University of Luzon

Perez Boulevard, Dagupan City

College of Education

Directions: Encircle the letter of the correct answer.

1. Implicit values of a school are reflected in:
a. Extrinsic student awards.
b. Negotiated student-teacher interactions.
c. The ethos of individual schools.
d. All of the above
2. Some socioeconomic data suggest that:
a. There is little or no relationship to school participation.
b. Low achievers all come from poor families.
c. Children from low-income families tend to be somewhat less engaged in school
activities.
d. Schools are legally forbidden to aid any socioeconomic related problems.
3. The actual implementation of an educational goal takes place in:
a. Society.
b. A teacher’s classroom.
c. The deliberations of a school board.
d. The state legislature.
4. The key incentive for teacher is:
a. Salary.
b. The uncertainties of teaching.
c. Student achievement.
d. Working alone in the job without interference from others.
5. Which characteristic is essential to be able to do the tough job of teaching?
a. Conformity to the school’s culture.
b. Using a subject-centered approach.
c. Having a rationale.
d. Being efficacious.
6. The concept of the least restrictive environment means:
a. Every child with any disability must be mainstreamed.
b. Children with disabilities are separated from regular classes.
c. Children with disabilities must be treated in a manner similar to children without
disabilities.
7. Equity is defined by the textbook authors as:
a. Every child in your class has an equal opportunity to learn.
b. Every child achieves the same level of excellence.

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 c. All students must meet minimum competencies.
d. All students do the same kind of work.
8. Which is the best example of a teacher using an “intrinsic motivator”?
a. “This is tough, and I know you can do it”.
b. “There will be a pizza party if the class does well”.
c. “The best three papers will get school pencil sets”.
d. “Your grades will be determined by five different criteria”.
9. Reported research shows that the most-used teacher activity at the senior high school
level is:
a. Work on problem solving.
b. Complex learning skills.
c. Lecture and recitations.
d. Student-initiated projects.
10. The concrete operational stage is typically characterized by students who:
a. Learn easily by reading.
b. Tend to think a formal levels.
c. Learn concepts by using activities.
d. Are class discipline problems.
11. A major strength of “direct instruction” is that:
a. Students are free to work on their own.
b. Content is delivered to all the class simultaneously.
c. Teacher class preparation is increased dramatically.
d. Class projects take most of the school time.
12. Computer-aided instruction is an excellent example of applying which learning
theory?
a. Developmental
b. Behavioral
c. Constructivist
d. Modern social constructivism
13. Which of the following teacher behaviors is the best example of using student-
initiated instruction?
a. Giving students immediate feedback.
b. Using variable assignments.
c. Keeping the class on time schedule.
d. Emphasizing basic fundamentals.
14. Active learning:
a. Applies only to the constructivist philosophy.
b. Is the hallmark of Vygotsky’s ideas.
c. Implies that there is no feedback to the learner.

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 d. Can be used with any learning perspective.
15. Which generalization is most correct or empirically validated?
a. There is a tendency for elementary teachers to use a wide variety of instructional
techniques.
b. Middle or junior high school teachers have demonstrated the widest array of
instructional techniques.
c. High school teachers have been consistently shown over time to use the widest
array of teaching methods.
d. Teachers at all levels use a very wide array of instructional techniques.
16. Teachers reinforce “learned helplessness” by:
a. Lowering their expectations for minorities.
b. Implying incompetence in girls by giving boys more scientific tasks.
c. Giving fewer leadership opportunities to students from lower socioeconomic
backgrounds.
d. All of the above.
17. The statement “to prepare the best teachers in the school” would be classified as
(a/an):
a. Criterion measure.
b. Goal.
c. Specified outcome.
d. Performance objective.
18. Performance objectives help to clarify instruction for:
a. Students as they study.
b. Teachers as they plan for instruction.
c. Items a and b are both correct.
d. None of the above is correct.
19. Which one of the following is the most accurate assessment of the performance
objective movement?
a. The emphasis is on student outputs.
b. The emphasis is on what the teacher does (inputs).
c. There is no evidence to show that performance objectives work in classrooms.
d. It is an “antiaccountability” technique.
20. A teacher who uses performance objectives correctly will:
a. Assign only A and B grades.
b. Use only “satisfactory” and “unsatisfactory” in grading.
c. Establish grading criteria.
d. Will not assign grades at all.
21. Which item is NOT a part of a performance objective?
a. Criterion

