1. The PCR technique was developed by_________.

(a) Kohler

(b) Altman

(c) Milstein

(d) Kary Mullis

2. The polymerase chain reaction is_________.

(a) It is a DNA sequencing technique.

(b) It is a DNA degradation technique

(c) It is a DNA amplification technique

(d) All of the above

3. Which of the following statements is accurate for the PCR – polymerase chain reaction?

(a) Automated PCR machines are called thermal cyclers

(b) A thermostable DNA polymerase is required

(c) Millions to billions of desired DNA copies can be produced from microgram quantities of DNA

(d) All of the above

4. Thermus aquatics is the source of _________.

(a) Vent polymerase

(b) Primase enzyme

(c) Taq polymerase

(d) Both a and c

5. Which of the following is not a thermostable polymerase?

(a) pfu polymerase

(b) Taq polymerase

(c) Vent polymerase

(d) DNA polymerase III

6. Which of the following is the basic requirement of PCR reaction?

(a) Two oligonucleotide primers

(b) DNA segment to be amplified

(c) A heat-stable DNA polymerase

(d) All of the above

7. Why are vent polymerase and Pfu more efficient than the Taq polymerase?
 (a) Because of proofreading activity

(b) Because of more efficient polymerase activity

(c) Both a and b

(d) None of the above

8. Which of the following is the first and the most important step in the polymerase chain reaction?

(a) Annealing

(b) Primer extension

(c) Denaturation

(d) None of the above

9. What is the process of binding of primer to the denatured strand called?

(a) Annealing

(b) Renaturation

(c) Denaturation

(d) None of the above

10. Denaturation is the process of _________.

(a) Heating between 72°C

(b) Heating between 40 to 60°C

(c) Heating between 90 to 98°C

(d) None of the above

11. Which of the following statements are true regarding PCR?

(a) Primer extension occurs at 72°C

(b) Denaturation involves heating at 90 to 98°C

(c) Annealing involves the binding of primer between 40 to 60C°C

(d) All of the above

12. Polymerase used for PCR is extracted from _____________ .

(a) Homo sapiens

(b) Thermus aquaticus

(c) Escherichia coli

(d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

13. At what temperature does denaturation of DNA double helix take place?

(a) 54°C
 (b) 74°C

(c) 94°C

(d) 60°C

14. How many DNA duplexes are obtained from one DNA duplex after 4 cycles of PCR?

(a) 8

(b) 4

(c) 32

(d) 16

15. Primers used for the process of polymerase chain reaction are _________.

(a) Single-stranded RNA oligonucleotide

(b) Single-stranded DNA oligonucleotide

(c) Double-stranded RNA oligonucleotide

(d) Single-stranded DNA oligonucleotide

16. At what temperature does annealing of DNA and primer take place?

(a) 54°C

(b) 96°C

(c) 42°C

(d) 74°C

17. Reverse transcription PCR uses _________.

(a) RNA as a template to form DNA

(b) mRNA as a template to form cDNA

(c) DNA as a template to form ssDNA

(d) All of the above

18. Which of the following is an application of polymer chain reaction?

(a) Site-directed mutagenesis

(b) Site-specific recombination

(c) Site-specific translocation

(d) All of the above

19. Which of the following is true for asymmetric PCR?

(a) Used for generating double-stranded copies for DNA sequence

(b) Used for generating single-stranded copies for DNA sequence

 (c) Both a and b

(d) None of the above

20. The polymer chain reaction is used for_________.

(a) Amplifying gene of interest

(b) Constructing RAPD maps

(c) Detecting the presence of the transgene in an organism

(d) All of the above

21. Restriction enzymes were discovered by

a. Smith and Nathans

b. Alexander Fleming
c. Berg
d. None

22. Bacteria protect themselves from viruses by fragmenting viral DNA with

a. Ligase
b. Endonuclease
c. Exonuclease
d. Gyrase

23. Klenow fragment is derived from

a. DNA Ligase
b. DNA Pol-I
c. DNA Pol-II
d. Reverse Transcriptase

24. Southern blotting is

a. Attachment of probes to DNA fragments

b. Transfer of DNA fragments from electrophoretic gel to a nitrocellulose sheet
c. Comparison of DNA fragments to two sources
d. Transfer of DNA fragments to electrophoretic gel from cellulose membrane

25. ELISA is

a. Using radiolabelled second antibody

b. Usage of RBCs
c. Using complement-mediated cell lysis
d. Addition of substrate that is converted into a coloured end product

26. The Golden Rice variety is rich in

a. Vitamin C
b. Β-carotene and ferritin
c. Biotin
d. Lysine
27. The DNA fragments have sticky ends due to

a. Endonuclease
b. Unpaired bases
c. Calcium ions
d. Free methylation

28. Plasmids are used as cloning vectors for which of the following reasons?

a. Can be multiplied in culture

b. Self-replication in bacterial cells
c. Can be multiplied in laboratories with the help of enzymes
d. Replicate freely outside bacterial cells

