Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.

-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075

Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Admission-cum-Scholarship Test
(Sample Paper)
(Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads & Class VIII-2017)
(Syllabus of the Test : Science & Mathematics of Class VII)

Time : 2 Hrs.
Test Booklet Code : A
Max.Marks : 360

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. The initial 10 minutes are earmarked for the candidates to carefully read the instructions. (Note : The
candidates are not allowed to either look inside the question booklet or start answering during these
initial 10 minutes.)
2. The question booklet and the answer sheet are issued separately at the start of the examination.
3. This question booklet contains 90 questions.
4. Read each question carefully.
5. Determine the correct answer, one out of the four available choices given under each question.
6. It is mandatory to use a Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to darken the appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
7. For each correct answer, four marks will be awarded. There is no negative marking.
For Example
Q. 12 in the Question Booklet is : Which one is known as ‘black gold’?
(Answer Sheet)
(1) Old gold Q.12.    
(2) Petroleum
(3) Silver
(4) Coal
Thus as the correct answer is choice 2, the candidate should darken completely (with a blue/black Ball
point pen only) the circle corresponding to choice 2 against Question No. 12 on the Answer Sheet. If
more than one circle is darkened for a given question such answer will be rejected.
8. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on the answer sheet. No change in the answer once
marked is allowed. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, the candidate should check
that Roll No. and Test-Booklet code have been filled and marked correctly.
9. Rough work should be done only on the space provided in the question booklet.
10. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Answer sheet and Question booklet
are to be returned to the invigilator. If the candidate wants to leave the examination hall before time,
he/she should hand over the question paper and answer sheet to the invigilator. However, no student can
leave the examination hall before half time.
Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads & Class VIII-2017 Sample Paper

SCIENCE
Choose the correct answer :

1. The bob of a pendulum of given length is first 3. When current in a fuse wire, connected in a circuit,
released from position A and then from position B exceeds its safe limit
as shown. The ratio of its time periods in the first (1) Fuse wire continues absorbing extra current
case and the second case will be (2) Fuse causes the wires to come in direct
contact
(3) Fuse blows off and breaks the circuit
(4) Fire is caused in the electrical appliances
4. The range of a laboratory thermometer is from
A
(1) 35ºC to 42ºC (2) –10ºC to 110ºC
(mean B (3) 35ºF to 42ºF (4) –10ºF to 110ºF
position)
5. Select the correct relation between speed, distance
and time.
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
Speed
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 (1) Distance =
Time
2. In the shown diagram, the reading of the (2) Distance = Speed × Time
thermometer is correctly read by the person Time
(3) Distance =
Speed
D
1
(4) Distance =
Speed × Time

A 6. The rear view device in a car is actually a

(1) Plane mirror (2) Convex mirror
B (3) Concave mirror (4) Convex lens
7. For the simple pendulum shown below, one
oscillation is said to be completed for the path
C
traced as

A C
B
(1) A (2) B (1) A – B – C (2) A – B – C – B
(3) C (4) D (3) A – B – C – B – A (4) A – B – C – B – A – B

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Sample Paper Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads & Class VIII-2017

8. A bus travels 36 km in 90 minutes. The speed of 12. The inner and outer side of a shining steel spoon
the bus is appears respectively as

(1) 10 m/s (2) 6.67 m/s (1) Convex and concave mirror

(3) 4.2 m/s (4) 9 m/s (2) Concave and convex mirror

9. A prism splits incident sunlight into _______ (3) Both concave mirror
colours. (4) Both convex mirror
13. Which of the following distance time graphs
corresponds to an object at rest?

Distance
Distance
(1) (2)

(1) Five (2) Seven Time Time

(3) Eight (4) Nine

10. If a person tries to blow a paper ball into a bottle

Distance
Distance
as shown in figure, the ball
(3) (4)

Bottle
Time Time

14. Mark the incorrect statement among the following.

(1) Moves in as air near the mouth has higher (1) Speed of an object is given by the distance
speed travelled by it per unit time
(2) Moves in as air inside the bottle has low
(2) A nano second is one billionth of a second
pressure
(3) The motion in a straight line is called uniform
(3) Stays there as pressure inside and outside the
motion
bottle becomes equal
(4) An oscillating simple pendulum undergoes
(4) Is pushed out as the air pressure inside
periodic motion
becomes higher than that near the mouth
15. A person driving a car observes the readings of its
11. Select the correct way of connecting three cells to
odometer in a time gap of 15 minutes to be
make a battery
36580 km and 36590 km. The average speed of the
+ + + + + car in this time period is
(1) (2)
– – – – – (1) 10 km/h
(2) 40 km/h
+ + +

