3 YEAR LL.

B
(Final)

Part I

1. India became a sovereign, democratic republic on

(A) August 15, 1947 (B) January 30, 1948

(C) January 26, 1950 (D) November 26, 1929

2. In India Secularism means

(A) suppression of all religions

(B) freedom of worship to minorities
(C) separation of religion from State
(D) a system of political and social philosophy that does not favour any
particular religious faith

3. Which of the following is not a part of the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?

(A) Secularism (B) Socialism

(C) Democratic Republic (D) Federalism

4. On whom does the Constitution confer special responsibility for the enforcement of
Fundamental Rights?

(A) Parliament (B) Supreme Court

(C) President (D) State Legislature

5. Untouchability is abolished and its practice is punishable according to

(A) Article 15 (B) Article 16

(C) Article 17 (D) Article 18

6. The ‘President’s Rule’ in a state means that the state is ruled by

(A) the President directly

(B) a caretaker government
(C) the Chief Minister nominated by the President
(D) the Governor of the State

7. Who administers the oath of office to the President of India?

(A) Chief Justice of India (B) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(C) Prime Minister (D) Vice President

8. Which of the following appointments is not made by the President of India?

(A) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (B) Chief Justice of India

(C) Chief of the Air Force (D) Chief of the Army
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9. The Constitution

(A) is silent on the President’s re-election to the office

(B) allows re-election of a person to the President’s post
(C) restricts a person to remain President for only two terms
(D) has been amended to allow a person only one term as President

10. How many members of the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President of India?

(A) 10 (B) 11
(C) 12 (D) 13

11. Who was the Chief Justice of India when Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was
introduced to the Indian Judicial System?

(A) M. Hidayatullah (B) A.M. Ahmadi

(C) A.S. Anand (D) P.N. Bhagwati

12. Who appoints the Governor of Jammu and Kashmir?

(A) Chief Minister of the State

(B) Chief Justice of the High Court
(C) President
(D) Prime Minister

13. The first general elections in India were held in

(A) 1949 (B) 1950

(C) 1951 (D) 1947

14. A Municipal Corporation is set up in a city with a population of not less than

(A) 1 lakh (B) 12 lakhs

(C) 10 lakhs (D) 5 lakhs

15. The Right to Information Act came into force in

(A) 2003 (B) 2004

(C) 2005 (D) 2006

16. Who among the following is the author of the book “Law and Life”?

(A) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer (B) Justice A.R. Lakshman

(C) Justice J.S. Verma (D) Justice Y.V. Chandrachud
 3

17. The precise formulation of the specific accusation made against a person who is
entitled to know its nature at the earliest stage is called

(A) FIR (B) Charge

(C) Charge Sheet (D) Police Report

18. Which of the following is India’s top anti-corruption watchdog?

(A) CBI Director (B) NIA Director

(C) CVC (D) Director General Police

19. The manager of waqf is known as

(A) Sajjadanashin (B) Khadim

(C) Mutawalli (D) Mujawar

20. Medical Science used for investigating crimes is known as

(A) Criminal Medicine (B) Epistemological Science

(C) Forensic Science (D) Ontological Science

21. The language of the Supreme Court is

(A) Hindi
(B) Language of the Parties
(C) Any language in the 8th Schedule
(D) English

22. Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands is within the jurisdiction of

(A) Madras High Court (B) Calcutta High Court

(C) Gauhati High Court (D) Delhi High Court

23. Is the Minor’s contract a nullity?

(A) Yes (B) No

(C) Not in normal cases (D) Depends upon facts of the case

24. Person appointed to see that a will is carried in to effect is called

(A) Attester (B) Executor

(C) Notary (D) Power of Attorney

25. The killing of a new born child by its parents is

(A) Abortion (B) Foeticide

(C) Infanticide (D) Malfeasance
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26. Negligence means

(A) Omission to do something which a reasonable man would do

(B) Doing something which a prudent and reasonable man would not do
(C) Causing damage
(D) Both (A) and (B)

