivity
D. Type IV (Delayed-type) hypersensitivity
E. Type V (Supressive-type) hypersensitivity
Answer- C
28. A 28 yrs woman is admitted to the high dependency unit
following a caesarean section. She was diagnosed during
pregnancy with acute fatty liver of pregnancy. She was
started on a morphine infusion postoperatively and is
receiving oxygen by mask. She is noted to be very drowsy.
You perform an arterial blood gas. What is the most likely
finding in this case?
A. pH 7.16, pCO2 8.2 kPa, pO2 15.3 kPa, HCO3 21.2
mmol/L
B. pH 7.2, pCO2 4.8 kPa, pO2 10.2 kPa, HCO3 14 mmol/L
C. pH 7.36, pCO2 5.6 kPa, pO2 13.2 kPa, HCO3 26 mmol/L
D. pH 7.52, pCO2 6.0 kPa, pO2 12.0 kPa, HCO3 17, base
excess +4.3 mmol/L
E. pH 7.62, pCO2 6.2 kPa, pO2 12.2 kPa, HCO3 15 mmol/L
Answer- A
29. A 23 yrs old woman is admitted to hospital complaining

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of abdominal pain and vomiting. She is a type 1 diabetic and
did not take her insulin today as she has vomiting for 12
hours. On examination, she is tachycardic and feels cold and
clammy. An arterial blood gas confirms your diagnosis of
ketoacidosis. Which of the following finding is the most
correct regarding diabetic ketoacidosis?
A. High blood level of fatty acids
B. Hypoventilation
C. High blood volume
D. Low level of lactate
E. Respiratory acidosis
Answer- A
30. A 72 yrs old woman is seen in the pre-assessment clinic
prior to a hysteroscopy to investigate postmenopausal
bleeding. She is taking aspirin and is asked to stop taking it 5
days prior to the procedure. Which of the following
prostanoids inhibits platelet aggregation?
A. Prostacyclin I2
B. Prostagladin E2
C. Prostagladin D2
D. Prostagladin F2α
E. Thromboxane TXA2
Answer- A
31. A 33-year-old woman attends the gynaecology clinic for
investigation of her recurrent first trimester miscarriages. A
thrombophilia screen has been performed as part of routine
investigation. Which of the following positive results would
most likely suggest an acquired thrombophilia, rather than
an inherited one?
A. Activated protein C resistance
B. Anticardiolipin antibodies
C. Antithrombin III deficiency
D. Protein C deficiency

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E. Protein S deficiency
Answer – B
32. A 32 years old nulliparous woman has heavy bleeding at
8 week gestation. An early pregnancy scan is suggestive of
molar pregnancy, and no fetus is observed. What is the
typical genotype of the complete molar pregnancy?
A. 45XO
B. 46XX
C. 46XXY
D. 69XXY
E. 92XXXY
Answer- B
33. A 27 yrs old nullip woman and her husband have a series
of routine investigations to investigate primary subfertility.
She has a hyeterosalpingogram which shows she has a
biconurate uterus. Which obstetric is of increased
prevalence in women with bicornuate uterus?
B. Stillbirth
C. Postpartum haemorrhage
D. Placenta previa
E. Placenta accreta
Answer- A
produces histamine?
A. Basophils
B. Erythrocytes
C. Macrophages
D. Monocytes
E. Neutrophils
Answer - A

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35. Granuloma is a type of inflammatory reaction
characteristic of the following diseases except:
A. Tuberculosis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Regional ileitis
D. Staphylococcus pyaemia
E. Sarcoidosis
Answer – D
36. A 40-year-old primiparous woman is admitted to the
labour ward at 36 weeks’ gestation with severe pre-
eclampsia and presumed renal involvement. Her blood
pressure on arrival is 184/95 mmHg. Her urine contains
protein +++. Her serum creatinine is 92 µmol/L and serum
urea 5.3 mg/dL. She has an emergency caesarean section.
Which of the following best describes the renal pathology of
pre-eclampsia?
Answer – B
C. Hyperchromatism
D. Irreversibility
Answer – C
38. Which of the following vulva skin disorder is associated

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B. Lichen planus
C. Lichen sclerosis
E. Psoriasis
Answer- C
and fibroma
Answer – C
40. A 45-year-old woman is seen in the gynaecology
outpatients’ clinic with a history of severe menorrhagia. She
has a body mass index of 42. An endometrial biopsy is taken
at hysteroscopy which shows evidence of simple endometrial
hyperplasia. Which of the following describes the type of
cellular change that occurs in hyperplasia?
Answer – A
41. A 27-year-old woman attends AN clinic at 32 weeks

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Answer – C
42. A 32-year-old woman is admitted to the post-natal ward
10days after an emergency caesarean section with a swollen
painful calf. Her observations are stable. Her body mass
index is 37. You want to rule out a deep vein thrombosis.
Which of the following clotting factors are increased in
normal pregnancy?
A. Factor VII
B. Factors VII and VII
C. Factors VII, VIII and X
D. Factors VII, VIII, X and XI
E. Factors VII, VIII, X, XI and XIII
Answer – C
43. A 72 yr old woman undergoes a total abdominal
hysterectomy. She has chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease. Postoperatively, she is difficult to excubate and has a
prolonged stay on the intensive care unit. Which of the
following is the most important direct stimulus to
respiration?
A. Decreased arterial pH
B. Increased pCO2 of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
C. Increased H+ concentration of CSF
D. Decreased arterial pO2
E. Decreased arterial pCO2

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Answer- C
44. A patient with uncontrolled hypertension is placed on a
new diuretic targeted to the Na+ reabsorption site from the
basolateral surface of the renal epithelial cells. Which of the
following transport processes is the new drug affecting?
A. Na+/H+ exchange
B. Na+-glucose cotransport
C. Na+/K+ pump
D. Facilitated diffusion
E. Solvent drag
Answer – C
45. A patient with uncontrolled hypertension is placed on a
new diuretic targeted to the Na+ reabsorption site from the
basolateral surface of the renal epithelial cells. Which of the
following transport processes is the new drug affecting?
A. Na+/H+ exchange
B. Na+-glucose cotransport
C. Na+/K+ pump
D. Facilitated diffusion
E. Solvent drag
Answer – C
46. A 26-year-old man with Kleinefelter’s syndrome has
seminiferous tubule dysgenesis. Which of the following is a
function of Sertoli cells in the seminiferous tubules?
A. Secretion of FSH into the tubular lumen
B. Secretion of testosterone into the tubular lumen
C. Maintenance of the blood-testis barrier
D. Synthesis of oestrogen after puberty
E. Expression of surface LH receptors
Answer – C
47. A woman presents to her obstetrician with concerns that

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she has had trouble breast feeding. She reports that her
mother-in-law told her that alcohol would relax hear and
allow her milk to flow more readily, but it has not helped,
even with drinking up to a bottle of wine a day. Which of the
following hormones is involved in the ejection of milk from a
lactating mammary gland?
A. Growth hormone
B. FSH
C. LH
D. Prolactin
E. Oxytocin
Answer – E
48. Which of the following substances is unable to bind with
fetal haemoglobin?
A. Carbon monoxide
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Nitrous oxide
D. Oxygen
E. 2,3- diphosphoglycerate
Answer- E
49. A 22-year-old woman presents to the obstetrician-

gynaecologist’s office with complaints of painful
menstruation accompanied by profuse menstrual flow. The
doctor prescribes a low dose oral contraceptive for the
menorrhagia and ibuprofen for the dysmenorrhea.
Biological actions of oestrogens include a decrease in which
of the following?
A. Ovarian follicular growths
B. Duct growth in the breast
C. Uterine smooth muscle motility
D. Serum cholesterol levels