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 b. Performance
c. Condition
d. Rationale
22. Curriculum alignment refers to:
a. Assessment, instruction, and observations.
b. Goals, the society, and the culture.
c. Assessment, values, and observations.
d. Learning objectives, assignments, instruction, and tests.
23. “After reading the two short stories, write a three-page paper comparing the idea of
“hero” as viewed in both stories”. This is an example of which taxonomic level?
a. Knowledge
b. Application
c. Analysis
d. Evaluation
24. “Given a newspaper article from a newspaper, the student will summarize the article
and include at least three major points.” This is an example of which taxonomic
level?
a. Knowledge
b. Comprehension
c. Analysis
d. Evaluation
25. “Develop a plan that tests the efficacy of two different fertilizers in growing flowers.”
This is an example of which taxonomic level?
a. Comprehension
b. Application
c. Analysis
d. Synthesis
26. In lesson planning, the term “unit” best describes:
a. An outline of how the lessons will be taught.
b. The name of the larger element of instruction of which the particular lesson is a
part.
c. A brief justification of why students should learn what is being taught.
d. A checklist of everything the student needs.
27. In lesson planning, the term “instructional goal” best describes:
a. A detailed outline of what is to be taught.
b. A brief description of what the students will do as a consequence of the lesson.
c. An outline of student entry-level behaviors.
d. Post-instruction assessment of student performance.
28. Prelesson preparation includes preparation and assessment of:

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 a. Lesson evaluation and revision notes.
b. Goals, objectives, rationale, and content.
c. Goals, content, student entry level, and student activities.
d. Rationale, content, procedures, and evaluation.
29. Which is the best example of a student learning goal? the students will:
a. List five of the original thirteen colonies.
b. Present a three-minute oral report about a current issue.
c. Communicate effectively in a variety of ways.
d. Analyze a written report for clarity and cohesiveness.
30. Specific learning outcomes specify:
a. Student concepts to be learned.
b. Student observable behaviors.
c. Student achievement data.
d. Student attitudes.
31. Task analysis reflects which assumption?
a. Communicating to students what is to be taught is confusing to them.
b. Learning is somewhat random in the schools, so it helps to add a sequence.
c. The schools must help students to appreciate our culture in the best possible
manner.
d. Teaching tasks sequentially has been and continues to be critical in creating
student success.
32. Which set of action verbs would imply the simplest set of learning objectives if you
were using task analysis?
a. Interpret, illustrate, judge, solve
b. Define, record, cite, identify
c. List, compile, solve, explain
d. Estimate, contrast, judge, rate
33. Advance organizers provide for:
a. Six-step interaction models.
b. “Ideational scaffolds”
c. Concept sequencing.
d. Terminal objectives.
34. Ausubel’s Model is most nearly an example of?
a. Deductive presentation
b. Mastery learning
c. Inductive presentation
d. Deductive presentation
35. If you use multi methodology, which statement does not belong in the list?
a. A teacher uses the wait-time technique