27. Public holidays are declared under

(A) Negotiable Instruments Act (B) Public Employees Act

(C) Contract Act (D) Labour Welfare Laws

28. An insolvent person is called

(A) Approver (B) Bankrupt

(C) Donee (D) None of the above

29. ‘Alibi’ Means

(A) Not guilty (B) Somewhere else

(C) Innocent (D) None of the above

30. The word “due process of law” indicates

(A) in course through courts

(B) by police action
(C) by the interference of the government
(D) Any of the above

31. In the Constitution of India, the Right to ‘Constitutional Remedies’ has been provided
in Article

(A) 30 (B) 31
(C) 35 (D) 32

32. The Indian President is a

(A) Real Executive (B) Titular Executive

(C) Monarch (D) None of the above

33. After retirement, the High Court Judge can practice in

(A) any High Court

(B) the Supreme Court
(C) the Supreme Court and High Courts where he has never been a judge
(D) no Courts
 5

34. How many Schedules are there in the Constitution of India?

(A) 22 (B) 18
(C) 15 (D) 12

35. What is the duration of zero hour in the Lok Sabha?

(A) 15 minutes (B) Half an hour

(C) One hour (D) Not specified

36. White Paper is a

(A) Government supplement on policy matters

(B) Fine paper of printing
(C) Paper used in currency notes
(D) Paper on which a judge gives a death sentence

37. Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing
International treaties

(A) with the consent of all the States

(B) with the consent of the majority of States
(C) with the consent of the States concerned
(D) without the consent of any States

38. Goods displayed in a shop with a price tag is

(A) an offer (B) an invitation to offer

(C) a counter offer (D) a promise

39. The concept of fundamental duties of Indian Constitution was borrowed from which
among the following?

(A) Constitution of Australia

(B) U.N. Charter
(C) Constitution of Socialist Countries such as Russia
(D) Constitution of U.K.
 6

40. With reference to the State Legislative Council in India, which among the following
statements is / are correct?

1. The Legislative Council is a continuing House and two-third of the members

retire in two years.
2. Members of local bodies elect one-third of the total number of members of the
legislative council.
3. If a state legislative council is to be created or abolished, a resolution to that
effect is to be first passed by the State legislature by a two-third majority.

Choose the correct option from the codes given below:

(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2 and 3

(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3

41. Section 300 of the Indian Penal Code is related to which among the following?

(A) Murder (B) Culpable Homicide

(C) Death under Negligence (D) None of the above

42. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

1. Right to Property is a legal right under Article 301.
2. Article 21-A was incorporated in the Indian Constitution as a fundamental right by
the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.

(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2

(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

43. Who granted Magna Carta to the people of England?

(A) King Charles I (B) King John

(C) Churchill (D) James II

44. Human rights day is celebrated on

(A) 10th June (B) 10th July

(C) 10th January (D) 10th December

45. Emergency Provisions of the Constitution of India are borrowed from

(A) Germany (B) USA

(C) USSR (D) UK

46. ‘Caveat emptor’ means

(A) Let the seller beware (B) Let the buyer beware
(C) Agreement with Emperor (D) Let the buyer and seller beware
 7

47. Which writ can be issued by a High Court as a correctional directive to subordinate
courts?

(A) Mandamus (B) Prohibition

(C) Quo Warranto (D) Certiorari

48. The Chief Executive of the United Nations Organization is the

(A) President of the General Assembly

(B) Secretary General of United Nations Organization
(C) President of the Security Council
(D) None of the Above

49. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below.