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E. Libido
Answer - D
50. A 23-year-old woman presents to her primary care
physician with significant weight loss and amenorrhoea. She
has a high-intensity exercise regimen and seems pre-
occupied with food. She is diagnosed with anorexia nervosa.
With respect to menstrual cycles in normal individuals,
which of the following hormones is primarily responsible for
development of ovarian follicles prior to ovulation?
A. Chorionic gonadotropin
B. Oestradiol
C. Follicle-stimulating hormone
D. Luteinizing hormone
E. Progesterone
Answer – C

Science UM1- 2nd
1. With regard to veins of the pelvis
a. The left ovarian vein drains directly into the inferior vena
cava
b. The internal pudendal vein passes through the pudendal
canal
c. The uterine venous plexus connects the ovarian vein and
the vaginal venous plexus
d. The internal pudendal vein drains into the great saphenous
vein
e. The rectal venous plexus is a site of portocaval anastomosis
2. The human testis:
a. Has an average length of 2-3 cm

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b. Descends through the inguinal ring after birth to reside in
the scrotum
c. Are surrounded by the tunica vaginalis
d. The tunica albuginea is covered by tunica vaginalis
e. The hydatid of Morgagni is a remnant of the miillerian duct
3. The femoral triangle:
a. The inguinal ligament provides the superior boundary
b. The medial border is formed from the gracilis
c. The lateral border is formed from both sartorius and iliacus
d. The femoral artery lies medial to the femoral vein
e. The femoral nerve lies lateral to the femoral artery
4. The diaphragm
a. Is pierced by the greater splanchnic nerve
b. Has its peritoneal covering supplied exclusively by the
phrenic nerve
c. Supplied by the phrenic artery which is a branch of
abdominal aorta
d. Overlies the fundus of the stomach
e. Actively aids forced expiration
5. In the normal cervix:
a. The histological internal os lies above the anatomical
internal os
b. There is an abrupt transition from columnar to squamous
epithelium at the squamocolumnar junction
c. Is predominantly composed of connective tissues
d. Has sensory supply through the pelvic parasympathetic
nerve S234
e. There are cyclical changes during the menstrual cycle.

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6. The ovarian ligament
a. Is covered by peritoneum
b. Contains the ovarian vessels
c. Is attached to the uterus below the attachment of the
fallopian tube
d. Is derived from the gubernaculum
e. Maintain the ovary in the constant position.
7. The muscles of the posterior abdominal wall:
a. Iliacus is innervated by the femoral nerve
b. Iliopsoas acts to extend the thigh
c. Arterial supply is predominantly from the abdominal aorta
d. Quadratus lumborum is innervated by the subcostal nerve
e. Psoas minor is absent in females
8. The obturator nerve
a. Arises from the dorsal primary rami of the 2nd, 3rd and 4th
lumbar nerves
b. Emerges from the medial side of the psoas major muscle
c. Supplies the obturator internus muscle
d. Passes through the lesser sciatic foramen
e. Is purely motor
9. With regard to human ovary
a. The primodial follicles are embedded in the medulla
b. The maximum size of the primodial follicle pool is attained
at birth
c. Ovulation does not occur in utero
d. Similar to the testis, the ovary originates from a coelomic
projection known as the gonadal ridge
e. The hilar cells are differentiated cells that form the major
source of ovarian peptide hormones

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10. The adrenal glands:
a. Sit superiorly to the kidneys
b. The medulla originates from the embryonic endoderm
c. The cortex develops from coelomic mesothelium
d. Lymphatic drainage is from the lumbar lymph nodes
e. The right adrenal gland sits anterior to the diaphragm
11. The following arise from Wolffian remnants
a. the epoophoron
b. the processus vaginalis
c. the paroophoron
d. the round ligament
e. Gartner's duct
Ans – T F T F T
12. In the development of fetal sex organs
a. The presence of ovaries is necessary for the development of
the paramesonephric ducts
b. The pronephric duct degenerates as the mesonphoros
develops
c. Ova originate outside the developing gonad
d. The vagina is formed entirely by invagination of the
e. Sexual differentiation of the external genitalia is complete
before the 10th week of life
Ans – F F T F F
a. The primitive groove derives from the neural tube
b. The primitive streak lies caudal to the blastopore
c. The heart beat appear at 40-50 days post conception
d. At 6-8 weeks post conception the mid-gut protrudes
through the umblical cord

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e. The deciduas capsularis overlies the chorion frondosum
Ans – F T T T F
14. In the fetal circulation
a. The foramen ovale permits blood to pass from the right to
the left atrium
b. The ductus arteriosus carries blood from the pulmonary
artery to the aorta
c. The ductus venosus carries blood to the inferior vena cava
from the umbilical artery
d. The ductus arteriosus is contractile
e. The umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres of the
adult
Ans – T T F T T
15. Spermatogenesis
a. Is a process requiring 110-120 days in the human male
b. Requires both FSH and LH to stimulate sperm maturation
c. Is associated with an increase in testosterone in the
intertubular tissue of the testis
d. Is abnormal in a male with karyotype 47XXY
e. Would cease in the absence of testosterone
Ans - F T T T T
16. The Mullerian ducts
a. are derived from intermediate cell mass mesoderm
b. appear between the 8 and 9 weeks of embryonic
th th
development
c. develop lateral to the Wolffian ducts
d. fuse throughtout their length by the 12th week of fetal
development
e. become the sinovaginal bulbs in their lower part
Ans – F F T F F
17. In a controlled trial to compare two treatments, the main
purpose of randomization are so that
a. The two groups will be similar in prognostic factors
b. The clinician does not know which treatment subjects will

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receive
c. The sample may be referred to a known population
d. The clinician cannot predict in advance which treatment
subjects will receive
e. The number of subjects in each treatment groups is the
same
Ans – T F F T F
18. The mean of a large sample
a. Is always greater than the median

b. Is calculated from the formula Σ xi/ ni
c. Estimates the population mean with greater precision than
the mean of a small sample
d. Increase as the sample size increases
e. Is always greater than the standard deviation
Ans – F T T F F
19. A histogram
a. Usually shows the development of a quantity over time

b. Could be used to show the distribution of lengths of
hospital stay in patients admitted with acute asthma
c. Could be used to show the distribution of birth weights in a
sample of babies
d. Is the best way to show the relationship between the weight
and blood pressure in a sample of diabetic patients
e. Conveys information about the spread of a distribution
Ans – F T T F T
20. A 95% CI for a mean
a. Is wider than a 99% CI

b. In repeated samples will include the population mean 95%
of the time
c. Will include the sample mean with probability of 1

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d. Is useful way of describing the accuracy of a study
e. Will include 95% of the observations of a sample
Ans – F T T T F
21. Oestrogens
a. Increases the concentration of the androgen receptor.
b. Decreases the concentration of the progesterone receptor.
c. Increases the concentration of the oestrogen receptor.
d. Receptor concentration is increased by clomiphene citrate.
e. Are produced from androstendione.
22. Progesterone
a. Is metabolized to pregnanediol.
b. Is mainly metabolized by the kidneys.
c. Is mainly excreted in urine.
d. Acts via receptor located in the cell membrane.
e. Is predominantly bound to albumin in the circulation.
23. With respect to inhibin
a. Inhibin A and inhibin B have identical beta-subunit
b. Secretion by the ovary is stimulated by GnRH.
c. Inhibin A concentration rise in the late follicular phase.
d. Inhibin A concentration peak in the early follicular phase.
e. Inhibin is produced by sertoli cells.
24. The menopause
a. Is due to failure of the endometrium to respond to
oestrogens.
b. Is characterized by cessation of steroidogenesis within the
ovary.
c. Is characterized by a fall circulating LH concentration.
d. Is typically preceded by a period of enhanced fertility.
e. GnRH levels are elevated.