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 b. A teacher speaker is invited to the class
c. A teacher lectures to every class everyday
d. A teacher uses direct instruction once each day
36. Which conclusion would be the most accurate regarding learning styles?
a. Incorporating learning styles in a classroom probably won’t hurt anyone.
b. Large-scale major research projects strongly validate learning styles.
c. Researcher have evidence that incorporating learning styles is a very simple
classroom procedure.
d. Learning modalities have been very thoroughly negated by researcher done in
New Zealand.
37. In Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, discipline is based on:
a. Moving students up the hierarchy as fast as possible.
b. Meeting self-actualization needs before physiological needs.
c. Addressing student needs to eliminate the behavior problem.
d. Stabilizing students at one level of the hierarchy.
38. Kohlberg supports the teaching of moral reasoning so that:
a. Students will have a feeling that there is one right solution to problems.
b. Students can learn to manage their lives from an ethical perspective.
c. Students can make quick decisions.
d. Students can learn to manage their lives by following the set rules of each society.
39. Reality Therapy emphasizes:
a. Preselection of consequences and punishment.
b. Teaching student to take responsibilities for their own behavior.
c. Sending students to the principal’s office to relieve teachers from undue
responsibility.
d. Discipline based on the teacher’s constant monitoring of students.
40. A Desist technique using public communication might be needed when:
a. Student has repeatedly forgotten homework.
b. A student “doodles” during a recitation period.
c. A student keeps talking to a peer during quiet time.
d. Two student disturb the class.
41. Self-Discipline emphasizes:
a. Student autonomy in solving behavior problem.
b. Tolerance of individual behaviors and needs.
c. Ordained, uniform rewards and punishments for behavior.
d. The needs for individual teacher to set their own standards.
42. One reason for removing the reinforcer in behavior modification is to:
a. Punish the child for inappropriate behaviors.
b. Test the effectiveness of the intervention.

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 c. Prevent teacher burnout on the behavior modification system.
d. To switch to more negative consequences when students are difficult.
43. In designing discipline plans, it is best to:
a. Start with expectation for small improvement in behavior.
b. Start with expectation for big improvements in behavior.
c. Set final goals and expect students to reach them quickly.
d. Emphasize punishment over reward when students are difficult.
44. Management problems occur frequently:
a. When the teacher sets the classroom rules.
b. During transitions from one activity to another.
c. When computer instruction is taking place.
d. During small group discussion.
45. Sudden behavioral changes may indicate:
a. Use of alcohol or drugs.
b. Family problems.
c. Child abuse.
d. All of the above.
46. Teacher in classroom tend to ask most question at which cognitive level:
a. Knowledge
b. Comprehension
c. Application
d. Evaluation
47. When teachers systematically raise their level of questioning:
a. Students get confused and become frustrated.
b. Students tend to respond with higher-level answer.
c. The quantity of questions becomes more important the quality.
d. Question tend to become haphazard.
48. Questioning is most effective as a teaching tool when:
a. One questioning strategy is adopted for all teaching situations.
b. Students are encouraged to ask their own question.
c. Questioning is random and sporadic.
d. Questions are geared to those students with the highest abilities.
49. Question may be best classified as:
a. Convergent, inquiry, divergent.
b. Simple, complex, mediary.
c. Convergent, divergent, evaluative, and reflective.
d. Evaluative, assessment, analysis.
50. Convergent levels of questioning:
a. Promote higher-level thinking, such as analysis and synthesis.

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 b. Encourage exploration of topics.
c. Promote students-directed instruction.
d. Are lower levels of questioning related to knowledge and comprehension.
51. Divergent levels of questioning:
a. Multiple student responses.
b. One “right-answer” responses.
c. Thinking at lower knowledge and comprehension levels.
d. Teacher-directed discussion.
52. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate use for questioning?
a. A teacher uses questioning to discipline a student who has no read the homework
assignment.
b. A teacher uses questioning to find out how much his or her students know about a
topic prior to studying the topic.
c. A teacher asks knowledge and application question to review for a test in health.
d. A teacher prompts students when they cannot answer the question.
53. Wait Time I involves these steps:
a. Ask a question, call on a student, waits a few seconds for a response.
b. Call on a students, ask a question, waits for a few seconds for a response.
c. Ask a question, wait a few seconds, call on a response.
d. Wait 5 seconds between questions for students to make transition in thinking.
54. Wait Time 11 requires the teacher to:
a. Ask a question, call on a students, waits a few seconds for response.
b. Pause after a student responds to a question to allow the students more time to
think and responds.
c. Wait indefinitely for students who seen unsure of themselves to responds.
d. Give the students hints if they cannot come up with the answer.
55. Wait time has the following effects:
a. Teachers tend to repeat themselves more.
b. Teachers ask more lower-level question.
c. Fewer students answer the questions.
d. Students give more complex and complete answer.
56. When a student does not correctly answer a question, the teacher should:
a. Quickly call on another student to avoid embarrassment.
b. Use positive reinforcement to prompt the student.
c. Ignore the student’s response and go on.
d. Tell the student what is wrong with the answer
57. What would be the best teacher response if a student gives an incorrect response?
a. “That’s not right, but don’tworry. I’ll call on someone else.”
b. “I’m not sure you read the assignment.