List-I List-II
(a) Habeas Corpus 1. Non-performance of public duty
(b) Mandamus 2. Unlawful detention
(c) Quo Warranto 3. Correctional direction to subordinate courts
(d) Certiorari 4. Unlawful occupation of public office
5. Double jeopardy

(A) (a) – 1, (b) – 2, (c) – 3, (d) – 4 (B) (a) – 2, (b) – 1, (c) – 4, (d) – 3
(C) (a) – 3, (b) – 1, (c) – 2, (d) – 5 (D) (a) – 4, (b) – 5, (c) – 1, (d) – 2

50. The Consumer Protection Act was enacted in

(A) 1984 (B) 1986

(C) 1996 (D) 2006

Direction (Qn. Nos. 51 – 55): Read the puzzle and answer the following questions
based on it.
A, B, C, D, E and F are students.
A is not a Law Student.
B and E are not Engineering Students.
D is not a Medical Student.
A and D are not Engineering Students.
A and B are not alike.
One student can study more than one subject.

51. Which two students are Medical students?

(A) A and B (B) E and F

(C) C and D (D) B and F

52. Which two students are Engineering students?

(A) A and C (B) B and F

(C) C and F (D) B and E
 8

53. Which two students are Law Students?

(A) A and B (B) C and A

(C) B and D (D) A and F

54. Which student is both a Law and a Medical student but not an Engineering student?

(A) E (B) F
(C) A (D) B

55. Which two students are neither Engineering students nor Medical Students?

(A) A and B (B) D and E

(C) F and C (D) B and D

Direction (Qn. Nos. 56 – 60): Read the puzzle and answer the following questions
based on it.
There are four friends – Radhey, Venky, Kumar nad Nandi.
Radhey and Venky play football.
Radhey studies Commerce
Nandi is a boxer.
Both the football players study Mathematics.
One of the friends is a cricketer and studies Chemistry and Biology.
One football player also studies Physics.
The boxers study Mathematics and Accountancy.
All the friends study two subjects each and play one game each.

56. Who is a cricketer?

(A) Radhey (B) Venky

(C) Kumar (D) Nandi

57. Who does not study Mathematics?

(A) Radhey (B) Venky

(C) Kumar (D) Nandi

58. Who studies Physics?

(A) Radhey (B) Venky

(C) Kumar (D) Nandi

59. Who studies Commerce and plays football?

(A) Radhey (B) Venky

(C) Kumar (D) Nandi
 9

60. Name the person who is not a boxer but studies both Chemistry and Biology?

(A) Radhey (B) Venky

(C) Kumar (D) Nandi

Direction (Qn. Nos. 61 – 65) : In each of these questions, there are two statements 1
and 2 followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Decide which of the given
conclusions logically follow from the two given statements, disregarding commonly
known facts.

61. Statements :
1. Alcoholic drinks are dangerous to health.
2. All old women drink whisky.

Conclusions :
I. All old women have poor health.
II. All young men are in good health.

(A) if only conclusion I follows (B) if only conclusion II follows

(C) if either I or II follows (D) if neither I nor II follows

62. Statements :
1. Some parrots are crows.
2. No crow is green.

Conclusions :
I. No parrot is green.
II. No crow is white

(A) if only conclusion I follows (B) if only conclusion II follows

(C) if either I or II follows (D) if neither I nor II follows

63. Statements :
1. All ants are hardworking.
2. Some ants are lazy.

Conclusions :
I. All lazy ants are hardworking.
II. All hardworking ants are lazy.

(A) if only conclusion I follows (B) if only conclusion II follows

(C) if either I or II follows (D) if neither I nor II follows
 10

64. Statements :
1. All rivers are mountains.
2. Some rivers are deserts.

Conclusions :
I. Some mountains are deserts.
II. Some deserts are not mountains.

(A) if only conclusion I follows (B) if only conclusion II follows

(C) if either I or II follows (D) if neither I nor II follows

65. Statements :
1. All pigeons are parrots.
2. All parrots are crows.

Conclusions :
I. All crows are pigeons.
II. All pigeons are crows.