(3) (4) (3) 20 km/h

– – –
(4) 5 km/h

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Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads & Class VIII-2017 Sample Paper

16. Which of the following fibres can be obtained from 23. Ram took 50 mL HCl and 50 mL NaOH in separate
animals without hurting them? beakers and mixed them in a container. What will
(1) Wool (2) Silk happen?
(3) Cotton (4) Jute (1) Heat will be released
17. Match the following and choose the correct option. (2) Heat will be absorbed
Column I Column II (3) No change will take place
a. Amla (i) Oxalic acid (4) Chlorine gas will be evolved
b. Soap (ii) Tartaric acid
24. On adding an iron blade in the blue coloured
c. Spinach (iii) Ascorbic acid solution of copper sulphate the colour of the
d. Grapes (iv) Potassium hydroxide solution becomes
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (1) Dirty green (2) Red
(2) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (3) Black (4) Yellow
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
25. The correct order of the steps employed to obtain
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) wool from sheep is
18. Which of the following can be rubbed on skin to
(1) Shearing, scouring, sorting, dyeing
neutralise the effect of an acid released during an
ant bite? (2) Scouring, sorting, shearing, dyeing

(i) Zinc carbonate solution (3) Sorting, scouring, shearing, dyeing

(ii) Baking soda solution (4) Scouring, shearing, sorting, dyeing
(iii) Vinegar solution 26. The stages in the life history of silk moth are shown
(1) Only (i) (2) (ii) & (iii) below. Stage d and e respectively are
(3) (i) & (ii) (4) Only (iii)
19. Which of the following involves a chemical change?
(1) Rusting (2) Boiling
(3) Crystallisation (4) Galvanisation
(a) Male (b) Female
20. If 900 mL of water takes 30 minutes to percolate
Adult silk moth
in the soil then the rate of percolation is
(1) 2700 mL/min (2) 0.03 min/mL
(3) 90 mL/min (4) 30 mL/min
21. Which of the following soils is suitable to cultivate
cotton crop? (c) Eggs on mulberry leaves (d) ?

(1) Clayey soil (2) Loamy clay

(3) Sandy loam (4) Clayey loam
22. The process of depositing a layer of zinc on iron (e) ? (f) Cocoon with developing moth
is called
(1) Crystallisation (2) Rusting (1) Cocoon, silkworm (2) Moth, cocoon
(3) Galvanisation (4) Neutralisation (3) Cocoon, moth (4) Silkworm, cocoon

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Sample Paper Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads & Class VIII-2017

27. Often the stains of curry turn red on washing 32. An animal has two thick layers of fur and a thick
clothes with soap. This change in colour occurs layer of fat under its skin. This animal is adapted
because indicator X turns red in basic medium. to live in
Indicator X is (1) Grass lands
(1) Methyl orange (2) Litmus
(2) Tropical rainforests
(3) Phenolphthalein (4) Turmeric
(3) Hot and dry climate
28. A drop of phenolphthalein is added to sodium
hydroxide solution and the colour gets changed (4) Polar regions
into 33. How many items given in the box are obtained from
(1) Colourless (2) Pink the forests?
(3) Yellow (4) Blue Gum, Catechu, Synthetic silk, Glass, Wax,
29. Consider the following statements. Plastic ware, Nylon.
Statement-I : Burning is a chemical change
(1) Two (2) Three
Statement-II : Burning is always accompanied by
production of heat (3) Five (4) Seven

Choose the correct option. 34. Tiny pores present on the surface of leaves are
(1) Statement I is correct, statement II is incorrect surrounded by
(2) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is correct (1) Stomata
(3) Both the statements are correct (2) Guard cells
(4) Both the statements are incorrect (3) Vessels
30. The gas produced when vinegar is added to baking
(4) Cell membrane
soda solution is
35. In the given figure, different regions of the tongue
(1) Carbon dioxide
for different tastes are labelled as A, B, C and D.
(2) Oxygen The region which detect bitter taste is
(3) Hydrogen
A
(4) Sulphur dioxide
31. Read the statements carefully and choose the
B
correct option.
C
Statement-1 : Water is essential for all living
beings. D