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 c. “Tell us some more… how did you come to that conclusion?”
d. “Interesting… but not what I’m looking for.”
58. Multiple responses can be encourage by:
a. Asking divergent or reflective questions.
b. Asking convergent, specific questions.
c. Asking one student to correct another’s response.
d. Asking each students different, relevant questions.
59. One way to encourage non volunteers to respond during class discussion is to:
a. Wait until they respond.
b. Ask them to reveal the assignment.
c. Prepare the students the day before with the question you may ask in class.
d. Take away discussion points for those who do not participate.
60. In conducting class recitations, teachers should:
a. Concentrate on asking a few highly verbal students to respond.
b. Complete student response for the student who has partially completed a
response.
c. Call on only those students who have their hands up.
d. Make sure all students are given time to respond.
61. Teacher idiosyncrasies that interfere with smooth verbal interaction in the classroom
include:
a. Repeating the students’ response.
b. Repeating the question.
c. Answering the question.
d. All of the above.
62. Concept review involves the process of:
a. Going over new material a minimum of three times.
b. Making up a guide for testing.
c. Relating previously learned concepts to new concepts you are teaching.
d. Repeating information and concepts learned to weeks before.
63. Process objectives focus on.
a. Specific behavioral outcomes.
b. The experience of learning.
c. Teacher behaviors.
d. Mastery of specific content.
64. “Discussion” is best defined as:
a. Exchange of ideas and opinions.
b. Teacher lecture and student response.
c. Assigned reading followed by recitation.
d. Teacher questions student response.

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65. One advantages of small-group discussion is:
a. The teacher maintains control of discussion.
b. Less personal interaction takes place.
c. Students take more responsibility for their own learning processes.
d. Topics for discussion are limited.
66. The most important criterion for facilitating small-group discussion is:
a. The makeup of the students in class.
b. The arrangement of furniture in the room.
c. The support of the principal.
d. The ability of the teacher to develop a “we” attitudes.
67. Evaluation of small-group discussion should foremost include:
a. Written assessment by the teacher.
b. Assessment by the group participants (students).
c. Assessment by the leader of each group.
d. Observation by an outsider.
68. Evaluation of group processes is important because:
a. Feedback can help students be better participants.
b. Students are concerned about grades.
c. All outcomes need to be measured.
d. Administrators are concerned about accountability.
69. The teacher’s role in setting up a class to conduct discussion is best described as:
a. Noninvolved--- the teacher simply stands back and watches.
b. Plans all the topics to be discussed.
c. Prepares the class with discussion skills.
d. Determines the tasks for every phase for all discussion.
70. Since listening is so important when using discussion groups, probably the best
teacher technique is to:
a. Practice the directions first on fellow teachers.
b. Give directions slowly but refuse to repeat them.
c. Ask if there are any questions after giving directions.
d. Call on one or two students to paraphrase directions after giving them, and then
clear up misconceptions.
71. In group activity, the most important reason for the teacher to be an active observer is
to:
a. Assess and guide individual and group growth in participatory skills.
b. See that they are recording what is going on.
c. Select appropriate leaders.
d. Direct students plans for class presentations.
72. The concept of group cohesion includes the three crucial elements of:

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 a. Role, leadership, and purpose.
b. Purpose, structure, and influence.
c. Influence, unity, and feedback.
d. Unity, purpose, and attraction.
73. Three important behaviors for a tutorial group leader to use are:
a. Questioning, criticizing, and praising.
b. Questioning, providing feedback, and encouraging.
c. Questioning, lecturing, and evaluating.
d. Questioning, evaluation, and criticizing.
74. Cooperative learning groups generally consist of:
a. Homogeneous grouping of students by ability.
b. Homogeneous grouping of students by gender.
c. Heterogeneous grouping of students by ability.
d. Student self-selected groups.
75. Research shows that cooperative learning:
a. Improves the academic achievement of students of varied abilities.
b. Improve student’s affective skills.
c. Improve student’s motivation to complete tasks.
d. All of the above.
76. Evaluation of cooperative learning groups includes:
a. Individual accountability, group accountability, assessment of group process.
b. Student evaluation, teacher evaluation, parent evaluation.
c. Individual accountability, group accountability, class accountability.
d. Product assessment and process assessment.
77. In guided inquiry:
a. The students have little control of the learning process.
b. The teacher provides the basic lesson structure, but let’s students draw their own
conclusions.
c. The students provide the basic lesson structure and draw their own conclusions.
d. The teacher maintains control of the learning process throughout the entire lesson.

78. Inquiry-based lessons:

a. Tend to emphasize process over content.

b. Take less time to complete.
c. Result in more material being covered.
d. Emphasize details over concepts.

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79.Inductive learning:

a. Can only be used in scientific and experimental fields of study.

b. Can be used in English, but not in teacher.
c. Has no place in physical education classes.
d. Can be used in any field of study.

80.The teacher’s role in conducting or facilitating an inquiry lesson is that of:

a. Social worker: to address the individual needs of students.

b. Greater clarifier: to help learners define problem and processes.
c. Information giver: to lectures students on important concepts.
d. Problem solver: to tell students how to solve problems.

81.Which questioning techniques would be most appropriate for most inquiry lessons?

a. Ask divergent, analysis, or evaluative questions.

b. Use questions requiring memory only.
c. Involve each student in questioning as little as possible.
d. Seek out those who are intrinsically motivated and ask them questions.

82.If, as a teacher, you decide to use inquiry strategies in your teaching, you assume that:

a. Inquiry requires a greater amount of time to achieve instructional objectives than

direct instruction.
b. Inquiry will require less time to achieve instructional objectives than direct
instruction strategies.
c. Inquiry requires about the same amount of time to achieve learning objectives.
d. Inquiry cannot have instructional objectives because it is open-ended.

83.Critical thinking is characterized by:

a. Knowledge-level thought processes.

b. Evaluation, judgment, analysis.
c. Creative, divergent, processes.
d. Intuition, spontaneity.

84.Metacognitive thinking skills can best be taught by:

a. Using overheads to explain the process.

b. Having students do individualize worksheets.
c. Teacher lecture.
d. Students and teachers sharing thinking processes out loud in the classroom.

85.The most important factor in thinking instruction is:

a. A teacher who understands and practices higher-level thinking processes.

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 b. Students who are highly motivated.
c. Students from a rich experiential background.
d. Strong administrative support.
86. Citing his criteria for problem solving, you agree that John Dewey had a sound theory
regarding the subject. Which criterion would support your decision from the list below?

a. Problems are only relevant to the student.

b. Problems are only relevant to the teacher and broader culture.

c. Problems should be significant to the culture as well as the learner.\

d. The type of problem being solved are unimportant; it is the process that is
important.

87. Which of the following is a process objective?

a. After reading Chapter 7, students will list three causes of the Civil War.

b. Given a lesson on study skills, students will write out a personal plan for
completing homework.

c. By working in cooperative groups, students will develop written skills.

d. At the end of week two, students will type at 30 words per minute with 90%
accuracy.