(A) if only conclusion I follows (B) if only conclusion II follows

(C) if either I or II follows (D) if neither I nor II follows

66. Complete this series 2, 4, 7, 11, ?, 22

(A) 14 (B) 15
(C) 16 (D) 17

67. Square root of 625 is

(A) 12 (B) 15
(C) 25 (D) 35

68. Find the odd man out

(A) eye (B) ear

(C) nose (D) throat

Direction (Qn. Nos. 69 – 73) :

Study the following series and choose the number which should come next in the
series.

69. 7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12, ...

(A) 7 (B) 10
(C) 12 (D) 13

70. 36, 34, 30, 28, 24, ...

(A) 20 (B) 22
(C) 23 (D) 26
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71. 53, 53, 40, 40, 27, 27, ...

(A) 12 (B) 14
(C) 27 (D) 53

72. 58, 52, 46, 40, 34, ...

(A) 26 (B) 28
(C) 30 (D) 32

73. 31, 29, 24, 22, 17, ...

(A) 15 (B) 14
(C) 13 (D) 12

Direction (Qn. Nos. 74 and 75) :

Read each definition and all four choices carefully, and find the answer that provides
the best example of the given definition.

74. Applying for Seasonal Employment occurs when a person requests to be considered
for a job that is dependent on a particular season or time of year. Which situation
below is the best example of Applying for Seasonal Employment?

(A) The Ski instructors at Top of the Peak Ski School work from December
through March.
(B) Matthew prefers jobs that allow him to work outdoors.
(C) Lucinda makes an appointment with the beach resort restaurant manager to
interview for the summer waitressing position that was advertised in the
newspaper.
(D) Doug's ice cream shop stays open until 11 p.m. during the summer months.

75. Violating an Apartment Lease occurs when a tenant does something prohibited by the
legally binding document that he or she has signed with a landlord. Which situation
below is the best example of violating an Apartment Lease?

(A) Tim has decided to move to another city, so he calls his landlord to tell him
that he is not interested in renewing his lease when it expires next month.
(B) Valerie recently lost her job and, for the last three months, has neglected to
pay her landlord the monthly rent they agreed upon in writing when she
moved into her apartment eight months ago.
(C) Mark writes a letter to his landlord that lists numerous complaints about the
apartment he has agreed to rent for two years.
(D) Leslie thinks that her landlord is neglecting the building in which she rents
an apartment. She calls her attorney to ask for advice.
 12

Part II

Direction (Qn. Nos. 76 – 84) : Choose the word from the following words which best
expresses the meaning of the word given in capital letters.

76. ADMONITION

(A) Warning (B) Pardon

(C) Amazement (D) Award

77. ONEROUS

(A) Difficult (B) Awesome

(C) Burdensome (D) Dutiful

78. TENTATIVE

(A) Unreliable (B) Current

(C) Provisional (D) Final

79. GORGEOUS

(A) Refined (B) Tasteful

(C) Elegant (D) Dazzling

80. ENDORSEMENT

(A) Reprimand (B) Censure

(C) Commendation (D) Reproach

81. GENESIS

(A) Relevant (B) Beginning

(C) Style (D) Movement

82. ULTERIOR

(A) Revealed (B) Implied

(C) Extreme (D) Decisive

83. PREROGATIVE

(A) Privilege (B) Request

(C) Desire (D) Command

84. ERADICATE

(A) Complicate (B) Indicate

(C) Dedicate (D) Eliminate
 13

Direction (Qn. Nos. 85 – 91): Choose antonym of the word from among the choices
given.

85. VIOLENT

(A) Tame (B) Humble

(C) Gentle (D) Harmless

86. IMPROPRIETY

(A) Decorum (B) Purity

(C) Ideal (D) Conformity

87. CONTENTED

(A) Rash (B) Narrow-minded

(C) Gloomy (D) Disappointed

88. ARROGANT

(A) Proud (B) Meek

(C) Insolent (D) Rude

89. INDIGENOUS

(A) Native (B) Cheap

(C) Foreign (D) Inferior

90. SCEPTICAL

(A) Inquisitive (B) Hopeful

(C) Indictive (D) Intuitive

91. DEROGATORY

(A) Immediate (B) Praising

(C) Opinionated (D) Roguish

Direction (Qn. Nos. 92 – 96) : Select a single word for the sentence given.