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25. Androgen:
a. There is a negative feedback relationship between
testosterone and inhibin.
b. FSH elevation precedes LH at puberty.
c. Testosterone levels fall in male after 50.
d. In testicular feminization there is a female karyotype (XX).
e. In 5 alpha reductase deficiency the internal genitalia are of
female type.
26. Normal semen
a. Should contain at least 30% of spermatozoa with normal
morphology.
b. Contains 2-4 million white blood cells/ml.
c. Undergoes liquefaction 30-60 minutes after ejaculation.
d. Spermatozoa survive for 48-72h within the female genital
tract.
e. Has a pH 3.5 to 4.5.
27. A patient with a prolactinoma may present with;
a. Visual field defects.
b. Infertility.
c. Acromegaly.
d. Repeated miscarriage.
e. Loss of libido.
28. Mifepristone
a. Is a progesterone antagonist.
b. Is a 19-nortestosterone derivative.
c. Binds to the oestrogen receptor with high affinity.
d. Binds to the glucocorticoid receptor with high affinity.
e. Has shorter half-life than progesterone.

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29. Tamoxifen
a. Is structurally related to diethylstilbestrol.
b. Has a higher affinity for the oestrogen receptor than
oestrogen.
c. Kills breast cancer cells.
d. Increases FSH levels in post-menopausal women.
e. Increases HDL concentration.
30. Luteinizing hormone (LH);
a. Is secreted as pulses every 5-10 minutes.
b. Pulsatile secretion ceases during sleep.
c. Peak occurs about 30 hours before ovulation.
d. Levels reach a peak at 20 weeks of intrauterine life.
e. Levels are higher in the male than female fetus.
31. The following infections can be transmitted to the fetus
transplacentally
a. Toxoplasmosis
b. Malaria
c. Cytomegalovirus
d. Herpes simplex
e. Parvovirus
Ans – T T T T T
32. Bacteriodes
a. Are strict anaerobic organisms
b. Are gram positive
c. Are spore-forming
d. Are part of normal vaginal flora
e. Are sensitive to metronidazole
33. Neisseria gonorrhea can cause

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a. Opthalmia neonatorum
b. Acute vulvovaginitis
c. Pharyngitis
d. Proctitis
e. Urethritis
34. Disease caused by spirochaetes include
a. Yaws
b. Weil’s disease
c. Vincent’s angina
d. Trench fever
e. Syphilis
35. Infection with Epstein Barr Virus can cause
a. Shingles
b. Infectious mononucleosis
c. Burkitt’s lymphoma
d. Hairy leukoplakia in immunocompromised patient
e. Chicken pox
a. Is an intracellular protozoan
b. May be acquired through eating undercooked meat
c. Infection is associated with lymphadenopathy
d. Infection may be acquired transplacentally
e. Is sensitive to spiramycin
37. The following exotoxins are examples of protein synthesis
inhibitors

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a. Lipopolysaccharides
a. Diphtheria toxin
b. Verotoxin
c. Tetanus toxin
d. Cholera toxin
38. The causative organisms of
a. Condylomata lata is human papilloma virus
b. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome is a retrovirus
c. Chanchroid is Haemophilus ducreyi
d. Lymphogranuloma venereum is Calymmatobacterium
granulomatis
e. Granuloma inguinale is Chlamydia trachomatis
Ans – F T T F F
39. An oncogenic DNA virus
a. contain reverse transcriptase
b. induces cellular transformation
c. is implicated in the pathogenesis of Burkitt's lymphoma
d. integrates into the host genome
e. induces squamous papillomas of the skin in humans
Ans – F T T T T
40. Actinomyces israelii
a. Is a fungus
b. Forms yellow granules in pus
c. Is a commensal organism of the mouth
d. Occurs in association with IUCD
e. Is usually resistant to penicillin
Ans – F T T T F
41. Oral contraceptives
a. Inhibit release of gonadotrophic hormones
b. May lead to thinning of cervical mucus
c. May influence Fallopion tube smooth muscle activity

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d. Lead to reduced platelet aggregation
e. Lead to increased antithrombin III
Ans – T F T F F
42: Warfarin
a. Does not cross the placenta
b. Is metabolized chiefly in the liver
c. Acts 8-12 hours following administration
d. Interferes with production of factor VI
e. Control is based on prothrombin time
Ans – F T F F T
43. The following cytotoxic drugs are alkylating agents
a. Anthracycline
b. Chlorambucil
c. 6-marcaptopurine
d. Cyclophosphamide
e. Vinblastine
Ans - F T F T F
44: The following drugs cross the placenta barrier
a. Heparin
b. Tetracycline
c. Sulphadimidine
d. Diazepam
e. Salicylate
Ans – F T T T T
45: Bromocriptine
a. Is a derivative of ergot
b. Is a vasoconstrictor
c. Inhibits prolactin secretion at the pituitary level

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d. Is teratogenic
e. Causes raised prolactin levels to return to normal after 48-
72 hours of treatment
Ans – T T T F F
46. These side-effects are recognized complications of the
following drugs:
a. Vinblastine – neurotoxicity
b. Vincristine – marrow depression
c. Adriamycin – cardiomyopathy
d. Methotrexate – diarrhoea
e. 5-fluorouracil – renal failure
Ans – F F T T F
47. Pharmacokinetics in pregnancy

a. Nearly 100% of the drug bypasses the liver after rectal
administration
b. Nearly 100% of the drug bypasses the liver after oral
sublingual administration
c. Acidic drugs bind to α1-acid glycoprotein
d. The kidneys excrete drugs mainly by paracellular transport
e. Functionalization reactions occur in endoplasmic reticulum
48. These side-effects are recognized complications of the
following drugs:
a. Methyldopa – positive Coomb's test in the baby

b. Methyldopa – neonatal ileus.
c. Atenolol – fetal overactivity.
d. 17 hydroxy-progesterone – virilization of femal fetus
e. Lithium – Epstein's malformation

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Ans - T T F F T
49: In pregnancy
a. The concentration of globulins falls
b. Highly ionized drugs are metabolized more than non-
ionized drugs
c. Barbiturates decrease the capacity of the liver to metabolise
drugs
d. Antacids enhance drug absorption
e. Anticoagulants are more slowly eliminated
Ans – F F F F F
50. Antihypertensives in pregnancy
a. thioamides cause intrauterine growth restriction
b. methyldopa achieves fetal plasma concentrations similar to
maternal levels
c. prazosin causes reflex tachycardia
d. hydralazine does not affect placental vessels
e. calcium channel blockers are embryotoxic in animals

Science UM1- 2nd
Basic Science Paper 1- SBAQs
1. What is the nerve root of the ilioinguinal nerve?
A. Tl2 andLl
B. Ll
C. Ll andL2
D. L2

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E. L2 andL3
Answer – B
2. Regarding Levator Ani which of the following statements
is TRUE?
A. Arterial blood supply is from interior rectal artery
B. Arterial blood supply is from superior rectal artery
C. Arterial blood supply is from internal iliac artery
D. Arterial blood supply is from inferior gluteal artery
E. Arterial blood supply is from gluteal artery
Answer -D
3. 32-years-old woman undergoes an emergency caesarean
section for failure to progress at 9 cm cervical dilatation.
Which of the following correctly describe the pelvic shape
which has a antero-posterior diameter of the inlet greater
than the transverse diameter?
A. Android
B. Anthropoid
C. Gynaecoid
D. Male
E. Platypelloid
Answer- B
4. The ureter:
A. Is 10-15cm in length
B. Is of endodermal origin.
C. Its blood supply is mainly from the aorta.
D. The ureter runs above the lateral fornix of the vagina, 2cm
lateral to the cervix.
E. The ureter anatomically runs over the gonadal vessels
Answer -D
5. Which of the following organs is derived from ectodermal

neural crest cells?