Statment-2 : The water which is fit for domestic (1) A (2) B

use is sea water. (3) C (4) D
(1) Both the statements are correct 36. We feel choking sensation, when food particles
(2) Both the statements are incorrect enter the

(3) Only statement-1 is correct (1) Windpipe (2) Foodpipe

(4) Only statement-2 is correct (3) Mouth (4) Stomach

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Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads & Class VIII-2017 Sample Paper

37. In the given sketch diagram, 'X' and 'Y' are blood 42. Seeds of how many plant(s) given in the box is/are
vessels. 'X' carries deoxygenated blood to lungs dispersed by wind?
and 'Y' carries oxygenated blood to the heart.
Identify 'X' and 'Y'. Coconut, Drumstick, Xanthium, Grass, Maple

Lungs (1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Four

'X' 'Y'
43. Blood cells

Heart

A B C
X Y
Fight against Help in the Contain a red
(1) Aorta Vena cava germs that formation coloured pigment
may enter of clots
(2) Vena cava Aorta our body

(3) Pulmonary artery Pulmonary vein Identify A, B and C.

(4) Pulmonary vein Pulmonary artery (1) A – Platelets, B – WBCs, C – RBCs

38. Grass  'P'  Frog  Snake  Eagle (2) A – WBCs, B – RBCs, C – Platelets

In the given food chain the component 'P' represents (3) A – WBCs, B – Platelets, C – RBCs
a (4) A – RBCs, B – WBCs, C – Platelets
(1) Producer (2) Herbivore 44. In lichens, 'X' provides shelter, water and minerals
(3) Carnivore (4) Decomposer to 'Y' which in return, provides food to 'X'. Identify
39. 'X' and 'Y'.

(1) 'X' – Alga and 'Y' – Fungus

(2) 'X' – Bacterium and 'Y' – Alga

(3) 'X' – Fungus and 'Y' – Alga

(4) 'X' – Virus and 'Y' – Fungus

The mode of reproduction shown in the diagram is
45. Which of the following features of elephants help
(1) Spore formation (2) Budding
them to survive in the rainforests?
(3) Fragmentation (4) Vegetative propagation
(i) Sharp eyesight
40. The lime water turns milky when a gas 'X' is
(ii) Large ears
passed through it. Gas 'X' is
(iii) Strong sense of smell
(1) CO2 (2) O2
(iv) Presence of tusks
(3) CO (4) Water vapour
(1) (ii) and (iv)
41. Which of the following is the excretory product of
birds and snakes? (2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(1) Urea (2) Ammonia (3) (iii) and (iv)
(3) Uric acid (4) Glucose (4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

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Sample Paper Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads & Class VIII-2017

MATHEMATICS
46. Order of rotational symmetry of alphabet H is 55. –42 × 3 × (–5) × (–7) is equal to
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) (–3) × (15) × (–294)
(2) (–15) × 294
(3) 3 (4) 4
(3) (–3) × (–5) × 7 × 42
47. On the number line, the value of (–7) × (–7) lies on
(4) (–3) × 35 × 42 × 3
left hand side of
56. How many non-zero digits will be there to the right
(1) 0 (2) –7 of the decimal point in the product of 0.225 and
(3) 48 (4) 100 0.0024?
48. The median of set of numbers : 13, 19, 8, 5, 14 is (1) 4 (2) 2
(3) 6 (4) 7
(1) 8 (2) 5
57. Sonam is 25 years younger than Anil. After 15
(3) 13 (4) 14
years, if the ratio of Sonam's age to Anil's age
49. 731 × (–7)11 is equal to would be 2 : 3, then the sum of the present ages
(1) 720 (2) –720 of Sonam and Anil is
(1) 60 years (2) 95 years
(3) 742 (4) –742
(3) 65 years (4) 80 years
50. 159x3y + 38yx3 is a like term of 58. In the given ABC, ABD = 40º, AB = BC and
(1) 10xy (2) 138xy3 AD is the bisector of BAC. The measure of
(3) 159yx3 (4) 13x2y2 ADC is
A
51. The circumference of a circle of diameter 3.5 cm
is
(1) 22 cm (2) 11 cm
22
(3) cm (4) 21 cm
7 40º
B D C
52. Which of the following is not a criterion for
congruence of two triangles? (1) 40º (2) 60º