92. To examine one’s own thoughts and feelings

(A) Meditation (B) Retrospection

(C) Reflection (D) Introspection

93. A government by the nobles

(A) Democracy (B) Bureaucracy

(C) Autocracy (D) Aristocracy
 14

94. Having no beginning or end to its existence

(A) Eternal (B) Obscure

(C) Universal (D) Immeasurable

95. A person who rules without consulting the opinion of others

(A) Democrat (B) Bureaucrat

(C) Autocrat (D) Fanatic

96. A person without manners or polish

(A) Rustic (B) Naive

(C) Boorish (D) Barbarian

97. I met him after a long time, but he gave me the cold shoulder.
Which of the following best expresses the meaning of the underlined phrase?

(A) scolded me (B) insulted me

(C) abused me (D) ignored me

98. Change the following sentence into indirect speech.

"If you don't keep quiet I shall shoot you", he said to her in a calm voice.

(A) He warned her to shoot if she didn't keep quiet calmly.

(B) He said calmly that I shall shoot you if you don't be quiet.
(C) He warned her calmly that he would shoot her if she didn't keep quiet.
(D) Calmly he warned her that be quiet or else he will have to shoot her.

Direction (Qn. Nos. 99 and 100) : In each question below, there is a sentence of
which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P,
Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.

99. When he

P: did not know

Q: he was nervous and
R: heard the hue and cry at midnight
S: what to do
The Proper sequence should be

(A) RQPS (B) QSPR

(C) SQPR (D) PQRS
 15

100. It has been established that

P: Einstein was
Q: although a great scientist
R: weak in arithmetic
S: right from his school days
The Proper sequence should be

(A) SRPQ (B) QPRS

(C) QPSR (D) RQPS

Direction (Qn. Nos. 101 – 104) : Read the following passage carefully and answer
the questions given below.

PASSAGE: Through the break between the trees, she looked into one of the lighted
windows of the shop. She could see the cartons of biscuits neatly piled near the far
wall. Against conscious wishes Cissy’s salivary glands starred pumping fluid into her
mouth. She felt her heart beating strongly from the top of her throat into the back of
her mouth. “There is nobody,” she thought. “I can dash in and take a box and dash
out again. I know it is sin but the Lord will not punish us if we are so hungry.”

101. Cissy’s reaction when she saw the biscuit cartons

(A) She wanted to take all the cartons

(B) Her mouth started watering
(C) She felt hungry
(D) She was surprised to see the biscuits

102. The Passage describes

(A) Cissy’s bad habit (B) Cissy’s temptation before stealing

(C) Cissy’s courage to steal (D) Good quality of biscuits

103. How was Cissy able to see the cartons of biscuits?

(A) From the flavor of biscuits in the room

(B) She saw an opened carton
(C) She was aided by a light in the room
(D) Because some biscuit cartons were damaged

104. Why did her heart beat strongly?

(A) She was thinking of stealing the biscuits

(B) The flavor of biscuits was tempting
(C) She thought nobody was watching her
(D) She was eager to eat the biscuits
 16

Direction (Qn. Nos. 105 – 107) : Read the following passage carefully and answer
the questions given below

PASSAGE: Until very recently, it was universally believed that men are congenitally
more intelligent than women; even so enlightened a man as Spinoza decided against
votes for women on this ground. Among white men, it is held that white men are by
nature superior to black men; in Japan, on the contrary, it is thought that yellow is the
best colour. In Haiti, when they make statues of Christ and Saitan, they make Christ
black and Saitan white. Aristotle and Plato considered Greeks so innately superior to
barbarians, slavery was justified as long as the master was Greek and the slave
barbarian.