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A. Adrenal gland inner medulla
B. Adrenal gland outer cortex
C. Liver
D. Pancreas
E. Spleen
Answer – A
6. An 82-year-old woman attends her general practitioner's
surgery complaining of a painful lump in the groin.
Which of the following does not form a boundary of the
femoral triangle?
A. Adductor longus
B. Inguinal ligament
C. Obturator internus
D. Pectineus
E. Sartorius
Answer – C
7. During a laparoscopic-assisted vaginal hysterectomy the
surgeon accidentally damages the ovarian artery.
Regarding the left ovarian artery, which of the following is
correct?
A. Anastomoses with the vaginal artery
B. Is a branch of the abdominal aorta
C. Follows the course of the left ovarian artery
D. Lies inferiorly to the inferior mesenteric artery
E. Supplies both left and right ovaries
Answer – B
8. Which of the following arteries is a terminal branch (not
paired) ofthe abdominal aorta?
A. Gonadal
B. Median sacral

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C. Phrenic
D. Renal
E. Suprarenal
Answer – B
9. A 32-year-old woman has an episiotomy repaired
following a forceps delivery. Which of the following does not
insert into the perineal body?
A. Bulbocavernosus
B. External anal sphincter
C. Ischiocavernosus
D. Levator ani
E. Transverse perineal
Answer – C
10. Regarding the structure of the detrusor muscle. Which of
the following is true?
A. The detrusor is a single layer of longitudinal smooth
muscle
B. The detrusor is a single layer of circular smooth muscle
C. The detrusor is a single layer consisting of both circular
and longitudinal muscle fibres
D. The detrusor is divided into 2 layers consisting of an inner
longitudinal smooth muscle layer and outer circular smooth
muscle layer
E. The detrusor is divided into 3 layers consisting of inner and
outer layers of longitudinal smooth muscle with a middle
circular smooth muscle layer
Answer - E
11. A bicornuate uterus is the result of the failure of which
embryonic structures in correctly fuse?
A. Genital tubercles
B. Mesonephric ducts
C. Metanephric ducts

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D. Paramesonephric ducts
E. Pronephric ducts
Answer: D
12. Which embryological cell type secretes hCG?
A. Amnion
B. Cytotrophoblast
C. Mesoderm
D. Syncytiotrophoblast
E. Yolk sac
Answer - D
13. Which of the following is correct regarding germ cell
layers?
A. Endoderm: endocrine glands
B. Endoderm: nervous system
C. Ectoderm: most proximal layer
D. Mesoderm: lung cells
E. Mesoderm: skin epidermis
Answer – A
14. The cells of which structure form the chorionic villi?
A. Neural crest
B. Endoderm
C. Primitive streak
D. Hypoblast
E. Extraembryonic mesoderm
Answer – E
15. Which of the following is not a derivative of the vitelline
vein?
A. Lower inferior vena cava
B. Inferior mesenteric vein

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C. Superior mesenteric vein
D. Portal vein
E. Hepatic vein
Answer – B
16. What is the World Health Organisation's definition of
the perinatal mortality rate?
A. The number of deaths in the l week of life per 1,000 live
st
births
B. The number of stillbirths and deaths in the first week of
life per 1,000 live births
C. The number of stillbirths and deaths in the first week of
D. The number of stillbirths and deaths in the first week of
E. The number of stillbirths and deaths in the first 28 days of
life per 1,000
Deliveries
Answer – B
17. What is the maternal mortality ratio?
a. Ratio of number of maternal deaths and neonatal deaths
b. Ratio of number of maternal deaths per 10 000 live births
c. Ratio of number of maternal deaths 100 000 live births
d. Ratio of number of maternal deaths per 1 000 000 live
births
e. Ratio of number of maternal deaths per year per national
population
Answer: C
18. The following table shows the results of a new test for the
detection of a disease
Disease
Affected Not affected
Test Positive a b

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Negative c d
a. Sensitivity is calculated by a/ a+d

b. Sensitivity is calculated by a/a+b
c. Specificity is calculated by b/b+d
d. Negative predictive value is calculated by d/b+d
e. Positive predictive value is calculated by a/ a+b
Answer – E
19. In evidence base medicine, what level of evidence is
provided by meta-analysis of randomized controlled trial
a. Ia
b. Ib
c. 2a
d. 2b
e. 3
Answer – A
20. Which of the following is an aim of clinical audit?
A. To reject or accept a null hypothesis
B. To assess the extent to which current practice meets a
defined set of standards
C. To assess differences between two different populations
D. To establish what is best practice
E. To extrapolate theory into practice
Answer – B
21. A 32-year-old Asian woman is diagnosed at 28 weeks’
gestation with gestational diabetes. Treatment with
metformin is commenced.
Which of the following is an insulin antagonist?
A. Cortisol
B. Free fatty acids
C. Growth hormone
D. Prolactin

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E. Somatostatin
Answer – E
22. A 32-year-old woman is presenting with secondary

amenorrhoea. Day 21 progesterone level indicates that she is
not ovulating. Which of the following statements best
describes the events occurring at the mid-luteal phase of
menstrual cycle?
A. increase in progesterone and selective rise in FSH
B. high progesterone leads to low FSH and LH
C. Estradiol decreases and FSH increases
D. estradiol feedback becomes negative leading to LH surge
E. peak of LH surge
Answer – C
23. A 23-year-old woman is seen in the gynaecology clinic
after an ultrasound scan reveals multiple cysts on both
ovaries. She also complains of irregular menstrual cycles and
has been trying to conceive for over 1 year.
Which of the following lead to clinical manifestations of
polycystic ovarian syndrome?
A. Decrease in oestradiol levels
B. Decrease in prolactin
C. Decrease in testosterone and androstenedione
D. Increase in fasting insulin
E. Increase in sex hormone binding globulin
Answer – D
24. What is the major oestrogen produced from the placenta
during pregnancy ?
A. Dehydroepiandrosterone
B. Oestradiol
C. Oestriol
D. Oestrone
E. Ethinyl oestradiol
Answer – C

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25. What is the major steroid hormone produced by the
corpus luteum?
A. Oestradiol and hCG
B. Oestradiol and progesterone
C. Oestradiol and testosterone
D. Progesterone and hCG
E. Progesterone and testosterone
Answer – B
26.Which of the following hormones are secreted from
acidophilic cells of anterior pituitary?
A. FSH
B. LH
C. TSH
D. GH
E. ACTH
Answer – D
27. Prolactin secretion is inhibited by
A. Dopamine
B. TRH
C. Suckling
D. Pregnancy
E. Dopamine antagonist
Answer – A
28. Most common enzyme responsible for female
pseudohemaphroditism is
A. 21-hydroxylase
B. 3 beta hydroxylase
C. 11 hydroxylase
D. 17 alpha hydroxylase
E. P450
Answer – A