29. The human genome project was launched in the year

a. 1980
b. 1973
c. 1990
d. 1989

30. The vaccines prepared through recombinant DNA technology are

a. Third generation vaccines

b. First-generation vaccines
c. Second-generation vaccines
d. None

31. Which is a genetically modified crop?

a. Bt-cotton
b. Bt-brinjal
c. Golden rice
d. All

32. The first transgenic plant to be produced is

a. Brinjal
b. Tobacco
c. Rice
d. Cotton

33. RNA interference helps in

a. Cell proliferation
b. Micropropagation
c. Cell defence
d. Cell differentiation

34. Which of the following is the quality of improved transgenic basmati rice?

a. Gives high yield but no characteristic aroma

b. Gives high yield and is rich in vitamin A
c. Does not require chemical fertilizers and growth hormones
 d. Resistant to insects and diseases

35. The first clinical application of gene therapy over a 4 year old girl was for

a. Adenosine deaminase deficiency

b. Adenosine deficiency
c. Growth deficiency
d. Adenine deficiency

36. Excision and insertion of a gene is called

a. Biotechnology
b. Genetic engineering
c. Cytogenetics
d. Gene therapy

37. The expression of a transgene in the target tissue is identified by a

a. Transgene
b. Promoter
c. Enhancer
d. Reporter

38. ———– is used as a vector for cloning into higher organisms

a. Retrovirus
b. Baculovirus
c. Salmonella typhimurium
d. Rhizopus nigricans

39. Which bacterium is used in the production of insulin by genetic engineering?

a. Saccharomyces
b. Rhizobium
c. Escherichia
d. Mycobacterium

40. Animal biotechnology involves

a) production of valuable products in animals using rDNA technology

b) rapid multiplication of animals of desired genotypes

c) alteration of genes to make it more desirable

d) all of these

41. Animal cell cultures are used widely for the production of

a) insulin

b) somatostatin
c) mabs

d) thyroxine

42. The first vaccine developed from animal cell culture was

a) Hepatitis B vaccine

b) Influenza vaccine

c) Small pox vaccine

d) Polio vaccine

43. Which of the following are commonly produced in animal cell cultures

a) Interferon

b) mab

c) vaccines

d) all of these

44. The cell line used for the production of polio vaccine was

a) Primate kidney cell line

b) CHO cell line

c) Dog kidney cell line

d) mouse fibroblast cell line

45. Recombinant proteins are

a) proteins synthesized in animals

b) proteins synthesized by transgene in host cell by rDNA technology

c) proteins synthesised in cells that are produced by protoplast fusion

d) proteins synthesized in mutated cell lines

46. Interferons are

a) anti bacterial proteins

b) anti-viral proteins

c) bacteriostatic proteins
d) all of these

47. The virus commonly used to infect cell cultures for the production of interferon is

Sendai virus

a) Corona virus

b) Sendai virus

c) Polio virus

d) Small pox virus

48. Hybrid antibodies are

a) antibodies produced in cell cultures

b) antibodies designed using rDNA technology produced in cell cultures

c) antibodies produced in invivo

d) both a and b

49. The technique used in animal biotechnology for the rapid multiplication and production of
animals with a desirable genotype is

a) protoplast fusion and embryo transfer

b) hybrid selection and embryo transfer

c) in vitro fertilization and embryo transfer

d) all of these

50. The production of complete animals from somatic cells of an animal is called

a) gene cloning

b) animal cloning

c) cell cloning

d) all of these

51. The first successfully cloned animal was

a) monkey

b) gibbon

c) sheep

d) rabbit

52. In humans, the babies produced by in vitro fertilization and embryo transfer was popularly called
as

a) invitro babies

b) test tube babies

c) invitro-invivo babies

d) all of these

53. Examples for clones

a) Monozygotic identical twins

b) Vegetative reproducing organism

c) Sexually reproducing organisms

d) All except C

54. Transgenic organisms means

a) An organism with all desirable characters

b)an organism with a particular mutated gene

c) an organism with foreign gene by genetic engineering

d) An organism with a number of mutated characters.

55. Genetically modified DNA fragments are called

a) Recombinant DNA

b) S DNA

c) Mitochondrial DNA

d) None of these

56. Restriction endonuclease (RE) was discovered by

restriction endonuclease

a) Meselson

b) Cohen

c) Arber

d) Watson

57. Molecular scissors are

a) Ligase

b) Helicase

c) Restriction endonuclease

d) DNA polymerase

58. Totipotency means

a) Ability of a cell to grow into a complete plant

b) Ability of an animal cell to recombine with plant cell

c) Ability of a cell to grow into a complete individual

d) Ability of an animal cell to fully developed animal cell

59. Artificial synthesis of DNA without a template was first done by

a) Khorana

b) Geier

c) Meselson

d) Watson

60. The technique of DNA fingerprinting was perfected by

a) Stahl

b) Beadle and Tatum

c) Franklin

d) Alec Jeffreys
61. Gene cloning means

a) Production of mutated genes

b) Production of wild genes

c) Production of dominant genes

d) production of large populations of desired DNA fragments

62. For DNA finger printing we need

a) cells from the tip of finger

b) cells from any part of the body

c) cells from the reproductive organs

d) any cells from the fingers