105. In Haiti, people believe that

(A) Christ was black (B) black was good

(C) all black men were evil (D) all white men were evil

106. Aristotle and Plato supported slavery because they thought

(A) the Greek to be superior to barbarians

(B) the barbarians were hardworking
(C) the barbarians to be superior to Greeks
(D) the barbarians had no other means to earn

107. Spinoza decided against votes for women because according to him

(A) they did not deserve to have votes

(B) they were generally unintelligent
(C) they were naturally less gifted with intelligence
(D) they were not trustworthy
 17

Direction (Qn. Nos. 108 – 120) : Read the following passage carefully and answer
the questions given below:

PASSAGE: The public distribution system, which provides food at low prices is a
subject of vital concern. There is a growing realisation that though India has enough
food to feed its masses two square meals a day, the monster of starvation and food
insecurity continues to haunt the poor in our country.
Increasing the purchasing power of the poor through providing productive
employment leading to rising income, and thus good standard of living is the ultimate
objective of public policy. However, till then, there is a need to provide assured
supply of food through a restructured, more efficient and decentralised public
distribution system (PDS).

Although the PDS is extensive-it is one of the largest such systems in the world - it
has yet to reach the rural poor and the far off places. It remains an urban phenomenon,
with the majority of the rural poor still out of its reach due to lack of economic and
physical access. The poorest in the cities and the migrants are left out for they
generally do not possess ration cards. The allocation of PDS supplies in big cities is
larger than in rural areas. In view of such deficiencies in the system, the PDS urgently
needs to be streamlined. Also considering the large food grains production combined
with food subsidy on one hand and the continuing slow starvation and dismal poverty
of the rural population on the other, there is a strong case for making PDS target
group oriented.

The growing salaried class is provided job security, it enjoys almost hundred percent
insulation against inflation. These gains of development have not percolated down to
the vast majority of our working population. If one compares only dearness allowance
to the employees in public and private sector and looks at its growth in the past few
years, the rising food subsidy is insignificant to the point of inequity. The food
subsidy is kind of D.A. to the poor, the self-employed and those in the unorganised
sector of the economy. However, what is most unfortunate is that out of the large
budget of the so called food subsidy, the major part of it is administrative cost and
wastages. A small portion of the above budget goes to the real consumer and an even
lesser portion to the poor who are in real need.

It is true that subsidies should not become a permanent feature, except for the
destitute, disabled widows and the old. It is also true that subsidies often create a
psychology of dependence and hence is habit-forming, killing the general initiative of
the people. By making PDS target group oriented, not only the poorest and neediest
would be reached without additional cost, but it will actually cut overall costs incurred
on large cities and for better off localities. When the food and food subsidy are
limited, the rural and urban poor should have the priority in the PDS supplies. The
PDS should be closely linked with programmes of employment generation and
nutrition improvement.

108. Which of the following is the main reason for insufficient supply of enough food to
the poorest?

(A) Mismanagement of food stocks

 18

(B) Absence of proper public distribution system

(C) Production of food is less than the demand
(D) Government’s apathy towards the poor

109. What, according to the passage, is the main purpose of public policy in the long run?

(A) Reducing the cost of living index by increasing supplies

(B) Providing enough food to all the citizen
(C) Good standard of living through productive employment
(D) Equalising per capita income across different strata of society

110. Which of the following is true of public distribution system?

(A) It has improved its effectiveness over the years

(B) It has remained effective only in the cities
(C) It is the unique in the world because of its effectiveness
(D) It has reached the remotest corner of the country

111. The word ‘Square’ as used in the passage means

(A) rich (B) sumptuous

(C) sufficient (D) quality

112. Which of the following words is the same in meaning as ‘power’ as used in the
passage?

(A) vigour (B) energy

(C) influence (D) capacity

113. What, according to the passage, is the main concern about the PDS?

(A) It has not been able to develop confidence in the people at large.
(B) It has not been able to utilise the entire food grains stock available.
(C) It has effectively channelized the food grains to all sectors.
(D) It has not been able to provide sufficient food to the poorer section of the
society.