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29. Androgen is produced from
A. Zona glomerulosa
B. Zona fasiculata
C. Zona reticularis
D. Adrenal medulla
E. Ovary
Answer - C
30. Estradiol and progesterone are not transported in
circulation by
A. Albumin
B. Sex hormone binding globulin
C. Cortisol binding globulin
D. Pre-albumin
E. 2% free form
Answer – D
31. An 18 year old woman presents to a sexually health clinic
requiring a sexually transmitted infection screen, she is
scrotal pain.
What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
B. Candida albicans
E. Treponema pallidum pallidum
Answer – C
32. Antenatal screening of a 25-year-old patient is suggestive
of hepatitis B infection.
The results of her serology are as follows:
HBsAg Positive

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HBeAg Positive
Anti-HBeAb Negative
Anti-HBsAb Negative
Total anti-HBc Positive (IgM anti-core Ab negative, IgG
anti-core Ab positive)
Which of the following is most likely to represent her
hepatitis B status?
A. Acute infection (recent)
B. Acute infection (resolving)
C. Chronic infection (high infectivity)
D. Chronic infection (low infectivity)
E. Following vaccination
Answer – C

leg amputation.
D. Escherichia coli
Answer - B
organism?
A. Bacteroides
B. Escherichia coli
C. Listeria
D. Mycobacteria
E. Pseudomonas
Answer – A

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practitioner at 10 weeks’ gestation. She is complaining of
yesterday. On examination, she has a temperature of 38.1°C,
postauricular lymphadenopathy and a maculopapular rash
over her torso. Rubella is diagnosed.
A. Cerebral palsy
C. Limb hypoplasia
D. Microcephaly
Answer – E
pregnant reports mild dysuria; otherwise she is well. Urine
tract infection?
A. Citrobacter freundii
B. Escherichia coli
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
Answer – B
weeks’ gestation. This is her second pregnancy and she is
very concerned as during her first pregnancy she had an
‘infection’, which led to the permanent disability of her
child. He is deaf, with delayed development and is small for
his age. He became jaundiced shortly after birth.
What was the most likely cause of her son's condition?
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Herpes

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C. Parvovirus B19
D. Rubella
E. Varicella zoster
Answer – A
38. A 23-year-old woman attends her general practitioner
complaining of numbness and tingling in both feet. She
recently started treatment for pulmonary tuberculosis.
Which drug is most likely to be responsible for these
symptoms?
A. Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Rifampicin
E. Streptomycin
Answer – B
organism?
A. Bacteroides
B. Escherichia coli
C. Listeria
D. Mycobacteria
E. Pseudomonas
Answer – A
sarcoma?
A. HIV
B. Human herpesvirus 4
C. Human herpesvirus 8
E. All of the above
Answer – C
41. Lidocaine

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A. cause tachycardia when given in systemic circulation
B. cause vasoconstriction
C. longer action than bupivacaine
D. weak acid
E. lipid insoluble
Answer - D
42. Vitamin C
A. necessary for wound healing

B. fat soluble
C. heat stable
D. degraded by food freezing
E. serves as vital role in haemopoiesis
Answer - A
43. Hypertension in pregnancy
A. diuretics is preferred
B. hydralazine is acceptable in first trimester
C. atenolol in first trimester may cause big baby
D. labetalol is not a recommended treatment
E. methyldopa can be given
Answer - E
44. Amlodipine
A. is not useful for long term control of hypertension

B. causes sodium retention
C. is particularly useful for hypertension during child birth
D. should not be given to patient with impaired left
ventricular function
E. acts on arteriole ( cardiac afterload ) rather than veins (

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cardiac preload )
Answer – E
45. OC pills
A. stimulates release of gonadotrophins hormones

B. may lead to thinning of cervical mucus
C. influences fallopian tube smooth muscle activity
D. lead to decrease platelet aggregation
E. lead to increase antithrombin III
Answer – C
46. Heparin
A. Has low plasma protein binding affinity

B. acts on activated factor XII
C. Control is measured by activated partial thromboplastin
time
D. May be given by intramuscular injection
E. of neutral molecular weight
Answer - C
47. Warfarin
A. does not cross placenta

B. is metabolized chiefly in kidney
C. it takes less than 24 hrs to work if taken orally
D. it interferes with production of factor II, VII, IX, X
E. controls is based on bleeding time
Answer - D
48. Adverse effects of diuretics includes
A. zinc deficiency
B. chronic hypovolemia

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C. hypoglycaemia
D. sexual enhancement
E. gout
Answer - E
49. The following substance reduce blood glucose
concentration
A. adrenalins
B. nozad
C. clothiazide
D. metformin
E. thyroxine
Answer – D
50. When insulin is injected
A. above half of the doses can be removed from urine

B. subcutaneous or IV, the time course of its action is similar
C. hypoglycaemia results, corticotrophin is released from
pituitary
D. IM route is preferred in severe ketoacidosis
E. subcutaneous lipotrophy is common with human variety
Answer - A

Science UM1- 2nd
1. Arachidonic acid:
a. Is a second messenger
b. Is an amino acid

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c. Is a precursor of thromboxane
d. Is inhibited by aspirin
e. Is converted to prostaglandins
2. Essential amino acids
a. Are absorbed from the intestinal by active transport
b. Concentration in maternal circulation fall during pregnancy
c. Have higher levels in maternal blood than those in fetal
blood
d. Include phenylalanine
e. Cross the placenta by simple diffusion
3. Fat metabolism:
d. Beta-oxidation of fatty acids is controlled by supply of
substrate
4. Acetyl-CoA
a. Is produced form metabolism of amino acids
b. Is produced form metabolism of fatty acids
c. Enters the glycolytic cycle
d. Enters the citric acid cycle
e. Is converted to 10 molecules of CO2 and 24 atoms of
hydrogen
Answer – T T F T F (C23H38N7O17P35)
5. Vitamin B6 (pyridoxime)
a. Is water soluble
b. Deficiency can lead to epileptiform convulsion
c. Excess can lead to sensory polyneuropathy
d. Requirement in pregnancy is 25 mg per day
e. Deficiency can lead to macrocytic anaemia

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6. Positive nitrogen balance is present during:
a. Pregnancy
b. Cushing’s syndrome
c. Pubertal growth
d. Long-term recovery from severe illness
e. Prolonged starvation
7. Haemoglobin
a. Is composed of two globin chain and three heam rings
b. Haem ring in haemoglobin is synthesized in the cytoplasm
c. Haem ring in haemoglobin is synthesized in the nucleus
d. Iron supply is never a rate limiting step in haem synthesis
e. Globin synthesis proceeds only in the presence of sufficient
haem
8. During prolonged fasting
a. The brain uses more ketones than glucose
b. There is decreased gluconeogenesis in the liver
c. Fatty acid oxidation is increased in the muscles
d. Ketone use is increased in the muscles
e. Ketone use is decreased in the muscles
9. The following are tumour suppressors
a. pRb
b. p53
c. BRCA1
d. Ras
e. Myc
10. Nitric oxide
a. Is produced from methionine
b. Has a half-life of 5 minutes
c. Is released by the endothelial cells of the blood vessels

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d. Mediates vasoconstriction during pregnancy
e. Mediates vasodilatation during pregnancy
11. In medical imaging
a. Computer assisted tomography (CT scanning) utilizes high-
power X-rays
b. Diagnostic ultrasound utilizes pulses of frequency 100MHz
c. Nuclear magnetic resonance imaging(NMR) involves the
emission of low-frequency radiowaves
d. Diagnostic X-ray work normally uses voltages between 50
and 150kV
e. NMR may lead to ventricular fibrillation
Ans – T F F T T
12. Concerning electrosurgery:
a. Bipolar diathermy can be used to cut tissue
b. Monopolar diathermy necessitates the use of a return
electrode
c. Diathermy uses low-frequency electrical currents
d. Desiccation of tissue can be achieved using both mono- and
bipolar diathermy
e. Direct coupling is achieved by adhering to strict safety
protocols
a. The PR interval is 0.2-0.4 seconds
d. The QT interval is 0.35-0.42 seconds