88. A student of yours sends in an idea to the Microsoft Corporation for a novel way of
graphing statistical analyses. This action would be classified as:

a. An absolute discovery.

b. An application guided inductive discovery.

c. A relative discovery.

d. A simulated discovery.

89. An example of an unguided inquiry lesson would be:

a. The teacher gives students some paint and asks them to find out everything they
can about color.

b. The teacher gives the students the three primary colors and asks them to discover
how to make the secondary, colors of green, orange, purple.

c. The teacher lectures on primary and secondary colors. Showing examples.

d. The teacher tells the students how to make secondary colors: the students make the
color as the teacher gives directions.

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 90. Of the objective test items, which is the most useful for assessing complex thinking
processes?

a. Matching.

b. Interpretative exercise.

c. Restricted-response essay.

d. Short answer.

91. Of the items listed below, which one would many teachers be reluctant to include in
determining achievement grades?

a. Unit tests.

b. Weekly quizzes.

c. Conduct.

d. Homework.

92. Several characteristics of anecdotal record keeping are listed below. Which one does
not belong?

a. Record primarily negative behaviors.

b. Keep record brief.

c. Don’t make judgments on a single occurrence.

d. Make a few observations each day.

93. The step in planning a unit assessment includes all of the following except one. Which
item should be omitted?

a. Make a matrix or two-way chart.

b. Prepare an answer sheet.

c. Determine unit objectives.

d. Outline unit content.

94. Teacher might make each of the following types of assessment. Which one would they be
least likely to make?

a. Pretest

b. Unit test

c. Summative test

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 d. Standardized test.

95. A major concern with assigning grades is:

a. The teacher always has far too much data.

b. The students prefer easy graders so they may show mastery of the subjects.

c. The teacher often needs more data.

d. The students always feel a loss of self-esteem.

96. When designing multiple-choice questions, the correct answer is hidden in the:

a. Alternative.

b. Distractors.

c. Stem.

d. None of the above.

97. For which type of content is the interpretive exercise the best assessing technique?

a. When computing columns of figures for arithmetic.

b. When true-false questions are to be made.

c. When you need a quick way of assessing knowledge.

d. When you assign students the task of inferring from a data-set.

98. Metacognition is:

a. An awareness of one’s own thinking processes.

b. Knowing basic facts.
c. A lower-level thinking process.
d. Understanding creative thinking process.

99. Which statements below is NOT characteristic of inductive inquiry teaching:

a. Teachers encourage a number of responses from students.

b. Students must be taught process associated with inquiry.
c. Solution to be problems should be found in student textbooks.
d. Students at all levels of learning can benefits from inquiry.

100. Which set of truncated steps is the most appropriate for problem solving or inquiry?

a. Make generalization, collect data, changeconclusions.

b. Collect data, make hypotheses, and define terms.
c. Define problem, collect data, and evaluate data.
d. Establish limits, fit data to hypothesis, make conclusions.

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Prof. Ed Implicit ANSWER KEY

1. d 44. b 87. c
2. c 45. d 88. a
3. b 46. a 89. a
4. c 47. b 90. b
5. d 48. b 91. c
6. c 49. c 92. a
7. a 50. d 93. b
8. a 51. a 94. d
9. c 52. a 95. c
10. c 53. c 96. a
11. b 54. b 97. d
12. b 55. d 98. a
13. b 56. b 99. c
14. d 57. c 100. c
15. a 58. a
16. d 59. c
17. b 60. d
18. c 61. d
19. a 62. c
20. c 63. b
21. d 64. a
22. d 65. c
23. c 66. d
24. b 67. b
25. d 68. a
26. b 69. c
27. b 70. d
28. c 71. a
29. b 72. d
30. b 73. b
31. d 74. c
32. b 75. d
33. b 76. a
34. a 77. c
35. c 78. a
36. a 79. d
37. c 80. b
38. b 81. a
39. b 82. a
40. d 83. b
41. c 84. d
42. b 85. a
43. a 86. a

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