114. What should be an appropriate step to make the PDS effective?

(A) To make it target group oriented.

(B) To increase the amount of food grains per ration card.
(C) To decrease the allotment of food grains to urban sector.
(D) To reduce administrative cost.
 19

115. Which of the following, according to the passage, is compared with dearness
allowance?

(A) Food for work programme

(B) Unemployment allowance
(C) Food subsidy
(D) Procurement price of food grains

116. Food subsidy leads to which of the following?

(A) Sense of insecurity

(B) Increased dependence
(C) Shortage of food grains
(D) Decrease in food grains production

117. What, according to the passage, would be the outcome of making the PDS target
group oriented?

(A) It will abolish the imbalance of urban and rural sector.

(B) It will remove poverty.
(C) It will give food to the poorest without additional cost.
(D) It will motivate the target group population to work more.

118. Which is the same in meaning as ‘system’ as used in the passage?

(A) Routine (B) Mechanism

(C) Machine (D) Procedure

119. What does ‘cut’, as used in the passage, mean?

(A) Damage (B) Cease

(C) Destroy (D) Reduce

120. Which is the same in meaning as the word ‘point’?

(A) Extent (B) Direct

(C) Position (D) Tip

Direction (Qn. Nos. 121 – 125) : Rearrange the following four sentences I, II, III and
IV in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then mark the correct
sequence as your answer.
121.
I It also gives rise to a feeling of animosity among the different sections of
society.
II In a democratic system, frequent use of power is never desirable, be it on the
part of government or the people.
III Therefore, citizens should never resort to violent ways and means in
democracy, though they have the right to oppose the government.
IV It destroys the stability and security in public life.
 20

(A) IV, II, I, III (B) II, IV, I, III

(C) II, IV, III, I (D) IV, I, III, II

122.
I He was so busy with them that he did not get time to eat.
II Thousands of people came to him and asked different types of
questions.
III No one cared to see if he had his food or rest that night.
IV Swami Vivekanand once stayed in a small village

(A) II, III, IV, I (B) III, II, I, IV

(C) IV, II, I, III (D) IV, II, III, I

123.
I The facts speak for themselves so they need exposition only, not
demonstration.
II At the present moment, it is widely recognised that India holds the balance
in the worldwide competition between rival ideologies.
III It is not, of course, only in geographical sense that India is in a key position.
IV India’s key position simply needs pointing out.

(A) IV, I, III, II (B) III, IV, I, II

(C) II, III, IV, I (D) II, IV, I, III

124.
I This feeling of being an extensive group gives rise to a fellow feeling, a
feeling of brotherhood among the citizens.
II This feeling takes us beyond the bounds of family, caste, religion and region
and helps us develop a broad perspective that we, i.e. all of us together
constitute an extensive group called the nation.
III National integration is the feeling among all the citizens of a country that
they are all a part of one nation.
IV We do not then limit our thinking to our own caste or religion, but think
about all the fellow citizens.

(A) III, IV, I, II (B) III, I, II, IV

(C) III, IV, II, I (D) III, II, I, IV

125.
I The peasant, the shoemaker, the sweeper and such other lower classes of
India have much greater capacity for work and self-reliance than you have.
II Remember that the nation lives in the cottage.
III They are producing the entire wealth of the land without a word of
complaint.
IV This process of production has been going through long ages.