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c. It may use to investigate secondary subfertility
Chlamydia
15. In radiotherapy
a. Beta rays are composed of electrons
b. Intracavitary radiotherapy (brachytherapy) works by the
release of particles that have high penetrating power
c. Necrosis within tumours reduces sensitivity to radiotherapy
d. Less differentiated tumours are more radiosensitive to
radiotherapy
e. Squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix is generally less
sensitive to radiotherapy than adenocarcinoma of the cervix
16. The first meiotic division the primary oocyte:
a. may take up to 40 years to be completed.
b. results in two secondary oocytes.
c. is completed after fertilization.
d. results in two cells with haploid number of chromosomes.
e. is always followed by the second meiotic division.
Answer- T F F T F
17. In a balanced chromosomal reciprocal translocation
carrier, there is
a. Normal number of chromosomes
b. Normal amount of genetic material
c. Normal arrangement of genetic material
d. Increased risk of reproductive loss

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e. Greater risk of cytogenetically abnormal offspring if the
carrier is a female rather than male
Ans- T T F T T
18. In human cytogenetics:
a. deoxyribonucleic acid is double- stranded.
b. material of DNA analysis in adult is usually obtained from
erythrocytes.
c. the base adenine is always paired with thymine in DNA.
d. alleles are non- identical genes occupying homhlogous loci
in a pair of chromosomes.
e. penetrance is the extent of gene expression.
Answer- T F T T T
19. The following are sex-linked conditions:
a. Hereditary spherocytosis.
d. Haemoglobin C disease
e. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
Ans – F T T F F
20. The following are features of trisomy 18
a. Rocker-bottom feet
b. Wide mouth
c. Large testis
d. Occipital protuberance
e. Low-set eyebrows
21. Antibodies:
a. Are polypeptides

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a. The classical activation pathway is independent of antibody
involvement
e. The alternative activation pathway requires binding of
mannose-binding lectin
23. Lysosomes
a. Are formed in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
b. Mature only in the Golgi apparatus
c. Secondary lysosomes emerge from the Golgi apparatus
d. Take part in many metabolic events
e. Degrade the old cytoplasm
24. Nuclear chromatin (Barr Body)

a. Represents an inactivated X chromosome which could be of
paternal origin
b. Is present in individuals with androgen insensitivity
syndrome
c. Is observed during interphase
d. Does not appear in the cells of the normal female embryo
until the ovaries have developed
e. Is present in female Down’s syndrome
Ans – T F T F T

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25. The golgi apparatus
a. Is a collection of membrane-enclosed sacs (cisterns) that
are stacked like dinner plate
b. There are usually about six sacs in each apparatus, but there
may be more
c. One or more Golgi apparatus are present in all eukaryotic
cells, usually near the nucleus
d. Much of the organization of the Golgi apparatus is directed
at proper glycosylation of protein and lipid
e. There are more than 200 enzymes that function to add,
remove or modify sugar from protein and lipid in the Golgi
apparatus
26. Regarding immunoglobulin
a. IgG is major antibody in primary immune response
b. IgM is the major immunoglobulin of serum
c. IgA is present milk
d. IgE can cross the placenta
e. IgD present on the B cells
27. The following statements are true of complement
a. It is activated by IgG and IgM
b. It protects cell from lysis
c. It mediates the inflammatory response
d. It promote phagocytosis
e. It attracts neutrophils
28. Characteristics of active immunity
a. Onset of immunity is immediate
b. Duration of immunity lasts for years

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c. It occurs with active participation of the host
d. It is acquired through only artificial means
e. It develops after a latent period
Answer- F T T F T
29. The main functions of B cells are
a. To synthesis immunoglobulins
b. To kill virus infected cells
c. To provide humoral immunity
d. Surveillance against malignancy
e. To play a role in allograft rejection
30. Concerning cytokines:
a. Interferons inhibit viral replication
b. IL-2 is produced by B cells
c. Tumour necrosis factor (TNF)-α inhibits macrophages
d. TNF induces production of nitric oxide
e. IL-4 has an active role in B cell class switch to IgE
31. The following tumours are benign
a. Papilloma
b. Seminoma
c. Fibroma
d. Multiple myeloma
e. Neurofibroma
Ans – T F T F T
32. Squamous metaplasia
a. Is a form of carcinoma in situ

b. May follow malignant change

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c. Occurs in the bladder
d. Occurs in the urethra
e. Occurs in the bronchial epithelium of cigarette smokers
Ans – F T T T T
33. Features of benign tumours usually include
a. An intact capsule
b. Local invasion
c. Well differentiated cell types
d. Pleomorphism
e. Regional lymphadenopathy
Ans – T F T F F
34. Adenocarcinoma of the cervix
a. Constitutes 4-5% of cervical carcinoma

b. Is less radiosensitive than squamous carcinoma
c. Is characterized by intracellular mucin production
d. May be preceded by adenocarcinoma- in-situ
e. Is rarely found in patients under 40 years of age
Ans – F F T T F
35. Vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN)
a. Is usually found in patients over 60 years of age

b. Is often asymptomatic
c. Progresses to invasive carcinoma if untreated
d. Is characterized by blunting of rete ridges in the epithelium
e. Is associated with an increased risk of cervical
intraepithelial neoplasia
Ans – F F F F T
36. Granulose cell tumours of the ovary

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a. Are more common in post-menopausal than premenopausal
women
b. Are always unilateral
c. Are characterized by the presence of Call-Exner bodies
d. May lead to endometrial carcinoma in 40-50% of patients
e. In juveniles carry a poor prognosis
Ans – T F T F F
37. Wound healing is delayed by deficiency
a. Of vitamin D
b. Of zinc
c. Of calcium
d. Of sulphur-containing amino acids
e. Of glucocorticosteroid hormones
Ans – F T F T F
38. Tissue growth and differentiation
a. hyperplasia represents an increase in the size of cells in a
tissue or organs
b. atrophy is always pathological
c. metaplasia represents premalignant abnormality of an
epithelium
d. all tumours are not neoplasms
e. malignant tumours may be primary or secondary
39. Placental pathology
a. Defective trophoblastic invasion of decidual and uterine
vessels is associated with pre-eclampsia
b. Defective trophoblastic invasion is associated with
intrauterine growth resuscitation
c. Defective trophoblastic invasion is the morphological
association of abnormal uterine artery Doppler indices
d. In intrauterine growth restriction, the umbilical arteries

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usually show reduced resistance to flow as a consequence
of vasodilatation
e. Ascending genital tract infection is associated with
choriocarcinoma
40. Tissue response to injury
a. acute inflammation results in local vasodilatation, increased
vascular permeability and release of mediators
b. the primary inflammatory cell mediator of chronic
inflammation is neutrophil
c. granuloma formation is normal component of wound
healing
d. macrophages are not normally present following tissue
damage
e. macrophages are important in granuloma formation
41. The action potential of skeletal muscle
a. Has a prolonged plateau phase
b. Spread inward to all parts of the muscle via the T tubules
c. Causes the immediate uptake of Ca into the lateral sacs of
++
sarcoplasmic reticulum
d. Is longer than action potential of cardiac muscle
e. Is not essential for contraction
42. Neurotransmitters
a. Catecholamines are small molecules transmitter
b. The amino acid glutamate is the main excitatory transmitter
in the CNS
c. GABA is the main excitatory mediators in the brain
d. Neuropeptides are large molecules transmitter
e. Glycine has both excitatory and inhibitory effects in the
central nervous system