(1) SSS (2) SAS (3) 100º (4) 75º

(3) ASA (4) SSA 59. In the given figure, ABCD is a rhombus and COBE
is a rectangle. Which of the following is incorrect?
53. 0.037 is equal to
A B
(1) 0.037% (2) 0.37%
(3) 3.7% (4) 37%
O E
54. In a triangle ABC, if AB = 6 cm, A = 30º and
B = 100º, then it can be constructed using D C
(1) SSA criterion (2) SAS criterion (1) AOD CEB (2) DOA CEB
(3) ASA criterion (4) RHS criterion (3) AOD COD (4) AOD COB

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Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads & Class VIII-2017 Sample Paper

60. Rohan deposited `25000 in two accounts. He 68. A shopkeeper bought a wallet for ` 3600 and a
deposited some amount in saving account at watch for ` 4800. He sold the watch at a loss of
simple interest at 6% per annum and remaining
8% but made a profit of 12% on the wallet. The net
amount in fixed deposit at 12% per annum simple
gain or loss percent in the whole transaction was
interest. If he gets `5700 as total interest after
2 years, then the amount he deposited in fixed 4 11
deposit is (1) Loss % (2) Loss %
7 7
(1) `22500 (2) `15000
11 4
(3) `10000 (4) `12500 (3) Gain % (4) Gain %
7 7
61. The next number in the pattern –74, –47, –20 is
−8 −7 11 4
(1) 27 (2) 20 ⎛2⎞ ⎛3⎞ ⎛5⎞ ⎛3⎞
69. The value of ⎜ ⎟  ⎜ ⎟ × ⎜ ⎟ × ⎜ ⎟ is
(3) 7 (4) 12 ⎝7⎠ ⎝7⎠ ⎝2⎠ ⎝5⎠
62. A sphere has _____ edges.
(1) 23 × 33 × 5–7 × 7
(1) 2 (2) 1
(3) 0 (4) 3 (2) 2–19 × 311 × 5–7 × 72
63. Which of the following equations has 4 as its
solution? (3) 2–19 × 311 × 57 × 7

x (4) 211 × 3–19 × 5 × 715

(1) +1= 4 (2) 2x + 1 = 7
2
70. If the arithmetic mean of 12, 14, x and 10 is 11,
3x then the value of x is
(3) 4x – 9 = 7 (4) −5 = 2
4 (1) 6 (2) 16
64. Which of the following triplets can be the angles of
(3) 8 (4) 10
a triangle?
(1) 100º, 80º, 20º (2) 85º, 75º, 30º 1
71. A ribbon of length 6 m is cut into small pieces
(3) 45º, 65º, 70º (4) 70º, 90º, 40º 4
5
65. If two complementary angles are in the ratio 3 : 2, each of length m. The number of such pieces
then the larger of them is 4
will be
(1) 48º (2) 63º
(3) 54º (4) 72º (1) 5 (2) 7

66. 35a3b3 – 23a3b3 is equal to (3) 8 (4) 9

(1) 58 (2) 12
72. A coin is tossed 12 times and the outcomes are
(3) 58a3b3 (4) 12a3b3
recorded as : HHTHTHTTHTHH
67. Manish bent a wire in the form of a circle of radius
21 cm. He again bent it into a rectangle of breadth The probability of occurrence of a head is
32 cm. If A is the area of the circle and B is the
area of the rectangle, then which of the following is 5 1
(1) (2)
true? 12 2
(1) A < B (2) A = B 7 1
(3) (4)
(3) A > 2B (4) A > B 12 3

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Sample Paper Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads & Class VIII-2017

73. In the given figure, O is the mid-point of both PR 78. Statement-1 and statement-2 are as given below.
and QS. Which of the following is always true? Statement-1 : If two parallel lines are intersected
by a transversal, then the corresponding angles
P S
are congruent.
2 3
Statement-2 : If the transversal is perpendicular to
O the parallel lines, then all the angles formed are
congruent to 90º.
1 4
Choose the correct option :
Q R
(1) Both statements are true
(1) 2 = 3 (2) 1 = 4 (2) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false
(3) 2 = 4 (4) 1 = 2 (3) Statement-1 is false and statement-2 is true
(4) Both statements are false
74. is a net pattern for a
79. In the given figure, BAD_______
(1) Cube
A 3.4 cm
D
(2) Cone 45º
(3) Square base pyramid
(4) Cylinder
75. If 3n + 3 – 3n + 2 + 3n + 1 – 3n = k × 3n, then the
value of k is 45º
B C
3.4 cm
(1) 22 (2) 24
(1) DBC (2) DCB
(3) 20 (4) 32
(3) BDC (4) ADC
76. If l || m and PQ is a transversal, then which of the
15% of 30% of 600%
following is always not true? 80. is equal to
27  100
P (1) 0.01% (2) 0.3%
4 1
3 l (3) 0.06% (4) 1%
2
81. In the given figure, ABCD is a square of side
8 cm. The area of the shaded region is
8 5 2 cm
7
m A B
6
Q