(A) II, IV, I, III (B) II, IV, III, I

(C) IV, III, II, I (D) II, I, III, IV
 21

126. Which of the following is not a feature of Hinduism?

(A) Reverence for Veda (B) Belief in God

(C) Emphasis on ritualism (D) Doctrine of ahimsa

127. Who, according to Jains, was the founder of Jainism?

(A) Rishabha (B) Mahavira

(C) Arishtanemi (D) Parsavanatha

128. Zero was invented by

(A) Aryabhatta (B) Varahmihir

(C) Bhaskar I (D) An unknown Indian

129. Which of the following was built by Akbar?

(A) Agra Fort (B) Fort of Daulatabad

(C) Red Fort (D) Fort of Ahmednagar

130. ‘India for the Indians’ was the political message of

(A) Dayanand Saraswati (B) Swami Vivekananda

(C) A.O. Hume (D) Wacha

131. The slogan ‘Inquilab Zindabad’ was first raised by

(A) Lokmanya Tilak (B) Veer Savarkar

(C) Chandrashekhar Azad (D) Bhagat Singh

132. Which of the following planets is known as ‘Morning Star’?

(A) Mercury (B) Venus

(C) Mars (D) Jupiter

133. The earth is at the least distance from the sun (Perihelion) on

(A) December 22nd (B) January 3rd

(C) July 4th (D) June 21st

134. Because of which one of the following factors, clouds do not precipitate in deserts?

(A) Low Pressure (B) Low humidity

(C) High wind velocity (D) High temperature

135. The river Cauvery flows from

(A) Andhra Pradesh to Tamil Nadu (B) Karnataka to Maharashtra

(C) Karnataka to Tamil Nadu (D) Kerala to Tamil Nadu
 22

136. The last three digits of a PIN code represent

(A) zone (B) sub-zone

(C) sorting district (D) mailing route

137. A Scheduled Bank is one which is included in the

(A) II Schedule of Banking Regulation Act

(B) II Schedule of Constitution
(C) II Schedule of Reserve Bank of India Act
(D) III Schedule of Constitution

138. Which among the following formulates fiscal policy?

(A) RBI (B) Finance Ministry

(C) SEBI (D) Planning Commission

139. Which team won Ranji Trophy in January, 2017?

(A) Gujarat (B) West Bengal

(C) Rajasthan (D) Mumbai

140. Which Republic day was celebrated in 2017?

(A) 69th (B) 70th

(C) 68th (D) 67th

141. The headquarters of IMF and World bank are located at

(A) Geneva and Montreal (B) Geneva and Vienna

(C) New York and Geneva (D) Both at Washington DC

142. Who was the Republic Day parade chief guest on January 26th, 2017?

(A) Prime Minister Shinzo Abe

(B) President Barack Obama
(C) President François Hollande
(D) Crown Prince Mohammed bin Zayed Al Nahyan

143. If a match live commentary in Delhi commences at 10.00 am,at what time the viewer
at London should tune into?

(A) 4.00 a.m. (B) 4.30 a.m.

(C) 4.45 a.m. (D) 4.50 a.m.

144. World water day is celebrated on

(A) 22ndMarch (B) 3rdMarch

(C) 10thDecember (D) 8thMarch
 23

145. “Mission 41K” has been launched by which Union Ministry to save energy?

(A) Ministry of Urban Development

(B) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
(C) Ministry of Finance
(D) Ministry of Railways

146. India’s largest public WiFi service has been launched by which state government?

(A) Kerala (B) Himachal Pradesh

(C) Maharashtra (D) Karnataka

147. The book “My Odyssey: Memoirs of the Man behind the Mangalyaan Mission” has
been authored by whom?

(A) G. Madhavan Nair (B) K. Radhakrishnan

(C) Shailesh Nayak (D) A.S. Kiran Kumar

148. “Aditya” India’s first-ever solar powered boat has been launched in which state?

(A) Gujarat (B) Kerala

(C) Tamil Nadu (D) Karnataka

149. Which Indian cricketer has been inducted into Legends Club “Hall of Fame”?

(A) Kapil Dev (B) Nari Contractor

(C) Sunil Gavaskar (D) Ajit Wadekar

150. Last year, the Supreme Court of India appointed which committee to suggest reforms
in structure and functioning of the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI).

(A) Justice(Retd.) P. Sathasivam committee

(B) Justice (Retd.) H.L. Dattu committee
(C) Justice (Retd.) R.M. Lodha committee
(D) Justice (Retd.) Altamas Kabir committee

***