Consolidation Question Solution PDF
Consolidation Question Solution PDF
$
Non•current assets
PPE
(138,000 + 115,000 – 4,500 (W8)) 248,500
Investments
(98,000 – 76,000 – 20,000) 2,000
Current Assets
Inventory
(15,000 + 17,000 – 1,600 (W7)) (Number 1) 30,400
Receivables
(19,000 + 20,000 – 2,500 (CIT) – 1,500 (intra•group)) 35,000 - 1500 EUR is paid by
Susan and Karl has recorded it in its Accounts Receivable. 1500 Susan has paid but
Karl has not recorded in Accounts Receivable.. Intercompany balances must be
removed, so we remove 4000 from AR
Cash
(2,000 + 2,500 (CIT)) 4,500 2500 is added because the
money paid from Susan is not recorded by Karl
–––––––
341,650
–––––––
Share capital 50,000
Group retained earnings (W6) 186,090
Non•controlling Interest (W5) 51,060
–––––––
287,150
Non•current liabilities
(20,000 – 20,000) –
Current liabilities
(33,000 + 23,000 – 1,500 (intra•group)) 54,500
–––––––
341,650
Workings:
(W1) Group structure
Karl Owns 60% Of Susan
Non control Interest =40% May-Nov =7/12
(W2) Net Assets of Subsidiary At Acqusition date (number 9)
$ Share capital 40,000
Retained earnings 63,750
––––––
103,750
––––––
RE @ reporting date 69,000
Post•acq profit (7/12 × 9,000) (number 5) 5,250
––––––
RE @ acq'n (balance) (ß) 63,750
(W3) Goodwill
Parent holding (investment) at fair value 76,000
NCI value at acquisition (number 3) 50,000
–––––––
126,000
Less:
Fair value of net assets at acquisition (W2) (103,750)
–––––––
Goodwill on acquisition 22,250
Impairment (number 4) (1,000)
–––––––
Carrying goodwill 21,250
––––––– $
This PURP of 4500 is because The fixed asset has been sold at 15000 whereas its cost is 10000.
We should not record any profit of any sale between group companies.
15000 as value of asset less depreciation of (15000 x 1/5 x 6/12) = 15000 – 1500 = 13500
The correct approach is Fixed asset cost sold is 10000 less depreciation (10000x1/5x6/12) = 10000
– 1000 = 9000
Susan has recorded the asset at 13500 where as it should be 9000 hence PURP is 4500