(1) 4 + 5 = 180º (2) 2 + 5 = 180º

2 cm 2 cm
(3) 3 + 8 = 180º (4) 2 + 8 = 180º
77. In standard form, the number 864305.9 is written
as 8.643059 × 10n, where n is equal to D C
2 cm
(1) 3 (2) 6 (1) 36 cm2 (2) 44 cm2
(3) 5 (4) 4 (3) 48 cm2 (4) 32 cm2

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Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads & Class VIII-2017 Sample Paper

82. If in PQR, M is a point on the side QR, then 87. Which of the following is correct?
which of the following is true?
0 10
(1) PQ + QR + RP < 2PM (1)  10 (2) 0
10 0
(2) PQ + QR + RP = 2PM
(3) PQ + QR + RP > 2PM 10 0 0
(3)  (4) 0
(4) PQ + QR + RP  2PM 0 10 10

83. The perimeter and area of a parallelogram with 88. Which of the following is not true?
equal sides are 36 cm and 90 cm2 respectively. Its
(1) 1 cm2 = 100 mm2
altitude is
(1) 7 cm (2) 8 cm (2) 1 dm2 = 10000 mm2

(3) 9 cm (4) 10 cm (3) 1 hectare = 1000 m2

84. A man 180 cm tall is at a distance of 320 cm from (4) 1 m2 = 10000 cm2
the foot of a light source situated at the top of a
89. In the given figure, if l || m, then the value of x is
pole. If the total height of the light source and the
pole is 4.2 m, then the shortest distance between
the top of the man and the source of light is l
(1) 380 cm (2) 350 cm 95º
(3) 370 cm (4) 400 cm
85. "Sum of two integers is less than both the m
integers". This is possible only when 135º x
(1) Both are positive integers
(2) Both are negative integers
(3) Larger number is negative and smaller is
positive (1) 45º (2) 50º
(4) Smaller number is negative and larger is (3) 57º (4) 60º
positive
3 1– p ⎞ 3
4 1 1 1 2 3 90. If  7 p – 1 – ⎛⎜ 2p – ⎟  p  , then the value
86. The value of 3 – 4  2  3 – 5 – 2 is 4 ⎝ 2 ⎠ 2
7 6 3 8 7 5
of p is
2539 2359
(1) (2)
840 840 8
(1) –8 (2)
–2539 –2359 3
(3) (4)
840 840 (3) 1 (4) –3

  

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 Test Booklet Code: A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Admission-cum-Scholarship Test
(Sample Paper)
(Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads & Class VIII-2017)

Answers

1. (3) 19. (1) 37. (3) 55. (2) 73. (3)

2. (2) 20. (4) 38. (2) 56. (2) 74. (4)
3. (3) 21. (3) 39. (3) 57. (2) 75. (3)
4. (2) 22. (3) 40. (1) 58. (4) 76. (4)
5. (2) 23. (1) 41. (3) 59. (1) 77. (3)
6. (2) 24. (1) 42. (3) 60. (1) 78. (1)
7. (3) 25. (1) 43. (3) 61. (3) 79. (2)
8. (2) 26. (4) 44. (3) 62. (3) 80. (1)
9. (2) 27. (4) 45. (2) 63. (3) 81. (1)
10. (4) 28. (2) 46. (2) 64. (3) 82. (3)
11. (3) 29. (3) 47. (4) 65. (3) 83. (4)
12. (2) 30. (1) 48. (3) 66. (4) 84. (4)
13. (2) 31. (3) 49. (4) 67. (4) 85. (2)
14. (3) 32. (4) 50. (3) 68. (4) 86. (3)
15. (2) 33. (2) 51. (2) 69. (3) 87. (4)
16. (1) 34. (2) 52. (4) 70. (3) 88. (3)
17. (3) 35. (1) 53. (3) 71. (1) 89. (2)
18. (3) 36. (1) 54. (3) 72. (3) 90. (3)