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43. Sympathetic nerve activity
a. Is essential for survival
b. Causes contraction of some smooth muscles and relaxation
of others
c. Causes relaxation of the radial muscle of the eye to dilate
the pupil
d. Relaxes smooth muscle of the gastrointestinal wall and
gastrointestinal sphincter
e. Causes constriction of blood vessels of the skin
44. In the renin-angiotensin system
a. Decreased renal blood flow causes increased renin
production
b. Renin is secreted by the juxta-glomerular cells of the
kidney
c. Angiotensin I is a decapeptide
d. The presser effects of angiotensin II is suppressed in
normal pregnancy
e. Estrogen stimulates angiotensinogen production
45. With respect to bladder function in the adult female
a. Normal maximum urine flow rate is 6 ml/s
b. Normal residual volume is 100 ml
c. Normal bladder capacity is 250 ml
d. First sensation to void is normally at a volume of 900 ml
e. Intra-vesicle pressure rises by less than 10 cmH2O during
early filling
46. Myocardial contractility is reduced in:
a. Acidosis
b. Hypercapnia
c. Treatment with Ritodrine
d. Myocardial infarction
e. Treatment with quinidine

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Ans – T T F T T
47. Fetal haemoglobin:

a. In its pure form, has a high affinity for oxygen
b. Is formed of two alpha-chains and two gamma-chains
c. Forms less than 10% of the total haemoglobin by 4 months
of age
d. Is about 1 % of the total haemoglobin in a normal adults
e. Is formed in the yolk sac
Ans: F T T T T
48. The increased uterine blood flow in pregnancy is
contributed to by
a. An increase in the number of uterine arterioles

b. Increased diameter of placental blood vessels
c. Reduced vascular resistance in the uterus
d. Increased angiotensin II levels
e. Increased blood volume
Ans: F T T F T
49. Changes in respiratory function in normal pregnancy

include
a. An increase in respiratory rate

b. An increase in vital capacity
c. A reduction in residual volume
d. An increase in oxygen consumption
e. An increase in minute volume
Ans – F F T T T
50. Regarding haemopoiesis in pregnancy
a. There is a parallel increase in maternal plasma volume and

red cell mass

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b. Maternal iron deficiency will lead to fetal iron deficiency
c. The normal daily requirement of folic acid is 300
micrograms
d. Parental iron will lead to a quicker response than oral iron
in cases of iron deficiency anaemia
e. Phytates reduce iron absorption from the intestines
Ans: F F T F T

Science UM1- 2nd
1. Which condition is caused by the failure to mineralise newly formed osteoid?
A. Osteomalacia
B. Osteopaenia
C. Osteopetrosis
D. Osteoporosis
E. Paget’s disease of bone
Answer: A
2. A 50-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner complaining of fatigue and upper
abdominal pain, 6 weeks after sustaining a distal radial fracture. Her blood tests indicate
hypercalcaemia and hypophosphataemia.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Bone metastases
C. Primary hyperparathyroidism
D. Sarcoidosis
Answer: C
glycolysis pathway?
A. Glucokinase
B. Glucose-6-phosphatase
C. Hexokinase
E. Phosphoglucose-isomerase

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Answer – D
4. What is the overall product of the glycolysis pathway?
A. Glucose
B. Pyruvate
C. 1 NADH + 1 ATP
D. 2 NADH + 2 ATP
E. 4 NADH + 4 ATP
Answer- B
5. An 18 days old baby is brought to the emergency department by his parents. He is vomiting,
severely dehydrated and appears to be underweight. The paediatricians diagnose a salt-wasting
crisis and are concerned that he has a form of congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
What hormone deficiency is characteristic of this disorder?
A. Cholesterol
B. Cortisol
C. Dihydrotestosterone
D. Oestradiol
E. Testosterone
Answer – B
6. A 24-year-old woman is admitted via the emergency
department with persistent hyperemesis of pregnancy. She is
now feeling very unwell and appears dehydrated.
Her blood pressure is 110/60 mmHg, heart rate 100 beats per
minute, SpO2 98% on room air and a respiratory rate of 20
breaths per minute.
Which is the most likely acid-base disorder in this patient?
Answer- B

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Genotyping suggests a rare autosomal recessive condition
acid cycle.
Which of the following is not an intermediate of the citric
acid cycle?
A. Alpha-ketoglutarate
C. Citrate
D. Oxaloacetate
Answer – B
A. Alignment along the cell's horizontal plane
B. Alignment along the cell's vertical plane
C. Alignment at one pole
Answer – E
9. A 28-year-old primiparous woman attends her booking
appointment at 10 weeks’ gestation. She is keen to maintain
a healthy diet during her pregnancy and asks her midwife to
explain the difference between essential and non-essential
amino acids.
Which of the following is a non-essential amino acid?
A. Arginine
B. Leucine
C. Methionine
D. Tryptophan
E. Tyrosine
Answer- E
10. A 58-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. As part of her
routine care, her general practitioner checks and her fasting cholesterol levels. She is found to have
a mildly raised total cholesterol level with a raised serum low-density lipoprotein level.
Which of the following describes the function of low-density lipoproteins?

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A. Transport of cholesterol from the body’s tissues to the liver
B. Transport of cholesterol from the liver to tissues around the
body
C. Transport of chylomicrons from the liver to elsewhere in
the body
D. Transport of triglycerides from the intestine to other tissues
for storage
E. Transport of triglycerides from the liver to elsewhere in the
body for oxidation
Answer – B
11. The QRS complex in a normal electrocardiogram
represents
A. Atrial depolarization and contraction
B. The electrical activity of the sinoatrial node
C. The final stage of ventricular repolarization
D. Ventricular depolarization and contraction
E. Ventricular repolarization
Answer – D
12. What is the accepted cumulative dose of ionizing
radiation in pregnancy?
A. 50 mGy
B. 100 mGy
C. 150 mGy
D. 250 mGy
E. 500 mGy
Answer: A
13. Which of the following is a recognised parameter used in
fetal biophysical profiling?
A. Abdominal circumference
B. Amniotic fluid index
C. Biparietal diameter
D. Head circumference
E. Femur length
Answer – B

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14. Which of the following is an acute side-effect of
radiotherapy?
A. Epithelial surface damage
B. Hair loss
C. Infertility
D. Lymphoedema
E. Tissue fibrosis
Answer – A
15. Magnetic resonance imaging uses the following physical

principle to form an image?
A. Acceleration of electrons
B. Conversion of low-frequency current to high-frequency
current
C. Stimulated emission of radiation
D. The alignment of protons in water
E. Vibration of a piezo-electric crystal
Answer: D- The alignment of protons in water
16. Via which mode of inheritance is the BRCA1 gene
mutation transmitted?
Answer- A
17. What chromosomal event best describes the aetiology of
Familial Down’s syndrome?
A. Microdeletion
B. Nonsense mutation

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E. Triplet repeat expansion
Answer- D
18. The following statements about haemophilia are true
A. All sons of affected males will inherit the condition
B. Half the sons of a carrier female will inherit the condition
C. Normal daughters cannot be born to a carrier female
D. The incidence of haemophillia in the daughters of an
affected male (married to a normal female) will be one in
four
E. If a carrier female marries an affected male, all of the
offspring will inherit the haemophillia gene
Answer – B
19. You review a 23-year-old woman with cystic fibrosis for pre-conceptual counseling.
Which of the following is correct regarding pregnancy in women with cystic fibrosis?
A. The average life expectancy of women with cystic fibrosis

in the UK is 55 years
B. Fertility is reduced by approximately 30%
C. The risk of miscarriage is unchanged when compared to
the general population
D. There is a higher incidence of congenital malformations
E. There is an association with fetal growth restriction
Answer – C
20. A 39-year-old multiparous woman is 13 weeks pregnant.

She has serum screening as part of the combined test.
Analysis shows an elevated level of α-fetoprotein and a
normal level of pregnancy-associated plasma protein A.
What diagnosis are the screening results suggestive of?
E. Normal pregnancy
Answer – D

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by type III hypersensitivity?
A. Asthma
C. Eczema
Answer – E
immune system?
A. Complement
B. Macrophages
D. Neutrophils
E. T helper cells
Answer – E
23. One of the known benefits of breastfeeding is its role in supporting the infant’s immune system.
Which of the following antibodies is secreted in large amounts in breast milk?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM
Answer – A

pathways?
Answer – B
25. Which cell organelle is responsible for the enzymatic
modification of secreted proteins?

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a. Golgi complex
b. Mitochondria
c. Nucleus
d. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
e. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Answer - A
26. A 32-year-old woman presents to hospital 5 days
postemergency caesarean section, complaining of a painful
scar. On examination, there is erythema at one of the scar
edges and some purulent discharge. She is started on
antibiotic treatment for a wound infection.
Which of the following local changes can be seen in this type
of acute inflammatory process?
A. Fibroblast infiltration
B. Haemostasis
C. High concentration of monocytes
D. Decreased vascular permeability
E. Vasoconstriction
Answer – B
27. A female baby is born via spontaneous vaginal delivery at term. As she is born in an urban area
with high levels of tuberculosis she is given the BCG (Bacillus Calmette–Guerin) vaccination before
she is taken home by her parents.
What type of vaccine is the BCG vaccine?
D. Subunit vaccine
E. Toxoid vaccine
Answer – C
28. Which of the following gives the structure of the

antibody IgG?
Structure Properties
A. Dimer - main immunoglobulin found in secretions eg.
saliva and mucosal surface
B. Monomer - antigen receptor on B cells

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C. Monomer - main mediator of allergic reaction
D. Monomer - only immunoglobulin to cross the placenta
E. Pentamer - first immunoglobulin to be produced;
expressed on surface of B cells
Answer – D
29. Which of the following is a Y-linked inherited condition?
A. Thalassaemia
B. Partial colour blindness
C. Vitamin D resistant rickets
D. Haemophilia
E. H-Y antigen
Answer – E
30. Which of the following statements is correct for
phenylketonuria?
A. It is an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern
B. It is an example of pleiotropy
C. It causes structural defects
D. It occurs due to deficiency of phenylalanine decarboxylase
E. It causes accumulation of tyrosine in the blood
Answer – B
31. Which obstetric phenomenon is of increased prevalence
in women with bicornuate uterus?
B. Stillbirth
C. PPH
D. Placenta praevia
E. Placenta accrete
Answer – A
32. Which one is the typical of complete molar pregnancy?
A. 45XO
B. 46XX

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C. 46 XXX
D. 69 XXY
E. 92XXXXY
Answer – B
produces histamine?
A. Basophils
B. Erythrocytes
C. Macrophages
D. Monocytes
E. Neutrophils
Answer – A
34. Within what time frame from injury do macrophage

replace neutrophils in cutaneous wound healing?
A. 1-2 hour
B. 6-12 hour
C. 18-24 hour
D. 48-92 hour
E. 7-10 days
Answer – D
35. Which of the following best describes the renal pathology
of pre-eclampsia?
Answer - B
36. Which of the following describes the type of cellular
change that occurs in hyperplasia?

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Answer – A
C. Hyperchromatism
D. Irreversibility
Answer – C
38. Which of the following vulval skin disorders is associated

B. Lichen planus
C. Lichen sclerosus
E. Psoriasis
Answer – C
and fibroma
Answer – C

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A. Early menopause
C. Nulliparity
Answer – C
41. By what percentages does cardiac output increase in
pregnancy?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 20%
D. 40%
E. 80%
Correct answer: D- 40%
42. A woman who is known to be anaemic in pregnancy is
noted to be pale and tachycardic after delivery. Her
haemoglobin level is 6.2 g/dl. What is the most appropriate
blood product for her?
A. Fresh frozen plasma
B. Frozen red cells
C. Packed red cells
D. Platelets
E. Whole blood
Correct answer: C- Packed red cells
43. Breastfeeding after delivery may facilitate contraction of
the uterus and reduce the incidence of haemorrhage. Breast
feeding causes the release of which substance that causes
uterine contraction?
A. Cyclooxygenase
B. Ergometrine

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C. Prostacyclin
D. Prsotaglandin F2alpha
E. Oxytocin
Answer: E- Oxytocin
44. A 72 yr old woman undergoes a total abdominal
hysterectomy. She has chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease. Postoperatively, she is difficult to excubate and has a
prolonged stay on the intensive care unit. Which of the
following is the most important direct stimulus to
respiration?
A. Decreased arterial pH
B. Increased pCO2 of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
C. Increased H+ concentration of CSF
D. Decreased arterial pO2
E. Decreased arterial pCO2
Answer- C
45. A 27-year-old woman attends AN clinic at 32 weeks
Answer – C
46. In pregnancy, plasma volume increases by
A. 10%
B. 20%

Page 260 of 262
C. 30%
D. 40%
E. 60%
Answer – D
47. Which factor does not shift oxygen dissociation curve to
right?
A. Increased CO2
B. Decreased pH
C. Increased temperature
D. Decreased 2,3- diphosphoglycerate
E. Increased 2,3- diphosphoglycerate
Answer – D
48. Which of the following does not occur in pregnancy?
A. Kidney size increases by 1.5cm
B. Right ureter dilates more than left ureter
C. 30% of pregnant women develop asymptomatic bacteriuria
D. There is decreased in risk of urinary tract infection in
pregnancy
E. Sigmoid colon is responsible for dextro-rotation of uterus
Answer – D
49. In pregnancy, there is
A. Increase in calcium excretion
B. Increase in calcitonin level
C. Magnesium and citrate levels increase
D. Hypocalcaemia is rare
E. All of the above
Answer - B
50. Which of the following is not physiological changes in
pregnancy?

Page 261 of 262
A. Increase in red cell mass by 30%
B. Increase in plasma volume by 30%
C. Decreased in mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
D. Increase in coagulation factors
E. Decrease in platelet count by 10%
Answer – C

Page 262 of 262

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2019

Mock Examination for First Year, Basic

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a. Labetalol and methyldopa in the treatment of pre-eclampsia

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29. Epidermal growth factor:

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Mock Examination for First Year, Basic

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https://cdn.fbsbx.com/v/t59.2708-21/67620656_22812390…949a738315c30c1f1570f630d96dfdca&oe=5D71C8DD&dl=1 9/4/19, 4G17 PM

https://cdn.fbsbx.com/v/t59.2708-21/67620656_22812390…949a738315c30c1f1570f630d96dfdca&oe=5D71C8DD&dl=1 9/4/19, 4G17 PM

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50. Which is the most appropriate treatment for vaginal

Mock Examination for First Year, Basic

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13. Concerning the hysterosalpingogram:

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26. With regard to antibody type.

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40. The following tumors are hormone dependent

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Mock Examination for First Year, Basic

1.What type of acid-base disturbance may result from the

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A. Transport of cholesterol from the body’s tissues to the liver

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Basic Science Paper 1 SBA 2019, UM2